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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 24th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Hamoon Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: The cyclonic storm “Hamoon” that has formed over the Bay of Bengal has rapidly intensified into a severe cyclonic storm as per recent reports. About Hamoon:- IMAGE SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Cyclone Hamoon is brewing near India over the Bay of Bengal. Southern states in India are likely to witness rainfall this week. According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD), a deep depression over the West central Bay of Bengal likely to intensify into a Cyclonic Storm during the next 6 hours.( Colour Coded Weather Warning) Cyclones Tej and Hamoon are considered to be twin cyclones that developed over the north Indian Ocean. The last such twin cyclones ‘Luban’ and ‘Titli’ were recorded in 2018. About Cyclone:- A cyclone is a pattern of winds (or air mass) that circulates a low-pressure system. It rotates counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. It is typically associated with wet and stormy weather. (Naming of Cyclone) Classification:- There are two types of cyclones: Tropical cyclones and Extra-tropical cyclones (also called Temperate cyclones) Tropical cyclone:- It is an intense circular storm that originates over warm tropical oceans. It is characterized by low atmospheric pressure, high winds, and heavy rain. These are formed over slightly warm ocean waters. The temperature of the top layer of the sea, up to a depth of about 60 meters, needs to be at least 28°C to support the formation of a cyclone. April-May and October-December periods are conducive for cyclones. Then, the low level of air above the waters needs to have an ‘anticlockwise’ rotation (in the northern hemisphere; clockwise in the southern hemisphere). During these periods, there was an ITCZ in the Bay of Bengal. Extratropical cyclones:- It occurs in temperate zones and high-latitude regions, though they are known to originate in the Polar Regions. These are active above the mid-latitudinal region between 35° and 65° latitude in both hemispheres. The direction of movement is from west to east and is more pronounced in the winter seasons. MUST READ: Bomb Cyclone SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Dengue Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY-HEALTH Context: Dengue cases upsurge have been reported in various Indian states recently. Background:- Dengue and other vector-borne diseases which have afflicted one in four Indian families with one or more members over the last three years, according to a survey by social media platform Local Circles, have seen a fresh upsurge in recent weeks across states. About Dengue:- Dengue is a vector-borne disease transmitted by the bite of an infected female Aedes Aegypti The mosquito becomes infected when it feeds on the blood of a person infected with the virus. There are 4 serotypes of the virus that cause dengue. These are known as DEN-1, DEN-2, DEN-3, and DEN-4. Dengue cannot be spread directly from person to person. Most cases occur in tropical areas of the world, including the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, Southern China, Taiwan, the Pacific Islands, the Caribbean, Mexico, Africa, and Central, and South Symptoms:- High fever Headache Vomiting Muscle and joint pains Skin Rash The diagnosis of dengue infection is done with a blood test. WHO estimates 39 crore dengue virus infections per year, of which 9.6 crore show symptoms. Vaccines:- DNA vaccines induce an adaptive immune response. (Controlling Dengue Using Wolbachia Bacteria) DNA vaccines are often referred to as third-generation vaccines. They use engineered DNA to induce an immunologic response in the host against bacteria, parasites, viruses, and potentially cancer. The vaccines that are currently available to the global population include those for measles, mumps, rubella, seasonal influenza virus, tetanus, polio, Hepatitis B, cervical cancer, diphtheria, pertussis as well as several other diseases that are endemic to certain regions of the world. MUST READ: Malaria Vaccine SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: (2021) Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO) Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO) has surpassed the Quantum Limit. About Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO):- IMAGE SOURCE: LIGO-India gets the green light | Astronomy.com LIGO is an international network of laboratories. It aims to detect the ripples in spacetime produced by the movement of large celestial objects. It comprises two enormous laser interferometers located thousands of kilometres apart, each having two arms which are 4 km long. It exploits the physical properties of light and of space itself to detect and understand the origins of Gravitational Waves (GW). Gravitational Waves: These are invisible ripples in space that form when: A star explodes in a supernova. Two big stars orbit each other. Two black holes merge. Neutron star-Black hole (NS-BH) merges. They travel at the speed of light (1,86,000 miles per second) and squeeze and stretch anything in their path. These were proposed by Albert Einstein in his General Theory of Relativity. However, the first gravitational wave was actually detected by LIGO only in 2015. LIGO detectors:- Four comparable detectors will be operating simultaneously around the globe to localize a source of gravitational waves anywhere in the sky. (International Space Station (ISS)) The twin LIGO initially built were, in Louisiana (first) and Washington (second) in the U.S. LIGO-India will be the third of its kind in the world. (Space Economy of India) The fourth detector will be in Kagra, Japan. LIGO: an international network of laboratories that detect gravitational waves. The LIGO in the US first detected gravitational waves in 2015, which led to a Nobel Prize in Physics in 2017. Its detector components are completely isolated and sheltered from the outside world. Unlike optical or radio telescopes, it does not see electromagnetic radiation because gravitational waves are not part of the electromagnetic spectrum. It doesn’t need to collect light from stars. it doesn’t need to be round or dish-shaped like optical telescope mirrors or radio telescope dishes, both of which focus EM radiation to produce images.  MUST READ: SpaceTech Innovation Network (SpIN) SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements (2022) Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. Nanoparticles of the same commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 Nano DAP fertilize Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, Union Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurated India’s first liquid nano di-ammonia phosphate (DAP) fertilizer plant. Background:- Talking to Akashvani, IFFCO chairman Dilip Sanghani said this plant will hugely benefit the farmers and also help reduce the import of DAP in the country. About nano DAP fertilizer:- Establishment:2023. Established by: Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO ) Place: Kalol in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. It is India’s first liquid nano-ammonia phosphate (DAP) plant. Nano liquid DAP fertilizeris is a concentrated phosphate-based fertilizer. DAP is the second most consumed fertilizer in the country after urea. It provides phosphorous nutrition throughout the crop growth and development cycle. Advantages:- Diammonium phosphate (DAP) is the world’s most widely used phosphorus fertilizer. (Fertilizer sector in India) DAP is the second most consumed fertilizer in the country after urea. Nano-DAP will help to bring down India’s fertilizer import bill. It is also expected to contribute to bringing down the annual subsidy on non-urea fertilizers. Significance:- It is an important beginning to make India self-reliant in the field of fertilizers. It is expected to boost India’s food grain production, ensuring food security. MUST READ: Reforming the Fertilizer Sector SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following organisms perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 International Film Festival of India IFFI-2023 Syllabus Prelims –AWARDS Context: Recent announcements indicate that 25 feature films and 20 non-feature films are to be screened under the Indian Panorama section of the International Film Festival of India IFFI-2023 this year. About the International Film Festival of India IFFI-2023:- Date: 20th to 28th of November. Venue: Goa. Organized by: National Film Development Corporation of India Ltd (NFDC). Ministry: Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. Historical Background:- Since 1952, India has hosted 53 International Film Festival of India (IFFI) both competitive and non-competitive. The festival became an annual event from 1975 onwards. The 54th edition of the festival, which includes a competition for feature films by Directors from all Continents will be held in Goa. Government of India in collaboration with the State Government of Goa and the Indian Film Industry. The Festival is recognized by the International Federation of Film Producers Associations (FIAPF) as a Competitive Feature Film Festival. Objectives:- providing a common platform for filmmakers of the world to project their excellence in film art. contributing to the understanding and appreciation of film cultures of different nations in the context of their social and cultural ethos promoting friendship and co-operation among people of the world. Categories:- The festival programme is broadly divided into the following categories: – International Competition for Feature Films (up to 15 numbers. Up to three Indian Films will be selected for this section. Fiction Films with a minimum duration of 70 minutes and above). Non-Competition (World Panorama) – for feature films from around the world ( Films with a minimum duration of 70 minutes and above). Country Focus & other specially curated packages (Indian & Foreign) and Special Screenings/Gala Premieres. Indian Panorama – for Indian feature films, Indian Panorama Regulations 2023 will be applicable. Technical Workshops/Masterclasses/other Interactive and academic Sessions/Panel Discussions/Talent Hub etc. both virtual and physical. Film Bazaar: IFFI also hosts the Film Bazaar, South Asia’s largest and One of Asia’s most prolific Film Markets showcasing rich content to potential buyers from different countries across the world. National Film Development Corporation Ltd (NFDC) reserves the right to exclude films that are not in conformity with the philosophy and objective of the festival, which could offend the feelings/susceptibilities of any participating country, or are likely to promote discrimination of any kind. Awards & Prizes:- Best Film: A Cash prize of Rs. 40,00,000/- to be shared equally between the Director and Producer. (The urgent need for CBFC reforms) Director to be given the Golden Peacock and a Certificate in addition to the cash component. Producer to be given a Certificate in addition to the cash component. Best Director: Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs.15,00,000/- Best Actor (Male): Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/- Best Actor (Female): Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/- Special Jury Award: Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 15,00,000/- given to a film (for any aspect of the film which the jury wishes to award/acknowledge) or an individual (for his/her artistic contribution to a film). The award, if given to a film, will be given to the Director of the film. Award for Best Debut Feature Film of a Director. Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award for Excellence in Cinema This prestigious award, instituted in the name of legendry filmmaker Satyajit Ray, consisting of a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/-, certificate, shawl, Medal (Silver Peacock) and a scroll, is conferred upon a master filmmaker/film techniciana/film personalities for his / her outstanding contribution to cinema. Indian Film Personality of the Year Award This prestigious award consisting of a cash prize of Rs 10, 00,000/-, certificate, shawl and Medal (Silver Peacock) is conferred upon an Indian film personality for his/her outstanding contribution to Indian Cinema. ICFT UNESCO – Gandhi Medal Award The Gandhi Medal Award is given to a film reflecting UNESCO’s fundamental mandate of building peace in the minds of men and women, particularly human rights.  MUST READ: Golden Globes Award SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Mains: UNBORN CHILD AND WOMEN’S RIGHTS Syllabus      GS-II The Supreme Court of India recently denied permission to a 27-year-old married woman who was in her 26th week of pregnancy, seeking legal permission to terminate her pregnancy. The woman asserted her physical, emotional, mental, financial, and medical inability to carry, deliver, or raise another child, citing her pre-existing conditions and experiences with postpartum depression. The Court expressed reluctance to order a medical termination when the pregnancy is viable and does not pose an immediate threat to the woman’s life. This judgment led to a debate over unborn child rights. RIGHTS OF THE UNBORN CHILD Woman does not have an absolute right of autonomy to exercise her reproductive rights in a way that would compromise the rights of the unborn child. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act of 2021, extended the deadline for abortion to 24 weeks in exceptional circumstances, which is allowed only if necessary to save the life of the mother or in cases of a fatal deformity detected in the fetus. If there is a viable baby, the relief cannot be one-sided. The State has a responsibility to protect the life of the child, especially since a medical opinion suggests a chance of survival. Justice Hima Kohli agrees that the woman should not be permitted to terminate the pregnancy. Her opinion aligns with the idea that the rights of the unborn child and the State’s responsibility should be considered. RIGHT OF THE PREGNANT WOMEN Paramount Consideration to the mother’s well-being, privacy, and dignity. If any woman has taken a conscious decision not to have the baby, then this decision should be respected, taking into account the woman’s mental condition and her inability to care for her unborn child. Justice B.V. Nagarathna emphasized that the woman’s decision should be respected and consideration of the woman’s socio-economic situation is must. She also points out that this is not a case of a viable baby being born or unborn, and the priority should be given to the interests of the woman. CONCLUSION The balance between the rights of unborn children and women’s rights is often complex and context-dependent. It is typically addressed through a combination of legal, ethical, medical, and personal considerations. Ultimately, resolving this issue is a matter of societal values, legal frameworks, and individual choices, and it varies from one jurisdiction to another.   Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Disease Caused by 1.Chikungunya Chikungunya virus 2.Dengue Dengue viruses 3.Malaria Rhinovirus How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The International Film Festival of India IFFI-2023 will be held in Mumbai. Statement-II: The award for Best Director will get a Silver Peacock, a Certificate and a cash prize of Rs.15,00,000/- Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to cyclone Hamoon, consider the following statements: Cyclones Tej and Hamoon are considered to be twin cyclones that developed over the north Indian Ocean. The last twin cyclones ‘Luban’ and ‘Titli’ were recorded in 2008. It developed over the Arabian Sea. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  24th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 21st October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) -b  Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 25th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Patachitra paintings Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: In a village in Bengal, a unique tradition of creating Durga traces its origins to Odisha’s Patachitra paintings. Background:- The ‘pat er Durga’, where the Goddess Durga is created on cloth instead of the more conventional clay, traces its origins to Odisha’s Patachitra paintings. About Patachitra paintings:- Pattachitra art is one of the oldest forms of art from Pattachitra – giving the art form its name. Pattachitra paintings come from Orissa in the 5th century. The earliest records of Pattachitra art come from the village of Puri. Pattachitra art is still popular in this region today.  (Madhubani painting) The craftsmen behind this art form are known as ‘Maharanas’ and ‘Mohapatras’. Puri was originally established by King Narasingha Deva 1 of the 13th-century Eastern Ganga dynasty. (Mural Art) The artists who live in this village trace their origins back to the Savar tribe. Pattachitra paintings originally emerged of three deities (Jagannath and his brother and sister). It was a means for devotees to worship them when the idols were kept away for the 15 days following the bathing. This style of art was originally known as ‘Anasar Patti’ in honour of the 15 days of seclusion before becoming known as Pattachitra. The word ‘pattachitra’ means cloth painting and comes from the two words ‘pata’ and ‘chitra’. This type of art form is known as scroll painting and was typically carried out on cloth. This art style was used to depict images of Hindu mythological stories and fascinating characters. It has distinctive bold colours and Italian craftsmanship. These paintings incorporate Indian customs, rituals, and values in a unique and beautiful way that celebrates the Hindu faith and religion. This traditional art has evolved to appear in clothing and accessories, becoming living art that you can incorporate into your everyday life. MUST READ: Ancient rock paintings SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the cultural history of India, which one of the following is the correct description of the term ‘paramitas’? (2020) The earliest Dharmashastra texts written in aphoristic (sutra) style Philosophical schools that did not accept the authority of Vedas Perfections whose attainment led to the Bodhisattva path Powerful merchant guilds of early medieval South India Q.2) The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings (2017) Ajanta Badami Bagh Ellora Gaganyaan Syllabus Prelims –SPACE Context: After an initial hiccup recently, the ISRO’s Gaganyaan mission safety test flight was successfully tested. About Gaganyaan:- Planned Launch:2023. Agency: Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Country: INDIA. Rocket: GSLV Mk-III. GSLV Mk-III: it is also called the LVM-3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-3,) the three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle. Gaganyaan is India’s 1st Human spaceflight programme to be launched by 2023. It envisages a demonstration of human spaceflight capability by launching a crew of 3 members to an orbit of 400 km for a 3-day mission and bringing them back safely to earth, by landing in Indian sea waters. Timeline so far:- It includes two unmanned flights which were to be launched in December 2020 and July 2021 and one human space flight to be launched in December 2021. However, due to COVID-19 Pandemic it got delayed. The Mission specifications:- The Gaganyaan system module, called the Orbital Module will have three Indian astronauts. It will include a It will circle Earth at a low-earth orbit at an altitude of 300-400 km from Earth for 5-7 days. The payload will consist of:- Crew module – spacecraft carrying human beings. Service module – powered by two liquid propellant engines. The crew members will be selected by the IAF and ISR. Crew will perform micro-gravity and other scientific experiments for a week. Training in Russia: In June 2019, the Human Space Flight Centre of the ISRO and the Russian government-owned Glavkosmos signed a contract for the training, which includes Russian support in the selection of candidates, their medical examination, and space training. Significance:- It will make India the 4th country to send a manned mission after Russia, the USA and China. Employment generation. Technological advancement.  MUST READ: India – USA space cooperation SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fueled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Ajinomoto Syllabus Prelims – science and technology Context: Recently the impact of Ajinomoto on the human body was explored. Background:- Ajinomoto is widely used in processed foods, restaurant cuisine, and fast-food items About Ajinomoto:- Ajinomoto is a brand name for monosodium glutamate (MSG), a common food additive used to enhance the flavour of foods. MSG is a flavour enhancer that adds an umami taste to food, which is often described as a savoury, meaty, or brothy flavour. It is rich in sodium, a component of salt. Ajinomoto itself offers no nutritional value. It is primarily used to enhance the umami or savoury taste of foods. It can make dishes taste more flavourful and appealing, which is why it’s commonly used in many cuisines. It is widely used in processed foods, restaurant cuisine, and fast-food items. Potential impacts:- Some individuals claim to experience symptoms like headaches, sweating, and chest pain after consuming foods containing MSG. (Food Safety and Standards Authority of India) Some individuals may be sensitive to high doses of MSG or have underlying health conditions that make them more susceptible to its effects. MUST READ: Lead Poisoning in India SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2021) Low-density polyethylene Polycarbonate Polyethylene terephthalate Polyvinyl Chloride Q.2)“Triclosan” considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following? (2021) Food preservatives Fruit ripening substances reused plastic containers Toiletries INS Imphal Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) recently, delivered INS Imphal to the Indian Navy. About INS Imphal:- It is the third ship of the Project 15B Class of stealth-guided missile destroyers. The first ship of P15B Class, INS Visakhapatnam, was commissioned on November 21, 2021. The second ship INS Mormugao was commissioned on December 18, 2022. The fourth, INS Surat, was launched on May 17, 2022. Imphal was the first naval warship commissioned with accommodation for women officers and sailors. It can accommodate a crew of 312 persons. It has an endurance of 4,000 nautical miles. It can carry out a 42-day mission with extended mission time in an out-of-area operation. The ship is equipped with two helicopters onboard to further extend its reach. The ship was constructed using indigenous steel “DMR 249A”. It is among the largest destroyers built in India, with an overall length of 164 metres and a displacement of over 7,500 tonnes. It is a potent platform capable of undertaking a variety of tasks and missions, spanning the full spectrum of maritime warfare. It is armed with supersonic Surface-to-Surface Brahmos missiles and Barak-8 Medium Range Surface-to-Air missiles. The destroyer is fitted with indigenously developed anti-submarine weapons and sensors, prominently the hull-mounted Sonar Humsa NG, heavyweight torpedo tube launchers, and ASW rocket launchers. It is more versatile than previous Classes of destroyers and frigates in the naval inventory. Its all-round capability against enemy submarines, surface warships, anti-ship missiles, and fighter aircraft would enable it to operate independently without supporting vessels. The ship is propelled by a powerful Combined Gas and Gas Propulsion Plant (COGAG), consisting of four reversible gas turbines, which enables her to achieve a speed of over 30 knots (approximately 55 kmph). The ship boasts of a very high level of automation with sophisticated digital networks such as Gigabyte Ethernet-based Ship Data Network (GESDN), Combat Management System (CMS), Automatic Power Management System (APMS) and Integrated Platform Management System (IPMS). MUST READ: International Maritime Exercise/ Cutlass Express 2023 SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Cannabis Context: The recommended dose of Cannabidiol (CBD) in Cannabis was slashed in the UK recently, over safety concerns. Background:- CBD, or cannabidiol, is the second most prevalent active ingredient in cannabis (marijuana). CBD’s effects have been tested on a range of ailments, from schizophrenia to anxiety, with mixed results. CBD is readily obtainable in most parts of the United States, though its exact legal status has been in flux. All 50 states have laws legalizing CBD with varying degrees of restriction. In December 2015, the FDA eased the regulatory requirements to allow researchers to conduct CBD trials. It isn’t regulated by the UK’s drugs regulator but by the Food Standards Agency (FSA). In 2020, the FSA recommended that daily consumption of CBD should not exceed 70mg. Now, the FSA and Food Standards Scotland have reduced this limit to 10mg – roughly four drops of 5% CBD oil. About Cannabis:- According to the WHO, cannabis is a generic term used to denote the several psychoactive preparations of the plant Cannabis sativa. (UN Decides Cannabis Not A Dangerous Narcotic) Cannabis, weed, pot, and marijuana all refer to the same group of plants known for their relaxing and calming effects. Cannabis is made up of more than 120 components, which are known as cannabinoids. Medical uses:- The most common uses for medical cannabis are in severe or long-term pain, due to:- Chemotherapy (cancer treatments) Painful muscle spasms. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) Cancer-related pain Glaucoma HIV/AIDS-related weight loss or nausea/vomiting Huntington’s disease Inflammatory bowel disease Multiple sclerosis Muscle spasms Neuropathy Parkinson’s disease Short-term effects of cannabis:- relaxation giddiness experiencing things around you, such as sights and sounds, more intensely increased appetite altered perception of time and events focus and creativity Side effects:- coordination issues delayed reaction time nausea lethargy anxiety increased heart rate decreased blood pressure paranoia Long-term effects of cannabis:- Brain development: According to some research, people who start using cannabis in their teens may have more memory and learning problems than those who don’t use cannabis in their teens. Dependence: Some people can also become dependent on cannabis or even experience withdrawal symptoms when not using cannabis, such as irritability, low appetite, and mood swings. Respiratory problems: Smoking cannabis carries similar risks to smoking tobacco. Legal Regulations in India:- Under India’s Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act 1985, the production, manufacture, possession, sale, purchase, transport, and use of cannabis is a punishable offence. (Status of Cannabis) The Act was enacted in 1985 which succeeded the Dangerous Drugs Act 1930. The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) is vested with the power to charge individuals in cases related to the illegal use and supply of narcotics. The NDPS Act defines:- Ganja: flowering or fruiting tops of the cannabis plant but it clearly excludes the seeds and leaves. Charas: the separated resin extracted from the cannabis plant. The Act illegalises any mixture with or without any neutral material, of any of the two forms of cannabis, charas and ganja, or any drink prepared from it. The legislature left seeds and leaves of the cannabis plant out of the ambit of the Act because the serrated leaves of the plant have negligible tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) content. ‘Bhang’, which is a paste made out of the leaves of the cannabis plant is hence not outlawed. Similarly, CBD oil, an acronym for cannabidiol derived from the leaves of the cannabis plant, would not come under the NDPS Act. The NDPS Act does not permit the recreational use of cannabis in India.  MUST READ: Drug Addiction SOURCE: SCIENCE DIRECT  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following trees: (2023) Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus.) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Fukushima nuclear plant tragedy Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Scientists recently, tested the fish after water release from the Fukushima nuclear plant. Background:- A team of international scientists collected fish samples from a port town near Japan’s crippled Fukushima nuclear plant, seeking to assess the impact of the plant’s recent release of treated radioactive water into the sea. About the Fukushima nuclear plant tragedy:- Fukushima Daiichi Nuclear power plant meltdown: (Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant) Nuclear power plant: a type of power plant that uses the process of nuclear fission in order to generate electricity. Nuclear fission: atoms are split apart to form smaller atoms, releasing energy. Location: Japan. (India – Japan Relations) Causes: a massive earthquake and tsunami. Impact: It released large amounts of radioactive materials into the environment. Causalities: No deaths were initially attributed to the incident. Although around 18,000 people lost their lives as a result of the earthquake and tsunami. ( Early Tsunami Warning System in India) Development after tragedy:- Since then, Japan has been storing the cooling water for nuclear fuel, and rain and groundwater seeping through the damaged reactor buildings in large tanks on site. The water is treated using a filtering system called Advanced Liquid Processing System (ALPS). ALPS: a filtering system that removes most of the radioactive elements except for tritium. Tritium: a hydrogen isotope that is difficult to separate.  MUST READ: India’s Nuclear Energy SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements : (2023) None of them uses seawater. None of them is set up in a water-stressed district. None of them is privately owned. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Monazite is a source of rare earths. Monazite contains thorium. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Exercise Milan Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: The Ministry of Defence recently, notified that the Navy will host the ‘Exercise Milan’ series of exercises in February 2024. Background:- It is likely to witness the largest-ever participation with invites having been extended to 50 countries. About Exercise Milan:- Started: 1995. Venue: Visakhapatnam. Date: 19 and 27 February 2024. Hosted by: Indian Navy. Milan is a biennial multilateral naval exercise. It was incepted by the Indian Navy. MILAN 22 was conducted at/ off Visakhapatnam from February 25 Feb – 04 Mar 2022. It witnessed participation from 39 countries. The harbour phase of MILAN 24 will comprise an International Maritime Seminar, City Parade at RK Beach, Swavlamban Exhibition, Subject Matter Expert Exchange, and Milan of Young Officers. Warships, maritime patrol aircraft and submarines of friendly foreign countries will participate in the sea phase along with Indian Navy units. The drill will involve large-force manoeuvres, advanced air defence operations, anti-submarine warfare and anti-surface warfare operations.  MUST READ: India’s growing defence diplomacy footprint SOURCE: THE TRIBUNE  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fueled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following countries: (2022) Azerbaijan Kyrgyzstan Tajikistan Uzbekistan Turkmenistan Which of the above has borders with Afghanistan? 1, 2 and 5 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Mains: CONCERNS WITH INTERLINKING RIVERS Syllabus  GS-III ABOUT THE INTERLINKING RIVERS Inter Linking of Rivers refers to inter-basin water transfers between 2 or more rivers through human interventions on natural systems. India’s National Water Development Agency (NWDA) has suggested the interlinking of rivers of the country. The interlinking of rivers has two components: the Himalayan and the Peninsular. All interlinking schemes are aimed at transferring of water from one river system to another or by lifting across natural basins. Because of Large variation in rainfall and subsequent availability of water resources in space and time, floods and drought coexist in our country in same time and space. ( Kerala, T.N and South Karnataka is facing drought while Rajasthan, Gujarat, Assam reeling under floods) The project is aimed at addressing droughts and floods. CONCERNS WITH INTERLINKING RIVERS Ecological Concerns Water scientists and Environmentalists have remarked that the water flowing into the sea is not waste. It is a crucial link in the water cycle. With the link broken, the ecological balance of land and oceans, freshwater and sea water, also gets disrupted It is feared that diversion of water from the Brahmaputra and the Ganges, which provide 85% of the country’s fresh water flow in the dry season, would result into an ecological disaster. Economic Concerns As this project is of massive estimated cost, a long term planning and a sound financial simulation are required to meet the standard for such proposals The huge expenditure of the project and the maintenance costs associated with the dams, canals, tunnels, and captive electric power generation will involve huge financial burdens. This may generate fiscal problems that are difficult to handle. This certainly requires financial assistance from the private sector as well as global capital agencies. Mobilization of global capital may ultimately entail the risk of destroying social welfare measures. Environmental concerns It will result in massive diversion of forest areas and submergence of land leading to deforestation and soil- erosion. For example The Ken-Betwa link project puts in danger over 4,100 hectares of forest land or 8% of the Panna National Park. There will be destruction of rivers, aquatic and terrestrial biodiversity, fisheries and groundwater recharge. Possible downstream impacts, salinity ingress, pollution concentration, and increased methane emission from reservoirs are other adverse repercussions. It could most likely create trigger points of natural disasters like landslides, earthquakes etc. as seen in case of Koyna dam and Tehri dam. Social Concerns Reconstruction and rehabilitation due to displacement is not an easy task as seen before. The construction of reservoirs and river linking canals in the peninsular component alone expect to displace more than 5, 83,000 people and submerge large areas of forest, agriculture and non-agriculture land. It is likely to create social unrest/psychological damage and cultural alienation due to forced resettlement of local indigenous tribal community. Political issue Water being a state subject, the Interlinking plan further complicates existing water sharing and management problems between the riparian states. Some of the Interlinking Rivers schemes have international implications, which may create strained relationship with neighboring countries like Bhutan, Nepal and Bangladesh. CONCLUSION While river interlinking projects in India aim to address water-related challenges, they come with a range of environmental, social, political, and economic concerns. A comprehensive and transparent assessment of the potential benefits and risks is necessary before proceeding with such large-scale projects. It is essential to involve all stakeholders, including affected communities, in the decision-making process to ensure that their concerns are addressed and that the projects are implemented with sustainability and long-term considerations in mind. The third Belt and Road Forum Syllabus   GS-II The Third Belt and Road Forum for International Cooperation convened in Beijing, China. Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) is a massive and ambitious infrastructure development and economic integration project launched by the People’s Republic of China in 2013. The initiative is aimed at improving connectivity and cooperation between countries in Asia, Europe, and Africa, as well as promoting economic growth and development. The BRI encompasses two main components: the Silk Road Economic Belt and the 21st Century Maritime Silk Road. The “Belt” refers to the overland routes connecting China to Europe through Central Asia, the Middle East, and Russia. The “Road” pertains to the maritime routes connecting China to Southeast Asia, South Asia, Africa, and Europe. ACHIEVEMENTS OF THE BRI Establishment of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB): China has established the AIIB with a substantial $100 billion, challenging existing lending institutions and enabling early gains from the BRI. Global Branding for Xi Jinping: The BRI has provided President Xi Jinping with a platform to establish himself as a global statesman and project China’s power and influence overseas. It has been incorporated into China’s domestic political framework. BRI Cooperation Pacts: Over 200 BRI cooperation pacts have been signed with more than 150 nations, demonstrating the initiative’s global reach and influence. Addressing the Global Infrastructure Deficit: The BRI aims to bridge the global infrastructure deficit, including access to electricity, clean water, and broadband, with projects ranging from motorways to digital infrastructure. CHALLENGES OF THE BRI Ecological Damage: The large-scale infrastructure development associated with the BRI can have adverse environmental consequences. Projects, such as dam construction and transport infrastructure, can lead to deforestation, habitat destruction, and pollution. Ensuring that BRI projects meet international environmental standards is crucial. Debt Sustainability: One of the most prominent concerns is the potential for participating countries to accumulate unsustainable levels of debt due to BRI projects. China’s financing often comes in the form of loans, which can be difficult for some countries to repay. High debt burdens can compromise a country’s economic stability and sovereignty. Geopolitical Concerns: Critics argue that the BRI can be used to extend China’s influence and soft power in participating countries. It is perceived by some as a means for China to exert its economic and political influence in regions where it is expanding its presence. Security Risks: The development of critical infrastructure, such as ports and telecommunications networks, could pose security risks for host countries. There are concerns that these projects may be used for espionage, or that China could gain undue influence over a host nation’s strategic assets. Social and Labor Concerns: The influx of Chinese workers for BRI projects can displace local labor and create social tensions. Ensuring that BRI projects benefit local communities, provide employment opportunities, and adhere to labor standards is crucial. Unequal Benefits: In cases like the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC), there are perceptions that the BRI disproportionately benefits China, raising questions about the initiative’s win-win cooperation tagline. CONCLUSION As the BRI nears its second decade, it faces pivotal choices. Despite notable global infrastructure achievements, sustainability, fairness, and environmental issues pose challenges. Emerging global alternatives signal diverse visions for international cooperation, shaping the BRI’s future based on China’s ability to address these challenges and adapt to evolving global dynamics. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Exercise Participating countries 1.Sampriti India & Sri Lanka 2.Garuda Shakti India & Indonesia 3.Ekuverin India and the Maldives How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: INS Imphal Imphal was the first naval warship commissioned with accommodation for women officers and sailors. Statement-II: It undertook its first sea sortie on April 28, 2022. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Ajinomoto, consider the following statements: It is rich in sodium, a component of salt. Ajinomoto offers great nutritional value. It is widely used in processed foods, restaurant cuisine, and fast-food items. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Mains Questions: Q.1) The interlinking of rivers can provide viable solutions to the multi-dimensional inter-related problems of droughts, floods, and interrupted navigation. Critically examine. Q.2) China’s Belt and Road Initiative is an embodiment of its debt-trap diplomacy. Also, it raises concerns about the financial sustainability of the projects along with the social and environmental impact of the infrastructure projects. Discuss. Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  21st October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 20th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Abu Dhabi Masters 2023 Syllabus Prelims –SPORTS Context: Unnati Hooda won the women’s singles title at Abu Dhabi Masters 2023. Background:- This is her second BWF Super 100 World Tour title. She became the youngest Indian to clinch a BWF title last year at 14 years of age. About Abu Dhabi Masters 2023:- IMAGE SOURCE: WorldAtlas Date: 17 – 22 OCTOBER, 2023. Venue: ADNEC Marina Hall, Abu Dhabi, UAE. Abu Dhabi Masters 2023 is the first-ever International badminton spectacle in the capital city. It will take place under the esteemed patronage of Shaikh Nahyan bin Mubarak Al Nahyan, the UAE Badminton Federation, in partnership with 316 Sports Services. (Grand Slam) This historic occasion promises to be a thrilling showcase of talent, skill, and sportsmanship, bringing together 200 professional players from around the world. (Sports Code) MUST READ: Chess Olympiad SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Malaria Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: As per recent research, emerging drug resistance in eastern Africa is hindering the fight against malaria. Key findings:- The treatment of malaria in eastern Africa is encountering a significant challenge as the parasites have started developing resistance to artemisinin, the core component used for treating the disease, according to a new study. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) has been a highly effective treatment for non-severe cases since the early 2000s. While the clinical effectiveness of ACT remains generally robust in the continent, the recent emergence of partial artemisinin resistance in the eastern African countries of Rwanda, Uganda and Eritrea has raised significant concerns. Most of the countries in Africa are not on track to achieving the goal of eliminating malaria in the continent by 2030, according to the African Union Malaria Progress Report 2022. About Malaria:- IMAGE SOURCE: A Happy Ending To Malaria Story? – Scientific Animations It is a life-threatening mosquito-borne blood disease. It is caused by Plasmodium parasites. It is predominantly found in the tropical and subtropical areas of Africa, South America as well and Asia. It is preventable as well as curable. Symptoms:- Symptoms usually begin ten to fifteen days after being bitten by an infected mosquito. Symptoms include fever, tiredness, vomiting, and headaches. In severe cases, it can cause jaundice, seizures, coma, or death. Transmission:- The parasites spread through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. In the human body, parasites initially multiply in liver cells and then attack the Red Blood Cells (RBCs). There are 5 parasite species that cause Malaria in humans and 2 of these species (Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax) pose the greatest threat. Prevention:- Using mosquito nets when sleeping in places where malaria is present Using mosquito repellents (containing DEET, IR3535 or Icaridin) after dusk Using coils and vaporizers. Wearing protective clothing. Using window screens. Treatment:- Artemisinin-based combination therapy medicines like artemether-lumefantrine are usually the most effective medicines. Chloroquine is recommended for the treatment of infection with the vivax parasite only in places where it is still sensitive to this medicine. Primaquine should be added to the main treatment to prevent relapses of infection with the P. vivax and P. ovale parasites. Most medicines used are in pill form. Some people may need to go to a health centre or hospital for injectable medicines. (Malaria Vaccine) India’s status:- In India, malaria elimination efforts were initiated in 2015. These were intensified after the launch of the National Framework for Malaria Elimination (NFME) in 2016. It is an initiative under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. NFME is in line with WHO’s 2016-2030 Malaria Strategy. (World Malaria Report 2021) WHO’s 2016-2030 Malaria Strategy: guides the WHO Global Malaria Programme (GMP). Status on elimination: India continues to show a sustained decline in overall malaria but faces several challenges in its malaria elimination journey. MUST READ: New hope for malaria vaccine SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following diseases (2014) Diphtheria Chickenpox Smallpox Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 None Q.2) Widespread resistance of the malarial parasites to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine? (2010) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host Green credit programme Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: The Centre recently, notified the Green Credit programme. Background:- The Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change on October 13, 2023, notified the ‘green credit’ programme. About the Green credit programme:- Launched: 2023. Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman had launched “Green Credit Programme”(GCP) in Union Budget 2023-24. Ministry: Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.3234 Objective: to create a market-based mechanism for undertaking environment-friendly activities such as afforestation programmes, and water conservation by providing additional incentives in the form of green credits. It is a first-of-a-kind market-based instrument designed to incentivize individuals, industries and local bodies for their voluntary environmental actions across diverse sectors. It will be launched at the national level to incentivize voluntary environmental actions of various stakeholders. It will encourage private sector industries by taking actions which are able to converge with activities relevant to generating or buying Green Credits. Green Credit: it is an incentive that individuals, farmer-producer organizations (FPOs), industries, and rural and urban local bodies, among other stakeholders, will be able to earn for environment-positive actions. Governance Structure of GCP:- GCP Administrator The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) will be the administrator of GCP. ICFRE: it is an autonomous organization or governmental agency under the MoEFCC. Its aim is to generate, advance and disseminate scientific knowledge and technologies for ecological security, improved productivity, livelihood enhancement and sustainable use of forest resources through forestry research and education. It will manage, monitor and operate the entire programme. Steering committee It will be set up to approve procedures for institutionalizing the GCP, rules and regulations It will recommend it to the central government for issuance of a Green Credit Certificate. (Green Bonds) It will also determine the type and amount of fees and charges for the purpose of meeting the cost and expense towards implementation of GCP. Working of GCP:- The GCP administrator will collect the environmental compensation and deposit it in a separate dedicated account. This fund shall be utilized for activities related to the implementation of GCP. For instance, an individual who undertakes tree plantation in an area, can earn green credits, which he can sell at the trading platform after validation by the steering committee. Benefits of GCP:- It allows forests to be traded as a commodity. It allows the Forest Department to outsource one of its responsibilities of reforesting to non-government agencies. It will encourage plantation by individuals outside the traditional forest area. It will help in meeting international commitments such as sustainable development goals and nationally determined contributions. MUST READ: Green Urban Oases Programme SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Chetak helicopters Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Indian Army will begin phase-out of Cheetah, Chetak helicopters from 2027. Background:- The Army will start phasing out the first lot of the vintage Cheetah and Chetak helicopters from 2027 onwards on completion of their Total Technical Life (TTL) while it looks to induct the indigenous Light Utility Helicopters (LUH) in numbers to replace them. The Army is expected to receive six LUH between December 2024 and June 2025. About Chetak helicopters:- Year of Manufacture: 1962. Manufactured by: Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). Maximum speed: Over 210 km/hrs. The Helicopter Division started manufacturing helicopters in 1962, by entering an agreement with France for the production of Aloutte III helicopters (Chetak). The first Chetak in ‘Fly Away’ condition was delivered in 1965. The Chetak helicopter is the oldest helicopter of the Indian Air Force inducted by Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL) in 1965. It is a two-ton class helicopter. It is a single-engine helicopter that can carry seven people, including two pilots. The helicopter is versatile, multi-role, multi-purpose, and spacious. The Chetak is operated by each of the three services and also the Coast Guard, however, it has been the military’s workhorse for decades. The helicopter is suitable for commuting, cargo/material transport, casualty evacuation, Search and rescue (SAR), Aerial Survey and patrolling, Emergency Medical Services, Off-shore operations, and Underslung operations. The Chetak helicopter is powered by a single Turbomeca Artoustte III B turboshaft engine. Cheetah helicopter:- Operated by: both the Indian Air Force and the Army Aviation Corps. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited signed a licence agreement for the Lama with Aérospatiale in 1970 and christened the India-made aircraft “Cheetah”. The first Cheetah manufactured from raw materials was delivered in 1976-77. It is a licence-built version of the French Aérospatiale SA 315B Lama. It is known for its capability to operate in hot tropical weather as well as high altitude conditions. (MH-60R helicopters) The SA315B Lama was first flown in 1969, over 50 years ago. Over the years, it has developed a reputation for being unsafe, with the armed forces attempting to find upgrades for these rotorcraft. It has been used for transporting men and material, search and rescue, and reconnaissance. Cheetahs have especially been crucial for operations in Siachen, the world’s highest battleground at over 6,000 m. MUST READ: Asia’s largest helicopter manufacturing facility SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on it. Earth’s core Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recent studies show evidence of the leaking of Earth’s core. Background:- Record concentrations of a helium isotope found inside 62-million-year-old Arctic rocks could be the most compelling evidence to date of a slow leak in our planet’s core. Building on the results of a previous analysis of ancient lava flows, a team of geochemists from Woods Hole Oceanographic Institution and the California Institute of Technology are now more certain than ever that helium trapped in the core as our planet was forming is making its way to the surface. About Earth’s core:- IMAGE SOURCE: WorldAtlas The Earth can be divided into one of two ways: mechanically or chemically. Mechanically ( or through the study of liquid states )– it can be divided into the lithosphere, asthenosphere, mesospheric mantle, outer core, and inner core. Chemically (or by composition), which is the more popular of the two, it can be divided into the crust, the mantle (subdivided into the upper and lower mantle), and the core (subdivided into the outer core, and inner core.) The Crust The Crust is the cold, fragile, and rock-based outer layer. There are two types of crust, each with unique physical and chemical characteristics: (i) continental crust; and (ii) oceanic crust. Basalt lava flows are produced when magma under the seafloor erupts, forming the oceanic crust. The oceanic crust is 5 km thinner than the continental crust (about 30 km). Silica (Si) and Aluminum (Al) are the two main components of the crust. Mantle The mantle is the layer beneath the crust. The Mohorovich Discontinuity is the separation between the crust and mantle. The mantle has a thickness of around 2900 km. Approximately 84% of the earth’s volume and 67% of its mass are made up of the mantle. It is primarily composed of silicon and magnesium. The entire crust and the topmost solid portion of the mantle comprise the An extremely vicious, weakly elastic, ductile, deforming zone of the upper mantle, the asthenosphere (between 80 and 200 km), is located just beneath the lithosphere. Core It is the layer that surrounds the earth’s core that is the Guttenberg’s Discontinuity divides the mantle from the core. It is also called NIFE since it contains nickel (Ni) and iron (Fe). Nearly 15% of the earth’s volume and 32.5 per cent of its mass are made up of the core. The density of the earth’s core fluctuates around 5 and 14.5 g/cm3. The inner core and the outer core are the sub-layers that make up the Core. The inner core is solid, but the outer core is liquid (or semi-liquid). MUST READ: Supermoon SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs on the: (2022) The first half of the month of June The second half of the month of June The first half of the month of July The second half of the month of July Q.2) On 21st June, the Sun (2019) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle does not set below the horizon at the Antarctic Circle shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn Mains: VIENNA CONVECTION ON DIPLOMATS Syllabus     GS-II The “Vienna Convention on Diplomats,” is an international treaty that was adopted by 61 countries on April 18, 1961. This convention is a fundamental document in international law and governs the conduct of diplomatic relations between independent states. It was drafted during the United Nations Conference on Diplomatic Intercourse and Immunities, held in Vienna, Austria. It is considered a cornerstone of modern diplomatic law and practice. KEY PROVISIONS Diplomatic Immunity (Articles 29 to 36)       Diplomats and their families are granted immunity from the jurisdiction of the host country’s legal system for their official actions. Extends to criminal and civil matters and ensures that diplomats cannot be prosecuted or sued in the host country’s courts. Inviolability of Diplomatic Premises (Articles 22 to 27)       Diplomatic premises, such as embassies and consulates, are considered inviolable. They cannot be entered or searched by the host country’s authorities without the permission of the sending state. Non-Interference (Article 41) Diplomatic agents are expected not to interfere in the internal affairs of the host country. This principle promotes peaceful coexistence and respectful relations between states. Protection of Diplomatic Missions (Articles 22 to 27)          Host country is responsible for ensuring the security and protection of diplomatic missions and their staff. Includes safeguarding the physical premises and preventing any intrusion or damage. Termination of Diplomatic Relations (Articles 45 to 50)      Outlines procedures for the termination of diplomatic relations between states. Includes orderly withdrawal of diplomatic personnel and the closure of diplomatic missions. Article 11.1  It deals with the size of international missions within other countries. In the absence of a specific agreement as to the size of the mission, the receiving State may require that the size of a mission be kept within limits considered to be reasonable and normal. NEED OF VIENNA CONVECTION Establishing a Standardized Framework: The convention provides a universally accepted and standardized framework for diplomatic relations between states. This common set of rules and principles helps to avoid misunderstandings and conflicts related to diplomatic conduct. Promoting Diplomatic Relations: By establishing a clear legal framework for diplomatic relations, the convention encourages states to engage in diplomatic relationships. This, in turn, contributes to open channels of communication and peaceful means of dispute resolution. Protection of Diplomats: It ensures that diplomats can perform their duties without fear of harassment, arrest, or harm. This protection is essential for diplomats to represent their countries effectively and safely. Promoting Diplomatic Immunity: It allows diplomats to carry out their responsibilities without being subject to the jurisdiction of the host country’s legal system, which could lead to politically motivated arrests or interference in their work. Respect for the Principle of Non-Interference: The Vienna Convention reinforces the principle of non-interference in the internal affairs of the host country. This principle is essential for maintaining peaceful relations and respecting the sovereignty of states. Preventing Diplomatic Crises: Clear rules and guidelines help prevent diplomatic incidents that could lead to crises. The convention stipulates how diplomatic missions and agents should conduct themselves, minimizing the potential for misunderstandings and conflicts. Conclusion: The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations has been widely adopted by countries around the world and is considered a cornerstone of diplomatic law and practice. It establishes a framework that helps maintain peaceful relations among nations and ensures the functioning of diplomatic missions in a manner that respects the sovereignty and dignity of both sending and receiving states. Violations of the convention can have significant diplomatic and legal consequences. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Institutions Headquarters 1.CBI Kolkata 2.NIA New Delhi 3.SEBI Mumbai How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Abu Dhabi Masters 2023 has a cash prize of $120,000. Statement-II : It is the first-ever International badminton spectacle in the capital city. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Chetak Helicopters, consider the following statements: It is a two-ton class helicopter. It is a double-engine helicopter that can carry seven people. The helicopter was inducted by Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL) in 1960. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 2 only Mains Question: Q.1) Comment on the need and importance of international convention on diplomatic relations. Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  23rd October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 21st October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23rd October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) KatiBihu Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: The Prime Minister, Modi extended his best wishes on the auspicious occasion of KatiBihu. About KatiBihu:- Bihu is the collective name of 3 Assam festivals (all held in the state of Assam): Rongali Bihu or Bohag Bihu (mid-April), Kati Bihu or Kongaali Bihu (mid-October) and Magh Bihu or Bhogaali Bihu (mid-January). Kati Bihu is celebrated on the first day of the ‘Kati’ month in the Assamese calendar which usually falls somewhere in mid-October. This year, it is observed on October 18. Kati means to cut and during this time the rice-sapling is relocated. It is also called the Kangali Bihu — from ‘kangali,’ meaning ‘poor’ because by this time of year, the house of an ordinary family is without food grains, as the stock is usually consumed before the next harvest. The festival marks the relocation of the rice crop and the beginning of the fresh harvest season. Kati Bihu is an observation of service, penance, and the hope for a better future. The festival is celebrated across the state of Assam. Lamps are lit outside the homes, and a pathway of bamboo is constructed as a trail for the ancestors. The main lamp is placed in the courtyard where the Tulsi plant is present. The Tulsi plant is cleaned for the festival and is kept on an earthen platform called “Tulsi Bheti.” People make offerings and pray to Goddess Tulsi for the well-being of their family and to have a good harvest. ( Bihu) People also light a special lamp called “Akash Banti” (Sky candle) in their paddy fields. The festival is celebrated for the entire month of Kati. MUST READ: Kathakali dance SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: The role of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) for India was scrutinized recently. Indian Ocean Region:- A third of the world’s population (2.6 billion people) live in the region. 80% of global oil trade, 50% of the world’s containerized cargo and 33% of its bulk cargo passes through it. The region produces a combined total of $1 trillion in goods and services and intra-IORA trade is billed at around $800 billion. India’s other regional organizations, like SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) and BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation), face their own challenges. While the QUAD (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue), has made progress, it remains U.S.-led, along with military allies Australia and Japan. China is actively trying to rope in India’s neighbours with groupings like the Belt and Road Initiative (BRI), China-Indian Ocean Region Forum on Development Cooperation, China-South Asian Countries Poverty Alleviation and Cooperative Development Centre, which exclude India. This makes IORA significant for India. About Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA):- Establishment: 1997. Secretariat: Cyber City, Ebène, Mauritius. Objective: to ensure the sustainable development of the Indian Ocean region. The IORA is an intergovernmental organization. It was formerly known as the Indian Ocean Rim Initiative and the Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC). Membership: It comprises 23 member states and 11 dialogue partners hailing from regions surrounding the Indian Ocean. Members: Australia, Bangladesh, Comoros, French Republic, India, Indonesia, Iran, Kenya, Madagascar, Malaysia, Mauritius, Mozambique, Oman, Seychelles, Singapore, Somalia, South Africa, Sri Lanka, Tanzania, Thailand, the United Arab Emirates, the Maldives, and Yemen. In 2014, India hosted the first Indian Ocean Dialogue in Kochi, Kerala. Structure:- IORA’s apex body is the Council of Foreign Ministers (COM) which meets annually. It is the highest decision-making body of IORA. The United Arab Emirates (UAE) assumed the role of Chair from November 2019 – November 2021, followed by the People’s Republic of Bangladesh from November 2021 – November 2023. A committee of Senior Officials (CSO) meets twice a year to progress IORA’s agenda and consider recommendations by Working Groups and forums of officials, business and academics. Functions:- It manages, coordinates, services and monitors the implementation of policy decisions, work programmes and projects adopted by the member states. Strengthen regional cooperation and promote sustainable development within the Indian Ocean region. Development through economic cooperation. Focus Areas:- Maritime Security (GREEN MARITIME SECTOR) Trade and Investment Facilitation Fisheries Management Disaster Risk Reduction Academic and Scientific Cooperation (Indian Ocean Naval Symposium) Tourism Promotion and Cultural Exchanges Blue Economy Significance:- The association gains importance by the fact that the Indian Ocean carries half of the world’s container ships, one-third of the world’s bulk cargo traffic and two-thirds of the world’s oil shipments. It is a lifeline of international trade and transport and the Indian Ocean region is woven together by trade routes and commands control of major sea lanes. MUST READ:  International Maritime Exercise SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Same-sex marriage case Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court delivered a judgment in the same-sex marriage case. Background :- In a rulin Tuesday that disappointed LGBTQ+ rights campaigners, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court unanimously rejected their prayer to grant legal recognition to same-sex marriage and left it to Parliament to change the law for such a union. About same-sex marriage case:- The SC took up the case as petitioners claimed that the non-recognition of same-sex marriage amounted to discrimination that strikes at the root of dignity and self-fulfilment of LGBTQIA+ couples. The petitioners cited the Special Marriage Act, of 1954 and appealed to the Court to extend the right to the LGBTQIA+ community, by making the marriage between any two persons gender-neutral. Arguments in Favour:- Considering Marriage as a Fundamental Right. Need to extend Special Marriage Act to Queer Indians. Assimilation of same-sex couples in society. (Same-Sex Marriage) Preserving Human Dignity. (LGBTIQ+) Ease in Surrogacy and adoption. Arguments against:- Against traditional and religious definitions of Marriage. Preserving the Right to Privacy of same-sex couples which is not possible in marriage as it has a public element involved. Only Parliament has the authority to decide on same-sex marriage as it is a matter of democratic right and the court should not legislate on the issue. When queer couples adopt children, it can lead to societal stigma, discrimination, and negative impacts on the child’s emotional and psychological well-being. The Special Marriage Act (SMA) cannot be interpreted to include same-sex marriage because the Act’s entire architecture would need to be examined. Judgement:- Citing “institutional limitations”, a five-judge bench, comprising Chief Justice of India D Y Chandrachud, Justices Sanjay Kishan Kaul, S Ravindra Bhat, Hima Kohli and P S Narasimha, in four separate judgments, declined to strike down or tweak provisions of the Special Marriage Act, 1954 (SMA). They said that there is “no unqualified right” to marriage, and a same-sex couple cannot claim it as a fundamental right under the Constitution. However, the bench recognized equal rights for queer people and their protection and called for sensitization of the public to ensure they are not discriminated against. MUST READ: Toward legalising same-sex marriage SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty? (2019) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers Absence of restraint Opportunity to do whatever one likes Opportunity to develop oneself fully Echinococcosis Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Echinococcosis, is spreading in Kenya. About Echinococcosis:- Human echinococcosis is a parasitic disease caused by tapeworms of the genus Echinococcus. Cause: The two most important forms in humans are cystic echinococcosis (hydatidosis) and alveolar echinococcosis. Echinococcus granulosus, a type of tapeworm, is a harmful parasite. The parasite can grow slowly in people for years to form thick-walled cysts in vital organs, such as the liver and lungs. Distribution:- Cystic echinococcosis is globally distributed and found in every continent except Antarctica. (Indian Biological Data Centre (IBDC)) Alveolar echinococcosis is confined to the northern hemisphere, in particular to regions of China, the Russian Federation and countries in continental Europe and North America. Transmission: Humans are infected through ingestion of parasite eggs in contaminated food, water or soil, or after direct contact with animal hosts. It’s a zoonotic disease, it spreads from animals to people, with a life cycle involving humans, dogs and ruminant livestock. It’s also considered a neglected disease by the World Health Organization (WHO). Symptoms: It can cause abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. If not treated, it can be fatal. Treatment: Echinococcosis is often expensive and complicated to treat and may require extensive surgery and/or prolonged drug therapy. Prevention: focus on deworming of dogs, which are the definitive hosts. In the case of cystic echinococcosis preventive measures also include, deworming dogs, slaughterhouse hygiene, and public education. More than 1 million people are affected with echinococcosis at any one time. MUST READ: pox SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following? (2023). Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes. Converting crop residues into packing material. Producing biodegradable plastics. Producing biochar from thermochemical conversion of biomass. Q.2) ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations? (2023) Collecting DNA samples from the air in a habitat in one go. Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat. Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals. Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies. Amazon River Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: The Amazon River has been undergoing drought in recent times. Background:- The drought plaguing the Amazon is a worrying portrait of the climate challenges facing the world. Understanding the causes and the need for an immediate action plan to save the biome. About Amazon River IMAGE SOURCE: blogspot.com Location: South America. The Amazon River is located in the Amazon Rainforest in the northern portion of South America. It originates high in the Andes Mountains of Peru. It flows eastwards on a meandering 4,000-mile (6,400 km) journey. One-third of its length in Peru and two-thirds in Brazil, before emptying into the Atlantic Ocean on Brazil’s northeastern coast. The Amazon River is separated into three sections: the Upper Amazon, Lower Amazon, and Mouth. The Upper Amazon: refers to the river systems and flood plains in Brazil, Peru, Ecuador, Colombia, and Venezuela, whose waters pour into the Solimes and its tributaries. The Lower Amazon: starts where the darkly coloured Rio Negro meets the sandy-hued Rio Solimes (the upper Amazon). Guyana, Ecuador, Venezuela, Bolivia, Brazil, Colombia, and Peru are all crossed by the Amazon. The Amazon River has nearly 1,100 tributaries. It is the second longest river in the world after the Nile. It is the greatest river in South America. It is the largest drainage system in the world in terms of the volume of its flow and the area of its basin. According to the Encyclopedia Britannica, the Amazon River carries nearly one-fifth of all the water that runs across the Earth’s surface. It contains the most freshwater fish species in the world, with more than 2700 species, around 1700 of which are endemic. An entire coral reef system was discovered by researchers at the Amazon River Delta in 2016. (Deforestation in Amazon Basin) MUST READ: Yellow River SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second-largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains: CONTEMPT OF COURT Syllabus        GS II – JUDICIARY Under Articles 129 and 142 of the Constitution the Supreme Court has been vested with power to punish for contempt of Court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.  The objective for contempt is stated to be to safeguard the interests of the public, if the authority of the Court is denigrated and public confidence in the administration of justice is weakened or eroded. KINDS OF CONTEMPT OF COURT Civil Contempt Under Section 2(b) of the Contempt of Courts Act of 1971, civil contempt has been defined as willful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other processes of a court or willful breach of an undertaking given to a court. Criminal Contempt Under Section 2(c) of the Contempt of Courts Act of 1971, criminal contempt has been defined as the publication (whether by words, spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise) of any matter or the doing of any other act whatsoever which: Scandalizes or tends to scandalize, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court, or Prejudices, or interferes or tends to interfere with the due course of any judicial proceeding, or Interferes or tends to interfere with, or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the administration of justice in any other manner. AMENDMENTS TO CONTEMPT OF COURT ACT OF 1971 For many years, “truth” was seldom considered a Defense against a charge of contempt. There was an impression that the judiciary tended to hide any misconduct among its individual members in the name of protecting the image of the institution. The Act was amended in 2006 to introduce truth as a valid Defense, if it was in public interest and was invoked in a bona fide manner. ARGUMENTS IN FAVOUR OF RETAINING THE CONTEMPT PROVISION Increasing instances of Contempt and scandalizing, the high number of cases justify the continuing relevance of the contempt of court law. Supreme Court and High Courts derive their contempt powers from the Constitutional Articles 129 and 215. Therefore, deletion of the offence from the Act will not impact the inherent constitutional powers of the superior courts to punish anyone for its contempt. Trust, faith and confidence of the citizens in the judiciary is sine qua non for the existence of Rule of Law. Civil contempt is necessary as willful disobedient litigants who ignore the orders of the court cannot be let-off otherwise it would seriously affect the administration of justice and trust of people in the judiciary. If there is no definition for criminal contempt in the Act, superior courts may give multiple definitions and interpretations to what constitutes contempt.  The Commission suggested retaining the definition for the purpose of ensuring clarity. The Law Commission noted that there are several safeguards built into the Act to protect against its misuse. For instance, the Act contains provisions which lay down cases that do not amount to contempt and cases where contempt is not punishable. These provisions suggest that the courts will not prosecute all cases of contempt. ARGUMENTS AGAINST RETAINING THE CONTEMPT PROVISION A law for criminal contempt gets in conflict with India’s democratic system which recognises freedom of speech and expression as a fundamental right. The language defining criminal contempt is vague enough to encompass within its sweep legitimate criticism as well. The definition of criminal contempt in India is extremely wide, and can be easily invoked. Further, the Contempt of Courts Act was amended in 2006, to add truth and good faith as valid defences for contempt, but it is seldom entertained by the judiciary. In S.Mugolkar v. Unknown (1978), the Supreme Court held that the judiciary cannot be immune from fair criticism, and contempt action is to be used only when an obvious misstatement with malicious intent seeks to bring down public confidence in the courts or seeks to influence the courts. It does not recognise one of the basic principles of natural justice, i.e., no man shall be a judge in his own cause. Thus, in contempt proceedings, the court arrogates to itself the powers of a judge, jury and executioner which often leads to perverse outcomes. CONCLUSION Judiciary should balance two conflicting principles, i.e. freedom of expression, and fair and fearless justice. A mature and “broad-shouldered” approach to criticism can only inspire public confidence, not denigrate the judiciary, for justice, as Lord Atkin said, is “no cloistered virtue”. The law of contempt should be employed only to enable the court to function, not to prevent criticism. Value addition: COURT CASES CONNECTED WITH CONTEMPT OF COURT IN INDIA In Duda P.N. v. Shivshankar, P., the Supreme Court observed that the contempt jurisdiction should not be used by Judges to uphold their own dignity. In the free market places of ideas, criticism about the judicial system or the Judges should be welcomed, so long as criticisms do not impair or hamper the “administration of justice”. In Auto Shankar’s Case, Jeevan Reddy J, invoked the famous “Sullivan doctrine” that public persons must be open to stringent comments and accusations as long as made with bonafide diligence, even if untrue. In Arundhati Roy, In re, the Supreme Court observed that a fair criticism of the conduct of a Judge, the institution of the judiciary and its functioning may not amount to contempt if made in good faith and in public interest. In Indirect Tax practitioners’ Association v. R.K. Jain, S.C. observed that the Court may now permit truth as a defence if two things are satisfied, viz., (i) it is in public interest and (ii) the request for invoking said the defence is bona fide. (S.13, Contempt of Courts Act, 1971). Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: River Location 1.Amazon North America 2.Yangtze River Africa 3.Kaveri Asia How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The Special Marriage Act (SMA) can be easily interpreted to include same-sex marriage. Statement-II: Special Marriage Act, of 1954 provides a civil marriage for couples who cannot marry under their personal law. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the echinococcosis, consider the following statements: The treatment for echinococcosis requires extensive surgery and prolonged drug therapy. To avoid perpetuating infection, dogs and intermediate hosts should be kept in separate places. Humans are the intermediate hosts. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  19th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 18th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c  

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Air Quality Index (AQI) Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, Mumbai’s overall Air Quality Index (AQI) touched 191, which was worse than Delhi’s 84. Background:- The SAFAR app on Monday showed AQI levels in multiple pockets of Mumbai going down to the “poor” category, with most of these pockets being in the suburban belt of the city. About Air Quality Index (AQI):- IMAGE SOURCE: aqi. in Air Quality Index (AQI) is a number used by government agencies to measure air pollution levels and communicate it to the population. (Air pollution) There are six AQI categories, namely Good, Satisfactory, Moderately polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and Severe. Each of these categories is decided based on ambient concentration values of air pollutants and their likely health impacts (known as health breakpoints). AQ sub-index and health breakpoints are evolved for eight pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb) for which short-term (up to 24-hours) National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed. As the AQI increases, it means that a large percentage of the population will experience severe adverse health effects. The measurement of the AQI requires an air monitor and an air pollutant concentration over a specified averaging period. The results are grouped into ranges. Each range is assigned a descriptor, a colour code and a standardized public health advisory. The pollution sources in India and in most Asian countries are numerous and incompletely understood. In Delhi, for example, it comes mostly from light and heavy-duty vehicle traffic emissions, road dust, solid fuel combustion for heating and cooking, biomass, waste burning, thermal power plants, diesel generators, construction and small-scale local industries. ( Delhi and Air Pollution) Government Initiatives:- The National Air Quality Index Standard (NAQI): It was launched by The Minister for Environment, Forests & Climate Change, Shri Prakash Javadekar, on 17 September 2014. The initiative constitutes part of the Government’s mission to introduce the “culture of cleanliness”, as air pollution has been a huge concern in the country, especially in urban areas The National Air Monitoring Program (NAMP): it covers 240 cities in the country, has been operated by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and developed by the Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur (IIT), providing data in the public domain, on a real-time basis. System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research (SAFAR) Portal. Graded Response Action Plan. Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) Reducing Vehicular Pollution: BS-VI Vehicles, Push for Electric Vehicles (EVs), Odd-Even Policy as an emergency measure. Subsidy to farmers for buying Turbo Happy Seeder (THS) Machine. MUST READ:: Initiatives and Measures for Prevention of Air Pollution SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 ug/m3. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Regional Rapid Transit System (RRTS) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently inaugurated the country’s first Regional Rapid Transit System (RRTS) called Namo Bharat in Ghaziabad. Background:- It is capable of running at speeds up to 180 km/hour which will eventually cut the journey time between Delhi and Meerut to less than an hour. About Regional Rapid Transit System (RRTS):- IMAGE SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Launched: October, 2023. Constructed by: The National Capital Region Transport Corporation (NCRTC). NCRTC: It is a joint venture company of the Central government and the governments of Delhi, Haryana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. Ministry: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Objective: to ensure “balanced and sustainable urban development” through better connectivity and access across the NCR. It is a state-of-the-art regional mobility solution, comparable to the best in the world. Historical Background:- The idea of such a network lies in a study that the Indian Railways was commissioned to carry out in the year 1998-99. The study identified the possibility of an RRTS network to connect various locations in the NCR through fast commuter trains. The proposal was re-examined in the year 2006 with the extension of the Delhi Metro lines to some NCR towns such as Gurgaon, Noida and Ghaziabad. It was soon taken up by the National Capital Region Planning Board (NCRPB) while developing its “Functional Plan on Transport for NCR-2032”. Salient Features:- Rapid Transit System (RRTS) is also known as Namo Bharat. It is an integrated, mass transit network. The RRTS is modelled on systems such as the RER in Paris, Regional-Express trains in Germany and Austria as well as the SEPTA Regional Rail in the United States, among others. In line with PM GatiShakti’s National Master Plan, the RRTS network is to have extensive multi-modal integration with Railway stations, Metro stations, Bus services etc. Eight corridors will be developed under the project, of which three are being constructed under phase I: the 82-km Delhi-Ghaziabad-Meerut, the 164-km Delhi-Gurugram-SNB-Alwar, and the 103-km Delhi-Panipat corridors. The corridors to be developed in future include Delhi – Faridabad – Ballabgarh – Palwal; Ghaziabad – Khurja; Delhi – Bahadurgarh – Rohtak; Ghaziabad-Hapur; and Delhi-Shahadra-Baraut. Advantages:- The development of RRTS will boost economic activity. (National Rail Plan for Infrastructure Capacity Enhancement) It will provide improved access to employment, education & healthcare opportunities. It will help in the significant reduction of air pollution. The RRTS network is faster than the Metro. It will cater to commuters who want to travel relatively longer distances across the NCR in a short time. MUST READ: Rail Kaushal Vikas Yojana SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements: (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to (2017) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes. Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings. Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme. Superionic ice Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, scientists discovered a new phase of superionic ice. Background:- Previously superionic ice had only been glimpsed in a brief instant as scientists sent a shockwave through a droplet of water, but in a new study published in Nature Physics, scientists found a way to reliably create, sustain and examine the ice. Using the Advanced Photon Source, scientists have recreated the structure of ice formed at the centre of planets like Neptune and Uranus. About superionic ice:- Depending on the conditions, water can actually form more than a dozen different structures like ice, liquid and vapour. Scientists have now added a new phase to the list: superionic ice. This type of ice forms at extremely high temperatures and pressures, such as those deep inside planets like Neptune and Uranus. Superionic ice may be among the most abundant forms of water in the Universe. It is presumed to fill not only the interiors of Uranus, and Neptune but also similar exoplanets. The superionic phase of ice was predicted two decades ago. Five years ago, scientists recreated this exotic ice, called superionic ice, for the first time in lab experiments. Four years ago they confirmed its existence and crystalline structure. Then just last year (2022), researchers at several universities in the United States and the Stanford Linear Accelerator Center laboratory in California (SLAC) discovered a new phase of superionic ice. Significance:- Superionic ice phases could explain unusual magnetic fields around Uranus and Neptune. MUST READ: Zombie ice SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only White Phosphorous Bombs Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recent reports indicated that Israeli forces are using white phosphorous on the civilian population of Gaza. About White Phosphorous Bombs:- White phosphorus exists in different allotropes and is the most reactive and least stable among all the elemental forms of phosphorus. It is pyrophoric (it is ignited by contact with air). It burns fiercely and can ignite cloth, fuel, ammunition, and other combustibles. It is a highly efficient smoke-producing agent, reacting with air to produce an immediate blanket of phosphorus pentoxide vapour. White phosphorus munitions are not banned under international law, but because of their incendiary effects, their use is supposed to be tightly regulated. History of phosphorus use:- Phosphorus ammunitions have been used throughout history and in modern wars such as the Iraq war and, the Arab-Israeli conflict. There have been White phosphorus is believed to have been first used by Fenian (Irish nationalist) arsonists in the 19th century. The British Army introduced the first factory-built white phosphorus grenades in late 1916 during the First World War. Health risk:- Exposure to white phosphorus can lead to severe health hazards, including burns, necrosis, and other serious skin injuries. It can also cause systemic toxicity when ingested or inhaled. The combustion of white phosphorus produces phosphorus pentoxide, which can cause damage to the respiratory system upon inhalation. White phosphorus shells/munitions Applications:- Industrial applications: manufacture of phosphoric acid, phosphorus trichloride, and other organic phosphorus compounds. In the military: it has been used in incendiary weapons, smoke screens, and tracer ammunition due to its pyrophoric properties. MUST READ: (India, Israel and Palestine) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q2) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Orion Nebula Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Pairs of rogue planets have been found wandering in the Orion Nebula recently. Background:- More than 500 free-floating planetary-mass objects have been discovered wandering through the Orion Nebula thanks to new observations by the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST). About Orion Nebula:- The Orion Nebula, also known as Messier 42 (or M42 for short). It was discovered in 1610 by the French scholar Nicolas-Claude Fabri de Peiresc and independently in 1618 by the Swiss astronomer Johann Cysat. (International Space Station (ISS)) It was the first nebula to be photographed (1880), by Henry Draper in the United States. It is the nearest star-forming region to Earth. It is located approximately 1,350 light-years away. It is about 2 million years old according to NASA Jet Propulsion Laboratory. It contains hundreds of very hot (O-type) young stars clustered about a nexus of four massive stars known as the Trapezium. Radiation from these stars excites the nebula to glow. The billowing clouds of gas and dust are located in the Orion Constellation, just below Orion’s Belt. The majestic nebula can even be seen with the naked eye as it has an apparent magnitude of +4. The Orion Nebula is part of a larger stellar network called the Orion Molecular Cloud Complex (also known as the Orion Complex), one of the most active star-forming regions visible in the sky. The ancient Maya of Mesoamerica interpreted the nebula as the cosmic fire of creation, according to NASA. MUST READ: India – USA space cooperation SOURCE: PHYSICSWORLD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Buff-breasted Sandpiper Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: A rare bird from the arctic tundra Buff-breasted Sandpiper was sighted in Kannur, Kerala recently. About Buff-breasted Sandpiper:- Scientific Name: Calidris subruficollis. Distribution: It breeds in the open arctic tundra of North America and winters usually in South America. Habitat: Shortgrass prairies; in summer, tundra ridges. It is a small shorebird. (Kerala Bird Atlas (KBA)) This species is brown above and has a buff face and underparts in all plumages. It has a short bill and yellow legs. Males are larger than females. Juveniles resemble the adults but may be paler on the rear underparts. This species is a champion long-distance migrant, travelling thousands of miles from their high-Arctic nesting grounds to winter on the grasslands of Brazil, Argentina, Uruguay, and Paraguay. Conservation status:- IUCN: Near Threatened MUST READ: H5N1 virus/Bird Flue SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following trees: (2023) Jackfruit (Artoca7pus heterophyllus) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Species IUCN Status 1.Ganges Shark Vulnerable 2.Assam Roofed Turtle Critically Endangered 3.Chinese Pangolin Least Concern How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: It was discovered by the French scholar Nicolas-Claude Fabri de Peiresc and independently by the Swiss astronomer Johann Cysat. Statement-II: It was the first nebula to be photographed (1880), by Henry Draper in the United States. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Buff-breasted Sandpiper, consider the following statements: This species is brown above and has a buff face and underparts in all plumages. Males are smaller than females. This species is a champion long-distance migrant. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  20th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 19th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 21st October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) for UPSC/IAS 2023 Personality Test!

Understanding Self-Awareness for the Civil Services Personality Test: IASbaba’s Think, Rethink, and Perform (TRP) Initiative As you prepare for the final step of the Civil Services Examination (CSE), you might wonder, what's more important - knowing a lot of information or understanding yourself deeply? Today, we're going to talk about that. Don't worry; we’re not diving into deep philosophy here. We’re focusing on the practical importance of knowing yourself better, especially for the upcoming interview. You've already proven your knowledge and skills in the Prelims and Mains. The interview, however, is different. It's not about what you know, but who you are and how you think and react. Remember, the UPSC isn't looking to test your academic knowledge again. They want to get to know YOU. Your personality, how you handle situations, and if you can stay calm under pressure - these aspects are under the spotlight. The fact that UPSC conducts this exam shows they’re looking to select a small group of qualified individuals for civil services. But is the exam perfect? Not really. If it were, issues like corruption and inefficiency wouldn’t touch India’s bureaucracy. The interview is the UPSC's chance to look beyond the exams and understand the person you are. It’s not just about your knowledge or intelligence but about your self-awareness and how you connect your inner values to the outside world. Being yourself during the interview isn’t as easy as it sounds. Your responses in the past exams might have been influenced by various sources. But in the interview, you’re on the spot. If you’re not self-aware, it can show, leading to vague or irrelevant answers. The solution? Get in tune with yourself. Understand your values, what makes you happy or sad, and your life goals. Reflect on these aspects, away from the daily noise and distractions. You’ll start to see your true self, unaffected by outside influences. Being self-aware also helps you respond to external situations consistently with your internal values. If there’s a mismatch, it can shake your confidence. So, align your responses with your true beliefs. Now, we’re excited to introduce our Think, Rethink, and Perform  (TRP) Initiative to help you prepare for the UPSC Personality Test. Starting from November 13th, every third day, we’ll post two sets of questions: Set 1: Questions aimed at deep self-exploration, prompting you to delve into your regrets, evaluate the dynamics of your relationships with family and friends, and reflect on your aspirations for contributing to the happiness of your loved ones. These inquiries extend beyond surface-level introspection, inviting you to probe your core values, mores, and innermost thoughts. They encourage a journey inward to assess the principles that guide your decisions, the ethical frameworks that shape your actions, and the intrinsic motivations that drive your pursuits. It's an opportunity to confront, understand, and embrace the complex tapestry of your inner world, weaving together your strengths, vulnerabilities, achievements, and failures. These are personal, so no need to share your answers publicly. Set 2: A question on current topics to help you hone your ability to articulate well-informed and balanced opinions. We encourage an interactive discussion to enrich your perspective, offering a platform to analyze, evaluate, and refine your viewpoints amidst diverse thoughts. This process isn’t just about sharing your thoughts on the forum; it’s about understanding different view points, adapting, fostering a blend of critical thinking and empathy. Each debate serves as a pathway to align your internal convictions with external expressions, shaping you into a more informed, balanced, and adaptable individual, ready to embrace the multifaceted challenges of civil service with grace and competency. Consider practicing your answers aloud in front of a mirror, utilizing it as a tool for self-assessment and improvement. Alternatively, engage a family friend to listen to your responses, allowing their feedback to hone your articulation and delivery. This practice is integral to enhancing your confidence and communicative clarity. The idea is to sync your inner and outer selves. As you explore and understand yourself better, expressing your views on external issues will become more natural and confident. In the next few weeks, we’ll tackle a variety of topics. By the end, you’ll be able to face any question from UPSC without compromising your values. All we ask for is your honesty, discipline, and regular participation. Are you ready? Let us know in the comments! REGISTER NOW –> CLICK HERE JOIN THE DEDICATED TELEGRAM GROUP –> CLICK HERE All the best! IASbaba