Posts

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 20th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: A recently conducted massive review found that Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is more prevalent in adults than previously realized. Background:- A new estimate of the global prevalence of adult ADHD suggests the condition could be more common than previously realized. About Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder(ADHD):- IMAGE SOURCE: counselling Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, or ADHD, is a mental health condition that includes challenges relating to inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity to the point that it interferes with everyday life. ADHD is one of the most common childhood neurodevelopmental disorders. Neurodevelopmental disorders: a condition that has its onset in the developmental period and impacts how the brain works. It affects around 5% of school-aged children. Adults also can be diagnosed with ADHD. (Mental Healthcare: Issues & solutions) Around two-thirds of children with ADHD continue to experience symptoms as adults. Signs and Symptoms:- Frequent forgetfulness Daydreaming and the appearance of not listening Trouble staying on task Disorganization Avoidance of tasks that require focus Trouble sitting still, fidgeting, and squirming Excessive talking Risky behaviour Carelessness, or lack of attention to details A pattern of making mistakes Trouble getting along with other kids Difficulty taking turns Causes ADHD:- The causes of ADHD are not well understood, although there is research that suggests that genetics likely play an important role. Treatment:- ADHD is typically treated with behavioral therapy, medication, or both. (Adderall drug) MUST READ: Mental Health SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. VB_HmeY_H4907 Syllabus     Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY/ SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: A new virus VB_HmeY_H4907 was discovered recently. Background:- It was discovered at Mariana Trench, the lowest point of earth, nearly 11,000 meters below the surface of the Pacific Ocean. Marine virologists analyzed sediment and identified a new bacteriophage. About VB_HmeY_H4907:- vB_HmeY_H4907 is a newly discovered virus. It has been classified as a Bacteriophage. A bacteriophage is a type of virus that infects bacteria and replicates inside it. It is often referred to as a “bacteria eater.” They also infect the single-celled prokaryotic organisms known as archaea. This virus infects halophilic bacteria, which are bacteria that inhabit environments with high salt concentrations. These bacteria belong to the genus Halomonas and are commonly found in deep-sea hydrothermal vents. The virus is actually very genetically similar to its host and is a lysogenic phage. It means that it inserts its genetic material into the bacteria but usually doesn’t kill it instead, both virus and bacteria replicate at the same time. MUST READ: Zika Virus Disease SOURCE: BUSINESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:(2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2)Consider the following : (2022) Bacteria Fungi Virus Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Exclusome Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, Cell biologists identified a new organelle called exclusome. Background:- Researchers at ETH Zurich recently identified a previously unknown compartment in mammalian cells. They have named it the exclusome. About Exclusome:- It is present in mammalian cells made of rings of DNA. It is made up of DNA rings known as plasmids. It lies in the cell plasma. It is exceptional because eukaryotic cells (cells with nuclei) usually keep most of their DNA in the cell nucleus, where it is organized into chromosomes. The exclusome primarily comprises plasmids, which are circular DNA molecules. These can replicate independently of chromosomes. They are usually found in bacteria and other microscopic organisms. Some of these plasmids are derived from external sources, while others are called telomeric rings as they originate from the telomeres or capped ends of chromosomes. These plasmids lack the genetic instructions required for protein synthesis. This sets them apart from chromosomal DNA. (DNA Technology Regulation Bill) MUST READ: The Human Genome Project SOURCE: THE SCIENCE TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) What is the cas9 protein that is often mentioned in the news? (2019) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing. A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients. A gene that makes plants pest-resistant A herbicidal substance synthesized in generally modified crops CHAKRAVAT 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: Recently, the Annual Joint HADR Exercise 2023 (AJHE-23) ‘CHAKRAVAT 2023’ concluded in Goa. Background:- It concluded with a Multi-Agency Capability Demonstration at Mole Berth, within the Port of Mormugao. About CHAKRAVAT 2023:- Hosted by: Indian Navy. (Exercise ‘Varuna’ 2023) Date: 09-11 October 23. Venue: Goa. First edition: 2015. CHAKRAVAT is an Annual Joint Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief HADR Exercise (AJHE). The exercise has been conducted by the Indian Army, Indian Navy (IN) and Indian Air Force (IAF) in rotation. AJHE-23 commenced with a Seminar on 09 Oct 23 to discuss synergy in response to climate change and associated disaster adaptation and mitigation. An Industrial Display was also organized by FICCI on 10 Oct in coordination with the Indian Navy to showcase ready-to-export HADR equipment manufactured by both public and private sectors. The Logo for AJHE-23 depicted crests and logos of all participating agencies and flags of all nations subsumed into one single entity to signify that HADR will hinge on joint and integrated action by all the agencies. Participating agencies discussed and presented joint plans for rendering humanitarian assistance. AJHE-23 witnessed participation from various national agencies namely, National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), National Disaster Response Force (NDRF), National Institute for Disaster Management (NIDM), Indian Army, Indian Navy, Indian Air Force, Coast Guard, Indian Metrological Department (IMD), National Remote Sensing Agencies (NRSA), State Disaster Management Agency (SDMA) and State Fire Services, Goa, District Disaster Management Agency (DDMA) of North and South, Goa, Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), Central Water Commission (CWC), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and representatives from Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI). Representatives were also present from eight friendly foreign countries viz. Comoros, Madagascar, Maldives, Mauritius, Mozambique, Seychelles, Sri Lanka and Tanzania. Significance: the 2023 edition would further synergize efforts at the national level among all stakeholders, as well as witness participation from eight countries of the Indian Ocean Region. MUST READ: 26th Exercise Malabar SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Nourseothricin Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent studies found that the Nourseothricin drug shows promising results against superbugs. Background:- The old antibiotic may provide much-needed protection against multi-drug resistant bacterial infections. About Nourseothricin:- Nourseothricin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic. It is a mixture of streptothricin D and F (>85%), and streptothricin E and C (<15%). This antibiotic is used for the selection of genetically modified Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, yeast, filamentous fungi, protozoa, microalgae and plants during long-term experiments as nourseothricin retains >90% activity after one week under cultivation conditions. It is a natural product made by soil bacteria that are gram-positive. It is actually a mixture of antibiotics, given individual names such as streptothricin F (S-F) and streptothricin D (S-D). While nourseothricin and S-D show toxic effects on kidney cells in the lab, Kirby and his colleagues have now established that isn’t the case for S-F. This compound is still highly effective at killing drug-resistant gram-negative bacteria but at concentrations that are not toxic. It is a natural product made by a soil fungus, which contains multiple forms of a complex molecule called streptothricin. Its discovery in the 1940s generated high hopes for it as a powerful agent against Gram-negative bacteria, which, due to their thick outer protective layer, are especially hard to kill with other antibiotics. But nourseothricin proved toxic to kidneys, and its development was dropped. However, the rise of antibiotic-resistant bacterial infections has spurred the search for new antibiotics, leading Kirby and colleagues to take another look at nourseothricin. The resistance genes for nourseothricin are Sat1, Sat2, Sat3 and Sat4. Applications:- Nourseothricin is commonly used for bacterial and plant selection. (Medicine Price Control) Advantages:- No cross-reactivity with other aminoglycoside antibiotics such as Hygromycin or Geneticin. Long-term stable as powder or solution. No cross-resistance with therapeutic antibiotics. Highly soluble in water. Disadvantages:- It is not used in animal or human experiments because of its toxicity to kidneys (nephrotoxicity). MUST READ: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory SOURCE: NEWSMEDICAL-LIFE SCIENCE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) “Triclosan” considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following? (2021) Food preservatives Fruit ripening substances reused plastic containers Toiletries Mains: SPECIAL MARRIAGE ACT Syllabus      GS II – GOVERNANCE AND JUDICIARY   The Special Marriage Act is a law in India that allows individuals of different religions or nationalities to marry each other. Personal laws, such as the Muslim Marriage Act, 1954, and the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, require either spouse to convert to the religion of the other before marriage, however couples who register under this act are not required to change their religion or follow any religious rites or rituals. The act is applicable for Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Sikhs, Jains, and Buddhists, across India. It was enacted in 1954 and came into effect in 1955. The act also provides for divorce on certain grounds and maintenance to the spouse and children. The Act provides for the registration of marriages, which gives legal recognition to the marriage and provides a number of legal benefits and protections to the couple, such as inheritance rights, succession rights, and social security benefits. It forbids polygamy and declares a marriage null and void if either party had a spouse living at the time of the marriage or if either of them is incapable of giving a valid consent to the marriage due to unsoundness of mind. Section 5 of the Act specifies that the parties must give written notice to the Marriage Officer of the District and that at least one of the parties must have lived in the district for at least 30 days immediately before the date of such notification. Section 7 of the Act allows any person to object to the marriage before the expiration of 30 days from the date of the notice’s publication. ISSUES WITH THE ACT In India, societal norms and prejudices often favor traditional marriages that conform to religious and caste customs. Interfaith or inter-caste marriages can face significant social stigma and resistance, which can result in pressure, discrimination, and even violence against the couples. The requirement to publish a notice about the intended marriage raises privacy concerns, and couples may feel uncomfortable about disclosing their personal information publicly. The provision in the Special Marriage Act for the publication of a marriage notice can lead to harassment and threats from family members or communities opposed to the marriage. In some cases, this can result in couples being coerced or forced into abandoning their plans. The 30-day notice period can cause delays in the solemnization of the marriage. This waiting period can be a source of anxiety and can deter couples from choosing to marry under the act. The procedure for raising objections to the marriage can be misused by those who oppose the union, leading to unjustified interference in the couples’ decisions. CONCLUSION Though marriage does not obfuscate but lays bare the caste hierarchies that embolden discrimination and segregation. But despite being a faulty institution, marriage is a legitimate legal need. Just by decriminalizing Section 377 does not ensure equal rights for the queer community. NEED FOR POLICE REFORMS Syllabus    GS II-Governance Policing in India have colonial hangover in-spite of new approaches and new legislation by states as it is based on Indian Police Act, 1861, whose main aim was to create fear and oppression among people. New model police act was framed in 2016 and even Supreme Court using A-142 Policing in India have colonial hangover in-spite of new approaches and new legislation by states as it is based on Indian Police Act, 1861, whose main aim was to create fear and oppression among people. New model police act was framed in 2016 and even Supreme Court using A-142 gave a binding judgment in Prakash Singh case in 2006 but state governments are reluctant to implement them. The modern police should be sensitized as it is main face of administration. ISSUES IN EXISTING POLICE SYSTEM The Indian Police system is mainly based on archaic laws such as Indian Evidence Act, 1872, thus leading to politicization and misconduct. Many police departments in India are understaffed, leading to excessive workloads and fatigue among police officers. This can result in delayed response times and reduced effectiveness in handling cases. According to Bureau of Police Research and development (BPRD) there are 25% of unfilled vacancies in police department. Excessive interference of political executive (given in ARC report) in the functioning of the police forces. They are placed under superintendence of executives to ensure accountability but political interfere in police work, affects investigations, which can undermine the rule of law and compromise the integrity of the police. Training programs for police officers may be inadequate, especially in terms of dealing with modern challenges, such as cybercrime or handling sensitive social issues. Sensitivity training regarding issues like gender, caste, and religion is often lacking, which can lead to incidents of police bias and discrimination. Many cases go unsolved, and the clearance rate for crimes is relatively low. The lack of modern investigative techniques, forensic capabilities, and resources can contribute to this issue. According to Bureau of Police Research (BPR)and development due to decreasing efficiency there is decrease in conviction with increasing crime rate Conviction rate in 2019 is only 65% The lack of transparency in police operations and accountability for misconduct can erode public trust. Establishing internal mechanisms for accountability and external oversight is crucial. WAY FORWARD There is a need for making Indian police Strict and Sensitive, Modern and Mobile, Alert and Accountable, Reliable and Responsive, Tech Savvy and Trained. Increasing community policing makes sense because it involves police and community members working together to solve crime and crime-related issues and also improves people-police relations. In accordance with the Model Police Act, 2006, each state must establish an authority made up of retired High Court judges, civil society members, retired police officers, and public administrators from another state. Parliamentary Standing Committee advised states and Union Territories to create a road map for ensuring 33% representation of women in police. It also recommended at least one all-women police station in each district. CONCLUSION Police reforms are an ongoing process, and they require collaboration between government bodies, civil society, and law enforcement agencies. These reforms are essential to ensure that the police serve as a protector of the people, uphold the rule of law, and maintain public trust and confidence in the justice system. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: VB_HmeY_H4907 was discovered at Mariana Trench. Statement-II: It has been classified as a Bacteriophage. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) With reference to ADHD, consider the following statements: It affects around 5% of school-aged children. Adults do not have a diagnosis of ADHD. Frequent forgetfulness is one of the symptoms. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  18th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 17th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 19th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Special Campaign 3.0 initiative Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: The Department of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation undertook the Special Campaign 3.0 initiative recently. Background:- The activities relating to cleanliness, review & simplification of rules & procedures, review of the record management system, productive use of space, and disposal of waste materials for enhancing workplace experience are being undertaken. (Water Crisis in India) About Special Campaign 3.0 initiative:- Launched: 2nd October, 2023. Time period: from 2nd October, 2023 to 31st October, 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions. Nodal Agency: Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances. Background:- The Special Campaign 3.0 was preceded by a preparatory phase from 15th September to 30th September 2023. The launch ceremony was attended by nodal officers of Special Campaign 3.0, Nodal Officers of Public Grievances and Appellate Authorities in all the 84 Ministries/Departments of Government of India. Objectives of the Campaign are:- Digitization – Creation of Intra-Ministerial portals 100% digital receipts Efficient Management of Office Spaces – Use of Compactors Clearing of scrap Enhancement of Office Spaces – Creation of Wellness 4 Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances  Centres Improvement of Office Corridors Environment-friendly Practices – Automatic power systems EV charging stations Inclusivity Measures – Enabling washrooms/Elevators/ Ramps for differently-abled persons Washroom for ladies Salient Features:- Special Campaign 3.0 focuses on Swachhata and Reducing Pendency in Government Offices with a saturation approach. It will focus on field/outstation offices responsible for service delivery or having a public interface in addition to the Ministries/Departments and their attached/subordinate offices. The Special Campaign 3.0 will be conducted in all Central Ministries / Departments, and attached/subordinate offices of the Government of India. The Preparatory part of the Special Campaign 3.0 will commence with the launch of the Special Campaign 3.0 portal and will continue till September 30, 2023. During this Ministries/Departments will identify the pendency in selected categories and finalize the campaign sites. The website https://scdpm.nic.in is a dedicated web portal for monitoring Special Campaign 3.0. All Ministries / Departments shall report monitored data on this website which is a single digital platform. The campaign thrust areas are MP’s References, Parliamentary Assurances, PMO Inter-departmental Memos, Inter-Ministerial Consultation References, State Government References, Public Grievances, Public Grievance Appeals, Record Management Practices, Swachhata Campaign sites and Scrap Disposal. The Special Campaign 3.0 portal will open for updation of achievements data for the campaign on October 2nd -31st and will be closed on November 5th, 2023. A third-party evaluation will be undertaken from November 14th -30th, 2023. DARPG has created Hashtag #SpecialCampaign3.0 for Social Media Posts. MUST READ: Swachh Bharat 2.0 SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Chilobrachys natanicharum Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT ANT ECOLOGY Context: Recently, a new species of tarantula Chilobrachys natanicharum was recently found. around the mangrove forest of Thailand. About Chilobrachys natanicharum:- Family: Theraphosidae. It’s the first tarantula ever identified living in Thailand’s mangroves. The spider had been known for some time in the exotic spider trade. It is referred to as the Electric Blue Tarantula. Tarantulas are a type of large, hairy spider belonging to the family Theraphosidae. “Blue is one of the rarest colours to appear in nature, which makes blue colouration in animals particularly fascinating. The Tarantula derives its colours not from the presence of any blue pigmentation but rather from “the unique structure of their hair, which incorporates nanostructures that manipulate light to create this striking blue appearance. These hairs are present on various parts of the spider’s body, including its legs, pincer-like mouth appendages, and upper shell. The electric blue tarantula demonstrates remarkable adaptability. (Money Spider and Ant-mimicking Spider) These tarantulas can thrive in arboreal (within tree hollows) as well as terrestrial burrows in evergreen forests. However, when it comes to mangrove forests, their habitat is restricted to residing inside tree hollows due to the influence of tides. Significance:– Findings like these highlight the value of preserving these natural habitats, where unique species have carved out small but important ecological niches. MUST READ: Six spider species discovered SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following organisms ·perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q.2) Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Appreciation of currency Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The rupee appreciated by 5 paise to 83.22 against the US dollar recently. Background:- At the interbank foreign exchange, the rupee opened at 83.24 against the dollar and then touched an early high of 83.22. About Appreciation of currency:- It is an increase in the value of one currency in relation to another currency in a floating exchange rate system. Causes: Currencies appreciate against each other for a variety of reasons, including government policy, interest rates, trade balances and business cycles. Impact on trade: Currency appreciation discourages a country’s export activity as its products and services become costlier to buy. Factors affecting appreciation:- Appreciation is directly linked to demand. If the value of the currency appreciates (or goes up), demand for the currency also rises. Effects of currency appreciation on India:- Export costs rise: If the Indian Rupee (INR) appreciates, foreigners will find Indian goods more expensive because they have to spend more for those goods in INR. That means that with the higher price, the number of Indian goods being exported will likely drop. This eventually leads to a reduction in gross domestic product (GDP). Cheaper imports: If Indian goods become more expensive on the foreign market; foreign goods, or imports, will become cheaper in India. About Exchange rate:- Exchange rate is a rate at which a currency of one country can be exchanged with the currency of another country. Under a fixed exchange rate system, devaluation and revaluation are official changes in the value of a country’s currency relative to other currencies. Devaluation is when the price of the currency is officially decreased in a fixed exchange rate system. Revaluation is when the price of the currency is increased within a fixed exchange rate system. Under a floating exchange rate system, market forces generate changes in the value of the currency, known as currency depreciation or appreciation. Currency appreciation refers to the increase in value of one currency relative to another in the forex markets. Currency depreciation is a fall in the value of a currency in a floating exchange rate system. Rupee Depreciation Effects of currency depreciation:- Improves export competitiveness. May lead to pulling of foreign investment. A weaker currency may escalate imported oil and edible oil prices and lead to higher food inflation. MUST READ: Recent Trend of Current Account Deficit (CAD) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2021) The effect of the devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily Improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets Increase the foreign value of the domestic currency Improves the trade balance Which of the above statements is/are  1 only  1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of the Indian rupee? (2019) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee-denominated Masala Bonds Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing  Following an expansionary monetary policy World Food Day 2023 Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, World Food Day 2023 Background:- WWF report states that the water crisis threatens $58 trillion in economic value, food security and sustainability. About World Food Day 2023:- Founded in 1945. Date: 16th Theme of World Food Day in 2023: “Water is life, water is food.” “Don’t leave anyone behind.” “Water is necessary for life on Earth.” The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), a United Nations specialized agency, founded World Food Day in 1945. It was declared an international holiday after 34 years during the 20th FAO summit in November 1979. World Food Day educates people globally about hunger, food security, and malnutrition, fostering empathy and understanding. It provides a platform for governments, NGOs, and institutions to advocate policies enhancing food security. It emphasizes sustainable practices like crop rotation and conservation farming, promoting long-term food security while preserving natural resources. It inspires individuals and communities to volunteer, support local farmers, and promote nutrition education. It provides a platform for discussions on climate change’s impact on agriculture, food distribution inequalities, and the need for farming innovations. It encourages collaboration between nations, NGOs, and organizations. MUST READ: Food security SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following infrastructure sectors: (2023) Affordable housing Mass rapid transport Health care Renewable energy On how many of the above does the UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus on its investments? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Alzheimer's Disease Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, scientists discovered that deep sleep can keep the symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease at bay. Background:- Deep sleep could be key to forestalling slow declines in brain health that may one day lead to Alzheimer’s disease, the most common form of dementia. Based on their investigation involving 62 older, cognitively healthy adults, researchers from the University of California (UC) Berkeley, Stanford University, and UC Irvine in the US found individuals with brain changes associated with Alzheimer’s performed better on memory function tests as they got more deep sleep. About Alzheimer’s disease:- IMAGE SOURCE: About Alzheimer’s Disease [INFOGRAPHIC] – Infographic Plaza Alzheimer’s disease is a neurological disorder. It causes brain cells to degenerate and die. This leads to loss of memory, problems with words in speaking or writing, poor judgment, changes in mood and personality, confusion with time or place, etc. It is a brain disorder that gets worse over time. Alzheimer’s is the most common cause of dementia among older adults. Alzheimer’s is an incurable disease, as the death of brain cells cannot be reversed. Women have a higher risk of having Alzheimer’s disease than men. Causes:- Alzheimer’s disease is thought to be caused by the abnormal build-up of proteins in and around brain cells. One of the proteins involved is called amyloid, deposits of which form plaques around brain cells and the other protein is called tau. Tau is a protein that when it occurs in tangled formations in the brain of Alzheimer patients, disrupts the ability of neurons to communicate with one another in the brain. Symptoms:- A gradual decline in some, most or all of the following:- Memory. Reasoning and handling of complex tasks. Language. Understanding visual form and space relationship. Management and Treatment:- Medication: There’s no cure for Alzheimer’s disease, but certain medications can temporarily slow the worsening of dementia symptoms. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has approved two types of drugs to treat the symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease: Cholinesterase inhibitors. NMDA antagonists. Managing behaviour changes:- Maintaining a familiar environment for them. Monitoring patients’ comfort. Providing comfort objects, such as a favorite stuffed animal or blanket. MUST READ: Need for stronger mental health strategy SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following? (2023) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting a series of drug trials in  a population Q.2) ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations? (2023) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal  samples from land surfaces and  water bodies Amazon Rainforest Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, in Brazil’s Amazon Rainforest, rivers have fallen to record low levels during drought. Background:- The record confirms that this part of the world’s largest rainforest is suffering its worst drought, just a little over two years after its most significant flooding. About Amazon Rainforest:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA Location: South America. Temperatures: 20°C and 35°C. The name ‘Amazon’ was given by Spanish explorer Francisco Orellana, after he was attacked when exploring the region by female warriors named the Icamiabas, or ‘women without husbands’. He compared them to the Amazons of Greek mythology. The Amazon rainforest covers some 40% of the South American continent. It is in 9 countries: Brazil, Colombia, Peru, Venezuela, Ecuador, Bolivia, and the three Guyanas. They are the world’s largest tropical rainforests. They occupy the drainage basin of the Amazon River and its tributaries in northern South America. As of 2021, the Amazon had 74% of its area covered by tropical rainforests and 9% of other natural vegetation types. They are home to nearly a fifth of the world’s land species and over 45 million people. The rainforest of the Amazon is home to 400–500 indigenous Amerindian tribes. (Amazon Cooperation Treaty Organization (ACTO)) Tropical forests are closed-canopy forests growing within 28 degrees north or south of the equator. They are very wet places, receiving more than 200 cm of rainfall per year, either seasonally or throughout the year. Significance:- It is the source of 20% of the oxygen used by the planet. 25% of all Western pharmaceuticals come from rainforest-based ingredients. More than 80% of the world’s food has its origins in the Amazon rainforest. An estimated 30% of the world’s species live in the Amazon. Around 30% of our carbon emissions come from burning the Amazon rainforest. MUST READ: Deforestation in Amazon Basin SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements: (2021) The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is part of a project led by Climate Change, Agriculture, and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research program. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centres. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Ring of Fire eclipse Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: The ‘Ring of Fire’ eclipse was observed across the Americas recently. Background:- It first came to the darkening skies, then the crescent-shaped shadows on the ground, and finally an eruption of cheers by crowds that gathered Saturday along the narrow path of a rare “ring of fire” eclipse of the Sun. About Ring of fire eclipse:- A Solar Eclipse happens when the moon comes in between the sun and the Earth, due to which the moon blocks the sun’s light from reaching the Earth, causing an There are three main types of solar eclipses: total, partial, and annular. Total solar eclipse: It occurs when the Moon entirely blocks the Sun, creating a breathtaking sight as the Earth is engulfed in darkness. Partial solar eclipse: It happens when the Moon only partially covers the Sun, casting a mesmerizing dance of light and shadow on the Earth’s surface. Annular solar eclipse: It results in the captivating “Ring of Fire” phenomenon, where the Moon’s smaller apparent size creates a stunning golden ring around the darkened Sun. It occurs when the moon is farthest from the Earth, making it appear smaller than the sun. It happens when the moon does not fully cover the disk of the sun, leaving a thin outer ring often called a “ring of fire.” This eclipse doesn’t darken skies the way the total solar eclipse does. The next ring of fire eclipse is in October next year at the southernmost tip of South America. Antarctica gets one in 2026. MUST READ: Ningaloo Eclipse 2023 SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change The gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in a straight line The speed of light is always the same Q.2) The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to (2020) Voyager-2 New Horizons LISA Pathfinder Evolved LISA Mains: INDIA-SRI LANKA FERRY SERVICE AFTER 40 YEARS Syllabus    GSPAPER 2 Context: An age old sea route between India and Sri Lanka has been rejuvenated with the inauguration of a passenger ferry service from Nagapattinam in Tamil Nadu to Kankesanthural in Jaffana, Northern Sri Lanka. The ferry service was launched with a vessel named ‘Cheriyapani’. ABOUT THE SERVICE The Maritime linkage between the two is not new, Earlier Indo-Ceylon express or boat Mail ran between Chennai and Colombovia the Thoothukudi port from the early 100s up until 1982. The most popular route was from Dhanushkodi to Talaimannar, it time taken was roughly 2 hrs. The service came to halt due to civil war in Sri Lanka. For the resumption of service, attempts started in 2009 after civil war ended. In 2011 Memorandum of Understanding concerning passenger transportation by sea was signed but it did not last for more than six months. POTENTIAL IMPACT OF THE FERRY SERVICES Transportation and Connectivity: Ferry services provide an additional transportation option for travelers, enhancing accessibility to different regions and countries, especially when there are no direct land routes or when travel by road is less practical. Tourism Promotion: Ferry services can boost tourism by making it easier for tourists to explore island. Especially it will promote religious tourism. Indian pilgrim centres such as Nagapattinam, Nagore, Velankanni, Thirunallar and temple towns such as Thanjavur, Madurai and Tiruchi are expected to a see an influx of Lankan tourists. People-to-People Connections: Ferry services can foster cultural exchange and people-to-people diplomacy between two countries, helping build closer relationships. Economic Development: It can promote economic development in coastal and island regions by increasing accessibility and encouraging investment in infrastructure and tourism. Reduced Carbon Footprint: Ferries are generally considered more environmentally friendly than other modes of transport, such as air travel, as they produce lower carbon emissions per passenger-kilometer. CHALLENGES Border Disputes: The maritime boundary between India and Sri Lanka has been a source of dispute in the past. Hence, ferry route would require careful consideration of these disputes and adherence to international laws. Maritime Security: Ensuring the safety and security of passengers and cargo on a ferry route is essential. Addressing potential threats from piracy or terrorism in the region is a significant challenge. Port Infrastructure: Developing and maintaining adequate port facilities in both India and Sri Lanka for handling ferry operations is the biggest challenge as of now. Initial plan of Shipping Corporation of India is to run services thrice a week. Financial Viability: Assessing the economic feasibility and long-term sustainability of the ferry route, given potential fluctuations in demand and competition with other modes of transportation, is crucial. Currently, the price of ticket is approximately Rs 7,670 which is costly hence can make tourist choose other viable routes. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Neurological Disorder Description 1.Parkinson’s Disease Causes unintended or uncontrollable movements, such as shaking, stiffness, and difficulty with balance and coordination. 2.Alzheimer’s disease a loss of thinking, remembering, and reasoning skills. 3.Dementia a brain disorder that slowly destroys memory and thinking skills and, eventually, the ability to carry out the simplest tasks. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The weakening of the rupee may lead to a widening of the current account deficit and depletion of the foreign exchange reserves. Statement-II: Appreciation improves export competitiveness. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Chilobrachys natanicharum, consider the following statements: It demonstrates remarkable adaptability. These tarantulas cannot thrive in arboreal habitats. It’s the first tarantula ever identified living in Vietnam’s mangroves. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  17th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 16th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Operation Ajay Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Two more flights Under Operation Ajay arrived in India carrying Indian nationals from war-torn Israel recently. Background:- More than 900 Indians brought back home from war-torn Israel. About Operation Ajay:- Beginning: 12 October 2023. Objective: the government will bring back its citizens through special chartered flights. Operation Ajay is a mission aimed at repatriating Indian citizens who were residing in Israel. The Indian government will be sending special chartered flights to repatriate citizens from Israel and Palestine. Indian Navy ships may also be sent if the need arises. Current Situation in Israel:- Israel continued its strikes against Hamas militants in Gaza, in response to a brutal assault in Israel by Hamas recently. So far, 2,300 lives have been lost on both sides. (ISRAEL-PALESTINE CONFLICT) The situation continues to be grim. Diaspora:- Around 18,000 Indians are currently in Israel. Of these, most of them are caregivers. There are also about 1,000 students, several IT professionals and diamond traders. At least 17 Indians are stranded in Palestine, which includes aid workers and those who went there for business. Communication helplines:- The Indian embassy in Israel communicates with registered Indian citizens through email, providing instructions and updates for subsequent flights. The Ministry of External Affairs has set up a 24-hour control room to monitor the ongoing developments. In addition, the Embassy of India in Tel Aviv has set up a 24-hour emergency helpline, which can be accessed. Further, the Representative Office of India in Ramallah has also set up a 24-hour emergency helpline. Significance: – Operation Ajay Acts as a model for effective and flexible evacuation procedures, guaranteeing the safety of people during trying circumstances. (Vande Bharat Mission and International Cooperation) MUST READ: Operation Sadbhavana SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Rasmussen’s encephalitis Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, doctors Shut down Half of a girl’s Brain to halt the rare disease Rasmussen’s encephalitis. Background:- To help a sick girl named Brianna Bodley, doctors at Loma Linda University Health in California turned off one half of her brain. This was because she had a condition called Rasmussen’s encephalitis, which causes swelling in the brain. About Rasmussen’s encephalitis:- IMAGE SOURCE: About.com Health Rasmussen’s encephalitis is an extremely rare, chronic inflammatory neurological disease. The patient usually experiences frequent episodes of uncontrolled electrical disturbances in the brain that cause epileptic seizures (epilepsy) and progressive cerebral destruction. (Rare Diseases) With time, further symptoms may include:- progressive weakness of one side of the body (hemiparesis), language problems (if on the left side of the brain) and intellectual disabilities. Cause: The exact cause of this disorder is not known. The two leading ideas are that brain inflammation might be a reaction of a foreign antigen (infection) or an autoimmune disease limited to one side of the brain resulting in brain damage. Age Group:- It occurs mostly, but not always, in children between the ages of two and ten years. In many patients the course of the disease is most severe during the first 8 to 12 months. After the peak inflammatory response is reached, the progression of this disorder appears to slow or stop, and the patient is left with permanent neurological deficits. It often results in permanent disabilities such as epilepsy, paralysis, and cognitive problems. The severity varies among individuals. (Disease Surveillance System) Treatment:- Antiseizure Medications: These medications are often used to manage seizures, although they might not completely eliminate them. Immunotherapy: Early use of immunotherapy may help control seizures or prevent further immune-related brain damage. Brain Surgery (Hemispherectomy): It involves the removal or disconnection of half of the patient’s brain from the rest of the brain. MUST READ: Rare disease ‘GNB1 Encephalopathy SOURCE: CNN PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements: (2021) Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of the egg. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from the mother and not from the father. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 BlueWalker 3 satellite Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent observations taken within weeks of its launch showed the BlueWalker 3 satellite was among the brightest objects in the sky. Background:- According to a new study, is as bright as the brightest stars in the 89 constellations of Canis Minor and Eridanus. About BlueWalker 3 satellite:- Launched: 9:20 p.m. ET Launch date: 10 September 2022. BlueWalker 3 is a prototype satellite. (NASA and ISRO collaborate on satellite NISAR) It is part of a satellite constellation planned by its owner AST SpaceMobile (a U.S.-based company). It is designed to operate directly with standard, unmodified mobile devices. It has a 64-square-meter (693-square-foot) antenna system. It uses its large phased-array antenna to generate power from space and deliver cellular broadband directly to mobile phones. This is the largest commercial antenna system ever deployed into low Earth orbit. It is the first of what is expected to be more than a hundred similar or even larger satellites. It is a predecessor to planned commercial satellites called Blue birds. Applications:- The spacecraft was built to establish connectivity directly with cell phones via 3GPP-standard frequencies. It is intended to deliver mobile or broadband services anywhere in the world. Challenges:- Bluewalker 3’s large size and bright reflective surfaces could interfere with astronomical observations. Its light could be mistaken for stars or interfere with the ability to detect dimmer objects. It actively transmits at radio frequencies that are close to bands reserved for radio astronomy, which may hamper radio telescope observations. MUST READ: India’s first private rocket – Vikram-S SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Garba Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, the Vishwa Hindu Parishad issued a diktat to make the Aadhaar card mandatory for participants in garba and dandiya festivities during the nine-day Navratri festival in Maharashtra and India. Background:- The nine-day garba and dandiya dance is part of festive rituals in Maharashtra. About Garba:- Garba is native to the Indian state of Gujarat. It is performed around an earthen pot (garbo) with a lamp inside, which is called a ‘Garbha Deep.’ The lantern symbolizes life – the fetus in the womb, in particular. The pot itself is a symbol of the body, within which divinity resides. Dancers move around in circles, making circular movements with their hands and feet around this earthen pot. This gesture symbolizes the circle of life, which moves from life to death to rebirth, leaving only the Mother Divine unmoved, unchanging and invincible. The Garba costume consists of a three-piece – the choli or blouse, chaniya or long skirt and an embellished dupatta. Embroidery and mirrorwork may be found in the multi-hued attire, making the atmosphere vibrant and lively. The men wear a kediyu (a full-sleeved kurta that is tight at the chest and flares like a frock at the waist) with kafni pajamas (a multi-pleated pant that tapers towards the bottom) and a pagdi or turban. Significance:- Garba dancing also takes place during the nine-day Navratri festival. (National Youth Festival) In Gujarat the dances customarily mark a girl’s first menstrual cycle and, later, her imminent marriage. About Dandiya:- In Dandiya, both men and women energetically dance with colourful and decorated bamboo sticks, striking them to the beats of instruments like the dholak and tabla. The dance is a beautiful way of re-creating the battle that took place between the Devi and the demon. The colourful sticks used during Dandiya represent the sword of Goddess Durga, which is why this dance form is also known as ‘The Sword Dance.‘ The sounds of the instruments playing are reminiscent of the metallic clangs that may be heard on the battlefield. About Navratri:- Navratri is an Indian festival celebrated throughout the country to worship the nine forms of the goddess Durga. This festival not only marks the triumph of good over evil (victory of Indian Goddess Durga over the demonic king Mahishasur) According to the Yogic culture, the summer solstice marks the beginning of the southern movement of the sun, this time is known as ‘sadhana pada’, during this time many festivals are celebrated which is of divine feminine nature. Mainly, Sharada Navratri is celebrated at this time. This festival starts right after Mahalaya Amavasya (Pitru Paksha), Mahalaya denotes the Devi Pada. This is the time when the whole northern hemisphere of the Earth generates the divine feminine gentleness. This is when Devi is celebrated with glory through the nine days of offerings, rituals, and celebrations. MUST READ: Lavani SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Ruddy Shelduck Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Ruddy Shelduk, recently arrived for a winter stay. Background:- The first batch of about 50 members of the Ruddy Shelduck, popularly known as ‘Surkhab’ birds, arrived for a six-month winter stay. About Ruddy Shelduck:- Scientific name: Tadorna ferruginea. Family: Anatidae. Distribution:- CONTINENTS: Europe, Asia, Africa. COUNTRIES: China, South Korea, Mongolia, Spain, Albania, Bulgaria, Denmark, Greece, Italy, Romania. ISLANDS: Canary Island. Habitat: The Ruddy Shelducks inhabit large wetlands, lakes, rivers with mudflats and shingle banks. Diet: They feed on roots, shoots, buds, grasses, leaves, seeds and stems. Legend:- Legend has it that two people fell in love but the Gods did not approve of their alliance and transformed them into Ruddy Shelducks and placed them on opposite shores of a river, with a curse that they could never meet. Features:- The ruddy shelduck known in India as the Brahminy duck. It is a migratory bird. It is a distinctive (Bird flu) It is 58 to 70 cm (23 to 28 in) in length with a wingspan of 110 to 135 cm (43 to 53 in). It has orange-brown body plumage with a paler head. The tail and the flight feathers in the wings are black, contrasting with the white wing coverts. These shelducks are fairly large birds. The males are larger than the females. It has a loud honking call. The ruddy shelduck is a mainly nocturnal bird. It is omnivorous and feeds on grasses, the young shoots of plants, grain and water plants as well as both aquatic and terrestrial invertebrates. It visits the Indian subcontinent and breeds in southeastern Europe and central Asia, though there are small resident populations in North Africa. MUST READ: Aztec hummingbirds SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following ‘fauna: (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: (2023) They build nests by making burrows in the ground. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: INDIAN SATELLITES LAUNCH YEAR 1.Cartosat-3 2019 2.EOS-01 2023 3.Chandrayaan-2 2013 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Ruddy Shelduck is a mainly nocturnal bird. Statement-II: It is carnivorous. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Rasmussen’s encephalitis, consider the following statements: Early use of immunotherapy does not help control the seizures at all. Brain Surgery is the ONLY treatment. It often results in permanent disabilities. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 3 only 2 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  16th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 14th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Global Hunger Index 2023 Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INDICES Context: Global Hunger Index 2023 was released recently. Key Highlights:- IMAGE SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH The 2023 GHI shows that, after many years of advancement up to 2015, progress against hunger worldwide remains largely at a standstill. As the effects of crises multiply and intensify, more and more people are experiencing severe hunger, with the situation expected to worsen throughout the year. South Asia and sub-Saharan Africa are the global regions characterized by the most severe hunger levels, both holding a GHI score of 27, signifying a serious state of hunger. India topped the list of countries with the highest child-wasting rate in the world, at 18.7 per cent, reflecting acute undernutrition. The country’s child wasting rate is higher than that of conflict-ridden Yemen (at 14.4 per cent) and Sudan at (13.7 per cent), which hold the second and third positions, respectively India has been ranked at the 111th position out of 124 countries, with neighbouring Pakistan (102th), Bangladesh (81st), Nepal (69th) and Sri Lanka (60th) faring better than it in the index. The country slipped four notches from its 107th position in 2022. Child wasting: refers to the share of children under age five who have low weight for their height. Indian government’s stand: The Indian government has questioned the methodology of GHI. Initiatives taken by the government:- National Food Security Act, 2013: It legally entitled up to 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population to receive subsidized food grains under the Targeted Public Distribution System. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme: Launched on 2nd October 1975, the ICDS Scheme offers a package of six services (Supplementary Nutrition, preschool non-formal education, Nutrition & health education, Immunization, Health check-up and Referral services) to children in the age group of 0-6 years, pregnant women and lactating mothers. Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana: A centrally sponsored scheme executed by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, is a maternity benefit programme being implemented in all districts of the country with effect from 1st January 2017. POSHAN Abhiyan: Launched in 2018, it aims to reduce stunting, undernutrition, and anaemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls). Food Fortification: Food Fortification or Food Enrichment is the addition of key vitamins and minerals such as iron, iodine, zinc, and Vitamin A & D to staple foods such as rice, milk and salt to improve their nutritional content. About Global Hunger Index 2023:- Time period: Annual. Published by: Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe. The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is a tool for comprehensively measuring and tracking hunger at global, regional, and national levels. GHI scores are based on the values of four component indicators: Undernourishment: the share of the population with insufficient caloric intake. Child stunting: the share of children under age five who have low height for their age, reflecting chronic undernutrition. Child wasting: the share of children under age five who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute undernutrition. Child mortality: the share of children who die before their fifth birthday, partly reflecting the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments. Based on the values of the four indicators, a GHI score is calculated on a 100-point scale. The scale reflects the severity of hunger, where 0 is the best possible score (no hunger) and 100 is the worst. Each country’s GHI score is classified by severity, from low to extremely alarming. (Understanding the Global Hunger Index) MUST READ: Food security SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following infrastructure sectors : (2023) Affordable housing Mass rapid transport Health care Renewable energy On how many of the above does the UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus on its investments? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in  the context of interventions being  undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt  Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Kawar Lake Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent reports show that Bihar’s Kawar Lake has been neglected and is on the brink of drying up. Background:- While Bihar has many wetlands, only one is recognized Kawar Lake. About Kawar Lake:- Location: Begusarai, Bihar. It is also known as Gokhur Lake or Kabartal Wetland. It is a residual oxbow lake formed by the changing course of the River Gandak. It is the largest freshwater oxbow lake in Asia. It was declared a Ramsar site in August 2020. (COP14 of Ramsar Convention on Wetlands) It was declared a notified area under the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972. To check the poaching of birds, it was declared a protected zone by the Bihar state government in 1986. The government of India declared it a bird sanctuary in 1989. It is one of the most important wetlands for waterfowl in the Indo-Gangetic Plain. It supports huge numbers of migratory ducks and Coot through the winter, as well as large concentrations of resident species such as ruficollis and Asian Openbill. The lake has been home to 58 migratory birds. It served as an important stopover along the Central Asian Flyway with at least 58 migratory water birds. Threats:- Encroachment Conflicts between farmers and fisherfolk Illegal activities exacerbate the degradation. The lake has been experiencing a steady decrease in water levels since 2010. The lake faces challenges due to policy implementation gaps, illegal activities like migratory bird hunting, and a lack of effective conservation measures. About Gandak River:- It is a tributary of the The Gandaki River system lies in the central part of Nepal. Its river basin is also referred to as the Narayani river system. It is a transboundary river system, originating from the Tibetan Plateau, flowing through central Nepal and draining into the Ganges River in India. About 69% of the total area lies in Nepal. It is the second-largest river basin of Nepal. Tributaries: Marsyangdi, Daraudi, Seti, Madi, Kali Gandaki, Budi Gandaki and Trishuli are the seven major tributaries of the Gandaki river basin. It flows southwest into India and then turns southeast along the Uttar Pradesh–Bihar state border and across the Indo-Gangetic Plain. MUST READ: (India Designates 5 New Ramsar Sites) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of the Ramsar Convention. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 17th Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) Annual Tourism Summit Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: The Inaugural session of the 17th Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) Annual Tourism Summit was held recently. Background:- Addressing the inaugural session of the 17th CII Annual Tourism Summit held in Mumbai today, Ms V Vidyavathi said that we should be deliberating on how to reach this goal. About the 17th Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) Annual Tourism Summit: Date: 13 October 2023. Venue: Mumbai. Theme: ‘Strengthening Tourism through Economic and Green Opportunities’. CII has organized the 17th CII Tourism Summit to bring together all stakeholders on one platform to discuss and deliberate the challenges and path forward. It was said that tourism is one of the largest service industries in India fuelling job creation. Several recommendations to the Ministry of Tourism were put forward. The Ministry was requested to bring mechanisms in place where licenses are given without any delays. The branding and promotion of Incredible India was advised to be done across the world and throughout the year on a continuous basis. It was emphasized that all stakeholders need to work together while balancing economic growth with environmental sustainability and create a tourism sector that is not only economically robust but also a model of responsible and green tourism. About Confederation of Indian Industry (CII):- Establishment: 1895. HQ: New Delhi. It is a non-government, not-for-profit, industry-led and industry-managed organization. Objectives: It works to create and sustain an environment conducive to the development of India, partnering with industry, Government, and civil society, through advisory and consultative processes. Functions of CII:- To identify and strengthen the industry’s role in the economic development of the country.  ( CII) To act as a catalyst in bringing about the growth and development of Indian Industry. To reinforce the industry’s commitment to society. To provide up-to-date information and data to industry and government. To create awareness and support the industry’s efforts on quality, environment, energy management, and consumer protection. To identify and address the special needs of the small sector to make it more competitive.  (Cooperative Sector Reforms) To promote cooperation with counterpart organizations. To work towards the globalization of Indian industry and integration into the world economy. MUST READ: Quality Council of India (QCI) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following heavy industries: (2023) Fertilizer plants Oil refineries Steel plants Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: India accounts for 3·2% of the global export of goods. Statement-II : Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct 5th National Water Awards 2023 Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT AWARDS Context: Recently, the Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation launched the 5th National Water Awards 2023. Background:- All the applications for the awards will be received through the online portal till 15th December. About the 5th National Water Awards 2023:- First National Water Award: 2018. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. The awards were introduced to recognize and encourage exemplary work and efforts made by States, Districts, individuals, and organizations, across the country in accomplishing the government’s vision of Jal Samridh Bharat. It aims to sensitize the public about the importance of water and motivates them to adopt the best water usage practices. Objectives:- To encourage the stakeholders to adopt a holistic approach towards water resources management in the country. To create awareness among the people about the importance of water and attempt to motivate them to adopt the best water usage practices. Start-ups, leading organizations and people can engage, deliberate and strengthen existing partnerships on issues concerning water conservation and management activities. Eligibility for the awards:- Any State, District, Village Panchayat, Urban Local Body, School/College, Institution (other than school/college), Industry, Civil society, Water User Association or an individual who has done exemplary work in the field of water conservation and management are eligible to apply. Trophy and Citation:- For the categories – ‘Best State’ and ‘Best District’, winners will be felicitated with a trophy and citation. In the remaining categories – ‘Best Village Panchayat’, ‘Best Urban Local Body’, ‘Best School/College’, ‘Best Institution (other than school/college)’, ‘Best Industry’, ‘Best Civil Society’, ‘Best Water User Association’, ‘Best Industry’, and ‘Best Individual for excellence’ winners will be felicitated with cash prize along with trophy and citation. Cash prizes for the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd winners are 2 lakhs, Rs.1.5 lakhs, and Rs.1 lakh, respectively. Selection Process:- All applications received for the National Water Awards are scrutinized by a Screening Committee of the DoWR, RD & GR. The shortlisted applications are placed before a Jury Committee headed by a retired Secretary level officer. Thereafter, ground truthing of the shortlisted applications is carried out by the organizations of DoWR, RD & GR viz. Central Water Commission (CWC) and Central Ground Water Board (CGWB). The Jury Committee evaluate the applications on the basis of reports of ground truthing and recommends the winners. The recommendations of the Committee are submitted to the Union Minister (Jal Shakti) for approval. The names of the winners are announced on a suitable date and an award distribution ceremony is organized. Significance:- India has more than 18% of the world’s population, it has only 4% of the world’s renewable water resources. ( Water Crisis in India) MUST READ: Rashtriya Puruskar Portal SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements : (2023) It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 (CAR) T-cell therapy Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: India’s first chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell therapy was approved recently. Background:- For treating relapsed-refractory B-cell lymphoma and leukaemia, Mumbai-based Immunoadoptive Cell Therapy Private Limited (ImmunoACT) announced the approval of India’s first chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell therapy by the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) on October 13, 2023. Priorly, CAR-T cell therapy cost around $400,000 or over Rs 3.3 crore and patients could avail of it in the United States. With this development, the therapy will be accessible at 20 Indian government and private hospitals treating cancer across major cities at around Rs 30-35 lakh per patient. About (CAR) T-cell therapy:- Chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell therapy is a kind of cancer treatment that uses cells from your own immune system. It treats certain cancers by turning your T-lymphocytes or T-cells into more efficient cancer-fighting machines. CAR T-cell therapy is proving to be a very effective way of treating certain blood cancers. Treatment Mechanism:- The blood is first drawn from the patient. Then, immune cells called T-cells are genetically modified in a laboratory. These modified T-cells are injected back into the patient to enable the cells to locate and destroy cancer cells more effectively. Applications:- The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has approved several CAR T-cell therapies for people who have certain blood cancers that don’t respond to chemotherapy and other treatments. (National Cancer Registry Programme Report 2020) This therapy is also used to treat people who have blood cancer that returns after other successful treatments. Challenges:- Cytokine release syndrome (CRS): This happens when CAR T-cells begin attacking cancer and trigger an immune response in your body. Brain and nervous system problems. Serious infections. MUST READ: ICMR’s ‘Clinicopathological Profile of Cancers in India’ Report SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following? (2023) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting a series of drug trials in  a population Q.2) ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations? (2023) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal  samples from land surfaces and  water bodies Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent reports by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) show that farmers lost $3.8 trillion to disasters over 30 years. Background:- An estimated $3.8 trillion worth of crops and livestock production has been lost due to natural disasters over the last 30 years, with Asia experiencing the largest share of the total economic losses, according to the report. About the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO):- Founded: 1945 in Quebec City, Canada. Parent organization: United Nations Economic and Social Council. HQ: Rome, Italy. Motto: “Let there be bread”. (The millet mission) Members: With 195 members – 194 countries and the European Union, FAO works in over 130 countries worldwide. Objective: to achieve food security for all and make sure that people have regular access to enough high-quality food to lead active, healthy lives. The Food and Agriculture Organization is a specialized agency of the United Nations. It leads international efforts to defeat hunger and improve nutrition and food security. (FAO Food Price Index) Its sister bodies are the World Food Programme and the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD). Flagship Publications:- The State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture (SOFIA). The State of the World’s Forests (SOFO). The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World (SOFI). The State of Food and Agriculture (SOFA). The State of Agricultural Commodity Markets (SOCO). MUST READ: Food Security in India SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following trees : (2023) Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus.) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2023) Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Mains: Green Methanol: India’s Future Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: NITI Aayog has prepared a comprehensive plan advocating the adoption of methanol as the preferred cooking fuel in households as well as commercially. Blending 15% methanol in gasoline can result in at least a 15% reduction in the import of gasoline/crude oil. About Green methanol: It is a low-carbon fuel that can be made from either biomass gasification or renewable electricity and captured carbon dioxide (CO2). This chemical compound can be used as a low-carbon liquid fuel and is a promising alternative to fossil fuels in areas where decarbonisation is a major challenge, such as maritime transport. Applications: As a fuel: It is often blended with gasoline to enhance combustion and reduce emissions. Green methanol, produced from renewable sources and without polluting emissions, serves as a low-carbon liquid fuel and is a promising alternative to fossil fuels, particularly in sectors like maritime transport. It’s also be used in the production of biodiesel. Alternative for renewable energy: Methanol can be produced from renewable sources like biomass and used as a potential energy carrier or fuel in fuel cells and other energy applications. Antifreeze: In automotive applications, particularly in windshield washer fluid, methanol is used as an antifreeze. Chemical Feedstock: Methanol is a crucial feedstock for the production of various chemicals, including formaldehyde, acetic acid, and methyl tert-butyl ether (MTBE). Used as a Solvent: Methanol is a versatile solvent employed in various industrial processes, including chemical manufacturing, pharmaceuticals, and the production of paints, varnishes, and coatings. Advantages of Methanol: Environmental Benefits: When produced from green hydrogen and with carbon capture technologies, methanol can contribute to a reduction in greenhouse gas emissions and air pollutants. This makes it a more environmentally friendly option, particularly when used as a fuel or energy source. Lower Production Costs: Methanol can be produced at a lower cost compared to other alternative fuels, which makes it an economically viable option for various applications. Lower Flammability Risk: Methanol has a lower risk of flammability compared to gasoline, which can enhance safety in certain applications. Emission Control: By adding water to the combustion process, methanol can help meet stringent emission limits, such as the Tier III regulation for nitrogen oxide (NOx) emissions. This makes it a useful choice in applications where emissions need to be controlled. High Octane and Horsepower: Methanol has the ability to produce high octane ratings and can deliver equivalent horsepower to super high-octane gasoline. This can make it a suitable option for high-performance engines. Versatile Use: Methanol can be used in various ways as an engine fuel, including in dedicated methanol engines, as part of binary and ternary alcohol blends (such as M15, M85, and M100). It is also suitable for use in shipping, aviation, fuel reforming using engine waste heat, and industrial electricity generation. Handling and Transportation: Methanol is relatively easy to handle and transport under normal temperatures and pressure conditions. It is also compatible with existing infrastructure, which simplifies its adoption in various industries. The NITI Aayog’s ‘Methanol Economy’ program is a strategic initiative in India with several key objectives which includes: Reducing oil import: can be achieved by blending methanol with gasoline, which can result in a substantial reduction in the import of gasoline and crude oil. The use of methanol as a fuel can significantly lower GHG emissions compared to traditional fuels like gasoline and diesel. This reduction is estimated at 20% in terms of particulate matter, nitrogen oxides (NOx), and Sulfur oxides (SOx), which can lead to improved urban air quality. The program promotes the use of methanol in various sectors, including road transport, rail, marine, energy production (e.g., DG sets and boilers), tractors, commercial vehicles, and retail cooking. This diversification can enhance energy security by reducing reliance on a single type of fuel. The program aims to save consumers money by blending 20% Di-methyl Ether (DME), a derivative of methanol, in liquefied petroleum gas (LPG). This blending can result in savings of Rs 50-100 per cylinder for consumers, making clean cooking fuel more affordable and accessible. Challenges associated with India’s Methanol Economy: India has limited natural gas reserves and relies heavily on imports to meet its demand. Natural gas is the most economical and efficient feedstock for methanol production, but importing natural gas increases the cost and reduces the competitiveness of methanol. India lacks the necessary infrastructure for methanol production, distribution, storage, and utilization. India has a large and diverse population with different preferences and habits for energy consumption. There is a lack of awareness and acceptance among the public and stakeholders about the benefits and challenges of the methanol economy. India can invest in advanced technologies for coal and biomass conversion to methanol to reduce emissions and processing costs. Additionally, sourcing low-ash coal from other regions or countries may be considered. Way Forward: Therefore the solutions for the challenges posed by the India’s green methanol programme lies within the various stakeholders. These solutions require a concerted effort involving government agencies, industry players, and the public to overcome the challenges and promote the Methanol Economy in India. Source:   TH Mental Health in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The World Mental Health Day is celebrated on October 10, focuses on the theme of ‘mental health as a universal human right.’ One frequently disregarded group in discussions about mental health is informal workers. About Mental Disorders: The WHO defines Mental Health as, Mental health is a state of mental well-being that enables people to cope with the stresses of life, realize their abilities, learn well and work well, and contribute to their community. It is an integral component of health and well-being that underpins our individual and collective abilities to make decisions, build relationships and shape the world we live in. Mental disorders include: depression, bipolar affective disorder, schizophrenia and other psychoses, dementia, intellectual disabilities and developmental disorders including autism. State of Mental Health Globally: A study by the International Labour Organization (ILO) reveals that 15% of working-age adults worldwide live with a mental disorder. In India: The World Health Organization (WHO) estimates that approximately 7.5% of Indians currently experience a mental disorder. Moreover, it is predicted that by the end of the year, this number will escalate to around 20%, indicating a significant mental health challenge in the country. A study by the India State-Level Disease Burden Initiative showed that the disease burden in India due to mental disorders increased from 2.5% in 1990 to 4.7% in 2017 in terms of DALYs1 (disability-adjusted life years), and was the leading contributor to YLDs (years lived with disability). Determinants of Mental Health: Mental health is influenced by a complex interplay of social, psychological, and biological factors. Factors that cause mental illness: Factors such as violence, ongoing socio-economic pressures, especially related to sexual violence, are recognized as significant risks to mental well-being. Certain psychological traits and personality factors, along with genetic influences, can make individuals vulnerable to mental health issues. Challenges faced by India’s Informal workforce: Gender Disparities: More than 95% of working women in India engage in precarious informal employment, enduring not only economic instability but also patriarchal social and familial structures that further impact their mental health. Absence of Protections: India’s informal workforce, constituting over 90% of the population, lacks regulatory protection, toiling in unsafe conditions with limited social and financial support, leading to increased mental health risks. Employment Challenges for the Elderly: Around 33 million elderly individuals work post-retirement in informal sectors, lacking financial and health security, exacerbating their vulnerability and affecting their mental health. Youth Unemployment: India faces high youth unemployment rates, contributing to significant mental health challenges among young individuals who often accept precarious work conditions due to desperation, further worsening their well-being. Government of India Initiatives National Mental Health Programme (NMHP): NMHP ensures accessible mental healthcare, especially for vulnerable populations, addressing the mental health needs of the underprivileged. Mental Healthcare Act, 2017: This act decriminalized suicide attempts, incorporated WHO guidelines, introduced advanced directives, and restricted controversial treatments, focusing on destigmatizing mental health issues in society. Kiran: A 24/7 toll-free helpline called Kiran was established by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment in 2020 to offer support to those dealing with anxiety, stress, depression, suicide thoughts, and other mental issues. Tele-MANAS service: Comprehensive mental health care service. Way Forward: The World Mental Health Report 2022 highlights the importance of enhancing community-based care, focusing on people-centered, recovery-oriented, and human rights-based approaches. These proactive policies are necessary to enhance mental health awareness and interventions. The efforts are crucial for safeguarding the fundamental human right to overall well-being, including mental health, and for progressing toward achieving Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) 3 concerning ‘good health and well-being,‘ and SDG 8, which emphasizes ‘decent work for all and economic growth.’ Source:   TH Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: RAMSAR SITES YEAR OF DESIGNATION 1.Kolleru Lake 1999 2.Kabartal Wetland 2020 3.Sultanpur National Park 2023 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : First National Water Award was launched in 2015. Statement-II : The Cash prizes for the Fifth National Water Award 1st, 2nd, and 3rd winners are Rs.2 lakhs, Rs.1.5 lakhs, and Rs.1 lakh, respectively. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the CAR T-Cell Therapy, consider the following statements: Brain and nervous system problems can be a side effect of this treatment. As per the mechanism the modified T-cells are injected back into the patient. It can be used to treat acute lymphocytic leukaemia in kids and young adults.  How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only and 3 only 2 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Discuss the key objectives and potential benefits of India’s Methanol Economy Programme. (250 words) Q.2) Analyse the effectiveness of Indian governmental initiatives in addressing mental health challenges among informal workers. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  14th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 13th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here