Verify it's really you

Please re-enter your password to continue with this action.

Posts

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 5th January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 4th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   New law against hit-and-run Syllabus Prelims –POLITY/ GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, the truck driver’s strike was called off after the government assured to keep the new law against hit and run on hold. Background:- Truck drivers’ associations have called off the three-day strike after the government assured to hold the new Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) replacing the Indian Penal Code. About the New law against hit-and-run:- The new law in Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) under Section 106(2) replaces IPC Section 304A (causing death by negligence). It has more Severe Penalties. The Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) was passed by Parliament in December 2023 and will replace the IPC. Under it, if a driver causes a serious road accident due to careless driving and then leaves without informing the police or any official, they could be punished with up to 10 years in jail and a fine of Rs 7 lakh. The BNS has established two distinct categories under the umbrella of “causing death by negligence.” First category: addresses causing death through any rash or negligent act that does not amount to culpable homicide. Offenders in this category may face imprisonment for up to five years and a fine. Second category: deals with causing death through rash and negligent driving, not amounting to culpable homicide. If the individual escapes without promptly reporting the incident to a police officer or magistrate, they could be subjected to up to 10 years of imprisonment and a fine. Need: According to the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, India recorded 1.51 lakh road deaths in 2019, of which 50,000 were due to hit-and-run incidents. Currently, the accused in hit-and-run cases are tried under Section 304A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), which provides for penalties of up to two years in jail. Argument against it: Transport operators argue that the law may unfairly penalize drivers and could expose them to mob violence, especially when attempting to transport the injured to hospitals.  MUST READ: Road to Safety SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to a such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Bilateral Agreement on Prohibition of Attack on Nuclear Installations and Facilities Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: India, and Pakistan exchange a list of nuclear installations as per the Bilateral Agreement on Prohibition of Attack on Nuclear Installations and Facilities recently. Background:- It was done simultaneously through diplomatic channels in New Delhi and Islamabad. About Bilateral Agreement on Prohibition of Attack on Nuclear Installations and Facilities:- The agreement was signed on December 31, 1988, and came into force on January 27, 1991. The pact mandates the two countries to inform each other of nuclear installations and facilities to be covered under the agreement on January 1 of every calendar year. This is the 33rd consecutive exchange of such lists between the two countries. The agreement’s definition of ‘nuclear installation or facility’ is comprehensive, encompassing a broad range of facilities, including nuclear power and research reactors, fuel fabrication, uranium enrichment, isotope separation, reprocessing facilities, and establishments storing significant quantities of radioactive materials in various forms. Significance:- The Agreement stands as a pivotal diplomatic tool, fostering transparency, confidence, and a secure environment in the realm of nuclear capabilities between India and Pakistan. It reinforces stability and trust between the two nations. Current Issues in India-Pakistan Relations:- Cross Border Terrorism Indus Water Treaty Siachen Glacier(Challenges to secure India’s Land Borders) Sir Creek Reorganization of Jammu & Kashmir (Manasbal Lake, Kashmir)  MUST READ: The status of the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Region often mentioned in the news:     Country Anatolia                                                     Turkey Amhara                                                      Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                             Spain Catalonia                                                     Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) When you travel in the Himalayas, you will see the following: (2012) Deep gorges U-turn river courses Parallel mountain ranges Steep gradients causing land sliding Which of the above can be said to be the evidence for the Himalayas being young fold mountains? 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 World Braille Day Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT EVENTS Context: World Braille Day was celebrated across globe recently. Background:- On this occasion, National Institutes and Composite Regional Centres under the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities are organizing several programs in the country. About World Braille Day:- This day marks the birthday of Louis Braille, the visionary inventor of the Braille script. He was born in France in 1809. The day also recognizes that people with visual impairments should have the same access to human rights as everyone else. The United Nations has designated 4 January every year as World Braille Day. The United Nations General Assembly declared World Braille Day an international day in late 2018. The first celebration was on January 4, 2019. Braille, a universal code rather than a language, serves as a tool to write and read in various languages, including Sanskrit, Arabic, Chinese, Hebrew, Spanish, and many others. It is a system of reading and writing by touch used by the blind. It consists of arrangements of dots that make up letters of the alphabet, numbers, and punctuation marks. The first Braille system was published in 1829 and was adopted by the National Institute for Blind Youth. (Building Disabled Friendly Infrastructure) Significance:- Braille has a day designated to it because of the impact it has had on human rights for people with blindness  MUST READ: Enable The Disabled SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 SEBI (The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, SEBI has ordered the attachment of bank accounts as well as shares and mutual fund holdings of Arun Panchariya to recover dues totalling over ₹26 crore. Background:- In an attachment notice ,the markets watchdog has ordered attachment of bank as well as demat accounts of Panchariya to recover the pending dues. About SEBI:- Establishment: 1992. HQ: Mumbai, Maharashtra. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. Historical Background:- It was established as a statutory bodyin the year 1992 under the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992. Structure of SEBI:- The chairman is nominatedby the Union Government of India. Two members,, Officers from the Union Finance Ministry. One memberfrom the Reserve Bank of India. The remaining five membersare nominated by the Union Government of India, out of them at least three shall be whole-time members. Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) A Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT)has been constituted to protect the interest of entities that feel aggrieved by SEBI’s decision. It is a statutory bodyestablished under the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992. Powers and Functions of SEBI:- SEBI can draft regulations, conduct inquiries, pass rulings and impose penalties. It functions to fulfil the requirements of three categories – Issuers: By providing a marketplace in which the issuers can increase their finance. Investors: By ensuring the safety and supply of precise and accurate information. Intermediaries: By enabling a competitive professional market for intermediaries. By the Securities Laws (Amendment) Act, 2014, SEBI is now able to regulate any money pooling scheme worth Rs. 100 cr. or more and attach assets in cases of non-compliance. SEBI Chairman has the authority to order “search and seizure operations“. SEBI board can also seek information, such as telephone call data records, from any persons or entities with respect to any securities transaction being investigated by it. SEBI perform the function of registration and regulation of the working of venture capital funds and collective investment schemes including mutual funds. It also works for promoting and regulating self-regulatory organizations. It works to prohibit fraudulent and unfair trade practices relating to securities markets.  MUST READ: Sweat Equity Rules: SEBI SOURCE: BUISINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements. (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Savitribai Phule Syllabus Prelims –HISTORY Context: Recently, Prime Minister paid tributes to Savitribai Phule on her Jayanti. About Savitribai Phule:- Born on: January 3, 1831. Born at: Naigaon village of Maharashtra’s Satara district. Savitribai Phule, the social reformer who is considered to be one of India’s first modern feminists. Both Savitribai Phule & her husband Jyotirao Phule went on to found India’s first school for girls called Bhide Wada in Pune in 1848. The Phules started the Satyashodhak Samaj (Society for Truth-Seeking), through which they wanted to initiate the practice of Satyashodhak marriage, in which no dowry was taken. Social Work:- In 1852, Savitribai started the Mahila Seva Mandal to raise awareness about women’s rights. She campaigned against child marriage, while supporting widow remarriage. She initiated the first Satyashodhak marriage—a marriage without a dowry, Brahmin priests or Brahminical rituals in 1873. In 1853, they opened a care centre for pregnant widows to have safe deliveries and to end the practice of infanticide owing to social norms. Literary works:- She published Kavya Phule in 1854 and Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar in 1892. She published Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar (‘The Ocean of Pure Gems’), in 1892. Matushri Savitribai Phlenchi Bhashane va Gaani (S’avitribai Phule’s speeches and songs), and her letters to her husband have also been published. MUST READ: Veer Savarkar SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal, designated as the Governor General of India? (2023) The Regulating Act The Pitt’s India Act The Charter Act of 1793 The Charter Act of 1833 Q.2) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only SMART 2.0 Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the SMART 2.0 was launched. Background:- According to Prof (Vd) Rabinarayan Acharya, DG, CCRAS, the study aims at safety, tolerability and adherence to Ayurveda formulations in the priority research areas of Bal Kasa, Malnutrition, Insufficient lactation, Abnormal Uterine Bleeding, Osteoporosis in post-menopausal women and Diabetes Mellitus (DM) II. About SMART 2.0:- ‘SMART 2.0’ stands for Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda Research among Teaching professionals program. Launched on: January 3rd, 2024. Launched by: The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) and National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM). Ministry : Ministry of Ayush. Objective: to promote robust clinical studies in priority areas of Ayurveda with Ayurveda academic institutions/hospitals across the country through mutual collaboration. Salient Features:- The objective of ‘SMART 2.0’ is to generate a tangible evidence to demonstrate efficacy and safety of Ayurveda interventions using interdisciplinary research methods and translating it into public health care. Under the ‘SMART 1.0’, around 10 diseases were covered with the active participation of teaching professionals from 38 colleges. Under it, the CCRAS and NCISM invite expressions of interest from Ayurveda colleges, hospitals and universities to jointly undertake robust studies demonstrating the efficacy and safety of Ayurveda formulations targeting key healthcare challenges. Areas of Focus: Initial research span pediatrics, women’s health, malnutrition and lifestyle diseases:- Childhood Nutrition: Wasting, lactation issues Menstrual issues: Abnormal uterine bleeding Nutrition: Malnutrition, calcium deficiencies Lifestyle Diseases: Diabetes mellitus, osteoporosis CCRAS will provide scientific inputs and project monitoring during the multi-center trials. Significance:- The SMART initiatives therefore facilitate generating tangible validation on Ayurvedic therapies through interdisciplinary methods involving ministry bodies and academicians.  MUST READ: WHO and Traditional Medicine SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: ORGANIZATION HQ NIA Hyderabad RBI New Delhi SEBI Mumbai How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None  Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The first celebration was on January 4, 2018. Statement-II : The first Braille system was published in 1829. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Savitribai Phule , consider the following statements: She published Kavya Phule in 1854 and Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar in 1892. In 1852, Savitribai started the Mahila Seva Mandal to raise awareness about women’s rights. She published Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar in 1892. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  4th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 3rd January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 4th January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 3rd January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   electronic Supreme Court Reports (e-SCR) project Syllabus Prelims –POLITY/GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, CJI announced the launch of the electronic Supreme Court Reports (e-SCR) project. Background:- In another step towards digitalization, Chief Justice of India (CJI) D Y Chandrachud announced the launch of the electronic Supreme Court Reports (e-SCR) project to provide free access to its about 34,000 judgements to lawyers, law students and the common public. About the electronic Supreme Court Reports (e-SCR) project:- The e-SCR Project is an initiative that will provide the digital version of the Supreme Court’s judgments in the manner as they are reported in the official law report – ‘Supreme Court Reports’. Objective: to bring in a positive change for the benefit of all the stakeholders of justice, primarily litigants and members of the Bar as well as the High Courts, National Law University, Judicial Academies, etc. The e-SCR project will showcase replica soft copies of SCRS by utilizing the verifiable authentic soft copies as available in the PF format. This project will take a step forward toward fulfilling the objective of digitization of the Indian Judiciary. The Supreme Court has developed a search engine with the help of the National Informatics Centre (NIC), which uses elastic search techniques in the database of e-SCR. The search facility in e-SCR provides several options, including free text search, search within search, case type and case year search, judge search, year and volume search, and bench strength search. These initiatives will provide easy access to the judgments of the apex court and facilitate research and understanding of legal matters. The deadline for head-noted judgments of 2022 to be made available online will provide greater transparency and accessibility to the Supreme Court’s work and decisions. With the launch of the e-SCR project, all judgments of the Supreme Court will be made available online within 24 hours. These judgments will be accessible on the Supreme Court’s mobile app and on the National Judicial Data Grid’s judgment portal. The NJDG portal is a national repository of data relating to cases instituted, pending, and disposed of by the courts across the length and breadth of the country. Advantages:- Reduction in the burden of travelling. Browsing through huge volumes of journals in libraries Enhancing its accessibility to those with visual disabilities.  MUST READ: Delegated Legislation SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Sagar Parikrama Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, the 10th phase of Sagar Parikrama began from Chennai Port. Background:- The tenth phase of Sagar Parikrama began from Chennai Port today. Union Minister for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying Parshottam Rupala and Union Minister of State Dr L. Murugan jointly inaugurated the mission which will travel through Nellore, Visakhapatnam and Srikakulam. About Sagar Parikrama:- Ministry: Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying. First phase Began :5th March 2022 . First phase location: Mandvi, Gujarat. Organized by: Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, and National Fisheries Development Board along with- Department of Fisheries, Government of Gujarat, Indian Coast Guard, Fishery Survey of India, Gujarat Maritime Board and Fishermen representatives. Objective: to address the challenges faced by fishers and stakeholders while uplifting their economic prospects through various fisheries schemes and programs, such as Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) & and Kisan Credit Cards (KCC). Sagar Parikrama is a navigation journey to be conducted in all coastal states/UTs through a pre-decided sea route to demonstrate solidarity with all fisherfolk, fish farmers, and concerned stakeholders. It is envisioned as a part of ‘Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsava’ saluting our great freedom fighters, sailors, and fishers. The Parikrama shall be accompanied by the State Fisheries officials, Fishermen representatives, Fish-Farmers entrepreneurs, stakeholders, professionals, officials, and Scientists from across the nation. It is to be celebrated through a pre-decided sea route down right from Gujarat, Diu, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal, Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep Islands. The Sagar Parikrama Program is to have an interaction with fishermen, fisher communities, and stakeholders in these locations and districts. (Conserving Marine Resources) Significance:- The Sagar Parikrama Program is being celebrated as a part of the 75th “Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsava”. It is an initiative to know the problems of Coastal Fisherfolk. It will demonstrate solidarity with all fisherfolk, fish farmers, and concerned stakeholders  MUST READ:  Marine Spatial Planning Framework SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution: (2023) Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution. There is no known ·safe level of exposure to mercury. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Income Tax Returns Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: A Record 8.18 crore Income Tax Returns filed so far in current financial year according to Central Board of Direct Taxes. Background:- Around 7.5 crore ITRs were filed last year during the same period. About Income Tax Returns:- The Income Tax Act of 1961 mandates that the federal government collect this tax for the state. Income Tax Returns, often known as ITRs, are forms used to declare net tax liabilities, claim tax deductions, and report gross taxable income. Individuals who make a specific amount of money are required to file IT returns. Income Tax Return Forms are notified by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT). About Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT):- Establishment: 1963. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. HQ: New Delhi. Administered by: Department of Revenue. It is a statutory authority functioning under the Central Board of Revenue Act, of 1963. The Central Board of Revenue is the apex body of the Department of Revenue. It is charged with the administration of taxes. It came into existence as a result of the Central Board of Revenue Act, of 1924. It is India’s official financial action task force unit. Historical Background of CBDT:- Initially the Board was in charge of both direct and indirect taxes.  (Increase in Direct Tax Collections) However, when the administration of taxes became too unwieldy for one Board to handle, the Board was split up into two, namely the Central Board of Direct Taxes and Central Board of Excise and Customs with effect from 1964. Functions of CBDT:- Making Policies regarding the discharge of statutory functions of the Board and of the Union Govt. under the various laws relating to direct taxes.  ( CBDT and Income Tax Return Forms) General Policy relating to:- Organization of the set-up and structure of the Income-tax Department. Methods and procedures of work of the Board. Measures for disposal of assessments, collection of taxes, prevention, and detection of tax evasion and tax avoidance. Recruitment, training, and all other matters relating to service conditions and career prospects of the personnel of the Income-tax Department. Laying down targets and fixing priorities for disposal of assessments and collection of taxes and other related matters. Write off of tax demands exceeding Rs. 25 lakhs in each case. Making Policy regarding grant of rewards and appreciation certificates. Any other matter which the Chairman or any Member of the Board, with the approval of the Chairman, may refer for joint consideration of the Board.  MUST READ: One Nation, One ITR Form SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation? (2022) Department of Consumer Affairs Expenditure Management Commission Financial Stability and Development Council Reserve Bank of India United Nations Relief and Works Agency (UNRWA) Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, India has donated $2.5 million to the United Nations Relief and Works Agency (UNRWA) for humanitarian assistance in Gaza. Background:- In a social media post, the Prime Minister asked the people to share their feedback directly with him using the hashtag #JanManSurvey. About United Nations Relief and Works Agency (UNRWA):- Establishment:1950. HQ: It was originally headquartered in Beirut, Lebanon, but was moved to Vienna, Austria, in 1978. Following the 1948 War, UNRWA was established by United Nations General Assembly Resolution 302 (IV) of 8 December 1949. The Agency began operations on 1 May 1950.( Violence between Israel- Palestine) In the absence of a solution to the Palestine refugee problem, the UNGA Assembly has repeatedly renewed UNRWA’s mandate, most recently extending it until 30 June 2023. Objective: to carry out direct relief and work programmes for Palestine refugees. The Agency’s services encompass education, health care, relief and social services, camp infrastructure and improvement, microfinance and emergency assistance, including in times of armed conflict. It is a UN agency that supports the relief and human development of Palestinian refugees. It provides services in its five fields of operations: Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, the Gaza Strip and the West Bank, including the East of Jerusalem. The United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees (UNRWA) is funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions from UN Member States. UNRWA also receives some funding from the Regular Budget of the United Nations, which is used mostly for international staffing costs.  MUST READ: India, Israel and Palestine SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union makes the countries of the European Union share their infrastructure facilities enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Desert Cyclone 2024 Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: The Joint Military Exercise ‘Desert Cyclone 2024’ between India and UAE began recently. Background:- Ministry of External Affairs said, potential areas of bilateral cooperation in the defence field are the production and development of defence equipment; joint exercises of armed forces, particularly naval exercises; sharing of information on strategy and doctrines; technical cooperation in respect of Intermediate Jet Trainer etc. About Desert Cyclone 2024:- Date from 2nd to 15th January 2024. Venue: : Mahajan, Rajasthan. Objective: to achieve shared security objectives and foster bilateral relations between two friendly nations. This exercise is being organized to promote exchange of best practices with special focus on urban governance. The two-week long program is designed to facilitate learning and sharing of best practices in urban operations. The exercise aims to strengthen relations between the Indian and UAE armed forces. The UAE contingent is being represented by troops from the Zayed First Brigade. The Indian Army contingent comprising 45 personnel is being represented mainly by a Battalion from the Mechanised Infantry Regiment. Exercise signifies further strengthening of bonds of friendship and trust between India and the UAE. (CEPA between India and the UAE)  MUST READ: India-UAE relations SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Q.2) In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/ participants? (2015) Bangladesh Cambodia China Myanmar Thailand Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 3 1, 2 and 5 Gaucher disease Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, the treatment of children suffering from lysosomal storage disorders like Gaucher disease has been stopped. Background:- Children suffering from lysosomal storage disorders like Gaucher disease are facing a bleak future as their treatment has been stopped due to the exhaustion of one-time support from the Union health ministry. About Gaucher disease:- Gaucher disease is an inherited lysosomal storage disorder (LSD). It is a type of disease that causes fatty substances (sphingolipids) to build up in bone marrow, liver and spleen. The sphingolipids weaken bones and enlarge organs. It is caused by a mutation in the GBA gene, which leads to a deficiency of an enzyme called glucocerebrosidase (GCase). This enzyme is responsible for breaking down fatty substances called sphingolipids, which are normally found in the cell membranes. Symptoms: Enlarged spleen, liver, eye movement disorders and yellow spots in the eyes etc. There are three types of Gaucher disease:- Type1: It affects your spleen, liver, blood and bones. It doesn’t affect your brain or spinal cord. Gaucher disease type 1 is treatable, but there’s no cure. Type 2: A rare form of the disorder appears in babies younger than 6 months old. It causes an enlarged spleen, movement problems and severe brain damage. There’s no treatment for Gaucher disease type 2. Type 3: It is the most common form which appears before age 10 and causes bone and organ abnormalities and neurological (brain) problems. There’s no cure for Gaucher disease, but treatments can relieve symptoms and greatly improve quality of life.  MUST READ: Rare Diseases SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following? (2023) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting a series of drug trials in  a population Q.2) ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations? (2023) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal  samples from land surfaces and  water bodies Warli Paintings Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, an exhibition of Warli painting  took place by the Inherited Arts Forum. Background:- It traced the artistic journey of the celebrated Mashe family and their effort in reviving the Warli painting. About Warli Paintings:- Warli art is a folk painting of It dates back to the 10th century AD. The Word Warli is inspired by the largest tribe, which is found in the Northern outskirts of Mumbai, Maharashtra. This art of painting is mainly practiced by the tribes inhabiting the North Sahyadri range in Maharashtra. This tribal art originated in Maharashtra, where it has still maintained its presence. It was traditionally practised by women of the Warli tribe called Suvasinis, who decorated the Lagn Chowk or the wedding square. These paintings are distinctive with their vivid contrast expressions. These paintings are mainly dominated by basic geometric shapes like circles, triangles and squares. Theme:Warli represents the daily routine of rural life, the relationship of the tribal people with nature, their gods, myths, traditions, customs, and festivities.  MUST READ: Mural Art SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the cultural history of India, which one of the following is the correct description of the term ‘paramitas’? (2020) The earliest Dharmashastra texts written in aphoristic (sutra) style Philosophical schools that did not accept the authority of Vedas Perfections whose attainment led to the Bodhisattva path Powerful merchant guilds of early medieval South India Q.2) The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings (2017) Ajanta Badami Bagh Ellora Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: PAINTINGS STATE Ajanta paintings Maharashtra Kishangarh paintings Rajasthan Warli paintings Kerala How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None  Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : There’s no cure for Gaucher disease. Statement-II : It  is an inherited lysosomal storage disorder (LSD). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Warli Paintings , consider the following statements: This tribal art originated in Karnataka. It was traditionally practiced by women. These paintings are mainly dominated by basic geometric shapes like circles, triangles and squares. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  3rd January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 2nd January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 3rd January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 10] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 10 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Recall an instance when you had to rely on someone else’s help. What did this experience teach you about interdependence and asking for help? Think about a time when you experienced a significant cultural or societal change. How did you adapt to this change, and what did you learn from it? Reflect on a moment of quiet introspection that led to a significant insight about yourself. What was the insight, and how has it influenced your subsequent actions or decisions? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  Urbanization is a global phenomenon, bringing with it challenges like congestion, pollution, and housing shortages. Sustainable urban development is crucial for creating livable, efficient, and inclusive cities. Let’s delve into this – How can cities in India evolve to become more sustainable and livable? What are the key factors to consider in urban planning, and how can cities balance growth with environmental and social sustainability? We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   National Transit Pass System (NTPS) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, Minister Bhupendra Yadav launched the National Transit Pass System (NTPS). Background:- It is a unified system for forest goods’ transport across India. About National Transit Pass System:- Launched: 29 DEC 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Objective: to facilitate the seamless transit of timber, bamboo, and other forest produce across the country. Salient Features:- National Transit Pass System (NTPS) pan-India to facilitate the seamless transit of timber, bamboo, and other forest produce across the country. Currently, transit permits are issued for the transport of timber and forest produce based on state-specific transit rules. The NTPS is envisioned as a “One Nation-One Pass” regime, which will enable seamless transit across the country. (Green Tug Transition Programme) This initiative will streamline the issuance of timber transit permits by providing a unified, online mode for tree growers and farmers involved in agroforestry across the country, contributing to the ease of doing business. Key Features:- It is a role-based and workflow-based application available as a desktop-based web portal as well as a mobile application. Online registration and submission of the applications for Transit Permit (TP) or No Objection Certificate (NOC) through web portal and mobile app. Online application for Species grown on private land which are exempted from the transit pass regime and Online application submission for Species grown on private land which are not exempted from transit pass regime. Online generation of Transit Permit or NOC on the basis of category of species. E-payment system: Payment can be made online through the mobile app/web portal before downloading T.P. Benefits:- Expedite issuance of transit permits for timber, bamboo and other minor forest produce without physically going to forest offices. Replace manual paper-based transit system with online transit system. One permit for the whole of India for transit of timber, bamboo and other minor forest produce for ease of doing business. Seamless movement across state borders from origin to destination through the help of a Mobile App. (North-East Cane and Bamboo Development Council (NECBDC)) Promotion of agro-forestry activities. Saving of transportation costs and time .  MUST READ: National Rail Plan for Infrastructure Capacity Enhancement SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”? (2022) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country Ignoring the consequences of disastrous ecological while infrastructure development undertaking Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements (2018) The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Goods and Services Tax (GST) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: India’s Goods and Services Tax (GST) revenues crossed ₹1,64,800 crore in December 2023 as per recent reports. Background:- December’s GST kitty, for transactions undertaken in November 2023, is about 1.8% lower than the nearly ₹1.68 lakh crore collected a month earlier, which marked the third highest monthly receipts from the tax that was launched in July 2017. About Goods and Services Tax (GST):- Launched:2017. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. Historical Background:- The idea of a Goods and Services Tax (GST) for India was first mooted during the Prime Ministership of Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee. In March 2011, the Constitution (115th Amendment) Bill, 2011 was introduced in the Lok Sabha to enable the levy of GST. However, due to a lack of political consensus, the Bill lapsed after the dissolution of the 15th Lok Sabha in August 2013. On 19th December 2014, The Constitution (122nd Amendment) Bill 2014 was introduced in the Lok Sabha and was passed by Lok Sabha in May 2015. The Constitutional amendment was notified as Constitution (101st Amendment) Act 2016 on 8th September, 2016. The Constitutional amendment paved the way for the introduction of Goods and Services Tax in India. Salient Features:- Goods and Services Tax is an indirect tax used in India on the supply of goods and services. It is a value-added tax levied on most goods and services sold for domestic consumption. It was launched as a comprehensive indirect tax for the entire country. It is of three types:- CGST: levied by the Centre SGST: levied by the States and IGST: levied on all Inter-State supplies of goods and/or services. GST Council:- The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 (122nd Amendment Bill), paved the way for the implementation of GST. (GST Appellate Tribunal) The GST Council is a joint forum of the Centre and the states under Article 279-A of the constitution. Article 279-A. gives the President the authority to appoint a GST Council by executive order. The members of the Council include the Union Finance Minister (chairperson), and the Union Minister of State (Finance) from various states. As per Article 279, it is meant to “make recommendations to the Union and the states on important issues related to GST, like the goods and services that may be subjected or exempted from GST, model GST Laws”. It also decides on various rate slabs of GST. Benefits of GST:- Automated tax ecosystem: It helped the country in transitioning to an automated indirect tax ecosystem. Better Compliance: GST helped in achieving better tax compliance by subsuming multiple taxation and reducing in taxation burden in the last four years. E-invoice and More Revenue: The E-invoicing system helped reduce fake invoicing. Lesser transaction costs: After the introduction of GST, there has been a significant reduction in transaction costs. Cooperative Federalism: The customs portals are linked with the GST portal for credit availing on imports constitution of the GST Council and ensuring Centre-State partnership in the decision-making process. Challenges of GST:- Refund delay issues. Lack of Dispute redressal mechanism Constant amendments confused the taxpayer and the tax administrators which created misunderstandings and misconceptions. Adaption and Technical Issues by Small and medium businesses. MUST READ: GST- Five years on SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, the Central Bank’s function as the “lender of last resort” usually refers to which of the following? (2021) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 3 only Q.2) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (2017) It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Automobile and Auto Components Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, The government has extended the tenure of Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Automobile and Auto Components by one year with partial amendments. Key highlights of amendments:- In a statement, Ministry of Heavy Industries said that under the amended scheme, the incentive will be applicable for a total of five consecutive financial years, starting from the financial year 2023-24. These amendments, effective from the date of publication in the Official Gazette, aim to provide clarity and flexibility to the scheme. The disbursement of the incentive will take place in the following financial year 2024-25. The scheme also specifies that an approved applicant will be eligible for benefits for five consecutive financial years, but not beyond the financial year ending on March 31, 2028. Furthermore, the amendments state that if an approved company fails to meet the threshold for an increase in Determined Sales Value over the first year’s threshold, it will not receive any incentive for that year. However, it will still be eligible for benefits in the next year if it meets the threshold calculated on the basis of a 10% year-on-year growth over the first year’s threshold. This provision aims to ensure a level playing field for all approved companies and safeguard those who prefer to front-load their investments. The amendment also includes changes to the table indicating the incentive outlay, with the total indicative incentive amounting to Rs. 25,938 crore. About PLI scheme Automobile and Auto Components:- Launched:2021. Ministry: Ministry of Heavy Industries. Objective : to overcome the cost disabilities of the industry for the manufacture of Advanced Automotive Technology products in India. Salient Features:- Union Cabinet approved the PLI-Auto Scheme on 15.09.2021 with budgetary outlay of Rupee 25,938 crore for a period of 5 years (FY2022-23 to FY2026-27). The Scheme is focused on Zero Emission Vehicles (ZEVs)e. Battery Electric Vehicle and Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicle. Base year: Financial Year 2019-20. The scheme has two components:- Champion OEM Incentive scheme: It is a ‘sales value linked’ scheme, applicable to Battery Electric Vehicles and Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicles of all segments. Component Champion Incentive Scheme: It is a ‘sales value linked’ scheme, applicable on pre-approved Advanced Automotive Technology components of all vehicles. Pre-approval of the eligible products will be done by Testing Agency. The incentive under the scheme is applicable from FY 2022-23 to FY 2026-27 (5 years’ period) and the disbursement is applicable in the subsequent financial year i.e. from FY 2023-24 to FY 2027-28. Eligibility: The scheme is open to existing Automotive companies as well as new Non-Automotive investor companies (who are currently not in the automobile or auto component manufacturing business). A minimum 50% domestic value addition will be required to avail of incentives under the scheme. The incentive will be applicable to the Determined Sales Value, which is defined as the incremental eligible sales of a particular year over the base year. Benefits:- This scheme will also help to facilitate and promote deep localization for AAT products and enable the creation of domestic as well as global supply chains. The PLI-AUTO Scheme will boost manufacturing of Advanced Automotive Technology (AAT) Products. (Atmanirbhar Bharat 3.0) MUST READ:  Electric Vehicles SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following actions: (2023) Detection of car crash/ collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode. In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Electoral Bonds Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: The sale of Electoral Bonds began recently. Background:- It will be sold through 29 authorised branches of SBI till the 11th of this month. About Electoral Bonds:- An Electoral Bond is like a promissory note that may be purchased by a person who is a citizen of India or incorporated or established in India. A person being an individual can buy Electoral Bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals. The bonds are like banknotes that are payable to the bearer on demand and are interest-free. Historical Background:- The electoral bonds system was introduced in 2017 by way of a Finance bill. It was implemented in 2018. Salient Features:- Electoral Bonds serve as a means for individuals and entities to make donations to registered political parties while maintaining donor anonymity. State Bank of India (SBI) issues the bonds in denominations of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh, and Rs 1 crore. It is payable to the bearer on demand and interest-free. It is purchased by Indian citizens or entities established in India. It can be bought individually or jointly with other individuals. It is valid for 15 calendar days from the date of issue. The State Bank of India (SBI) is the authorized issuer. Electoral Bonds are issued through designated SBI branches. Electoral Bonds can be purchased digitally or through cheques. Encashment only through an authorized bank account of the political party. Political Parties must disclose their bank account with the Election Commission of India (ECI). Eligibility:- Only the Political Parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 and which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last General Election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State, shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds. Advantages of Electoral Bonds:- Ensures Accountability Discourage Cash More Transparency Maintains Anonymity Disadvantages of Electoral Bonds:- Hindering Right to Know Unauthorized Donations Leads to Crony-Capitalism MUST READ: Supreme Court Ruling on Electoral Bonds SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider · the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day : (2023) Statement-I : Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26 November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India· set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. CV-22B Osprey Aircraft Syllabus Prelims –INTERNAIONAL RELATIONS/DEFENSE Context: Recently, divers discovered the wreckage and remains of crew members from a crashed US Air Force CV-22B Osprey aircraft off southwestern Japan. Background:- Search and rescue operations are underway after a US special operations aircraft crashed off the shore of Japan’s Yakushima Island. About CV-22B Osprey Aircraft:- It was developed to fulfil the needs of the U.S. Marine Corps, U.S. Air Force and U.S. Navy operational requirements worldwide. It is built by Boeing, an American aerospace company. It is a multi-engine, dual-piloted, self-deployable, medium-lift aircraft. It is used for a wide range of missions, including long-range infiltration, exfiltration, medium-range assault, special operations, VIP transport, resupply, disaster relief, search-and-rescue, medical evacuation, and humanitarian missions. It combines the vertical takeoff, hover, and vertical landing qualities of a helicopter with the long-range, fuel efficiency, and speed characteristics of a turboprop aircraft. It is equipped with dual Rolls-Royce Liberty AE1107C engines. Up to 24 personnel can sit inside the aircraft. MUST READ: Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Q.2) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Neora Valley National Park Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the Royal Bengal Tigers was spotted at 10,509 feet in Neora Valley National Park. Background:- The fresh image of a Royal Bengal Tiger, taken via trap cameras at the Neora Valley National Park in the hills of West Bengal, has confirmed the presence of the big cats at an altitude of 10,509 feet above sea level, according to a senior forest department official. About Neora Valley National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: RESEARCHGATE Location: West Bengal, India. It is situated in the Eastern Himalayas. It is nestled between the Neora River and the Kalimpong hills. The Neora Valley National Park is bordered by the Pangolakha Wildlife Sanctuary of Pakyong District of Sikkim in the north and Toorsa Strict Reserve of Bhutan in the east. The highest point of the park is Rachela Pass. It consists of the characteristics of all the three sub-regions, namely Himalayan Montane System, Indian Peninsular Sub-region and the Malayan sub-region. Vegetation: Dry Mixed Forest, Wet Mixed Forest, Lauraceous Forest, Bak-Oak Forest, High level oak Forest, Coniferous Forest and Himalayas Moist Temperate Forest. Flora: rhododendron , bamboo, oak, ferns, sal etc. Fauna: Red Panda, Himalayan Tahr, Himalayan Black Bear, Sambar, Barking Deer, Serow, Goral, Dhole and Gaur etc.  (Re-wilding programme of red pandas) The Neora Valley National Park is famous for its Red Panda  MUST READ: Kanchenjunga Biosphere SOURCE: THE TELEGRAPH  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct? (2020) It is spread over two districts. There is no human habitation inside the Park. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) If you want to see gharials in their natural best habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit? (2017) Bhitarkanika Mangroves Chambal River Pulicat Lake Deepor Beel R21 vaccine Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, WHO prequalified a second malaria vaccine manufactured by the Serum Institute of India. Background:- In October 2023, WHO recommended its use for the prevention of malaria in children, following the advice of the WHO Strategic Advisory Group of Experts (SAGE) on Immunization and the Malaria Policy Advisory Group. About R21 vaccine:- Developed by: Oxford University and manufactured by Serum Institute of India. It is the world’s second WHO-recommended malaria vaccine, after RTS, S/AS 01. The new vaccine will be sold under the brand Mosquirix. It is the first vaccine to achieve more than 75% effectiveness. It has been approved for use in children aged 5-36 months, the age group at highest risk of death from malaria. Ghana became the first African country which gave approval for the vaccine. Advantages:- High efficacy. Low cost. Mass production ability MUST READ: iNCOVACC SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: (2021) Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: DISEASE CAUSED BY Chickenpox Pasteurella pestis Plague Varicella zoster virus (VZV) Zika Zika viruses How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The Neora Valley National Park is famous for its Red Panda population. Statement-II : It is located in Assam. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the CV-22B Osprey Aircraft, consider the following statements: It is a single-engine aircraft. It is equipped with dual Rolls-Royce Liberty AE1107C engines. Up to 14 personnel can only sit inside the aircraft. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  2nd January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 1st January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 2nd January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 1st January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   NITI Ayog Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE/ECONOMY Context: Recent studies by NITI Aayog show that the levy of 20-30% health tax on food high in sugar, salt, and fat. Background:- The study by Niti Aayog, studied the impact of imposing health taxes and warning labels on food products to encourage healthy eating practices. About NITI Aayog:- Establishment: 2015. HQ: New Delhi. Objective:- To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities, sectors and strategies with the active involvement of States. To foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives and mechanisms with the States on a continuous basis. To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government. To ensure, in areas that are specifically referred to it, that the interests of national security are incorporated in economic strategy and policy. To focus on technology upgradation and capacity building for implementation of programmes and initiatives. To actively monitor and evaluate the implementation of programmes and initiatives. Salient Features:- NITI Aayog was formed via a resolution of the Union Cabinet on 1 January 2015. It replaced the Planning Commission which was a non-constitutional body formed in 1950. NITI Aayog is a state-of-the-art resource centre with the necessary knowledge and skills. It aims to enable it to act with speed, promote research and innovation, provide strategic policy vision for the government, and deal with contingent issues. It is supported by an attached office, the Development Monitoring and Evaluation Organisation (DMEO), a flagship initiative, Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) and an autonomous body, the National Institute of Labour Economics Research and Development (NILERD). Structure:- The Governing Council is the premier body tasked with evolving a shared vision of national priorities and strategies. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog, comprising Chief Ministers of all the States and Union Territories with legislatures and Lt Governors of other Union Territories. Functions and activities:- NITI Aayog’s entire gamut of activities can be divided into four main heads:- Policy and Programme Framework Cooperative Federalism Monitoring and Evaluation Think Tank, and Knowledge and Innovation Hub About Taxation on High Fat Sugar Salt (HFSS) foods:- According to the Ministry of Women and Child Development, HFSS foods may be defined as foods (any food or drink, packaged or non-packaged) which contain low amounts of proteins, vitamins, phytochemicals, minerals and dietary fibre but are rich in fat (saturated fatty acids), salt and sugar and high in energy (calories) that are known to have a negative impact on health if consumed regularly or in high amounts. The WHO and the Indian Council for Research on International Economic Relations (ICRIER) recommend the FSSAI to clearly define High Fat Sugar Salt foods, ensuring transparency, and recommends a nutrient-based tax model. The tax on these foods is required due to:- Health Risks Economic Burden of Obesity in India which was $23 billion in 2017. Growing Consumption of such foods in India. Benefits of taxing HFSS foods:- Promotion of healthier food choices. Improved public health outcomes. Reduction of the burden on the health-care system. MUST READ: Report on National Nutrition Mission: NITI Aayog SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently it was announced that Aadhaar-linked pay will be made mandatory for Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) workers from the new year. Background:- From the New Year, wages under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) will be paid only through an Aadhaar-based payment system (ABPS), which requires the Aadhaar details of workers to be seeded to their job cards. About Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS):- Launched: 2005. Ministry: Ministry of Rural Development (MRD). Objectives: improving the purchasing power of the rural people, primarily semi or unskilled work to people living below the poverty line in rural India. Salient Features:- The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), also known as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MNREGS) is Indian legislation enacted on August 25, 2005. The MGNREGA provides a legal guarantee for one hundred days of employment in every financial year to adult members of any rural household willing to do public work-related unskilled manual work at the statutory minimum wage. The Ministry of Rural Development (MRD), Govt of India is monitoring the entire implementation of this scheme in association with state governments. It guarantees a hundred days of wage employment in a financial year, to a rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. Individual beneficiary-oriented works can be taken up on the cards of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, small or marginal farmers or beneficiaries of land reforms or beneficiaries under the Indira Awaas Yojana of the Government of India. Within 15 days of submitting the application or from the day work is demanded, wage employment will be provided to the applicant. Right to get unemployment allowance in case employment is not provided within fifteen days of submitting the application or from the date when work is sought. Benefits:- MGNREGA focuses on the economic and social empowerment of women. (PM SVANidhi scheme) Social Audit of MGNREGA works is mandatory, which lends to accountability and transparency. MGNREGA works to address the climate change vulnerability. MUST READ: Issues with MGNREGA SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019) PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Gulf of Aden Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS/GEOGRAPHY Context: Indian Navy has recently, enhanced maritime surveillance efforts in Central/ North Arabian Sea and the Gulf of Aden. Background:- The last few weeks have witnessed increased maritime security incidents on merchant vessels transiting through international shipping lanes in the Red Sea, Gulf of Aden and Central/ North Arabian Sea. In response to these incidents, the Indian Navy has substantially enhanced maritime surveillance efforts in the Central/ North Arabian Sea and augmented force levels. About Gulf of Aden:- IMAGE SOURCE: worldatlas.com Location: Western Arabian Sea. The Gulf of Aden is an extension of the Indian Ocean, tucked between the Arabian Peninsula and the African continent.  (African Union) The Gulf connects the Red Sea to the Arabian Sea via the Strait of Bab el Mandeb. The gulf is named after “Aden,” a port city on Yemen’s coast. It is bounded to the south by Somalia and the Socotra Islands, north by Yemen, east by the Arabian Sea, and west by The gulf is characterized by its strategic location, deep waters, and diverse marine life. It contains several islands, including the volcanic Socotra archipelago. The dominant relief feature of the gulf’s terrain is the Sheba Ridge, an extension of the Indian Ocean ridge system, which extends along the middle of the gulf. Economic Activities:- Fishing is a significant economic activity for coastal communities around the gulf, supporting livelihoods. Additionally, the region’s ports facilitate trade and commerce. The surrounding areas, including Yemen and Somalia, possess potential oil and gas reserves. (India-Africa: Challenges & Way Ahead) MUST READ: Horn of Africa SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores The region along North African shores stretches from Egypt to Morocco The region along the Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa The entire coastal areas of the Mediterranean Sea Q.2) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) 1967 Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the  Government of India has declared ‘Tehreek-e-Hurriyat, Jammu and Kashmir (TeH)’ as an ‘Unlawful Association’ under Section 3(1) of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) 1967. Background:- Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah says the outfit is involved in forbidden activities to separate J&K from India and establish Islamic rule. About Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) 1967:- The UAPA was passed in the year 1967. It is an Indian law aimed at the prevention of unlawful activity and associations in India. Objective: to make powers available for dealing with activities directed against the integrity and sovereignty of India. The most recent amendment of the law, the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019 (UAPA2019). It has made it possible for the Union Government to designate individuals as terrorists without following any formal judicial process. The UAPA, an upgrade on the Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act TADA (lapsed in 1995) and the Prevention of Terrorism Act – POTA (repealed in 2004). Till 2004, “unlawful” activities referred to actions related to secession and cession of territory. The 2004 amendment, added “terrorist act” to the list of offences. Under the act, the investigating agency can file a charge sheet in a maximum of 180 days after the arrests and the duration can be extended further after intimating the court. Powers to Union Government:- If Centre deems an activity as unlawful then it may, by way of an Official Gazette, declare it so. It has the death penalty and life imprisonment as the highest punishments. 2019 Amendment of UAPA:- The act was amended to designate individuals as terrorists on certain grounds provided in the Act. Earlier only organisations could be declared as such Not designating individuals as terrorists, would give them an opportunity to circumvent the law and regroup under different name It empowers the Director General of NIA to grant approval of the seizure or attachment of property when the case is investigated by NIA Earlier it required the consent of the State Police which delayed the process It empowers the officers of the NIA, of the rank of Inspector or above, to investigate cases of terrorism This will help solve the human resource crunch in the NIA. Criticism:- Misuse for Curbing Political Dissent. Against Principle of Natural Justice. Violation of Human Rights.  MUST READ: Misuse of UAPA and Increase in arrests under UAPA Act SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?(2019) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers Absence of restraint Opportunity to do whatever one likes Opportunity to develop oneself fully PSLV-C58 XPoSat mission Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, ISRO’s PSLV-C58 XPoSat mission was successfully launched. Background:- The Indian Space Research Organisation ran in the New Year with the successful launch of PSLV-C58 carrying XPoSat and 10 other payloads. About Isro’s PSLV-C58 XPoSat mission:- Launch Date: January 01, 2024. Launch time: 09:10 Hrs IST. XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite) is the first dedicated scientific satellite from ISRO to carry out research in space-based polarisation measurements of X-ray emission from celestial sources. The Satellite configuration is modified from the IMS-2 bus platform. . (PSLV-C54 launch) The Configuration of the mainframe systems are derived based on the heritage of IRS satellites. It carries two payloads namely POLIX (Polarimeter Instrument in X-rays) and XSPECT (X-ray Spectroscopy and Timing). POLIX is realized by Raman Research Institute and XSPECT is by Space Astronomy Group of URSC. The objectives of this mission are:- To measure polarisation of X-rays in the energy band 8-30keV emanating from about 50 potential cosmic sources through Thomson Scattering by POLIX payload. To carry out long term spectral and temporal studies of cosmic X-ray sources in the energy band 0.8-15keV by XSPECT payload. To carry out polarisation and spectroscopic measurements of X-ray emissions from cosmic sources by POLIX and XSPECT payloads respectively in the common energy band.  MUST READ: Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Small finance bank (SFB) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, Small finance bank (SFB) campaigns were launched. Background:- The campaign seeks to highlight the success of SFBs’ business models to all stakeholders. About Small finance bank (SFB):- Small Finance Banks are the financial institutions, which provide financial services to the unserved and unbanked region of the country. They are registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act, 2013. Minimum paid-up capital– 100 cr. Capital adequacy ratio – 15% of risk-weighted assets. Foreign shareholding capped at 74% of paid capital. Foreign Portfolio investment ( FPIs) cannot be more than 24%. Priority sector lending requirement of 75% of total adjusted net bank credit.  Eligibility Criteria:- Resident individuals/professionals, having at least 10 years of experience in banking and finance can start Small Finance Banks with the approval of RBI. Existing Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs), Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs), and Local Area Banks (LABs) in the private sector.  (Micro finance has the ability to unleash rural India’s entrepreneurial zeal.) Indian residents and have a successful record of accomplishment of running their businesses for at least a period of five years must control these. Joint ventures for setting up small finance banks are not permitted.  (Revised Priority Sector Lending Guidelines). Functions:- Take small deposits and disburse loans. Distribute mutual funds, insurance products and other simple third-party financial products. Lend 75% of their total adjusted net bank credit to priority sector. Maximum loan size would be 10% of capital funds to single borrower, 15% to a group. Minimum 50% of loans should be up to 25 lakhs.  MUST READ:  Inclusive Growth SOURCE: BUISINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, the Central Bank’s function as the “lender of last resort” usually refers to which of the following? (2020) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 3 only Q.2) With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks in India, consider the following statements: (2021) They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. They can issue equity shares and preference shares. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, of 1949 through an Amendment in 1996 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: ISRO MISSIONS YEAR Chandrayaan-2 2015 EDUSAT 2004 Oceansat-2 2009 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The Governing Council of NITI Aayog is comprised of only the Governors of all the States and Union Territories. Statement-II : It replaced the Planning Commission which was a constitutional body. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Gulf of Aden, consider the following statements: The Gulf of Aden is an extension of the Pacific It connects the Red Sea to the Arabian Sea via the Strait of Bab el Mandeb. It is Situated in the Western Red Sea. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  1st January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 30th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 1st January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here