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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI 5.0) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI 5.0), a campaign of the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare will conclude all 3 rounds on 14th October 2023. About Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI 5.0):- Launch:2023. Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Objective: to enhance immunization coverage for all vaccines provided under the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) as per the National Immunization Schedule (NIS). It is the flagship routine immunization campaign of the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. (Mission Indradhanush) Salient Features:- The campaign will be conducted across the country during the months of August, September and October this year. During these three rounds, children of the 0-5 years age group and pregnant women, who have missed any dose of vaccine as per the National Immunization Schedule ( NIS), will be vaccinated. This year, for the first time the campaign is being conducted across all the districts in the country and includes children up to 5 years of age (Previous campaigns included children up to 2 years of age). Government of India is committed to achieving the target of Measles-Rubella Elimination ( MR Elimination) by December 2023 and the Intensified Mission Indradhanush 5.0 program is a major step toward achieving this goal. (India’s plan to eradicate measles, rubella) Every state/ UT, has been given a target of 95% for both MR doses (MR1, MR2) and 2 per lac population for Non Measles Non Rubella ( NMNR) Discard Rate, by GOI. Chandigarh has already achieved 103% ( MR1) , 95%(MR2) and 6 per Lac( NMNR Discard Rate). IMI 5.0 is being conducted in three rounds i.e., 7 -12 August, 11-16 September, and 9-14 October 2023 i.e., 6 days in a month with the inclusion of a Routine Immunization Day. All States/UTs except Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Punjab will conclude all three rounds of the IMI 5.0 campaign by 14 October 2023. As of 30th September 2023, over 34,69,705 children and 6,55,480 pregnant women were administered vaccine doses during the first 2 rounds of the IMI 5.0 campaign across the country. Significance:- IMI 5.0 ensures that routine immunization services reach the missed-out and dropped-out children and pregnant women across the country. MUST READ: mRNA Vaccine SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming. to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) ‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?  (2023) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes Converting crop residues into packing material Producing biodegradable plastics Producing biochar from. thermochemical conversion of biomass Indian Coast Guard (ICG) Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) conducted the 21st National Maritime Search and Rescue Board (NMSAR) meeting recently. Key highlights of the 21st NMSAR meeting:- Date: 12 October 2023. Venue: Kolkata. The meeting was chaired by Director General Rakesh Pal, ICG in his capacity as Chairman, of the NMSAR Board. ICG is the coordinating and executing agency for Maritime Search and Rescue in the Indian Search and Rescue Region. NMSAR Board:- It was formed in 2002 and since the Board meeting is being held annually. To discuss policy issues, formulate guidelines/ procedures and consider recommendations for reviewing the National Search and Rescue plan. During the meeting, National Search and Rescue (SAR) awards for the year 2022-23 were also presented. The United Kingdom Flag vessel MV Furious was awarded in the merchant vessel category. Indian Fishing Boat New Aparajita from West Bengal was awarded in the fishing boat category. ICG Ship Sujeet & ICG Air Squadron 835 Sqn(CG) in Govt owned SAR unit category. Gujrat Maritime Board and INMCC received the award in the ashore unit category. About the Indian Coast Guard (ICG):- Establishment: 1978. Ministry: Ministry Of Defence. HQ: New Delhi, Delhi It was established in August 1978 by the Coast Guard Act, 1978 as an independent armed force of India. It is the fourth largest Coast Guard in the world. For effective command and control, the Maritime Zones of India are divided into five Coast Guard Regions, namely, North-West, West, East, North-East and Andaman & Nicobar, with the respective Regional Headquarters located at Gandhinagar, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata and Port Blair. Historical Background:- The concept of forming ICG came into being after the 1971 war. The blueprint for a multidimensional Coast Guard was conceived by the visionary Rustamji Committee. Objectives and Functions:- To protect our ocean and offshore wealth including oil, fish and minerals. To assist mariners in distress and safeguard life and property at sea. (Indian Coast Guard Ships (ICGS)) To enforce maritime laws with respect to sea, poaching, smuggling and narcotics. To preserve marine environment and ecology and protect rare species. To collect scientific data and back up the Navy during war. To Prevent and Control of Marine Pollution. To ensure the safety and Protection of Artificial Islands and Offshore Terminals MUST READ: Defence Acquisition Council SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America International Olympic Committee (IOC) Syllabus Prelims –SPORTS Context: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi will inaugurate the 141st International Olympic Committee (IOC) Session on 14th October 2023. Background:- The 141st International Olympic Committee (IOC) Session, will be held at the Jio World Centre in Mumbai. IOC session is being held in India after a gap of about 40 years. India is hosting the IOC Session for the second time. (Mission Olympic Cell) About the International Olympic Committee (IOC):- Establishment: 1894. HQ: Lausanne, Switzerland. Objective: to promote the Olympic movement and uphold the Olympic values, which include friendship, respect, and excellence, globally. They are responsible for organizing and managing the Summer and Winter Olympic Games. IOC Session discusses and decides on the key activities of the global Olympics movement including:- Adoption or amendment of the Olympic Charter The election of IOC members and office-bearers Election of the host city of the Olympics Functions:- Olympic Games Organization: They select the cities for the Games and ensure smooth operations. The IOC chooses which cities will host the Olympic Games. The IOC supports and develops sports globally. It provides financial assistance and Aid to National Olympic Committees (NOCs). The IOC perform such activities in order to assist them with sports development. The IOC collaborates with sports organizations to ensure their efficient management. It also plays a significant role in the fight against doping in sports, working with organizations like the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) to maintain the integrity of Olympic competitions. MUST READ: Indian Olympic Association SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Methane emission Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: A recent study states that cutting down on Methane emission by Targeted methane mitigation can avoid 0.1°C warming in 2050. Key Highlights of the report:- The report was released jointly by the International Energy Agency, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the UNEP-convened Climate and Clean Air Coalition. Around 580 million tonnes (Mt) of methane is emitted every year globally, 60 per cent of which comes from human activities, according to the latest assessment. Under current trajectories, total anthropogenic methane emissions could rise by up to 13 per cent between 2020 and 2030. The report called for rapid cuts in methane emissions from fossil fuels as it will prevent global warming to an extent greater than the emissions impact of immediately taking all cars and trucks in the world off the road. It urged that methane abatement measures should be above and beyond the decarbonization efforts for the energy sector. Without targeted action on methane, even with deep reductions in fossil fuel use, the increase in the global average surface temperature will likely exceed 1.6°C by 2050. The fossil fuel sector likely holds the largest potential for rapid and low-cost reductions in methane emissions. More than 80 Mt of annual methane emissions from fossil fuels can be avoided by 2030 using existing technologies, often at low – or even negative – costs. Around $75 billion is required by 2030 for all methane abatement measures in the oil and gas sector in the Net Zero scenario, according to the findings. “This is equivalent to less than 2 per cent of the income generated by the oil and gas industry in 2022,”. Controlling methane emissions will also provide health benefits and enhance food security. About Methane Emission:- Methane (CH4) is the simplest hydrocarbon, consisting of one carbon atom and four hydrogen atoms. It is a colorless, odorless, and highly flammable gas, and the main component in natural gas. It is such a potent heat absorber. It is the primary component of natural gas. It is a powerful greenhouse gas. It warms the planet more than 80 times as quickly as a comparable volume of atmospheric CO2 over a comparable amount of time. It is estimated to have been responsible for 30 per cent of global warming since the Industrial Revolution. Methane pollution, which is a primary component of ground-level ozone. It has been linked to heart disease, birth defects, asthma and other adverse health impacts. Sources of Methane:- Biological Sources: it is made from some organic compounds by methane-generating microbes known as Agriculture: Livestock emissions from manure and gastroenteric releases account for roughly 32% of human-caused methane emissions. Cows also belch out methane. Emissions from Fuel and Industries. Initiatives to reduce methane emission:- COP 26 Pledges: At COP26 in Glasgow, over 100 countries signed an agreement to cut methane emissions by 30% by 2030 as methane might be easier to deal with than carbon dioxide. MethaneSAT: a planned American-New Zealand space mission scheduled for launch later in 2022. It will be an Earth observation satellite that will monitor and study global methane emissions in order to combat climate change. UN Initiatives: The UN Food Systems Summit in September 2021 was also aimed at helping make farming and food production more environmentally friendly. India’s Initiative: Central Salt & Marine Chemical Research Institute (CSMCRI) in collaboration with the country’s three leading institutes developed a seaweed-based animal feed additive formulation that aims to reduce methane emissions from cattle. MUST READ: Methane Alert and Response System (MARS) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) ) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (2018) Civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of the IAEA The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG. Asteroid Bennu Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent reports show that the samples collected from the 4.5-billion-year-old asteroid Bennu could indicate the building blocks of life on Earth. Background:- The sample return capsule from NASA’s OSIRIS-REx mission is seen shortly after touching down in Utah, on September 24, 2023. The sample was collected from the asteroid Bennu in October 2020. (NASA’s OSIRIS-REx) About Asteroid Bennu:- Discovered: 1999. Discovered by: NASA. The asteroid was discovered by a team from the NASA-funded Lincoln Near-Earth Asteroid Research team in 1999. It was originally named as 1999 RQ36. The name Bennu comes from an Egyptian deity related to the Sun, often depicted as a grey heron. It is a 500-meter-wide asteroid in an elliptical orbit around the sun. It is currently more than 200 million miles from Earth. Bennu’s orbit is close in proximity to Earth’s, even crossing it. The asteroid makes its closest approach to Earth every 6 years. It is one of the most potentially hazardous asteroids currently known to Earth. It has a 1‐in‐2,700 chance of impacting Earth during one of its close approaches to Earth in the late 22nd century. OSIRIS-REx – short for Origins-Spectral Interpretation-Resource Identification-Security-Regolith Explorer was the first U.S. mission to collect a sample from an asteroid. About OSIRIS-Rex:- Launched on: Sept. 8, 2016. Launched y: NASA. OSIRIS-REx – short for Origins-Spectral Interpretation-Resource Identification-Security-Regolith Explorer. It was the first U.S. mission to collect a sample from an asteroid. The OSIRIS-REx mission is essentially a seven-year-long voyage. It was meant to explore asteroid Bennu. The spacecraft contains five instruments including cameras, a spectrometer, and a laser altimeter. The spacecraft arrived at Bennu in December 2018. It Surveyed the asteroid for more than two years. Bennu is an ancient asteroid, currently more than 200 million miles from Earth. The asteroid was discovered by a team from the NASA-funded Lincoln Near-Earth Asteroid Research team in 1999. It offers scientists a window into the early solar system as it was first taking shape billions of years ago and tossing ingredients that could have helped seed life on Earth. On 20, 2020, the spacecraft collected a sample from the asteroid and stowed it in its sample return capsule. The pristine material from Bennu – rocks and dust collected from the asteroid’s surface will offer generations of scientists a window into the time when the Sun and planets were forming about 4.5 billion years ago. MUST READ: Exoplanets SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Central Information Commission (CIC) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the Central Information Commission (CIC) commemorated the 18th anniversary of the enactment of the RTI Act. About Central Information Commission (CIC):- Establishment: 2005. The CIC was constituted in 2005 under the Right to Information Act, 2005. The RTI Act 2005 provides for the constitution of a Central Information Commission and State Information Commissions in each state. Jurisdiction: the Commission extends over all Central Public Authorities. The Right to Information (Amendment) Act, of 2019 amended the Right to Information Act, of 2005. The RTI Act, of 2005 specified the tenure, terms of service, and salaries of the Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) and Information Commissioners (ICs) at the central and state levels, in the parent law. Structure:- The Central Information Commission shall consist of: The Chief Information Commissioner (CIC). Members: Such numbers of Central Information Commissioners (ICs), not exceeding ten, as may be deemed necessary. The members shall be persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and Governance. The CIC or IC shall not be an MP or MLA or hold any other office of profit connected with any political party carrying on any business or pursuing any profession. Appointment: The members of the commission are appointed by a committee consisting of the PM (as Chair), the Leader of Opposition (LoP) in Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister appointed by the Prime Minister. Tenure: The CIC and ICs (at the central and state level) will hold office for a term of three years. Resignation: The CIC or an IC may, at any time, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign from his office. Removal: The CIC or an IC may be removed from office only by order of the President on the grounds of proven misbehaviour or incapacity after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, reports that he/she should be removed on the grounds mentioned. The President may also remove them from office if such a person is adjudged insolvent, convicted for certain offences etc. They are not eligible for reappointment. Power and Functions:- To receive and inquire into a complaint from any person regarding information requested under the RTI act. It can order an inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds (suo-moto power). While inquiring, the Commission has the powers of a civil court in respect of summoning, requiring documents, etc. Adjudication in the second appeal for giving information; Direction for record-keeping Imposition of penalties and Monitoring and Reporting including preparation of an Annual SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 National Human Rights Commission Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: The National Human Rights Commission celebrated its 30th Foundation Day recently. About the National Human Rights Commission:- Established: 1993. HQ: New Delhi. NHRC is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993. The Act also provides for the creation of the State Human Rights Commission (SHRC) as well. Historical Background:- NHRC was established in conformity with the Paris Principles. Paris Principles: adopted for the promotion and protection of human rights in Paris in 1991. It was endorsed by the General Assembly of the United Nations in 1993. Composition of NHRC:- It is a multi-member body. (NHRC) It consists of a chairperson, five full-time Members, and seven deemed Members. Chairperson: a retired chief justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court. Appointments:- The chairman and members are appointed by the President on the recommendations of a six-member committee consisting of:- Prime Minister (head) Speaker of the Lok Sabha Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha Leaders of the Opposition in both Houses of Parliament Union Home Minister. Term: three years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. Removal: The president can remove them from office under specific circumstances. They can be removed only on the charges of proven misbehaviour or incapacity if proved by an inquiry conducted by a Supreme Court Judge. Functions of NHRC:- To investigate the violation of human rights. To prevent a human rights violation. To conduct research about human rights. To create awareness campaigns through various mediums, and encourage the work of non-governmental organizations (NGOs). NGO: a group that functions independently of any government. It is the watchdog of human rights in the country. MUST READ: Giving Human Rights Commissions more teeth SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India: (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mains: United Nations Security Council (UNSC) reforms Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International relations) Context: The longstanding debate on fundamental reforms at the United Nations (UN) has resurfaced once again, more than thirty years after it first began. About United Nations Security Council (UNSC): It is one of the UN’s six main organs and is aimed at maintaining international peace and security. EST: 1945 HQ: New York City. Membership: The Council is composed of 15 Members including 10 non-permanent members. P5 with veto power: China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States. UNSC elections: Each year the General Assembly elects five non-permanent members (out of 10 in total) for a two-year term. The 10 non-permanent seats are distributed on a regional basis as follows: Five for African and Asian States. One for the Eastern European States. Two for the Latin American and Caribbean States; Two for Western European and other States To be elected to the Council, candidate countries need a two-thirds majority of ballots of the Member States that are present and voting in the Assembly. The UNSC elections were traditionally held in the General Assembly hall with each of the 193 member states casting its vote in a secret ballot. Need for United Nations Reforms: Inadequate Council Representation: Presently, with 193 UN member-states, only 15 Council members exist, accounting for less than 8%. Consequently, a significant number of nations do not feel fairly represented within the Council. Imbalanced Powers and privileges: The current privilege enjoyed by the five permanent members and based on historical precedence is politically untenable. Europe, comprising just 5% of the global population, controls 33% of Council seats, not including Russia, another European power. Financial Disparities: Some countries contribute more financially to the UN than four of the five permanent members. For example, Japan and Germany have consistently ranked as the second and third largest UN budget contributors. Unresolved conflicts: Conflicts in regions like Sudan, Syria, Afghanistan, Palestine and Myanmar often remain unaddressed, allowing certain countries and non-state actors to exploit these situations economically. Failure in basic functions: The Security Council struggles to fulfill its fundamental role, especially when a permanent member attacks its neighbour. For example, when Russia attacked Ukraine in February 2022, its veto power obstructed UNSC resolutions addressing the situation. Denied Opportunities for Contributions and Representation: Prominent nations like India, with significant population, economic influence, and substantial contributions to the UN, find their opportunities curtailed. Despite their active roles in shaping global affairs, these states remain underrepresented, highlighting the pressing need for reforms within the UN framework. Way Forward: Suggestive measures Expansion of UNSC: The changing needs of global governance for peace and security require significant reforms in the UNSC, including expanding its permanent and non-permanent seats to better address the complex and evolving challenges to international peace and security. Democratization: The power imbalance between the P5 and other countries in the UNSC needs to be addressed urgently to make the council more democratic and increase its legitimacy in governing international peace, security and order. Equitable Representation: Equitable representation of all the regions in the UNSC is critical to decentralizing its governing power and authority over nations. The decentralization of the UNSC’s decision-making processes will enable its transformation to a more representative, participatory body. India and UNSC: India as the current one of the non-permanent members of the UNSC can start by drafting a resolution containing a comprehensive set of proposals for reforming the UNSC. India urged for UNSC reform hosting a meeting of two separate groupings G-4 and L-69 in New York on the sidelines of the UN General Assembly in September 2022. Source: TH Changing Landscape of Cyclone Formation Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Geography) Context: A study just published in the journal Climate and Atmospheric Science reported a sharp change in the potential for cyclones to form over the Arabian Sea during the late 1990s. Climate scientists employ a range of terms to describe observed changes in climate variables. These include; Trend: A trend implies that a climate variable is consistently changing in one direction, such as a continuous increase in temperature. The term “anthropogenic trend” suggests that these changes are occurring within human lifetimes, although the specific timeframe for a variable to be considered a trend is not always clear. Secular Trend: This term is used when a variable has been increasing or decreasing for a certain period within a longer timeframe. For instance, a variable may exhibit a secular trend if it has been steadily increasing for 30 years within a 100-year period. Decadal Variability: Decadal variability refers to oscillations from a positive to a negative phase that occur over the span of decades. It is somewhat similar to the concept of a shift, but decadal variability is often cyclic in nature. Shift: A shift represents a rapid transition from one state to another, such as a sudden change in the amount of rainfall or temperature. It can be an irreversible jump or a temporary change that later reverts to a previous state. About Cyclones: The word Cyclone is derived from the Greek word Cyclos meaning the coils of a snake. It was coined by Henry Peddington because the tropical storms in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea appear like coiled serpents of the sea. They are caused by atmospheric disturbances around a low-pressure area distinguished by swift and often destructive air circulation. They are usually accompanied by violent storms and bad weather. The air circulates inward in an anticlockwise direction in the Northern hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern hemisphere. Highlights of Recent study: Climate scientists are examining whether observed changes in climate variables, such as decreasing monsoon rainfall, increasing extreme rainfall, droughts, heatwaves, and cyclones, are trends, shifts, or decadal cycles. These distinctions are important for how we plan for resources, such as water, crops, and energy. A new study suggests a shift in the Arabian Sea’s cyclogenesis potential, which may be linked to a shift in the Warm Arctic, Cold Eurasian pattern. Global warming and regime shifts may also be involved. To better understand climate risks and plan for adaptation, scientists must investigate natural variability and how it is modulated by global warming. Impacts of  Climate Change on Cyclone Formation: Augmented Precipitation: A warmer atmosphere can accommodate a greater amount of moisture, resulting in increased rainfall. More rainfall leads to the release of more heat, ultimately fuelling stronger winds within the cyclone. Recent studies have revealed that hurricane rainfall rates rise by at least 7% for every degree of warming. Intensification of Cyclones: A warming climate is anticipated to boost wind speeds, leading to a higher proportion of storms intensifying into formidable Category 4 or 5 hurricanes/ Cyclones. Temperature Elevation: The temperature of both the ocean and the atmosphere plays a pivotal role in the genesis of tropical cyclones. cyclonic storms draw strength from the release of heat generated when ocean surface water evaporates and subsequently condenses into rainfall within the storm. In a warming climate, a warmer ocean leads to increased evaporation, which, in turn, means more moisture available in the atmosphere. Sea-Level Surge: Elevated temperatures contribute to rising sea levels, increasing the depth of stormwater. As sea levels rise, the storm’s inundation reaches further inland. Reduced Storm Speed: The velocity of a cyclone can significantly impact the total amount of rainfall at a particular location. Slower-moving storms offer a more extended timeframe for rainfall accumulation. Although studies indicate a slowdown in storm speed, the underlying mechanisms remain unclear. Fusion of Storms: In an increasingly warming world, the convergence of two sizable tropical storms over any of the world’s oceans could result in the formation of a colossal super-cyclone. Implications of changing landscape of cyclones and its impacts: Increased destructions: More powerful storms can inflict significantly greater harm to both people and economies. The eastern part of India and Bangladesh were struck by Cyclone Amphan in May of 2020. The storm killed 98 people in India, and required the evacuation of more than 5,00,000 people from Bengal and Odisha. Unpredictable Predictions: The rapidly evolving nature of storms has rendered conventional forecasting methods unreliable. This unpredictability has had a direct impact on the ability to take adequate precautionary measures. Rising Storm Frequency: The number of hurricanes forming each year may undergo alterations in the future. However, there is no universally accepted theory that comprehensively explains the current quantity of storms in the existing climate or forecasts how this might change in the future. Shifting Impact Zones: Recent research suggests that the areas where storms reach their maximum intensity are gradually shifting toward the Earth’s poles. This shift holds significant implications for the primary areas affected by these storms. In 2021, Gujarat was faced with Cyclone Tauktae, the deadliest cyclone to hit the Arabian Sea in a decade. Reports said that the tempestuous winds and rain killed approximately 70 people and more than 8,000 cattle, and damaged as many as 88,000 homes. 2,80,000 people were evacuated from the coastal areas. Way Forward: Therefore the study highlighting the shift in cyclone-genesis potential over the Arabian Sea in the late 1990s serves as a compelling example of the complex interplay between climate patterns and regional climate phenomena. It underscores the importance of distinguishing between trends, shifts, and decadal cycles in climate research and their impact on resource planning and climate adaptation. Source:TH Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: SPCAE MISSIONS AGENCY 1.Cassini–Huygens JAXA 2.Prarambh Mission ISRO 3.PUNCH & TRACERS MISSION NASA How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: OSIRIS-Rex was the first U.S. mission to collect a sample from an asteroid. Statement-II: Bennu is an ancient discovered by a team from the NASA-funded Lincoln Near-Earth Asteroid Research team in 1999. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the NHRC, consider the following statements: Chairperson is a retired chief justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court. It is a single-member body. It conducts research about human rights. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Mains Practice Question Q.1) Examine the hurdles in amending the UN Charter for UNSC reforms. What strategies can enhance the UNSC’s effectiveness in addressing these challenges today? (250 words) Q.2) what do you meant by tropical cyclones? Explain how shift in cyclone-genesis potential over the Arabian Sea in the late 1990s happening and how does it relate to the ‘Warm Arctic, Cold Eurasian’ (WACE) pattern and global warming? (250 Words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  13th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 12th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Dengue Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Bihar witnesses 371 fresh cases of Dengue in 24 hours. Background:- Last month, Bihar officially reported a distressing tally of a dozen deaths attributed to dengue. About Dengue:- IMAGE SOURCE: Top 10 Home Remedies Dengue is a vector-borne disease. Caused by: dengue virus (DENV). Transmission: It is transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected female Aedes Aegypti mosquito. The mosquito becomes infected when it feeds on the blood of a person infected with the virus. There are 4 serotypes of the virus that cause dengue. These are known as DEN-1, DEN-2, DEN-3, and DEN-4. Dengue cannot be spread directly from person to person. Most cases occur in tropical areas of the world, including the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, Southern China, Taiwan, the Pacific Islands, the Caribbean, Mexico, Africa, and Central, and South America. It is more common in tropical and subtropical climates. It is mostly in urban and semi-urban areas. As per WHO, about half of the world’s population is now at risk of dengue with an estimated 100–400 million infections occurring each year. Symptoms:- High fever (40°C/104°F) Severe headache Pain behind the eyes Muscle and joint pains Nausea Vomiting Swollen glands Rash. Treatment Most cases of dengue fever can be treated at home with pain medicine. Prevention:- DNA Vaccines: DNA vaccines are often referred to as third-generation vaccines. (Dengue and DNA vaccines) Wear protective clothing. Use mosquito repellent. Reduce mosquito habitat. MUST READ: Zika Virus Disease SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following? (2023) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes Converting crop residues into packing material Producing biodegradable plastics Producing biochar from the thermos-chemical conversion of biomass Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: (2021) Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: The Secretary of, the Department of Finance Services (DFS) chaired the stakeholder’s meeting on the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) recently. Background:- Dr Vivek Joshi, Secretary, Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance, Government of India, chaired a Stakeholders meeting on the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) in the presence of Dr M. P. Tangirala, Addl. Secretary, DFS, Chairman, NABARD; Managing Director, National Housing Board (NHB); Finance Secretaries and other senior officers from State and UT Governments. About Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF):- Establishment: 1995-96. Implementing Agency: National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development(NABARD). Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) was instituted in NABARD with an announcement in the Union Budget 1995-96. Objective: giving low-cost fund support to State Govts. and State Owned Corporations for quick completion of ongoing projects relating to medium and minor irrigation, soil conservation, watershed management and other forms of rural infrastructure. Funding: The Fund is maintained by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development(NABARD). NABARD:- Establishment: 1982. Ministry: Ministry of Finance, Government of India. It was created by transferring the agricultural credit functions of RBI and refinance functions of the then Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC). Consequent to the revision in the composition of share capital between the Government of India and RBI. NABARD today is fully owned by the Government of India. It is an apex regulatory body for the overall regulation of regional rural banks and apex cooperative banks in India. It is active in developing and implementing financial inclusion. Financed Activities:- The activities to be financed under RIDF as classified under three broad categories namely:- Agriculture and related sectors (Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF)) Social sector (Rural Healthcare system) Rural connectivity. Eligible Institutions:- State Governments / Union Territories State Owned Corporations / State Govt. Undertakings State Govt. Sponsored / Supported Organisations Panchayat Raj Institutions/Self Help Groups (SHGs)/ NGOs Mode of Finance:- NABARD releases the sanctioned amount on a reimbursement basis except for the initial mobilization advance @30% to North Eastern & Hilly States and 20% for other States. Quantum of Loan and Margin/Borrower Contribution:- The project for rural connectivity, social and agri-related sectors, is eligible for loans from 80 to 95% of the project cost. Cost escalation proposals for certain genuine reasons are considered within two years of sanction. Rate of interest:- With effect from 01 April 2012, the interest rates payable to banks on deposits placed with NABARD and loans disbursed by NABARD from RIDF have been linked to the Bank Rate prevailing at that point in time. Repayment period:- Loan to be repaid in equal annual instalments within seven years from the date of withdrawal, including a grace period of two years. The interest shall be paid at the end of each quarter i.e. 31 March, 30 June, 30 September and 31 December every year, including a grace period. Penal Interest:- Interest on the overdue interest amount is to be paid at the same rate as applicable to the principal amount. Security for Loan:- Loans sanctioned would be secured by the irrevocable letter of authority/mandate registered with Reserve Bank of India/any other Scheduled Commercial Bank, Time promissory Note (TPN), Execution of unconditional Guarantee from State Governments (Additionally required for support to State Government sponsored organisations, etc.) and acceptance of terms and conditions of sanction in the duplicate copy of the sanction letter. Phasing of RIDF projects:- The implementation phase for projects sanctioned is spread over 2-5 years, varying with the type of the project and also the location of the State. MUST READ: Cooperative Sector Reforms SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider · the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day : (2023) Statement-I : Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26 November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India· set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY-GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: The government has recently approved the establishment of an autonomous body Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat) for development of youth and youth-led development. Background:- Briefing reporters in New Delhi after the Cabinet meeting, Information and Broadcasting Minister Anurag Singh Thakur said that there are nearly 40 crore youth in the country who are in the age group of 15-29 years. The body will be dedicated to the nation on October 31, the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. About Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat):- Establishment: 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat) is an autonomous body. It will serve as an overarching enabling mechanism powered by technology for youth development and youth-led development. Objective: The primary objective of Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat) is to make it a whole of Government platform for youth development. Under the new arrangement, with access to resources & connection to opportunities, youth would become community change agents and nation builders allowing them to act as the Yuva Setu between the Government and the citizens. It seeks to harness the immense youth energy for nation-building. It will benefit the youth in the age group of 15-29 years, in line with the definition of ‘Youth’ in the National Youth Policy. In the case of programme components specifically meant for adolescents, the beneficiaries will be in the age group of 10-19 years. It will provide equitable access to youth to actualize their aspirations and build Viksit Bharat across the entire spectrum of the Government. Advantages:- Leadership Development in the Youth. Better alignment between youth aspirations and community needs. Enhanced efficiency through Convergence of existing programmes. Act as a one-stop shop for young people and Ministries. Create a centralized youth database. Improved two-way communication to connect youth government initiatives and activities of other stakeholders that engage with youth. (‘Responsible Artificial Intelligence (AI) for Youth’ program launched) Ensuring accessibility by creating a physical ecosystem. Significance: – It will help ensure accessibility by creating a physical ecosystem. (National Youth Festival) It will help to increase the Youth outreach efforts of the Department of Youth Affairs. MUST READ: Young Professionals Scheme SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the election to the President of India (2023) The members nominated to either the House of Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College. The higher the number of elective Assembly seats, the higher the value of the vote of each MLA of that State. The value of the vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. The value of the vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater than compared of Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Nanaji Deshmukh Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES Context: Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi has paid tributes to Bharat Ratna Nanaji Deshmukh on his Jayanti. Background:- Shri Modi said that Nanaji Deshmukh dedicated his life to the development of villages and tribal areas of the country. About Nanaji Deshmukh:- Birth: 11th October 1916. Birthplace: Maharashtra. Death: 27th February, 2010. Nanaji Deshmukh championed the cause of empowering rural communities through his relentless efforts. His life’s work was deeply rooted in the principle of “Antyodaya,” advocating for uplifting the last person in society. He embodied this philosophy through his tireless efforts, focusing primarily on the concept of “Gramodaya” – the development of villages. Polittical Participation:- He was a leader of Bharatiya Jana Sangh and Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh. He actively participated in Acharya Vinoba Bhave’s Bhoodan. Deshmukh was the main force behind social activist Jayaprakash Narayan’s agitation for total revolution. Social Work:- Nanaji played an important role in carrying out a social restructuring programme in over 500 villages of UP and MP.  Works in Education:- He established Chitarkoot Gramoday Vishwavidyalaya in Chitrakoot. It was India’s first rural University. He established Saraswati Shishu Mandir (SSM), which runs a chain of private schools in India and is said to be the educational wing of the RSS. He started the country’s first SSM at Gorakhpur in 1950. He was the founder of the Deendayal Research Institute (DRI) situated at Chitrakoot. Awards:- 1999: He was awarded Padma Vibhushan. 2019: He was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna. MUST READ: Gandhi as Political thinker and a Social reformer SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct? (2022) Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag here. Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of the Andhra region from here. Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here. Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up the headquarters of the Theosophical Society first here. Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: The 23rd Council of Ministers of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) met recently. About the 23rd Council of Ministers of IORA:- Date: 11 October 2023. Host: Sri Lanka. Venue: Colombo, Sri Lanka. Theme: “Strengthening Regional Architecture: Reinforcing Indian Ocean Identity. Sri Lanka assumed the chairmanship from Sri Lanka will serve as chair for the next two years. India has assumed the Vice Chair in the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) for the next two years. About Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA):- Establishment:  1997. Secretariat: Cyber City, Ebène, Mauritius. Objective: to ensure the sustainable development of the Indian Ocean region. The IORA is an intergovernmental organization. It was formerly known as the Indian Ocean Rim Initiative and the Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC). Membership: It comprises 23 member states and 11 dialogue partners hailing from regions surrounding the Indian Ocean. Members: Australia, Bangladesh, Comoros, French Republic, India, Indonesia, Iran, Kenya, Madagascar, Malaysia, Mauritius, Mozambique, Oman, Seychelles, Singapore, Somalia, South Africa, Sri Lanka, Tanzania, Thailand, the United Arab Emirates, the Maldives, and Yemen. In 2014, India hosted the first Indian Ocean Dialogue in Kochi, Kerala. Structure:- IORA’s apex body is the Council of Foreign Ministers (COM) which meets annually. It is the highest decision-making body of IORA. The United Arab Emirates (UAE) assumed the role of Chair from November 2019 – November 2021, followed by the People’s Republic of Bangladesh from November 2021 – November 2023. A committee of Senior Officials (CSO) meets twice a year to progress IORA’s agenda and consider recommendations by Working Groups and forums of officials, business and academics. Functions:- It manages, coordinates, services and monitors the implementation of policy decisions, work programmes and projects adopted by the member states. Strengthen regional cooperation and promote sustainable development within the Indian Ocean region. Development through economic cooperation. Focus Areas:- Maritime Security (GREEN MARITIME SECTOR) Trade and Investment Facilitation Fisheries Management Disaster Risk Reduction Academic and Scientific Cooperation (Indian Ocean Naval Symposium) Tourism Promotion and Cultural Exchanges Blue Economy Significance:- The association gains importance by the fact that the Indian Ocean carries half of the world’s container ships, one-third of the world’s bulk cargo traffic and two-thirds of the world’s oil shipments. It is a lifeline of international trade and transport and the Indian Ocean region is woven together by trade routes and commands control of major sea lanes.  MUST READ: International Maritime Exercise SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES Context: The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi has paid tributes to Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan on his birth anniversary. Background:- Union Home Minister Amit Shah unveiled a 15-foot statue of Jayaprakash Narayan or JP on his 120th birth anniversary on Tuesday (October 11), at the socialist icon’s birthplace, Sitab Diara village in Bihar’s Saran district. About Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan:- Birth: 11 October 1902. Birth Place: Sitab Diara, Bihar. Death: 8 October 1979. He quit college to join the non-cooperation movement. He was influenced by the ideas of Karl Marx. He was also called JP or Lok Nayak (People’s leader). Political Participation:- 1929: He joined the freedom struggle and the Indian National Congress, upon the invitation of Jawaharlal Nehru and drawn by a speech by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. 1932: he was imprisoned for a year for participation in the civil disobedience movement. 1939: he was imprisoned for his opposition to Indian participation in World War II on the side of Britain but escaped. He played a key role in the formation of the Congress Socialist Party (1934), a left-wing group within the Congress Party. Post Independence:- After independence took it out of the Congress and formed the Socialist Party, which was merged with J B Kripalani’s Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party to form the Praja Socialist Party While Nehru was keen on JP joining the Union government, JP sought to distance himself from electoral politics, opting to focus on social causes instead. The JP movement:- Students in Gujarat began demonstrating in late 1973, in response to mounting mess bills. The protests became widespread in the state, with workers, teachers and several other groups joining in the movement, calling for a change in government. JP saw the youth of Gujarat that had been able to bring about political change as an alternative route from electoral politics and recognized the power of students. The protests against corruption grew widespread, and students of Bihar began their movement in March 1974. The students approached JP, who left his self-imposed political exile and led the movement. At a rally in Patna on June 5, he called for Sampoorna Kranti (Total Revolution). The program was against corruption and a call for social transformation. Formation of the Janata Party:- JP launched a popular, mass movement against the Indira Gandhi government. His opposition led to the formation of the Janata Party government in the 1977 general election, the first non-Congress government in the country. Awards and Recognition:- 1965: JP was awarded the Magsaysay Award for Public Service. 1999: JP was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian award for his social service. MUST READ: Mahatma Gandhi SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Who among the following is associated with ‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English? (2022) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Jawaharlal Nehru Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi Sarojini Naidu Q.2) The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a: (2014) revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco nationalist organization operating from Singapore militant organization with headquarters at Berlin communist movement for India’s freedom with headquarters at Tashkent Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Disease Pathogen 1.COVID SARS-CoV-2 2.Malaria Plasmodium 3.Typhoid Rhinovirus How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : JP was awarded the Magsaysay Award for Public Service in 2002. Statement-II : JP was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1999. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Dengue, consider the following statements: It is caused by dengue virus (DENV). It is transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected male Aedes Aegypti mosquito. It does not have any vaccine. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  12th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 11th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – b

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) ISRAEL-PALESTINE CONFLICT Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, Palestine-based Hamas militants launched a barrage of rockets on Israel on Saturday infiltrating the towns near the Gaza Strip through land, air, and sea. Hamas or the Islamic Resistance Movement: is a militant group that governs the Gaza Strip. It emerged in 1987 as an offshoot of the Muslim Brotherhood during the first Palestinian intifada, or uprising, against the Israeli occupation of Gaza and the West Bank. It was founded by Sheikh Ahmed Yassin, a Palestinian cleric. Its military wing, the Izzedine al-Qassam Brigades, was established around 1991. About ISRAEL-PALESTINE CONFLICT:- Background of the war:- IMAGE SOURCE: express.co.uk Both Israelis and Palestinians have been in a struggle for self-determination and sovereignty over the territory, developing respective movements for their causes. Both Palestinians and Israelis see the territory between the Jordan River and the Mediterranean Sea as their own, and Christians, Jews, and Muslims all hold parts of the land as sacred. The past seven decades have brought war and uprisings. (15th India-Israel Joint Working Group) Historic Timeline:- Ottoman Empire: The Ottoman Empire had controlled that part of the Middle East from the early 16th century until control of most of the region was granted to the British after World War I. In 1916: the Sykes-Picot Agreement secretly negotiated between Britain and France planned to carve up the Middle East into spheres of influence, and determined that the land in question was to be internationalized. In 1917: Britain’s foreign secretary, Lord Arthur Balfour, expressed his government’s support for “the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people. 1947: UN resolution 1947: After World War II, nearing the end of the British Mandate for Palestine, the United Nations General Assembly in 1947 passed Resolution 181, urging the partition of the land into two independent states — one Arab and one Jewish. Religiously significant Jerusalem is to be under special international administration. The plan is not implemented after the Arab side rejects it, arguing that it is unfavorable to their majority population. Violence in the regional conflict grows. 1948: Israel declares independence. Israel declared independence in May 1948. The next day, a coalition of Arab states, allied with Palestinian factions, attacked Israeli forces in what became the first of several Arab-Israeli wars. In the end, Israel gains control of an even larger portion of territory — not including the areas of the West Bank and Gaza Strip. 1967: the Six-Day War In June of 1967, a war known as the “Six-Day War” or the 1967 Arab-Israeli War broke out amid lingering conflicts, including Egypt’s continued blockade of shipping into the Gulf of Aqaba. Israel ultimately took control of the Gaza Strip, Sinai, the West Bank, the Golan Heights, and predominantly Palestinian East Jerusalem. The Arab armies suffered massive losses. 1987: First intifada A Palestinian uprising, or intifada, brings largely spontaneous clashes, protests, and civil disobedience against Israeli occupation in the West Bank, Gaza, and Israel, leading to harsh Israeli military crackdowns. Unrest continues for years, with many killed or injured on both sides. 1993: Oslo Accords The first of two pacts, known as the Oslo Accords, was signed between Israel and the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO). It set out a peace process based on previous U.N. resolutions. It charted out the expansion of a limited Palestinian self-rule in the West Bank and Gaza Strip. A follow-up accord was signed in 1995. However, key issues such as Israeli settlements in the West Bank and the status of Jerusalem, were left unresolved. 2006: Hamas elected in Gaza Israel withdrew its troops from Gaza in 2005. The Palestinian militant group Hamas wins legislative elections the next year, leading to political strains with the more moderate Fatah party controlling the West Bank. 2017: U.S. recognizes Jerusalem as capital The Donald Trump administration recognizes Jerusalem as the capital of Israel and announces that it plans to shift the U.S. Embassy from Tel Aviv, stirring outrage from Palestinians. 2023: Recent events:- January 2023: Israeli forces raid the Palestinian city of Jenin, killing nine people in a shootout. Summer 2023: Retaliatory attacks flare Israel launches surprise airstrikes across the Gaza Strip in May. October 2023: Israel is attacked by Hamas. Prime Minister of Israel, Netanyahu formally declared war on Hamas on Oct. 8 following a surprise assault by Hamas militants that came a day after the 50th anniversary of the start of the 1973 Yom Kippur War. MUST READ: India-Israel Industrial R&D & Technological Innovation Fund (I4F) SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin? (2023) Cameroon Nigeria South Sudan Uganda Q.2) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Chungthang dam Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY/DISASTER MANAGEMENT Context: The recent breach in the Chungthang dam breach hit the milk supply in Sikkim. Background:- Neighbouring Bihar stopped milk supply to Sikkim as the climate-change-induced flood-damaged roads in the state, causing supply chain disruptions. (National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)). Flash floods occurred in north Sikkim after the South Lhonak Lake burst due to incessant rains. Glacial lake outburst floods (GLOF): A glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) is a type of catastrophic flood that occurs when the dam containing a glacial lake fails, releasing a large volume of water. This type of flood is typically caused by the rapid melting of glaciers or the buildup of water in the lake due to heavy precipitation or the inflow of meltwater. (Reimagining Disaster Management) About Chungthang Dam:- IMAGE SOURCE: researchgate.net Location: Chungthang, Sikkim. Height: 817 meters. River: Teesta. The dam serves as a hydroelectric power generation facility, contributing to Sikkim’s renewable energy portfolio. It is an integral part of the 1200 MW mega Teesta Stage III Hydro Electric Project which is a major source of electricity for Sikkim and West Bengal. Teesta Stage III Hydro Electric Project:- River: Teesta. Power: 1,200 MW hydropower project. Construction began: in 2008. Commissioned: 2017. Type: It is a run-of-the-river hydroelectric project. The project is run by Sikkim Urja (formerly Teesta Urja). Significance:- By regulating the flow of the Teesta River, the Chungthang Dam plays a crucial role in irrigation, drinking water supply, and flood control. Environmental Impact: While the dam offers valuable benefits, its construction and operation also raise environmental concerns, including alterations in river ecosystems. MUST READ: Uttarakhand Glacier Disaster SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the Guidelines, statements: the context of WHO considers the Air Quality following (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and the annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Q.2) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (2020) Automobile exhaust Tobacco smoke Woodburning Using varnished wooden furniture Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Mental health issues Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY/GOVERNANCE Context: Recent studies show that Mental health issues are 10 times common among asylum-seeking children. Key Highlights of the report:- The WHO estimates that one in five people in conflict-affected areas may experience depression, anxiety, PTSD, bipolar disorder, or schizophrenia. Behavioural disorders may be more common among younger refugee and migrant children. They are more severe in younger (6-14 years) compared with older (15-17 years) age groups, according to a worldwide review of asylum seekers and refugee children. High rates of mental health conditions among refugee children were associated with being placed in detention. Prolonged stay in an asylum centre was associated with a 30-fold increase in the risk of psychopathology among children aged 11-16 years. Among refugees based in high-income countries, those originally from the Middle East and North Africa had a threefold higher risk of psychotic disorders compared with refugee groups from other geographies. Evidence suggests that, among refugees and migrants, girls and women have a higher risk of depression and anxiety than boys and men. Moreover, refugees and migrants who identify as LGBTQI+ were affected in terms of their mental health. About Mental health issues:- As per WHO, Mental health is a state of mental well-being that enables people to cope with the stresses of life, realize their abilities, learn well and work well, and contribute to their community. It is an integral component of health and well-being. It underpins our individual and collective abilities to make decisions, build relationships, and shape the world we live in. Mental health is a basic human right. (Need for stronger mental health strategy) It is crucial to personal, community, and socio-economic development. Determinants of mental health:- Individual psychological and biological factors: emotional skills, substance use, and genetics. Exposure to unfavourable social, economic, geopolitical, and environmental circumstances: poverty, violence, inequality, and environmental deprivation. Risks occurring during the developmentally sensitive periods, especially early childhood, are particularly detrimental. For example, harsh parenting and physical punishment are known to undermine child health and bullying is a leading risk factor for mental health conditions. Protective factors: they serve to strengthen resilience. They include our individual social and emotional skills and attributes as well as positive social interactions, quality education, decent work, safe neighborhoods, and community cohesion, among others. Early signs of Mental health issues:- Withdrawing from friends, family, and colleagues. Avoiding activities they would normally enjoy. Sleeping too much or too little. Eating too much or too little. Feeling hopeless. Having consistently low energy. Using mood-altering substances, including alcohol and nicotine, more frequently. Displaying negative emotions. Being confused. Being unable to complete daily tasks, such as getting to work or cooking a meal. Having persistent thoughts or memories that reappear regularly. Thinking of causing physical harm to themselves or others. Hearing voices. Diagnosis:- Diagnosing a mental health disorder requires a multi-step process. A doctor may begin by looking at a person’s medical history and performing a thorough physical exam to rule out physical conditions or issues that may be causing the symptoms. They will also do a psychological evaluation which includes asking about a person’s symptoms, experiences, and how these have impacted their lives. Most mental health specialists use the American Psychiatric Association’s (APA) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) to make a diagnosis. Treatment:- Psychotherapy, or talking therapies. (Mental Healthcare Act, 2017) MUST READ: Address Stigma and Discrimination in Mental Health SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Parliamentary Speakers' Summit (P20 Summit) Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Presiding Officers of G20 Nations began arriving in India for the 9th Parliamentary Speakers’ Summit (P20 Summit) recently. Background:- Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate the Summit. About Parliamentary Speakers’ Summit (P20 Summit):- Year: 2023. Host Country: India Inauguration: 13th October 2023. Venue: New Delhi. Frequency: Annual Theme: Multilateralism for Inclusive Development. Objective: To bring together Speakers of Parliament from G20 countries for discussions on global issues. Under the banner of “Multilateralism for Inclusive Development,” the P20 Summit 2023 underscores the imperative role of international cooperation in addressing pressing global concerns, including climate change, poverty alleviation, and inequality. During the global event, four high-level sessions will be organized on the topics namely: Accelerating Sustainable Development Goals Sustainable Energy Transition Women-led development Transformation in People’s lives through Public Digital Platforms. India aims to provide consensus-based solutions to complex global issues towards a more inclusive, peaceful, and equitable world during the P20 Summit with the spirit of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam – One Earth, One Family, One Future. The Parliament20 Summit, stands as a pivotal global gathering of political leaders, scholars, activists, and stakeholders. They come together to address some of the most pressing issues facing our world today. It is an extension of the G20 Summit. (G20 logo) It focuses exclusively on parliamentary diplomacy, governance, and international cooperation. It provides a platform for legislators worldwide to exchange ideas, collaborate on policy solutions, and foster meaningful dialogue on global challenges such as climate change, economic stability, and social justice. MUST READ: G20 Presidency SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 9M730 Burevestnik missile Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY/DEFENSE Context: Russia recently, tested the 9M730 Burevestnik missile, a next-generation nuclear missile. Background:- Russian President Vladimir Putin confirmed that Moscow has successfully tested a next-generation nuclear missile. About 9M730 Burevestnik missile:- Country: Russia. Type: nuclear-powered cruise missile.(BrahMos Missiles) Range: intercontinental range. The missile is claimed to have an essentially unlimited range. It is also known as the “Storm petrel“. It is designated SSC-X-9 Skyfall by NATO. Its primary objective is to penetrate any interceptor-based missile defense system, thereby enhancing Russia’s nuclear strike capability. It is capable of carrying a nuclear warhead. It is nuclear-powered. (Ballistic missiles) No country has to date deployed a cruise missile using an onboard nuclear reactor, largely given the engineering challenges and safety concerns involved. This makes it a truly revolutionary weapon. It is a ground-launched, low-flying cruise missile which would make it harder for air-defense radar to detect. MUST READ: Agni–Prime SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 8th BRICS International Competition Conference Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: The 8th BRICS International Competition Conference to be held in Delhi recently. About the 8th BRICS International Competition Conference Venue: New Delhi. Year: 2023. Host: India. Venue: New Delhi. Date: 12-13 October 2023. Theme: New issues in competition law and policy, dimensions, perspectives, and challenges. The Competition Commission of India(CCI) will be hosting the 8th BRICS ICC. This two-day international conference will commence with registration and a reception dinner on the evening of October 11, 2023. Around 350 delegates from competition authorities in BRICS and non – BRICS Nations, including globally eminent competition experts and Indian delegates, are expected to attend and participate in this conference. The heads of BRICS competition authorities will address the closing ceremony and will sign a Joint Statement. (BRICS Summit 2021) About BRICS International Competition Conference:- First conference: Russia, September 2009. The BRICS International Competition Conference (BRICS ICC) is an important event under the framework of the BRICS Leaders’ Meeting. It is held biennially by the BRICS competition authorities on a rotation basis. It was established at the meeting of the Heads of State of BRICS (then BRIC) countries in Yekaterinburg, Russia, on 16 June 2009. After 2013, it is after 10 years since the hosting rights of the BRICS ICC have been handed over to MUST READ: BRICS – 14th Summit SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second-largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Bharat NCX 2023 Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES/SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Bharat NCX 2023 was inaugurated recently. Background:- Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India Ajay Kumar Sood today inaugurated the ‘Bharat NCX 2023. About Bharat NCX 2023:- Date: 09 – 20 October 2023.  Duration: 12 Days. Conducted by: National Security Council Secretariat in strategic partnership with Rashtriya Raksha University. Objective: to train senior management and technical personnel of Government and Critical Sector organizations and Public and Private agencies on contemporary cyber threats and handling cyber incidents and response. Bharat NCX 2023 will showcase an exclusive exhibition spotlighting the innovation and resilience of Indian cybersecurity startups and Micro, Small, and Medium-sized Enterprises (MSMEs). It is the second edition of the National Cyber Security Exercise 2023 ‘Bharat NCX 2023’. It will be conducted as a hybrid exercise. This exhibition will shine a spotlight on the cutting-edge solutions and technologies developed by these dynamic entities, underscoring their pivotal role in fortifying India’s cybersecurity ecosystem. It will host a prestigious conclave, gathering over 200 Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs) from government, public organizations, and the private sector. This exclusive gathering of industry leaders will provide a unique platform for in-depth discussions and deliberations on the evolving cyber threat landscape. (India’s National Cyber Security Strategy) The participants will be trained in various key cyber security areas. These areas include Intrusion Detection Techniques, Malware Information Sharing platforms, Vulnerability Handling and Penetration Testing, Network Protocols and Data Flows, and Digital Forensics. (Cyberattacks) Significance:- It will help strategic leaders to better understand cyber threats, assess readiness, and develop skills for cyber crisis management and cooperation. Cybercrime This will also help develop and test cybersecurity skills, teamwork, planning, communication, critical thinking, and decision-making. MUST READ: Global Cybersecurity SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proven so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defense in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2020) Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. The state cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for the sharing of Aadhaar data. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: MISSILE TYPE 1.Astra Surface-To-Air Missiles 2.Barak 8 Air-to-air missiles 3.Helina Anti-Tank Missile How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Theme of the P20 Conference 2023 is Multilateralism for Inclusive Development. Statement-II : It will be hosted in Mumbai, India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Mental health issues, consider the following statements: The American Psychiatric Association’s (APA) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) is ONLY used to make a mental health diagnosis. Withdrawing from friends, family, and colleagues is one of the symptoms of a mental health issue. Phobia is a mental health disorder. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  11th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  10th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 12th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 10th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) SHRESHTA (Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: The expenditure under the Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA) from 2020-21 to 2023-24 was released recently. About SHRESHTA (Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas):- Launched: June 2022. Ministry: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Objective: for the purpose of providing seats for the meritorious SC boys and girls in the best private residential schools in the country. Salient Features:- This scheme was launched for Scheduled Castes, as they have faced historical injustices in a hierarchical society and education is the most powerful tool to empower them as a community. The scheme will provide a level playing field to the poor and meritorious SC students. (New National Education Policy) It aims to enhance the reach of development Intervention of the Government and to fill the gap in service-deficient SCs dominant areas, in the sector of education through the efforts of grant-in-aid institutions (run by NGOs) and residential high schools offering high-quality education and provide the environment for socio-economic upliftment and overall development of the Scheduled Castes (SCs). Modes of implementation:- The scheme is being implemented in two Modes:- SHRESHTA schools:- Under this, each year a specified number of meritorious SC students in States/UTs will be selected through the National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA (NETS) to be conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA). These would be admitted to the best private residential schools affiliated by the CBSE/State Board in classes 9th and 11th for completion of education till 12th standard. Selection of schools: Best performing CBSE-based private residential schools, having more than 75% pass percentage for classes 10 and 12 for the last three years are selected by a Committee for admission of selected students. Eligibility/Selection of students: Approx 3000 (1500 for 9th class and 1500 for class 11th tentative) SC students, whose parent’s annual income is up to 2.5 lakh, are selected every year under the Scheme through a national-level test conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA). The choices of schools shall be offered to the students in accordance with their merit. (Education & Nation Building) NGO/VO-operated Schools/Hostels: These include EXISTING COMPONENT, Guidelines hereinafter applicable only for Mode 2 of the Scheme, Schools/Hostels. These are run by VOs/NGOs and other organizations having higher classes (up to class 12) and who have been receiving Grant-in-aid will be continued, subject to satisfactory performance. MUST READ: Gender gap in education SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Afghanistan Earthquake Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: A 6.3 magnitude earthquake struck about 40km from the western city of Herat, Afghanistan recently. Background:- In Afghanistan, the death toll from strong earthquakes has risen to over 2,400 as search and rescue efforts continue amid reports that some people may be trapped under collapsed buildings. About Earthquake:- An earthquake is the shaking or trembling of the earth’s surface. It is caused by the seismic waves or earthquake waves that are generated due to a sudden movement (sudden release of energy) in the earth’s crust (shallow-focus earthquakes) or upper mantle (some shallow-focus and all intermediate and deep-focus earthquakes). A seismograph, or seismometer, is an instrument used to detect and record earthquakes. Hypocentre/Focus: The point where the energy is released. Epicentre: The point on the surface directly above the focus. Isoseismic line: A line connecting all points on the surface where the intensity is the same. Causes of Earthquakes:- Fault Zones Plate tectonics Volcanic activity Human-Induced Earthquakes Types of Earthquakes:- Tectonic Earthquakes The most common ones are tectonic earthquakes. The Earth is made of four basic layers (generally three): a solid crust, a hot, nearly solid mantle, a liquid outer core, and a solid inner core. Tectonic plates (Lithospheric plates) are constantly shifting as they drift around on the viscous, or slowly flowing, mantle layer below. When tectonic plates move, it also causes movements at the (Anatolian Plate) Thus, the slipping of land along the faultline along convergent, divergent and transform boundaries causes earthquakes. Volcanic Earthquake Earthquakes produced by stress changes in solid rock due to the injection or withdrawal of magma (molten rock) are called volcano earthquakes. ( Volcano) Human Induced Earthquakes In areas of intense mining activity, sometimes the roofs of underground mines collapse causing minor tremors. These are called collapse earthquakes. Ground shaking may also occur due to the explosion of chemical or nuclear devices. Such tremors are called explosion earthquakes. MUST READ: Reimagining Disaster Management SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) consider the following statements: (2020) Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. Only some cyclones develop an eye. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C less than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation addressed the 89th General Council meeting of the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) in New Delhi recently. About National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC):- Establishment: 1963. Ministry: Ministry of Cooperation. HQ: New Delhi. The National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) was established by an Act of Parliament in 1963 as a statutory Corporation. Organization & Management:- The Management vests in 51 members widely represented General Council to give shape to its policies and programmes and the Board of Management with 12 members to cater to day-to-day activities. Functions:- Planning, promoting, and financing programmes for the production, processing, marketing, storage, export, and import of agricultural produce, foodstuff, and certain other notified commodities e.g. fertilizers, insecticides, agricultural machinery, lac, soap, kerosene oil, textile, rubber, etc. Supply of consumer goods and collection, processing, marketing, storage, and export of minor forest produce through cooperatives, besides income generating stream of activities such as poultry, dairy, fishery, sericulture, handloom, etc. Assist different types of cooperatives and to expand its financial base. (India’s Cooperative Sector) Finance projects in the rural industrial cooperative sectors and for certain notified services in rural areas like water conservation, irrigation, micro irrigation, agri-insurance, agro-credit, rural sanitation, animal health, etc. Loans and grants are advanced to State Governments for financing primary and secondary level cooperative societies and direct to the national level and other societies having objects extending beyond one State. The Corporation can also go in for direct funding of projects under its various schemes of assistance on fulfillment of stipulated conditions. MUST READ: Geospatial Mapping of the Cooperatives SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? (2022) Farmers harvesting their crops Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics A commercial bank lending money to a trading company A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: India re-elected the Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD) General Conference (GC)president for the third successive term recently. Background:- The Information & Broadcasting Ministry Secretary, Apurva Chandra, said this was a first in the history of AIBD. The move showed the confidence broadcasting organizations across the Asia Pacific and the world reposed in India. About Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD):- Established:1977 Host: Government of Malaysia Secretariat: Kuala Lumpur. Objective: to achieve a vibrant and cohesive electronic media environment in the Asia Pacific region through policy and resource development. Membership: It has 92 member organizations from across 44 countries, including 26 government members (countries) represented by 48 broadcasting authorities and broadcasters. It also has 44 affiliates (organizations) represented by 28 countries and regions in Asia, the Pacific, Europe, Africa, Arab States, and North America. India is one of the founding members of this organization. Representative body: The Prasar Bharati is the representative body of the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting, Government of India, at AIBD. It was established under the auspices of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). It is a unique regional inter-governmental organization servicing countries of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UN-ESCAP) in the field of electronic media development. The Institute seeks to fulfill this mandate by mobilizing the intellectual and technological resources available within the national broadcasting organizations of its member countries as well as regional and international bodies. It does it through a well-established infrastructure and networking mechanism which includes government agencies, non-governmental organizations, institutions of higher learning, the private sector, and individual professionals.  MUST READ: Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development (BIND) scheme SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Q.2) Consider the following countries: (2018) Australia Canada China India Japan USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4, 5 and 6 1, 3, 4 and 5 2, 3, 4 and 6 Central Bureau of Communication (CBC) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: The Central Bureau of Communication (CBC) advertisement rates for Private FM Radios have been revised after seven years recently. Background:- The base rate has been increased by 43 percent. City Wise Rate for Stations also to significantly increase depending on listenership. About Central Bureau of Communication (CBC):- Established: 2017. Ministry: Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. HQ: Soochana Bhawan, New Delhi. It was set up by integration of three erstwhile media units of the Ministry of I&B, viz namely:- Directorate of Advertising & Visual Publicity (DAVP) Directorate of Field Publicity (DFP) and Song & Drama Division(S&DD) It is a unit of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. It has the mandate of providing 360-degree communication solutions to Ministries, Departments, Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), and autonomous bodies. It is headed by a Director General (DG). Functions:- It is engaged in the task of publicizing various programmes and policies of the Government of India through its network of 148 Field Units under the control and supervision of 23 Regional Offices. The primary function of CBC is to publicize, inform, educate, and communicate in rural areas. It undertakes campaigns to inform and educate rural and urban people about the Government’s policies and programmes through available vehicles of communication viz. Print, Audio Visual, Outdoor, Digital and New Media. MUST READ: (Asia-Pacific Broadcasting Union) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements (2018) The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) Expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. Enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. Checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: India-Israel Relation Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International relations) Context: Recently, Hamas, the militant group ruling the Gaza Strip, mounted one of the most audacious attacks on Israel known as “Operation ‘Al-Aqsa Storm”. In retaliation, Israel has formally declared war on Hamas under “Operation Iron Sword”. The Indian PM expressed outrage, referring to the event as a terrorist attack, and voiced solidarity with Israel. History of India’s Position on the Israel-Palestine Conflict: India’s Initial Rejection of the Two-Nation Solution and Support for the Palestinian Cause: In the wake of India’s independence in 1947, its early political stance on Israel was rooted in the rejection of the two-nation solution and unwavering support for the Palestinian cause. India’s Votes Against Israel at the United Nations: India’s position regarding Palestine was also shaped by the broader consensus in the Arab world, the Non-Aligned Movement, and the United Nations. when Israel applied for admission to the United Nations, India once again voted against its inclusion. Recognition of Israel as a Nation: Despite its early stance against Israel, India eventually recognized Israel as a sovereign nation on September 17, 1950, following the footsteps of two Muslim-majority countries, Turkey and Iran. Engagement with Palestinian Leadership Under Yasser Arafat: In the late 1960s and early 1970s, the Palestine Liberation Organisation (PLO) emerged as the principal representative of the Palestinian people, under the leadership of Yasser Arafat. During this period, India actively engaged with the largest political faction within the PLO, Al Fatah. Recognition of PLO as the Legitimate Representation of Palestinian People: On January 10, 1975, India took a significant diplomatic step by officially recognizing the PLO as the sole and legitimate representative of the Palestinian people. This recognition culminated in India permitting the PLO to establish an independent office in New Delhi. Remarkably, India, despite being one of the last non-Muslim states to recognize Israel, became the first non-Arab state to formally acknowledge the legitimacy of the PLO. Strong Solidarity for Palestine Struggle at NAM Summit in Delhi: The relationship between India and Palestine further strengthened when the NAM summit took place in India in 1983 with a strong statement of solidarity for Palestine. Present India- Israel Relations Economic and trade: Bilateral merchandise trade surged from USD 200 million in 1992 to USD 6.35 billion (excluding defense) by 2022. India emerged as Israel’s third-largest trade partner in Asia and seventh globally, with trade diversifying into pharmaceuticals, agriculture, IT, telecom, and homeland security. Israeli companies have facilitated technology transfer to India, particularly in renewable energy, telecom, and water technologies. Defense Cooperation: India imports crucial defense technologies from Israel, with regular exchanges between armed forces. Security cooperation includes a Joint Working Group on Counter-Terrorism. India uses Israeli defense systems such as Phalcon AWACS, Heron drones, and Barak anti-missile defense systems. Agricultural Cooperation: A three-year joint work program was signed in 2021 to enhance agricultural cooperation, focusing on Centers of Excellence, value chains, and private investment. Israel’s expertise and technologies have benefitted India in horticulture, irrigation, and dairy farming. Science and Technology: The Joint Committee on Science and Technology, established in 1993, fosters collaboration in research and development. The India-Israel Industrial R&D and Technological Innovation Fund (I4F) supports joint industrial projects in specific sectors. Energy cooperation includes India’s interest in exploring gas fields off Israel’s coast. I2U2 Grouping: It stands for India, Israel, the UAE, and the US. It was formerly known as the ‘International Forum for Economic Cooperation’ and is also referred to as the ‘West Asian Quad.’ It aims to strengthen economic partnerships, identify areas of cooperation, and encourage joint investments six key sectors: water, energy, transportation, space, health, and food security. Indian diaspora in Israel: There are approximately 85,000 Jews of Indian-origin in Israel, who are Israeli passport holders. There are approximately 900 Indian students studying in Israel, mostly at the doctoral and post-doctoral levels. Challenges in the relations: Trade: Since 2010, the two countries have been talking about a free-trade deal for goods and services. This should make it easier to invest and do business with each other. To tap into the untapped potential, there is a need to increase bilateral trade and broaden the types of economic partnership. Israel and the Arab World: India’s close relationships with the Arab world have always made it hard for the country to publicly work with Israel. Approach towards China: India and Israel treat China in different ways. India is worried about China’s rise, but China is Israel’s biggest trading partner in Asia and the two countries have strong links in science and investment. De-Hyphenating Israel-Palestine: The “two-state solution” and the fact that India voted in favour of the resolution to raise the Palestinian flag at the United Nations and signed on to BRICS declarations “opposing the continuous Israeli settlement activities in the Occupied Territories” show that India’s support for Palestinians hasn’t changed. However, during the Indian Prime Minister’s visit to Israel in July 2017, the media reported that India was “dehyphenating” its relationship with Israel. Pegasus issue: Pegasus is a spyware developed by NSO Group, an Israeli surveillance firm, that helps spies hack into phones. A case was filed in the Supreme Court accusing the government for indiscriminate spying on more than 1000 phone numbers. New York Times reported that India bought Israeli Pegasus spyware as part of weapons deal in 2017. Way Forward: India’s evolving stance on the Israel-Palestine conflict, coupled with its growing relations with both Israel and Palestine, demonstrates its commitment to contributing to a peaceful resolution. As a nation with ties to multiple stakeholders in the region, India has a crucial role to play in promoting stability and cooperation in the Middle East. Source:   Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Government Schemes Ministry 1.SHRESTHA Ministry of Education 2.SAMARTH Ministry of Tribal Affairs 3.NAMASTE Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Central Bureau of Communication (CBC) is headquartered in Soochana Bhawan, Mumbai. Statement-II: It is headed by a Director General (DG). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD), consider the following statements: It was established in 1947. It is hosted by the Government of India. India was its founding member. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 3 only 1 only Mains Practice Question Q.1) How did India’s stance on the Israel-Palestine conflict evolve over the years, and what were the key factors influencing this evolution? (250 Words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  10th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 9th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 9th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Abort Mission 1(TV-D1) Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY-SPACE Context: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has started preparing for the flight test Vehicle Abort Mission 1(TV-D1) for the Gaganyaan mission. Background:- The Space Agency has said that the unmanned flight tests for the Gaganyaan mission will commence soon. ISRO will also test the efficacy of the Crew Escape System which is a crucial part of the Gaganyaan mission, resulting in unmanned and manned missions to outer space by 2024. About Abort Mission 1(TV-D1):- Conducted by: The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). Objective: to ensure crew safety during the Gaganyaan mission. The abort missions are meant to test the systems that can help the crew escape from the spacecraft mid-flight in case of a failure. ISRO has developed test vehicles for the abort missions. These can send the systems up to a certain height, simulate failure, and then check the escape system. Test Vehicle (TV-D1) is the first development flight. The Test Vehicle is a single-stage liquid rocket. Payloads: consist of the Crew Module (CM) and Crew Escape Systems (CES) with their fast-acting solid motors, along with CM fairing (CMF) and Interface Adapters. Escape system is designed with five “quick-acting” solid fuel motors with a high burn rate propulsion system, and fins to maintain stability. The Crew Escape Systems (CES) will separate from the crew module by firing explosive nuts. Mission plan:- This flight will simulate the abort condition during the ascent trajectory corresponding to a Mach number of 1.2 encountered in the Gaganyaan mission. CES with CM will be separated from the Test Vehicle at an altitude of about 17 km. Subsequently, the abort sequence will be executed autonomously commencing with the separation of CES and deployment of the series of parachutes. Finally, culminating in the safe touchdown of CM in the sea, about 10 km from the coast of Sriharikota. Significance:- The success of this test flight will set the stage for the remaining qualification tests and unmanned missions, leading to the first Gaganyaan mission with Indian Astronauts. It will help ISRO focus on perfecting the system that will launch and land Indians on missions to space and protect the astronauts if the mission fails. MUST READ: Space Economy of India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Card-on-file tokenization facility Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The RBI recently, announced the introduction of a card-on-file tokenization facility at the issuer bank level. Background:- Currently, Card-on-File (CoF) tokens can only be created through merchant applications or on the webpage of the e-commerce website. Given the growing acceptance and benefits of tokenization of card data, it is now proposed to introduce Card-on-File Tokenisation (CoFT) creation facilities directly at the issuer bank level. About card-on-file tokenization facility:- The central bank introduced Card-on-File Tokenization (CoFT) in September 2021 and began implementation on October 1, 2022. Objective: to enhance convenience for cardholders in getting tokens created and linking them to their existing accounts with e-commerce applications. Tokenization is the replacement of actual credit and debit card details with an alternate code called the “token”, which will be unique for a combination of card, token requestor, and device. A CoF transaction occurs when a cardholder authorizes a retailer to store the cardholder’s Mastercard or Visa payment information. The cardholder then authorizes the business to charge the stored Mastercard or Visa account. Card information is typically stored in the systems of e-commerce companies, airlines, and supermarket chains. Significance: The move will facilitate the creation and linking of tokens to cardholders’ existing accounts with e-commerce applications. Benefits of tokenization:- Enhanced safety and security: It eliminates the risk of storing card details online and ensures the uncompromised convenience of storing customer’s token details on the merchant site. Quicker checkouts: Tokenized Mastercard will allow the convenience of quick checkouts as one doesn’t need to punch in the card number for each purchase. No more ‘False Declines’: Many times, legitimate online payments using valid cards are declined on the grounds of the transaction looking like a fraud. With tokenization, this becomes a thing of the past as the usage of tokens for payments confirms the security of the highest order. Easy card management: With tokenization, one can also keep track of all their cards and the merchants they have been tokenized with. No need for a physical card Added benefits: Tokenization also comes with cashback benefits when secured with platforms like Amazon, Paytm, Swiggy, etc. MUST READ: Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) SOURCE: BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium transactions of commercial Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Stratospheric aerosol injection (SAI) Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: A study shows that geoengineering intervention, stratospheric aerosol injection (SAI) may affect global food production. Background:- Implementing a controversial climate intervention Stratospheric aerosol injection (SAI) could likely create inequities in food production, benefitting some and harming others, a new study published in the journal Nature Food warned. About Stratospheric aerosol injection (SAI):- Geoengineering literally means “Earth-engineering”. Geoengineering is an umbrella term for various experimental technologies to make compensatory changes to Earth’s climate to reverse the damage people have already done. (Mitigating Climate Change) It refers to deliberate, large-scale intervention carried out in the Earth’s natural systems to reverse the impacts of climate change. SAI is the main type of solar radiation management (SRM). Mechanism of SAI:- SAI mimics volcanic eruptions. It injects sulfur dioxide into the stratosphere. Stratosphere: the layer of atmosphere extending from about 10 kilometers to 50 km in altitude. In the stratosphere, it oxidizes to form sulphuric acid, which then forms reflective aerosol particles. These gases reflect some of the sun’s heat, mimicking an effect that happens naturally in a strong volcanic eruption. MUST READ: Climate Change and Global Health SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following trees : (2023) Jackfruit (Artoca7pus heterophyllus) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Israel's Iron Dome Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Israel’s Iron Dome anti-missile system intercepted rockets launched from the Gaza Strip in the recent attack. Background:- The Hamas militant group launched its worst attack inside the Jewish state’s territory since 1948 on Saturday (October 7), killing at least 250 Israelis and abducting several others. About Israel’s Iron Dome:- IMAGE SOURCE: WorldAtlas Iron Dome is a short-range, ground-to-air, air defense system. It includes radar and Tamir interceptor missiles that track and neutralize any rockets or missiles aimed at Israeli targets. (Ballistic missiles) It is used for countering rockets, artillery & mortars (C-RAM) as well as aircraft, helicopters, and unmanned aerial vehicles. Historical Background:- The genesis of the Iron Dome goes back to the 2006 Israeli-Lebanon war when Hezbollah fired thousands of rockets into Israel. The following year, Israel announced that its state-run Rafael Advance Systems would come up with a new air defense system to protect its cities and people. It was developed with Israel Aerospace Industries. The Iron Dome was deployed in 2011. Salient Features:- The Iron Dome has three main systems. Radar: It has a detection and tracking radar to spot any incoming threats. Weapon Control: It has a battle management and weapon control system (BMC). The BMC basically liaises between the radar and the interceptor missile. The BMC basically liaises between the radar and the interceptor missile. Missile Fire: It also has a missile firing unit. All these three units work together to provide a shield over the area where it is deployed. Advantages of Iron Dome:- It has a detection and tracking radar to spot any incoming threats. It can handle multiple threats. It is capable of being used in all weather conditions, including during the day and night. MUST READ: India and Israel SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media?  (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on it. United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: A new report by the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) has put forward 10 principles. Background:- The Sustainable Finance: Bridging the Gap in Asia and the Pacific report was launched on October 6, 2023. Objective: These principles are for the action of policymakers, regulators, and private finance for mobilizing and deploying financing for key UN-mandated Sustainable Development Goals, particularly around climate action. Significance: The principles will help stakeholders cooperatively and efficiently shift and scale up capital to finance climate action by reducing obstacles, addressing climate risk underpricing, and reducing sectoral and regional capital-investment mismatches. The principles put forward are:- Developing new climate finance partnerships Developing effective NDC financing strategies Developing policy coherence and capacities across key government ministries Taking decisive regulatory action to shift capital in Asia and the Pacific towards the Net Zero transition Driving investment in the capacities of financial personnel Driving investment in much-needed sectoral and project-based financial data is undertaken Committing to Net Zero pledges for 2050 with credible transition pathways and including 2030 goals Increasing local-currency financing of energy transition projects as well as green technologies and other net-zero investments Expanding and accelerating concessional financing and risk-sharing by multilateral development banks, bilateral development financial institutions, and public development banks Increasing investment of time and effort with partners in project preparation About United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP):- Founded in 1947. HQ: Bangkok, Thailand. The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) is one of the five regional commissions of the United Nations. (Need for Reforms in UN) It is the most inclusive intergovernmental platform in the Asia-Pacific region. Objective: to facilitate coordinated efforts for the economic recovery and advancement of Asia and the Far East in the post-war period. Historical Background: In 1974, it was restructured and renamed the Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP), reflecting its dual focus on economic and social aspects of development. Members: ESCAP comprises 53 Member States and nine Associate members. Functions:- To enhance economic activity in Asia and the Pacific, foster economic relationships between this region and other global areas, and promote sustainable development. To Coordinate Development Efforts. It promotes cooperation among its 53 member States and 9 associate members in pursuit of solutions to sustainable development challenges. It generates action-oriented knowledge, and by providing technical assistance and capacity-building services in support of national development objectives, regional agreements, and the implementation of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. It also provides support to partners at the national level. It carries out work, in close cooperation with other United Nations entities and intergovernmental organizations in the region. MUST READ: United Nations grants observer status to International Solar Alliance SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Indian Air Force Day 2023 Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: The Indian Air Force celebrated Indian Air Force Day 2023 recently. About Indian Air Force Day 2023:- Date: 8 October. Venue: Prayagraj, Uttar Pradesh. Theme 2023: ‘IAF-Airpower Beyond Boundaries’. The ceremonial parade of Indian Air Force Day was conducted at Air Force Station Bamrauli and the Air Display was conducted over the Sangam area, in the vicinity of the Ordnance Depot Fort in Prayagraj. The day commemorates the official establishment of the Indian Air Force on October 8, 1932. It acknowledges the Air Force’s long and distinguished history in serving the country. The day often features air displays, aerobatics, flypasts, and demonstrations of aircraft and equipment. These events showcase the technological prowess and capabilities of the Indian Air Force. Significance: Indian Air Force Day also serves as an opportunity to raise public awareness about the importance of the Air Force and its contributions to national security. MUST READ: Tejas Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Mk-1A SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of (2020) Digital security infrastructure Food security infrastructure Health care and education infrastructure Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure Air India Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: Recently, Air India cancelled flights to and from Tel Aviv till the 14th of October 2023. About Air India:- Founded: 1932. Founder: Jehangir Ratanji Dadabhoy (JRD) Tata. HQ: New Delhi. Air India operates a fleet of Airbus and Boeing aircraft serving domestic and international destinations. It is the largest international carrier out of India. Over 60 international destinations are served by Air India across five continents. The airline became the 27th member of Star Alliance on 11 July 2014. Historical Background:- In 1946, the aviation division of Tata Sons was listed as Air India. In 1948, the Air India International was launched with flights to Europe. In 1953, Air India was nationalized and for the next four decades, it remained the prized possession of India. With the opening up of the aviation sector to private players in 1994-95 and private entities offering cheaper tickets, Air India gradually started losing market share. As part of its broader privatization and disinvestment push, in 2000-01 the government tried to sell a minority stake or 40% stake in Air India. It was unsuccessful due to opposition from Trade unions. In June 2017, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) gave in-principle approval to the consideration for strategic disinvestment of Air India and its five subsidiaries. In March 2018, the government invited expressions of interest from investors wherein the buyer was required to take ₹33,392 crore or close to 70% of the carrier’s debt on its books. No bids were received. October 2020: The Government now gave flexibility to investors to decide on the amount of Air India debt they wanted to absorb. October 2021: Government announces Tata Group makes winning bid of ₹18,000 crore for Air India. MUST READ: Disinvestment of Air India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the International economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following actions: (2023) Detection of car crash/ collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of the display between portrait and landscape mode. In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None Mains: Digital India Act 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Nations worldwide are grappling with the need to update their legal frameworks to adapt to the evolving digital landscape. India, with its ambitious ‘Digital India’ initiative, is no exception. The recent announcement of the Digital India Act 2023 (DIA) represents a significant step towards establishing a future ready legal framework for the country’s burgeoning digital ecosystem. About Digital India Act 2023 (DIA): The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MEITY) signals a proactive approach to regulating and shaping the digital future of the nation. The DIA, poised to replace the two decades old Information Technology Act of 2000 (IT Act), is designed to address the challenges and opportunities presented by the dramatic growth of the internet and emerging technologies. The primary motivation behind the DIA is to bring India’s regulatory landscape in sync with the digital revolution of the 21st century. Since its inception, India’s internet user base has exploded from a mere 5.5 million to a staggering 850 million. Key Components of the act: Open Internet: According to the Indian government, open internet should have choice, competition, online diversity, fair market access, ease of doing business as well as ease of compliance for startups. These characteristics prevent the concentration of power and gatekeeping. Online Safety and Trust: The Act will focus on safeguarding users against cyber threats like revenge porn, defamation, and cyberbullying on the internet as well as the dark web. It aims to push for digital rights like the Right to be Forgotten and the Right to Digital Inheritance, protect minors and their data from addictive technology, and moderate fake news on social media platforms. Accountable Internet: The Act aims to make internet users and activities more accountable by introducing legal mechanisms for redressal of complaints, upholding constitutional rights in cyber spaces, algorithmic transparency and periodic risk assessments, and disclosure norms for data collected by intermediaries. Key provisions of the act: The DIA encompasses several pivotal clauses that mirror the dynamic evolution of the digital environment, addressing its multifaceted challenges and opportunities. These provisions underscore the legislation’s responsiveness to the ever­changing digital landscape. DIA places a strong emphasis on online safety and trust, with a commitment to safeguarding citizen’s rights in the digital realm. It also recognises the growing importance of new age technologies such as artificial intelligence and block chain, the DIA provides guidelines for their responsible utilisation. It aims to not only encourage the adoption of these technologies but also to ensure that their deployment is in line with ethical and legal principles. It promotes ethical AI practices, data privacy in blockchain applications, and mechanisms for accountability in the use of these technologies. It upholds the concept of an open internet. It aims to strike a balance between accessibility and necessary regulations to maintain order and protect users. It also contemplates a review of the “safe harbour” principle, which presently shields online platforms from liability related to user generated content, indicating a potential shift in online accountability standards. Need for Digital India Act: Outdated Regulations: The existing IT Act of 2000 was crafted in an era when the internet had only 5.5 million users, and is ill-equipped to handle the internet’s current state. With 850 million users, various intermediaries, and new forms of user harms like cyberstalking and doxing, the IT Act falls short of addressing these complexities. Addressing E-commerce and Online Content: The growth of e-commerce, digital transactions, and online content sharing requires updated regulations. The Digital India Act will tackle issues related to consumer protection, electronic contracts, and content moderation on social media platforms. Global Alignment and Best Practices: To engage effectively in the global digital landscape, India’s regulations must align with international standards and practices. Inadequacy of Current Regulations: Despite the existence of regulatory elements like Intermediary Guidelines, Digital Media Ethics Code, and data protection rules, they are insufficient when it comes to governing new-age technologies. Need for Legal Adaptation: With technological advancements like AI, Blockchain, and IoT, the legal framework must evolve to address their unique challenges. This includes enhancing cybersecurity measures, data protection, and regulating emerging tech sectors. Challenges associated with the DIA act 2023: Stricter regulations, particularly in emerging technologies, could deter entrepreneurial initiatives and deter foreign investments. The review of the “safe harbour” principle, which shields online platforms from liability for user ­generated content, could lead to a more cautious approach among these platforms, possibly impinging on freedom of expression. While transparency and accountability are the founding pillars of the act it will also have to balance the interests of important stakeholders like users, big techs, government, businesses, and civil society. Way Forward: Although the DIA is a progressive move, its implementation and potential repercussions warrant vigilant monitoring and adaptability to avoid unintended consequences. The DIA is a crucial step towards ensuring a secure, accountable, and innovative digital future for India. Source:  TH Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International relations) Context: A day after indicating that Russia might revoke its ratification of the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (CTBT), President Vladimir Putin said that the country would do so to be on level terms with the United States, and not to resume nuclear testing. About CTBT: The CTBT is a multilateral treaty that bans all nuclear explosions, whether for military or peaceful purposes. It was negotiated at the Conference on Disarmament in Geneva. It has been signed by 187 countries and ratified by 178 but cannot go into force until eight countries have signed and ratified it. China, Egypt, Iran, and Israel have signed but not ratified it. North Korea, India and Pakistan have not signed. While Russia ratified the agreement in 2000, the US is still to do so. While the US signed but did not ratify the treaty, it has observed a moratorium on nuclear weapon test explosions since 1992 that it has no plans to abandon. When the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) adopted the CTBT in September 1996, 2048 nuclear explosions were already conducted worldwide. 18 years later, the number of explosions has further increased to 2055. In this regard, the CTBT has an important role in ensuring a world where nuclear weapons tests are barred and thus constrain the development of new nuclear weapons and new nuclear weapon countries. Implications of Russian Move: Global Disarmament: Since the CTBT, 10 nuclear tests have taken place. India conducted two in 1998, Pakistan also two in 1998, and North Korea conducted tests in 2006, 2009, 2013, 2016 (twice) and 2017, according to the United Nations. It would be a big setback to the Nuclear disarmament movement. Nuclear Arms Race: This move would enable Russia to build and deploy more nuclear weapons targeting its adversaries without the treaty’s constraints. Both sides could get sucked into a dangerous arms race. Russia-Ukraine Crisis: The missile attacks against each other by both Russia and Ukraine have also led to a growing escalation of mutual suspicion. The present Russian decision has only aggravated the crisis. Undermining Future Agreements: Arms control has been a progression from one treaty to the next. If Russia revokes its ratification, it will leave the world without a common starting point for future efforts. The Treaty on Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW) did not find support from any of the P-5 countries. Russia-West Relations: The Russian decision can be described as symbolic and strategic in nature. It wants to pressurize the West by sending an ambiguous message strategically. Russia has tried not to appear aggressive and has attempted to put all the blame on the US this will further erode Russia and West ties. Global Politics and Security: Taking a cue from the present stand-off between Russia and the United States over the current nuclear question, many countries like North Korea, Pakistan, Turkey, Iran, and China may go for further proliferation of nuclear weapons without any scrutiny. India’s view on nuclear disarmament: Complete Disarmament: India has consistently advocated global nuclear disarmament since the concept’s inception in the United Nations. Two-Front Nuclear War: India, faced with two nuclear neighbours (Pakistan and China) with one declaring its nuclear arsenal as India-specific, reluctantly had to become a nuclear weapon state. Universal Non-discriminatory and verifiable Treaty: India remains committed to negotiating a universal, non-discriminatory and internationally and effectively verifiable treaty banning the production of fissile material for nuclear weapons or other nuclear explosive devices, one that considers India’s national security interests. Delinking Disarmament and Non-Proliferation: In 1965, India was a member of the eighteen nation disarmament committee (ENDC) that advocated for delinking disarmament and non-proliferation. India opposed the signing of the NPT (treaty of Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons which it views as discriminatory (dividing the world into Nukes haves and haves not). In 1988, India Proposed a Comprehensive Proposal for complete Universal disarmament (Rajiv Gandhi Action Plan) – to the UN General Assembly Special Session on Disarmament. Way Forward: India supports the commencement of negotiations on a comprehensive Nuclear Weapons Convention in the Conference on Disarmament, which is the world’s single multilateral disarmament negotiating forum working on the basis of consensus. Considering the present pessimistic environment, the Russian revocation of the Treaty may not seem shocking or startling. Source:  IE Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: INDIAN SPACE MISSIONS YEAR 1.Mars Orbiter Mission 2015 2.AstroSat 2013 3.Chandrayaan Mission 1 2008 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Indian Air Force Day is celebrated every year on 7th October. Statement-II: The theme of 2023 is ‘IAF-Airpower Beyond Boundaries’. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Iron Dome, consider the following statements: It is a long-range, ground-to-air, air defense system. It includes the Tamir interceptor missiles which track and neutralize any rockets or missiles aimed at Israeli targets. It is used for countering ONLY unmanned aerial vehicles. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Digital India Act replacing the IT Act, 2000, is a welcome move for strengthening the digital ecosystem and cyber-security space in the country. However, the need of the hour is implementation of laws effectively and in a time bound manner by addressing the concerns in the legislation stage itself. Elucidate. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  9th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 7th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 10th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 9th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here