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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Swavlamban 2.0 Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: The second edition of the Indian Navy’s Naval Innovation and Indigenization Seminar, Swavlamban 2.0, took place in Delhi recently. Background:- The event will unveil the Autonomous Weaponized Boat Swarms for the Indian Navy. About Swavlamban 2.0:- Date: 4th and 5th October 2023. Venue: New Delhi. Maiden edition of the seminar: July 2022. Naming: the term”Swavlamban” signifies self-reliance or self-sufficiency in Hindi. “Swavlamban 2.0” is an updated indigenization roadmap aimed at fostering self-reliance in technological capabilities. (Military Exercises) Objective: to showcase the Navy’s achievements in developing new technologies and outline the course for future developments. It is the Naval Innovation & Indigenisation Organisation’s (NIIO) annual seminar. Niche technologies are being progressed across the spectrum, including:- Blue-green lasers for underwater application Autonomous weaponised swarms and Underwater swarm drones Multiple firefighting aid Introduction of Artificial Intelligence (Al) for various uses Development of an ultra-endurance small drone for maritime missions. 75 prototypes of these will be showcased during “Swavlamban-2023”. This will include a live demo of a few promising technologies. Historic Background:- The Hon’ble Prime Minister launched the 75 challenges for the start-ups/ MSMEs as a part of the ‘SPRINT’ initiative. The ‘SPRINT Challenges’, are aimed at giving a boost to the usage of indigenous technology in the Indian Navy, and the Navy is committed to developing at least 75 technologies/ products as part of the ‘Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav’. SPRINT is a collaborative initiative being undertaken in conjunction with the Defence Innovation Organisation (DIO) and stands for Supporting Pole-Vaulting in R&D through Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX), NIIO and Technology Development Acceleration Cell (TDAC). Significance:- It aims to reduce dependence on foreign technologies and promote domestic innovation. It aligns with efforts to involve Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) and start-ups in developing futuristic technologies that meet global standards at a more economical cost. MUST READ: New Naval Ensign (flag) for the Indian Navy SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America GST Council Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman will chair the 52nd GST Council meeting in New Delhi recently. About GST Council:- The GST Council is a constitutional body established under Article 279A of the Indian Constitution. It is a joint forum of the Centre and the states to discuss issues relating to GST. GST is one of the biggest indirect tax reforms in the country. It has subsumed indirect taxes like excise duty, Value Added Tax (VAT), service tax, luxury tax, etc. The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 (122nd Amendment Bill), paved the way for the implementation of GST. Salient features of GST Council:- Article 279-A: gives the President the authority to appoint a GST Council by executive order. Members: The members of the Council include the Union Finance Minister (chairperson), and the Union Minister of State (Finance) from various states. Chairperson: The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister. Functions:- As per Article 279, is meant to make recommendations to the Union and the states on important issues related to GST. These include the goods and services that may be subjected or exempted from GST and model GST Laws. It also decides on various rate slabs of GST. MUST READ: GST- Five years on SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India? (2022) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country based on the profits arising out of its investment An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India  Q.2) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (2017) It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Syllabus Prelims –Medieval History Context: As per recent announcements, Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj’s ‘wagh nakh’ will be brought back to Maharashtra from a London museum. About the story of Shivaji’s Wagah Nakh:- The wagh nakh is a medieval claw-like dagger, designed to either fit over the knuckles or be concealed under the palm. It literally means ‘tiger claws’. It was used across the Indian subcontinent. The weapon consisted of four or five curved blades affixed to a glove or a bar of some kind. It was a weapon used for personal defense or stealth attack, and could easily slice through skin and flesh. The most famous use of the wagh nakh in history comes from the story of Afzal Khan’s killing by Shivaji used to be a former vassal of the Adil Shahis but by the 1650s, he had become increasingly assertive, taking forts across the Konkan, and bringing under control large swathes of Adil Shahi territory. Given Afzal Khan’s success in the south, he sent the Sultan, with a mighty army, to subdue the Maratha icon. Khan marched into the Konkan and demanded a meeting with Shivaji. In the meeting, Khan, in the guise of embracing him, attempted to stab the Maratha leader. But Shivaji was protected by his armour and retaliated: the wagh nakh ripped out Khan’s guts. Khan would eventually be beheaded by one of Shivaji’s men and in the battle that followed, Shivaji’s army came out as victor. About Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj:- Birth: 1630. Death:1680. Shivaji was the founder of the Maratha Kingdom. He was born to Shahaji Bhonsle, a Maratha general who held the jagirs of Pune and Supe under the Bijapur Sultanate and Jijabai. He was crowned as the king of the Marathas on 6th June 1674, at Raigad. He took on the titles of Chhatrapati, Shakakarta, Kshatriya Kulavantas, and Haindava Dharmodhhaarak. He was known as the Father of the Indian Navy. He was the first to realize the importance of having a naval force, and therefore he strategically established a navy and forts at the coastline to defend the Konkan side of Maharashtra. He was a secular ruler, accommodating of all religions. He had numerous Muslim soldiers in his army. Shivaji was a dependable supporter of women and their honour. He had a council of ministers (Asht Pradhan) to advise him on the matters of the state but he was not bound by it. He was called the ‘Mountain Rat’ and was widely known for his guerrilla warfare tactics. Important Battles by Shivaji:- Battle of Pratapgad, 1659: Fought at the fort of Pratapgad, between the forces of the Maratha king Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and the Adilshahi general Afzal Khan. Battle of Pavan Khind, 1660: Fought at a mountain pass in the vicinity of Fort Vishalgad, between the Maratha Sardar Baji Prabhu Deshpande and Siddi Masud of Adilshahi. Sacking of Surat, 1664: Fought near the city of Surat, Gujarat, between Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and Inayat Khan, a Mughal captain. Battle of Purandar, 1665: fought between the Mughal Empire and Maratha Empire. Battle of Sinhagad, 1670: Fought on the fort of Sinhagad near the city of Pune, Maharashtra between Tanaji Malusare, a commander of Maratha ruler Shivaji Maharaj, and Udaybhan Rathod, fortkeeper under Jai Singh I who was a Mughal Army Chief. Battle of Kalyan, 1682-83: Bahadur Khan of the Mughal Empire defeated the Maratha army and took over Kalyan. Battle of Sangamner, 1679: Fought between the Mughal Empire and Maratha Empire. This was the last battle in which the Maratha King Shivaji fought. MUST READ: The Sword of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to medieval India, which one of the following is the correct sequence in ascending order in terms of size? (2021) Paragana – Sarkar – Suba Sarkar – Paragana – Suba Suba – Sarkar – Paragana Paragana – Suba – Sarkar Q.2) Consider the following events in the history of India: (2020) Rise of Pratiharas under King Bhoja Establishment of Pallava power under Mahendravarman – I Establishment of Chola power by Parantaka – I The Pala dynasty founded by Gopala What is the correct chronological order of the above events, starting from the earliest time? 2-1-4-3 3-1-4-2 2-4-1-3 3-4-1-2 Kolleru Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: The government is preparing an inventory of land use and other activities adjacent to the Kolleru Wildlife Sanctuary. Background:- The Wildlife Division of the Andhra Pradesh Forest Department is all set to prepare an inventory of land use and other activities adjacent to the Kolleru Wildlife Sanctuary for declaring it an eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) for the conservation of the Kolleru Lake ecosystem. About Kolleru Wildlife Sanctuary:- Location: Andhra Pradesh. Area: approximately 308 square kilometers. Kolleru Bird Sanctuary is a significant wetland and bird sanctuary located in the state. It is situated between the Krishna and Godavari river basins. Krishna River Source: It originates near Mahabaleshwar (Satara) in Maharashtra. It is the second biggest river in peninsular India after the Godavari River. The Godavari river:- Source: Godavari River rises from Trimbakeshwar near Nasik in Maharashtra. It is the largest Peninsular river system. It is also called the Dakshin Ganga. It is centered around Kolleru Lake, which is the main water body within the sanctuary. Kolleru Lake, was first officially acknowledged for its ecological significance in 1953. It is a critical habitat for both resident and migratory birds. It serves as a wintering ground for thousands who visit from various parts of the world. Migratory birds: flamingos, pelicans, storks, herons, ibises, and many more. Resident birds: storks and spot-billed pelicans also inhabit the area year-round. Bird Sanctuary Status: in 1999, Kolleru received formal recognition as a Bird Sanctuary under India’s Wild Life Protection Act of 1972. Ramsar Site: In 2002, Kolleru Lake was designated as a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance under the Ramsar Convention. Important Bird Area (IBA): It regularly supports more than 50,000 waterfowl, due to which it was selected as an Important Bird Area (IBA). Flora: water hyacinth, water lilies, duckweed, and various types of algae, grasses, shrubs, tamarind, neem, palm trees, etc. Fauna: Indian mongoose and Indian jackal, lizards, Indian pythons, Indian Golden Gecko etc. MUST READ: Atapaka Bird Sanctuary SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Amphibians Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent studies show that two of five amphibians are threatened with extinction due to climate change. Key Highlights of the report:- Habitat loss, diseases, and climate change are majorly deteriorating the status of vertebrates. Climate change is the new driver pushing the amphibian population towards extinction. Climate change was the primary threat for only 1 percent of amphibian species whose conservation status in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List of Threatened Species worsened between 1980 and 2004. But since then, it has emerged as the primary threat for 39 percent of species. Two of every five amphibians were threatened with extinction. Amphibians were also found to be particularly vulnerable, with 7 percent of the species being globally threatened – the highest for any species. The status of amphibians, according to the latest Red List, continues to be deteriorating globally, especially for salamanders of which three of every five species are threatened. Disease and habitat loss drove 91 percent of status deteriorations between 1980 and 2004. The highest concentration of threatened species was mapped to be located in India’s Western Ghats, Sri Lanka, Madagascar, Caribbean islands, tropical Andes, Mesoamerica, and the mountains and forests of western Cameroon and eastern Nigeria. (Wildlife Institute of India (WII)) Other geographic locations of high concentrations included the Atlantic Forest biome of southern Brazil, central and southern China, and the southern Annamite Mountains of Vietnam. The second most threatened group of vertebrates included cycads which faced 69 percent threat. Sharks and rays faced 37.4 percent threat, conifers faced 34 percent, reef-building corals 33.4 percent, mammals 26.5 percent, and reptiles 21.4 percent. Dragonflies, birds, and cone snails faced 16 percent, 12.9 percent, and 6.5 percent threats respectively. About Amphibians:- Amphibians come in a range of sizes. The smallest is a frog known as Paedophryne amanuensis from New Guinea, which is the size of a housefly. The largest is the Chinese Giant Salamander which can grow to six feet in length and weigh 140 pounds. They are Ectothermic (cold-blooded). They live on both land and water. They are Vertebrates. They can smell, see, and hear. They have 4 legs except for some salamanders and caecilians. They have teeth but swallow their prey whole. They have lungs and permeable skin. They are carnivorous. MUST READ: Jerdon’s narrow-mouthed frog (Uperodon montanus) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (2023) Fishing cat Orangutan Otter Sloth bear Q.2) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Invasive plant species Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent studies show that Invasive plant species threaten 66% of India’s natural systems. Key Highlights of the study:- Western Ghats, South Eastern Ghats & and Central Indian Highlands among widely and densely invaded regions. More than half of India’s natural systems are threatened by invasive plant species. About 66 percent of the country’s natural systems are threatened with invasive species. The study estimated that loss due to biological invasions would cost the Indian economy up to $182.6 billion. A total of 53 percent of plots recorded at least one of the 11 high-concern invasive plants that invaded 72 percent which is 254,880 sq kilometers of land. High concern invasive plants were recorded in 22 per cent natural areas. It is predicted to potentially threaten 66 percent of natural areas. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve in Western Ghats was one of the largest impacted hotspot areas due to an invasion dominated by Lantana camara, Prosopis juliflora, and Chromolaena odorata. Besides, Southern Eastern Ghats were found to host the most densely invaded landscapes with maximum vegetation of Prosopis juliflora and Lantana camara. About Invasive plant species:- An invasive species is an organism that is not indigenous, or native, to a particular area and causes harm. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) defines it as “an alien species whose introduction and spread threaten ecosystems, habitats, or species with socio-cultural, economic and environmental harm and harm to human health”. They are capable of causing the extinction of native plants and animals. They are responsible for reducing biodiversity, competing with native organisms for limited resources, and altering habitats. They can be introduced to an area by ship ballast water, accidental release, and most often, by people. Common features of invasive exotics include:- The ability to reproduce both asexually and sexually Fast growth Rapid reproduction High dispersal ability Tolerance of a wide range of environmental conditions Ability to live off of a wide range of food types Riska and Threats:- They have a direct impact on human health. They have potential threats to livestock health. Biological invasions are a major threat to global food security and livelihoods, with developing countries being the most susceptible. The biological invasion could lead to changes to fire regimes, disease transmission to native species, forest loss, reduction in water flows, and habitat transformation, among others. They are the most common threat to amphibians, reptiles, and mammals on The IUCN Red List MUST READ: Expansion of the Invasive Plants SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2017) In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by ‘the same mosquito that transmits dengue. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) The H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases? (2015) AIDS Bird flu Dengue Swine flu Mains: Empowering Women – A driving force for the sustainable development Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: Maharashtra Chief Minister Office took over the coordination and control of a year-long women empowerment mission amid political tussle within the ruling party. The programme called “Mukhyamantri Mahila Sashaktikaran Abhiyan” (Chief Minister Women Empowerment Mission) was initially to be run by the Women and Child Welfare Department in a bid to promote women empowerment. About Women empowerment: Empowerment is the process of obtaining basic opportunities for marginalized people, either directly by those people, or through the help of non-marginalized others who share their own access to these opportunities. Empowerment of women signifies harnessing women power by promoting their tremendous potential and encouraging them to work towards attaining a dignified and satisfying way of life through confidence and competence. In the last few decades, the concept of women empowerment has changed from welfare to equity approach by which the powerless gain control over their lives and resources to overcome external barriers and gain internal qualities such as self-awareness and self-confidence. In India, where population maintain equal ratio of males and females the emergence of women entrepreneurs have great relevance and importance otherwise it will be amounting to neglecting 50 per cent of the entrepreneurial talent of the country. Significance of women empowerment: Encourages gender equality: Challenging traditional gender roles allows women to make choices about their lives, including family planning. Encouraging communities to support women’s empowerment can create an environment conducive to population control. Financial autonomy: When women have control over their finances, they can make informed decisions about family planning. Employment opportunities: Access to stable jobs allows women to delay marriage and childbirth, reducing fertility rates. Literacy and awareness: Educated women are more likely to understand the importance of family planning and make informed choices. Higher education often leads to later marriages, resulting in fewer children. Family planning services: Access to contraceptives and reproductive health services enables women to control their fertility. Improved maternal health reduces infant mortality, leading to smaller family sizes. Marriage and divorce laws: Fair legal frameworks empower women to make decisions about their relationships and family size. Property rights: Secure property rights give women the confidence to make long-term family planning decisions. Challenges associated with women empowerment: Social Pressure: Women often face societal pressure, fearing stigma from their communities when they engage in paid work, which might be seen as a sign of their husband’s inability to provide for the family, traditionally the main breadwinner role. Conservative Attitudes: There is a growing trend in conservative beliefs that dictate a woman’s primary place as being within the home and kitchen. Stepping outside these socially approved boundaries is sometimes met with backlash. Informalization of Work: In the past few decades, there has been a significant decline in agricultural jobs, without a corresponding increase in rural non-farm employment opportunities. This has resulted in many women moving into sporadic and often short-term informal and casual work. Unrecognized Women’s Work: A substantial portion of women’s work, particularly in family enterprises like farming, livestock, small shops, and handmade product sales, is not officially recognized as “work.” This leads to their exclusion from labor force statistics. Inadequate Social Security: Even women who are part of the workforce often work in roles that fall outside the purview of labor laws and social security protections, including the recently enacted Social Security Code. This disproportionately affects women in self-employment and informal jobs, comprising over 90% of the female workforce. Land Ownership Disparities: Land ownership in agriculture is primarily in the names of men, excluding women from being recognized as farmers, despite their significant involvement in agricultural work. This prevents women from accessing various beneficial programs, including priority sector loans and income support cash transfers. Some of the schemes taken by the Government to encourage and empower women: Beti Bachao Beti Padhao: Aim to address the declining Child Sex Ratio. PM Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY): Provides Cash incentives for improved health and nutrition to Pregnant and nursing mothers. Scheme for Adolescent Girls: Aims at girls in the age group 11-18, to empower and improve their social status through nutrition, life skills, home skills and vocational training. Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (RMK): To provide micro-credit to poor women for various livelihood support and income-generating activities at concessional terms. Swadhar Greh: To provide relief and rehabilitation to destitute women and women in distress. Ujjawala: A comprehensive Scheme for the prevention of trafficking and for rescue, rehabilitation, reintegration and repatriation of victims of trafficking for commercial sexual exploitation. One-Stop Centre (OSC) and Women Helpline (WH) are being implemented to facilitate access to an integrated range of services including medical aid, police assistance, legal aid/ case management, psychosocial counselling and temporary support services to women affected by violence. Gender Budgeting Scheme is being implemented as a tool for mainstreaming gender perspective at various stages of planning, budgeting, implementation, impact assessment and revisiting of policy/programme objectives and allocations. Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act 2005 Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojna (PMUY): Aims to safeguard the health of women by providing them with clean cooking fuel and also from drudgery of collecting firewood. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 (MGNREGA) mandates that at least one third of the jobs generated under the scheme (MGNREGS) should be given to women. The National Education Policy (NEP), 2020 prioritises gender equity and envisions ensuring equitable access to quality education to all students, with a special emphasis on Socially and Economically Disadvantaged Groups (SEDGs). Way Forward: Yatra Nari Astu Pujyante, Ramante Tatra Devaata (The God reside in places where women is worshipped). This statement is proof that in Vedic period, Women are worthy of worship. Women should be respected”. When we empower the women in a family, we empower the entire house-hold. When we support women’s education, we ensure that the entire family is educated. When we facilitate her good health, we help keep the entire family healthy. When we secure her future, we secure the future of the entire home. Source:   Indian Express Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: Recently, the Ministry of Corporate Affairs issued a notification stating that certain provisions of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) will no longer apply to aircraft, their engines, airframes, and helicopters. Highlights of the changes: The provisions of sub-section (1) of section 14 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 , which imposes a moratorium on assets of a company undergoing insolvency ,shall not apply to transactions, arrangements or agreements, under the Cape Town Convention and the protocol, relating to aircraft, aircraft engines, airframes and helicopters. It is a global treaty that guarantees the rights of lessors to repossess leased high-value equipment such as aircraft, engines, and helicopters in case of payment defaults. It was adopted at a conference in Cape Town in November 2001 under the International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) and the International Institute for the Unification of Private Law (UNIDROIT). It is expected to have a significant impact on the aviation industry in India, making it easier to recover assets especially aircraft and engines even when an airline goes through insolvency. About Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC): In 2016, at a time when India’s Non-Performing Assets and debt defaults were piling up, the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) code was introduced to overhaul the corporate distress resolution regime in India and consolidate previously available laws to create a time-bound mechanism. Insolvency resolution in India took 4.3 years on an average compared to countries such as UK and USA took 1 year and 1.5 years, respectively. The Bankruptcy Legislative Reforms Committee under the leadership of TK Viswanathan projected the IBC. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016 was implemented through an act of Parliament. The law was necessitated due to huge pile-up of non-performing loans of banks and delay in debt resolution. Significance of IBC code: Post the implementation of IBC, as per the World Bank’s report, India’s rank in resolving insolvency went from 136 in 2017 to 52 in 2020. Addressing NPA problem: The IBC was instrumental in reviving India’s insolvency regime and successfully addressing the looming threat of Nonperforming assets (NPAs). Credit discipline: Ease of credit flow is necessary for attainment of Ease of doing business and economic growth. Under the IBC regime, Rs. 2.5-lakh crore has been brought back into the banking system as a result of resolution of insolvencies. Advantages of IBC code: Speedy and Timely resolution of insolvency process: The process of resolution is carried out in a time-bound manner, the business is transferred as an ongoing concern to the resolution applicant. It ensures nil loss to the economy due to stoppage of production or under-utilization of resources, and minimum loss of employment, revenues to government, local ecosystem and ancillary industries. Certainty and clean title: When insolvency is resolved through the Code, there is a certainty in the settlement of liabilities and ownership of assets. Since all liabilities including government dues are settled, the resolution applicant is vested with a clean and litigation-free business and assets, etc. Prevents fraudulent activities by debtors: Since the ownership and control of the business entity, its assets and business activities stand transferred from the debtor to an insolvency professional as soon as an application is admitted by the adjudicating authority, the debtor is pre-empted from indulging in any activity to defraud the creditors. Relief for bona fide debtors: Prior to the IBC, the liabilities that remained unpaid after proceedings continued to haunt the debtors for the rest of their lives. However, resolution through the Code guarantees final settlement of all liabilities, thus freeing the bona fide debtors from debt traps and government liabilities. Challenges for the IBC: Lack of proper resolution: As per the IBBI data of 3400 cases in the last six years, more than 50% of the cases ended in liquidation while only 14% cases found a proper resolution. Huge delays in resolution: The amended IBC act made the total timeline for completion of the resolution process to 330 days from the earlier 180­ day deadline (with a permitted 90­ day extension). However, in FY22, it took 772 days to resolve cases involving companies owing more than Rs. 1,000 crore. Haircuts: It means the debt foregone by the lender as a share of the outstanding claim. The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance in 2021 noted an average haircut of 80% by the creditors in more than 70% of the cases in the 5 years of the IBC. As per The Hindu Data Team, almost 33 of 85 companies with more than Rs. 1,000 crore debt had been given haircuts above 90% by the lenders. For example, the Videocon Group was given a haircut of 95.3% by the creditors. Lack of digitisation: It has led to the delays beyond the prescribed statutory limits in the insolvency resolution process. Overburdening of courts: As the number of NCLTs and NCLATs are limited, they are weighed down by a deluge of applications, naturally impeding the timely conclusion of proceedings. Thus it is time to double the number of benches of both the NCLT and NCLAT. Lack of coordination between parties involved: Time and again, a lack of coordination between the parties in the process (creditors, stakeholders) is encountered which delays and stymies the insolvency proceedings. Way Forward: As the Parliamentary Standing Committee suggested, the timeline of not more than 30 days to admit the insolvency application and transfer control of the company to a resolution process after filing. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) also suggested that haircuts not be looked at as the difference between the creditor’s claims and the actual amount realized. But the difference between what the company offers while entering IBC and the value realized. It is important for the key stakeholders to make their best endeavours to ensure that the power of the IBC does not diminish. The goal must be to fill the voids that are discovered and move towards a more complex legal system over time. Source:   TH Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Wildlife Sanctuary State 1.Barren Island Lakshadweep 2.Pocharam Telangana 3.Kaimur Rajasthan How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Shivaji Maharaj took on the titles of Shakakarta and Haindava Dharmodhhaarak. Statement-II: Battle of Sangamner, 1679 was the first battle in which the Maratha King Shivaji fought. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the GST Council, consider the following statements: It is a statutory and not a constitutional body. It gives recommendations on important issues related to GST exclusively to the Union Government. It can decide various rate slabs of GST. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Critically analyse the progress made in resolving stressed assets since the enactment of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). (250 words) Q.2) Though women in post-Independent India have excelled in various fields, the social attitude towards women and feminist movement has been patriarchal.” Apart from women education and women empowerment schemes, what interventions can help change this milieu? (250 Words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  7th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test  Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Seventh India-EU Cyber Dialogue Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: The Seventh India-EU Cyber Dialogue was held recently. About Seventh India-EU Cyber Dialogue:- Date: 05 October 2023. Venue: Brussels, Belgium. In the context of the vibrant Strategic Partnership between India and the EU, the two sides expressed appreciation for the Cyber Dialogue mechanism. Objective: to provide a platform to discuss a wide range of issues related to cyberspace. Both sides exchanged views on cyber policies, strategies, and areas of mutual interest. They discussed cyber cooperation in multilateral fora, including at the United Nations, and in regional settings, including at OSCE, ARF, and G20. They also discussed cooperation in promoting capacity building in cyberspace and combating the criminal use of ICTs. About India-EU Relations:- The EU is a political and economic union of 27 member states that are located primarily in Europe. The union and EU citizenship were established when the Maastricht Treaty came into force in 1993. India was one of the first countries to establish relations with the European Economic Community in the 1960s. The retreat of the U.S. from global leadership has provided opportunities for EU-India cooperation.  Political Cooperation:- 2000: The first India-EU Summit was held in 2000 which marked a watershed in the development of the relationship. 2004: The relationship was upgraded to a ‘Strategic Partnership’ during the 5th India-EU Summit held in 2004. 2018: the EU’s strategy on India entitled “A Partnership for Sustainable Modernization and Rules-based Global Order” was issued by the European Commission and the EU High Representative for Foreign Affairs and Security Policy. Trade:- India is an important trade and investment partner for the EU. (India-EU: Trade talks) It is the second-largest destination for Indian exports after the United States. India’s bilateral trade with the EU amounted to USD 116.36 billion in 2021-22. Despite the global disruptions, bilateral trade achieved impressive annual growth of 43.5% in 2021-22. The trade agreement with the EU would help India further expand and diversify its exports of goods and services, including securing the value chains. Defense & Security:- EU and India have instituted several mechanisms for greater cooperation on pressing security challenges like counterterrorism, maritime security, and nuclear non-proliferation. Information Fusion Centre – Indian Ocean Region in New Delhi (IFC-IOR) has recently been linked up with the Maritime Security Centre – Horn of Africa (MSC-HOA) established by the EU Naval Force (NAVFOR). Climate Change:- EU and India also underline their highest political commitment to the effective implementation of the Paris Agreement and the UNFCCC. (EU’s Sustainability Push on India) The India-EU Clean Energy and Climate Partnership was agreed at the 2016 Summit. EU and India also cooperate closely on the Clean Ganga initiative. Research and Development:- The India-EU Science & Technology Steering Committee meets annually to review scientific cooperation. Both have official mechanisms in fields such as Digital Communications, 5G technology, Biotechnology, artificial intelligence, etc. ISRO has had a long-standing cooperation with the European Union, since the 1970s. It has contributed to the EU’s satellite navigation system Galileo. Challenges:- Deadlock over BTIA: The negotiations for a Broad-based Bilateral Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA) were held between 2007 to 2013 but have remained dormant/suspended since then. EU primarily remains a trade bloc: This has resulted in a lack of substantive agreements on matters such as regional security and connectivity. China’s influence: The EU has a high dependence on the Chinese market. It is a major partner in China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI). Ukrainian war: EU expects India to criticize Russia. MUST READ: India-EU ties SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, consider the following statements: (2023) The East-West Corridor under the Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat. A Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade and Technology Council’. Statement-II: The USA and the EU claim that through this, they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct International Criminal Court Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: The Armenian parliament recently, voted to join the International Criminal Court. Background:- The move is likely to further strain Armenia’s deteriorating relation with its ally Russia, which last month called Armenia’s push to join the ICC an “unfriendly step.” About Armenia:- IMAGE SOURCE: operationworld.org Continent: Asia. Capital: Yerevan. Armenia is a landlocked country. It is located toward the end of the southern Caucasus Mountains. Bordering countries: Azerbaijan, Nagorno-Karabakh Republic (a disputed territory), Turkey, Nakhchivan Autonomous Republic (an exclave of Azerbaijan), Georgia, and Iran. About International Criminal Court:- Establishment: 2002. HQ: Hague, Netherlands. Official languages: English, French, Arabic, Chinese, Russian and Spanish. The International Criminal Court (ICC) is an international organization and international tribunal. The Court’s founding treaty, called the Rome Statute. India is not a party to the Rome Statute along with US and China. It is the world’s first permanent international criminal court. ​The International Criminal Court (ICC) investigates and, where warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community. ICC’s Jurisdiction:- It grants the ICC jurisdiction over four main crimes. First: the crime of genocide. It is characterized by the specific intent to destroy in whole or in part a national, ethnic, racial, or religious group by killing its members or by other means: causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group. Second: the ICC can prosecute crimes against humanity. (Rohingya & ICC) These are serious violations committed as part of a large-scale attack against any civilian population. Third: war crimes are grave breaches of the Geneva conventions in the context of armed conflict. Fourth: includes crime falling within the ICC’s jurisdiction is the crime of aggression. It is the use of armed force by a State against the sovereignty, integrity, or independence of another State. The definition of this crime was adopted by amending the Rome Statute at the first Review Conference of the Statute in Kampala, Uganda, in 2010. Limitations of ICC:- ICC does not have its own police force or enforcement body, it relies on cooperation with countries worldwide for support. There are insufficient checks and balances on the authority of the ICC prosecutor and judges. ICC has been accused of being a tool of Western imperialism and biased in favour of powerful countries against weak states. MUST READ: International Court of Justice SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to (2018) Child labour Adaptation of agriculture practices to global climate change Regulation of food prices and food security Gender parity in the workplace Q.2) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (2018) Civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of the IAEA The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent studies show that Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary is losing its distinctive grasses & and hornbills to erratic weather. Background:- Rising temperature, and changing rainfall patterns may have affected the growth of plants essential to the native ecosystem. About Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary:- IMAGE SOURCE: traveltriangle.com Location: Uttara Kannada District, Karnataka. Area: 16 square kilometers. The Dandeli sanctuary covers part of the rich forests of the Uttara Kannada District. It lies on the banks of the river Kali. The Kali River or Kaali Nadi is a river flowing through Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka state in India. The river rises near Kushavali, a small village in Uttar Kannada district. Mouth: Arabian Sea. The Kali exits at Supa Dam near Kurandi then flows east towards Dandeli. In the jungles of Dandeli, one can spot several animals as well as birds including many endangered species. The government declared the Dandeli forest, a National Wildlife Sanctuary in 1956. This sanctuary is the second-largest wildlife sanctuary in Karnataka. Along with its adjoining Anshi National Park, Dandeli is an abode of 40 tigers. Cultural attractions: Kavala caves, Magod Falls, Molangi Falls, Syntheri Rock, Shivaji Fort. Flora: Eucalyptus, Tectona grandis, Grevillea robusta, T. bellerica, Adina cordifolia, Mitragyna parviflora, Acacia etc. Fauna: Malabar Giant Squirrel or Ratufa Indica, Barking Deer, Gaur, Indian Pangolin, tigers, flycatchers, woodpeckers, etc. MUST READ: Wildlife Protection SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to one of the following sites (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park SAMPRITI-XI Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: The 11th edition of the Exercise SAMPRITI, began recently. About SAMPRITI-XI:- Date: October 3, 2023. Venue: Umroi, Meghalaya, India. SAMPRITI, was initiated in 2009. Objective: to boost interoperability, share tactical expertise, and promote best practices between the Indian and Bangladeshi armies. It is an annual joint military exercise, between India and Bangladesh. This exercise, alternates between the two nations. It highlights the strong bilateral defense cooperation between the two countries. (Maitri Diwas) SAMPRITI-XI is scheduled for a duration of 14 days. It will involve approximately 350 personnel from both India and Bangladesh. Focus: enhancing cooperation and interoperability while conducting Sub-Conventional Operations as per Chapter VII of the UN mandate. It consists of a Command Post Exercise (CPX), a Field Training Exercise (FTX), and a Validation Exercise. MUST READ: Maitri Setu between India and Bangladesh SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America National Investment and Infrastructure Fund Context: Recently, the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund has unveiled a $600 m India-Japan Fund. Background:- The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund has entered into a collaboration with the Japan Bank for International Cooperation (JBIC) to unveil a $600 million India-Japan Fund. About National Investment and Infrastructure Fund:- Establishment: 2015. Objective: to maximize economic impact, especially by infrastructure investment in commercially viable projects. NIIF is India’s first sovereign wealth fund set up by the government of India. It is a fund manager that invests in infrastructure and related sectors in India. The Indian government has a 49% stake in NIIF with the rest held by foreign and domestic investors. NIIF currently manages three funds each with its distinctive investment mandate. The funds are registered as Alternative Investment Funds (AIF) with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). It has been incorporated as a company under the Companies Act, 2013, duly authorized to act as investment manager of the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund. Governance:- NIIF has a Governing Council, which is chaired by the Hon’ble Finance Minister of India. It comprises of eminent members from corporates, investments, and policy sectors. The Governing Council meets annually and provides guidance on the overall strategy of NIIF. Functions:- Fund raising through suitable instruments including off-shore credit enhanced bonds, and attracting anchor investors to participate as partners in NIIF. Servicing of the investors of NIIF. Considering and approving candidate companies/institutions/ projects (including state entities) for investments and periodic monitoring of investments. Investing in the corpus created by Asset Management Companies (AMCs) for investing in private equity. Preparing a shelf of infrastructure projects and providing advisory services. MUST READ: Approved SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements. (2022) An increase in the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Nanoparticles Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent studies show that Nanoparticles from vehicle fumes in Delhi can cause acute illness. Key Highlights of the study:- The study analyzed nanoparticles (10 to 1090 nanometers in diameter) in Delhi in 2021, over two periods — from April to June, and October to November. Nanoparticles in Delhi’s air, a major chunk of which comes from vehicular emissions. It can potentially be transported from the respiratory system to other parts of the human body, creating more chronic and acute illnesses. These “very small particles” may come from natural sources or from human activities. In urban road environments, nanoparticles come mainly from the combustion process in automobiles. In urban environments, ultrafine particles of 1 to 100 nanometers can contribute up to 90% to the total particle number concentration. Meteorology and other factors can also influence the concentration of these particles. With the rise in relative humidity, coagulation of these particles results in their concentration becoming high. The high concentrations of these pollutants are found during peak morning and evening hours due to vehicular emissions. (AIR POLLUTION) About Nanoparticles:- The nanoparticles are small particles which have a range between 1 to 100 nanometers in size They are naturally occurring substances. These materials can be fashioned as the by-products of combustion reactions. These are not visible to the eyes. They can have different types of physical and chemical properties. Properties:- There are three major physical properties of nanoparticles, and all are interrelated:- They are highly mobile in the free state. They have enormous specific surface areas. They may exhibit what are known as quantum effects. Applications:- Nanoparticles are used in Nanoparticles are also used in different types of environmental preservation processes. They are widely used in cosmetic industries. The use of nanoparticles in sports industries is quite important. The use of nanomaterials among other industries for the manufacturing of the towels and mats used by sportspeople. Developers use Nano-titanium dioxide to promote the self-cleaning process of the surfaces of plastic garden chairs. Photovoltaics (PV) are the types of nanoparticles that can control the size, shape, and material of the nanoparticle. These nanoparticles allow engineers to design different types of solar thermal products. MUST READ: Cordy gold nanoparticles SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture Systems, consider the following statements:(2023) Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate. Biofilters increase phosphorus as a nutrient for fish in water. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements (2022) Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. Nanoparticles of the same commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 Sendai Framework Syllabus Prelims –DISASTER MANAGEMENT Context: Heavy rains that led to a landslide in Uttarakhand last week brought back the significance of implementing the Sendai Framework. About Sendai Framework:- Adopted:2015. Adopted in Sendai, Japan. Duration: 2015-2030. The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030 was adopted at the Third UN World Conference in Sendai, Japan. It applies to the risk of small-scale and large-scale, frequent and infrequent, sudden and slow-onset disasters caused by natural or man-made hazards, as well as related environmental, technological, and biological hazards and risks. It is the outcome of stakeholder consultations initiated in March 2012 and inter-governmental negotiations from July 2014 to March 2015, supported by the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction at the request of the UN General Assembly. It is a 15-year, voluntary, non-binding agreement that recognizes that the State has the primary role to reduce disaster risk. It aims for the substantial reduction of disaster risk and losses in lives, livelihoods, and health. Historical Background:- The Sendai Framework is the successor instrument to the Hyogo Framework for Action (HFA) 2005-2015: Building the Resilience of Nations and Communities to Disasters. The HFA was conceived to give further impetus to the global work under the International Framework for Action for the International Decade for Natural Disaster Reduction of 1989, and the Yokohama Strategy for a Safer World: Guidelines for Natural Disaster Prevention, Preparedness and Mitigation and its Plan of Action, adopted in 1994 and the International Strategy for Disaster Reduction of 1999. Four Priority Areas:- Understanding Disaster Risk: To promote the collection, analysis, and management. Strengthening disaster risk governance to manage disaster risk: To carry out an assessment of the technical, financial, and administrative disaster risk management capacity. Investing in disaster risk reduction for resilience: To allocate the necessary resources. Enhancing disaster preparedness for effective response and to “Build Back Better” in recovery, rehabilitation, and reconstruction: To establish community centers for the promotion of public awareness and the stockpiling of necessary materials. The Seven Global Targets:- To support the assessment of global progress in achieving the outcome and goal of the present Framework, seven global targets:- Target 1 to reduce mortality: The first target aims to substantially reduce global disaster mortality by 2030, with an aim to lower the average per 100,000 global mortality rate in the decade 2020-2030 compared to the period 2005-2015. Target 2 to reduce the number of affected people: The second target aims to reduce the number of affected people globally by 2030, with a target to lower the average global figure per 100,000 in the decade 2020 -2030 compared to the period 2005-2015. Target 3 to reduce direct disaster economic loss: It aims to reduce loss in global gross domestic product (GDP) due to disaster by 2030. Target 4 to substantially reduce disaster damage to critical infrastructure and disruption of basic services: This includes reducing damage to health and educational facilities through developing their resilience by 2030. Target 5 to spread disaster risk efforts: It envisages substantially increasing the number of countries with national and local disaster risk reduction strategies by 2020. Target 6 to increase cooperation and support: It aims to enhance international cooperation with developing countries through adequate and sustainable support to complement their national actions for implementation of this Framework by 2030. Target 7 to increase accessibility: It aims to substantially increase the availability and access to multi-hazard early warning systems and disaster risk information and assessments to the people by 2030. (National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)) MUST READ: Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. Only some cyclones develop an eye. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C less than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of the Ramsar Convention. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: Fixing the Rot in the Cooperative Sector Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: The Enforcement Directorate (ED) investigation was recently constituted citing financial irregularities in the Karuvannur Service Cooperative Bank of Kerala. About Cooperative Societies: According to the International Cooperative Alliance (ICA), cooperatives are people-centred enterprises jointly owned and democratically controlled by and for their members to realise their common economic, social and cultural needs and aspirations. The Union Ministry of Cooperation was formed in 2021, its mandate was looked after by the Ministry of Agriculture before. Constitutional provisions related to cooperatives: The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act 2011 established the right to form cooperative societies as a fundamental right under Article 19. It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on the Promotion of Cooperative Societies under Article 43-B. It added a new Part IX-B to the Constitution titled “The Co-operative Societies” from articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT. It authorizes the Parliament to establish relevant laws in the case of multi-state cooperative societies (MSCS) and state legislatures in the case of other cooperative societies. Status of cooperatives in India: Currently, there are about 10 lakh cooperatives, of which 1.05 lakh are financial cooperatives. Among the financial co-operatives, rural co-operatives have a three-tier system with around 1.02 lakh primary agricultural cooperative societies (PACS); 351 District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs), 34 State Cooperative Banks (SCBs), 616 rural cooperatives for long-term lending. India has 1,514 primary urban cooperative banks (UCBs), of which, 52 are scheduled and the rest unscheduled, some are multi-State UCBs. Advantages of cooperative societies: Easy establishment: Any ten members who have acquired the majority can form a cooperative society with few legal formalities. Transparency and Equality: A cooperative society is based on the principle of ‘one man, one vote‘. All members have equal rights in handling the internal affairs. The surplus generated by these societies is dispensed equally among the members. Support agriculture and allied activities: Cooperative societies have supported the government’s effort to improve agricultural production. They act as a bridge between the government and farmers. For example, the government disburses High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds and fertilizers via Cooperatives. Social Benefits: Cooperative societies have played a significant role in modulating social customs and controlling irrelevant expenses. The profits reaped by the cooperatives can be used for facilitating fundamental amenities of the society. Limited Liability: The member’s liability in a cooperative society is confined to the extent of their capital contribution. Access to Credit: Cooperative societies have helped in reducing the influencing of private money lenders in rural areas. Cooperatives facilitate credit at the nominal interest rate. Challenges associated with cooperative sector in India: No accountability and transparency: The government gave too many benefits to cooperatives, but then there was no further accountability which led to these cooperatives becoming more and more lethargic. Besides as there was no competition, they became more and more costly they were not at all efficient and the worst part was that the government allowed them to function like this and pass on the burden of costs to consumers. Vested interest of some people: A lot of times people who are in position in control of cooperatives are actually people who have joined cooperatives for personal gains. Lack of coordination: Generally what happens in cooperatives is that different cooperatives at different level don’t coordinate this makes the work of cooperatives difficult. The Internal free rider problem: New members who provide very little capital enjoy the same benefits as long-standing or founding members who have major investments in the cooperative New members get a “free ride” on the investments and other efforts of existing members, thereby diluting the returns to existing members. No balanced growth: The cooperatives in northeast areas and in areas like West Bengal, Bihar, Orissa are not as well developed as the ones in Maharashtra and the ones in Gujarat. Political Interference: Frequent political interference is the ruining administration of the sector. This is the biggest problem faced by Sugar cooperatives in Maharashtra. Mismanagement: A hugely large membership turns out to be mismanaged unless some secure methods are employed to manage such co-operatives. In the elections to the governing bodies, money became such a powerful tool that the top posts of chairman and vice-chairman usually went to the richest farmers who manipulated the organization for their benefits. Lack of awareness and restricted coverage: People are not well informed about the objectives of the Movement, rules and regulations of co-operative institutions. Most of these societies are confined to a few members and their operations extended to only one or two villages. Way Forward: Co-operatives have great potential to rejuvenate growth, formalise the economy, and reduce inequality besides improving the standard of living of the poor in the rural areas. Provision of adequate financial and technical assistance can enable them to address rural challenges and contribute to India’s growth story. The government has to fix responsibility for the scam and ensure that the culprits are brought to book regardless of their political affiliation. Source:    TH Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF) Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Geography) and GS 3 (Disaster management) Context: Flash floods occurred in north Sikkim after the South Lhonak Lake burst due to incessant rains. For years, numerous studies highlighted the lake’s rapidly growing size and marked it as susceptible to glacial lake outburst flood. About Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF): A glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) is a type of catastrophic flood that occurs when the dam containing a glacial lake fails, releasing a large volume of water. This type of flood is typically caused by rapid melting of glaciers or the buildup of water in the lake due to heavy precipitation or the inflow of meltwater. In February 2021, Chamoli district in Uttarakhand witnessed flash floods which are suspected to have been caused by GLOFs. Source:  HT Causes behind GLOFs: Structural failure: When glaciers start to melt, they can create glacial lakes. The water in these lakes can put pressure on the natural dam that holds the water in, causing it to fail. Earthquakes: Earthquakes can cause sudden changes in the shape and stability of a glacial lake and its dam, leading to a GLOF. Climate change: Rising temperatures and increased rainfall can lead to more meltwater and therefore more glacial lakes, as well as increase the risk of GLOFs. Human activities: Human activities, such as construction or mining, can cause changes in the area around a glacial lake that can lead to a GLOF. Impact: GLOF has the potential to catastrophically threaten people’s lives, livelihoods and regional infrastructure. Old Study Warned About Threat of Lake Bursting in Sikkim: A study by an international team of researchers had warned two year ago that the South Lhonak lake in Sikkim may burst in the future and significantly impact the downstream region. The 2021 study, published in the journal Geomorphology, highlighted that South Lhonak Lake had witnessed a significant growth in the past decades due to glacial retreat, thereby increasing its chances of glacial lake outburst floods (GLOF). Key measures to tackle GLOF: The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) to tackle Glacial Bursts: Some of the key measures recommended by the NDMA include: Risk assessment: Conducting regular assessments of the risk posed by GLOFs in order to identify vulnerable areas and communities, and to prioritize areas for intervention. Early warning systems: Establishing early warning systems that can detect potential GLOFs and provide timely alerts to communities and authorities. Disaster management plans: Developing and implementing disaster management plans that outline the measures to be taken in the event of a GLOF, including evacuation plans, rescue and relief operations, and post-disaster rehabilitation. Capacity building: Building the capacity of local communities, authorities, and emergency responders to respond to GLOFs and other natural disasters, through training and awareness programs. Risk reduction measures: Implementing risk reduction measures, such as glacial lake stabilization to mitigate the risk posed by GLOFs. Way Forward: The series of disasters that occurred in Sikkim after the triggering of GLOF of South Lhonak Lake again proves that cascading hazards are becoming frequent due to climate change and human activities. It also reinforced that Himalayan regions are more susceptible to such disasters. Addressing these disasters requires an “integrated disaster management approach” that considers the connection between hazards and specific incidents to formulate effective risk-mitigation plans. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Wildlife Sanctuary Location 1.Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary Kerala 2.Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary Chhattisgarh 3.Govind Wildlife Sanctuary Uttarakhand How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only o Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund is India’s first sovereign wealth fund set up by the government of India in 2017. Statement-II: The Indian government has a 49% stake in NIIF with the rest held by foreign and domestic investors. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the International Criminal Court, consider the following statements: Japanese is one of its official languages. ICC’s jurisdiction includes the crime of aggression. India is a party to the Rome Statute. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 only 3 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What constraints and challenges do cooperative institutions face in India? how do they contribute to the socio-economic development of the country? (250 words) Q.2) What do you mean by the term glacial lake outburst floods (GLOF)? Explains the reasons and impacts of GLOF with recent examples.  (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  5th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test  Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 5th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) TIR Executive Board (TIRExB) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs, Ministry of Finance (CBIC) recently requested support for India’s candidature for the TIR Executive Board (TIRExB). Background:- The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs, Ministry of Finance, in association with the Ministry of External Affairs organized an event in New Delhi yesterday for ambassadors and delegates from Contracting Parties to the Convention on International Transport of Goods Under Cover of TIR Carnets (TIR Convention, 1975). About TIR Executive Board (TIRExB):- The TIR Executive Board (TIRExB) is a subsidiary body of the TIR Administrative Committee. Composition: it is composed of 9 members, each from different Contracting Parties to the TIR Convention. The TIRExB supervises and provides support in the application of the TIR procedure at the national and international levels. About TIR Convention:- Establishment: 1975. The TIR Convention stands for the “Convention on International Transport of Goods Under Cover of TIR Carnets.” The Customs Convention on the International Transport of Goods under Cover of TIR Carnets (TIR Convention, 1975). It is one of the most successful international transport conventions. It is so far the only universal Customs transit system in existence. (International Customs Day, 2023) To date, it has 78 Contracting Parties, including the European Union. It covers the whole of Europe and reaches out to North Africa and the Near and Middle East. More than 33,000 operators are authorized to use the TIR system and around 1.5 million TIR transports are carried out per year. It is an international harmonized system of Customs control, which enables seamless transport of goods crossing multiple international borders using a single customs document (TIR Carnet) and a unified system of guarantee. India and TIR:- India became a party to the TIR Convention in 2017. India is a significant trading nation in the Asia Pacific region. It has been a key participant in the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC). Since its accession to the Convention, India has taken several measures to promote the use of TIR. A National Guaranteeing Association has been appointed and a Circular 48/2018-Cus has been issued detailing the procedure and authorizing ports and other customs stations of the country. India has also conducted pilot runs, including one using digital TIR. (Free Trade Agreements regime) Measures have been initiated to ensure effective usage of TIR through stakeholder consultations. MUST READ: Need for Reforms in UN SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following infrastructure sectors: (2023) Affordable housing Mass rapid transport Health care Renewable energy On how many of the above does the UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus on its investments? Only one Only two · Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) 21st February is declared International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Swachhata Hi Seva Campaign Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd. (IREDA) began the ‘Ek Taarikh, Ek Ghanta, Ek Saath’ Cleanliness Initiative under Swachhata Hi Seva Campaign. Background:- As part of the ongoing ‘Swachhata Hi Seva’ Campaign 3.0, Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd. (IREDA) joined the nation in organizing ‘Ek Taarikh, Ek Ghanta, Ek Saath’ cleanliness drive, at its office premises in Bhikaiji Cama Place, Delhi and adjoining areas recently. Ek Tareekh Ek Ghanta Ek Saath:- It is an initiative that is a massive voluntary effort for cleanliness in India, endorsed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. The initiative encourages citizens to engage in one hour of “shramdaan” (voluntary labour) for cleanliness at 10 a.m. on October 1st as a tribute to Mahatma Gandhi. About Swachhata Hi Seva Campaign:- Ministry: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). Duration: The Swachhata Hi Seva (SHS) campaign is being celebrated from 15th September to 2nd October this year (2023). It is being celebrated as a prelude for the Swachh Bharat Diwas (2nd October) with nationwide participation. Implementation: It is under the joint aegis of DDWS & MoHUA. Theme of SHS-2023: ‘Garbage Free India’. Focus: visual cleanliness and welfare of SafaiMitras. The focus of these swachhata drives would be on high footfall public places like bus stands, railway stations, cantonment boards, beaches, tourist places, zoos, national parks & and sanctuaries, historical monuments, heritage sites, river fronts, ghats, drains and nallahs etc. in both rural & urban areas of State/ UT. Objectives:- For undertaking shramdaan activities aiming to generate Jan andolan through community participation. To provide impetus for the implementation of SBM. To disseminate the importance of a sampoorna swachh village. To reinforce the concept of Sanitation as everyone’s business. Activities:- Activities proposed for States / Districts / Blocks to organize SHS from 15th September 2023 to 2nd October 2023 are as follows:- Removal of garbage from all important places. Repair, painting, cleaning, and branding of all sanitation assets like litter bins, public toilets, dhalaos, waste transport vehicles, MRFs, etc. in the area. Drives to clean riverbanks and remove of waste (including plastic) from water bodies, especially in Ganga Grams and Ganga Towns. Cleaning of zoos, national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, etc. under MoEFCC along with regulation of plastic materials in protected areas to prevent littering. Cleanliness drives of tourist spots, ASI protected monuments along with IEC initiatives to discourage usage of single-use plastic items, saturating dry and wet waste bins in line with the Hara Geela Sookha Neela campaign, etc. MUST READ: Swachh Bharat 2.0 SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements: (2021) The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is part of a project led by Climate Change, Agriculture, and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research program. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centers. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 PM SVANidhi scheme Syllabus Prelims –POLITY-GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi has recently lauded the PM SVANidhi scheme which has crossed the milestone of 50 lakh beneficiaries. About PM SVANidhi scheme:- IMAGE SOURCE: transformingindia. mygov.in Launched in 2020. (UPSC CSE: PM SVANidhi scheme) Ministry: Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs. Implementation agency: Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). Objective: Providing affordable Working Capital loans to street vendors to resume their livelihoods that have been adversely affected due to the COVID-19 lockdown. The scheme intends to facilitate collateral-free working capital loans of up to INR10,000/- of one-year tenure, to approximately 50 lakh street vendors. It is a Central Sector Scheme. Central sector schemes: schemes with 100% funding by the Central government and implemented by the Central Government machinery. Duration of the scheme: The duration of the scheme initially was until March 2022. It has been extended till December 2024. Salient Features:- Loan limit: Vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to Rs. 10,000.(PM SVANidhi scheme) This loan is repayable in monthly installments for the tenure of one year. No collateral is required to avail of the loan. Processing fee: There is no processing fee to apply for the scheme, making it cost-effective for street vendors. Loan repayment period: one year. Interest subsidy: On timely/ early repayment of the loan, an interest subsidy @ 7% per annum. It will be credited to the bank accounts of beneficiaries through Direct Benefit Transfers on a quarterly basis.  Eligibility Criteria:- The eligible vendors are identified as per the following criteria:- Certificate of Vending/Identity Card: Street vendors in possession of a Certificate of Vending/Identity Card issued by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs). Urban Local Bodies(ULBs) are encouraged to issue such vendors the permanent Certificate of Vending and Identification Card immediately and positively within a period of one month Letter of Recommendation: Street Vendors, left out of the ULB-led identification survey or who have started vending after completion of the survey and have been issued a Letter of Recommendation (LoR) to that effect by the ULB/Town Vending Committee (TVC). Advantages of the scheme:- The scheme promotes digital transactions through cash-back incentives up to an amount of Rs. 100 per month. The scheme encourages entrepreneurship. It also helps to create employment opportunities. (Programme of Socio-Economic Profiling of PM SVANidhi launched) MUST READ: SVANidhi se Samriddhi program SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Chemistry Nobel 2023 Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT AWARDS Context: The Chemistry Nobel 2023 was announced recently. Background:- The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2023 was awarded to Moungi G. Bawendi, Louis E. Brus, and Alexei I. Ekimov. (Nobel Prize for Chemistry 2021) About Chemistry Nobel 2023:- The 2023 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded for the discovery of quantum dots used in light-emitting diode or LED lights. These particles have unique properties and now spread their light from television screens and LED lamps. They catalyze chemical reactions and their clear light can illuminate tumour tissue for a surgeon. Timeline of the experiments:- In the early 1980s, this year’s chemistry laureates Louis Brus and Alexei Ekimov succeeded in creating (independently of each other) quantum dots. In 1993, chemistry laureate Moungi Bawendi revolutionized the methods for manufacturing quantum dots, making their quality extremely high which is a vital prerequisite for their use in today’s nanotechnology. Understanding the significance of the Experiment:- Quantum dots are nanoparticles or small particles ranging between 1 and 100 nanometres in size. ( Cordy gold nanoparticles) These are so tiny that their size determines their properties. The smallest quantum dots shine in blue and the big ones shine in yellow and red, and they only differ by size. The team succeeded in growing nanocrystals of a specific size. They did this by varying the temperature of the solution. These crystals also had a smooth and even surface. Researchers primarily utilized quantum dots to create coloured light. Applications:- The quantum dots can contribute to flexible electronics, miniscule sensors, slimmer solar cells, and perhaps encrypted quantum communication. It can Help spread light from television screens. It can help LED lamps use their clear light to illuminate tumor tissue during surgery. MUST READ: Nobel Prize Chemistry 2022 SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 PM Ujjwala Yojana Syllabus Prelims –POLITY-GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: The Government has recently, increased the LPG subsidy per cylinder by 100 rupees for the PM Ujjwala Yojana beneficiaries. Background:- Briefing the media, Information and Broadcasting Minister Anurag Singh Thakur said that in a major decision, the Union Cabinet approved an increase in LPG subsidy, raising it from the current 200 rupees per cylinder to 300 rupees per cylinder for the beneficiaries under Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana. About PM Ujjwala Yojana:- Launched: May 2016. Ministry: Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Objective: to make clean cooking fuel such as LPG available to the rural and deprived households that were otherwise using traditional cooking fuels such as firewood, coal, cow-dung cakes, etc. PM Ujjwala 1.0 had a target to provide deposit-free LPG connections to 5 crore women members of BPL households. The scheme was expanded in April 2018 to include women beneficiaries from seven more categories (SC/ST, PMAY, AAY, most backward classes, tea garden, forest dwellers, etc.). EMI facilities were given for stove and refill costs (Interest-free loan). Ujjwala 2.0:- The Union budget for FY 21-22, announced the provision for an additional one crore LPG connection under the PMUY scheme. Additional allocation of 1.6 Crore LPG Connections under the PMUY Scheme with a special facility to migrant households. It will provide a deposit-free LPG connection. It will also give the first refill and hotplate (stove) free of cost to the beneficiaries. The migrants will not be required to submit ration cards or address proof. A self-declaration for both a ‘family declaration’ and a ‘proof of address’ will suffice. It will help achieve the Prime Minister’s vision of universal access to LPG. MUST READ: Pradhan MantriUjjwalaYojana (PMUY) – Diversion of LPG SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 South Lhonak lake Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Bursting of  South Lhonak Lake which took place recently was forewarned by researchers two years ago. Background:- Scientists had warned in 2021 that the South Lhonak lake in Sikkim would burst. The disaster finally took place on the intervening night of October 3-4, 2023. About South Lhonak Lake:- IMAGE SOURCE: ResearchGate Location: North Sikkim. Altitude: approximately 17,000 feet above sea level. Formation: Its formation is attributed to the melting glaciers of the region, a process accelerated by rising global temperatures. It plays a role in the hydrological cycle, releasing water downstream, ultimately benefiting the Teesta River basin. It is one of the fastest expanding lakes in the Sikkim Himalaya region. South Lhonak Lake is a Glacial lake. It is also one of the 14 potentially dangerous lakes susceptible to Glacial lake outburst floods (GLOFs). Glacial lakes are large bodies of water that sit in front of, on top of, or beneath a melting glacier. As they grow larger, they become more dangerous because glacial lakes are mostly dammed by unstable ice or sediment composed of loose rock and debris. In case the boundary around them breaks, huge amounts of water rush down the side of the mountains, which could cause flooding in the downstream areas. This is called glacial lake outburst floods or GLOF. () MUST READ: Lake SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which ~ of the following statements is correct? (2023) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about ·10 times of that received at the poles. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. Q.2) Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? (2022) Cauvery Manjira Pennar Tungabhadra Platypuses Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent studies show that even platypuses aren’t safe from bushfires in Australia. Background:- Platypuses are disappearing from waterways after fire. About Platypuses:- Platypus is a duck-billed semi-aquatic organism. Distribution: They are found in Australia. Habitat: It is known for its reclusive nature and highly specific habitat requirements. It is found near small streams and cool moving rivers. Platypuses are unique to Australia. As monotremes, they lay eggs. They’re one of only five species of mammals that do. The other four are echidnas. They have webbed feet for swimming. They have electroreceptors in their bills to help them find food in rivers and streams. But they can be hard to find. It’s difficult to determine whether there’s a platypus living in a particular waterway. The Taronga Conservation Society Australia and the New South Wales government recently announced the plans to establish the world’s first platypus sanctuary consisting of ponds and burrows at a zoo near Sydney by 2022. MUST READ: National Surveillance Programme for Aquatic Animal Diseases (NSPAAD) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Mains: Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Internal security) Context: The Delhi Police has sealed the office of news portal NewsClick, by invoking the UAPA Act, alleging it received money for pro-China propaganda. About the UAPA Act: Enacted in 1967 the UAPA presents an alternate criminal law framework where the general principles of criminal law are reversed. By relaxing timelines for the state to file chargesheets and its stringent conditions for bail, the UAPA gives the state more powers compared with the Indian Penal Code (IPC). Mandate: It is aimed at “more effective prevention of certain unlawful activities of individuals and associations for dealing with terrorist activities”. Unlawful activity: Unlawful activity means any conduct which constitutes a crime or which contravenes any law whether such conduct occurred before or after the commencement of this Act and whether such conduct occurred in the Republic or elsewhere. Terrorist act: Section 15 of the act defines “terrorist act” and is punishable with imprisonment for a term of at least five years to life. Power to central government: The Act assigns absolute power to the central government, by way of which if the Centre deems an activity as unlawful then it may, by way of an Official Gazette, declare it so. Applicability: The provisions of this Act apply; citizens of India outside India; persons in the service of the Government, wherever they may be; and persons on ships and aircrafts, registered in India, wherever they may be. 2004 amendment: It added “terrorist act” to the list of offences, to ban organisations for terrorist activities. Till 2004, “unlawful” activities referred to actions related to secession and cession of territory. Following the 2004 amendment, the “terrorist act” was added to the list of offences. 2019 amendment: The Parliament cleared the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Bill, 2019 to designate individuals as terrorists on certain grounds provided in the Act. The Act empowers the Director General of National Investigation Agency (NIA) to grant approval of seizure or attachment of property when the case is investigated by the said agency. The Act empowers the officers of the NIA, of the rank of Inspector or above, to investigate cases of terrorism in addition to those conducted by the DSP or ACP or above rank officer in the state. Criticisms associated with UAPA: Low conviction: According to a source, in 2018-20, as many as 4,690 people were arrested under the UAPA but only 3% were convicted. Sharp Rise in Use: This caution is significant given the sharp surge in the state’s use of this provision in a sweeping range of alleged offences Against tribals in Chhattisgarh Those using social media through proxy servers in Jammu and Kashmir; and Journalists in Manipur among others. Ignoring Fundamental Rights: It can simply be used to bypass fundamental rights and procedures. For instance, those arrested under UAPA can be incarcerated up to 180 days without a charge sheet being filed. It thus directly violates Article 21 of the constitution. Stringent Provision of bail: The standard for bail under the UAPA is that it cannot be granted unless the court is of the view that the accused is innocent of the alleged offence. It means that the onus of proof of innocence for the purpose of obtaining bail is effectively reversed. It is for the accused to show that he is innocent. Highly Discretionary: It confers upon the government broad discretionary powers and also authorizes the creation of special courts with the ability to use secret witnesses and to hold closed-door hearings. Recent judgments related to the UAPA, 1967: A. Najeeb v. Union of India (2021): The Supreme Court concluded that, despite the UAPA’s restrictions on bail, constitutional courts can nevertheless grant bail if the accused’s fundamental rights have been violated. Asif Iqbal Tanha v. State of NCT (2021): The Delhi High Court carried this logic a step further saying that courts should not wait until the accused’s right to a speedy trial has been completely revoked before releasing them. Bikramjit Singh v. The State Of Punjab (2020): SC declared that it is a fundamental right granted to an accused person to be released on bail once the conditions of the first proviso to Section 167(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC) are met. According to Section 167 (2) of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, an accused person’s imprisonment cannot be extended beyond the statutory time limit for the conclusion of the investigation. Way Forward: The Right to reputation is an intrinsic part of fundamental right to life with dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution of India and terming/tagging an individual as ‘terrorist’ even before the commencement of trial or any application of judicial mind over it does not adhere to procedure established by law. The Act has indeed been the centre of several debates because of its abusive nature and lack of a proper mechanism for backup. It is up to the state, judiciary, civil society to balance constitutional freedom and the imperative of anti-terror pursuits. Source: Indian Express Circular migration: looking at both sides of the debate Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) Context: In India, internal migration, which is migration within a particular country or State, has almost always been circular. With rapid industrialisation, there has been a huge flow of migrants from rural areas to urban cities. About circular migration: Circular migration is defined by temporary residence, potential for multiple entries, and freedom of movement between origin and destination. A circular migrant completes at least two loops between the origin and destination. India experiences substantial internal circular migration, notably from rural to urban areas, often for jobs in sectors like construction. According to Philippe Fargues, migration can define as circular if it meets the following criteria: there is a temporary residence in the destination location , there is the possibility of multiple entries into the destination country, there is a freedom of movement between the country of origin and the country of destination during the period of residence, there is a legal right to stay in the destination country, there is protection of migrants’ rights, and if there is a healthy demand for temporary labour in the destination country. Circular migration within India: In India, internal migration has almost always been circular. Between 2004–2005 and 2011–2012, the construction sector witnessed one of the largest net increases in employment for all workers, specifically for rural males. In India, the uneven development post-liberalisation, has led to a lot of inter-State migration, with States like West Bengal, Odisha and Bihar having some of the highest rates of out-migration. Initially, while most of the migration was to Delhi, nowadays it has increased to southern States as well. Positive Impacts of circular migration: Labor Demand and Supply: Migration fills gaps in demand for and supply of labor, and efficiently allocates skilled labor, unskilled labor, and cheap labor. Economic Remittances: The economic well-being of migrants provides insurance against risks to households in the areas of origin, increases consumer expenditure and investment in health, education and assets formation. Skill Development: Migration enhances the knowledge and skills of migrants through exposure and interaction with the outside world. Social Remittances: Migration helps to improve the social life of migrants, as they learn about new cultures, customs, and languages which helps to improve brotherhood among people and ensures greater equality and tolerance. Food and Nutrition Security: According to the 2018 State of Food and Agriculture report by Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), outmigration often leads to improved food and nutrition security for migrants. Demographic Advantage: As a result of outmigration, the population density of the place of origin is reduced and the birth rate decreases. Climate Change Adaptive Mechanism: Migration has also emerged as a possible adaptive mechanism in the context of climate change and the occurrence of extreme weather events like floods, droughts, and cyclones. Negative Impact of circular migration: Demographic Profile: Emigration in large numbers can alter demographic profiles of communities, as most of the young men move out, leaving only the women and elderly to work on the land. Political Exclusion: Migrant workers are deprived of many opportunities to exercise their political rights like the right to vote. Population Explosion and the Influx of workers in the place of destination increases competition for the job, houses, school facilities etc and a large population puts too much pressure on natural resources, amenities, and services. Illiterate and Under-skilled Migrants are not only unfit for most jobs, because of a lack of basic knowledge and life skills but are also prone to the victimization of exploitation, trafficking, psychological abuse, and gender-based violence in the case of female migrants. Increased Slum: Mass Migration results into an increase in slum areas, compromising quality of infrastructure and life at the destination, which further translates into many other problems such as unhygienic conditions, crime, pollution, etc. Challenges of circular migration: Worker Exploitation: In India, circular migrants, particularly to southern states, can face exploitation and unsafe working conditions. They sometimes work in unsanitary conditions, with limited protective equipment, and might deal with middlemen or brokers who may take advantage of them. Economic Strain: Migrants often engage in low-skill jobs, earning just enough to support themselves and their families, with little room for savings or asset creation. Although they may access higher-paying jobs in the destination, the work is often seasonal and irregular, leading to financial instability. Pressure on Society and Infrastructure: Both rural and urban areas can experience different kinds of strain. Rural areas might see economic and demographic declines, while urban areas might face infrastructural breakdown due to the influx of migrants. Steps taken by the Government for Migrant Workers: Prime Minister Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme: Provides affordable working capital loans to street vendors to restart their livelihoods that have been adversely affected due to the Covid-19 lockdown. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana: It is a food security welfare scheme announced during the COVID-19 pandemic in India. Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan (GKRA) initiative: GKRA aims to give employment to migrant workers, that has gone back to rural areas during COVID-19 migrant crisis. e-Shram portal: It is a centralized database of unorganized workers seeded with Aadhaar. It envisages the optimum realization of their employability and extension of social security scheme benefits to them. National policy on migrant workers: The draft policy by NITI Aayog makes efforts to bring together different sectoral concerns related to migration, including social protection, housing, health and education. One Nation One Ration Card scheme: It allows migrant labourers to get ration benefits from any part of the country, irrespective of the place where their ration card is registered. PM Awas Yojana: A scheme to provide affordable housing for migrants too. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) and Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY): Provides for life & disability cover due to natural or accidental death. Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY): Provides Rs.5 lakh health coverage for secondary and tertiary health benefits to those migrant workers who are covered as eligible beneficiaries as per deprivation and occupation criteria. Source:   TH Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Nobel Laureates in 2023 Discipline of Award 1.Pierre Agostini, Ferenc Krausz, and Anne L’Huillier. Medicine 2.Moungi G Bawendi, Louis E Brus and Alexei I Ekimov. Chemistry 3.Katalin Kariko and Drew Weissman Physics How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: TIR Executive Board (TIRExB) is a subsidiary body of the TIR Administrative Committee. Statement-II: India became a party to the TIR Convention in 2007. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Swachhata Hi Seva Campaign, consider the following statements: ‘Ek Taarikh, Ek Ghanta, Ek Saath’ cleanliness drive was organized under it. It is being celebrated as a prelude to the Swachh Bharat Diwas (12th October). Cleaning of zoos, national parks, and wildlife sanctuaries are a few activities in the initiatives. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Indian government has recently strengthened the anti-terrorism laws by amending the unlawful activities (Prevention) act (UAPA), 1967 and the NIA Act. Analyze the changes in the context of prevailing security environment while discussing the scope and reasons for opposing the UAPA by human rights organizations. (250 words) Q.2) What is Circular Migration? Discuss the challenges in addressing internal labor migration issues in India? What are the government policies taken to protect internal migrants? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  5th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 4th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 5th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test  Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 4th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Badis limaakumi Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, a new species of fish Badis limaakumi, was discovered in Nagaland. Background:- Scientists have recently discovered a new fish species from the Milak River, Nagaland. About Badis limaakumi:- Family: Badidae. Genus: Badis. Location: Nagaland, Northeast India. It was found in Nagaland’s Malak River. Habitat: It is found in various freshwater habitats, including rivers, ponds, and marshes. Distribution: These fish are primarily found in freshwater bodies across northern India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, and Nepal. Around 25 recognized species, 15 of which are in India. Naming: it has been named after Limaakum, assistant professor and head of the zoology department at Fazl Ali College, Nagaland. Unique feature: This fish can change its colour like a chameleon. It belongs to the often-called Chameleon fish for their ability to rapidly change colors during breeding, camouflage, or stress. (National Surveillance Programme for Aquatic Animal Diseases (NSPAAD)) Local Names: “Tepdang” and “Sempi,”. Physical Features:- It has a large and slender body. It lacks blotches on its sides and fins and possesses a significant number of lateral-line scales. Diet: These fish are predatory by nature and primarily feed on small freshwater invertebrates. (Zebrafish) About Milak River: Milak River is situated in Mokokchung district in Nagaland, India. The nearest town to this river is Naga Town. Main tributary of Milak River is Tsurong. MUST READ: Puffer Fish SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Invasive Species Specialist group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations? (2023) The International Union for Conservation of Nature The United Nations Environment Programme The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development The World Wide Fund for Nature Q.2) Which of the following organisms ·perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Hirakud reservoir Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: High levels of cancer-causing heavy metals such as lead and chromium have been found in eight wetlands in Odisha, including the Hirakud reservoir recently. Background:- The findings were recorded in a new study published in the journal Scientific Reports on September 28, 2023. The selected eight wetlands were: Natural ones such as Chandaneswar, Chilika, Daringbadi, and Koraput as well as constructed ones like Bhadrak, Hirakud, Talcher, and Titlagarh. The highest concentrations of heavy metal pollutants, lead (51.25 micrograms per gram) and chromium (266 micrograms per gram) were recorded in Hirakud. Heavy metal pollutants that commonly accumulate in wetlands as a result of human activity include lead, chromium, cadmium, copper, mercury, nickel, zinc, manganese, and arsenic. These metals can enter crops through the soil, which are then consumed by humans. About Hirakud reservoir:- IMAGE SOURCE: MapsofIndia Location: Odisha. Area: 65,400 ha River: Mahanadi. (Mahanadi Coalfields Ltd (MCL)) The Hirakud reservoir is one of the largest human-made reservoirs in India. It is built across the Mahanadi River by a combination of earth and modern dams with a total length of almost 26 kilometers. The reservoir helps regulate the water level of the river. It thereby moderates the impact of floods in the Mahanadi Delta. It was designated a Ramsar site in 2021 (COP14 of Ramsar Convention on Wetlands) Biodiversity: It provides habitat for over 130 bird species and about 54 fish, with one classified as endangered and six others as near-threatened. Economic significance: 21 fish species are economically important to the region as they provide a total yield of 480 tonnes per year, supporting the livelihoods of over 7,000 fishermen. The reservoir also produces around 350 megawatts of hydropower. It also irrigates 436,000 hectares of land. Tourism: The rich biodiversity and other recreational activities in and around the reservoir make it a popular tourist destination, with over 30,000 tourists visiting annually. MUST READ: National Dam Safety Authority SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) Consider the following Rivers: (2021) Brahmani Nagavali Subarnarekha Vamsadhara Which of the above rises from the Eastern Ghats? 1 and 2 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 3 Sastra Ramanujan Prize Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT PRIZE Context: The 2023 SASTRA Ramanujan Prize was awarded to Ruixiang Zhang of the University of California, Berkeley. Background:- His fundamental work spans analytic number theory, combinatorics, Euclidean harmonic analysis, and geometry. The prize will be awarded at an International Conference in Number Theory on December 20-22 at SASTRA University in Kumbakonam, Ramanujan’s hometown. About Sastra Ramanujan Prize:- Established in 2005. Instituted by: Shanmugha Arts, Science, Technology & Research Academy (SASTRA). Time Period: annual. Objective: to acknowledge and encourage exceptional achievements in mathematics. It is a prestigious Award in the field of mathematics. It promotes mathematical research and honors exceptional achievements. This prize is for outstanding contributions by individuals in areas of mathematics influenced by Indian mathematics great Ramanujan. Decoration: A cash prize of USD 10,000. (Golden Globes Award) Age limit: It is presented to individuals aged 32 and below. The age limit of 32 years is to commemorate the fact that Ramanujan accomplished a phenomenal body of work in this short span. SASTRA Ramanujan Prize 2023 will be awarded to Ruixiang Zhang of the University of California, Berkeley. (Padma awards) His fundamental work spans analytic number theory, combinatorics, Euclidean harmonic analysis, and geometry. Building on his doctoral thesis, he and Shaoming Guo proved a generalization of the main conjecture in Vinogradov’s mean value theorem, which is concerned with the sums of numbers raised to a certain power. MUST READ: Chess Olympiad SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards: (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is/are not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Nobel Prize in Physics 2023 Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT AWARDS Context: The Nobel Prize in Physics 2023 was announced recently. About Nobel Prize in Physics 2023:- Awarded by: Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences. The 2023 Nobel Prize in Physics has been awarded to Pierre Agostini, Ferenc Krausz, and Anne L’Huillier. ( Nobel Prize In Physics 2020) They were awarded for their work in “experimental methods that generate attosecond pulses of light for the study of electron dynamics in matter. Attosecond pulses of light offer an unprecedented capability to study rapid electron movements and energy changes within atoms and molecules. These pulses have revolutionized the field of electrodynamics in matter. They provide a powerful tool for exploring fundamental processes in physics and chemistry. These pulses can be used to provide images of the processes inside atoms and molecules. They have opened new avenues for studying the behavior of electrons within atoms and molecules, revolutionizing the field of electrodynamics in matter. While Ferenc Kraus is a German Physicist, Anne L’Huillier is from Sweden and Pierre Agostini is an American. Anne L’Huillier is the fifth woman to receive the Nobel Prize in Physics. Significance: The laureates’ contributions have enabled the investigation of processes that are so rapid they were previously impossible to follow. Application Potentials:- Blood Sample Analysis: It can revolutionize disease diagnosis, including conditions like lung cancer. Semiconductor Technologies: The technology can serve as a powerful imaging tool. Understanding Nature Processes: This can deepen our understanding of complex natural processes, particularly photosynthesis. MUST READ: Physics Nobel Prize 2021 SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000: (2021) American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award. The award has been received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far. Roger Federer received this award a maximum number of times compared to others. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2023 Nobel Prize for Medicine Syllabus Prelims – IMPORTANT AWARDS Context: The 2023 Nobel Prize for Medicine has been jointly awarded to United States scientists Katalin Kariko and Drew Weissman. About the 2023 Nobel Prize for Medicine:- Katalin Kariko and Drew Weissman were awarded for work that led to effective mRNA vaccines against COVID-19. The discoveries and findings by Kariko and Weissman fundamentally changed the understanding of how mRNA interacts with the human immune system. (Nobel Prize in Medicine 2022) They eliminated critical obstacles on the way to clinical applications of mRNA, paving the way for the speedy development of mRNA vaccines that saved millions during the pandemic. Genetic information encoded in human DNA is transferred to messenger RNA (mRNA) in the body’s cells and is used as a template for protein production. Using mRNA in vaccine development:- Scientists were able to produce mRNA without cell culture in the 1980s, in a process known as in vitro transcription. This began the research on using mRNA for vaccine and therapeutic purposes. However, in vitro transcribed mRNA was considered unstable and challenging to deliver. It required the development of sophisticated carrier lipid systems to encapsulate the mRNA. Moreover, in vitro-produced mRNA gave rise to inflammatory reactions. Karikó and Weissman performed an experiment to seek a remedy to this problem. Hypothesis: Karikó and Weissman tested whether the absence of altered bases in the in vitro transcribed RNA could explain the unwanted inflammatory reaction. Experiment: They produced different variants of mRNA, each with unique chemical alterations in their bases, and then delivered them to the dendritic cells. Findings: They found that the inflammatory response was almost abolished when base modifications were included in the mRNA. By this, Karikó and Weissman showed that the delivery of mRNA generated with base modifications can markedly increase protein production compared to unmodified mRNA and also reduce the inflammatory responses. Using this approach, two base-modified mRNA vaccines encoding the SARS-CoV-2 surface protein were developed at record speed during the outbreak of the COVID-19 pandemic. Protective effects of around 95 percent were reported, and both vaccines were approved as early as December 2020. Significance: Such vaccines have resulted in saving saved millions of lives and prevented severe disease in many more, allowing societies to open and return to normal conditions.  About DNA:- DNA is a deoxyribonucleic acid and is a hereditary material. It occurs inside the nucleus of the cell and some cell organelles. In plants it is present in mitochondria and plant cells. It is a double-stranded molecule consisting of a long chain of nucleotides. It stores and transfers genetic information to generate new cells and organisms. It has two nucleotide strands consisting of a phosphate group, five-carbon sugar (stable deoxyribose 2), and four nitrogen bases. The four nitrogen bases in RNA include adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine. They for complementary pairs of Adenine links to Thymine (A-T) and Cytosine links to Guanine (C-G). DNA is self-replicating. Quantity of DNA is fixed for cells. About RNA:- RNA contains four bases, abbreviated A, U, G, and C, corresponding to A, T, G, and C in DNA, the letters of the genetic code. RNA, an abbreviation of ribonucleic acid. It is a type of nucleic acid that contributes to protein synthesis. It is synthesized from DNA when needed. It is single consisting of a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar (less stable ribose), and four nitrogen bases. The four nitrogen bases in RNA include adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil. It replaces DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) as a carrier of genetic codes in some viruses. It consists of ribose nucleotides (nitrogenous bases bound to a ribose sugar) connected by phosphodiester bonds, forming variable-length chains. Uracil is replaced by thymine in DNA. The quantity of RNA in a cell is variable. RNA Types:- tRNA: it is responsible for selecting the correct protein or the amino acids that the body requires to help the ribosomes in turn. rRNA: it is the ribosome portion and is located within a cell’s cytoplasm, where ribosomes are found. It is mainly involved in the synthesis and translation of mRNA into proteins. mRNA – Messenger RNA: this RNA is responsible for bringing the genetic material to the ribosomes and insists on what kind of protein the body needs. It is therefore called messenger RNA. This m-RNA is usually involved in the transcription process, or during the process of protein synthesis. MUST READ: Nobel Peace Prize 2022 SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) What is the cas9 protein that is often mentioned in the news? (2019) molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing. A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients. A gene that makes plants pest-resistant A herbicidal substance synthesized in generally modified crops Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the Centre declared the National Liberation Front of Tripura, All Tripura Tiger Force, and their factions as unlawful associations under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act. Background:- The Home Ministry has banned these organizations for five years. The Ministry said, the government is of the opinion that the activities of NLFT and ATTF are detrimental to the sovereignty and integrity of India and that they are unlawful associations. About the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967:- It is an anti-terror law aimed at the prevention of unlawful activity and associations in India. Objective: to make powers available for dealing with activities directed against the integrity and sovereignty of India. The Act assigns absolute power to the Central Government. It can declare an activity as unlawful, by way of an Official Gazette. (Misuse of UAPA) Applicability: Under the act, both Indian and foreign nationals can be charged. Punishment: The act has the death penalty and life imprisonment as the highest punishments. Duration of punishment: Under section 43D, police are empowered to detain the accused in police custody for 30 days and in judicial custody for a period of 180 days without the charge sheet. This duration can be extended further after information to the court. The Act empowers the Director General of the National Investigation Agency (NIA) to grant approval for the seizure or attachment of property when the case is investigated by the said agency. The Act empowers the officers of the NIA, of the rank of Inspector or above, to investigate cases of terrorism in addition to those conducted by the DSP or ACP or above rank officer in the state. Recent Amendment:- So far the Act has been amended six times and the last one being 2019. The most recent amendment of the law, the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019 (UAPA2019). It has made it possible for the Union Government to designate individuals as terrorists without following any formal judicial process. MUST READ: Terrorism & its financing SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty? (2019) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers Absence of restraint Opportunity to do whatever one likes Opportunity to develop oneself fully Mains: Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Environment) Context: Recently announced the European Union’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanisms likely to hurt India’s economic interests. About Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM): A carbon border adjustment tax is a duty on imports based on the amount of carbon emissions resulting from the production of the product in question. For example tax on production of cement or fertilizers. In 2021, the European Union (EU) proposed the CBAM, which would tax very carbon-intensive items such as cement and steel beginning in 2026. CBAM is part of the “Fit for 55 in 2030 package”, the EU’s plan to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by at least 55% by 2030 compared to 1990 levels. Advantages of implementing CBAM: Promotes decarbonisation globally: The CBAM provides an incentive for countries to reduce their carbon emissions. If a country wants to export steel to the EU, the policy imposes an extra cost if the steel is produced using carbon-intensive processes. This encourages manufacturers to adopt cleaner, less carbon-intensive methods of production. Prevents carbon leakage: CBAM prevents “carbon leakage”, the phenomenon where companies transfer their operations to countries with less stringent emissions regulations. For example, if a cement manufacturer moves from the EU to a country with fewer regulations, it might increase emissions. The CBAM discourages this by imposing a border tax on carbon-intensive imported goods. Level playing field for businesses: The CBAM helps create a level playing field between domestic businesses in the EU and foreign companies. CBAM ensures foreign producers are subject to a carbon cost, ensuring fairness. Revenue generation for climate initiatives: CBAM will generate revenue through border taxes on carbon-intensive goods. This can be used to fund climate initiatives or capacity-building measures in developing countries or Least Developed Countries (LDCs) if the EU decides to allocate it in this manner. Stimulates innovation in clean technologies: CBAM can stimulate innovation in clean technologies. Faced with a potential CBAM charge, industries may be motivated to invest in new technologies to reduce their carbon emissions. Encourages other countries to adopt carbon pricing: CBAM may encourage other countries to implement their own carbon pricing mechanisms. The aim is to avoid CBAM charges, as goods from countries with equivalent carbon pricing mechanisms are exempt. This could potentially lead to the broad adoption of carbon pricing, further facilitating global decarbonisation. Challenges associated with the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM): Complexity: The CBAM is a complex policy proposal that involves assessing the carbon content of imported goods, issuing certificates, and ensuring compliance with reporting and payment requirements. Complexity of calculating carbon content: It could be challenging to calculate the carbon content of certain products, especially if the production process involves multiple stages or takes place in countries with weaker climate policies. Double carbon pricing: There is a risk of double carbon pricing, where companies would be subject to carbon pricing both in the EU and in their home country. This could lead to increased costs for businesses and could undermine the effectiveness of the CBAM. Trade disputes: The CBAM is likely to face opposition from non-EU countries, who may view the policy as a form of protectionism. Concerns before India: Acting as a trade barrier: With the EU’s CBAM in effect soon, India’s exports of carbon-laden products to Europe—mainly aluminium and iron-and-steel—have been burdened with green reporting rules which is a trade barrier in itself. This action by the EU is likely to hurt our economic interests, which explains why the government might protest it as an unfair tariff at the World Trade Organization (WTO). Goal of 5 trillion economy: A prerequisite for India to become a 5 trillion economy is to expand its exports and the EU is India’s third largest trading partner. EU accounted for €88 billion in goods trade in 2021, or 10.8% of total Indian trade. Uncompetitive exports: India’s products have a higher carbon intensity than its European counterparts, the carbon tariffs imposed will be proportionally higher making Indian exports substantially uncompetitive. May push for similar regulations worldwide: International climate policies (including CBAM) will compel other countries to impose similar regulation eventually translating to ‘a significant impact’ on India’s trading relationships and balance of payments. Way Forward: Suggestive measures Minimising Impact: Indian exporters must factor in CBT into their costing and prepare to minimise its impact as it will affect lakhs of small and big firms. Focusing on greener production options: The rate of CBT depends on how much carbon has been emitted during production to make the export product. So, there is a need to explore greener production options for the production of the concerned commodities. Using power generated from renewable energy: This will immediately lower the carbon load, fossil fuels like coal, oil, or natural gas cause 75 per cent of global carbon dioxide emissions. Wind, solar and green hydrogen are current options but switching to new technology is expensive and may only be feasible in some cases. Sharing emission data: Indian exporters of steel, aluminium, cement, fertiliser, hydrogen, and electricity will need to share precise emission data with the counterpart EU importers, who will share the data with the CBT authorities. Scientifically capturing this data will need the help of energy auditors. Source:  THB Law Commission on e-FIR Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The Law Commission has recently recommended allowing the filing of online first information reports (e-FIRs) for cognisable offences to overcome difficulties in filing FIRs and improve police to public ratio. About e-FIR: An e-FIR is the electronic version of a First Information Report. For filing an e-FIR, the complainant does not have to visit the police station instead they can register their complaint through a mobile app or the police’s online network. This initiative is being implemented partially in Delhi, Gujarat, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, and Uttarakhand. It only works in a non-heinous case (theft, reporting lost items and vehicle thefts). Advantages of e-FIRs: Increased Accessibility: In areas with security or infrastructural issues, e-FIRs offer a convenient alternative rather than visiting a police station. Overcoming Reluctance: e-FIRs can mitigate the reluctance of policemen in cases of petty offences. Addressing Police-to-Public Ratio: It would overcome the difficulties resulting from low police to public ratio. Reporting crimes in real time: e-FIR would tackle the long persisting issue of delay in registration of FIRs by reporting crime in real time. Criticisms of e-FIRs: Potential for Exaggeration: There’s a risk of complainants exaggerating claims, which can lead to legal complexities and discomfort for the accused. Thus, it requires checks and balances. Lack of Immediate Investigation: E-FIRs might not be suitable for cases requiring immediate investigation, such as fatal accidents or grievous hurt incidents. Infrastructure Constraints: Not all police stations have the necessary infrastructure to handle e-FIRs efficiently. There are 17,535 police stations in total, of which 628 are operating without a landline, while 285 run without wireless/mobile connection. The total number of computers in 17,535 police stations is 172,168. Recommendations by the Law Commission: To enable the online submission of FIRs for two specific situations: All cognizable offenses, even when the accused is unknown. Cognizable offenses with a maximum punishment of three years, even when the accused is known. It has been partially implemented in some states but the commission has recommended expanding the facility. States are granted additional powers to expand the list of eligible offenses for e-FIR based on the effectiveness of the system. Suggested amendments span various legislations, including the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, Indian Evidence Act, 1872, Information Technology Act, 2000, Indian Penal Code, 1860, and other relevant laws. It referred to the Supreme Court’s landmark verdict in Lalita Kumari v. State of Uttar Pradesh, in which the court held that preliminary enquiry should be conducted in cases pertaining to matrimonial disputes, commercial offences, medical negligence and corruption, among others. Source:  IE Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Dam River 1.Kallanai Dam Kaveri 2.Indira Sagar Dam Tapi 3.Sardar Sarovar Dam Narmada How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The m-RNA is usually involved in the transcription process. Statement-II: Uracil is replaced by thymine in DNA. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Badis Limaakumi, consider the following statements: These fish are ONLY found in freshwater bodies across northeastern India. It has been named after Limaakum, the tribal deity of Nagaland. This fish can change its colour like a chameleon. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Analyse how the European Union’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is likely to hurt India’s economic interests with relevant examples. (250 words) Q.2) what do you mean by e-FIRs? What are the benefits and challenges associated with e-FIRs? Discuss recent law commission recommendations on e-FIRs. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  3rd October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 2nd October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 4th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test  Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 3rd October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Matangini Hazra Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES Context: Matangini Hazra was remembered on the 81st anniversary of her martyrdom. About Matangini Hazra:- Birth: 1869. Birth place Tamluk, West Bengal. Death:1942. Matangini Hazra was 73 when she fell to British bullets, leading a protest march in 1942 in Tamluk, Bengal. Her death made her a martyr for many, inciting revolutionaries to establish their own parallel government in Medinipur, which functioned till 1944. Early Life:- She was married at a young age and became widowed at 18. After her husband’s death, she dedicated herself to social causes. Ideology:- She supported Mahatma Gandhi’s ideals.  (Mahatma Gandhi) People fondly called her Gandhi Buri (Old Lady Gandhi) for her dedication to Gandhian principles. (India and Mahatma Gandhi) Political Participation:– She became an active member of the Indian National Congress and took to spinning her own Khadi. She participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement, the Salt March, and the Quit India Movement. 1933: When Sir John Anderson, Governor of Bengal visited Tamluk to address a public gathering, Matangini craftily managed to avoid the security and reached the dais where she waved a black flag. She was awarded six months of rigorous imprisonment for her bravado. 1942: During the Quit India Movement in 1942, at the age of 73, she led a large procession of around 6,000 protesters, advocating for the takeover of the Tamluk police station. In the ensuing clash with British authorities, she was shot and killed, becoming a martyr for the cause of Indian independence. MUST READ: India’s Women Unsung Heroes of Freedom Struggle SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal, designated as the Governor General of India? (2023) The Regulating Act The Pitt’s India Act The Charter Act of 1793 The Charter Act of 1833 Q.2) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only UN Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: India expressed commitment towards combating organized crimes at the UN Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) recently. About the UN Convention against Transnational Organized Crime( UNTOC):- Adopted by the UN General Assembly: 15 November 2000. Entry into force: 29 September 2003. Signatories: 147. Parties: 191 (as of 20 February 2023) The United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime, is the main international instrument in the fight against transnational organized crime. It is also known as the Palermo Convention. Objective: combatting transnational organized crime, fostering international cooperation, and strengthening legal frameworks. UNTOC enables cooperation between member states for tackling international organized crime. All member parties to the convention must take measures including: Creating domestic criminal offenses. Adopting frameworks for extradition, mutual legal assistance, and law enforcement cooperation. Promoting training and technical assistance for upgrading or building the adequate capacity of national authorities. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is the custodian of the UNTOC. Three protocols of UNTOC:- The UNTOC is supplemented by three Protocols, namely:- Protocol to Prevent, Suppress, and Punish Trafficking in Persons, Especially Women and Children Adopted in 2003, it is the first global legally binding instrument with an agreed definition of trafficking in persons. Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air Adopted in 2004, this protocol deals with the problem of organized criminal groups who smuggle migrants, often at high risk to the migrants and at great profit for the offenders. Protocol against the Illicit Manufacturing of and Trafficking in Firearms, their Parts and Components and Ammunition Adopted in 2001, its objective is to promote, facilitate, and strengthen cooperation among States in order to prevent, combat, and eradicate the illicit manufacturing of and trafficking in firearms, their parts and components, and ammunition. India and UNTOC:- India ratified the UNTOC in 2011 becoming the fourth South Asian country to do so. The nodal agency for all dealings with UNTOC is the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). About UNODC:- Establishment: HQ: Vienna, Austria. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) contributes to global peace and security, sustainable development, and human rights by helping to make the world safer from drugs, crime, corruption, and terrorism. It provides technical assistance, research, and normative support to Member States to help them develop and implement comprehensive, evidence-based solutions to the complex and interconnected threats that they face at the national, regional, and global levels. In today’s challenging times, our work is needed more than ever. Functions:- Tackling the world drug problem Preventing corruption Countering terrorism Counter-Terrorism Strategy Combating organized crime Preventing crime and promoting Funding:- UNODC relies on voluntary contributions, mainly from governments, to carry out the majority of our work. MUST READ: World Drug Report and UNODC SOURCE: BUISNESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Pygmy hogs Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: 18 rare pygmy hogs were reintroduced in their historical home in Assam recently. Background:- Eighteen captive-bred pygmy hogs, the smallest and rarest pigs on earth, were released in western Assam’s Manas National Park and Tiger Reserve on Saturday, September 30. It was the fourth such exercise undertaken under the Pygmy Hog Conservation Programme (PHCP) annually since 2020, helping up the total number of this critically endangered species released at the park to 54. The PHCP target is to reintroduce 60 pygmy hogs in Manas, its historical habitat, by 2025. Backed by the United Kingdom-based Durrell Wildlife Conservation Trust, the PHCP was started near Guwahati in 1996 with two males and two females captured from the Bansbari Range of Manas National Park. The reintroduction of captive-bred hogs to the wild began in 2008. The PHCP has so far successfully bred and reintroduced 170 pygmy hogs that belong to a unique genus without any close relatives. About Pygmy hogs:- Scientific Name: Porcula salvinia. Habitat: Pygmy Hogs prefer undisturbed patches of grassland. Distribution: The species was historically known from only a few locations in northern West Bengal and northwestern Assam in India. Pygmy Hogs measure about 65 cm in length. The pygmy hog is the smallest and rarest wild pig in the world. Females are a little smaller. Pygmy Hogs differ from members of the genus Sus in the extreme reduction in body, ears, and tail size, and relatively short medial false hooves. Their snout disc is perpendicular to the axis of the head. It is one of the very few mammals that build its own home, or nest, complete with a ‘roof’. It is also an indicator species. Indicator species: Its presence reflects the health of its primary habitat, the tall, wet grasslands of the region. Threats: loss and degradation, and illegal hunting. Conservation Status:- IUCN: Critically Endangered. Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I. (Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI)) CITES: Appendix I MUST READ: Kaziranga National Park SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following fauna: (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? (2020) Corbett Ranthambore Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Sunderbans Intelligent Grievance Monitoring System (IGMS) 2.0 Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The Intelligent Grievance Monitoring System (IGMS) 2.0 was launched recently. About Intelligent Grievance Monitoring System (IGMS) 2.0:- Developed by IIT Kanpur. Ministry: Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions. Objectives: Provide instant tabular analysis of Grievances Filed and disposed of. Offer State-wise and district-wise Grievances Filed data. Offer Ministry-wise data. Enhance grievance redressal process with AI capabilities. IGMS 2.0, is an Intelligent Grievance Monitoring System. (Grievance Appellate Committee (GAC) portal) It is for upgrading DARPG Information Systems (CPGRAMS) with Artificial Intelligence capabilities. CPGRAMS, or Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System, serves as an online platform for citizens to lodge grievances with government authorities 24/7, streamlining the process for efficient service delivery. The Dashboard provides instant tabular analysis of Grievances Filed and disposed of, State-wise and district-wise Grievances Filed, and ministry-wise data. It also helps the officials identify the root cause of the grievance. This portal falls under the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG). It offers real-time analysis of grievances filed and resolved, categorizing data by state, district, and ministry. The system leverages artificial intelligence (AI) to identify the root causes of grievances and facilitates drafting letters for scheme or ministry selection, expediting grievance resolution. MUST READ: Grievance Appellate Committees (GACs) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Naganathaswamy Temple Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: The Tamil Nadu Department of Archaeology is embarking on a restoration project for the ancient Naganathaswamy Temple. Background:- The Tamil Nadu Department of Archaeology is set to take up restoration of the 1,000-year-old Naganathaswamy Temple at Manambadi in Thanjavur district in what would be a revival of the Chola-era temple that was dismantled in a botched renovation exercise some years ago. About Naganathaswamy Temple:- Location: Manambadi, Thanjavur district, Tamil Nadu. Constructed by: Rajendra Chola I It was constructed between 1012 and 1044 CE. It is renowned for its remarkable stone sculptures and historical inscriptions. (Hoysala Temples) The temple features an ekatala vimana and a mukha mandapa, both divided into three bays, adorned with sculptures of deities and intricate makara thanas (ceremonial arches). The walls of both structures are divided into three bays. The central bays of the vimana have niches to accommodate Dakshinamurthi in the south, Lingodhbava in the west, and Brahma in the north. The sculptures of Bikshatana, Adavallan, and Ganapathi decorate the south, whereas Gangadarara, Durga, and Ammaiappar are in the north. All the niches have well-carved and distinctive makara thoranas (ceremonial arches) with relief sculptures in the centre. The temple is known for its important inscriptions belonging to the periods of Rajendra Chola I and Kulothunga I (regnal years 1070-1120 CE). Nine interesting and informative inscriptions have been recorded from this temple. The earliest among them belongs to the fourth regnal year of Rajendra Chola I. Beyond its cultural significance, the temple plays a vital role in the local economy. It is a hub for trade and commerce. It was declared as an ancient monument in September 2022. The Arulmigu Naganathaswamy temple at Manambadi village, Tiruvidai Maruthur taluk, has been declared a protected monument under the Tamil Nadu Ancient and Historical Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1966. MUST READ: Shore temple SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q2. With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Bojjannakonda Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, Andhra Pradesh’s Bojjannakonda got a major facelift to draw more tourists. About Bojjannakonda:- Location: Andhra Pradesh. Bojjannakonda is a historic Buddhist site in Andhra Pradesh near Visakhapatnam. It is renowned for its votive stupas, caves, brick structures, early historic pottery, and Satavahana coins. It Dates back to the 3rd century BC. Buddhist monks used to practice on the hill about 2,000 years ago. It was originally known as ‘Buddhuni konda’ (hill of the Buddha), but it came to be known as ‘Bojjannakonda’ in the course of time. Visakhapatnam hosts other Buddhist sites like Thotlakonda, Appikonda, and Bavikonda. Bojjannakonda and Lingalametta are ancient Buddhist monasteries from the 3rd century BC. These are ancient Buddhist monasteries. They feature various rock-carved stupas, Buddha sculptures, and rock-cut monolithic stupas. These sites reflect the evolution of Buddhism through its three phases: Theravada, Mahayana, and Vajrayana. Theravada: Lord Buddha was considered a teacher. Mahayana: Buddhism was more devotional. Vajrayana: Buddhist tradition was more practiced as Tantra and in esoteric form. (Neo-Buddhism) The main stupa at Bojjannakonda is a rock-carved structure covered with bricks and adorned with Buddha sculptures. To the west of Bojjannakonda, another hillock, Lingalakonda or Lingalametta, is present. It boasts rows of rock-cut monolithic stupas. The Buddhist temple at Barabodur in Java has been constructed on the lines of the structures on Lingalametta, according to Buddhist monks. It is also known as ‘Sankaram’, perhaps, a corruption of the Buddhist ‘Sangraha’. MUST READ: The Buddhist Circuit SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora River. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal river. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari river. Q2) With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements: (2020) Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana Buddhism The Lokottaravadin sect was an offshoot of the Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism The deification of Buddha by Mahasanghikas fostered Mahayana Buddhism Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: The concerns of using Aadhaar in welfare schemes Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, credit rating agency Moody’s Investor Service released a report, ‘Decentralised Finance and Digital Assets,’ which advocates for decentralized digital identity systems instead of centralized biometric systems like India’s Aadhaar. Referring to “security and privacy vulnerabilities posed by centralized ID systems like Aadhaar”, the report states “the Aadhaar system faces hurdles, including the burden of establishing authorization and concerns about biometric reliability.” The government stated that it is evident that the authors of the report are unaware that the seeding of Aadhaar in the MGNREGS database has been done without requiring the worker to authenticate. About Aadhaar: The Aadhaar card is a 12-digit unique number issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI). It contains biometric information, such as fingerprints and iris scans, along with demographic information, including individuals’ addresses and date of birth. It serves as proof of identity and is valid anywhere in India for any identification purposes. Having an Aadhaar card is compulsory while applying for a new PAN card or filing Income tax returns. Advantages of using Aadhaar: Transparency in identification of beneficiaries for welfare schemes: Aadhaar has helped to remove fake and duplicate identities of beneficiaries. It has been used to filter the list of beneficiaries and stop the leakage of public money. Targeted delivery of welfare measures: JAM trinity (Jan Dhan Yojana, Aadhaar and Mobile numbers) has been employed for targeted delivery of subsidies. Use of Aadhaar Card for distributing social welfare schemes has led to better targeting of poor which were suffering by leakages. Aadhaar has helped in mapping development parameters: In critical sectors of the country like healthcare and education, Aadhaar has been used to map the development processes and parameters. It has also been used to map skilled manpower, based on the vocational training acquired by the individual with the suitable job vacancies/ skill requirements. Quick and easy Income tax returns: Use of Aadhaar in income tax filing has reduced the number of documents needed for filing income tax. It has made the process more efficient and cost-effective. Phase out of corruption: The use of Aadhaar in financial transactions has reduced the menace of black money in the country thereby reducing the corruption. Concerns associated with Aadhaar: Quantity fraud: In the distribution of rations, the prevalent type of corruption is quantity fraud, where beneficiaries receive less than their entitled share. Aadhaar does not address this issue effectively. Authentication failures: Many individuals in rural areas face authentication failures due to unreliable internet connections, fading fingerprints, or lack of phone connectivity for OTP verification. The extent of these failures remains undisclosed. A report by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) from 2022 states “UIDAI did not have a system to analyze the factors leading to authentication errors.” Privacy at risks: UIDAI has not ensured that the applications or devices used by agencies or companies for authentication “were not capable of storing the personal information of the residents, which put the privacy of residents at risk”. Authentication Errors: Discrepancies between job card information and UID data can lead to authentication errors, causing wage payment delays and complications. Misdirected Payments: Aadhaar payments can be misdirected when an individual’s Aadhaar number gets linked to another person’s bank account, making it challenging to detect and resolve such issues. Aadhaar payments people got redirected to Airtel wallets causing much havoc. Misdirected payments through Aadhaar are difficult to detect and are nearly impossible to resolve. Last-mile delivery in rural areas faces issues of lesser Bank penetration: The last-mile delivery is a significant challenge with the problem of lesser banking infrastructure in rural areas and the failure of the banking correspondent model to take off. Questionable savings claims: Claims of substantial savings through Aadhaar implementation in MGNREGA have been challenged by researchers, citing insufficient funds as the primary reason for wage payment delays. Supreme Court opinion: The government must abide by and enforce Supreme Court directions, including; Restriction of mandatory Aadhaar to permissible purposes, Provision of an alternative whenever Aadhaar authentication fails Unconditional exemption for children. Way Forward: Although the Aadhaars system has undoubtedly brought transparency and efficiency to welfare programs, it is crucial to address the challenges and concerns raised by its implementation. Balancing security, accessibility, and reliability is essential to ensure that Aadhaar continues to benefit those it was intended to serve. Addressing these concerns will help optimize the effectiveness of Aadhaar in government welfare schemes while safeguarding the rights and privacy of citizens. Source:  TH India’s Creative Economic Industries: Opportunities and Challenges Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: The creative industries encompass a diverse range of economic activities rooted in original ideas and artistic expression. About Creative Economy: It is an evolving concept which is building on the interplay between human creativity and ideas and intellectual property, knowledge and technology. The creative industries are a group of economic activities that are based on original ideas. They include businesses that are centred around creativity. These industries include design, music, publishing, architecture, film, crafts, visual arts, fashion, literature, computer games, and more. The Nataraja, a statue of Hindu lord Shiva as the cosmic dancer, installed next to ‘Bharat Mandapam’, at the venue of the G20 Summit is a prime examples of creative economy. Benefits of Creative Economic Industries: Employment generation: Creative industries provide employment opportunities for a significant portion of the population, especially talented individuals. According to Asian Development Bank report 2023, these industries contribute nearly 8% of India’s total employment. Spillover Effects on the Wider Economy: Creative industries drive innovation, fostering creativity, experimentation, and collaboration across various sectors and disciplines. These industries positively impact sectors like tourism, education, and urban development. Tourism Boost: Creative industries attract tourists who engage in cultural experiences, contributing significantly to India’s tourism industry. Education and skills development: Creative industries play a pivotal role in providing learning opportunities, enhancing cultural awareness, and nurturing talent. Urban economic growth: Creative industries revitalize urban areas by creating vibrant cultural hubs, theatre’s, galleries, and entertainment districts. Promotion of India’s Heritage and Resources: Creative industries showcase India’s rich culture, history, and traditions, leveraging abundant natural and human resources. Global branding and soft power: Exporting creative goods and services enhances India’s brand value and soft power, strengthening diplomatic and cultural ties. Challenges associated with creative economy: Common issues: Indian artists and artisans face challenges that are related to economic sustainability, market access, and the preservation of traditional art forms in a rapidly changing society. Need of support and finances: Government support, cultural institutions, and initiatives provide financial assistance, training programmes, and opportunities for artists to exhibit their work. However, more efforts are needed to promote contemporary artists as brands and ensure equal representation and financial assistance. Limited reach of sponsored platforms: There are challenges in the selection of artists for financial assistance in organising cultural events. Lack of transparency in the selection process creates inequality in representation. So, talented artists, particularly those based outside the city, are unable to gain from sponsored platforms. Lack of promoting platforms: Unlike in other countries, there are no serious efforts by private or public institutions to promote contemporary artists as brands. Crime in the art sector: Crime in the art world includes art theft, copyright infringement, forgery, fraud, and illicit trafficking. There is no institutional infrastructure, expertise and technology to verify the original artwork. Govt Initiatives aimed at promoting creative industries: National Film Development Corporation (NFDC): NFDC is a government enterprise under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. It focuses on planning, promoting, and efficiently developing the Indian film industry. National Institute of Design (NID): NID operates autonomously under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It provides education, research, consultancy, and outreach services across various design domains. Scheme for Promotion of Culture of Science (SPoCS): SPoCS, under the Ministry of Culture, encourages a culture of science, technology, and innovation. It achieves this through science festivals, exhibitions, competitions, workshops, and camps, primarily targeting the youth. Scheme for Promotion of Indian Classical Music and Dance (SPIC MACAY): SPIC MACAY is a voluntary movement that arranges programs covering classical music, dance, folk arts, crafts, yoga, meditation, and cinema. India’s Culture Working Group (CWG) is to increase and support the growth of cultural and creative industries and the creative economy It is aimed at promoting job creation, innovation, inclusiveness, and improving the status of cultural practitioners. Way Forward: India’s creative economy holds immense potential for job creation, economic growth, and cultural promotion. However, addressing the challenges faced by creative industries and implementing strategic initiatives are essential to fully unlock this potential and establish India as a global creative powerhouse. Source:    HT Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: IMPORTANT EVENTS YEAR 1.Poona pact 1930 2.Gandhi-Irwin Pact 1922 3.Mountbatten plan 1945 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime is also known as the Palermo Convention. Statement-II: India ratified the UNTOC in 2011. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Naganathaswamy Temple, consider the following statements: The temple is known for its important inscriptions belonging to the periods of Rajendra Chola I and Kulothunga I The temple features an ekatala vimana. It was constructed by Rajendra Chola II. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only and 3 only 3 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What are the concerns and challenges associated with the utilization of Aadhaar in welfare programs, and what steps should be taken to address them while safeguarding citizens’ rights and privacy? (250 Words) Q.2) Analyse the significance of the creative/arts sector in India’s economy. What are the challenges faced by Indian artists and artisans? Suggest ways to address those challenges. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  3rd October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 2nd October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 3rd October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test  Click Here