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Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita and Bharatiya Sakshya Bill 2023
Syllabus
Prelims –POLITY/ GOVERNANCE
Context: Recently, President Droupadi Murmu has given her assent to Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita and Bharatiya Sakshya Bill 2023.
Background:-
These three new criminal justice bills were passed by the Parliament.
About Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita and Bharatiya Sakshya Bill 2023:-
Key Provisions of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, Bill 2023:-
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which is the principal law on criminal offences in the country.
The new act adds community service as a form of punishment. (Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC))
For the first time terrorism has been defined in the criminal justice system.
Sedition: Under the IPC, section 124-A deals with the offence of sedition and prescribes a sentence of life imprisonment or imprisonment which may extend to three years, to which a fine may be added. In the BNS Bill, provision 150 under the chapter pertaining to ‘offences against the State’ talks about acts endangering the sovereignty unity and integrity of India.
The offence of defamation now carries a simple imprisonment of up to two years, or with a fine, or with both or with community service.
For the first time capital punishment has been introduced for the offence of mob lynching apart from the offence being made punishable with 7 years of imprisonment or life imprisonment.
Sexual exploitation of women on the pretext of marriage, job, promotions or by concealing identity will be considered a crime.
Adultery: The new Bill omits the provision for the offence of
Homosexuality: The new Bill does not include any punishment for ‘unnatural sexual offences against men’.
Key Provisions of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha (Second) Sanhita, 2023:-
The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha (Second) Sanhita, 2023 has replaced the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 (CrPC).
The CrPC provides for the procedure for arrest, prosecution, and bail.
Trials, appeal proceedings, and recording of depositions including those of public servants and police officers, may be held in electronic mode.
The statement of the accused too can be recorded through video-conferencing.
Summons, warrants, documents, police reports, and statements of evidence can be done in electronic form.
The Bill adds electronic communication including “communication devices”.
On the directions of a court or police officer, a person is required to produce any document/ device that is likely to contain digital evidence for the purpose of an inquiry.
A police officer may be permitted to use handcuffs while arresting a person if he is a repeat offender who escaped from custody, or has committed an organized crime, terrorist act, offences against the state, etc.
There is a provision on procedures for the timeframe to file mercy petitions in death sentence cases.
A decision to grant or reject sanction to prosecute a public servant must be reached by the government within 120 days of receiving a request. If the government fails to do so, the sanction will be deemed to have been accorded.
No sanction is required in cases including sexual offences, trafficking, etc.
There are provisions for police to detain or remove any person resisting, refusing or ignoring, or disregarding directions given as part of preventive action.
Key Provisions of Bharatiya Sakshya (Second) Bill, 2023:-
The Bharatiya Sakshya (Second) Bill, 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
The Act governs the admissibility of evidence in Indian Courts.
It applies to all civil and criminal proceedings.
It retains most provisions of the IEA including those on confessions, relevancy of facts, and burden of proof.
The IEA provides for two kinds of evidence – documentary and oral.
Documentary evidence includes primary (original documents) and secondary (that proves the contents of the original).
It retains the distinction.
It classifies electronic records as documents.
Under the IEA, electronic records are categorized as secondary evidence.
It classifies electronic records as primary evidence.
It expands such records to include information stored in semiconductor memory or any communication devices (smartphones, laptops).
It expands secondary evidence to include: (i) oral and written admissions, and (ii) the testimony of a person who has examined the document and is skilled in the examination of documents.
MUST READ: Rape and sexual crimes law in India
SOURCE: AIR
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022)
When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to a such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022)
Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail.
During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Minimum Support Price (MSP)
Syllabus
Prelims – ECONOMY
Context: Recently, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs( CCEA) has approved the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Copra for the 2024 season.
Background:-
Briefing media in New Delhi yesterday, Information and Broadcasting Minister Anurag Singh Thakur said, the MSP for the coming season is an increase of 300 rupees per quintal for milling copra and 250 rupees per quintal for ball copra over the previous season.
About Minimum Support Price (MSP):-
IMAGE SOURCE: AIR
Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices.
The Cabinet Committee of Economic Affairs announces the MSP at the start of each sowing season, considering the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
CACP is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
The Food Corporation of India (FCI), along with state government agencies (SGAs), procures food grains under MSP.
The Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) recommends MSPs for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative price (FRP) for sugarcane.
The mandated crops include 14 crops of the kharif season, 6 rabi crops and 2 other commercial crops.
The Centre currently fixes MSPs for 23 farm commodities based on the CACP’s recommendations —
7 cereals – paddy, wheat, maize, bajra, jowar, ragi and barley
5 pulses – chana, arhar/tur, urad, moong and masur
7 oilseeds – rapeseed-mustard, groundnut, soyabean, sunflower, sesamum, safflower and nigerseed
4 commercial crops – cotton, sugarcane, copra and raw jute
Significance of MSP:
For Better price for their crops.
For Promotion to grow oilseeds.
For Crop Diversification.
For Differential Remuneration and protection to farmers.
To Mend demand supply imbalance.
To boost pulses and oilseeds production and reduce the country’s dependence on imports.
Issues -with India’s MSP Regime:-
Middlemen-Dependent.
Ineffectively Implemented.
More of a Procurement Price.
Makes Agriculture Wheat and Paddy Dominated.
MUST READ: Minimum Support Prices (MSP) for copra season 2023
SOURCE: AIR
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
Q.1) With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider the following statements: (2020)
At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not administered by the Government.
Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas.
Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1only
2 and 3 only
2 only
1, 2 and 3
Q.2) The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the (2015)
Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture.
Agricultural Produce Market Committee
Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR)
Syllabus
Prelims –GEOGRAPHY
Context: Recently, six armed poachers, timber mafia were held by forest officials at Similipal National Park.
Background:-
In a significant breakthrough, forest officials at Similipal National Park apprehended four armed poachers and two members of the timber mafia in separate locations.
About Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR):-
IMAGE SOURCE: Wikimapia
Location: Mayurbhanj district of Odisha.
Nomenclature: Similipal derives its name from the abundance of ‘Simul’ (red silk cotton trees) that bloom here.
It is part of the Similipal-Kuldiha-Hadgarh Elephant Reserve popularly known as Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve.
It is a national park and a Tiger Reserve. (Similipal National Park)
1956: It was formally designated a tiger reserve.
1973: It was brought under Project Tiger. (Importance of Tiger Conservation)
Government of India declared it as a biosphere reserve.
2009: It is a part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves.
At least twelve rivers cut across the plain area, all of which drain into the Bay of Bengal.
These include: Burhabalanga, Palpala Bandan, Salandi, Kahairi and Deo.
Prominent tribes: Kolha, Santhala, Bhumija, Bhatudi, Gondas, Khadia, Mankadia and Sahara.
Vegetation: it is a mix of deciduous with some semi-evergreen forests.
Sal is the dominant tree species
Fauna: it is famous for gaurs (Indian bison), causing as well as an orchidarium.
MUST READ: Mudumalai Tiger Reserve
SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023)
In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023)
Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’
the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
hunting is not allowed in such area
people in such areas are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
people of such areas are allowed traditional agricultural practices
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Only two
Only three
All four
INDIAN OCEAN NAVAL SYMPOSIUM (IONS) – 2023
Syllabus
Prelims –DEFENSE
Context: The 8th edition of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) Conclave of Chiefs (CoC) was conducted recently.
Background:-
Chiefs of Navies/ Senior Delegates from 27 Members/ Observer countries participated in the event. Admiral R Hari Kumar, Chief of the Naval Staff, attended the event with a three member Indian Naval delegation.
About INDIAN OCEAN NAVAL SYMPOSIUM (IONS) – 2023:-
Date: December 19 to 22, 2023.
Venue: Bangkok, Thailand.
IONS was conceived by the Indian Navy in 2008 .
Objective: to enhance maritime cooperation among Navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region by providing an open and inclusive platform for discussions on regionally relevant maritime issues that would lead to common understanding on the way ahead.
The inaugural edition of IONS was held in Feb 2008 at New Delhi, with Indian Navy as the Chair for two years (2008 – 2010).
During the Conclave, Thailand assumed the role of Chair of IONS, and a comprehensive two-year work plan was finalized.
A noteworthy development was the selection of a flag designed by India as the official IONS flag.
India is also scheduled to take over as the Chair of IONS (2025-27) during 9th CoC planned to be conducted in India in end 2025.
The Republic of Korea Navy was welcomed as the latest observer increasing the collective strength of IONS to 34.
Member groups:-
South Asian Littorals – Bangladesh, India, Maldives, Pakistan, Seychelles, Sri Lanka and United Kingdom (British Indian Ocean Territory).
South East Asian and Australian Littorals – Australia, Indonesia, Malaysia, Myanmar, Singapore, Thailand and Timor-Leste.
East African Littorals – France (Reunion), Kenya, Mauritius, Mozambique, South Africa, and Tanzania.
West Asian Littorals – Iran, Oman, Saudi Arabia and United Arab Emirates.
MUST READ: International Maritime Exercise/ Cutlass Express 2023
SOURCE: PIB
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
Q.1) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017)
Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Q.2) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements : (2018)
IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
None
Project PRAYAS
Syllabus
Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
Context: Recently, UN migration agency launched Project PRAYAS.
Background:-
It was launched to facilitate safe, orderly and regular migration for Indian workers and students.
About Project PRAYAS:-
Launched by: The International Organisation for Migration (IOM) launched Project PRAYAS (Promoting Regular & Assisted Migration for Youth and Skilled Professionals) in partnership with Ministry of External Affairs.
It is a joint collaboration between the IOM India and Indian Council of World Affairs (ICWA).
Objective: to facilitate safe, orderly, and regular migration for Indian workers and students.
It envisages development of a roadmap for improved coordination between Central and State Governments to encourage sharing of best practices between States and enhanced engagement with the MEA on matters related to the international migration cycle.
It will consolidate all the state-level initiatives for safe, orderly, and well-managed international migration.
The project adheres to the objectives of the Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM) and the Migration Governance Framework (MiGOF).
It also aligns with Goal 10.7 of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to facilitate orderly, safe, regular, and responsible migration and mobility of people.
Significance:-
It will strengthen international migration
More than 32 million Indians and people of Indian origin residing abroad.
MUST READ: The International Migration Outlook Report 2022
SOURCE: THE ECONOMICS TIMES
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: (2022)
Database created by a coalition of research organisations
Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”
Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank
Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022)
The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and running them.
The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”.
EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat of the “Under2 Coalition”.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
1,2, 4 and 5
1,3 and 4 only
2,3 and 5 only
1,2, 3, 4 and 5
Asteroid Apophis
Syllabus
Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
Context: Recently, NASA has embarked on a mission to intercept a near-Earth asteroid Apophis.
Background:-
NASA has embarked on a mission to intercept a near-Earth asteroid, nicknamed the “God of Chaos.”
About asteroid Apophis:-
The asteroid Apophis, named after the Egyptian god of chaos.
Asteroid 99942 Apophis is a near-Earth object (NEO) .
It is estimated to be about 1,100 feet (340 meters) across.
When it was discovered in 2004, Apophis was identified as one of the most hazardous asteroids that could impact Earth.
A radar observation campaign in March 2021, combined with precise orbit analysis, allowed astronomers to conclude that there is no risk of Apophis impacting our planet for at least a century.
Its next close pass happening on April 13, 2029.
On that date, Apophis will come within 20,000 miles of our planet – closer than some human-made satellites – making it visible to the naked eye.
To analyze this rare cosmic encounter, NASA has redirected the OSIRIS-REx spacecraft that recently returned from the asteroid Bennu.
Now called OSIRIS-APEX, its mission is to observe Apophis before, during and after its 2029 flyby.
Significance:-
While Apophis poses no threat to Earth, analyzing such near-passes enhances preparedness while shedding light on an asteroid’s response to gravitational stresses.
Even minor alterations could help project Apophis’ future trajectory as it cycles between Earth and sun.
MUST READ: IN-SPACe
SOURCE: MSN
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022)
A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface speed.
Q.2) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022)
GPS and navigation systems could fail.
Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions.
Power grids could be damaged.
Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2, 4 and 5 only
2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Practice MCQs
Daily Practice MCQs
Q1) Consider the following pairs:
ISRO MISSION
YEAR
EOS-04
2005
AstroSat
2015
Mangalyaan
2011
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Only one
Only two
All three
None
Q2) Consider the following statements
Statement-I :
Asteroid Apophis is named after the Egyptian god of chaos.
Statement-II :
It is estimated to be about 1,100 feet (340 meters) across.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Q3) With reference to the Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita Bill 2023, consider the following statements:
It also deals with public nuisance, prevention of offences and maintenance of wife, child and parents.
It allows the statement of the accused to be recorded through video-conferencing.
It allows a police officer to use handcuffs while arresting a person if he is a repeat offender who escaped from custody.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
and 3 only
3 only
Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!
ANSWERS FOR ’ 29th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st
ANSWERS FOR 28th December – Daily Practice MCQs
Answers- Daily Practice MCQs
Q.1) – a
Q.2) – c
Q.3) – a