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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd October 2023c

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Diabetes Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent studies have found out that India has the 2nd-highest number of diabetes diagnostic centres globally. Background:- In 2021, nearly seven million people died globally as a result of diabetes, while $970 billion was the world’s quantified healthcare expenditure that year, according to a new report titled Diabetes Global Industry Overview 2023. Currently, 537 million adults globally are living with diabetes, with three in four of them living in low- and middle-income countries. After the US, the highest numbers of medical centres for diabetes are located in India (58), Canada (51), the UK (42), Japan (29), and Australia (24). About Diabetes:- IMAGE SOURCE: vecteezy.com Diabetes mellitus refers to a group of diseases that affect how the body uses blood sugar (glucose). Glucose is an important source of energy for the cells that make up the muscles and tissues. It is a condition that happens when the blood sugar (glucose) is too high. It develops when your pancreas doesn’t make enough insulin or any at all, or when the body isn’t responding to the effects of insulin properly. Diabetes affects people of all ages. Types of diabetes:- There are several types of diabetes. The most common forms include:- Type 2 diabetes: With this type, the body doesn’t make enough insulin, and/or the body’s cells don’t respond normally to the insulin (insulin resistance). This is the most common type of diabetes. Prediabetes: The blood glucose levels are higher than normal but not high enough to be officially diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. Type 1 diabetes: This type is an autoimmune disease in which your immune system attacks and destroys insulin-producing cells in your pancreas for unknown reasons. Gestational diabetes: This type develops in some people during pregnancy. Symptoms:- feeling very thirsty needing to urinate more often than usual blurred vision feeling tired losing weight unintentionally Management and Treatment:- Blood sugar monitoring. Oral diabetes medications. Insulin injections. Diet management. Exercise. Prevention:- Keeping a healthy body weight. Staying physically active with at least 30 minutes of moderate exercise each day. Eating a healthy diet and avoiding sugar and saturated fat. Avoiding smoke tobacco. Avoiding stress. (Mental Health) Government initiatives:- India’s National non-communicable disease (NCD) Target aims to prevent the rise in obesity and diabetes prevalence. (Disease Surveillance System) National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancers, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS) in 2010, was launched to provide support for diagnosis and cost-effective treatment at various levels of health care. MUST READ: Non communicable and communicable diseases SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. National Turmeric Board Syllabus Prelims –POLITY-GOVERNANCE Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently, announced the setting up of a National Turmeric Board for Telangana. About National Turmeric Board:- Location: Telangana. Set up: 2023. Objective: to harness the potential of our turmeric farmers and give them the support they rightly deserve. The National Turmeric Board will focus on value addition to the supply chain. The board will extend help to all turmeric farmers on all aspects of Turmeric crops. It would serve various purposes, including enhancing value addition in the turmeric supply chain. It will help in addressing infrastructure-related needs for farmers. It will help the Telangana farmers in having a value chain right from production to export and research in addition to infrastructure. It will boost the country’s position as a key player in the global turmeric market. Significance:- These infrastructure and developmental projects will increase employment opportunities. It improves the lives of people. Turmeric:- Turmeric is a flowering plant. (Lakadong Turmeric) It is used as a condiment, dye, drug, and cosmetic in addition to its use in religious ceremonies. Its color comes mainly from curcumin, a bright yellow phenolic compound. It requires temperatures between 20 and 30 °C (68 and 86 °F). Significance of Turmeric for India:- India holds a prominent position as a major producer, consumer, and exporter. Currently, India contributes to approximately 80 percent of the world’s turmeric production, yielding nearly 1.1 million tonnes of spice annually. The top five turmeric-producing states of India in 2020-21 are Telangana, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh. Awareness of the health benefits of turmeric had grown during the COVID-19 pandemic, leading to increased demand for the spice globally. Turmeric exports have been on the rise, with shipments totaling around 1.5 lakh tonnes, particularly since the onset of the pandemic. Health Benefits of Turmeric:- Depression Type 2 Diabetes Viral Infections Premenstrual Syndrome High Cholesterol MUST READ: Soil-less agriculture SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Q.2) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019) PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: The Law Commission in its recent report on the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act suggested the government keep the consent age 18. Background:- Headed by former Karnataka High Court Chief Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi, the Commission, in its Report No. 283 on ‘Age of Consent under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012’ submitted to Union Law Minister Arjun Ram Meghwal, has accordingly called for certain amendments to the Act “to remedy the situation in cases wherein there is tacit approval in fact though not consent in law on part of the child aged between I6 to l8 years”. Stating that “it is not advisable to tinker with” the existing age of consent — 18 years — under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act to exempt adolescent sexual acts from the purview of the criminal law, the Law Commission of India has instead favoured introducing “guided judicial discretion in the matter of sentencing” in cases involving those in the 16-18 age group. It says “This will ensure that the law is balanced, thus safeguarding the best interests of the child”. About the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act:- Enacted: 2012. (National Commission for Protection of Child Rights) Ministry: Ministry of Women and Child Development. Objectives: to address offenses of sexual exploitation and sexual abuse of children, which were either not specifically defined or adequately penalized. Historic Background:- It was enacted as a consequence of India’s ratification of the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child in 1992. The POCSO Act was enacted in 2012 to provide a robust legal framework for the protection of children from offences of sexual assault, sexual harassment, and pornography while safeguarding the interests of children at every stage of the judicial process. In 2019, the Act was amended to strengthen the penalties for specified offenses in order to deter abusers and promote a dignified upbringing. Salient Features:- The Act defines a child as “any person” under the age of 18. ( Mandatory Minimum Sentencing) The Act recognizes that both girls and boys can be victims of sexual abuse. Any person in charge of an institution (excluding children) who fails to report the commission of a sexual offense involving a subordinate faces punishment. A victim may report an offense at any time, even years after the abuse has occurred. The Act forbids the disclosure of the victim’s identity in any form of media unless authorized by the special courts established by the Act. The new rules include the provision of mandatory police verification of staff in schools and care homes, procedures to report sexual abuse material (pornography), and imparting age-appropriate child rights education among others. For a crackdown on child pornography, any person who has received any pornographic material involving a child or any information regarding such pornographic material shall report the contents to the Special Juvenile Police Unit (SJPU) or police, or the cybercrime portal. Under the rules, the State Governments have been asked to formulate a child protection policy based on the principle of zero-tolerance to violence against children, which shall be adopted by all institutions, organizations, or any other agency working with or coming in contact with children. The Central Government and every State Government shall provide periodic training. The Centre and State Governments have been asked to prepare age-appropriate educational material and curriculum for children, informing them about various aspects of personal safety. According to rules, orientation programme and intensive courses may also be organized for police personnel and forensic experts. Any institution housing children or coming in regular contact with children, including schools, crèches, sports academies, or any other facility for children must ensure a police verification and background check on a periodic basis of every staff. Challenges:- Low Representation of Women in the Police Force. Lapses in the Investigation. No Conditions to Prove Recent Intercourse. MUST READ: Sexual intent is key to POCSO Act: SC SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Global Terrorism Index Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: A recent report discussed the effects of India’s improved ranking in the Global Terrorism Index. Background:- India’s Global Terrorism Index (GTI) score of 7.43 and crime index score of 44.7 indicated a decline in terror and crime incidents since 2016 which can be attributed to strengthened security measures. The report by Ficci Cascade highlighted the need to curb illicit trade, which threatens national security and has negative impacts on manufacturing, government revenue, public health, and consumer trust. About Global Terrorism Index:- Published by: Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP). Publication timing: annually. The Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP), a global think tank. HQ: Sydney, Australia. The index is based primarily on the Global Terrorism Database (GTD) collated by the National Consortium for the Study of Terrorism and Responses to Terrorism (START) at the University of Maryland, besides other sources. The index provides a comprehensive summary of the key global trends and patterns in terrorism since 2000. GTI scores are directly used in the Global Peace Index, the Global Slavery Report. It is also indirectly used in reports of the World Economic Forum’s Travel and Tourism Competitiveness and Global Competitiveness Indices and compilation of the Safe Cities Index by the Economist Intelligence Unit. Key Highlights of the report:- Attacks have become more deadly with the lethality rising by 26%. Islamic State (IS) and its affiliates remained the world’s deadliest terrorist group in 2022 for the eighth consecutive year, with attacks in 21 countries. Ideological terrorism continues to be the most prominent and deadliest form of terrorism in the West. The Sahel is the most impacted region, representing 43% of global terrorism deaths. Pakistan recorded the second-largest surge in terror-related deaths worldwide in 2022, with the toll increasing significantly to 643. South Asia remains the region with the worst average GTI score. India ranks 13th on The Global Terrorism Index (GTI). MUST READ: Terrorism & and its financing SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Gandhi Jayanti Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Gandhi Jayanti will be celebrated on 2nd October 2023. Background: This year (2023) will be the 154th birth anniversary. About Gandhi Jayanti :- October 2 is observed as Gandhi Jayanti to commemorate the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi. He is also known as the ‘Father of the Nation’. He was born on October 2, 1869. He was born in Porbandar, Gujarat. As a mark of respect to the leader, the day is observed as a national holiday. It is celebrated with various events with prayer services and cultural events in educational institutions, and even government institutions. On the day, political leaders pay homage to Raj Ghat, the samadhi of Mahatma Gandhi in New Delhi. His favorite songs, ‘Raghupati Raghava’ and ‘Vaishnav Jan To Tene Kahiye’, are also sung on the occasion in various events as a tribute to the leader. In his honour, the United Nations declared this day as the ‘International Day of Non-Violence’ on June 15, 2007. Gandhi implemented the nonviolent Civil Disobedience Movement against the African officials. Important events in Mahatama Gandhi’s life:- Gandhi completed his graduation from London and went to South Africa to practice law where he saw miserable treatment being meted out to many Indian peasants in South Africa. 1915-1918: As he returned to India in 1915 and saw the state of affairs under the British Government with Indian peasants imposed with excessive taxes, he began protesting it. 1921: Gandhi became the leader of the Indian National Congress. 1922: Soon, he led multiple campaigns for attaining ‘Swaraj’ or self-rule for Indian workers through non-violence or Ahimsa. 1930: He led the 400-km long Dandi Salt March to put an end to the salt tax. 1942: Later, with the Quit India Movement against British rule in 1942, and persistent efforts led to India becoming a sovereign nation with Lord Mountbatten’s declaration of Partition. 1948: He was assassinated on January 30, 1948. MUST READ: Gandhi as Political thinker and a Social reformer SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Who among the following is associated with ‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English? (2022) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Jawaharlal Nehru Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi Sarojini Naidu Bhagat Singh Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES Context: Bhagat Singh’s 116th birth anniversary was celebrated in Lahore, Pakistan recently. About Bhagat Singh:- Birth: September 27, 1907. Birth Place: in Lyallpur, Western Punjab (now in Pakistan). Death: 23rd March 1931. (Shaheed Diwas) It is also known as Martyrs’ Day or Sarvodaya Day. It was on this day that Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, and Rajguru were executed by the British government in 1931. Bhagat Singh was a revolutionary hero of the Indian independence movement. He attended Dayanand Anglo Vedic High School, which was operated by Arya Samaj. He quit education at the age of thirteen and got admitted to the National College in Lahore, where he studied European revolutionary movements. He worked as a writer and editor in Amritsar for Punjabi– and Urdu-language newspapers espousing Marxist theories. Nationalist activities:- He is credited with popularizing the catchphrase “Inquilab zindabad” (“Long live the revolution”) Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA): it was founded in 1928 by Chandrashekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh, and others. John Saunders’ assassination: In 1928, Bhagat Singh and Rajguru shot dead a British police officer, John Saunders, in Lahore, mistaking Saunders, for the British senior police superintendent, James Scott. They held Scott responsible for the death of Lala Lajpat Rai in a lathi charge of Simon Commission. 1929: Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw bombs at the Central Legislative Assembly in Delhi ‘to make the deaf hear’. Trial: In the Lahore conspiracy case, Bhagat Singh along with, Rajguru and Sukhdev were sentenced to death. Bhagat Singh was under one-year imprisonment. He was in the Lahore jail when he was hanged in March 1931. Widespread coverage in Indian-owned newspapers about his courage and spirit—turned him into a household name in India and after his execution into a martyr of Indian Freedom Struggle. Philosophy: He was an avid reader of the teachings of Mikhail Bakunin and also read Karl Marx, Vladimir Lenin, and Leon Trotsky. Books: Why I am an Atheist, Letter to My Father, Jail Notebook.  MUST READ: Maulana Abul Kalam Azad SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct? (2022) Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag here. Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of the Andhra region from here. Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here. Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up the headquarters of the Theosophical Society first here. Q.2) The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a: (2014) revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco nationalist organization operating from Singapore militant organization with headquarters at Berlin communist movement for India’s freedom with headquarters at Tashkent Mains: Regulating Generative Artificial Intelligence Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) and GS 4 (Ethics) Context: The Governments across the world are grappling with the regulation of Artificial Intelligence. In less than a year, chatbots like ChatGPT, Bard, Claude, and Pi have shown what gen AI-powered applications can do. These tools have also revealed their vulnerabilities, which has pushed policymakers and scientists to think deeply about these new systems. About Generative Artificial Intelligence: Generative AI is a type of AI system that can create new content or data that resembles human-made content, such as text, images, music, code, etc. It works by using neural networks to learn from large amounts of data and then generate outputs based on the patterns and rules it has learned. Various significant reasons to regulate AI: Lack of transparency: Many AI algorithms operate as black boxes, making it difficult to understand how they reach their decisions. This lack of transparency raises concerns about accountability and the potential for unfair or biased outcomes. Discrimination and bias outcomes: AI systems can inherit biases from the data they are trained on, leading to discriminatory outcomes. For example, facial recognition algorithms have been shown to have higher error rates for women and people with darker skin tones. Privacy and data protection: AI systems often rely on vast amounts of personal data, raising concerns about privacy and data protection. Improper handling of data can result in unauthorized access, misuse, or breaches of sensitive information. Security risks: AI systems can be vulnerable to cybersecurity threats and attacks. Adversarial attacks can manipulate AI models to produce incorrect or malicious results, posing risks in critical domains such as autonomous vehicles or healthcare. Ethical considerations: AI raises ethical questions related to the impact on jobs, social inequality, and the concentration of power. For example, automated decision-making in hiring processes may perpetuate existing biases and result in unfair outcomes. Lack of regulation and standards: The rapid advancement of AI has outpaced the development of comprehensive regulatory frameworks and industry standards. This creates a regulatory gap and potential risks associated with unchecked AI development and deployment. Advantages of Generative AI: Creative assistance: Generative AI tools can assist and inspire creative professionals in their work. Professionals such as artists, designers, and writers can use generative AI to generate ideas, explore new possibilities, and overcome creative blocks. Real data augmentation: Generative AI can generate synthetic data that closely resembles real data. This is particularly useful in machine learning applications where a large amount of labelled data is required. Creation of multiple content: Generative AI enables the automated creation of various types of content, such as text, images, videos, music, and more. This can significantly speed up the content generation process for industries like advertising, entertainment, and marketing. Healthcare: By generating new medical images and simulations, improving the accuracy and efficiency of medical diagnoses and treatments. Personalization: Generative AI can be used to create personalized experiences for users. By analysing user preferences and behaviour, generative AI systems can generate tailored recommendations, product suggestions, and customized content, enhancing customer satisfaction and engagement. Problem Solving: Generative AI can be applied to problem-solving tasks, such as generating new drug compounds, optimizing supply chain logistics, or creating efficient designs. By exploring vast solution spaces, generative AI algorithms can propose novel solutions and accelerate the discovery process. Simulation and training: Industries like autonomous vehicles or robotics, generative AI can create virtual environments to train algorithms and test systems without the need for physical resources or risking safety. Concerns associated with regulating AI: Rapid technological advancement: Recent advancements in AI posing challenges for regulators to keep up with the latest developments and effectively regulate a technology that is constantly evolving. Deepfakes: These are the synthetic media that generative AI models can create by manipulating or combining existing images, videos, or audio. Deepfakes can be used for malicious purposes such as spreading disinformation, impersonating people, or blackmailing. Increased costs and competition: Compliance with regulations may impose additional costs on businesses, particularly smaller companies and startups, limiting their ability to compete in the AI market. The burden of regulatory compliance could disproportionately affect smaller players. Accountability: Determining responsibility and liability when AI systems cause harm or make erroneous decisions can be challenging. Clarifying the legal frameworks and accountability structures surrounding AI is crucial for effective regulation. Cybersecurity: Generative AI models can be used by hackers to create new and complex types of malwares, phishing schemes, or other cyberattacks that can evade conventional security measures. Such attacks can have serious consequences such as data breaches, financial losses, or reputational damage. International cooperation: AI regulation requires international cooperation and collaboration to address global challenges, harmonize standards, and prevent regulatory arbitrage. Developing consensus among different countries with varying interests and priorities can be a complex task. Artificial Intelligence across the globe: India: The Ministry of Information Technology and Electronics is working on framing the draft Digital India Act, which will replace the existing IT Act. India has established a National AI Programme to promote the efficient and responsible use of AI. Overall generative AI has the potential to enable efficiency and productivity across multiple industries and applications at scale. However, if not designed and developed responsibly with appropriate safeguards, Generative AI can create harm and adversely impact society through misuse, perpetuating biases, exclusion, and discrimination. Source: TH Social Bonds: A march towards sustainability bond framework Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context:  The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) has issued India’s first ‘AAA’ rated Indian Rupee-denominated Social Bonds. About Social bonds: Social bonds, also known as social impact bonds (SIB), are the type of bond where the bond issuer is gathering funds for a project that had some socially beneficial implications. Similar to any other bond, social bonds imply that the bond issuer owes a debt to the bondholder. The Pimpri Chinchwad Municipal Corporation (PCMC) in Maharashtra’s Pune and United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in 2020 co-created India’s first Social Impact Bond (SIB). Sustainability Bond Framework NABARD recently announced a Sustainability Bond Framework which seeks to finance and refinance new or existing eligible green and social projects. Eligible social projects: Includes affordable basic infrastructure, access to essential services, affordable housing, employment generation, food security, socioeconomic advancement, and empowerment. Projects that promise energy efficiency including green buildings, energy storage, and smart grids. Key features of Social Bonds: Designed for social cause: These bonds are raised to improving healthcare access, advancing education, providing affordable housing, alleviating poverty, and promoting environmental sustainability. The defining characteristic of social bonds is their commitment to generating tangible and positive societal outcomes. Broad spectrum of issuers: They are not limited to government entities but can be issued by a diverse array of organizations. This includes governments at various levels. international multilateral organizations, financial institutions and corporations. This diversity of issuers underscores a collective commitment to addressing social issues and leveraging financial markets to do so. Certification and reporting: The certification ensures that the bond’s proceeds are used exclusively for the intended social projects and adhere to predefined social goals. Issuers are obligated to provide regular and transparent reporting on the progress and impact of the projects financed. This reporting helps investors, regulators, and the public assess whether the social bonds are fulfilling their intended purpose. Challenges associated with the social bonds: Complexity of identifying projects: Identifying suitable social projects that can effectively absorb the capital raised through social bonds can be a complex task. This challenge arises from the need to align the projects with the specific criteria and goals of social bonds. Therefore, careful project selection and prioritization are critical to the success of social bond issuances. Measuring Impact: As it generate tangible and positive social outcomes, measuring the social impact of projects can be intricate, as it often involves assessing complex and multifaceted social variables. Robust monitoring and evaluation systems are necessary to track progress and demonstrate the impact of financed projects. Lack of awareness and education: To foster broader adoption of social bonds, there is a need to increase awareness among both investors and issuers about their benefits and mechanisms. Many potential stakeholders may not fully understand the unique attributes of social bonds, including their potential for positive social impact. Education campaigns and targeted outreach efforts can help bridge this knowledge gap and encourage more participation in the market. Way Forward: Therefore, issuance of social bonds is a significant development in the Indian financial market, providing an avenue for financing projects that have a positive impact on society and addressing social issues. The strong investor response reflects growing interest in socially responsible investing and sustainable finance in India. Source: THB Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Indices Organization 1.Child Development Index Save the Children 2.Corruption Perceptions Index Transparency International 3.Education Index UNDP How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act does not recognize boys as the victims of sexual abuse. Statement-II: The Act forbids the disclosure of the victim’s identity. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to diabetes, consider the following statements: Its symptoms include blurred vision and feeling tired. The blood glucose levels are higher than normal but not high enough to be officially diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes in gestational diabetes. Diabetes only affects people of old age (above 60yrs). How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Analyse the potential benefits and challenges of generative AI for India’s development and security. Suggest some measures that India should take to harness the opportunities and mitigate the risks of generative AI. (250 words) Q.2) Discuss the potential benefits and disadvantages of social impact bonds (SIBs). Explains NABARD’s Sustainability Bond Framework with examples. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’   2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 30th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 2nd October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test  Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 30th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Gems and Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, the Gems and Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC) recently appealed to diamond industries to stop importing rough diamonds from October 15 to December 15. Background:- The decision has been taken due to the lack of demand for polished natural diamonds and studded jewellery in the international market. In a statement, GJEPC said that the demand for loose polished diamonds and jewellery from large economies like the USA and China has been affected over the last many quarters. About Gems and Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC): – Establishment: 1966. HQ: Mumbai. Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry. VISION: to make India the preferred source for quality gems and jewellery. (India’s Gems & Jewellery sector ) The Gem & Jewellery Export Promotion Council is the apex body which aims to promote the gems and jewellery products and industry. It is considered to be one of the leaders in diamond manufacturing and trading. It is a central administrative and statutory body looking over the gems and jewellery industry in India. It has regional offices in New Delhi, Kolkata, Jaipur and Surat. It drives India’s export-led growth in the gem and jewellery sector. (Export-oriented units) Objectives: – PROMOTING BRAND INDIA: – Organizing India’s biggest and second-biggest trade shows, IIJS Premiere and IIJS Signature. Organizing joint participation in international jewellery shows. CONNECTING GOVERNMENT & TRADE: – Facilitating better interaction on trade-related issues between the industry and the Government of India, Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Ministry of Finance, DGFT, Dept of Commerce, Dept. of Finance. UPHOLDING DIAMOND INTEGRITY: – Executing the Kimberly Process Certification Scheme in the country, as the Nodal Agency appointed by the Government of India. SPREADING EDUCATION: – Running training institutes that impart manufacturing skills, and technical and design excellence in six cities – Mumbai, Delhi, Surat, Jaipur, Varanasi and Udupi. INNOVATION AND INFRASTRUCTURE: – Providing MSMEs with affordable modern machines and tools at Common Facility Centres. Setting up Jewellery Parks across the country. HEALTH AND WELL-BEING:- Providing health insurance for the employees of the Council’s member companies through the group mediclaim scheme called Swasthya Ratna. PAYING BACK TO SOCIETY:- Founded by GJEPC in 2014, Jewellers for Hope has donated Rs.1 crore every year to one or more NGOs/charities doing exceptional work in supporting the underprivileged. MUST READ:  New Foreign Trade Policy SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at (2016) bringing small entrepreneurs into the formal financial system providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating particular crops providing pensions to old and destitute persons funding the voluntary organizations involved in the promotion of skill development and employment generation Q.2) What is/are the purpose/purposes of `District Mineral Foundations in India? (2016) Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich districts Protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations Authorizing State Governments to issue licences for mineral exploration Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: As per recent reports of the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), international Shipping emissions increased by 20% in the last decade. Key highlights of the report: – In 2023, greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions from international shipping were 20 per cent higher than 10 years earlier. (Shipping Industry in India) It advocates for system-wide collaboration, swift regulatory intervention and stronger investments in green technologies and fleets. It states that full decarbonization by 2050 will require massive investments and could lead to higher maritime logistics costs, raising concerns for vulnerable shipping-reliant nations like small island developing states. It emphasizes the need to balance environmental goals with economic needs. It states that beyond cleaner fuels, the industry needs to move faster towards digital solutions like AI and blockchain to improve efficiency as well as sustainability. In its analysis of global maritime trends, the report highlights shipping’s resilience despite major challenges stemming from global crises, such as the war in Ukraine. It states that maritime trade is expected to grow 2.4% in 2023 and more than 2% between 2024 and 2028. It states that balancing environmental sustainability, regulatory compliance and economic demands is vital for a prosperous, equitable and resilient future for maritime transport. About the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD):- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideServe Established: 1964. HQ: Geneva in Switzerland. UNCTAD is the UN’s leading institution dealing with trade and development. It is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly. UNCTAD is part of the UN Secretariat. Membership: it has a membership of 195 countries. The Conference ordinarily meets once in four years. The second UNCTAD Conference took place in New Delhi, India in 1968. Functions of UNCTAD: – It supports developing countries to access the benefits of a globalized economy more fairly and effectively. It provides economic, and trade analysis, and facilitates consensus building. It offers technical assistance to help developing countries use trade, investment, finance and technology for inclusive and sustainable development. Important reports: – Trade and Development Report: Annual World Investment Report: Annual The Least Developed Countries Report: Annual. Commodities and Development Report: Annual. MUST READ: GREEN MARITIME SECTOR SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Rapid Financing Instruments” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 India and Finland Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: India and Finland recently agreed on cooperation between the two countries in several areas of telecom including the development of Human Resources for the dynamic sector. About India and Finland:- IMAGE SOURCE: countryreports.org Finland and India have traditionally enjoyed warm and friendly relations. In recent years, bilateral relations have acquired diversity with collaboration in research, innovation, and investments by both sides. 2019 marked 70 years of diplomatic relations between the two countries. Economic cooperation: – Finland sees India as a market for its products and a favourable investment destination for its high-technology industries. India views Finland as an important member of the European Union and a repository of modern technology. S&T Collaboration: – An agreement for Cooperation in S&T was signed in February 2008 for the development of innovation policies, exchange of information and scientists and R&D collaboration. Both India and Finland are consultative members of the Antarctic Treaty and have active stations in Antarctica. Finland will be hosting the Antarctic Treaty Consultative Meeting (ATCM) in 2023 and India in 2024. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) and the Finnish Meteorological Institute (FMI) have been cooperating in the field of Atmospheric Environment since 2014. Cultural Relations: – Indian culture and yoga are very popular in Finland. Cultural events are organized regularly by Indian Associations and other cultural organizations promoting Indian dance and music. Environment Relations: – There have been successful partnerships since 2004 between the Finnish Meteorological Institute (FMI), the India Meteorological Department (IMD) and The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) in air quality including capacity building. Cooperation in Education: – Finland is a global leader in education scoring consistently on several parameters. There have been tie-ups between private firms for the exchange of best practices in early childhood and K-12 education. There is an MoU between a Consortium of ten Finnish Universities and twenty-three Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) for the period 2020-2025 for cooperation in the higher education sector. MUST READ: Foreign Universities in India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2023) Bulgaria Czech Republic Hungary Latvia Lithuania Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America National Service Scheme Awards 2021-22 Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT AWARDS Context: President Droupadi Murmu conferred the National Service Scheme Awards 2021-22 recently. Background:- The award was given to 52 persons for their contributions to social services. About National Service Scheme Awards 2021-22:- Instituted in 1993-94. It was instituted on the occasion of the Silver Jubilee Year of the National Service Scheme. Instituted by: Youth Affairs and Sports Ministry. Presented by: President of India. Venue: Rashtrapati Bhavan. The NSS Awards, are presented every year to the NSS Volunteers, Programme Officers, NSS Units and the Universities/+2 Councils to recognize their voluntary service. Objectives:- To encourage young NSS student volunteers to develop their personality through community service. To encourage the Programme Officers and the Programme Coordinators of NSS for catering for the needs of NSS through the NSS volunteers. (Gandhi as a Political thinker and a Social reformer) To motivate NSS Volunteers to continue their selfless service towards community work. About NSS:- Launched: 1969. NSS is a central sector scheme. Objective: to develop the personality and character of the student/youth through voluntary community service. The ideological orientation of the NSS is inspired by the ideals of Mahatma Gandhi. The motto of NSS is “NOT ME, BUT YOU” In Hindi it is “स्वयंसेपहलेआप”. NSS volunteers work on issues of social relevance through regular and special camping activities. MUST READ:  (Padma awards) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Pink Bollworm Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Damages due to the Pink Bollworm have been wreaking havoc on cotton fields from Rajasthan to Haryana. Background: – The Pink Bollworm (PBW), a highly destructive cotton pest, has reached unprecedented levels of infestation in the Indian states of Rajasthan and Haryana, severely affecting cotton crops. About Pink Bollworm: – Pink Bollworm is one of the most destructive pests of cotton. It is native to India. It was originally reported in India in 1842. It has now spread to cotton-growing regions worldwide. The adult Pink bollworms are small moths. The larvae are the most damaging stage, identified by distinctive pink bands. The pinkish-coloured larva generally pupates in a cocoon inside a boll or seed, in litter, or underground. They feed on cotton bolls, consuming seeds and damaging fibres. This leads to reduced crop yields and quality. (Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee) The infestation also impacts other plants like hibiscus, okra, and hollyhock. This outbreak threatens the livelihoods of cotton farmers. It calls for urgent pest management measures. (Agristack Project) MUST READ: GM Crops and their regulation SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) India has more arable area than China. The proportion of irrigated areas is higher in India as compared to China. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China: How many of the above statements is/are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which of the following organisms ·perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps World University Rankings 2024 Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: In first, there are a record-breaking number of Indian universities in the recently released, Times Higher Education’s World University Rankings 2024. Key highlights of the report:- The University of Oxford tops the ranking for the eighth year in a row. The US is the most-represented country overall, with 169 institutions, and also the most-represented in the top 200 (56). With 91 institutions, India is now the fourth most-represented nation, overtaking China (86). The top university in India, the Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore. The next highest-ranked universities in India are Anna University, Jamia Millia Islamia, Mahatma Gandhi University, and Shoolini University of Biotechnology and Management Sciences, which are all in the 501-600 band. Indian universities made significant gains this year, including five of the countries’ top universities. IISc moved up from 251-300 bands last year to 201-250. Anna University moved up from 801-1000 band last year to 501-600. Aligarh Muslim University moved up from 801-1000 band last year to 601-80. Bharathiar University moved up from the 801-1000 band last year to 601-800. Malaviya National Institute of Technology entered the ranking for the first time in the 601-800 band. Two IITs, the Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati and the Indian Institute of Technology (Indian School of Mines) Dhanbad, moved up two bands to join the world’s top 800 universities, from 1001-1200 to 601-800. About World University Rankings 2024: – Founded in 2004. Published by: Times Higher Education. The Times Higher Education World University Rankings 2024 include 1,904 universities across 108 countries and regions. These rankings are the most comprehensive, rigorous and balanced global ranking. (QS World University Rankings 2021) It covers their core missions of teaching, research, knowledge transfers and internationalization. It assesses research-intensive universities across 18 carefully calibrated performance indicators that measure an institution’s performance across five areas: teaching, research environment, research quality, industry, and international outlook. It is trusted worldwide by students, teachers, governments and industry experts. MUST READ: Education & Nation Building SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’? (2018) To enable famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2018) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. CALIPSO mission Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY-SPACE Context: Recently, NASA’s CALIPSO mission stopped blasting lasers at Earth after 17 years. Background: – NASA recently announced that its CALIPSO satellite, which takes climate, weather and air quality measurements using LIDAR, has ended its science mission. About CALIPSO mission: – Launch Date: April 28, 2006 Launch Location: Vandenberg Air Force Base, California, USA. Launch Vehicle: Delta II rocket. (Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV)) Spacecraft: PROTEUS Orbit Type: Sun-synchronous. CALIPSO is a joint U.S. (NASA)/French (Centre National d’Etudes Spatiales/CNES) mission. Observations from spaceborne lidar, combined with passive imagery, will lead to an improved understanding of the role aerosols and clouds play in regulating the Earth’s climate, in particular, how aerosols and clouds interact with one another. Mission’s  Objectives:- CALIPSO’s primary objective is to enhance our understanding of clouds and aerosols (tiny solid and liquid particles suspended in the atmosphere) and their roles in Earth’s climate system. CALIPSO aims to provide valuable data for climate change research by monitoring key atmospheric parameters. The mission contributes to improved air quality assessments and weather forecasting by providing real-time atmospheric data. Instruments:- Lidar Technology: CALIPSO is equipped with a lidar (light detection and ranging) instrument, known as the CALIOP (Cloud-Aerosol Lidar with Orthogonal Polarization). It uses laser pulses to measure the altitude and properties of clouds and aerosols with high precision. Passive Sensors: The satellite also carries passive sensors, including the Imaging Infrared Radiometer (IIR). Wide Field Camera (WFC): provides complementary data on clouds and aerosols. MUST READ: India – USA space cooperation SOURCE:  THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Mains: Dr. M. S. Swaminathan: Architect of Agricultural Innovation and Biodiversity Conservation Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy and Environment) Context: MS Swaminathan, the Father of the Green Revolution who transformed India’s image from a begging bowl to a bread basket passed away recently. About Green Revolution in India: The term ‘Green Revolution’ refers to the new agricultural technology developed during the 1950s and 1960s by a team of agricultural experts at the International Centre for Maize and Wheat Improvement in Mexico and at the International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) in the Philippines. The Green Revolution in India began in the mid-1960s marking a transition from traditional agriculture in India and the introduction of high-yielding varieties of seeds and the associated agricultural techniques. India is now the world’s largest sugar-producing country and holds the second position in rice production only after China. India is also the second largest producer of wheat with a share of around 14.14 percent of the world’s total production in 2020. As per the 4th Advance Estimates, the production of food grains in the country is estimated at 315.72 million tonnes which is higher by 4.98 million tonnes than the production of food grains during 2020-21. Positive Impacts of Green Revolution Tremendous Increase in Crop Produce: It resulted in a grain output of 131 million tonnes in the year 1978-79 and established India as one of the world’s biggest agricultural producers. The crop area under high yielding varieties of wheat and rice grew considerably during the Green Revolution. Reduced import: India became self-sufficient in food-grains and had sufficient stock in the central pool, even, at times, India was in a position to export food-grains. Benefits to the farmers: The introduction of the Green Revolution helped the farmers in raising their level of income. Farmers ploughed back their surplus income for improving agricultural productivity. The per capita income of Punjab stands at Rs.1,73,873 in 2022-23 (Advance Estimates) which is higher than Rs. 1,70,620 at National level. Industrial Growth: The Revolution brought about large scale farm mechanization which created demand for large scale establishment of agro based industries. Generation of rural employment: There was an appreciable increase in the demand for labour force due to multiple cropping and use of fertilizers. It created plenty of jobs not only for agricultural workers but also industrial workers by creating related facilities such as factories and hydroelectric power stations. Bullock capitalism: Emergence of a new class of wealthy farmers and their subsequent impact on economic and agricultural policy evident post-Green Revolution especially Green Revolution belt. Negative Impacts of Green Revolution Non-Food Grains Left Out: Although all food-grains including wheat, rice, jowar, bajra and maize have gained from the revolution, other crops such as coarse cereals, pulses and oilseeds were left out of the ambit of the revolution. Limited Coverage of HYVP: High Yielding Variety Programme (HYVP) was restricted to only five crops: Wheat, Rice, Jowar, Bajra and Maize. Therefore, non-food grains were excluded from the ambit of the new strategy. Regional disparities: Green Revolution technology has given birth to growing disparities in economic development at interred and intra-regional levels. It has so far affected only 40 percent of the total cropped area and 60 per cent is still untouched by it. The most affected areas are Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh in the north and Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu in the south. Depletion of groundwater resources: It led to a significant increase in water consumption for irrigation, which has depleted groundwater resources in many areas. As per Ground Water Resources Assessment for 2022, Punjab has 76% groundwater blocks which are overexploited, Rajasthan has 72% and Haryana has 61%. Impacts on soil and crop production: Repeated crop cycle in order to ensure increased crop production depleted the soil’s nutrients. Toxic chemicals in the soil destroyed beneficial pathogens, which further led to the decline in the yield. Unemployment: Except in Punjab, and to some extent in Haryana, farm mechanization under the Green Revolution created widespread unemployment among agricultural labourers in the rural areas. The worst affected were the poor and the landless labourers. Health Hazards: The large-scale use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides resulted in resulted in a number of critical health illnesses including cancer, renal failure, stillborn babies and birth defects. Way Forward: Overall, the Green Revolution was a major achievement for many developing countries, specially India and gave them an unprecedented level of national food security. But there is a need of a more comprehensive policy environment that can protect farmers, human health and the environment from the negative impacts of the green revolution in India. Source:  Indian Express India-Bangladesh relations Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: A planned tripartite power trade agreement between India, Nepal and Bangladesh is in the final stage, though New Delhi and Dhaka may have to augment their transmission capacities to implement the pact, The proposed tripartite power trade pact, the first of its kind in South Asia, was agreed to by the three countries earlier this year and is aimed at meeting a long-standing demand from Nepal and Bangladesh to allow the sale of electricity to the Indian grid. India – Bangladesh relations: Historical ties: India was the first country to recognise Bangladesh as independent state and established diplomatic relations after its independence in December 1971. Bangladesh’s geographical location as India’s eastern neighbour gives it strategic importance. Trade and investment:  Bangladesh is India’s biggest trade partner in South Asia. India’s exports to Bangladesh during 2021 was US$14.09 Billion. Bangladesh may become India’s fourth-largest export destination in FY22, jumping five places in two years. Bangladesh’s major import items like cotton, mineral fuel, machinery, electrical equipment, and cereals are among the top exported commodities by India to the world. 6 Border Haats (4 in Meghalaya and 2 in Tripura), have been approved by the Indian and Bangladesh governments. Connectivity and cooperation: Bandhan Express: starting from Kolkata for Khulna since 2017. It covers the distance via Petrapole and Benapole border route to cater to the demands of the people from both countries. Maitree Express: Starting from Dhaka for Kolkata – since 2008 The tri-weekly service between Kolkata and Dhaka used to run with 90 percent occupancy. Mitali Express: Starting from New Jalpaiguri in North Bengal to Dhaka. Protocol on Inland Water Transit and Trade (PIWTT) was signed for the transportation of goods and keeping their respective waterways navigable while providing infrastructure facilities. Agartala – Akhaura Rail Link: between Agartala (Tripura) and Akhaura (Bangladesh) would be the first train from the northeastern region to Bangladesh. Border management and river waters: The Ganga Waters Treaty signed in 1996 for sharing of waters of river Ganga during lean season. Most recently an MoU has been signed between the Ministry of Jal Shakti and the Bangladesh Ministry of Water Resources on the withdrawal of water from the Kushiyara. The two sides also affirmed that border management is a shared priority and commended the fact that the deaths on the border have greatly reduced. Defence cooperation: High-level exchanges include the edition of India-Bangladesh CORPAT ‘Bangosagar’ exercise, Regional Commanders meeting of Coast Guards and the Annual Defense Dialogues. Various Joint exercises take place between the two countries: Exercise Sampriti (Army) and Exercise Milan (Navy). Multilateral Cooperation: India and Bangladesh are also engaged in regional cooperation through multilateral forums such as SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation), BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) and Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA). Tourism and cultural ties: According to the Ministry of Tourism, Bangladesh accounted for the largest share of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2020, including tens of thousands of people who come to the country for medical treatment. The Indira Gandhi Cultural Centre (IGCC) in Dhaka plays an important role in the celebration of common cultural links between the two countries. Its training programs including Yoga, Kathak, Manipuri dance, Hindi language, Hindustani classical music and the cultural programs of renowned artists of India and Bangladesh contribute to the promotion of people-to-people contacts. Significance of Bangladesh to India: Geopolitical: Bangladesh is India’s neighbour and shares a long land, riverine and maritime boundary. India needs cooperation from Bangladesh to counter the Chinese ‘String of Pearls’. Strategic: Bangladesh is located at the crossroads of South Asia and Southeast Asia and is important for India’s Act East Policy, which aims to build closer ties with the countries of Southeast Asia. Economic: India-Bangladesh have close economic ties, with India being one of Bangladesh’s largest trading partners. Cultural: India and Bangladesh have a shared history, culture, and heritage. The people of the two countries are linked by strong cultural and familial ties, and there is a large population of Indian-origin people living in Bangladesh. Environmental concerns: Bangladesh and India share trans-boundary rivers and ecological systems, making it important for the two countries to cooperate on issues such as water management and flood control. Areas of Concerns: Citizenship Amendment Act: There has been a concern in Bangladesh about the CAA and the proposed National Register of Citizens in India. The concern is as much about laws as the anti-Bangladeshi rhetoric from the highest political echelons in Delhi. China factor: China has been increasing its investments in Bangladesh, particularly in the areas of infrastructure development, energy, and telecommunications. For example, BRI and investment in Chittagong port. Teesta River Water Dispute: The long-pending issue of sharing Teesta waters – a major concern for Dhaka – continues to be unresolved, partly due to the Government of West Bengal. No treaty has been signed yet to resolve the Teesta water-sharing dispute between the two nations. Border disputes: Long-standing disputes over the demarcation of the shared border, particularly in the regions of Assam and Tripura. Illegal immigration: The flow of migrants across the Bangladeshi border as a result of the country’s unrest has further strained the relationship between the two countries. The inhabitants of the Indian states bordering Bangladesh have experienced substantial socio-economic-political challenges as a result of the significant influx of migrants. Way forward: India needs to look at more ways to deepen its ties with Bangladesh, especially keeping in mind the shifting nature of geopolitics and geoeconomics in South Asia. India needs to find a fine balance in respecting Bangladesh’s economic growth while maintaining its economic progress. Source:   HT Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Space Missions Agency 1.DISCOVERY NASA 2.Aditya-L1 ISRO 3.MOM JAXA How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The UNCTAD publishes the Least Developed Countries Report biannually. Statement-II: The second UNCTAD Conference took place in New Delhi, India in 1968. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the CALIPSO mission, consider the following statements: It contributes to improved air quality assessments and weather forecasting. It is a joint NASA-ESA mission. It uses laser pulses to measure the altitude and properties of clouds and aerosols with high precision. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) In times of regional turmoil, India- Bangladesh relations need careful nurturing.” Discuss. (250 words) Q.2) Discuss the role of Dr. M. S. Swaminathan in the green revolution and Its impact on Indian agriculture. How did his initiatives address food security challenges in the country? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  30th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 29th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 30th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 29th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Battle of Haifa Syllabus Prelims –HISTORY Context: India and Israel commemorated the Battle of Haifa recently. Background:- Every year on September 23, diplomats from India’s Embassy in Israel and Israeli government officials representing the municipality of the northern port city of Haifa gather at the Haifa War Cemetery to pay respects to the Indian soldiers who were killed and wounded in battle, on foreign soil. About the Battle of Haifa:- IMAGE SOURCE: BRITANNICA The 23rd of September is designated as ‘Haifa Day’. It commemorates the city’s capture following a daring cavalry action by the 15th Imperial Service Cavalry Brigade during World War I. Haifa Day commemorations were initiated in 2010. Teen Murti Chowk in India was renamed Teen Murti Haifa Chowk in honour of the Battle of Haifa’s centenary. Historical background:- The Battle of Haifa was fought during the First World War as a part of the Sinai and Palestine campaigns.( India, Israel, and Palestine) The 5th Cavalry Division comprising the 13, 14, and 15 Cavalry Brigades were tasked with capturing Haifa. The 15 Cavalry Brigade comprised the Jodhpur Lancers and the Mysore and Hyderabad Lancers. The British Empire, the Kingdom of Italy, and the French Third Republic, fought alongside the Arab Revolt, in opposition to the Ottoman Empire, the Austro-Hungarian Empire, and the German Empire. The Indian Cavalry Brigade, played a decisive role, leading to the capture of Haifa and Acre from the Ottoman Empire. Significance:- The Battle of Haifa is a testament to the valour of Indian soldiers, including Sikhs and Rajputs, in global conflicts. It highlights India’s contributions during the First World War. It adds a historic significance in strengthening India-Israel relations.( 15th India-Israel Joint Working Group) MUST READ: India and Israel SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements: (2022) The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by the Gajapati rulers. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagar Empire. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of:(2015) ASEAN BRICS OECD WTO Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Waheeda Rehman will be honoured with the 53rd Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award for the year 2023. About Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award:- Established: 1969. Presented at the National Film Awards ceremony. Presented by: President of India. First awardee: Devika Rani. Naming: This award commemorates Dadasaheb Phalke. Dadasaheb Phalke was the director of India’s inaugural full-length feature film, “Raja Harishchandra,” in 1913. He is known as the “Father of Indian Cinema”. The Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award is India’s highest cinema honour. It is presented annually at the National Film Awards ceremony by the Directorate of Film Festivals. The award is presented by the President of India in the presence of the Union Minister of Information and Broadcasting, the Chairpersons of the juries, the representatives of the Film Federation of India, and the Confederation of All India Cine Employees among senior officials. It is awarded for outstanding contribution to the growth and development of Indian cinema. The Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2020 was accorded to legendary actress Ms Asha Parekh. Decoration:- The prize includes:- Swarna Kamal (Golden Lotus) medallion a shawl a cash prize of 10 lakh. MUST READ: Golden Globes Award SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards: (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY/ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, Punjab submitted the State Action Plan and District-wise Action Plans for tackling the problem of stubble burning to the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM). Background:- The Action Plans commit to an overall reduction of more than 50% in paddy stubble burning incidents this year as compared to 2022. About Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM):- Establishment: 2020. It is a permanent body. (Air pollution) The Commission has been set up for Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas. It aims for better coordination, research, identification, and resolution of problems surrounding the air quality index and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. It is a statutory mechanism to coordinate and oversee diverse efforts to improve air quality in Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and UP, with the underlying remedial approach. CAQM will supersede all existing bodies, including the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), as well as state governments in matters of air pollution mitigation. Significance: The establishment of CAQM has the potential to address the problem of air pollution but an institution by itself is not a solution. Historical Background:- The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) was established under the Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Ordinance in October 2020. The parliament was not in session during this time, and an urgent need for such legislation was felt. The ordinance lapsed on 12th March 2021. Consequently, a new bill for this was promulgated. It was given the assent of both the houses and the President, following which Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act,2021 was passed on 12th August 2021. The CAQM was formed after dissolving the 22-year-old Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA). Objective: Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas. Functions and Power of the Commission:- The Commission will provide the mechanism and the means to implement in the NCR and around, the National Clean Air Programme, the National Air Quality Monitoring Programme, and the National Ambient Air Quality Standards. It is tasked with laying down parameters of air quality. The Commission has the right to prohibit activities that are likely to cause or increase air pollution in the NCR. The Commission can take up matters suo-motu or on the basis of complaints from individuals and organizations. It will submit to the Centre an annual report which will be laid before both houses of the Parliament. Every regulation and order of the Commission will be placed before Parliament. The Commission would specifically monitor measures taken by the states to prevent factors causing air pollution like stubble burning, industrial emissions, road dust, vehicular pollution, construction activities, biomass burning, and other major sources of air pollution. Composition of CAQM:- Chairperson: It will have a full-time chairperson. It will be one “who is or has been Secretary to the Government of India or Chief Secretary to the Government of a state”. The chairperson will hold the post for three years or until s/he attains the age of 70 years. State Representatives: The Commission will also have five ex officio members who are either Chief Secretaries, or Secretaries in charge of the department dealing with environment protection in the States of Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. Experts: Three full-time independent technical members with “specific scientific knowledge and experience in matters relating to air pollution”; a technical member each from the CPCB and nominated by ISRO, ex officio. Civil Society: Three representatives of NGOs with experience in combating air pollution. Others: It will have members from Niti Aayog and several Ministries. MUST READ: National Clean Air Campaign SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the Guidelines, statements: the context of WHO considers the Air Quality following (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and the annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Q.2) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (2020) Automobile exhaust Tobacco smoke Woodburning Using varnished wooden furniture Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 MS Swaminathan Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES Context: MS Swaminathan passed away recently. Background:- Agricultural scientist Dr MS Swaminathan, known as the father of India’s Green Revolution, passed away in Chennai. He was 98 years old. About MS Swaminathan:- Birth date: August 7, 1925. Birth Place: in Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu. Swaminathan brought a social revolution through his policies to rescue India from famine-like circumstances in the 1960s. He was called the ‘Father of the Indian Green Revolution’. Early life and education:- Initially, aiming for a career in civil services he switched to agriculture due to his passion, inspired by the Quit India Movement and the Bengal famine of 1942–43. He enrolled in the Agriculture College in Coimbatore to pursue his interest in agriculture. Swaminathan held various significant positions related to agriculture, both in India and abroad. Contributions to the Green Revolution:- Swaminathan’s contributions to agriculture in the 1960s and ’70s transformed India’s farming landscape, ushering in an era of food security. He worked on enhancing crop varieties, particularly rice and wheat. He pioneered the development of semi-dwarf wheat varieties to boost yields. Collaboration with Norman Borlaug resulted in the introduction of dwarfing genes into wheat varieties. Swaminathan organized hundreds of exhibitions in the northern portion of the country in 1965 to teach small-scale farmers how genetically engineered grains might enable them to grow higher yields in the same land. These demonstrations were game-changing since the crop tripled prior output levels in the first year of the Green Revolution era. Swaminathan trained farmers to use these new approaches, overcoming the illiteracy barrier. Because of his efforts, the average agricultural production increased from 12 million tonnes to 23 million tonnes in just four crop seasons. Roles:- His roles included Independent Chairman of the Food and Agricultural Organization Council (1981–85). President of the International Union for the Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (1984–90) President of the World Wide Fund for Nature (India) from 1989–96. He also served as the Director General of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). He founded the MS Swaminathan Research Foundation. He played a vital role in developing high-yield variety seeds of wheat, which led to the green revolution in India. Awards:- Albert Einstein World Science Award in 1986. He won the first World Food Prize in 1987. Tyler Prize for Environmental Achievement in 1991. Planet and Humanity Medal of the International Geographical Union in 2000. He was conferred with Padma Shri (1967), Padma Bhushan(1972), and Padma Vibhushan(1989). MUST READ: Mahatma Gandhi SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji, and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was (2018) Aurobindo Ghosh Bipin Chandra Pal Lala Lajpat Rai Motilal Nehru Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The Chairman of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), Sanjay Kumar Agarwal recently said that the body plays a crucial role in the fight against illicit trade. About  Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC):- Establishment: 1964. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. HQ: New Delhi. The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs is a part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance. It is a statutory body established under the Central Boards of Revenue Act, of 1963. Historical Background:- It was formed in 1964 when the Central Board of Revenue was split into the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) and the Central Board of Excise and Customs. The Central Board of Excise and Customs was renamed the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs in 2018. Salient Features:- Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs is the nodal national agency responsible for administering:- Customs GST (GST- Five years on ) Central Excise Service Tax Narcotics in India. The Board is the administrative authority for its subordinate organizations, including Custom Houses, Central Excise and Central GST Commissionerate, and the Central Revenues Control Laboratory. (Tax administration in India) Functions:- Formulation of policy concerning levy and collection of Customs, Central Excise duties, Central Goods and Services Tax, and IGST. Prevention of smuggling. Administration of matters relating to Customs, Central Excise, Central Goods & Services Tax, IGST, and Narcotics to the extent under CBIC’s purview. MUST READ:  (Tax-GDP ratio ) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (2017) It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2017) Tax revenue as a percent of the GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Fiscal deficit as a percent of the GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Global Innovation Index 2023 Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The Global Innovation Index 2023 was released recently. Background:- India has retained 40th rank in the Global Innovation Index 2023. About Global Innovation Index 2023 rankings:- Publication: annual. Published by: World Intellectual Property Organization. WIPO is a self-funding agency of the United Nations, with 193 member states. Edition: 16th edition. The Global Innovation Index is a leading reference for measuring an economy’s innovation ecosystem performance. It is also a valuable benchmarking tool used by policymakers, business leaders, and other stakeholders to assess progress in innovation over time. The 2023 edition of the Global Innovation Index (GII) takes the pulse of global innovation trends against the background of an economic environment fraught with uncertainty. Global Innovation Tracker 2023 captures key trends in innovation investments and measures the pace of technological progress and adoption, as well as the resulting socioeconomic impact. The index reveals the ranking of this year’s most innovative economies in the world amongst 132 economies. Key highlights:- Most innovative economies in 2023:- For the 13th year in a row, Switzerland is the most innovative economy in 2023 followed by Sweden, the United States, the United Kingdom, and Singapore. The top Science and Technology innovation clusters in the world in 2023 are: – Tokyo–Yokohama, followed by Shenzhen–Hong Kong–Guangzhou, Seoul, Beijing and Shanghai-Suzhou. China now has the largest number of clusters in the world, overtaking the United States. India’s performance:- India retained the 40th rank out of 132 economies. Over the past few years, India has consistently climbed the ranks in the GII, rising from 81st place in 2015 to its current position. MUST READ: Boosting patent ecosystem SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Tackling Malnutrition in India Syllabus Mains – Governance Context: India, a nation with a rich cultural heritage and diverse population, faces a significant challenge in the form of malnutrition, particularly among its children and women. Under Rashtriya Poshan Maah 2023 diverse activities like Swasth Balak Spardha, Anaemia camps, and Poshan Bhi Padhai Bhi registered a record number of activities just in a day on the Jan Andolan dashboard. About Malnutrition: WHO has defined malnutrition as deficiencies, excesses or imbalances in a person’s intake of energy and/or nutrients. The term malnutrition addresses 3 broad groups of conditions: Undernutrition: which includes wasting (low weight-for-height), stunting (low height-for-age) and underweight (low weight-for-age); Micronutrient-related malnutrition: which includes micronutrient deficiencies (a lack of important vitamins and minerals) or micronutrient excess; and Overweight: It includes obesity and diet-related noncommunicable diseases (such as heart disease, stroke, diabetes and some cancers). Status of malnutrition in India: Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2022: India ranked 107 out of 121 countries in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2022. The GHI is an important indicator of nutrition, particularly among children, as it looks at stunting, wasting and mortality among children, and at calorific deficiency across the population. National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5): India’s National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) from 2019-21 reported that in children below the age of five years, 35.5% were stunted, 19.3% showed wasting, and 32.1% were underweight. The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World 2020 report: According to report nearly 51.4 percent of women of reproductive age in India were suffering from anaemia. Almost 50 percent of women are facing severe undernutrition and Anaemia. Reasons for malnutrition in India: Poverty: It is the main reason behind the lack of adequate nutritional food which results in malnutrition. Sanitation and cleanliness: Most children in rural areas and urban slums still lack sanitation. This makes them vulnerable to the kinds of chronic intestinal diseases that prevent bodies from making good use of nutrients in food, and they become malnourished. Lack of diversified food: With the increase in diversity in food intake malnutrition (stunted/underweight) status declines. Only 12% of children are likely to be stunted and underweight in areas where diversity in food intake is high, while around 50% children are stunted if they consume less than three food items. Lack of food security: The dismal health of Indian women and children is primarily due to lack of food security. Nearly one-third of adults in the country have a Body Mass Index (BMI) below normal just because they do not have enough food to eat. Failure of government approaches: Although India already has following two robust national programmes addressing malnutrition but these are yet to reach enough people: Poor food grains through public distribution system Integrated Child Development Service (ICDS) and The National Health Mission. Government schemes to tackle Malnutrition: Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme: Aims at providing food, preschool education, primary healthcare, immunization, health check-up and referral services to children under 6 years of age and their mothers. Mid-day Meal (MDM) scheme: Aims to improve nutritional levels among school children which also has a direct and positive impact on enrolment, retention and attendance in schools. The National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013: It aims to ensure food and nutrition security for the most vulnerable through its associated schemes and programmes, making access to food a legal right. POSHAN Abhiyaan Anaemia Mukt Bharat Abhiyan: Aims at accelerating the annual rate of decline of anaemia from one to three percentage points. Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY):6,000 is transferred directly to the bank accounts of pregnant women for availing better facilities for their delivery. Way Forward: Although the government has initiated various programs to combat malnutrition the issue is still prevalent in India, especially among vulnerable populations like women and children. A data-driven, context-specific, and integrated approach is essential to address acute and chronic malnutrition effectively. Source: Financial Express Empowering India's Elderly Population Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: UNFPA (United Nations Population Fund) India, in collaboration with the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS), unveiled the highly anticipated “India Ageing Report 2023”. Key highlights of the report: Population growth of elderly: The study anticipates a remarkable 279% increase in the population of individuals aged 80 and above between 2022 and 2050. By 2046, it is projected that the elderly population will likely surpass the population of children aged 0 to 15 years in India. Population share of elderly: By the year 2050, the elderly population in India is set to constitute more than 20% of the total population, marking a significant shift from the present share of approximately 10% in 2021. Poverty among the elderly: Disturbingly, the report reveals that over 40% of elderly individuals in India belong to the poorest wealth quintile, with more than 18% having no source of income. This high level of poverty among the elderly raises concerns about their quality of life and access to essential services. Gender differences in life expectancy: The report highlights gender disparities in life expectancy among the elderly. On average, women tend to have a longer life expectancy than men, although these differences vary across different states within India. Sex ratio among the elderly: The sex ratio among the elderly is on the rise, indicating a trend of longer survival for women compared to men in this demographic group. Gendered poverty in old age: The report underscores that poverty among the elderly is gendered, with older women being more likely to be widowed, living alone, and heavily dependent on family support for their well-being. Challenges in demographic transition: There are significant disparities in the elderly population across states, reflecting variations in the stages and pace of demographic transition within India. Status of Elderly Population in India: According to the Population Census 2011, there are nearly 104 million elderly persons in India. The sex ratio: among elderly people was as high as 1028 in 1951, subsequently dropped and again reached up to 1033 in 2011. The old-age dependency ratio climbed from 10.9% in 1961 to 14.2% in 2011 for India as a whole. In rural areas, 66% of elderly men and 28% of elderly women were working, while in urban areas only 46% of elderly men and about 11% of elderly women were working. The per cent of literates among elderly persons increased from 27% in 1991 to 44% in 2011. Challenges faced by the elderly population in India: Social challenges: Senior citizens are increasingly being neglected by the younger generation due to various reasons like western education, globalisation, nuclear family structure, etc Low funding: India spends only 1% of its gross domestic product on pensions. India’s income support systems in their current form are not even capable of catering to the elderly when their proportion of the population is only 8.6%. Mitigating the fiscal costs: The Indian economy still needs to mitigate the fiscal costs that arise from a rising old-age dependency ratio. Rural Situation: Older women residing in rural areas face unique challenges such as limited access to healthcare facilities, inadequate infrastructure, and the burden of caregiving responsibilities or agricultural work. These challenges are exacerbated by the lack of support and resources in rural communities. Intersectionality: Women from marginalized communities, including those with lower socio-economic backgrounds or belonging to tribal or minority groups, may face compounded challenges in old age. Their intersectional identities can result in increased vulnerabilities and limited access to essential services and support. Ageism and Misogyny: Older women often encounter ageism and misogyny in various aspects of society. Stereotypes, discrimination, and limited opportunities for engagement in social, economic, and political activities can result from these biases. Ageism and misogyny further contribute to the marginalization of older women. Health-related challenges: Increased health-related expenses and the high prevalence of Non-Communicable diseases also create a financial problem for the elderly population. Further, other health-related issues like blindness, deafness, mental illness, etc. are highly prevalent among the elderly population. Government Schemes for Old Age: National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP): Offers non-contributory pensions to support elderly individuals, widowed women, and disabled individuals who need financial assistance. Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY): An exclusive pension scheme designed for senior citizens aged 60 and above, providing financial security for elderly individuals. Integrated Program for Older Persons (IPOP): Focuses on enhancing the quality of life for senior citizens by providing essential amenities such as food, shelter, medical care, and opportunities for entertainment and social engagement. Rashtriya Vayoshree Yojana: This central sector scheme, funded by the Senior Citizens’ Welfare Fund, offers aids and assistive living devices to elderly individuals below the poverty line (BPL) who have age-related disabilities. SAMPANN Project: online pension processing system for pensioners under the Department of Telecommunications. It ensures the direct credit of pensions into the bank accounts of pensioners, streamlining the pension disbursement process. SACRED Portal for Elderly: The Portal provides a platform for citizens aged 60 and above to register for job opportunities, access information and guidance on various issues, and find work opportunities. SAGE (Senior care Ageing Growth Engine) Initiative: SAGE is a platform that facilitates access to elderly care products and services offered by credible start-ups. Way Forward: Policy Recommendations from the ‘2023 India Ageing Report’: Promote In-Situ aging: Encourage and facilitate aging at home (in-situ aging) whenever possible, allowing elderly individuals to remain within their communities and receive care and support from their families. Increase awareness of schemes: Launch awareness campaigns to inform elderly individuals about government schemes and programs designed to meet their needs, thus ensuring they have access to the necessary support. Address gender-specific challenges: Develop policies tailored to address the unique challenges faced by older women, particularly those who are widowed and dependent, to ensure their well-being and support. Focus on multigenerational households: Promote and encourage elderly individuals to live in multigenerational households, fostering better care and support within families and strengthening intergenerational bonds. Regulate old age homes: Implement regulatory measures to oversee Old Age Homes, ensuring that residents’ rights are protected, and their well-being is safeguarded. Inclusion in data collection exercises: Include relevant questions related to older persons in national data collection exercises, such as the National Sample Survey, the National Family Health Survey, and the Census of India, to gather credible data on issues affecting the elderly. Source:  PIB Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Commissions Ministry 1.     Central Board of Direct Taxes Ministry of Finance 2.     National Human Rights Commission India Ministry of Defense 3.     National Commission for Protection of Child Rights Ministry of Education How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) chairperson will hold the post for four years or until s/he attains the age of 65 years. Statement-II : CAQM has penal powers. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award, consider the following statements: It was established in 1969. It is presented by the President of India. It was first awarded to Devika Rani. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What are the various reasons for malnutrition in India? What innovative step do you suggest to reduce malnutrition in India? (250 words) Q.2) Analyse the demographic transition in India with a specific focus on the challenges and opportunities posed by the rising elderly population. How can tailored policies and support systems enhance the quality of life and well-being of the elderly? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  29th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 28th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 29th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 27th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Counter Terrorism Field Training Exercise (FTX) 2023 Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, the Indian Army Contingent departed for the ASEAN Defence Ministers Meeting (ADMM) Plus Expert Working Group (EWG) on Counter Terrorism Field Training Exercise (FTX) 2023. About Counter Terrorism Field Training Exercise (FTX) 2023:- Date: 25th to 30th September 2023. Venue: Russia. It is a multinational joint military exercise being hosted by Russia as a co-chair of the EWG along with Myanmar. (Exercise IBSAMAR) It was preceded by the Table Top Exercise of the ADMM Plus EWG on Counter-Terrorism at Nay Pyi Taw, Myanmar from 2nd to 4th August 2023. Historical Background:- Since 2017, the ADMM Plus has met annually to allow dialogue and cooperation among the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and Plus countries. The inaugural ADMM Plus was convened in Ha Noi, Vietnam on 12th October 2010. This year ASEAN member states along with Plus Group will be participating in the exercise. Objective of the exercise: strengthening and promoting regional cooperation in the field of counter-terrorism. The exercise will comprise a number of counter-terrorism drills including destroying of terrorist groups in a fortified area. ADMM Plus EWG on Counter-terrorism 2023 will provide the Indian Army with a platform to share their expertise and best practices in counter-terrorism operations. It will increase the cooperation between the other 12 participating countries. (Military Exercises) The Indian Army looks forward to an enriching professional experience from the exercise. MUST READ: 26th Exercise Malabar SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Spike in global crude oil prices Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The recent spike in global crude oil prices above the $80-per-barrel mark has contributed to petrol and diesel prices hitting all-time highs in India. Background:- Since hitting a low of $16 per barrel on 22 April 2022, the price of Brent crude oil has been rising steadily. Since the beginning of the year (2023), it has risen nearly 58% from about $51.8 per barrel to about $81 in September. The rise has been sharp over the last six weeks, from $65 per barrel on 20 August 2023. According to analysts, prices are nearing their intermediate top level of $86 per barrel, around which some cooling off is expected even though the broader trend remains rising. ( Oil Price Rise) Reasons for price rise:- Crude Oil prices have risen sharply in 2021 on the back of a recovery in global demand as the world economy recovered from the COVID-19 pandemic. Supply restrictions maintained by the OPEC+ grouping, have kept international oil prices high. These oil-producing economies have signaled slow production increases, which has led to a rise in gas prices as well. A shortage of gas in Europe and Asia has further boosted the demand for oil for power generation. Impact on India:- The rise in crude prices has contributed to petrol and diesel prices hitting all-time highs in India. Prices of petrol and diesel in India are pegged to a 15-day rolling average of the international prices of these fuels. High taxes by the central and state governments have contributed to retail prices being far higher. Analysts point out that increasing oil prices reflect growing demand in the economy, and equities often deliver more than the expected inflation that the oil surge may lead to. In line with oil, prices of other commodities including coal have been rising Impact stocks and bonds:- The BSE Basic Materials Index has risen more than three times from a low of 1,761 on April 3, 2020, to 5,725 at Wednesday’s close. This reflects the general view that economic recovery will strengthen going forward. For bonds: central bank policies will play a far greater role than the direct impact of rising oil prices. For equity investors: they can increase their exposure to upstream oil companies, which benefit from rising prices. In sectors where oil is a major cost component, a negative reaction on returns can be expected. Impact currency and the economy:- Rising crude prices tend to depress the rupee, as India being a major importer of oil needs more dollars to buy the same amount of crude. A surge in crude prices tends to increase India’s expenditure and adversely affects the fiscal deficit. MUST READ: Rising Oil Prices and Stagflation SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The term ‘West Taxes Intermediate’, sometimes found in news to a grade of (2020) Crude oil Bullion Rare earth elements Uranium Q.2) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (2018) Civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of the IAEA The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG. Nilgiri tahr Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Tamil Nadu and Kerala may soon join hands to perform a synchronized census of the Nilgiri tahr. About Nilgiri tahr:- The Nilgiri tahr is the only mountain ungulate in southern India amongst the 12 species present in India. It is also the state animal of Tamil Nadu. (Project Nilgiri Tahr) Habitat: open montane grassland habitat of the South Western Ghats montane rain forests eco-region. Distribution: It is endemic to the Nilgiri Hills and the southern portion of the Western Ghats in the states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Eravikulam National Park is home to the largest population of this Tahr. It has become locally extinct in around 14% of its traditional shola forest-grassland habitat. Unique feature: The Adult males of Nilgiri Tahr species develop a light grey area or “saddle” on their backs and are hence called “Saddlebacks” Cultural significance:- The species is locally known as Varaiaadu. There are multiple references to the Nilgiri Tahr in Tamil Sangam literature dating back to 2,000 years. The late Mesolithic (10,000-4,000 BC) paintings highlight the significance of the Tahr in folklore, culture, and life. Population decrease:- The Nilgiri tahr, which used to be found along the entire stretch of the Western Ghats. It is presently found only in small fragmented pockets. A large part of its population has been wiped out from its historical range. Threats:- Habitat loss Hunting Poaching Climate Change Invasive plants such as wattles, pines, and eucalyptus. Conservation Status:- IUCN: Endangered Wildlife (Protection) Act of India, 1972: Schedule I MUST READ: Endangered Asian elephant in Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Mewar-style painting Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, a Mewar-style Mahabharata painted by a Muslim was discovered in Udaipur, Rajasthan. Background:- A trunk in a dingy room in Udaipur’s City Palace had been sheltering thousands of miniature paintings of the Mahabharata, painted by Allah Baksh between 1680 and 1698. In The Mahabharata by Baksh, they highlight how literature undergoes constant reinterpretation through centuries and millennia. A 300-year-old text, in this Baksh’s illustrations is not a Sanskrit Mahabharata but a Rajasthani one. It is not painted by a Muslim but by a proponent of the Mewari school of thought, in such a manner that when one sees the paintings, and visualizes Mewari culture in its entirety. About Mewar-style painting:- Timeline: 17th and 18th centuries. Mewar painting is one of the most important schools of Indian miniature painting. It is a school in the Rajasthani style. It developed in the Hindu principality of Mewar (Udaipur). Salient features:- It is characterized by simple bright colour and direct emotional appeal. The earliest dated manuscript associated with the Mewar school of Rajput painting is the Chawand Ragamala series (1605), painted by the artist Nasiruddin. Most of the paintings of this series are in the collection of Shri Gopi Krishna Kanoria. The expressive and vigorous style continued with some variations through 1680 in the region, after which time Mughal influence became more apparent. An increasing number of paintings were concerned with portraiture and the life of the ruler though religious themes were popular. The Mewar school of miniature painting, is renowned for vibrant colors and intricate narratives within a single frame. These paintings provide historical insights, including details like sword storage, turban styles, and the occasions celebrated during the depicted times. (Mural Art) Famous artists of Mewari school of painting:- Allah Baksh: Allah Baksh, a notable Mewari painter during Maharana Jai Singh’s reign (1653-98), is renowned for creating comprehensive depictions of the entire Mahabharata and including every shloka of the Gita. Sahibdin: In the later half of the seventeenth century, during the reigns of Raj Singh and Jai Singh, portraiture gained prominence in Mewar. MUST READ: (Ancient rock paintings) SOURCE: THE PRINT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts: (2022) Nettipakarana Parishishtaparvan Avadanashataka Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina’s texts 1,2 and 3 2 and 4 only 1,3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Kalamkari painting refers to (2015) A hand-painted cotton textile in South India. A handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in Northeast India. A block-painted woolen cloth in the Western Himalayan region of India. A hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India. Kaobal Gali-Mushkoh Valley Syllabus Prelims – POLITY Context: The Kaobal Gali-Mushkoh Valley, the battlefield of the Kargil war, was recently, opened up for tourists. Background:- Mushkoh Valley which resounded with artillery gunfire in 1999 is on the tourist map this year. This became possible due to the 43-month-long ceasefire agreement between India and Pakistan. About Kaobal Gali-Mushkoh Valley:- Location: in Kargil’s Drass Sector, Jammu and Kashmir. It was a battlefield during the 1999 Kargil War between India and Pakistan. (Kargil Vijay Diwas) The region includes the Gurez Valley in north Kashmir, which was previously inaccessible to civilians due to shelling from Pakistan but now connects with the Mushkoh Valley in Kargil’s Drass Sector. Gurez Valley:- Kaobal Gali is the highest pass at a height of 4,167 meters in Gurez. It connects Gurez to Mushkoh Valley. River: Kishanganga River flows through the valley. The Gurez Valley is close to the Line of Control (LoC). Inhabitants: Being situated very close to the Burzil Pass, which leads into Astore, the inhabitants are ethnic Dards/Shins. They speak the Shina language and have the same styles of dress and culture as their kinsmen in Pakistani-administered Gilgit-Baltistan. The Gurez Valley, with about 38,000 residents, is already setting a record by hosting 50,000 tourists this year so far. Fauna: ibex, musk deer, and marmots, Himalayan brown bear, and snow leopard. Zumba yak (smaller than other yaks) is found in the Buduaab village, Gurez valley. Mushkoh valley:- Location: Dras (Ladakh). (Operation Sadbhavana) It is also known as the valley of wild tulips. The meadows of Mushkoh offer boisterous wild tulip flowers. The valley is also home to the endangered Himalayan yew. MUST READ: Judicial remedies for the Jammu and Kashmir net restrictions SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? (2022) To ratify the declaration of Emergency To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. India Post Payments Bank Limited (IPPB) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: India Post Payments Bank Limited (IPPB) has released admit cards for the IPPB Executive Exam 2023 recently. About India Post Payments Bank Limited (IPPB):- Launched: 2018. Governed by: Reserve Bank of India (RBI). It was launched with 100% equity owned by the Government of India. It is a payments bank of the Indian postal department. It works through a network of post offices and nearly 4 lakh postmen. Objective: to build the most accessible, affordable, and trusted bank for the common man in India. Focus group: While its services are available to all citizens, the IPPB is primarily focusing on serving social sector beneficiaries, migrant laborers, un-organized sector, Micro Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), Panchayats, low-income households, in rural areas and the unbanked and under-banked segments in both the rural and urban areas. IPPB offers services through a mix of physical and digital platforms. Functions of IPPB:- It accepts deposits and offers remittance services, mobile banking, and third-party fund transfers. It offers 3 types of saving accounts: Regular Account – Safal, Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA) – Sugam and BSBDA Small – Saral The maximum limit on deposits for current and savings accounts is Rs 1 lakh. The bank offers a 4% interest rate on savings accounts. They can issue debit cards and ATM cards. It cannot issue credit cards. It cannot loan money. It provides social security payments like MNREGA wages, and direct benefit transfer and gives access to third-party services insurance, and mutual funds. IPPB account holders will be issued a QR code-based biometric card with a unique QR code. Significance:- IPPB is committed to providing a fillip to a less cash economy and contributing to the vision of Digital India. MUST READ: India Post Payments Bank SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centers. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Regarding DigiLocker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under the Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 OSIRIS-REx Syllabus Prelims –SPACE Context: NASA’s asteroid-hunting spacecraft OSIRIS-REx brought back asteroid fragments on the Earth recently. About OSIRIS-Rex:- Launched on: Sept. 8, 2016. Launched y: NASA. OSIRIS-REx – short for Origins-Spectral Interpretation-Resource Identification-Security-Regolith Explorer. It was the first U.S. mission to collect a sample from an asteroid. The OSIRIS-REx mission is essentially a seven-year-long voyage. It was meant to explore asteroid Bennu. The spacecraft contains five instruments including cameras, a spectrometer, and a laser altimeter. The spacecraft arrived at Bennu in December 2018. It surveyed the asteroid for more than two years. Bennu is an ancient asteroid, currently more than 200 million miles from Earth. The asteroid was discovered by a team from the NASA-funded Lincoln Near-Earth Asteroid Research team in 1999. It offers scientists a window into the early solar system as it was first taking shape billions of years ago and tossing ingredients that could have helped seed life on Earth. On 20, 2020, the spacecraft collected a sample from the asteroid and stowed it in its sample return capsule. The pristine material from Bennu – rocks and dust collected from the asteroid’s surface will offer generations of scientists a window into the time when the Sun and planets were forming about 4.5 billion years ago. MUST READ: Exoplanets SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Mains: Production-Linked Incentives (PLI) Schemes and its Implications Syllabus Mains – Governance Context: According to the recent study conducted by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI), despite the production-linked incentive scheme, manufacturing telecom hardware in India is 12-13% costlier than China. Indian Networking and Telecom Equipment Manufacturing (NATEM) companies face relative cost disability up to 13.32% in comparison to the companies operating in China and up to 22% in comparison to the companies operating in Vietnam. In case PLI benefits are not considered, the relative cost disability goes further up by at least 4%. TRAI observed that China offers programmes like “High- and New-Technology Enterprise (HNTE)” and “Made in China 2025” that provide multiple benefits to companies engaged in technological fields, including electronics production. But In India, subsidy schemes focus on providing incentives on the number of finished goods produced. The regulatory authority has recommended the Union government to move beyond the PLI schemes. About Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI): The PLI scheme was conceived to scale up domestic manufacturing capability, accompanied by higher import substitution and employment generation. Launched: March 2020 Initially targeted three industries but later it was extended to 14 sectors: Mobile and allied Component Manufacturing Electrical Component Manufacturing and Medical Devices. Targeted Sectors: The 14 sectors are mobile manufacturing, manufacturing of medical devices, automobiles and auto components, pharmaceuticals, drugs, specialty steel, telecom & networking products, electronic products, white goods (ACs and LEDs), food products, textile products, solar PV modules, advanced chemistry cell (ACC) battery, and drones and drone components. Salient features of the scheme: Output-oriented: The schemes are output-oriented rather than input-based. They reward manufacturers for increasing their production and sales rather than for investing in capital or infrastructure. Time-bound: The schemes are time-bound and have a sunset clause. They are valid for a period of five to six years depending on the sector. Performance-based: The schemes are performance-based and have a graded incentive structure. The incentive rate varies according to the category of the manufacturer (domestic or foreign), the level of value addition, the type of product and the year of operation. Flexible: The schemes are flexible and allow manufacturers to choose their own base year, investment plan and production targets within the prescribed guidelines. Aligned with the national priorities: The schemes are aligned with the national priorities and strategic sectors. They aim to reduce import dependence, promote innovation and R&D, create employment opportunities and enhance India’s share in the global value chain. Significance achievements of the PLI Scheme: Increased export growth: Under the PLI scheme, sectors such as electronics, automobiles, pharmaceuticals, white goods, and textiles have witnessed significant growth in exports. For example, exports of electronic goods increased by 57.36 percent during March 2023 at USD 2.86 Billion as compared to USD 1.82 Billion in March 2022. Employment creation: The PLI scheme has played a crucial role in generating employment opportunities across sectors. For example, the drone manufacturing sector alone is expected to create more than 10,000 direct jobs, while the textile sector is estimated to create over 7.5 lakh additional jobs Incremental production and investments: The PLI scheme has stimulated incremental production and investments in targeted sectors. It is expected to bring in incremental investment of Rs 7,920 crore and incremental production worth Rs 1,68,000 crore. Attracting investments: The PLI scheme has successfully attracted both domestic and foreign investments in various sectors. Companies have shown interest in setting up manufacturing facilities in India to leverage the incentives provided by the scheme. For instance, The 20 automobile companies have proposed a total investment of around Rs. 45,000 crores (US$ 5.95 billion). Improving India’s Global Manufacturing Rankings: India’s efforts towards manufacturing growth, including the PLI scheme, have been recognized globally. India secured second position after China in the Global Manufacturing Risk Index 2021, reflecting the progress made in the manufacturing sector. Contribution to GDP: The PLI scheme is expected to have a positive impact on India’s GDP. It is estimated to add 1.7% to the country’s GDP by 2027, generating significant economic growth and contributing to overall prosperity. Challenges associated with the schemes: Lack of a Centralized Database: The lack of a centralized database that captures information like increase in production or exports, number of new jobs created etc. make the evaluation process an administrative complexities. This information ambiguity impacts transparency and can lead to malfeasance, further widening the fault lines and weakening the policy structure. Coordinated approach: The schemes require a coordinated approach among various ministries, departments, agencies and stakeholders to avoid duplication, overlap or conflict of policies and regulations. The government needs to harmonize the PLI schemes with other existing or proposed schemes such as Make in India, Digital India, Startup India, etc. Supportive ecosystem: The schemes require a supportive ecosystem of infrastructure, logistics, finance, skilling and market access to enable the manufacturers to scale up their production and exports. The government needs to address the bottlenecks and gaps in these areas through reforms and investments. Dynamic and responsive design: The schemes require a dynamic and responsive design to adapt to the changing market conditions and consumer preferences. The government needs to review and revise the PLI schemes periodically based on feedback from the manufacturers and other stakeholders. WTO Constraints: WTO rules prevent India from tying PLI subsidies to domestic value addition. Although India’s aspiration to make chips is sound, chips are complex components. The absence of significant domestic value addition likely stems from these constraints. Way Forward: The PLI schemes are a bold and ambitious step by the Govt to revitalize the manufacturing sector and make India a global hub for production and innovation thereby promoting employment generation, increase exports and decrease imports. Therefore the success of these schemes depends on their effective implementation and coordination among various actors. If done well, these schemes can transform India’s economic landscape and create a new wave of growth and development. Source:   The Wire Role of Sports in the Soft Power Race Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International relations) Context: The day before the opening of 19th Asian Games, Union Sports Minister Anurag Thakur cancelled his visit to China as a mark of protest to the last-minute denial of entry to three Indian Wushu players from Arunachal Pradesh. The three athletes — Nyeman Wangsu, Onilu Tega and Mepung Lamgu — were given the accreditation needed to travel along with the rest of the Indian team for the Games. About soft power: Joseph Nye Jr., a political scientist coined the term soft power in 1980s. Unlike in case of military hard power, it is the power of attraction through culture, political ideas, and policies rather than coercion. Over the years, India has been wielding its soft power in the form of Yoga, Bollywood, Sufi music and the shared heritage in art, cuisine, architecture and even democratic values. In the recent years, countries, including India, have been investing more in elite sports as success in international sporting events is boosting their soft power. Significance of sports in the soft power race: The survey of French citizens’ perception of Chinese performance in the Olympics, by Professor Dongfeng Liu, showed that the country’s sporting achievements had a positive effect on Chinese soft power in 2020. Despite this, countries like China, Russia and North Korea aren’t able to garner a completely positive perception as a consequence of their human rights record. Hence, brand building is a very difficult task for such countries. Large sports events generate massive viewership, providing a platform for the countries to showcase their tradition, culture and values. For instance, the Tokyo Olympic Games was watched by more than 3.05 billion people– a 74% increase in digital viewers compared to Rio Games 2016. This shows that there is a great opportunity in using such events as a platform to boost soft power. Sports as brand for soft power: A strong nation brand and positive soft power perceptions allow a nation to promote itself as a place for people to visit, invest in, and build a reputation for their quality of goods and services. Scope for domestic sector: The soft power can encourage domestic tourism, consumption of domestic goods and services (rather than imports). China’s soft power through sports: China uses its superiority in elite sports to build “people-to-people” relations with other countries. For example, athletes from African countries such as Madagascar are trained in swimming, badminton, table tennis, etc. in China, which helps Beijing create a positive impact on a wider population and results in better formal relations as well. China’s memorandum of understanding with countries such as Kenya so that Chinese runners can train with Kenyan athletes, as they are among the best in the world when it comes to long-distance running. India’s tortoise-like walk due to various reasons: Poor population-to-medal Talley: India’s medal tally in the Tokyo Olympics Games seven was its most decorated Olympic Games in Indian history. India has won 35 medals at the Olympics since the 1900 edition. But as of 2022, China has finished first in the Summer Olympics once, second three times, third twice and third once in the Winter Olympics. Low exposure at the school level: Professional engagement in sports is hampered by the relatively low and scant exposure of Indians to sports at the elementary school level. Need for a favourable atmosphere: In 2016, a NITI Aayog report came up with a 20-point plan to improve India’s Olympics performance. The report said India still lacks a favourable atmosphere for sports to polish the skills of early-stage athletes. It recommended efforts to be made at the family, community school, regional academies, and State and national levels to improve things. Funding: Ensuring competent coaches, and having adequate funding and more sports academics remain major issues even decades later. A reply in Parliament (2018) said that India spends only three paise per day per capita on sports. In contrast, China spends ₹6.1 per day per capita. Government Initiatives for the development sports in the country: Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) was launched by the Ministry of Sports in 2014. It seeks to improve Indian athletes’ performance at the Olympic and Paralympics Games. NITI Aayog recommendations: The Government should work on a public-private partnership (PPP) model to create basic sporting infrastructure at the district level so that talent can be captured at an early stage. Way Forward: The soft power is a means to an end, not the end itself. It would help cement India’s standing in the global arena. It is always important to remember that sports are primarily intended to be a universal language of communication, uniting continents, and different peoples of the world. This means that it is necessary to realize the powerful potential of “sports diplomacy”. The Government should work on a public-private partnership (PPP) model to create basic sporting infrastructure at the district level to capture young talents at an early stage. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: EXERCISE Countries 1.JIMEX Japan-India 2.Sampriti India & Sri Lanka 3.Yudh Abhyas India & Indonesia How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: India Post Payment Bank (IPPB) cannot loan money. Statement-II: It can issue credit cards. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Nilgiri tahr, consider the following statements: It is listed as Endangered under the IUCN red list. It is the state animal of Karnataka. It is endemic to the Himalayas. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Critically analyse the Production Linked Incentive Schemes which was launched to boost domestic manufacturing and attract foreign investments in various sectors. (250 words) Q.2) How can sport be used as a tool of soft power in modern international relations? Suggest some measures to increase India’s sporting performance and soft power. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  27th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 26th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – d

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What is the recipe for success? Is it just one element? Or a combination of many ingredients? At the same time, we can also agree to the fact that while some ingredients might get added or reduced at certain times, there are some which are mandatory to go in. If we talk in the context of being successful in cracking the Civil Services Examination of India, there’s more than one which is critical for success. Don’t you agree? Let us also pay attention to the famous and unescapable 80:20 Rule: 80% of your success depends on 20% of your efforts We will add FOUR more points to it: Put in the right direction.Doing the right thingsAt the right timeWith the right guidance/mentorship! This brings us to the core ingredients that we want to talk to you about, that will help you reap rich dividends if applied effectively – The Importance of Practicing + The Magic of Mentorship Imagine… The streets of Mukherjee Nagar. The streets of Rajinder Nager. In fact all the streets where CSE aspirants can be found strolling. Do you think they are not enrolled in multiple test series? But are they paying attention? Difficult question to answer. But the results are visible. We know that you know the obvious. As your well-wishers and guide, we just wanted to remind you of what you already know. This is to make sure that you act upon it and not commit the same mistake again and again. There’s absolutely no escaping from practicing. 20% of your daily time towards practicing answer writing will contribute 80% towards your final success in the examination. So, where do you reckon your focus should be? PRACTICING, YES! Like those net practices of our cricketers. They are all amazing cricketers but they show up daily to become better than they were yesterday.  Brace up! Your journey is going to be no different! Do we have this Net-Practicing facility at IASbaba? Yes! (Should you even ask?!!)  So, there are two latest grounds that we have created for your Net-Practicing: GROUND 1: TLP CONNECT 2024 (Prelims + Mains + Interview) INTEGRATED Mentorship Based Programme GROUND 2: TLP PLUS(+) 2024 MAINS Mentorship Based Programme (OFFLINE and ONLINE) Click Here To Read Complete Details Of The Programme