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(PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)
Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (Bharat NCAP)
Syllabus
Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES
Context: Recently, the first round of crash testing under the Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (Bharat-NCAP) was completed.
Background:-
Tata Motors’ home-grown sports utility vehicles (SUV) Tata Safari and Tata Harrier have received the highest five-star ratings after being crash-tested under the Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (Bharat-NCAP).
They are the first two cars to have received the highest ratings for adult occupant protection and child occupant protection, under the new system.
About Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (Bharat NCAP):-
Launched:2023.
Implementation: October 1, 2023.
Ministry: Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
Objectives: to enhance road safety by elevating vehicle safety standards for up to 3.5-tonne vehicles in India.
Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (Bharat NCAP) is a new car safety assessment program which proposes a mechanism of awarding ‘Star Ratings’ to automobiles based on their performance in crash tests.
Bharat NCAP standard is aligned with global benchmarks and it is beyond minimum regulatory requirements.
It is a safety assessment program for passenger vehicles weighing less than 3.5 tonnes and capable of seating up to eight people.
Salient Features of Bharat NCAP:-
It proposes a mechanism of awarding ‘Star Ratings’ to automobiles based on their performance in crash tests.
The voluntary Bharat NCAP would assign vehicles between one and five stars on parameters such as Adult Occupant Protection (AOP), Child Occupant Protection (COP), and Safety Assist Technologies (SAT).
This will help assess to what extent a car may suffer damage in the event of an
Potential car buyers can refer to these star ratings to decide which car to buy by comparing the safety standards.
Bharat NCAP standard is aligned with global benchmarks and it is beyond minimum regulatory requirements.
The testing of vehicles for this programme will be carried out at testing agencies, with the necessary infrastructure.
Benefits of NCAP:
Develop a safety-sensitive car market in India.
Consumer Awareness.
Enhanced Safety and Export Potential.
Making the Indian automobile industry self-reliant. (Atmanirbhar Bharat 3.0)
MUST READ: Electric Vehicles
SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
Q.1) Consider the following actions: (2023)
Detection of car crash/ collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously.
Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off
of the hard drive.
Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode.
In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required?
Only one
Only two
All three
None
Q.2) Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022)
Cloud Services
Quantum Computing
Visible Light Communication Technologies
Wireless Communication Technologies
COVID sub-variant JN.1
Syllabus
Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY/GOVERNANCE
Context: Recently, India reported 21 cases of COVID sub-variant JN.1, now a WHO ‘variant of interest’.
Background:-
We need to be on the alert, but there is no need to panic, says Union Health Minister Mansukh Mandaviya.
About COVID sub-variant JN.1:-
Previously JN.1 was classified and tracked as part of its parent BA.2.86 lineage, which itself is a descendant of the Omicron or B.1.1.529 variant of SARS-CoV-2, the virus causing COVID-19 disease.
In comparison with its parent lineage BA.2.86, JN.1 has an additional mutation (the L455S mutation) in the spike protein.
Spread:1 has been found in many countries, including India, China, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
WHO said that based on the currently available data, “the additional global public health risk posed by JN.1 is currently evaluated as low.” (Vaccine Development for COVID-19)
Transmission: Currently, there is no evidence suggesting that JN.1 causes more severe symptoms or spreads faster than other circulating variants.
Risk: Most JN.1 variant cases have been mild, with patients recovering at home.
Symptoms:-
Classic symptoms of the JN.1 variant include fever, runny nose, sore throat, headache, and gastrointestinal issues like diarrhea and stomach cramps.
Extreme fatigue is reported among individuals with the JN.1 variant.
Loss of smell has been noted in some cases…. Read more at: https://www.studyiq.com/articles/covid-sub-variants/
Both Pirola and JN.1 have been effectively neutralized by serum from infected and vaccinated individuals, according to the WHO Technical Advisory Group on COVID-19 Vaccine Composition.
Variants of concern (VOCs):-
The classification of JN.1 as a separate variant of interest (VOI) is down to “its rapidly increasing spread” around the globe.
WHO updated its working definitions for variants of concern (VOCs), VOIs, and variants under monitoring (VUMs) in March 2023.
According to the definition, a VOI variant is considered a SARS-CoV-2 variant with genetic changes that are predicted or known to affect virus characteristics such as transmissibility, virulence, antibody evasion, susceptibility to therapeutics, and detectability.
Further, VOI variants are identified to have a growth advantage over other circulating variants in more than one WHO region, with increasing relative prevalence alongside an increasing number of cases over time.
COVID sub-variant JN.1 in India:-
Following the identification of the first case of the Coronavirus sub-variant JN.1 in Kerala, several states in India have witnessed a surge in Covid cases.
Insacog, the central government’s consortium of labs, detected 19 sequences of the JN.1 variant, with one cases in Maharashtra and Goa. (Smart Cities & Managing COVID-19)
The Union Health Ministry reported 614 new coronavirus infections, marking the highest since May 21, and the active cases have risen to 2,311.
The India SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG), a multi-laboratory and multi-agency network, is actively involved in surveillance efforts.
MUST READ: iNCOVACC
SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022)
The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform.
The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform.
COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: (2021)
Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines.
Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Enforcement Directorate (ED)
Syllabus
Prelims –POLITY/ IMPORTANT ORGANIZATIONS
Context: Recently, the Enforcement Directorate (ED) has summoned Bihar Deputy Chief Minister Tejashwi Yadav for questioning in connection with job-for-land scam.
Background:-
He has been asked to appear before the probe agency’s Delhi office to record his statements under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).
About Prevention of Money Laundering Act(PMLA):-
It is a criminal law of the Parliament of India passed by the NDA government in 2002
PMLA became law and came into force on July 1, 2005.
It has blanket powers assigned to the Enforcement Directorate (ED) under PMLA for seizing, investing, searching and attaching assets.
It was introduced due to India’s commitment at the Vienna Convention to combat money laundering. (Supreme Court verdict on PMLA)
The PMLA is applicable to all persons which include individuals, companies, firms, partnership firms, associations of persons or incorporations and any agency, office or branch owned or controlled by any of the above-mentioned persons.
About Enforcement Directorate (ED):-
Establishment: 1956.
Ministry: Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
Headquarters: New Delhi.
The Enforcement Directorate is a multi-disciplinary organization
It is a law enforcement organization tasked with enforcing economic laws and combating economic crime in India, such as money laundering and foreign exchange irregularities.
Functions:-
The functions of the Directorate include the enforcement of the following Acts:-
The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) (Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) 2002)
The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA): A civil law under which ED conducts an investigation into suspected contraventions of foreign exchange laws and regulations. (Foreign Exchange Management Act)
The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act 1973
Sponsoring Organizations under the 1974 Foreign Exchange Conservation and Smuggling Activity Prevention Act
The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA): A law whereby the Directorate is mandated to attach the properties of fugitive economic offenders who have escaped from India warranting arrest and providing for the confiscation of their properties to the Central Government.
Structure:-
Director of Enforcement:-
Appointed by the central government on the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Central Vigilance Commissioner and members comprising of Vigilance Commissioners, Home Secretary, Secretary DOPT and Revenue Secretary.
Tenure: up to 5 years.
Recruitment of other officers:-
Other officers may be recruited directly from other investigative agencies or indirectly.
It is made up of representatives from the police, excise, customs, and income tax departments of the Indian Revenue Services (IRS), the Indian Police Services (IPS), and the Indian Administrative Services (IAS).
Powers of ED:-
Statements recorded before an ED investigation officer (IO) are admissible as evidence in court under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).
All offences under the PMLA, which the ED deals with, are classified as non-bailable.
Individuals in ED custody are sent to the nearest police station’s lock-up, irrespective of their status.
Once the ED attaches properties belonging to an accused, it can be a lengthy and challenging process to retrieve those assets.
Unlike regular criminal law, under the PMLA, the burden of proof lies with the accused rather than the prosecutor.
Accused individuals are required to furnish proof in their defence, making it harder to deal with the ED’s investigations
MUST READ: CBI and ED
SOURCE: AIR
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019)
As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
Q.2) With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act), consider the following statements: (2017)
A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
Karrar Combat Drones
Syllabus
Prelims – DEFENSE/ INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
Context: Recently, Iran unveiled advanced Karrar combat drones.
Background:-
The drones were showcased during a ceremony at the Khatam Al-Anbia Air Defence Academy.
About Karrar Combat Drones:-
The Karrar interceptor drone, was initially introduced in 2010.
It now incorporates the ‘Majid’ thermal missile, which reportedly has an eight-kilometre range.
This missile was developed entirely within Iran.
It is an Iranian jet-powered target drone manufactured by Iran Aircraft Manufacturing Industrial Company (HESA).
The Karrar features a small, clipped delta wing, a cylindrical, blunt-nosed fuselage, and twin arrowhead-shaped tailfins.
It has a dorsal air intake for the engine and utilizes a rocket-assist system for takeoff, recovered by a parachute.
It is capable of high and low altitude flight, day and night operation.
It’s purported to have an autopilot system with INS and/or GPS guidance. (Import Ban on Drones)
The Karrar can carry a range of armaments, including bombs like the Mk 82 general-purpose bomb, anti-ship missile.
MUST READ: MQ-9B predator Drone
SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022)
A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its.
Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:
PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct.? (2018)
1 only
2 and 3
1 and 2
3 only
Valmiki Tiger reserve
Syllabus
Prelims –GEOGRAPHY/ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY
Context: Reduced human activity, including mining bans, helped increase tiger numbers in Valmiki Tiger reserve as per recent data.
Background:-
Authorities in Bihar’s Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR) have credited the rise in the protected area (PA)’s big cat numbers to a reduction in human activities, including restrictions on illegal mining in its eco-sensitive zone.
About Valmiki Tiger reserve:-
IMAGE SOURCE: wpsi-india.org
Location: Bihar.
Valmiki Tiger Reserve forms the easternmost limit of the Himalayan Terai forests in India.
In 1990, Valmiki National Park was established.
It is the only tiger reserve in Bihar.
It is situated in the Gangetic Plains bio-geographic zone of the country; the forest has a combination of Bhabar and terai tracts.
It lies in the northwestern portion of the West Champaran district of Bihar.
Wild mammals found in the forests of Valmiki Tiger Reserve include tiger, sloth bear, leopard, wild dog, bison, wild boar, etc.
Flora: The vegetation types include mainly Moist mixed deciduous, Open-land vegetation, Sub-mountainous semi-evergreen formation, Freshwater swamps, Riparian fringes, Alluvial grasslands, high hill savannah and Wetlands.
In 1978, it was designated as a Wildlife Sanctuary.
The Sanctuary’s total area is approximately 545.15 km2.
MUST READ: Kali Tiger Reserve
SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
Q.1) Two important rivers — one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another, with its source in Odisha — merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of the Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area.
Which one of the following could be this? (2011)
Bhitarkanika
Chandipur-on-sea
Gopalpur-on-sea
Simlipal
Q.2) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? (2020)
Corbett
Ranthambore
Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
Sunderbans
Wrestling Federation of India
Syllabus
Prelims –IMPORTANT ORGANIZATIONS/SPORTS
Context: Recently, Sanjay Singh has been elected the new president of the Wrestling Federation of India (WFI).
Background:-
He was elected after the results of election of office bearers, in which he got 40 votes.
About Wrestling Federation of India:-
HQ: New Delhi.
The WFI is the apex body for wrestling in India.
It organizes all national and international wrestling events in India.
It promotes wrestling players for the Olympics, Asian Games, National Wrestling Championships, and World Wrestling Championships.
WFI’s Contract System for Wrestlers:
In 2018, the WFI rolled out its revolutionary contracts system for the grapplers.Under the system, the wrestlers have been placed in four grades: –
Grade A offers financial assistance of 30 lakh rupees;
Grade B offers a financial assistance of 20 lakh rupees;
The C category offers support of 10 lakh rupees;
The D category offers support of 5 lakh rupees.
The contracts are reviewed after one year.
It is recognized by the Government of India and the Indian Olympic Association.
It organizes various national and international wrestling events, such as the Pro Wrestling League, the National Wrestling Championship, and the Asian Championships.
MUST READ: Sports Code
SOURCE: AIR
PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000:
American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award
The award was received by Formula One players so far.
Roger Federer received this award the maximum number of times compared to others.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021)
1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics:
The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’.
Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021)
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 and 2
Practice MCQs
Daily Practice MCQs
Q1) Consider the following pairs:
TIGER RESERVE
STATE
Kanha Tiger Reserve
Madhya Pradesh
Melghat Tiger Reserve
Chhattisgarh
Indravati Tiger Reserve
Maharashtra
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Only one
Only two
All three
None
Q2) Consider the following statements
Statement-I :
In 1990, Valmiki National Park was established.
Statement-II :
It is the only tiger reserve in Bihar.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Q3) With reference to Karrar Combat Drones, consider the following statements:
This missile was developed by the USA.
It was initially introduced in 2020.
It is capable of day and night operation.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
3 only
Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!
ANSWERS FOR ’ 22nd December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st
ANSWERS FOR 21st December – Daily Practice MCQs
Answers- Daily Practice MCQs
Q.1) – b
Q.2) – d
Q.3) – a