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What is the recipe for success? Is it just one element? Or a combination of many ingredients? At the same time, we can also agree to the fact that while some ingredients might get added or reduced at certain times, there are some which are mandatory to go in. If we talk in the context of being successful in cracking the Civil Services Examination of India, there’s more than one which is critical for success. Don’t you agree? Let us also pay attention to the famous and unescapable 80:20 Rule: 80% of your success depends on 20% of your efforts We will add FOUR more points to it: Put in the right direction.Doing the right thingsAt the right timeWith the right guidance/mentorship! This brings us to the core ingredients that we want to talk to you about, that will help you reap rich dividends if applied effectively – The Importance of Practicing + The Magic of Mentorship Imagine… The streets of Mukherjee Nagar. The streets of Rajinder Nager. In fact all the streets where CSE aspirants can be found strolling. Do you think they are not enrolled in multiple test series? But are they paying attention? Difficult question to answer. But the results are visible. We know that you know the obvious. As your well-wishers and guide, we just wanted to remind you of what you already know. This is to make sure that you act upon it and not commit the same mistake again and again. There’s absolutely no escaping from practicing. 20% of your daily time towards practicing answer writing will contribute 80% towards your final success in the examination. So, where do you reckon your focus should be? PRACTICING, YES! Like those net practices of our cricketers. They are all amazing cricketers but they show up daily to become better than they were yesterday.  Brace up! Your journey is going to be no different! Do we have this Net-Practicing facility at IASbaba? Yes! (Should you even ask?!!)  So, there are two latest grounds that we have created for your Net-Practicing: GROUND 1: TLP CONNECT 2024 (Prelims + Mains + Interview) INTEGRATED Mentorship Based Programme GROUND 2: TLP PLUS(+) 2024 MAINS Mentorship Based Programme (OFFLINE and ONLINE) Click Here To Read Complete Details Of The Programme

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, ‘Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve’ became Madhya Pradesh’s 7th protected habitat for big cats. About Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve:- Location: Damoh and Narsinghpur districts of Madhya Pradesh. Area: 2,339 square kilometers. Naming: It is named after Rani Durgavati, a queen of the Gondi people. Rivers: Some areas of the reserve are situated in the Narmada and Yamuna River basins. Culture: The Singorgarh Fort can be found inside the reserve. Vegetation: Dry deciduous type. Flora: The chief floral elements include Teak, Saja, Dhaora, Ber, Amla, etc. Fauna:- The sanctuary provides a habitat for a wide variety of mammals, totaling 18 different species. (Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS)) These include notable creatures such as leopard, wolf, the elusive jackal, the swift Indian fox, the fascinating striped hyena, and the adorable sloth bear. In addition to these captivating mammals, the sanctuary also serves as a residence for many species of birds, fish, reptiles, and amphibians. Significance: – It is the seventh tiger reserve in Madhya Pradesh. (Importance of Tiger Conservation) It will encompass areas within the Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary and Durgavati Wildlife Sanctuary. A green corridor linking Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR) with Durgavati will be developed for the natural movement of the tiger to the new reserve. MUST READ: Buddhist caves, temples in Madhya Pradesh’s Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements? (2018) The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act 2006. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given habitat rights. The Union Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The term M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of (2017) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna Maintenance of Tiger Reservoirs Indigenous Satellite Navigation System Security of National Highways JPM GBI-EM Global Diversified Index Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: India will be included in the JPM GBI-EM Global Diversified Index as of  June 2024. Background:- JP Morgan Chase & Co has announced that it will include Indian government bonds in its emerging markets bond index from 28 June 2024. The move can potentially attract about $25 billion into the country, as per analyst estimates. Its ultimate weight will likely reach the 10% cap, which will be scaled in at 1% per month. The inclusion will be phased over 10 months till March 31, 2025. Implications of the move:- Currently, foreign investors own two percent of Indian debt, a number which could more than double after the next inclusion. Indian bonds are expected to account for ten percent of the index once included. The inclusion would result in index tracking managers allocating money to India, which is expected to be in tens of billions of dollars. This could be a push factor to prompt foreign inflows into India and foreign investors are likely to be more active in the Indian fixed-income market. Experts believe the move is likely to bring down the cost of borrowing for the government. It will support the Indian rupee and bond markets, and improve the country’s credit rating. About JPM GBI-EM Global Diversified Index:- The Government Bond Index-Emerging Markets (GBI-EM) is a widely tracked index in the global financial market. It comprises government bonds issued by emerging market countries. (Government bonds for NRIs) These countries can differ significantly in terms of their economic development, creditworthiness, and the size of their bond markets. Investment decisions and portfolio allocations in the emerging market debt space are often guided by this index. The index is maintained by prominent financial institutions, including JPMorgan. The J.P. Morgan ESG EMBI Global Diversified Investment Grade Index (JESG EMBI IG) tracks liquid, US Dollar emerging market fixed and floating-rate debt instruments issued by sovereign and quasi-sovereign entities. The index applies an ESG scoring and screening methodology to tilt toward issuers ranked higher on ESG criteria and green bond issues, and to underweight and remove issuers that rank lower. The JESG EMBI IG is based on the established flagship J.P. Morgan EMBI. Global Diversified Index tracks instruments that are classified as investment grade (IG). The GBI-EM index is not static, it undergoes periodic updates. These updates ensure that the index remains relevant and up-to-date. Significance:- It plays a crucial role in shaping international capital flows. It serves as a benchmark for global investors to assess the performance of these bonds. Benefits:- Access to Global Capital. Boost to International Capital Markets. Increased Investor Confidence. (Bond Yields) Diversification of Funding Sources. Challenges:- Outflows from Other Countries. Currency Risk Management. Taxation Policies. MUST READ: Green Bonds SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements (2022) As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Unified Registration Portal for GOBARdhan Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNANCE Context: The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation has introduced a Unified Registration Portal for GOBARdhan recently. About Unified Registration Portal for GOBARdhan:- IMAGE SOURCE: nic.in Launched: 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Objective: to streamline the registration of Compressed Bio-Gas and biogas plants nationwide. The portal is gobardhan.co.in This portal acts as a data repository for different activities of Gobardhan. It enables monitoring of the progress of the Programme. It provides real-time tracking, ensuring transparency & and social accountability of the scheme. According to the guidelines, Market Development Assistance of 1500 rupees per metric tonne will be granted for the sale of Fermented Organic Manure or Liquid Fermented Organic Manure, or phosphate-rich organic Manure produced at biogas and compressed biogas plants under the GOBARdhan initiative. Eligibility:- Anyone who operates or intends to set up a biogas/ CBG/ Bio CNG plant in India can obtain a registration number by registering in this unified registration portal. The registration number is required to avail of benefits/ support from other Ministries/ Departments. Significance: The GOBARdhan initiative will get a boost as these new guidelines will turbocharge the uptake of organic fertilizer produced from the plants.  About GOBAR-Dhan Scheme: Launched: 2018. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Objective: to augment the income of farmers by converting biodegradable waste into compressed biogas (CBG). Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources (GOBAR)-Dhan was launched by the Government of India as a part of the biodegradable waste management component under the Swachh Bharat Mission-Gramin. It covers the entire gamut of schemes/programmes/policies promoting the conversion of organic waste like cattle dung/ agri-residue etc. to biogas/ CBG/ Bio CNG. The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Ministry of Jal Shakti is the coordinating department for GOBARdhan. Focus areas of GOBAR-Dhan: to keep villages clean, increase the income of rural households, and generate energy and organic manure from cattle waste. MUST READ: One District One Product(ODOP) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements (2018) The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Borlaug Award Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT AWARDS Context: Indian agriculture scientist Swati Nayak won the Borlaug Award recently. Background:- Fondly called “Bihana Didi” (Seed Lady) by local communities in Odisha, Indian agriculture scientist Swati Nayak became the third Indian agriculture scientist to win the prestigious Norman E. Borlaug Award for 2023. She received the award for introducing drought-tolerant rice in Odisha. Contribution of Swati Nayak’s work:- She is the South Asia head for Seed System and Product Management at the International Rice Research Institute (IRRI). Her work has been on “technology scaling” or closing the gap between scientific knowledge and its practical application among farmers. She is credited with the successful dissemination and adoption of more than 20 climate-resilient and bio-fortified rice varieties. Among these are ‘Sahbhagi Dhan’, a drought-tolerant variety suitable for hilly uplands, and ‘BINA Dhan-11’, which is flood-tolerant. She introduced ‘Sahbhagi Dhan’ in the tribal belt of Odisha’s Mayurbhanj district with the help of women farmers. ‘Sahbhagi Dhan’ has become a much in-demand variety throughout Odisha. ‘BINA-Dhan-11’, which contains a submergence-tolerant Sub1 gene identified from an indigenous land race of Odisha, was a similar success. The Sub1 gene has been incorporated into many existing popular high-yielding varieties such as ‘Samba Mahsuri’, ‘Swarna’, and ‘Ranjit’. About Borlaug Award:- Duration: It is presented every year in October. Venue: Des Moines, Iowa, USA. Presented by: World Food Prize Foundation. It is endowed by the Rockefeller Foundation. The award is given to exceptional scientists under 40 working in the field of food and nutrition security, and hunger eradication. It is given in memory of the Nobel awardee and Green Revolution’s chief architect Dr. Norman Borlaug. Norman Ernest Borlaug: an American agronomist who led initiatives worldwide that contributed to the extensive increases in agricultural production termed the Green Revolution. Borlaug was often called “the father of the Green Revolution”. Decoration:- The award diploma incorporates the image of Dr. Borlaug at work in the fields of Mexico. Cash prize of $10,000. Other Indian recipients:- Aditi Mukherji (2012) and Mahalingam Govindaraj (2022). MUST READ: Gandhi Mandela Award SOURCE: BUSINESSLINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 World Rhino Day 2023 Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: The World Rhino Day 2023 was celebrated recently. Background:- The World Rhino Day is observed on 22nd September every year. About World Rhino Day 2023:- Date: 22th September. Objective: to spread awareness for all five species of rhino and the work being done to save them. Historical Background: It was first announced by WWF-South Africa in 2010. This special day provides the opportunity for cause-related organizations, NGOs, zoos, and members of the public to celebrate rhinos in their own unique ways. The scientific name and conservation status of the five species are: – Javan Rhinos (Rhinoceros sondaicus): Critically Endangered Sumatran rhinos (Dicerorhinus sumatrensis): Critically Endangered Black rhinos (Diceros bicornis): Critically Endangered White rhinos (Ceratotherium simum): Near Threatened (Southern white rhino) Greater One-Horned Rhinos (Rhinoceros unicornis): Vulnerable About Indian One-Horned Rhino:- The greater one-horned rhino (or “Indian rhino”) is the largest of the rhino species. Distribution: Nepal, Bhutan, Pakistan, and Assam, India. The greater one-horned rhino is identified by a single black horn about 8-25 inches long and a grey-brown hide with skin folds, which gives it an armour-plated appearance. The species is solitary, except when adult males or rhinos nearing adulthood gather at wallows or to graze. Food: They primarily graze, with a diet consisting almost entirely of grasses as well as leaves, branches of shrubs and trees, fruit, and aquatic plants. Conservation Status:- IUCN Red List: Vulnerable. CITES: Appendix-I. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I. Threats:- Poaching for the horns Habitat loss Population density Decreasing Genetic diversity Conservation Efforts by India:- New Delhi Declaration on Asian Rhinos 2019: India, Bhutan, Nepal, Indonesia, and Malaysia have signed a declaration for the conservation and protection of the species. DNA profiles of all rhinos. National Rhino Conservation Strategy: It was launched in 2019 to conserve the greater one-horned rhinoceros. Indian Rhino Vision 2020: It was an ambitious effort to attain a wild population of at least 3,000 greater one-horned rhinos spread over seven protected areas in the Indian state of Assam by the year 2020. MUST READ: Rhino population up by 200 in Kaziranga SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Hirakud dam Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: The Odisha government recently, announced a plan to rehabilitate those displaced by the construction of the Hirakud dam. Background:- In a resolution to a seven decade–long land displacement issue, 1,749 families of 19 villages of Jharsuguda district will be given rights on 3,231 acres of land . About Hirakud Dam:- IMAGE SOURCE: MapsofIndia Inaugurated: 1957. Location: 15 Kms from Sambalpur, Odisha. River: Mahanadi. Type: It is a composite structure of earth, concrete, and masonry. (Central Water Commission (CWC)) Installed capacity: 287.8 MW. Height of Dam: 80.96 meters. Historical Background:- After the high floods of 1937, M. Visveswaraya gave a proposal for a detailed investigation of storage reservoirs in the Mahanadi basin to tackle the problem of flood in Mahanadi delta. The multi-purpose Hirakud Dam project is the first stage of the plan of Dr. Ajodhya Nath Khosla, the then Governor of Odisha. The commissioning of Unit III of Burla Power House was completed in 1956. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru laid the foundation stone in 1948. The project was formally inaugurated by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 January 1957. Objectives:- Irrigation. Power Generation. Flood Control. (National Dam Safety Authority) Salient features:- The Hirakud Dam Project is a multipurpose scheme intended for flood control, irrigation, and power generation. This is one of the oldest hydel projects in India. It was the first post-independence major multi-purpose river valley project in the country. It is the longest dam in India. The Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary is located near Hirakud Dam. It is bounded on the east and north by the huge Hirakud reservoir. MUST READ: Sunni Dam Hydro Electric Project SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) Consider the following Rivers: (2021) Brahmani Nagavali Subarnarekha Vamsadhara Which of the above rises from the Eastern Ghats? 1 and 2 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 3 Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent studies establish a clear link between academic stress and Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS). Background:- Amid PCOS awareness month, in September, a concerning reality emerges that academic pressure may unknowingly contribute to a silent health crisis among young girls. About Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS):- IMAGE SOURCE: blog.well-woman clinic.in Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a hormonal imbalance that occurs when ovaries create excess hormones. Ovaries: the organ that produces and releases eggs. PCOS is a “syndrome,” or group of symptoms that affects the ovaries and ovulation. Its three main features are: cysts in the ovaries high levels of male hormones irregular or skipped periods PCOS affects women during their childbearing years (ages 15 to 44). Between 2 and 26.7 percent of women in this age group have PCOS. PCOS interrupts the normal menstrual cycle and makes it harder to get pregnant. Between 70 and 80 percent of women with PCOS have fertility problems. (In vitro fertilization (IVF) procedure) Causes:- The exact reasons of what causes PCOS is not known yet. It is believed that high levels of male hormones prevent the ovaries from producing hormones and making eggs normally. Genes, insulin resistance, and inflammation have all been linked to excess androgen formation. Common symptoms of PCOS:- Irregular periods: A lack of ovulation prevents the uterine lining from shedding every month. Heavy bleeding: The uterine lining builds up for a longer period of time, so the periods you do get can be heavier than normal. Hair growth: More than 70 percent of women with this condition grow hair on their face and body — including on their back, belly, and chest. Acne: Male hormones can make the skin oilier than usual and cause breakouts in areas like the face, chest, and upper back. Weight gain. Up to 80 percent of women with PCOS are overweight or have obesity. Male pattern baldness. Hair on the scalp gets thinner and may fall out. Darkening of the skin. Dark patches of skin can form in body creases like those on the neck, in the groin, and under the breasts. Headaches: Hormone changes can trigger headaches in some women. Common medical treatments:- Birth control pills and other medications can help regulate the menstrual cycle and treat PCOS symptoms like hair growth and acne. MUST READ: Control of Anaemia among Children in the Country SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: Role and Scope of Parliamentary Committees in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The Government of India recently established an eight-member committee to examine the concept of ‘One nation, One election,’ highlighting the significance of parliamentary committees in the country. About Committees of Parliament: A Parliamentary Committee is a panel of MPs that is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker/Chairman. The committee works under the direction of the Speaker/chairman and it presents its report to the House or to the Speaker/chairman. Parliamentary Committees have their origins in the British Parliament. They draw their authority from Article 105 and Article 118. Article 105 deals with the privileges of MPs. Article 118 gives Parliament authority to make rules to regulate its procedure and conduct of business. Types of Parliamentary Committees: Parliamentary committees in India serve diverse purposes and can be broadly categorized into four types: subject, financial, accountability, and administrative. Subject Committees: These committees oversee the functions and activities of each ministry, with ministers themselves ineligible for membership. There are a total of 24 subject committees, comprising 31 members each, with proportional representation from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. Bills can be referred to subject committees for detailed examination, ensuring thorough scrutiny before passage. Financial Committees: These are the Estimates Committee, the Committee on Public Undertakings (CoPU), and the Public Accounts Committee (PAC). Notably, these committees do not include ministers as members. The Estimates Committee examines pre-budget estimates of various ministries. Ad hoc Committees: These are formed on a temporary basis for specific purposes, such as reviewing particular bills. They disband once they complete their assigned tasks and submit reports. Significance of the Parliamentary committees: Expertise and specialization: Parliamentary Committees are made up of members of Parliament who have specific expertise and knowledge in a particular area, such as finance, foreign affairs, or health. Checks and balances: These committees act as a check on the power of the executive branch by scrutinizing government policies and holding the government accountable for its actions. Strengthen the laws: Over the years, the committees have immensely contributed to strengthening the laws passed by Parliament. The committee on Food and Consumer Affairs suggested several amendments, such as increasing penalties for misleading advertisements and making certain definitions clearer in Consumer Protection Act 2019. Budgetary oversight: The Departmental related standing committees (DRSCs) also examine the budget. Detailed estimates of the expenditure of all ministries are sent for examination to the DRCSs. Forum for building consensus: Committees provide a forum for building consensus across political parties. Committees have closed-door meetings, which allows them to discuss issues freely and arrive at a consensus. Public Engagement: Committees provide an opportunity for members of the public and organizations to engage directly with Parliament and contribute to the legislative process. Issues associated with the Parliamentary Committees Lack of adequate resources: Parliamentary Committees lack adequate staff, research support, infrastructure, and funds to carry out their functions effectively. They also face difficulties in accessing relevant information and data from the government. Lack of adequate time: Parliamentary Committees often have to deal with a large number of matters within a short period. This affects their ability to conduct thorough scrutiny and analysis of various issues. Limited participation: Some committees struggle to attract sufficient participation from MPs, which can limit their effectiveness. During 2009–14, only 49% of members were present for meetings of the departmental-related standing committees. Lack of detailed scrutiny: Parliamentary committees lack detailed scrutiny, face challenges in conducting thorough and effective scrutiny. Only a limited proportion of the budget is usually discussed on the floor of the House. In the 16th Lok Sabha, only 17% of the budget was discussed in the House. Lack of enforceability: Parliamentary Committees do not have any binding authority over the government or the House. Their recommendations are only advisory in nature and can be accepted or rejected by the government or the House. This reduces their impact and influence on policymaking. Lack of transparency: Parliamentary Committees usually conduct their meetings in private and do not allow media or public access. Their reports are also not made public until they are tabled in the House. This reduces their accountability and visibility to the public. Way Forward: Suggestive measures Increase resources and time: To examine and review the policies and actions of the government, committees should be provided more time and resources. The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2002) recommended that funds should be allotted to assist these Committees in conducting inquiries, holding public hearings, and collecting data Enhance independence: Committees should be independent and not subject to pressure from the government or other influential groups. Increase public visibility: Make the work of committees more transparent and accessible to the public, such as by holding public hearings or publishing reports. Increase participation: Encouraging greater participation from MPs in committee work, through measures such as providing additional incentives or resources. Source:   AIR Gandhi-Ambedkar Debate on caste-based separate electorates Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (History) Context: In the month of September 1932, at the Yerawada Central Jail in Pune, Gandhi began fasting unto death against the award of separate electorates to harijans. About Poona Pact of 1932: In 1932, Gandhi began a fast unto death in the Yerawada Jail against the British decision to create separate electorates based on caste. With pressure from Gandhi, Ambedkar signed the historic Poona Pact in 1932. According to this pact, Hindu joint electorate was retained and gave reserved seats to the depressed classes. It was signed by Ambedkar on behalf of the depressed classes and Madan Mohan Malviya on behalf of the Upper Caste Hindus. The reservations for lower castes under the pact: Gandhi’s Action: Gandhi began a fast unto death against the British decision to create separate electorates based on caste. Ambedkar’s Dilemma: Ambedkar disagreed with Gandhi’s political reservations and he knew Gandhi was the nation’s most loved political leader, and if something were to happen to him, the fledgling Dalit movement might bear heavy consequences. Inking of Poona Pact: With a heavy heart, Ambedkar agreed to Gandhi’s pressure, inking what would be known as the Poona Pact, which secured reservations for lower castes. Evolving views on Caste: Gandhi views: Earlier Orthodox Views: Initially, Gandhi supported traditional caste norms, advocating for inter-dining and inter-marriage prohibitions, considering caste fundamental to Hinduism. Evolution amid national movement: Gandhi’s views evolved as he assumed a pivotal role in India’s national movement, influenced by the emerging Dalit movement. He began preaching unity and condemned untouchability, coining the term “harijans” for untouchables, emphasizing their status as children of God. Critique of untouchability: Gandhi openly criticized untouchability, recognizing its harmful impact on both spiritual and national well-being in 1936. Ambedkar views: View of Rejection: Any revolt against the caste system would only be possible after the oppressed themselves rejected their condition and oppression as being divinely ordained. Rejection of Shastras: Bringing an end to the caste system would only be possible if the divine authority of the holy scriptures was rejected first. Views on Separate Electorates: Ambedkar’s Belief: Affirmative Action: He suggested separate electorates as a form of affirmative action to empower lower castes. Favor to Double Vote: He favoured separate electorates with double vote – one for SCs to vote for an SC candidate and the other for SCs to vote for in the general electorate. Against Joint Electorates: For him, joint electorates enabled the majority to influence the election of the representatives of the Dalits community, and thus disabled them for defending the interests of their oppression against the ‘tyranny of the majority’. Gandhi’s Opposition: Restriction to Rule the World: Gandhi argued that rather than being restricted to just this measly share of seats, lower castes should aspire to rule “the kingdom of the whole world”. Exploitative Step: Gandhi rightly understood British intentions of exploiting internal divisions in Indian society for their own purposes. Separate electorates would only help the British ‘divide and rule’. This was also a time when antagonism between Hindus and Muslims was rising. If separate electorates were announced, this would significantly reduce the Indians’ power. Present system of reservation: The system of caste-based reservation sets aside a certain number of seats for people belonging to castes that historically experienced social and economic discrimination. These reservations are applicable on higher education, government jobs, and even political office. There are a certain number of seats reserved for scheduled castes (SCs) and (STs) in all legislative bodies, including Parliament. Constitutional Provisions Governing Reservation in India Part XVI deals with reservation of SC and ST in Central and State legislatures. Article 15(4) and 16(4) of the Constitution enabled the State and Central Governments to reserve seats in government services for the members of the SC and ST. The Constitution was amended by the Constitution (77th Amendment) Act, 1995 and a new clause (4A) was inserted in Article 16 to enable the government to provide reservation in promotion. Later, clause (4A) was modified by the Constitution (85th Amendment) Act, 2001 to provide consequential seniority to SC and ST candidates promoted by giving reservation. Constitutional 81st Amendment Act, 2000 inserted Article 16 (4 B) which enables the state to fill the unfilled vacancies of a year which are reserved for SCs/STs in the succeeding year, thereby nullifying the ceiling of fifty percent reservation on total number of vacancies of that year. Article 330 and 332 provides for specific representation through reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Parliament and in the State Legislative Assemblies respectively. Article 243D provides reservation of seats for SCs and STs in every Panchayat. Article 233T provides reservation of seats for SCs and STs in every Municipality. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Tiger Reserves Location 1.Melghat Maharashtra 2.Sanjay Dhubri Chattisgarh 3.Ranipur Tiger Reserve Uttar Pradesh How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: ‘Sahbhagi Dhan’ is a drought-tolerant variety of rice. Statement-II: ‘BINA Dhan-11’, which is flood-tolerant. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Indian One-Horned Rhino, consider the following statements: Its status is Least Concern on the IUCN Red List. It is the smallest of all the rhino species. It is in Appendix II of CITES. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Do Department -related Parliamentary Standing Committees keep the administration on its toes and inspire reverence for parliamentary control? Evaluate the working of such Committees with suitable examples. (250 words) Q.2) What are the ideological similarities and differences between Gandhi and Ambedkar? Explain (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  26th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 25th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 26th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Fatehpur Sikri Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently A 61-year-old French tourist died inside the Fatehpur Sikri fort after she fell from a nine-feet-high platform following the collapse of a wooden railing. About Fatehpur Sikri: Location: It is a city predominantly in red sandstone, situated at a distance of 37 km from Agra, Uttar Pradesh. Founder: Mughal emperor Akbar in 1569. Designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1986. The structures has combined elements of Persian, Indian, and Central Asian styles. It served as the Mughal Empire’s capital from 1571 to 1585. When Akbar returned from his Gujarat campaign victorious in 1573, the city was renamed Fatehpur Sikri, or the City of Victory, to commemorate the victory. The Fatehpur Sikri complex include: Jama Masjid: It is home to the Jama Masjid, one of the largest mosques in India. It is known for its imposing structure, graceful arches, and intricately designed prayer hall. Buland Darwaza: This colossal gateway, also known as the “Gate of Magnificence,” is an iconic monument of Fatehpur Sikri. It was built to commemorate Akbar’s victorious campaign in Gujarat and is a grand example of Mughal architecture. Diwan-i-Khas and Diwan-i-Aam: These are two prominent buildings within the complex. The Diwan-i-Khas (Hall of Private Audience) was where Akbar held private meetings, while the Diwan-i-Aam (Hall of Public Audience) was for conducting public affairs. Panch Mahal: This five-storied palace is a unique structure with open pavilions on each level. It served as a place for relaxation and entertainment. Source:   Hindustan Times Basel-III capital framework Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The RBI recently introduced norms on the Basel III capital framework for All India Financial Institutions (AIFIs), which will come into effect from 2024. About Basel III: Basel III is an internationally agreed set of measures developed by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision in response to the financial crisis of 2007-09 in order to strengthen the regulation, supervision and risk management of banks. Basel III standards are minimum requirements which apply to internationally active banks. Objective: The guidelines aim to promote a more resilient banking system by focusing on four vital banking parameters viz. capital, leverage, funding and liquidity. Capital: The capital adequacy ratio is to be maintained at 12.9%. The minimum Tier 1 capital ratio and the minimum Tier 2 capital ratio have to be maintained at 10.5% and 2% of risk-weighted assets respectively. Leverage: The leverage rate has to be at least 3 %. The leverage rate is the ratio of a bank’s tier-1 capital to average total consolidated assets. Funding and Liquidity: Basel-III created two liquidity ratios: LCR and NSFR. The liquidity coverage ratio (LCR) will require banks to hold a buffer of high-quality liquid assets sufficient to deal with the cash outflows encountered in an acute short term stress scenario as specified by supervisors. This is to prevent situations like “Bank Run”. The goal is to ensure that banks have enough liquidity for a 30-days stress scenario if it were to happen. The Net Stable Funds Rate (NSFR) requires banks to maintain a stable funding profile in relation to their off-balance-sheet assets and activities. NSFR requires banks to fund their activities with stable sources of finance (reliable over the one-year horizon). The minimum NSFR requirement is 100%. Therefore, LCR measures short-term (30 days) resilience, and NSFR measures medium-term (1 year) resilience. Deadline for India to adopt: March 2019 but it was postponed to March 2020 in light of the coronavirus pandemic. About AIFIs: AIFI is a group composed of financial regulatory bodies that play a pivotal role in the financial markets by assisting the proper allocation of resources, sourcing from businesses that have a surplus and distributing to others who have deficits. They act as an intermediary between borrowers and final lenders, providing safety and liquidity. India has five AIFIs regulated by the central bank: National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) National Housing Bank (NHB) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) Source:  The Hindu Dudhwa Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: The endangered Indian Skimmer was recently spotted near Zalim Nagar Bridge along the Ghaghra River at Dudhwa Tiger Reserve, Uttar Pradesh (UP). About the Indian Skimmer: It is an unusual-looking bird with a striking red, orange beak where the lower bill is longer than the upper bill. Distribution: Globally found in the coastal estuaries of western and eastern India, and Bangladesh. Food: fish, larvae, insects, and shrimps. Habitat: It favours slow-moving rivers with sandbar habitats formed seasonally during summers, around lakes and adjacent marshes, estuaries, and coasts. Breeding: Between February to June and raise one to three chicks per clutch. Conservation Status: IUCN: Endangered (EN) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 : Schedule I About Dudhwa Tiger Reserve: Location: Spread across the Lakhimpur Kheri and Bahraich districts of Uttar Pradesh. Rivers: The Sharda River flows by the Kishanpur WL Sanctuary, the Geruwa River flows through the Katerniaghat WL Sanctuary and the Suheli and Mohana streams flow in the Dudhwa National Park, all of which are tributaries of the mighty Ghagra River. It was considered as a tiger reserve in 1987. Vegetation: The vegetation is of the North Indian Moist Deciduous type, containing some of the finest examples of Sal forests (Shorea robusta) in India. Flora: The flora is predominantly Sal forest along with its associate tree species like Terminalia alata (Asna), Lagerstroemia parviflora (Asidha), Adina cordifolia (Haldu), Mitragyna parviflora (Faldu), Gmelina arborea (Gahmhar), Holoptelea intgrifolia (Kanju) etc. Fauna: Guldar, Tiger, Fishing cat, Monkey, Langur, Mongoose, Small Indian Mongoose, small Indian civet, Jackal etc. Birds include Dabchick, spotbilled pelican, Large cornorant, Little cormorant, Grey Heron, White stork, Black storck, White Ibis etc. Reptiles include Mugger, Ghariyal, Python, Sandboa, Banded krait, Russel’s viper, Rat snake etc. Source:  India Times Five Eyes Alliance Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently US ambassador to Canada has claimed that “shared intelligence among Five Eyes partners” had informed Prime Minister of the possible involvement of Indian agents in the killing of Khalistan separatist. About Five Eyes Alliance: Est: Post-World War II Members states: Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom, and the United States. The term “Five Eyes” refers to the five countries’ collective efforts to gather and share signals intelligence (SIGINT) to address common security threats and challenges. Objectives: Intelligence Sharing: The alliance members collaborate to share signals intelligence, which includes intercepted communications and electronic data, to enhance their collective understanding of global security threats. Counterterrorism and National Security: The Five Eyes network focuses on countering terrorism and addressing other national security concerns by exchanging vital intelligence and cooperating on joint operations. Cybersecurity and Cyber Threats: Given the growing significance of cyber threats, the alliance works together to monitor and address cyber activities from adversarial nations and non-state actors. Information and Technology Sharing: The Five Eyes partners share expertise and technological advancements in the field of intelligence gathering, analysis, and cryptography. Source:   Indian Express Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The Department of Fisheries is installing artificial reef units for coastal states as a sub-activity under ‘Integrated Modern Coastal Fishing Villages’ of Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY). About Artificial Reefs: An artificial reef is a human-made underwater structure that substitutes as a natural reef to form a habitat for marine life. They are placed in areas where there is little bottom topography or near coral reefs to attract marine populations. They serve to protect coral reefs from human-induced damages as well as supporting biodiversity and healthy ecosystems. About Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY): It is a flagship scheme for focused and sustainable development of the fisheries sector to be implemented from 2020-21 to 2024-25 Ministry: Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying Objectives: To bring about a blue revolution through sustainable and responsible development of the fisheries sector in India. To double the incomes of fishers and fish farmers, reducing post-harvest losses from 20-25% to about 10% and the generation of employment opportunities in the sector. Implementation: It is implemented as an umbrella scheme with two separate components Central Sector Scheme and Centrally Sponsored Scheme. North Eastern & Himalayan States: 90% Central share and 10% State share. Other States: 60% Central share and 40% State share. Achievements: As of 2023, under PMMSY, projects worth Rs 14,654.67 crore have been approved from 2020-21 to 2022-23. The fish production reached an all-time high of 25 MMT during FY 2021-22 with marine exports touching Rs. 57,586 Crores. Source:  PIB International Day of Sign Languages Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Every year Sign Language Day is being celebrated by the Indian Sign Language Research and Training Centre (ISLRTC) on 23rd September. About International Day of Sign Languages: The UN General Assembly proclaimed 23 September as the International Day of Sign Languages. The choice commemorates the date that the World Federation of the Deaf (WFD) was established in 1951. WFD is an international non-profit and non-governmental organization of deaf associations from 133 countries. Established: 23 September,1951 HQ: Helsinki, Finland Objective: It promotes the human rights of deaf people in accordance with the principles and objectives of the United Nations Charter, Universal Declaration of Human Rights, UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (CRPD), 2030 Agenda and Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), and other Human Rights Treaties. Theme for 2023: A World where Deaf People Everywhere can Sign Anywhere! Source:   PIB India’s Dairy Sector Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Economy) Context: Researchers with the National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI), under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), describe how COVID-19 put the brakes on India’s artificial insemination programme. State of the Dairy sector in India: India is the largest producer of milk. India’s success story in milk production was scripted by Dr Verghese Kurien, known as the “Father of the White Revolution” in India. Small and marginal farmers own 33 percent of land and about 60 percent of female cattle and buffaloes. Some 75 percent of rural households own, on average, two to four animals. The top 5 milk-producing states are: Uttar Pradesh (16.3%, 30.52 MMT), Rajasthan (12.6%, 23.69 MMT), Madhya Pradesh (8.5%, 15.91 MMT), Andhra Pradesh (8%, 15.04 MMT) and Gujarat (7.7%, 14.49 MMT). UAE remains the biggest market for Indian dairy products, accounting for US$ 35.43 million worth of dairy products followed by Bangladesh, the US , Bhutan, and Singapore. Stakeholders in the sector: Notably, 228 dairy cooperatives reach out to 17 million farmers, many of whom are likely to be assured of their milk being procured at the right time and at a fair price. Significance of Dairy Sector: Reduces Imports: Operation Flood (also called as White Revolution) converted India from a milk importer to the world’s largest producer. Secure Livelihood: It is a source of income to small and landless agri houses. 70 per cent of those earning their livelihood from milk are women. Dairying provides a source of regular income, whereas income from agriculture is seasonal. This regular source of income has a huge impact on minimizing risks to income. Women Empowerment: 69 per cent are female workers. They are dependent on the sector for their livelihood. Labour-Intensive Sector: Dairy and livestock workers account for 70 million of the farm-dependent population, which includes cultivators and agricultural laborers. Helping Farmers During Natural Calamities: Milk production increases during crop failures caused by natural disasters because farmers place a greater emphasis on animal husbandry at that time. Challenges Faced by the Sector Productivity: Indian cattle and buffaloes have among the lowest productivity. Improving productivity of farm animals is one of the major challenges. Crossbreeding of indigenous species with exotic stocks to enhance genetic potential of different species has been successful only to a limited extent. The sector also witnesses adulteration practices and overuse of antibiotics to boost production. Need of Investment: There is a shortage of organized dairy farms and there is a need for a high degree of investment to take the dairy industry to global standards. Fragmented Supply Chain: The fundamental challenge in dairy is maintaining quality and quantity within a diversified supply base. Due to its perishable nature, dairy requires more complex supply chain operations and logistics to ensure freshness and safety. Lumpy skin disease: Lumpy skin disease has, by all accounts, wreaked havoc. The official death count of 1.9 lakh cattle could be an underestimate. Price Sensitivity: Milk producers are highly susceptible to even minor shocks. For instance, small changes in the employment and income of consumers can leave a significant impact on milk demand. Lack of Budgetary Allocation: Despite the importance of the dairy sector in overall GDP, it receives less government budgeting than the agriculture sector. Impact of Emerging Market: The sector will also come under significant adjustment pressure to the emerging market forces. Though globalization will create avenues for increased participation in international trade, stringent food safety and quality norms would be required. Informal Dairy Economy: The majority of cattle raisers are unorganised unlike sugarcane, wheat, and rice-producing farmers. This nature further inhibits the creation of political clout to advocate for their rights. Only 18-20% is channelized via the organized sector. Need of Modern Technology: Lack of access to markets may act as a disincentive to farmers to adopt improved technologies and quality inputs. Government’s Initiatives Related to the Dairy Sector Dairy Sahakar scheme: Union Minister of Home Affairs and Corporation launched the Dairy Sahakar scheme which will be implemented by NCDC under the Ministry of Cooperation to realize the vision, “from cooperation to prosperity”. Lumpi-ProVacInd: It is jointly developed by ICAR’s National Research Centre on Equines (NRCE) and the Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI). It is a live attenuated vaccine, similar to those used against tuberculosis, measles, mumps and rubella. Rashtriya Gokul Mission: Launched in 2014, this scheme aims to promote indigenous breeds of cattle and enhance their productivity through breed improvement, nutrition, and health management. National Animal Disease Control Programme (NADCP): It is a flagship scheme launched in September 2019 for control of Foot and Mouth Disease and Brucellosis by vaccinating 100%. Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme (DEDS): The department of Animal Husbandry, dairying and fisheries is implementing DEDS for generating self-employment opportunities in the dairy sector. e-GOPALA: The web version of the e-GOPALA application developed by the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) has been launched to aid dairy farmers. Launching of Dairy mark: The NDDB and Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) together developed a dedicated ‘Dairy Mark’ logo as a unified quality mark across India to boost the confidence of consumers in milk and milk products. A unified Conformity Assessment Scheme has been chalked out by BIS with the help of NDDB after extensive stakeholder consultations. Way Forward: Though India emerged as the largest milk-producing nation in the world, and if it has to capture overseas markets for its surplus milk, then the country must be export-competitive. Government should take robust steps in order to make dairy farming more lucrative for the small and marginalized farmers. It is the responsibility of all of us to develop the dairy industry by adopting environment-friendly and climate-smart technologies, keeping animal welfare in mind. Source:    DTE Climate finance must get beyond greenwishing and greenwashing Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment) Context: As we move from UN Climate Week to CoP-28, we need to stop ‘greenwishing’ and ‘greenwashing’ and start thinking about the instruments that will enable the private sector to channel more capital toward climate resilience and sustainable development. About “The Three Greens”: Greenwashing, Greenwishing, and Greenhushing Greenwashing: Greenwashing refers to the deceptive practice of making false or exaggerated claims about the environmental friendliness of a company’s products, services, or practices. Example: Starbucks introduces straw-less lid citing it will help reduce environmental footprint. However, it contained more plastic than the old lid and straw combined together. Greenwishing: It refers to organisations expressing a desire to be more environmentally responsible without taking concrete actions to achieve those goals. It’s like making a wish for sustainability without any tangible actions directed in the required direction. Greenhushing: It implies a situation where an organisation intentionally downplays their positive environmental achievements. It might involve not publicising sustainable practices for various reasons, such as modesty, fear of criticism, or reducing external communication. About Climate Finance and its significance: Climate finance refers to local, national or transnational financing—drawn from public, private and alternative sources of financing—that seeks to support mitigation and adaptation actions that will address climate change. The Convention, the Kyoto Protocol and the Paris Agreement call for financial assistance from Parties with more financial resources to those that are less endowed and more vulnerable. It is critical to addressing climate change because large-scale investments are required to significantly reduce emissions, notably in sectors that emit large quantities of greenhouse gases. Need for practical and accessible investment solutions to fight climate change: Climate change affects all living beings: It is impacting both poor and rich countries, creating an urgent need for broad-based resilience and adaptation strategies. Potential of private sector resources: Scalable solutions require substantial commitments from the private sector, with many current climate-centric investments being illiquid and tightly wound up in private-equity funds. Inclusion of ordinary investors: Many current climate investments are inaccessible to ordinary investors and savers who are the most exposed to climate-driven food, water, and energy insecurity. Requirement of diversified solutions: Diversified, liquid, and profitable investment solutions like ETFs in climate-resilient sectors can mobilize capital effectively and are essential for inclusivity, including the unbanked global population. Challenges associated with the climate finance: Unachieved goals: The UNFCCC Standing Committee on Finance (SCF) released a report on the progress made by developed countries towards achieving the goal of mobilising $100 billion per year. According to the report, it is widely accepted that: The $100 billion goal has not been achieved in 2020, and an earlier effort to mobilise private finance by the developed countries has met with comprehensive failure. Demands of developing countries: Developing countries have for a long time insisted that a significant portion of climate finance should come from public funds as private finance will not address their needs and priorities especially related to adaptation. Climate finance already remains skewed towards mitigation and flows towards bankable projects with clear revenue streams. Private climate finance: The OECD 2020 data shows that the mobilisation of private climate finance has underperformed against the expectations of developed countries. Many investors associate climate-centric investments with ‘social impact’ and reduced profitability. Contradictory claims: Many developed countries and multilateral development banks have emphasised the importance of private finance mobilised in their climate finance strategies, including by de-risking and creating enabling environments. According to the reports, these efforts have not yielded results at the scale required to tap into the significant potential for investments by the private sector and deliver on developed countries’ climate ambition. Way Forward: Suggestive measures Need of significant private-sector resources: While the public sector has an important role to play in climate financing, scalable solutions require significant commitments of private-sector resources. CoP-28 offers an opportunity to rethink how we deliver such market solutions, and how we can harness digital innovation to scale up promising models. Mobilising capital: The solution is to create climate investments that are profitable, liquid and accessible to all. To mobilize capital at scale, we must draw on the global savings of individual investors as well as institutions such as pension funds, insurers, and sovereign funds. Seeking for reliable returns: Carefully selected Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) and exposure to greenfield developments through ETFs are two ways to secure reliable returns from climate-adaptation efforts. Green commodities: An orderly transition to a more resilient future requires massive investments not only in energy, food and water assets, but also in the metals and critical minerals used in renewable energy and electric vehicles (EVs). These include commodities such as soy, wheat, copper, rare-earth elements, cobalt, lithium, and so forth. Climate-aligned portfolio: A climate-aligned portfolio should include assets that provide a hedge against inflation and geo-economic risks, such as short-term and inflation-indexed sovereign bonds and gold. Greater investments in inflation-proof sovereign assets will allow governments to do more to finance the green transition. Source:  LM Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) The Dudhwa Tiger Reserve is located in which of the following states? Uttar Pradesh Madhya Pradesh Karnataka Rajasthan Q.2) Consider the following countries: Australia Canada, New China the United States How many of the countries given above are part of Five Eyes Alliance group? One only Two only Three only All the four Q.3) Consider the following paragraph and identify the historical monument: It is a city predominantly in red sandstone, situated at a distance of 37 km from Agra, Uttar Pradesh. It was founded by the Mughal emperor Akbar in 1569. It is designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1986. When Akbar returned from his Gujarat campaign victorious in 1573, it was renamed to commemorate the victory. The structures has combined elements of Persian, Indian, and Central Asian styles. Select the correct answer using the code given below: Fatehpur Sikri Qutb Minar complex I’timād-ud-Daulah None of the above Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Over the past few years, the Dairy sector has emerged as the most important sector of the rural economy in India. However, it has become one of the most vulnerable sectors of the rural economy too. Critically examine. (250 Words) Q.2) Define the concepts related to climate change: Greenwashing, Greenwishing, and Greenhushing along with relevant examples (150 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  25th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 23rd September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Adi Shankaracharya statue Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister unveiled the 108-foot-tall ‘Statue of Oneness’ of Adi Shankaracharya at Omkareshwar in Madhya Pradesh. About Adi Shankaracharya: Birth: 11th May 788 AD, at Kaladi, Kerala. Samadhi: at Kedar Tirth. Philosophy: Propounded the Doctrine of Advaita (Monism) and He was opposed to Buddhist philosophers. Established four Mathas in the four corners of India at Sringeri, Puri, Dwaraka and Badrinath– for propagation of Sanathana Dharma. Major books: Brahmasutrabhasya (Bhashya or commentary on the Brahma Sutra), Bhajagovinda Stotra, Nirvana Shatakam and Prakaran Granths Advocation of Advaita Vedanta: It articulates a philosophical position of radical nondualism, a revisionary worldview which it derives from the ancient Upanishadic texts. According to Advaita Vedantins, the Upanishads reveal a fundamental principle of nonduality termed ‘brahman’, which is the reality of all things. Advaitins understand brahman as transcending individuality and empirical plurality. They seek to establish that the essential core of one’s self (atman) is brahman. The fundamental thrust of Advaita Vedanta is that the atman is pure non-intentional consciousness. It is one without a second, nondual, infinite existence, and numerically identical with brahman. Source:  Indian Express National Higher Education Qualifications Framework (NHEQF) Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The University Grants Commission (UGC) recently finalised the National Higher Educational Qualification Framework (NHEQF), a regulatory reform proposed by National Education Policy 2020. About National Higher Education Qualifications Framework (NHEQF): Development: The Ministry of Labour and Employment developed the National Vocational Qualifications Framework (NVQF) and the Ministry of Education developed the Vocational Education Qualifications Framework (NVEQF). The NHEQF has divided parameters into levels 5 to 10. Levels 1 to 4 cover the school education. The NHEQF level 5 represents learning outcomes appropriate to the first year (first two semesters) of the undergraduate programme of study; While Level 10 represents learning outcomes appropriate to the doctoral-level programme of study. According to the NHEQF, students must possess and display the desired graduate profile/attributes after completing a programme of study. It also establishes the amount of credits required to complete the four-year undergraduate programme, postgraduate degrees, and doctoral degrees at various levels. About University Grants Commission (UGC): EST: 28th December, 1953 It is a statutory organization by the UGC Act, 1956 Ministry: Ministry of Education. The UGC’s mandate includes: Promoting and coordinating university education. Determining and maintaining standards of teaching, examination and research in universities. Framing regulations on minimum standards of education. Monitoring developments in the field of collegiate and university education; disbursing grants to the universities and colleges etc Source: The Hindu G4 countries Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently the G4 countries have reiterated that expansion of UN Security Council in both permanent and non-permanent categories is essential to make the body more representative, legitimate, effective and efficient. About G4 countries: The G4 is a grouping of Brazil, Germany, India and Japan which are aspiring to become permanent members of the UNSC. They are supporting each other’s bids for permanent membership of the UNSC. The G4 nations traditionally meet on the sidelines of the annual high-level UN General Assembly session. Opposition to G4: the Coffee Club The Uniting for Consensus (UfC), or the Coffee Club, emerged in the 1990s in opposition to the potential extension of permanent seats on the UN Security Council. Italy along with Pakistan, Mexico and Egypt founded the Coffee Club in 1995 to reject the proposal to increase the number of permanent seats in the UNSC. About UN Security Council: EST: United Nations charter in 1945 HQ: New York City, USA. Members: 15 members Permanent members with veto power (P5 members): the United States, the Russian Federation, France, China and the United Kingdom. Non-permanent members: The non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected for a term of two years. The 10 non-permanent seats are distributed on a regional basis as follows: Five for African and Asian States. One for the Eastern European States. Two for the Latin American and Caribbean States; Two for Western European and other States Source:  AIR National Medical Commission (NMC) Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The National Medical Commission (NMC) of India has been awarded the coveted World Federation for Medical Education (WFME) Recognition Status for a tenure of 10 years. About NMC: Statutory body under National Medical Commission Act, 2019. HQ: New Delhi It has replaced the Medical Council of India (MCI) constituted under the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956. Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Functions: NMC regulates medical education and medical professionals. The Commission grants recognition of medical qualifications gives accreditation to medical schools, grants registration to medical practitioners, monitors medical practice and assesses the medical infrastructure in India. Members: It consists of 33 members including Chairman (medical professionals only), 10 ex-officio members and 22 parttime members. Four autonomous boards under NMC: Under-Graduate Medical Education Board (sets norms for undergraduate (UG) courses), Post-Graduate Medical Education Board (sets norms for post-graduate courses), Medical Assessment and Rating Board (inspects and rates the medical education institutes), and Ethics and Medical Registration Board (regulates professional conduct of the doctors and registers them). About World Federation for Medical Education (WFME): EST: In 1972 HQ: Ferney-Voltaire, France. Aim: WFME is a global organisation concerned with the education and training of medical doctors. Objective: It is the organisation that officially and globally represents medical teachers and medical teaching institutions before the World Health Organization(WHO). WFME’s accreditation program plays a pivotal role in ensuring that medical institutes meet and uphold the highest international standards of education and training Source:   AIR State of Working India Report 2023 Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently the ‘State of Working India 2023’ report, released by Azim Premji University’s Centre for Sustainable Employment. Major Findings of the ‘State of Working India 2023’ Report: Faster structural change: Between 2004 and 2017, around 3 million regular wage jobs were created annually. Between 2017 and 2019 this jumped to 5 million per year. Since 2019, the pace of regular wage job creation has decreased due to the growth slowdown and the pandemic. Upward mobility has increased: In 2004 over 80% of sons of casual wage workers were themselves in casual employment. This was the case for both SC/ST workers and other castes. For non-SC/ST castes, this fell from 83% to 53% by 2018 and incidence of better quality work such as regular salaried jobs increased. It fell for SC/ST castes as well, but to a lesser extent (86% to 76%). Caste-based segregation has reduced: Between 1983 and 2021, the proportion of regular wage workers belonging to the SC category has increased. In 2021, 32% of general caste workers were in regular wage employment as compared to 22% of SC workers. The report also looks at firm ownership data to conclude that general castes are over-represented to a greater degree in larger enterprises. Gender-based earnings disparities have reduced: In 2004, salaried women workers earned 70% of what men earned. By 2017 the gap had reduced and women earned 76% of what men did. Since then, the gap has remained constant till 2021-22. Women in job: Between 1983 and 2021, the degree of women’s representation in industries like tobacco, education, health and social work, and textiles has increased whereas in waste management and sewerage, it has decreased. Still, in all these sectors, women are over-represented in comparison to men. Unemployment is falling but remains high: Post-Covid the unemployment rate is lower than it was pre-Covid, for all education levels. But it remains above 15% for graduates and more worryingly it touches a huge 42% for graduates under 25 years. The connection between growth and good jobs remains weak: Since the 1990s year-on-year non-farm GDP growth and non-farm employment growth are uncorrelated with each other suggesting that policies promoting faster growth need not promote faster job creation. However, between 2004 and 2019, on average growth translated to decent employment. Male Breadwinner Norm: Due to the “male breadwinner” norm, as the husband’s income increases the probability of the wife being employed also reduces. In rural areas, the fall in probability slows down as the husband’s income increases. Source: Indian Express SIMBEX 23 Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology (Defence) Context: Indian Navy recently participated in the 30th edition of Singapore India Maritime Bilateral Exercise (SIMBEX), 2023 held in Singapore. About SIMBEX 23: An annual bilateral Naval exercise between the Indian Navy and Republic of Singapore Navy (RSN) is being conducted since 1994. It is the longest continuous naval exercise that Indian Navy conducts with any other country. It would enhance war-fighting skills and capability to undertake multi-discipline operations jointly in maritime domain. Phases of SIMBEX 2023: Harbour Phase: Professional interactions, cross-deck visits, Subject Matter Expert Exchanges (SMEE) and sports fixtures to enhance interoperability and mutual understanding between the two navies. Sea Phase: Complex and advanced air defence exercises, gunnery firings, tactical manoeuvres, anti-submarine exercises and other maritime operations. Source: PIB The Mediation Act, 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, the Parliament has passed the Mediation Bill 2023. About Mediation: Mediation is a voluntary process in which parties try to settle disputes with the assistance of an independent third person (the mediator). A mediator does not impose a solution on the parties but creates a conducive environment in which they can resolve their dispute. The mediation process depends on the choice of parties, and there are no strict or binding rules of procedure. Types of Mediation: Court Referred Mediation: Salem Advocate Bar Association, Tamil Nadu v. Union of India: In the case, Supreme Court held in reference to the matter of mediation that conciliation and arbitration are mandatory for court matters. This judgment has granted legal and social recognition to mediation as a dispute resolution in India. Private Mediation : In private mediation, a qualified mediator is appointed by the parties on a fixed-fee basis. Both the parties come together to resolve the issue amicably. The decision of the mediator is not ultimate and hence not binding on the parties. Key Features of the Bill Pre-litigation mediation: Parties must attempt to settle civil or commercial disputes by mediation before approaching any court or certain tribunals. Even if they fail to reach a settlement through pre-litigation mediation, the court or tribunal may at any stage refer the parties to mediation if they request for the same. Disputes not fit for mediation: The Bill contains a list of disputes which are not fit for mediation. These include disputes relating to claims against minors or persons of unsound mind, involving criminal prosecution, and affecting the rights of third parties. The central government may amend this list. Applicability: The Bill will apply to mediations conducted in India: involving only domestic parties involving at least one foreign party and relating to a commercial dispute (i.e., international mediation) if the mediation agreement states that mediation will be as per this Bill. If the central or state government is a party, the Bill will apply to commercial disputes, and other disputes as notified. Mediation process: Mediation proceedings will be confidential, and must be completed within 180 days (may be extended by 180 days by the parties). A party may withdraw from mediation after two sessions. Court annexed mediation must be conducted as per the rules framed by the Supreme Court or High Courts. Mediators: Mediators may be appointed by the parties by agreement, a mediation service provider (an institution administering mediation). They must disclose any conflict of interest that may raise doubts on their independence. Parties may then choose to replace the mediator. Significance of Bill: India as a centre of Mediation: This legislation will help ensure that institutional mediation becomes mainstream in resolving commercial (and other) disputes between the parties, putting India on the global map as a dispute friendly jurisdiction. There exists a strong correlation between Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) and the promotion of mediation, and Singapore serves as a prime example of how a robust mediation ecosystem can attract greater foreign investments. Reduce pendency of Cases: According to the Minister for Law and Justice, there are 4.43 lakh cases pending in district subordinate courts, 60.63 lakh cases in high courts and around 70,000 cases in the Supreme Court. Mandating participation in pre-litigation mediation may help reduce pendency and the slow disposal rate in courts. Cost-effective: Mediation is a cost-effective dispute resolution process that also helps reduce the burden on courts by enabling out-of-court settlements. Greater Control: Mediation increases the control the parties have over the resolution. Each party is directly involved in negotiating their own agreement and no settlement can be imposed upon. Confidential: Unlike the potential publicity of court proceedings, everything said at the mediation is entirely confidential to the parties (unless specifically agreed otherwise). Faster outcomes: Because mediation can be used early in a dispute, an agreement can usually be reached quicker than if pursued through the courts. Challenges of Mediation in India: Absence of Uniform Legislation: In 2020, the Supreme Court highlighted the pressing need for a unified mediation legislation in India, emphasizing the lack of a standardized legal framework for mediation. Infrastructural and Quality Control Issues: An increased focus on mediation can strain existing mediation centers, which may lack the necessary administrative capacity to handle higher caseloads efficiently. Societal Stigma: Concerns about public perception sometimes deter parties from choosing mediation, as they fear it might be viewed as a sign of weakness or compromise. Resistance from Legal Professionals: Traditional legal practitioners may exhibit resistance to adopting mediation, viewing it as a potential threat to their practice or income. Institutional Support: While legislative reforms have been made to promote mediation in India, the infrastructure for supporting mediation at the grassroots level, including the establishment of mediation centers and training programs, is still in the developmental stage. Lack of Mediation Education: The absence of mediation education within law school curricula poses a significant obstacle to the widespread adoption of mediation as a dispute resolution method. Shortage of Professional Mediators: India currently has a limited pool of trained and experienced mediators, which presents challenges in offering mediation services across all regions and for various types of disputes. Way Forward: Suggestive measures Legal Reforms: Continuously updating laws and regulations to support and encourage mediation, while also ensuring the enforceability of mediated settlements, is crucial. Online Mediation: Leveraging technology for online mediation platforms can make the process more accessible, especially for those in remote areas, and provide a convenient alternative to in-person sessions. Institutional Support: Establishing well-equipped and accessible mediation centers at various levels, from local communities to national levels, can provide people with convenient access to mediation services. More Opening of Mediation and Arbitration Centre: Government should facilitate opening of mediation centers. Recently, Uttar Pradesh got its first mediation and arbitration centre in the form of ‘Centre for Excellence in Mediation and Arbitration or CEMA. Training and Certification: Developing comprehensive training programs for mediators, lawyers, and judges can ensure that there is a pool of skilled professionals proficient in mediation techniques, ethical considerations, and cultural sensitivity. Integration with Legal Curriculum: Incorporating mediation education within law school curricula can prepare future legal professionals to consider mediation as a primary or complementary method for dispute resolution. Source:  The Hindu The India’s Urbanization Paradox: Opportunities and Obstacles Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Geography) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: According to the recent report of Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, about 74% of Smart City Mission projects completed, but urban challenges stay unaddressed. About Urbanization: It refers to the process by which a growing proportion of a population comes to live in cities and other urban areas and the ways in which this affects society and the environment. It is a global phenomenon that has been driven by a variety of factors, including economic development, technological change, and population growth. Different types of urban settlements in India: Census Town: Population of at least 5,000, a population density of at least 400 per sq km, where at least 75% of the male working population is engaged in non-agricultural pursuits. Statutory Town: A town officially designated as such by the relevant state government. These towns typically have a corporation or municipality in charge of local government. Satellite Town: A town that is located in close proximity to a larger urban centre and is dependent on it for economic and social activities. Urban Agglomeration: A continuous urban area of the city/town and also the suburban fringe/rural areas lying within the administrative boundaries of a nearby town/city. Suburbanization: refers to the process of urbanization where the urban areas are growing outwards, and the rural areas are becoming urbanized. Counter urbanization: refers to the movement of people and businesses from urban to rural areas. Status of Urbanisation in India: According to the 2011 Census, India’s urbanization rate stood at 31.2%, a significant increase from 8% in 2001. Projections indicate that around 590 million people will reside in cities by 2030, underscoring the urgency of comprehending the growth patterns and their impact on the population. Causes of Rapid Urbanization: Natural Population Growth: Urbanization is driven by the high rate of natural population increase, where cities experience a greater growth rate compared to rural areas. This can be attributed to improved healthcare services, better access to medical facilities, safe drinking water, and enhanced sanitation infrastructure, which contribute to higher survival rates in urban settings. Industrial and Agricultural Development: The substantial public investments in industries, mining, and sustainable agricultural practices have fueled urbanization. The growth of industries, including their associated ancillary units, contributes to the development of urban centers. Likewise, the expansion of business and trade, accompanied by the establishment of vibrant markets, fosters urbanization in regions closely linked to industrial and trade growth. Rural-Urban Migration: Rural-to-urban migration is a significant driver of rapid urbanization in India. The emergence of manufacturing and trade activities due to industrial development creates job opportunities and the promise of higher incomes, attracting rural residents to urban areas. This migration is often motivated by the prospects of employment and economic advancement. Push and Pull Factors: Rural-to-urban migration is influenced by both pull and push factors. Pull factors include the allure of urban opportunities, while push factors encompass economic constraints, lack of essential facilities, and even political unrest in rural areas, prompting individuals to seek better prospects in urban settings. Consequences of Rapid Urbanization: Positive Aspects: Driver of rapid economic growth: Rapid industrialization leads to the establishment of numerous industrial cities. These urban areas witness the growth of manufacturing units, ancillary industries, and the service sector, contributing to economic development. Increased employment opportunities: Urbanization creates new job opportunities in expanding sectors like manufacturing and services. This results in rural-urban migration as people seek employment in these urban centers, further promoting industrialization and urbanization. Modernization and attitudinal changes: Urbanization brings about changes in the mindset and behaviors of urban residents, fostering modernization and a progressive outlook. This shift indirectly contributes to accelerated economic development. Negative Aspects: Congestion: Rapid urbanization leads to increased congestion in urban areas, causing problems such as traffic jams and high population density. Managing these issues becomes challenging and costly. Poor Quality of Life: The surge in urban population can result in various urban problems, including housing shortages, inadequate access to education and healthcare, the growth of slums, unemployment, violence, and overcrowding. These factors collectively lead to a decline in the overall quality of life in urban areas. Loss of Rural Productivity: Large-scale rural-to-urban migration diminishes productivity in rural regions. This trend negatively impacts the rural economy, contributing to unfavourable conditions in villages. Over time, excessive urbanization can have detrimental consequences. Issues associated with Urbanization: Population Pressure: Rapid rural-to-urban migration leads to an overwhelming increase in urban population, straining existing public infrastructure. This surge in population contributes to challenges like slums, crime, unemployment, urban poverty, pollution, congestion, and public health problems. Proliferation of Slums: Across the country, there are approximately 13.7 million slum households, accommodating about 65.49 million people. Approximately 65% of Indian cities have adjacent slums where people live in cramped and substandard housing conditions. Housing Shortages: One of the most distressing issues associated with urbanization is inadequate housing. In India, more than half of urban households live in single rooms, with an average of 4.4 persons per room. Unplanned development: Urbanization often leads to unplanned development, exacerbating the socio-economic divide between the affluent and the underprivileged. The lack of proper planning perpetuates inequality within urban areas. Pandemic-Induced problems: The COVID-19 pandemic has exacerbated the challenges faced by the urban poor and slum dwellers. Lockdown measures severely affected their livelihoods, highlighting their vulnerability. Government initiatives related to urban development in India: Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM): Aims to reduce poverty and vulnerability of urban poor households by providing them with opportunities for skill development and self-employment. Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana (HRIDAY): Aims to conserve and revitalize the cultural heritage and tourism potential of 12 identified cities in India. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan: Aims to improve sanitation and cleanliness in urban areas, including the construction of toilets and solid waste management. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY): Aims to provide affordable housing to urban residents, particularly for low-income groups and economically weaker sections. Smart Cities Mission: Aims to promote the development of 100 smart cities in India, focusing on sustainable and inclusive urban development. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT): Aims to improve basic services and infrastructure in urban areas, including water supply and sewerage systems. Aspirational District Programme: Aims to transform the overall development landscape in 112 of India’s most backward districts. It includes urban development components and seeks to improve various aspects of life in these districts, including urban areas. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the University Grants Commission (UGC): It is a statutory organization by the UGC Act, 1956 It works under the Ministry of Science and Technology Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following countries is not a part of the G4 group of countries which are aspiring to become permanent members of the UNSC? India Germany South Africa Japan Q.3) SIMBEX 23 is an annual bilateral Naval exercise held between which of the following countries? India and Srilanka India and Indonesia India and Myanmar India and Singapore Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Explain the significance of the Mediation Act, 2023, in India’s legal framework and its role in reducing court congestion. Highlight the potential advantages and challenges associated with mandatory pre-litigation mediation. Suggest measures to overcome these challenges. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  23rd September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 22nd September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23d September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) India-Canada Relations Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: The recent killing of pro-Khalistan leader and a Canadian citizen, Hardeep Singh Nijjar has caused diplomatic challenges in India-Canada Relations. Background of the Issue:- Khalistan Tiger Force chief Hardeep Singh Nijjar, one of the most wanted terrorists in India, was shot dead by two unidentified men within the premises of a gurdwara in Canada Sunday night. Canadian Prime Minister Justin Trudeau recently made explosive allegations of a “potential link” between agents of the Government of India and the killing of a pro-Khalistan leader and Canadian citizen, Hardeep Singh Nijjar. Hardeep Singh Nijjar’s name had been included in the wanted list handed over by the then-Punjab CM Captain Amarinder Singh, to Canadian Prime Minister Justin Trudeau during the latter’s visit to India in 2018. The Khalistan issue has always plagued bilateral ties, from the 1980s to the last eight years of Trudeau’s term. But this time, Ottawa has ratcheted up the ante and New Delhi is watching the situation keeping in mind the complexity of the bilateral ties and the reputational cost on the global stage. About India-Canada Relations:- India and Canada have a longstanding bilateral relationship based on shared democratic values, the multi-cultural, multi-ethnic, and multi-religious nature. 1947: India established diplomatic relations with Canada in 1947. 1951: Canada’s aid program to India began in 1951 and grew substantially under the Colombo Plan. Canada provided food aid, project financing, and technical assistance to India. 1974: deterioration of India-Canada relations due to India’s Smiling Buddha nuclear test. 1976: The Canadian government severed bilateral nuclear cooperation with both India and Pakistan in 1976 after claims that the fissionable material used to construct India’s first nuclear device had been obtained from the Canadian-supplied CIRUS nuclear research reactor. 1985: The bombing by Sikh separatists of Air India Flight 182 resulted in Canada and India maintaining a bilateral dialogue on anti-terrorism. 2015: The Prime Minister of India’s visit to Canada in April 2015 elevated the bilateral relationship to a strategic partnership. In recent years, both countries have been working to enhance bilateral cooperation in several areas of mutual importance. Significance:- Canada hosts one of the largest Indian diasporas in the world, numbering 16 lakh people of Indian origin. It accounts for more than 3 percent of the total Canadian population and 700,000 NRIs. At the Ministerial level, Canada and India enjoy a strategic partnership underpinned by Ministerial Dialogues on foreign policy, trade and investment, finance, and energy. At the official level, there are regular working groups that focus on counter-terrorism, security, agriculture, education, science, technology, etc. Trade relations In 2021, India was Canada’s 14th largest export market and 13th largest trading partner overall. India became the top source of foreign students studying in Canada — 2.3 lakh, according to 2022 data. India is a key partner as Canada strengthens its economic links to the Indo-Pacific under a new, comprehensive strategy for the region. Challenges in India-Canada Relations:- Sikh extremism and the Presence of Sikh separatist groups in Canada. Concerns about the revival of the Khalistan movement. Sikh Diaspora’s Influence on Canadian Politics Impediments for Trade: India’s Complex labour laws; Market protectionism; Bureaucratic regulations. Areas of Cooperation:- Politically, India and Canada share commonalities in Parliamentary structure and procedures. Commercial: Bilateral trade between India and Canada stands at over USD 6.4 billion in 2020. Negotiations for a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA). Nuclear Cooperation: Nuclear Cooperation Agreement (NCA) signed in 2010 by, the Joint Committee on Civil Nuclear Cooperation, restoration of nuclear cooperation. Security and Defense Collaboration: in international fora, mutual ship visits, Framework for Cooperation between India and Canada on Countering Terrorism in 2018 People-to-People Ties Cultural Exchanges Cooperation during COVID-19 Pandemic. (Second Wave of COVID-19) MUST READ: India and G20 Presidency SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second-largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct GCES Web Portal and Mobile Application Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: The Innovative GCES Web Portal and Mobile Application was launched recently. Background:- Shri Manoj Ahuja Secretary, Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (DA&FW) launched the portal. About GCES Web Portal and Mobile Application:- Launched: September, 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. Objective: the portal and mobile application have been designed to transform agricultural practices across the nation. Salient Features of the GCES Web Portal and Mobile Application:- Comprehensive Information:- The portal and the app provide a comprehensive repository of yield estimation including village-wise GCES plan. Plot details where the crop-cutting experiments are conducted, post-harvesting crop weight, and drainage weight of the crop are also provided. (Crop Insurance) Geo-referencing:- It is one of the key features of the mobile application. It enables the primary worker to draw the boundary of the experimental plot and upload photos of the plot as well as of the crops through it. This feature will ensure transparency and accuracy of the data as well. Challenges Addressed by GCES Web Portal and Mobile Application:- Delay in Reporting: To date, data collection, compilation, and yield estimation is a completely manual process that causes delays in reporting by states. In the new process, the field data will be collected using a GPS-enabled mobile application. Storing the data in the server will ensure on-time reporting of crop statistics. Transparency: GPS-enabled devices provide precise latitude and longitude coordinates for data collection points. This information ensures that data is linked to specific geographic locations, leaving no room for ambiguity or manipulation of data regarding where it was collected. Significance:- It provides for a real-time estimate and technology in agriculture. (InfoCrop) It is in line with the Prime Minister’s vision towards maximizing digital technology for social benefit. About General Crop Estimation Survey (GCES):- Conducted by: ICAR-Indian Agricultural Statistics Research Institute (IASRI). Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. The estimates of crop production are obtained by multiplying the area under the crop and the yield rate. The yield rate estimates are based on scientifically designed crop-cutting experiments conducted under the General Crop Estimation Survey (GCES). The GCES covers around 68 crops (52 food and 16 non-food) in 22 States and 4 Union Territories. Around 5,00,000 experiments are conducted every year with the help of State revenue and agricultural staff of a rank higher than the primary field staff of the departments. The field staff is periodically trained in the conduct of crop-cutting experiments. MUST READ: Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) India has more arable area than China. The proportion of irrigated areas is higher in India as compared to China. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China: How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Pterygotrigla intermedica Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: A new fish species named Pterygotrigla intermedica has been discovered in Bengal’s Digha harbour recently. Background:- The scientists of the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) have discovered a new species of vibrant orange-colored deep-water marine fish from Digha Mohana in West Bengal. It is the fourth species of Pterygotrigla genus reported in India so far. About Pterygotrigla intermedica:- Family: Triglidae. Genus: Pterygotrigla. It is a group of marine fish commonly known as gurnards or sea robins. Habitat: Species within the Pterygotrigla genus are primarily found in deep-water habitats. They are often associated with continental slopes and deep-sea environments. Distribution: The genus has a wide distribution, with various species located in different parts of the world’s oceans, including the Indian Ocean. It is only the fourth species of the Pterygotrigla genus reported in India to date. Worldwide, the Triglidae family comprises a total of 178 species, making this family of fishes ecologically significant (National Surveillance Programme for Aquatic Animal Diseases (NSPAAD)) Food: Gurnards are carnivorous and feed on a diet that includes small fish, crustaceans, and other benthic organisms. Ecological Role: Gurnards play a role in marine ecosystems by controlling populations of smaller organisms and contributing to the overall food web. Unique features of Pterygotrigla intermedica :- It has a distinct pectoral fin with black membranes on the inner surface, a white posterior margin, and three small white spots basally in the fin. It has a long opercular spine and a very short cleithral spine. It has a lateral line, gill rakers on the upper limb, and 12–13 on the lower limb of the first gill arch. It has a large black blotch between the 4th and 6th spines of the first dorsal fin. MUST READ: Zebrafish SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels : (2023) They build nests by making burrows in the ground. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mithun Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, Northeast’s Mithun got the ‘food animal’ tag. Background:- About Mithun:- IMAGE SOURCE: lrrd.org Scientific Name: Bos frontalis. Distribution: It is native to the lush and hilly regions of Northeast India, particularly the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, and Mizoram. It is often referred to as the “Cattle of the Hills”. is considered a descendant of the Indian Gaur or bison. (Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI)) Physical Characteristics:- Mithun resembles the domestic cattle but exhibits distinctive features such as:- a hump over its shoulders, Longg upward-curving horns, and a dewlap (skin flap) under its throat. Their coat color varies, including shades of black, brown, and white. The coloration is often influenced by their age and region. Cultural Significance:- It plays a central role in the cultures and traditions of many indigenous communities in Northeast India. It is often referred to as the “family bank” due to its economic importance. In various tribal societies, Mithun is used in rituals, festivals, and ceremonies. Economic Value:- Mithun is a valuable asset for local communities, serving as a source of livelihood and sustenance. They are used for meat, milk, and hides. Their meat is considered a delicacy in the region. Mithun farming is an integral part of the traditional agro-pastoral system in these regions. Mithun milk, though produced less in quantity, is of high quality and can be used for the preparation of various milk products. Leather obtained from this species has been found to be superior to cattle. Conservation Status:- IUCN: Vulnerable. Wildlife (Protection) Act of India: Schedule I. CITES: Appendix I. MUST READ: New Breeds of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)-National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following organisms ·perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q.2) Consider the following ‘fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None World Rhino Day 2023 Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, preparations are being held for the celebration of World Rhino Day 2023. Background:- World Rhino Day is observed on 22nd September. About World Rhino Day 2023:- Date: 22th September. Objective: to spread awareness for all five species of rhino and the work being done to save them. It was first announced by WWF-South Africa in 2010. This special day provides the opportunity for cause-related organizations, NGOs, zoos, and members of the public to celebrate rhinos in their own unique ways. The scientific name and conservation status of the five species are: – Javan Rhinos (Rhinoceros sondaicus): Critically Endangered Sumatran rhinos (Dicerorhinus sumatrensis): Critically Endangered Black rhinos (Diceros bicornis): Critically Endangered White rhinos (Ceratotherium simum): Near Threatened (Southern white rhino) Greater One-Horned Rhinos (Rhinoceros unicornis): Vulnerable About Indian One-Horned Rhino:- The greater one-horned rhino (or “Indian rhino”) is the largest of the rhino species. Distribution: Nepal, Bhutan, Pakistan, and Assam, India. The greater one-horned rhino is identified by a single black horn about 8-25 inches long and a grey-brown hide with skin folds, which gives it an armour-plated appearance. The species is solitary, except when adult males or rhinos nearing adulthood gather at wallows or to graze. Food: They primarily graze, with a diet consisting almost entirely of grasses as well as leaves, branches of shrubs and trees, fruit, and aquatic plants. Conservation Status:- IUCN Red List: Vulnerable. CITES: Appendix-I Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I. Threats:- Poaching for the horns Habitat loss Population density Decreasing Genetic diversity Conservation Efforts by India:- New Delhi Declaration on Asian Rhinos 2019: India, Bhutan, Nepal, Indonesia, and Malaysia have signed a declaration for the conservation and protection of the species. DNA profiles of all rhinos. National Rhino Conservation Strategy: It was launched in 2019 to conserve the greater one-horned rhinoceros. Indian Rhino Vision 2020: It was an ambitious effort to attain a wild population of at least 3,000 greater one-horned rhinos spread over seven protected areas in the Indian state of Assam by the year 2020. MUST READ: Rhino population up by 200 in Kaziranga SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following? (2023). Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes. Converting crop residues into packing material. Producing biodegradable plastics. Producing biochar from thermochemical conversion of biomass. Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Indian Council for Research on International Economic Relations (ICRIER) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recent reports of the Indian Council for Research on International Economic Relations (ICRIER) suggest that wheat farmers lost Rs 40,000 crore due to govt policy. Background:- The report says that judicious use of trade policy is needed to tame inflation at home without hurting farmer earnings. About the Indian Council for Research on International Economic Relations (ICRIER):- Established: August 1981. HQ: New Delhi. Objective: to enhance the knowledge content of policy making by undertaking analytical research that is targeted at informing India’s policymakers. It also aims at improving the interface with the global economy. ICRIER is a policy-oriented, not-for-profit, economic policy think tank. ICRIER is a not-for-profit society registered under the Society Act,1860. It undertakes research on economic policy and dissemination activities on a cost basis for various Ministries of the Government of India, Bilateral and Multilateral International and Domestic organizations / Foundations. All reports and publications are available on the website icrier.org. Its activities are purely noncommercial in nature and are undertaken on a non-profit basis. ICRIER conducts thematic research in the following five thrust areas:- Growth, Employment and Macroeconomics (GEM) Trade, Investment and External Relations (TIER) Agriculture Policy, Sustainability and Innovation (APSI) Digital Economy, Start-ups and Innovation (DESI) Climate Change, Urbanisation and Sustainability (CCUS) DONATION:- ICRIER accepts general donations. All donations made to ICRIER are eligible for 50% tax exemption under Section 80G (5) of the Income Tax Act, 1961. MUST READ: India and Wheat Exports SOURCE:  BUSINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger( Guizotia aoyssinica) seeds. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in the news in the recent past for its very severe famine? (2023) Angola Costa Rica Ecuador Somalia Mains: Global initiatives in quantum computing: The role of international collaboration Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: Quantum computing is rapidly emerging as a transformative technology, capturing the attention of both public and private sectors worldwide. Its remarkable potential lies in its ability to deliver unprecedented computing speed compared to classical computers and its potential to revolutionize cybersecurity. About Quantum Technology: Quantum computing is based on the principles of Quantum mechanics developed in the early 20th century to describe nature at the scale of atoms and elementary particles. It is a revolutionary approach to computation that leverages the principles of quantum mechanics to process information. It differs significantly from classical computing, which is based on classical physics and uses bits to represent data as either 0 or 1. The Global Quantum Computing Landscape As of 2022, the quantum computing sector has attracted substantial investments, reaching approximately US$35.5 billion globally. This growth can be attributed to the promising leap in computing capabilities offered by quantum computers and the paradigm shift they bring to cybersecurity. Inter-governmental quantum technology Initiatives: European Union: Quantum Technologies Flagship was established by the European Union (EU) in 2018 with a budget of approximately 1 billion euros which aims to consolidate European leadership in quantum technologies. It brings together research institutions, private companies, and public entities to foster collaboration. AUKUS: AUKUS is a trilateral security arrangement formed in 2021 between Australia, the United Kingdom (UK), and the United States (US). The AUKUS Quantum Arrangement, initiated in 2022, aims to accelerate investments in quantum capabilities, with a focus on maintaining a strategic advantage in quantum computing and cryptography, particularly in competition with China. Quadrilateral Security Dialogue: Also known as the Quad, established a Critical and Emerging Technology Working Group in 2021. Its purpose is to ensure that standards and frameworks for key technologies, including quantum computing, are governed by shared interests and values. In May 2023, the Quad Investors Network (QUIN) was launched, connecting investors interested in novel technologies. CERN Quantum Technology Initiative: The European Council for Nuclear Research (CERN) initiated the Quantum Technology Initiative in 2020. It focuses on developing new computing, detector, and communication systems while advancing knowledge of quantum systems and information processing. Private Initiatives: IBM: IBM, a technological innovation leader collaborating with the University of Tokyo and the University of Chicago aims to develop a 100,000-qubit quantum computer over the next decade. In 2022, the Indian Institute of Technology, Madras, joined the IBM Quantum Network, furthering quantum computing research and skills development in India. Google: Google achieved “quantum supremacy” in 2019 and has become a major player in quantum computing. It collaborates with various quantum computing startups, including IonQ, QSimulate, and Pasqal. In 2021, Google launched the Digital Future Initiative, a US$1 billion investment over five years in Australian infrastructure, research, and partnerships. D-Wave: D-Wave, headquartered in Canada specializes in both annealing and gate-model quantum computers and has worked closely with NASA and Google to set up Quantum Artificial Intelligence Labs. Infosys: In India, Infosys has partnered with Australian quantum cybersecurity firm QuintessenceLabs to create a quantum random number generator compatible with classical encryption systems, enhancing cybersecurity capabilities. Potential applications of quantum computing: New Medicines: Quantum computing can help simulate complex molecular interactions, allowing researchers to discover new drugs and optimize existing ones. Improved Climate Predictions: Quantum computers can process vast amounts of data, leading to more accurate climate models and better-informed policies for environmental preservation. Secure Communication: Quantum computers can enable ultrasecure communication using quantum encryption, making it nearly impossible for hackers to intercept sensitive information. Enhanced AI Models: Quantum computing can dramatically improve machine learning algorithms, enabling more efficient and accurate AI models for various applications. Logistics and Supply Chains: Quantum computing can find optimal solutions for complex optimization problems, such as routing and scheduling, to improve efficiency in logistics and supply chains. Better Investment Strategies: Quantum computing can analyze complex financial data, allowing for improved risk assessment and investment strategies in the financial sector. Climate Change: Quantum computing can enhance climate modelling and analysis, aiding in the development of effective climate change mitigation strategies. Challenges in developing quantum computing technology: Engineering larger quantum processors: A practical QC needs at least 1,000 qubits. Currently, the largest quantum processor has 433 qubits. Engineering barriers need to be overcome to create larger processors. Maintaining specific conditions: Qubits require extremely low temperatures, radiation shielding, and protection against physical shock to maintain their superposition states. Error-correction: Quantum error-correction is tricky due to the no cloning theorem, which states that a qubit’s state cannot be perfectly cloned. Error-correction requires entangling each qubit with thousands of physical qubits. Error amplification: Researchers must develop QCs that don’t amplify errors when more qubits are added. Keeping error rates below a certain threshold is crucial, as more qubits could otherwise increase informational noise. Way Forward: Just like the fast-growing Artificial Intelligence market, quantum computing, as another technology, has created a wave among the countries and companies globally to get into a race and acquire a leadership position. Therefore the need of the hour is to build sufficient quantum computational capacity, develop skills in building and operationalizing a practical size and affordable cost quantum computer, continue research into realizing the various practical applications. Source: ORF India’s Food Inflation challenges and solution Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: In the recent times there is a growing concerns about the food inflation trend observed in India. About Food inflation Food inflation refers to the increase in the prices of food items over time. It affects the purchasing power and welfare of consumers, especially the poor and vulnerable sections of the society. The main causes of food inflation in India can be classified into demand-side and supply-side factors. Status of cereal crisis Persistently high inflation in cereal prices, particularly wheat and rice which lead to food inflation. Inflation in Cereals: In August 2023, cereals contributed almost as much to the Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as tomatoes which accounted for 15.49% as compared to 15.51% for tomatoes. Inflation in Rice in the same month CPI inflation was 12.5%. Main reasons behind Supply Chain disruptions in India: As per analysis by agricultural economist Ashok Gulati, non-basmati rice exports surged from 1.38 million tonnes in 2019-20 to 6.4 million tonnes in 2022-23 causing high food inflation. . As per him, these exports occurred at prices lower than the minimum support price (MSP). Rice from the free food program is leaking out of the country in significant quantities and leading to higher domestic prices and leading to food inflation. Fragmented supply chain: The extended and fragmented supply chain leads to wastage and escalating prices. This situation arises due to the significant presence of unorganized players within the supply chain, resulting in operational challenges related to commercial viability. Logistical challenges: Logistics in India confront persistent challenges in terms of quality and connectivity. Despite Indian national highways handling around 40% of cargo despite accounting for only 2% of the total road network, quality and connectivity remain problematic. While port capacity is growing, the absence of proper connectivity to these ports leads to elevated costs and delays in cargo transfers. Inadequate cold storage and warehousing facilities: Warehousing plays a crucial role in the overall supply chain; however, it is predominantly under the purview of unorganized entities. Presently, merely 20% of warehousing falls under organized structures, with the government controlling about 70% of this segment. Insufficient cold storage capacity contributes to post-harvest losses for perishable commodities like fruits, vegetables, dairy, and meat. Climatic factors: Extreme temperature fluctuations and irregular rainfall patterns can adversely impact food grain production and yield. Global Influences: The global scenario also affects food inflation, with instances such as supply chain disruptions resulting from the COVID-19 pandemic, conflicts like the Russia-Ukraine war, and surges in international commodity prices. These elements have raised input costs and restricted the availability of essentials like edible oils, cereals, and sugar. Challenges of Food Inflation and procurement in India: No improvement in procurement: The desperate measures—controls and limits on stocks that are being used for the first time in 15 years, to access supplies did not help improve procurement much. Reduction in consumption: Reduction in farmers earnings reduces consumption spending in the economy. Impacting the economy: The food inflation and supply mess can spill over into the rest of the economy, distorting policies all around. Stressing of exchequer: Government buying products at market prices in competition with private buyers would bankrupt the exchequer. Stressing Farmers’ Income: It was decided to beat down market prices, resulting in decreasing farmers earnings and meant defying the Prime Minister’s instructions of doubling farmer incomes. By selling wheat from the government’s stocks at prices lower than its economic cost (of buying, transporting and storing), market prices were dragged down to the MSP level. Hike in interest rates of the Central Bank: High retail inflation could force the central bank to hike interest rates, hurting India’s economic recovery and blowing up the treasury and threatening fiscal correction. Steps taken by the Indian Government to control Food Inflation: Ban on Export of rice and wheat: The government has put a ban on wheat exports since May 2022 and on the export of atta and similar products since August 2022 to control food inflation. The government also banned exports of non-basmati rice too. Placed export duty: The government, selling from its stockpile at prices lower than their economic cost, has placed a 20% export duty on parboiled rice. Ban on stockpiling and illegal storage: The government has also banned traders, millers, wholesalers and retail chains from holding more than 3,000 tonnes of wheat. Smaller retailers and shops cannot stock more than 10 tonnes. Procurement to combat food inflation: The government procured all of 18.8 million tonnes of wheat against a target of 43.3 million tonnes. Way Forward: Therefore the need of the hour is to address the supply chain constraints causing food inflation in India which requires a comprehensive approach. This includes investing in rural infrastructure, reducing post-harvest losses through improved storage and processing facilities, upgrading transportation systems, and enhancing market access for farmers. India can significantly improve its supply chain efficiency, reduce food wastage, and mitigate the impact of inflation on food prices by implementing these measures. Source:  LM Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Animal IUCN Status 1.Gaur Vulnerable 2.Indian Flying Fox Least Concern 3.Indian Vulture Critically Endangered How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Pterygotrigla intermedica discovered recently in Bengal, is the fourth species of the Pterygotrigla genus reported in India to date. Statement-II: Gurnards are carnivorous. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the GCES Web Portal and Mobile Application, consider the following statements: It was launched in 2017. It provides for a real-time estimate and technology in agriculture. It enables the primary worker to upload photos of the plot as well as of the crops through it. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Explain the significance of international collaboration in advancing quantum computing and its applications. Highlight key inter-governmental and private initiatives. What challenges are the challenges in building quantum collaboration and suggest measures to overcome these challenges? (250 words) Q.2) India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons? Explain (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  22nd September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 21st September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction Syllabus Prelims –DISASTER MANAGEMENT Context: Leaders have recommitted to full implementation of the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction in the recently held summit. Background:- Leaders from around the world gathered on September 18, 2023, for the High-level Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) Summit and agreed to intensify their efforts to deliver SDGs by 2030. About Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction:- IMAGE SOURCE: UNDR Adoption: 2015. Time Period: 2015-2030. It was adopted at the Third UN World Conference in Sendai, Japan, on March 18, 2015. Objective: to guide the multi-hazard management of disaster risk in development at all levels as well as within and across all sectors. Historical Background:- It is the outcome of stakeholder consultations initiated in March 2012 and inter-governmental negotiations from July 2014 to March 2015, supported by the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction at the request of the UN General Assembly. It is the successor instrument to the Hyogo Framework for Action (HFA) 2005-2015: Building the Resilience of Nations and Communities to Disasters. The Sendai Framework outlines seven clear targets and four priorities for action to prevent new and reduce existing disaster risks. The four priorities for action include:- Understanding disaster risk: Disaster risk management should be based on an understanding of disaster risk in all its dimensions. Strengthening disaster risk governance to manage disaster risk: Disaster risk governance at the national, regional, and global levels. Investing in disaster reduction for resilience: Public and private investment in disaster risk prevention and reduction. Enhancing disaster preparedness for effective response, and to “Build Back Better” in recovery, rehabilitation, and reconstruction: strengthen disaster preparedness for response. It aims to achieve the substantial reduction of disaster risk and losses in lives, livelihoods, and health and in the economic, physical, social, cultural, and environmental assets of persons, businesses, communities, and countries. It recognizes that the State has the primary role to reduce disaster risk. It believes that responsibility should be shared with other stakeholders including local government, the private sector, and other stakeholders. (Reimagining Disaster Management) The Sendai Framework works hand in hand with the other 2030 Agenda agreements, including The Paris Agreement on Climate Change. Significance:- The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030 was the first major agreement of the post-2015 development agenda. It provides Member States with concrete actions to protect development gains from the risk of disaster. MUST READ: Joshimath crisis SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2016) The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015. The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Hoysala Temples Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: As per recent announcements, the Hoysala Temples, will be India’s 42nd UNESCO World Heritage Site. Background:- The announcement was made by the agency in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, where the 45th session of the World Heritage Committee is being held till September 25, 2023. Rabindranath Tagore’s Santiniketan, the university town in West Bengal, was also included as a world heritage site previously. About Hoysala Temples:- IMAGE SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS The sacred ensembles of the Hoysalas, that has been inscribed on the UNESCO’s World Heritage List includes three temples in Karnataka. The three Hoyasala temples include:- Chennakeshava temple Location: Belur (Hassan district), Karnataka. It is located at the centre of the traditional settlement which is surrounded by the remnants of a mud fort and a moat. The Garbhagriha is stellar shaped with zigzag walls making 24 forms of Lord Vishnu looking different at all times of the day due to light and shade effect. Shantaladevi, the queen of King Vishnuvardhana, is represented in Darpana Sundari (lady with the mirror). Sculpture and bracket figures of madanikas (celestial nymphs) are on the ceiling. Temples of Kappe Chennigaraya, Soumyanayaki, Andal, and other Vaishnava manifestations, surround the main temple. Hoysaleswara Temple Location: Halebidu (Hassan district), Karnataka. River: It is on the banks of the Dwarasamudra tank in Halebidu. It is a town that has many protected and unprotected temples, archaeological ruins, and mounds. Twin-shrine temple, perhaps the largest Shiva temple built by Hoysala kings. Poised on a star-shaped base that consists 8 rows of friezes carved with elephants, lions, horses, and floral scrolls. Outer walls have intricately carved Hindu deities, sages, stylized animals, birds, and friezes depicting the life of Hoysala kings. Imagery from epics like Ramayana, Mahabharata, and Bhagavad Gita adorn the outer walls. Highly ornate temple doorways. The Nandimantapa with a decorated Nandi statue is positioned right in front of the temple. The exquisite carvings in the interiors of the temple have highly polished lathe-turned pillars. Keshava Temple Location: Mysore district, Karnataka. It is at the center of Somanathapura village (Mysore district). It is a Vaishnava temple. River: Built on the banks of River Kaveri at Somanathapura. It was consecrated in 1258 CE by Somanatha Dandanayaka who was a general of King Narasimha III. It is enclosed in a walled courtyard with a mahadvara (major gate) and tall carved soapstone pillars. Soapstone: a green-grey chloritic schist material that is soft in a quarry but hardens when exposed to the air. There are inscription stones in old Kannada, with Hindu iconography and miniature reliefs of Keshava, Janardhana, and Venugopala. About Hoysala Architecture:- Hoysala architecture developed under the rule of the Hoysala Empire between the 11th and 14th centuries. It is mostly concentrated in southern Karnataka. Hoysala temples are sometimes called hybrid or vesara as their unique style seems between Dravida and Nagara styles. The Hoysala temples contain multiple shrines grouped around a central pillared hall and laid out in the shape of an intricately designed star. They are made out of soapstone which is a relatively soft stone. They are easily distinguishable from other medieval temples by their highly original star-like ground plans and a profusion of decorative carvings. List of World Heritage Sites In India: Cultural 34 Agra Fort (1983) Ajanta Caves (1983) Archaeological Site of Nalanda Mahavihara at Nalanda, Bihar (2016) Buddhist Monuments at Sanchi (1989) Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park (2004) Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus (formerly Victoria Terminus) (2004) Churches and Convents of Goa (1986) Dholavira: a Harappan City (2021) Elephanta Caves (1987) Ellora Caves (1983) Fatehpur Sikri (1986) Great Living Chola Temples (1987, 2004) Group of Monuments at Hampi (1986) Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram (1984) Group of Monuments at Pattadakal (1987) Hill Forts of Rajasthan (2013) Historic City of Ahmadabad (2017) Humayun’s Tomb, Delhi (1993) Jaipur City, Rajasthan (2019) Kakatiya Rudreshwara (Ramappa) Temple, Telangana (2021) Khajuraho Group of Monuments (1986) Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya (2002) Mountain Railways of India (1999, 2005, 2008) Qutb Minar and its Monuments, Delhi (1993) Rani-ki-Vav (the Queen’s Stepwell) at Patan, Gujarat (2014) Red Fort Complex (2007) Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka (2003) Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas (2023) Santiniketan (2023) Sun Temple, Konârak (1984) Taj Mahal (1983) The Architectural Work of Le Corbusier, an Outstanding Contribution to the Modern Movement (2016) The Jantar Mantar, Jaipur (2010) Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai (2018) Natural 7 Great Himalayan National Park Conservation Area (2014) Kaziranga National Park (1985) Keoladeo National Park (1985) Manas Wildlife Sanctuary (1985) Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks (1988, 2005) Sundarbans National Park (1987) Western Ghats (2012) Mixed 1 Khangchendzonga National Park (2016) MUST READ: Khajuraho temples SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3  Q.2) Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of (2019) Chalukya Chandela Rashtrakuta Vijayanagara Line of Control (LoC) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: The Indian Army and Jammu and Kashmir Police killed three terrorists along the Line of Control (LoC) in Uri, Jammu and Kashmir recently. Background:- One of the three terrorists who attempted to cross the LoC into India at Uri town in the Baramulla district received cover fire from Pakistani forces, said Brigadier PMS Dhillon, commander of the Pir Panjal Brigade of the Indian Army. About Line of Control (LoC):- The full form of LOC is Line of Control. It is the military command line between the parts of the former princely state of Jammu & Kashmir administered by India & Pakistan. It is not an international boundary. However, under international law, it is defined and protected by a bilateral treaty, the 1972 Shimla Agreement. LOC was originally known as the Cease-fire Line. It was redesignated as the “Line of Control” following the Shimla Agreement. The Shimla Agreement was signed on 3 July 1972. It is delineated on a map signed by DGMOs of both armies and has the international sanctity of a legal agreement. The part of Jammu that is under Indian control was known as the state of Jammu and Kashmir. Currently, Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh are the two union territories that make up the portion of the erstwhile princely state that is under Indian administration. The Pakistani-controlled part is divided into Azad Jammu and Kashmir and Gilgit–Baltistan. The northernmost point of the Line of Control is known as  NJ9842. The Line of Control divided Kashmir into two parts and closed the Jehlum valley route. LOC is clearly demarcated by the militaries and a lot of activities (i.e. face to face-to-face confrontation, firings, etc.) take place. The Indian and Pakistan army is present here. (Judicial remedies for the Jammu and Kashmir net restrictions). MUST READ: Article 370 SOURCE: BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? (2022) To ratify the declaration of Emergency To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comptroller Auditor General of India (CAG) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, a series of violations and other discrepancies, in the wildlife sanctuaries of Gujarat managed by the state forest department, were flagged by the Comptroller Auditor General of India (CAG). Background:- Poor spending of funds has led to mismanagement, leaving the forests open for encroachment, mining, and deforestation, added CAG in its report tabled in the state assembly on September 16, 2023. Less than 1 percent of the allotted fund was spent by the forest department in 2016-17. Though the state government allocated Rs 85,557.78 crore, just Rs 1,000 crore or 0.78 percent was spent, CAG pointed out. About the Comptroller Auditor General of India (CAG):- The Constitution of India provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) in Chapter V under Part V. He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. He is the guardian of the public purse. He acts as a guide, friend, and philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament. Appointment: CAG is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. Tenure: 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier. Removal: CAG can be removed by the President only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution which is the manner same as the removal of a Supreme Court Judge. He is ineligible to hold any office, either under the Government of India or of any state, once he retires/resigns as a CAG. Salary: His salary and other service conditions cannot be varied to his disadvantage after the appointment. Conditions of service: His administrative powers and the conditions of service of persons serving in the Indian Audit and Accounts Department are prescribed by the President only after consulting him. The administrative expenses of the office of CAG, including all salaries, allowances, and pensions are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India that is not subject to vote. Constitutional Provisions regarding the CAG:- Article 148–151, in Part V of the constitution of India deals with the appointment, oath, and conditions of service, Duties, and Powers of CAG. Article 279 – The calculation of “net proceeds” is ascertained and certified by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, whose certificate is final. Third Schedule – Section IV of the Third Schedule of the Constitution of India prescribes the form of oath or affirmation to be made by the Judges of the Supreme Court and the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India at the time of assumption of office. Sixth Schedule– According to this schedule, the District Council or Regional Council should be kept in such form as the CAG prescribes with the approval of the President. Functions of CAG:- CAG audits the accounts related to all expenditures from the Consolidated Fund of India, the Consolidated Fund of each state, and UT’s having a legislative assembly. He audits all expenditures from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India as well as the Contingency Fund and Public Account of each state. He audits all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts, balance sheets, and other subsidiary accounts kept by any department of the Central Government and the state governments. He audits the receipts and expenditures of all bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Central or State revenues. (Accountability of CAG)) He audits the accounts of any other authority when requested by the President or Governor. MUST READ: UIDAI audit by CAG SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2016) The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 SHREYAS scheme Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: As per recent estimates, over 2300 crore rupees have been allocated for the education of students since 2014 under the SHREYAS scheme. Background:- SHREYAS National Fellowship Scheme benefits more than 21,000 SC students for Higher Education. About SHREYAS scheme:- Launched:2014. Ministry: Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment. SHREYAS stands for, the Scholarships for Higher Education for Young Achievers Scheme. It is an umbrella scheme that comprises 4 central sector sub-schemes. Since all these sub-schemes are central sector schemes, state-wise data is not maintained for these schemes. Objectives:– Provide high-quality coaching to economically disadvantaged SC and OBC Candidates. Prepare them for competitive and entrance exams for public and private sector jobs. Facilitate admissions to prestigious technical and professional higher education institutions. Salient Features:- SHREYAS stands for, the Scholarships for Higher Education for Young Achievers Scheme. The 4 central sector sub-schemes under it include:- Top Class Education for SCs Free Coaching Scheme for SCs and OBCs National Overseas Scheme for SCs National Fellowship for SCs. Top Class Education for SCs:- Objectives:- To provide coaching of good quality for economically disadvantaged Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Other Backward Classes (OBCs) candidates. To enable them to appear in competitive and entrance examinations for obtaining appropriate jobs in the Public/Private Sector as well as for securing admission in reputed technical and professional higher education institutions. The ceiling of the total family income under the scheme is 8 lakhs per annum. The ratio of SC: OBC students is 70:30. 30% of slots are reserved for females in each category. In case of the non-availability of an adequate number of candidates in the SC category, the Ministry can relax this ratio. However, in no case, a less than 50% SC student shall be permitted. Top-Class Education for SCs:- Objective: recognizing and promoting quality education amongst students belonging to SCs by providing full financial support. The Scheme will cover SC students pursuing studies beyond the 12th class. The scholarship, once awarded, will continue till the completion of the course, subject to satisfactory performance of the student. The ceiling of the total family income under the scheme is 8 lakhs per annum. Under the scheme, full tuition fees, non-refundable charges, and academic allowance expenses are provided. National Overseas Scheme for SCs:- Under this scheme, financial assistance is provided to the selected students from SCs, De-notified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes, landless agricultural labourers, and traditional artisan categories for pursuing master and Ph.D. level courses abroad. Such students can benefit under the scheme whose total family income, including the candidate, is less than 8 lakhs per annum, who have more than 60% marks in the qualifying examination, who are below 35 years of age, and who secured admission in top 500 QS ranking foreign Institutes/ Universities. Under the scheme, total tuition fees, maintenance and contingency allowance, and visa fees, to and fro air passage, are provided to the awardees. (Education & Nation Building) National Fellowship for SC Students:- Under the scheme, fellowship is provided to Scheduled Castes students for pursuing higher education leading to M.Phil/Ph.D. degrees in Sciences, Humanities, and Social Sciences in Universities/Institutions/ Colleges recognized by the University Grants Commission (UGC). The scheme provides for 2000 new slots per year who have qualified the National Eligibility Test- Junior Research Fellowship (NET-JRF) of UGC and Junior Research Fellows for Science stream qualifying UGC-Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (UGC-CSIR) Joint Test. MUST READ: Gender gap in education SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Regarding Digi Locker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under the Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Old Parliament Building Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: As per recent reports, the old Parliament Building will be turned into a museum. Background:- From September 19, 2023, the ongoing special House session has been moved to the new Parliament building. The old Parliament will be turned into a museum. About the old Parliament Building:- Location: New Delhi. Designed by British architects Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker. Foundation laid: February 12, 1921. Inaugurated: January 18, 1927. Historical Background:- At the coronation of George V as Emperor of India on December 12, 1911, the monarch decided to transfer the seat of the Government of India from Calcutta to the ancient Capital of Delhi. This 164-pillared building first housed the Imperial Legislative Council (From January 18, 1927 to August 15, 1947) in Delhi following this transfer. After Independence, it served as the Constituent Assembly of India. After the adoption of the Constitution it became the Parliament of India, housing the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. In 2019, the central government announced the redevelopment project to give a new identity to the ‘power corridor’ of India. This project is known as the Central Vista redevelopment project. The plan included the construction of a new parliament. Architecture:- The circular, colonnaded Parliament building has for long been a symbol of India’s democracy. The parliament building’s construction took six years – from 1921 to 1927. It is popularly believed that the circular shape of the Chausath Yogini temple at Mitawli village in Madhya Pradesh’s Morena provided inspiration for the Council House design. However, there is no historical evidence to back this up. A few Indian elements added include:- Jaalis: a latticed carving depicting objects like flowers and other patterns. chhatris: a domed roof atop a pavilion-like structure. It features Indian architectural motifs, such as the use of columns and domes. The building is renowned for its architectural blend of Western and Indian styles. The goal of the architecture was to project the strength of British imperialism and rule over India. Hence, both the architects agreed to highlight the superiority of European classicism, upon which Indian traditions had to be based. The circular building has 144 cream sandstone pillars. The building is surrounded by large gardens. (Mughal Gardens) MUST READ: Puri Jagannath Temple SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were well-known as (2023) capital cities ports centers of iron-and-steel making shrines of Jain Tirthankaras Q.2)With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Kisan Rin Portal Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY/GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, the Indian govt launched the Kisan Rin Portal with the weather portal WIND. Background:- Government launches Kisan Rin Portal under the Kisan Credit Card scheme to revolutionize the agriculture sector of India, along with the weather information Network Data Systems (WINDS) portal. The WIND portal:- Launched: July 2023. Objective: to leverage advanced weather data analytics and to give stakeholders actionable insight to make informed weather decisions on agriculture. The portal also provides a comprehensive manual to stakeholders for an in-depth understanding of the portal functionalities, data interpretations, and effective utilization, empowering farmers, policymakers, and various agricultural entities to make well-informed decisions. About Kisan Rin Portal:- Launched: September,2023. Objective: to revolutionize access to credit services under the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme, particularly for farmers. The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme is a credit scheme introduced in August 1998 by Indian public sector banks. Implementation: Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare (MoA&FW), Ministry of Finance, Reserve Bank of India (RBI), and National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). Salient Features:- The Kisan Rin portal serves as an integrated hub. It offers a comprehensive view of farmer data. It will also show the progress in scheme utilization. It will provide farmers easy access to subsidized loans under the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme. (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi) The Kisan Rin digital platform will offer:- a comprehensive view of farmer data scheme utilization progress loan disbursement specifics (Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF)) interest subvention claims It will facilitate farmers in availing of subsidized agricultural credit through the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme (MISS). Benefits:- By fostering seamless integration with banks, this pioneering portal enables proactive policy interventions, strategic guidance, and adaptive enhancements for more focused and efficient agriculture credit and optimum utilization of interest subvention. It will increase seamless integration with banks for more effective and efficient agriculture credit. MUST READ: Digital Platform Kisan Sarathi SOURCE: BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger( Guizotia aoyssinica) seeds. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in the news in the recent past for its very severe famine? (2023) Angola Costa Rica Ecuador Somalia Mains: Strengthening of Power Sector in India Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) recently projects India’s power sector demand to increase 1.8 times between 2021-22 and 2031-32. At this rate, India’s annual per capita electricity consumption will be about 1,700-1,800 units in 2031-32. Power Sector in India: India was ranked 4th in wind power, 5th in solar power and 4th in renewable power installed capacity, as of 2020. Installed Generation Capacity (Fuel wise): Fossil Fuel – 2,37,269MW (56.8%) in which Coal and Lignite has largest share 50.7%, India is the only country among the G20 nations that is on track to achieve the targets under the Paris Agreement. As of October 2022, India’s installed renewable energy capacity (including hydro) stood at 165.94 GW, representing 40.6% of the overall installed power capacity. Solar energy is estimated to contribute 62 GW, followed by 41.84 GW from wind power, 10.70 GW from biomass, 4.92 GW from small hydropower, and 46.85 GW from hydropower. Challenges in India’s Power Sector Transformation: Policy and Regulation of power Sector: Electricity is listed in a ‘concurrent list’ in seven schedules, therefore there is lack of coordination and cooperation between centre and states. Generation of electricity in the power sector: In spite of the renewables push, coal still accounts for about 50% of India’s installed power capacity. Central Electricity Authority (CEA) identified land acquisition, fund constraints with contractors, and contractual disputes as some key issues leading to delays. Subsidies: Government subsidy and cross-subsidy from industrial and commercial consumers attempt to keep electricity affordable for residential and agricultural consumers. For example, in 2019-20, while 21% of the total electricity supply was sold to agricultural consumers, their share in the total revenue was only 2%. Transmission issue in power sector: The country’s weak transmission grid remains a serious hurdle. For example: A planned approach to build huge solar plants in Leh was recently cancelled due to a lack of transmission infrastructure. Climate Finance and decarbonization: India’s pledge at the COP-26 summit to have 500 GW of non-fossil generation capacity by 2030. These will require investments of about Rs 32 lakh crore. Transmission lines overloading: Due to higher loads during peak hours, transmission lines frequently experience issues. Distribution in power sector: Discoms are the weakest link in India’s Power sector. Discoms continue to register financial losses, technical and commercial losses remain high. Although private participation is permitted, their presence among discoms is limited. Underutilization of Renewable Energy Potential: The National Electricity Plan (NEP) projects a compounded annual growth rate (CAGR) of 7% in energy demand from FY22 to FY27. The report estimates that the pace of solar installations will need to double to over 30 GW per year to meet the NEP targets. Solutions to tackle these challenges: Fuel Reforms: Various aspects like ramping up coal production by both public and private sector in a time-bound manner, increased participation of private sector in coal production and easing of regulatory framework etc need to be addressed while formulating such reforms. Taxation: Power-generating companies should not be saddled with the burden of cross-subsidising the renewable sector. This can be borne by the society (through taxation) and not by the entities that are already in trouble. Cooperative federalism: To resolve water disputes, government must help states to come to a common ground. Emphasis should be on cooperative federalism with shared benefit to all the states. Balanced Regulatory Interventions: Regulators need to be sensitised to the challenges faced by the sector and policy framework needs to be crafted and enforced to ensure a win-win situation for all the stakeholders. They must pro-actively intervene to resolve the immediate issues ailing the power sector. Increased Financing Facilities for Energy Sector: A robust and sustainable credit enhancement mechanism for funding in Energy Sector needs to be put in place through increased participation by global funding agencies like The World Bank, ADB etc. in the entire value chain. Merger of ministries: There should be only one energy ministry to make coordination and implementation of policies better. It will remove policy paralysis too. Reduction of transmission losses: This should be achieved by better infrastructure and technological efforts. Old plants should be shut and should be replaced with new. Government Initiatives to Reform the Power Sector: The Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana (SAUBHAGYA): It aims to achieve universal household electrification by providing electricity connections to all un-electrified households. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY): The DDUGJY launched in 2014 a program to achieve 100% village electrification. The Unnat Jyoti by Affordable LEDs for All (UJALA) scheme: To provide energy efficient LED bulbs to domestic consumers at an affordable price. Restructured Distribution Sector Scheme (RDSS): To enhance the efficiency of power distribution. UDAY Scheme: Launched in 2015 for Operational and Financial Turnaround of Power Distribution Companies. Way Forward: Therefore India’s growing economy demands an exponential increase in electricity supply, which requires a comprehensive reforms in policy, regulation, and the entire power sector are essential. By embracing decentralization, upgrading technology, and privatizing distribution companies, India can pave the way for a more efficient and sustainable power sector, ensuring a brighter future for its citizens. Source:  BS MUST READ:  State if DISCOM’s in India Exploring Bima Sugam: A Revolution in Indian Insurance Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) claims that the proposed Bima Sugam is a “game changer” and a “UPI moment” for the insurance segment. About Bima Sugam Platform: Bima Sugam will enable individuals to buy life, health, motor or property insurance policies online. The platform will enable easy access under a single roof for insurance companies, agents, brokers, banks and even aggregators. The platform will act as a centralised database which will assist consumers with all insurance related queries. The overall budget for Bima Sugam has been hiked to Rs 200 crore from around Rs 85 crore. Ownership: Life insurance and general insurance companies will own a 47.5 percent stake each, while brokers and agent bodies will own 2.5 percent each. Significance of the Bima Sugam Platform: Cost Effective: Commissions on policies are expected to come down, benefiting the customers. The cost of buying policies will come down. Single Platform with various Options: Bima Sugam will enable them to identify a suitable scheme for the customers in a single platform. They have to spend time talking to agents and visiting the websites of different insurers to select a suitable scheme. Access of Data on real-time basis: It will facilitate insurance companies to access the validated and authentic data from various touch points on a real-time basis. Reduce Paperwork: The platform will interface for the intermediaries and agents to sell policies and provide services to policyholders, among others, and reduce paperwork. Single window for the Policyholders: The proposed Bima Sugam platform would act as a single window for the policyholder to manage his/her insurance coverage. End-to-end Solutions Provider: Bima Sugam will provide end-to-end solutions for customers’ insurance needs i.e., purchase, service, and settlement in a seamless manner. Faster Claims and Renewals: Settlement of claims and renewal of policies will also become faster as paperwork is reduced drastically, making it easier for the customers. An Electronic Marketplace Protocol: As per IRDAI, Bima Sugam would universalise and democratize insurance, which would enable and empower all insurance stakeholders across the insurance value chain. Challenges with the Insurance Sector in India: Fraud: Fraud is a major challenge in the insurance sector in India. Insurance fraud includes false claims, misrepresentations, and other illegal activities. Fraud can often be facilitated by weaknesses in an organization’s systems and controls, which can create opportunities for those intent on committing fraud. More than 70% of Indian insurers indicated a marginal to a significant increase in frauds in the past two years. Low Penetration: The insurance penetration rate in India is low as compared to other countries. This is due to low awareness and a lack of trust among people towards insurance. According to the IRDAI, the penetration of the Indian insurance industry is less than 5% of the GDP. In terms of penetration, India is far behind the global average of 7% of the GDP. Lack of Product Innovation: The insurance sector in India has been slow in product innovation. Many insurance companies offer similar products, which leads to a lack of differentiation in the market. Slow Rate of Digitalization by Incumbents: The insurance sector in India has been slow to adopt digitalization compared to other industries, which has resulted in several challenges such as inefficient processes, lack of transparency, and poor customer experience. Claims Management: The claims process in India is often seen as complicated, slow, and opaque, which can lead to customer dissatisfaction and loss of trust in the insurance industry. This can be due to a lack of transparency, inefficient processes, and poor communication with customers. Lack of Automation: Many insurance companies in India still rely on manual processes for tasks such as underwriting, policy servicing, and claims management, which can be time-consuming and error prone. This can result in delays, higher costs, and dissatisfied customers. Way Forward: The implementation of Bima Sugam may pose significant technological challenges, but it holds the potential to enhance insurance penetration in India. As the insurance sector embraces innovation and technology, Bima Sugam could pave the way for a more inclusive and secure future for policyholders in the country. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Temple Location 1.Sammed Shikharji Jain Temple Jharkhand 2.Modhera Sun temple Gujarat 3.Srisailam Temple Kerala How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Investing in disaster reduction for resilience is one of the four priorities for action of the Sendai Framework. Statement-II: It is the predecessor of the Hyogo Framework for Action (HFA). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Comptroller Auditor General of India (CAG), consider the following statements: His pension comes from the Consolidated Fund of India and is subject to vote. He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. He has a tenure of 5 years or 60 years of age, whichever is earlier. How many of the statements given above are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only and 3 only only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Describe the benefits of deriving electric energy from sunlight in contrast to conventional energy generation. What are the initiatives offered by our government for this purpose? (2020) Q.2) What are the major challenges of insurance sector in India, and suggest innovative steps to address them? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  21st September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 20th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – a