Dec 22, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 22nd December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Dec 22, 2023 UPSC Interview Discussion-TRP

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 5] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 5 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Think about a relationship that has significantly evolved over time. How has this evolution affected you personally? Reflect on a personal fear or insecurity you have confronted. How did you face it, and what impact has this had on your self-confidence or self-perception? Consider a time when you were misunderstood. How did you handle the situation, and what did it teach you about communication and perspective? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  The Russia-Ukraine situation is more than just a regional conflict; it’s a matter that’s affecting the whole world. The big question on everyone’s mind is about the role of the international community. It’s a situation that tests the boundaries of diplomacy and international law. So, what’s your take on this? How should countries, including India, respond to such conflicts? It’s about finding that balance between standing up for what’s right and keeping global stability. What do you think are the long-term implications for international relations? We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

Dec 21, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Rozgar Melas Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Rozgar Melas events are being held across the country recently. Background:- New appointees are inducted into various Central Ministries/ Departments/ Central Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs)/ Autonomous Bodies including Health and education Institutes, Public Sector Banks etc. Filling up vacant posts in various Ministries/Departments is a continuous process. All vacant posts are being filled in a Mission Mode. About Rozgar Melas:- 1st Edition of National Rozgar Mela: October 22, 2022. Ministry: Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Objective: To give impetus to the employment initiatives in the country, the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) under the aegis of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE), Government of India has been organizing Rozgar Melas across the nation to provide suitable job opportunities in the private sector to the unemployed youth. A Rozgar Mela is a 1/2-day event where several employers and job seekers come together for the purpose of applying and interviewing for jobs. These Rozgar Melas generally cater to the youth in the age group of 18-35 Years with an academic qualification covering 8th/10th/12th Pass, ITI, Diploma, Graduates etc. including the trained and certified candidates conforming to National Skills Qualifications Framework. The jobseekers for the Rozgar Mela are sensitized & mobilized through various channels including Print Advertisement, Bulk SMS, Social Media & workshops at the College and university Level in & around the districts of the Rozgar Mela. Under the Rozgar Mela Scheme, 10 lakh jobs will be available for candidates to apply in Group A and B Gazetted Posts, Group B Non-Gazetted and Group C Non-Gazetted posts. Activities in  Rozgar Melas:- Counselling Sessions for the jobseekers & their parents, Kaushal Melas for the registration of youth under fresh skill development training (PMKK/PMKVY), and Mudra Loan Facilitation Counters & Skill Exhibition (where SSCs demonstrate the training model, equipment, and job roles of their respective sectors) Goals of Rozgar Mela:- Empowering the youth Providing opportunities for the youth to contribute to the nation’s development Fast-tracking the meeting of job seekers and employers Reflecting the Prime Minister’s vision that development should reach all parts of the country equally Contribution of Rozgar Mela:- Rozgar Mela gives an opportunity for job seekers to learn more about potential employers and various employment opportunities available, including entrepreneurship. It also offers a platform for organizations to meet potential employees in an informal setting. It brings skilled candidates in direct contact with recruiters, HR managers, admission officers, and advisory bodies/training providers. Significance:- It is anticipated that the Rozgar Mela will play a pivotal role in promoting employment opportunities and providing meaningful avenues for the empowerment of the youth, enabling their active participation in the development of the nation. (Self-Reliant India) It serves as a platform for job seekers to apply for jobs and participate in interviews. MUST READ: Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojana SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments, and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (2022) Central Statistics Office Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade Labour Bureau National Technical Manpower Information System Q.2)  Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, ‘medium enterprises are those with investments in plant and machinery between (‘ 15 crores and ’25 crore). All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Consumer Price Index Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The All-India Consumer Price Index Number for Agricultural Labourers and Rural Labourers for the month of November 2023 was increased recently. Key Highlights:- CPI increased by 12 points and 11 points respectively to stand at 1253 and 1262 points respectively. There has been an upward trend in the index across all the states except West Bengal (both CPI-AL and CPI-RL indices decreased) and Himachal Pradesh (the CPI-AL index decreased). In the case of Agricultural Labourers, it recorded an increase of 1 to 10 points in 11 States, 11 to 20 points in 4 states and an increase of more than 20 points in 3 states. In the case of Rural Labourers, it recorded an increase of 1 to 10 points in 11 states, 11 to 20 points in 5 states and an increase of more than 20 points in 3 states. Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu with 1439 points each topped the index table whereas Himachal Pradesh with 1015 points stood at the bottom. Among states, the maximum increase for CPI-AL was experienced by Maharashtra of 27 points which was mainly driven by the increased prices of jowar, rice, wheat atta, tapioca, arhar dal, onion and sugar etc. Point to point rate of inflation based on the CPI-AL and CPI-RL stood at 7.37% and 7.13% in November, 2023 compared to 7.08% and 6.92% respectively in October, 2023 and 6.87% and 6.99% respectively during the corresponding month of  previous year. About Consumer Price Index:- The Consumer Price Index (CPI) examines the weighted average of prices of a basket of consumer goods and services, such as transportation, food and medical care. The CPI calculates the difference in the price of commodities and services such as food, medical care, education, electronics etc, which Indian consumers buy for use. Type of CPI:- There are 4 different types of CPI measured:- CPI for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) It attempts to quantify changes in the pricing of a fixed basket of products and services used by Industrial Workers over time. Released by: Labour Bureau, Ministry of Labour and Employment. Base Year: 2016. CPI for Agricultural Laborers (CPI-AL) It helps to revise minimum wages for agricultural labor in different States. Released by: Labour Bureau, Ministry of Labour and Employment. Base Year:1986-87. CPI for Rural Labourer (CPI-RL) Released by: Labour Bureau, Ministry of Labour and Employment. Base Year:1986-87. CPI (Rural/Urban/Combined) Released by: National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation Base Year: 2012. Calculation:– It is calculated by taking price changes for each item in the predetermined basket of goods and averaging them. The formula to calculate the Consumer Price Index (CPI) is as follows: CPI = (Total cost of basket of goods and services in the current period / Total cost of the basket of goods and services in the base period) x 100. Uses:- To calculate the inflation levels CPI’s annual percentage change is also used to assess inflation. To compute the cost of living. Determine the purchasing power of a country’s currency. Understanding the real value of wages, salaries, pensions, etc. Price regulation. Provides insights into consumer spending Significance:- Changes in the CPI are used to assess price changes associated with the cost of living. MUST READ: India’s sticky Inflation SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. IIGs provide protection to investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Blue dragons Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Venomous blue dragons were spotted near the seashore in Besant Nagar, Chennai recently. Background:- Usually found in open sea surface waters, they sometimes get pushed to the shore due to a storm or some oceanic condition. About Blue Dragons:- Scientific Name: Glaucus atlanticus Habitat: Open ocean Distribution: Atlantic, Pacific, and Indian Oceans Lifespan: Unknown, potentially up to one year It is a type of mollusc known as a nudibranch. They also are known as blue sea slugs, blue angels, and sea swallows. They are typically slow-moving, terrestrial, and slimy. They can’t move fast, or eat vegetables. It isn’t venomous all on its own, however, it stores the stinging nematocysts created by the creatures on which it feeds. Its sting can cause problems, especially to children and elderly. One sting from this little creature can lead to nausea, pain, vomiting, acute allergic contact dermatitis, and post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation. They are hermaphrodites. They are up to around 3cm (1.2 inch) long. They weigh up to 50g or less. They can be Blue, silver, or white in Colour. Their diet is Siphonophores and snails. MUST READ: National Surveillance Programme for Aquatic Animal Diseases SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following organisms ·perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q.2) Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Sahitya Akademi awards for 2023 Syllabus Prelims – IMPORTANT AWARDS/ ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, Sahitya Akademi awards for 2023 were announced. Key Highlights of Sahitya Akademi Awards for 2023 :- Nine books of poetry, six novels, five short story collections, three essays and one literary study have won the Sahitya Akademi Awards this year. Tamil author Rajasekaran has been chosen for his novel Neervazhi Padooum, Telugu writer Patanjali Sastry for his short story collection and Malayalam litterateur,EV Ramakrishnan for his literary study Malayala Novelinte Deshakalangal. The authors who will receive the honour for their poetry collections include Vijay Verma in Dogri, Vinod Joshi in Gujarati, and Ashutosh Parida in Odia. The authors who have been chosen for their short stories include Pranavjyoti Deka in Assamese, Nandeswar Daimary in Bodo, and Taraceen Baskey in Santali. Sanjeev will get Sahitya Akademi Award for his Hindi novel Mujhe Pahachaano and Neelam Saran Gour will get the award for her English Novel Requiem in Raga Janki. The award, in the form of a casket containing an engraved copper plaque, a shawl, and one lakh rupees. The Award will be presented at the award presentation function on 12th March next year. About Sahitya Akademi awards:- Established: 12 March 1954. Given By: Sahitya Akademi, Government of India. Sahitya Akademi Award is a literary honour that is conferred annually. It was the First Time Conferred in 1955. It is awarded in Languages The Award is presented to the most outstanding books of literary merit published in any of the twenty-four major Indian languages recognized by the Akademi (including English). Sahitya Akademi Award is the second highest literary honour by the Government of India, after the Jananpith award. Decoration:- The Award in the form of an engraved copper-plaque, and a cash prize of Rs. 1,00,000/- Eligibility:- The author must be of Indian Nationality. Selection process:- For the main award/ Bhasha Samman conducted through a rigorous and confidential process overseen by experts – the body comprises one writer chosen from each of the 24 regional languages. Each member suggests 200 names, following which an expert committee finalises 50 in phase one → 5 in the next phase and finally, one of the five is shortlisted. MUST READ: Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards : (2023) Major Dhyan Chand:       For the most spectacular and outstanding performance and outstanding Khel Ratna Award performance over a period of the last four years. Arjuna Award:                   For the lifetime achievement of a sportsperson. Dronacharya Award:       To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams. Rashtriya Khel:                 To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Ex-Parte Decree Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the Supreme Court recently held that a Civil Revision Petition under Section 115 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (CPC) is not maintainable against the dismissal of an application filed under Order IX Rule 13 of the CPC to set aside an ex-parte decree. Background:- The Court clarified that Section 115 cannot be invoked to challenge dismissals of applications seeking to set aside ex-parte decrees. Section 115 deals with the revisional powers of the High Court to scrutinize lower court judgments. About Ex-Parte Decree:- Ex-parte decrees are judicial orders issued without the other party’s participation, typically in urgent situations where one party claims irreparable harm or injustice. These decrees are temporary and subject to review upon a subsequent hearing involving both parties. These are commonly utilized in family law cases such as child custody, domestic violence, or divorce to ensure immediate protection for a party or a child facing imminent danger or harm. As per the CPC, there is no specific time limit mentioned to file an application to set aside the ex-parte order, but it is advisable to file the application as soon as possible after becoming aware of the ex-parte order. The applicant should provide supporting evidence to substantiate their claim. For example, if the ground for setting aside the order is improper service of summons, the applicant may need to provide proof that the summons was not served correctly. The court will schedule a hearing to consider the application. (the workings of the Supreme Court collegium) The court will assess the validity of the grounds presented by the applicant and may inquire into the circumstances that led to the ex-parte order. The court has the discretion to decide whether the grounds presented are sufficient and whether the ex-parte order should be set aside. The court may also impose conditions and terms, including costs and other factors, when setting aside the order. MUST READ: Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 SOURCE: LIVELAW.IN PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? (2022) To ratify the declaration of Emergency To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Iceland volcano Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: A volcano erupted in Iceland’s Reykjavik with lava fountains reaching high up in the air recently. Background:- In just the past two years, there have been four eruptions on the Reykjanes Peninsula, Iceland’s most populated corner and home to its capital. About Iceland volcano:- A volcano is an opening in the Earth’s crust that allows molten rock, gases, and debris to escape to the surface. Movement of molten rock in the mantle, caused by thermal convection currents, coupled with gravitational effects of changes on the earth’s surface (erosion, deposition, even asteroid impact and patterns of post-glacial rebound) drive plate tectonic motion and ultimately volcanism. Types of Volcanos:- Active Volcanoes: they show some level of activity and are likely to explode again. Dormant Volcano: Many other volcanoes are dormant, showing no current signs of exploding but are likely to become active at some point in the future. ( Mauna Loa) Extinct Volcano: Has all the features of the volcano but has not erupted in historic times. Factors that lead to volcanism:- Plate Tectonics: The majority of volcanoes occur where two lithospheric plates converge and one overrides the other, forcing it down into the mantle to be reabsorbed. Ocean floor spreading: A major site of active volcanism is along the axis of the oceanic ridge system, where the plates move apart on both sides of the ridge and magma wells up from the mantle. Weak Earth Surface: Because of high pressure in the earth’s interior, the magma and gases escape with great velocity as the pressure is released through eruptions where opportunity is provided by weak zones along the earth’s surface. Faults: Whenever extreme pressure builds in the mantle, along fault lines an eruption is likely to happen next. The earthquakes, for instance, may expose fault zones through which magma may escape. Magma crystallization: Decreasing temperatures can cause old magma to crystallize and sink to the bottom of the chamber and this movement can force fresh liquid magma up and out – similar to dropping a brick in a bucket of water. A decrease in external pressure: A decrease in external pressure can trigger an eruption as it may minimize the volcano’s ability to hold back by increasing the pressures inside the magma chamber Plate movement: Volcanism may occur because of plate movement over a “hot spot” from which magmas can penetrate to the surface. Ex. Islands of Hawaii MUST READ: EARTHQUAKE SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: INDICES ORGANIZATION Global Competitive Index World Bank Safe Cities Index The Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) World Competitiveness Index International Institute for Management Development (IMD) How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Extinct Volcanoes show some level of activity and are likely to explode again. Statement-II : Dormant Volcanoes show no current signs of exploding but are likely to become active at some point in the future. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Blue Dragons, consider the following statements: Its sting is harmless. They are hermaphrodites. They can be only Blue in Colour. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  21st December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 20th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Dec 21, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 21st December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Dec 20, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th December 2023<div class="pf-content"><h3 style="padding-left: 30px; text-align: right;"><span style="text-decoration: underline; color: #

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Alternative Investment Funds Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, RBI directed banks to refrain from investing in any scheme offered by Alternative Investment Funds. Background:- RBI has further directed banks to liquidate their investment from such AIFs within thirty days. About Alternative Investment Funds:- Alternative investment funds (AIF) are effectively non-traditional privately pooled investment vehicles that cater to the funding needs of relatively high-risk ventures across a broad spectrum of the investing universe. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), under the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012 (the “AIF Regulations”) regulates all pooling structures in India, including AIFs. (National Investment and Infrastructure Fund) Categories of AIFs:- Category I: Mainly invests in start-ups, SME’s or any other sector which Govt. considers economically and socially viable Category II: private equity funds or debt funds for which no specific incentives or concessions are given by the government or any other Regulator Category III: hedge funds or funds which trade with a view to making short term returns or such other funds which are open-ended and for which no specific incentives or concessions are given by the government Benefits of AIF:- Security against volatility – These schemes do not put their funds in investment options that trade publicly. Hence, they are not related to the broader markets and do not fluctuate with their ups and downs. Excellent portfolio diversification to a wide array of assets Profitable returns – as these funds have numerous investment options, They are a better source of passive income. Further, returns are less prone to fluctuations as these schemes are not linked to the stock market.  MUST READ: Ubharte Sitaare Alternative Investment Fund SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What does venture capital mean? (2014) A short-term capital provided to industries A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses Funds provided for the replacement and renovation of industries Bahmani Kingdom Syllabus Prelims –MEDIEVAL HISTORY Context: Recently, Karnataka HC asked authorities to remove the encroachments of Bahmani Sultans’ fort in Kalaburagi. Background:- The High Court bench in Kalaburagi instructed civic authorities to clear 62 houses constructed inside the fort and 114 houses that have emerged in the surroundings of the fort. About Bahmani Kingdom:- The Bahmani Sultanate was a significant medieval Muslim state in the Deccan region of South India. It is also known as the Bahmanid Empire. It was established in 1347. The Bahmani Sultanate was founded by Hasan Bahman Shah, a governor appointed by the Delhi Sultanate. He declared independence and established his capital at Gulbarga. It lasted until 1527 when it fragmented into five smaller states. The Sultanate was administratively divided into four provinces (Daulatabad, Bidar, Berar, and Gulbarga) with tarafdars or subedars governing each. The sultanate was governed through a decentralized feudal system. Trade and commerce flourished in the Bahmani Sultanate due to its strategic location. The region was a center for international trade, particularly in horses, textiles, and spices. Around 1518, Krishnadeva Raya of the Vijayanagar Empire defeated the last ruler of the Bahmani Empire. (Kingdom of Vijayanagara) Art and Architecture:- The Bahmanis followed the Indo-Islamic style of architecture with a few changes. The buildings were constructed using local materials. An influence of Persian architecture could be seen in the buildings of this period. Examples of architecture could be found at Gulbarga (Shah bazaar mosque, Hafta Gumbaz, Jama masjid), at Bijapur (Gol Gumbaz, Ibrahim Roza, Bara Kaman, etc.), and at Bidar (Rangeen mahal, Janata mahal). It was during this period when a new dialect, ‘Dakhini Urdu’ prevailed. MUST READ: Malik Ahmed and Ahilyabai Holkar SOURCE: THE LAST MINUTE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as “Kulah-Daran”? (2022) Arab merchants Qalandars Persian calligraphists Sayyids Q.2) According to Portuguese writer Nuniz, the women in the Vijayanagara empire were expert in which of the following areas? (2021) Wrestling Astrology Accounting Soothsaying Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Earthquake Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, an earthquake in northwestern China killed at least 131 people. Background:- It has been the deadliest in 9 years. About Earthquake:- An earthquake is the shaking or trembling of the earth’s surface. It is caused by the seismic waves or earthquake waves that are generated due to a sudden movement (sudden release of energy) in the earth’s crust (shallow-focus earthquakes) or upper mantle (some shallow-focus and all intermediate and deep-focus earthquakes). Earthquake are by far the most unpredictable and highly distructive of all the natural disasters Causes of Earthquakes:- Fault Zones Plate tectonics (Anatolian Plate) Volcanic activity Human-Induced Earthquakes Measurement of Earthquakes:- The energy from an earthquake travels through Earth in vibrations called seismic waves. Scientists can measure these seismic waves on instruments called A seismograph, or seismometer,is an instrument used to detect and record earthquakes. Richter magnitude scale is the scale to measure the magnitude of energy released by an earthquake. Hypocentre/Focus:The point where the energy is released. Epicentre:The point on the surface directly above the focus. Isoseismic line: A line connecting all points on the surface where the intensity is the same. About China:- IMAGE SOURCE: guideoftheworld.com Capital: Beijing. Continent: Asia. China, lies in East Asia. It is the largest of all Asian countries. Its topography encompasses the highest and one of the lowest places on Earth. Its relief varies from nearly impenetrable mountainous terrain to vast coastal lowlands. Its climate ranges from extremely dry, desertlike conditions in the northwest to tropical monsoon in the southeast. The country is bounded by Mongolia to the north; Russia and North Korea to the northeast; the Yellow Sea and the East China Sea to the east; the South China Sea to the southeast; Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar (Burma), India, Bhutan, and Nepal to the south; Pakistan to the southwest; and Afghanistan, Tajikistan, Kyrgyzstan, and Kazakhstan to the west. China has more than 50,000 rivers with individual drainage areas exceeding 40 square miles (100 square km). Of the total annual runoff, about 95 percent drains directly into the sea (more than 80 percent into the Pacific Ocean, 12 percent into the Indian Ocean, and less than 1 percent into the Arctic Ocean and 5 percent disappears inland.  MUST READ: (Volcano) SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                                   Turkey Amhara                                                    Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                          Spain Catalonia                                                   Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) consider the following statements: (2020) Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. Only some cyclones develop an eye. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C lesser than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only Indian Coast Guard Syllabus Prelims –DEFENCE/ DISASTER MANAGEMENT Context: Recently, the Indian Coast Guard has deployed its ships, aircraft and disaster relief teams in flood-affected areas of South Tamil Nadu. Background:- Coast Guard said, they have saved 200 lives stranded in flood waters of Tuticorin and adjoining areas. About the Indian Coast Guard:- Established: August 1978. HQ: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Defense. ICG was established by the Coast Guard Act, of 1978 as an independent Armed force of India. It is the fourth largest Coast Guard in the world. It has jurisdiction over the territorial waters of India, including its contiguous zone and exclusive economic zone. It is an Armed Force, Search and Rescue and Maritime Law Enforcement agency . For effective command and control, the Maritime Zones of India are divided into five Coast Guard Regions, namely: North-West ( Regional Headquarters in Gandhinagar) West (Regional Headquarters at Mumbai) East (Regional Headquarters at Chennai) North-East (Regional Headquarters at Kolkata) Andaman & Nicobar (Regional Headquarters at Port Blair) Functions:- Preventing Smuggling. (Defence Acquisition Council) It is responsible for marine environment protection in maritime zones of India and is the coordinating authority for response to oil spills in Indian waters. It has also rescued approximately 13,000 personnel till date during various ‘Aid to Civil Authority’ operations viz. assistance provided to civil authorities during floods, cyclones and other natural calamities; most recently during the recent floods in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Goa. It is also working in close coordination with Central and State agencies to put in place a robust coastal security mechanism. It is responsible for marine environment protection in maritime zones of India.  MUST READ: Self-reliance in defence SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Rail Kaushal Vikas Yojana Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw said that  Indian Railways’ ‘Rail Kaushal Vikas Yojana’ graduates are not preferred for railway jobs. Background:- The statement comes as a response to a query by BJP MP Narayana Koragappa regarding job preferences for the trained youth. About Rail Kaushal Vikas Yojana:- Launched: September, 2021. Ministry: Ministry of Railway. Objective: imparting training skills to the youth across several trades to bring qualitative improvement. Rail Kaushal Vikas Yojana is a skill development scheme with a special focus on providing training for jobs that are relevant to the Railways. It is a sub-scheme under Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY). Salient Features:- The training is imparted in fourteen (14) industry-relevant technical trades such as Electrician, Welder, Machinist, Fitter etc. The training is provided free of cost to the candidates. There is no provision for providing employment under this scheme. Participants will be selected from applications received online, following a transparent mechanism based on marks in matriculation. Candidates, who have passed class X and are aged between 18 and 35 are eligible to apply. After the end of the program, trainees have to pass a standardized assessment followed by a certificate in the allotted trade by the National Rail and Transportation Institute. Significance:- It will improve the employability of the youth as well as upgrade the skills of self-employed. It will also cater to those who are working with contractors through re-skilling and up–skilling. MUST READ: PM SVANidhi scheme SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements: (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, and financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 LEADS report Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY/IMPORTANT REPORTS Context: LEADS report 2023 was released recently. Background:- Union Minister of Commerce & Industry, Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, and Textiles, Sh. Piyush Goyal released the “Logistics Ease Across Different State (LEADS) 2023” report in New Delhi on 16th December 2023. Tamil Nadu has retained the top slot in the logistics ease across different states (LEADS) 2023 rankings. About LEADS report:- Launched:2018. Ministry: Ministry of Commerce & Industry. The LEADS index was launched by the Commerce and Industry Ministry and Deloitte. It was inspired by the Logistics Performance Index (LPI) of World Bank and has evolved over time. It ranks states on the score of their logistics services and efficiency that are indicative of economic growth. States are ranked based on the quality and capacity of key infrastructure such as road, rail and warehousing as well as on operational ease of logistics. Key Highlights of LEADS Report 2023:- The 5th edition of the LEADS annual exercise,signaled a positive shift in States’ performance across the key pillars – Logistics Infrastructure, Logistics Services and Operating and Regulatory Environment. This report is based on a pan-India primary survey, conducted between May and July 2023, covering over 7,300 responses across 36 States/UTs. Additionally, over 750 stakeholder consultations, facilitated by National, Regional, and State Associations, significantly contributed to this comprehensive evaluation. Performance Highlights: Coastal Group Achievers: Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu Fast Movers: Kerala, Maharashtra Aspirers: Goa, Odisha, West Bengal   Landlocked Group Achievers: Haryana, Punjab, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh Fast Movers: Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Uttarakhand Aspirers: Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand   North-East Group Achievers: Assam, Sikkim, Tripura Fast Movers: Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland Aspirers: Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram   Union Territories Achievers: Chandigarh, Delhi Fast Movers: Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep, Puducherry Aspirers: Daman & Diu/ Dadra & Nagar Haveli, Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: India accounts for 3·2% of the global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to (2023) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms · an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: REPORTS ORGANIZATION Global Financial System Report Bank for International Settlements (BIS) Universal Health Coverage Index World Bank The Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA) Organisation for Economic Development (OECD) How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Tamil Nadu has retained the top slot in the logistics ease across different states (LEADS) 2023 rankings. Statement-II : This was the 6th edition of the LEADS Reports. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Rail Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements: The training is provided free of cost to the candidates. There is a provision for providing employment under this scheme. Candidates, who have passed class X and are aged between 18 and 35 are eligible to apply. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  20th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 19th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Dec 20, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 20th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Dec 20, 2023 UPSC Interview Discussion-TRP

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 4] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 4 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Recall a moment of personal failure or disappointment. How did you deal with it, and what lessons did you take away from that experience? Consider a time when you helped someone in a significant way. What motivated you, and how did this experience impact your perspective on helping others? Reflect on a personal habit you’ve changed or want to change. Why is this change important to you, and how are you approaching it? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  The Israel-Palestine conflict has been a part of global news for as long as many of us can remember. It’s a complex mix of history, politics, and emotions. With each new development, the world watches and wonders: Is there a path to peace? Let’s talk about this – If you were advising the Indian diplomatic establishment, how would you suggest it navigate this delicate situation? What could be done to help both sides without making things worse? It’s a tightrope walk, isn’t it? How do you think countries should balance their own interests with the desire to promote peace? We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

Dec 19, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   National Geoscience Data Repository Portal Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, the Mines Ministry launched the National Geoscience Data Repository Portal To Foster Innovation in Exploration. Background:- The launch ceremony will be graced by Union Minister of Coal, Mines and Parliamentary Affairs Shri Pralhad Joshi in the presence of Shri Raosaheb Patil Danve, Minister of State for Coal, Mines and Railways. About National Geoscience Data Repository Portal:- Launched on : 19th December 2023. Launched by: Ministry of Mines. The National Geoscience Data Repository (NGDR) Portal will be launched in a ceremony in New Delhi. (National Geoscience Awards -2022) Objective: to Foster Innovation in Exploration. NGDR is a comprehensive online platform for accessing, sharing, and analyzing geospatial information across the nation. The NGDR initiative, spearheaded by the Geological Survey of India (GSI) and Bhaskarachaya Institute of Space Applications and Geoinformatics (BISAG-N). It represents a significant leap forward in democratizing critical geoscience data, empowering stakeholders across industries and academia with unprecedented access to invaluable resources. About the Geological Survey of India:- Established: 1851. HQ: Kolkata. It has six regional offices located in Lucknow, Jaipur, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Shillong and Kolkata and state unit offices in almost all states of the country. GSI is an attached office of the Ministry of Mines. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) was set up primarily to find coal deposits for the Railways. Its main functions relate to creating and updating national geoscientific information and mineral resource assessment. These objectives are achieved through ground surveys, air-borne and marine surveys, mineral prospecting and investigations, multi-disciplinary geoscientific, geo-technical, geo-environmental and natural hazards studies, glaciology, seismo-tectonic study and carrying out fundamental research. About BISAG-N:- Ministry: MeitY, Government of India. (Indian Bureau of Mines) At present, BISAG is a state agency of the Department of Science and Technology Government of Gujarat, located at Gandhinagar, Gujarat. Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics [BISAG (N)] is an Autonomous Scientific Society registered under the Societies Registration Act, of 1860. Objective: to undertake technology development & and management, research & and development, facilitate National and international cooperation, capacity building and support technology transfer & and entrepreneurship development in the area of geo-spatial technology. BISAG has implemented GIS and geospatial technologies for major Ministries and almost all States. For this purpose, geo-spatial science (GIS Remote Sensing, Image Processing, Photogrammetry, GPS, Cell Phone etc.), Information Science Systems (MIS, Database, ERP, Project Management, Web, Artificial Intelligence etc.) and Mathematics Science Systems (Geometry, Fluid, Mechanics, Trigonometry, Algebra etc.) have been integrated in-house by BISAG. MUST READ: ‘Wetlands of India’ Portal SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)? (2022) CCO is the major source of coal Statistics in the Government of India. It monitors the progress of the development of Captive Coal/ Lignite blocks. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to the acquisition of coal-bearing areas. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Kawal Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY/ ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Kawal Tiger Reserve turned into a haven for smooth-coated otters recently. Background:- These creatures live along the banks of the Kadam River, on the bunds of the canals, and also on the banks of the Godavari River. About Kawal Tiger Reserve:- IMAGE SOURCE: adivasiresurgence.com Location: Telangana. Kawal Tiger Reserve is in the North Eastern part of Telangana. The reserve is flanked by the Godavari River on one side and shares its border with Maharashtra on the other. The River Kadam (a tributary of Godavari) flows through this area. It forms a significant part of the Deccan peninsula-central highlands. Additionally, Kawal serves as a catchment for the rivers Godavari and Kadam, both flowing southward within the sanctuary. Kawal Wildlife Sanctuary was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2012. (Amrabad Tiger Reserve) Vegetation: Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest. Flora: Teak and Bamboo stands, Anogeissus latifolia, Mitragyna parviflora, Terminalia crenulata, Terminalia arjuna, Boswellia serrata, and many more. Fauna: nilgai, chousinga, chinkara, black buck, sambar, spotted deer, wild dog, wolf, jackal, fox, tiger, leopard, and jungle cat etc. About Smooth-Coated Otter:- Scientific name: Lutrogale perspicillata. Smooth-coated otter is characterised by a very smooth, sleek pelage. Their eyes and ears are small, the tail is flattened, limbs are short and strong, and the fore and hind paws are large and well-webbed. These otters have generally been described as fish specialists. They are strong swimmers. They hunt in groups. They are mostly found in lowlands, coastal mangrove forests, peat swamp forests, freshwater wetlands, large forested rivers, lakes, and rice paddies. Threats:- Construction of large hydroelectric projects Conversion of wetlands for settlements and agriculture Reduction in prey biomass Poaching and Contamination of waterways by pesticides. Conservation Status:- IUCN Red List: Vulnerable MUST READ: Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS) SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?  (2020) Corbett Ranthambore Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Sundarbans Q.2) The term M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of    (2017) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna Maintenance of Tiger Reservoirs Indigenous Satellite Navigation System Security of National Highways Direct Tax Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Gross Direct Tax collections for the current Financial Year registered over 17 per cent growth recently. Background:- The Ministry of Finance has said that the Direct Tax collections for this finance year up to 17th December, show that net collections are at 13 lakh 70 thousand crore rupees which is an increase of 20.66 per cent. ( Increase in Direct Tax Collections) About Direct Tax:- A direct tax is one that is levied directly on the taxpayer. It is paid directly to the government by those who are subjected to it. The Central Board of Direct Taxes is responsible for levying and collecting direct taxes as well as formulating other direct tax policies. Examples of Direct Tax: Income Tax, Corporation Tax, Minimum Alternate Tax, Capital Gain Tax etc. (Tax-GDP ratio) Advantages of Direct Tax:- Economic Balance: The tax rate is set according to the country’s economic position. Ensures equality: Individuals and businesses with larger profits must pay higher taxes. Gives Certainty: The direct tax provides both the government and the taxpayers with a sense of certainty because the amount of tax that must be paid and collected is known to both the taxpayer and the government. During periods of high inflation, the government raises taxes in order to limit the demand for goods and services, resulting in a fall in inflation. It ensures that the government is held accountable. Disadvantages of Direct Tax:- It can be easily evaded. Taxes are set arbitrarily by the Finance Minister if they are progressive. High taxes disincentivize people from saving and investing, causing the country’s economy to suffer. Paying direct taxes is quite inconvenient. MUST READ: CBDT and Income Tax Return Forms SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession? (2020) Cut in tax rates accompanied by an increase in interest rate Increase in expenditure on public projects Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate Reduction of expenditure on public projects Q.2) Consider the following statements (2018) The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Government. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of the war of GDP of the State 2 Governments. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to obtain the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Voyager 1 Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Scientists recently suspected a major glitch in NASA’s Voyager 1 as it sent weird signals to Earth. Background:- Voyager 1, is facing difficulties in transcribing data to planet Earth, scientists have suspected a major crack in the spacecraft. NASA’s Voyager 1 has been travelling in space for the past 46 years and has travelled 24 billion kilometres. About Voyager 1:- Launch: September 5, 1977. Launch Site: Cape Canaveral, Fla. / Launch Complex 41. Launch Vehicle: Titan IIIE-Centaur (TC-6 / Titan no. 23E-6 / Centaur D-1T). Agency: NASA (NASA’s DART mission) Objective: It was launched to fly by Jupiter and Saturn. Voyager 1 is the oldest human-made spacecraft in history. No spacecraft has gone farther than NASA’s Voyager 1. It crossed into interstellar space in August 2012 and continues to collect data. Voyager 1 has been exploring our solar system for more than 45 years. The probe is now in interstellar space, the region outside the heliopause, or the bubble of energetic particles and magnetic fields from the Sun. Voyager 1 and its sister ship Voyager 2 have been flying longer than any other spacecraft in history. Scientific Instruments:- Imaging Science System (ISS) Ultraviolet Spectrometer (UVS) Infrared Interferometer Spectrometer (IRIS) Planetary Radio Astronomy Experiment (PRA) Photopolarimeter (PPS) Triaxial Fluxgate Magnetometer (MAG) Plasma Spectrometer (PLS) Low-Energy Charged Particles Experiment (LECP) Plasma Waves Experiment (PWS) Cosmic Ray Telescope (CRS) Radio Science System (RSS) Journey Timeline:- 5, 1977: Launched March 5, 1979: Jupiter flyby 12, 1980: Saturn flyby 17, 1998: Became the most distant human-made object after overtaking NASA’s Pioneer 10 1, 1990: Voyager Interstellar Mission (VIM) officially began 16, 2006: 100 astronomical units reached 1, 2012: Voyager 1 enters interstellar space Significance:- Not only are the Voyager missions providing humanity with observations of truly uncharted territory. They are also helping scientists understand the very nature of energy and radiation in space—key information for protecting future missions and astronauts. MUST READ: SpaceTech Innovation Network (SpIN) SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? (2014) Spacecraft                          Purpose Cassini-Huygens           Orbiting Venus and transmitting data to the Earth Messenger                     Mapping and investigating the Mercury Voyager 1 and 2          Exploring the outer solar system Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to     (2021) Voyager-2 New Horizons LISA Pathfinder Evolved LISA Smart India Hackathon 2023 Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi will interact with the participants of the Grand Finale of Smart India Hackathon 2023 through video conferencing on 19th Dec,2023. Background:- Mr Modi will also address the participants on the occasion. About Smart India Hackathon 2023:- Launched: August 2023. Objective: to inculcate a culture of product innovation and a mindset of problem-solving. Smart India Hackathon is a nationwide initiative to provide students with a platform to solve some of the pressing problems we face in our daily lives. (Agri India Hackathon) It is an initiative by the Ministry of Education, All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE), Persistent Systems and Inter-Institutional Inclusive Innovation Centre (i4C). SIH has been conducted every year since 2017 in two formats, SIH Software and SIH Hardware Editions for higher education students. The first four editions SIH2017, SIH2018, SIH2019, SIH2020 and SIH2022 proved to be extremely successful in promoting innovative out-of-the-box thinking in young minds, especially engineering students from across India. The Grand Finale of the Smart India Hackathon 2023 is being held from the 19th to the 23rd December 2023. Participants: This year, more than 50 thousand ideas were received from 44 thousand teams, which is almost a sevenfold increase compared to the first edition of the Smart India Hackathon. Over 12 thousand participants and more than two thousand 500 mentors will take part in the grand finale, scheduled to be held at 48 nodal centres across the country. Themes: A total one thousand 282 teams have been shortlisted this year for the grand finale to provide solutions on various themes including Space Technology, Smart Education, Disaster Management, Robotics and Drones, Heritage and Culture and others. MUST READ: ‘Hack The Crisis-India’ Hackathon SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Asian Development Bank (ADB) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT ORGANIZATIONS Context: Recently, the Government of India and the Asian Development Bank (ADB)  signed $250 million loan for Industrial Corridor Development in India. Background:- The loan will continue support to industrial corridor development to make manufacturing more competitive, strengthen national supply chains and links with regional and global value chains, and create more and better jobs. About Asian Development Bank (ADB):- IMAGE SOURCE: CORPORATEFINANCEINSTITUTE.COM The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank. It was established in 1966. First President: Takeshi Watanabe HQ: Manila, Philippines Objective: to promote social and economic development in Asia. (Multi-tranche financing facility) Membership: the bank admits members of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP) and non-regional developed countries. Shareholders: Japan and the United States (each with 15.6% of total shares), the People’s Republic of China (6.4%), India (6.3%), and Australia (5.8%). Voting rights: votes are distributed in proportion to members’ capital subscriptions. ADB is the official United Nations Observer. Roles and functions:- It is dedicated to reducing poverty in Asia and the Pacific through inclusive economic growth, environmentally sustainable growth, and regional integration. Key Publications:- ADB Annual Report 2022 Asian Development Outlook April 2023 Asian Economic Integration Report 2023: Trade, Investment, and Climate Change in Asia and the Pacific Key Indicators for Asia and the Pacific 2022 India and ADB India is a founding member of ADB. India is the bank’s fourth-largest shareholder. ADB operations promote private sector development, gender empowerment, regional integration, knowledge solutions, and capacity development. ADB supports India’s priorities for robust, climate resilient, and inclusive growth, aligned with ADB’s Strategy 2030 and the forthcoming country partnership strategy, 2023–2027. ADB Projects in India:- Visakhapatnam-Chennai Industrial Corridor Development Program (Tranche 2) Himachal Pradesh Subtropical Horticulture, Irrigation, and Value Addition Project Nhava Sheva Container Terminal Financing Project Strengthening Vocational High Schools in South Asia Olam Global Agri Food Security Support Project Improving Bengaluru’s Livability Through Transit-Oriented Development Proposed projects:- State Road Safety Incentive Program Manipur State Road Connectivity Investment Program Nashik Metro Neo Project Road Sector Development in Tripura Promoting Disaster Risk Insurance MUST READ: ( Differences between the World Bank and the Asian Development Bank (ADB). ) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Guru Teg Bahadur Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid tributes to Sikh Guru Teg Bahadur recalling his martyrdom. Background:- He said his teachings, emphasizing unity and righteousness, “light our way” in the pursuit of brotherhood and peace. About Guru Teg Bahadur:- Born: at Amritsar in 1621. Died: 17 December,1675. Guru Tegh Bahadur was the ninth of ten Gurus of the Sikh religion., was the youngest son of Guru Hargobind. He was born to Mata Nanki and Guru Hargobind, the sixth Sikh guru, who raised an army against the Mughals and introduced the concept of warrior saints. After Guru Ram Das, the fourth Sikh guru, the guruship became hereditary. He is known as a great teacher. Guru Tegh Bahadur was also an excellent warrior, thinker, and poet, who wrote detailed descriptions of the nature of God, mind, body, and physical attachments among other things spiritual. His writings are housed in the sacred text, ‘Guru Granth Sahib,’ in the form of 116 poetic hymns. During one such mission, he founded the town of Chak-Nanki in Punjab, which later became a part of Punjab’s Anandpur Sahib. He was publicly killed in 1675 on the orders of Mughal emperor Aurangzeb in Delhi for refusing Mughal rulers and defying them. Gurudwara Sis Ganj Sahib and Gurdwara Rakab Ganj Sahib in Delhi mark the places of execution and cremation of his body. MUST READ: Guru Nanak Dev SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Indian history, who of the following was known as “Kulah-Daran”? (2022) Arab merchants Qalandars Persian calligraphists Sayyids Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: MISSIONS AGENCY MARS ODYSSEY ESA NEW HORIZON NASA SHUKRAYAAN ISRO How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Guru Teg Bahadur was the ninth of ten Gurus of the Sikh religion. Statement-II : He was the oldest Guru in Sikhism. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Voyager 1, consider the following statements: It is the oldest human-made spacecraft in history. It was launched from Cape Canaveral, Fla. / Launch Complex 41. It was launched to fly by Jupiter and Neptune. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  19th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 18th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

Dec 19, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 19th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Dec 18, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   INDIAN FOREST AND WOOD CERTIFICATION SCHEME Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the Indian Forest & Wood Certification Scheme was launched. Background:- It was launched by Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. This national forest certification scheme offers voluntary third-party certification designed to promote sustainable forest management and agroforestry in the country. About INDIAN FOREST AND WOOD CERTIFICATION SCHEME:- Launched: 2023. Objective: to promote Sustainable Management of forests and agroforestry(Forest Conservation (FC) Act, 1980) Ministry: Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. The scheme includes forest management certification, tree outside forest management certification, and chain of custody certification. The Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme can provide market incentives to various entities that adhere to responsible forest management and agroforestry practices in their operations. This includes state forest departments, individual farmers, or Farmer Producer Organizations engaged in agroforestry and farm forestry, as well as other wood-based industries in the value chain. The Forest Management certification is based on the Indian Forest Management Standard, consisting of 8 criteria, 69 indicators and 254 verifiers, which is an integral part of the National Working Plan Code 2023, launched earlier this year. A separate Trees Outside Forests Standard, is now introduced as a part of the newly launched Indian Forest & Wood Certification Scheme. Supervision: The Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme, will be overseen by the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Council, which will act as a multistakeholder advisory body. The Council is represented by members from eminent institutions such as Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, Forest Survey of India, Quality Council of India, Indian Institute of Forest Management including representatives from the Ministries of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare and Ministry of Commerce and Industry, State Forest Departments, Forest Development Corporations, and representatives from wood-based industries. Implementation: The Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal will act as the scheme operating agency and will be responsible for overall management of the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme. Accreditation: The National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies under the Quality Council of India will accredit the certification bodies which will carry out independent audits and assess adherence of various entities on the standards prescribed under the scheme. MUST READ: Natural Farming SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Surrender value Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, insurance stocks declined up to 5 per cent in trade after the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) proposed a higher surrender value and lower charges for life insurance companies in a consultation paper. Background:- An exposure draft released by the insurance regulator pitched for a significant increase in the surrender value specifically for non-participating insurance products. Some modifications have also been suggested in the calculation of surrender charges. About Surrender value:- In insurance policies, ‘surrender’ indicates the voluntary conclusion of a life insurance policy opted by the policyholder prior to its maturity or before the occurrence of the insured event. It applies only to those term insurance policies with a surrender benefit. The surrender value is usually a percentage of the total premiums paid minus any applicable charges or fees. The IRDAI rules say that anyone with a term plan can give up their insurance policy. (Digital India – Financial Inclusion) However, only after the policy has been in effect for three years will the policyholder get the payout of the surrender value. As per the existing norms, a policy can be surrendered at any time during the policy term, provided two full years’ premiums have been paid. However, in the first year, the regulator now proposes to offer Adjusted Surrender Value to the policyholder. About the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDAI):- Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Finance Head Office: It is an autonomous and statutory body established under the IRDA Act 1999. It is the apex body that supervises and regulates the insurance sector in India. Objective: To protect the interests of policyholders, to regulate, promote and ensure orderly growth of the insurance industry in India. Composition: IRDAI is a 10-member body. It has a Chairman, five full-time members, and four part-time members. They are appointed by the Government of India. Functions:- To have a fair regulation of the insurance industry while ensuring financial soundness of the applicable laws and regulations. Registering and regulating insurance companies. Protecting policyholders’ interests. Licensing and establishing norms for insurance intermediaries. Regulating and overseeing premium rates and terms of non-life insurance covers. MUST READ: The Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) SOURCE: HINDU BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recent National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) data revealed that Delhi leads in the rate of FIRs of crimes against women in 2022.  Background:- Delhi logged the highest rate of FIRs linked to crimes against women in the country in 2022. About National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB):- Established: 1986. HQ: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs. Objective: To function as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators. NCRB was set up to function as a repository of information on crime and criminals to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators. It was recommended by the Tandon Committee, the National Police Commission (1977-1981) and the MHA’s Task force (1985). NCRB is entrusted with the responsibility for monitoring, coordinating, and implementing the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems (CCTNS) project. (Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022) Important publications of NCRB:- Accidental Deaths & Suicides in India. Prison Statistics India. Fingerprints in India. Report on missing women and children in India. MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? (2022) To ratify the declaration of Emergency To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only E-waste Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent data shows that over 500,000 tonnes of e-waste were collected and processed in 2021-22. Background:- In the financial year 2021-22, 527,131.57 tonnes of e-waste was collected, dismantled and recycled, Ashwini Kumar Choubey, minister of state in the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change told the Rajya Sabha. About E-waste:- E-Waste is short for Electronic-Waste and the term is used to describe old, end-of-life or discarded electronic appliances. It includes their components, consumables, parts and spares. Electronic waste, also called e-waste, is various forms of electric and electronic equipment that have ceased to be of value to their users or no longer satisfy their original purpose. E-waste is not hazardous if it is stocked in safe storage recycled by scientific methods or transported from one place to the other in parts or totality in the formal sector. E-Waste in India:- India generates about 18.5 lakh metric tonnes (MT) of electronic waste every year, with Mumbai and Delhi-NCR accounting for the biggest chunk. The figure is likely to reach up to 30 lakh MT per year by 2018. Bangalore, Chennai, Kolkata, Ahmadabad, Hyderabad, Pune, Surat, and Nagpur are other important cities generating a substantial amount of e-waste. Among the eight largest e-waste generating states, Maharashtra ranks first followed by Tamil Nadu (2nd), Andhra Pradesh (3rd), Uttar Pradesh (4th), Delhi (5th), Gujarat (6th), Karnataka (7th), and West Bengal (8th). Over half of the e-waste generated in the developed world is exported to developing countries, mainly to China, India, and Pakistan, where metals like copper, iron, silicon, nickel, and gold are recovered during the recycling process. Unlike developed countries, which have specifically built facilities for recycling of e-waste, recycling in developing countries often involves manual participation thus exposing workers to toxic substances present in e-waste. E-waste Management Rules, 2016: The Central Government, in the exercise of the powers provided under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, had notified e-waste management rules in 2016. These rules supersede the E-waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011. (Draft E-waste Management Rules) The rules aim to enable the recovery and/or reuse of useful material from e-waste, and to ensure the environmentally sound management of all types of waste of electrical and electronic equipment. For the first time, the rules brought the producers under Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR), along with targets. Producers have been made responsible for the collection of E-waste and for its exchange. The manufacturers, dealers, e-retailers, and refurbishers have been brought under the ambit of these rules to ensure that the e-waste is effectively channelized and disposed of. The urban local bodies have been assigned the responsibility of collecting back the e-waste arising from the orphan products and channelizing it to authorized dismantler or recycler MUST READ: Extended Producer Responsibility SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a :  (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Khelo India Para Games Syllabus Prelims –SPORTS Context: Recently, the First-ever Khelo India Para Games concluded in New Delhi. Background:- Addressing the closing ceremony, Union Sports and Youth Affairs Minister Anurag Thakur hailed the Khelo India Para Games as a celebration of human passion and spirit. About Khelo India Para Games:- Date: December 10 and 17,2023. Venue: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. Over 1400 athletes from across the nation will compete in seven para sports—athletics, shooting, archery, football, badminton, table tennis, and weightlifting. (Grand Slam) The grand opening ceremony will take place at the KD Jadhav Indoor Hall, Indira Gandhi Sports Complex. The Delhi Police band will showcase a grand performance, followed by a lively dance performance by ‘We Are One’ group. Objective behind organizing the Khelo India Para Games is to empower para-athletes. Several key projects have been initiated for the welfare of the physically challenged, and the inaugural Khelo India Para Games marks a significant step in this direction. Results:- Haryana winning the inaugural title by securing 105 medals including 40 gold, 39 silver, and 26 bronze. Uttar Pradesh came second with 62 medals including 25 gold, 23 silver, and 14 bronze. Tamil Nadu finished third with 20 gold, eight silver, and 14 bronze medals. Athletes from 32 states and Union Territories participated in the Games. MUST READ: Chess Olympiad SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Anthrobots Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Scientists have created Anthrobots recently. Background:- These are tiny living robots from human cells that can move around in a lab dish and may one day be able to help heal wounds or damaged tissue, according to a new study. About Anthrobots:- Anthrobots are novel bioengineered robots created from human tracheal cells. These biobots possess the remarkable ability to autonomously configure into diverse forms and sizes. WORKING:- The process involves cultivating groups of human tracheal skin cells to create anthrobots equipped with cilia functioning as paddles. When positioned on damaged neural tissue, the anthrobots amalgamate into a ‘superbot,’ facilitating full recovery within three days without the need for genetic alterations. Significance:- The researchers anticipate employing personalized anthrobots for various functions such as arterial clearance, mucus disruption, or drug administration, showcasing potential uses in the field of regenerative medicine. In contrast to earlier xenobots derived from frog cells, anthrobots possess self-assembling capabilities and are crafted from human tissue, offering a promising avenue for personalized medicine. MUST READ: Robo Sapiens- Future of the Work SOURCE: INDIATIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Triclosan” considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following? (2021) Food preservatives Fruit-ripening substances reused plastic containers Toiletries Q.2) Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2021) Low-density polyethene Polycarbonate Polyethene terephthalate Polyvinyl Chloride Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: ORGANIZATION HQ SEBI Kolkata NCRB New Delhi NIA Pune How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Khelo India Para Games were held in New Delhi. Statement-II : It was organized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Anthrobots, consider the following statements: These are tiny living robots created from human cells. They have potential uses in the field of regenerative medicine. They possess self-assembling capabilities. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  18th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 17th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – a