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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 3] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 3 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Describe a situation where you had to choose between a practical decision and an ethical one. How did you resolve it? How do you define ethical leadership? Give an example of a leader who embodies this concept. What role do ethics play in public administration, in your view? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  Climate change isn’t just an environmental issue; it’s a challenge that affects everything from our weather to our food supply. India, with its vast landscapes and diverse population, is in a unique position. It’s not just about how India is impacted; it’s also about how India’s actions impact the global fight against climate change. Let’s ponder over this – How can India lead the charge against climate change while still pursuing its developmental goals? Do you think India can find innovative ways to be a global leader in sustainable practices and green technologies? We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Vijay Diwas Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT DAYS/DEFENSE Context: Vijay Diwas was commemorated recently. Background:- PM Narendra Modi paid tribute to all the brave hearts who dutifully served India in 1971 on Vijay Diwas. About Vijay Diwas:- Vijay Diwas or Victory Day is commemorated on December 16. It marks the end of the 1971 Indo-Pak War and the liberation of Bangladesh. India declared victory on this day 51 years ago after Pakistan signed the Instrument of Surrender. Ceremonies, parades, wreath-laying, and various events are organized across India, particularly in Delhi and Kolkata, to commemorate this significant day. Historical Background of the war:- After the partition of India following the end of British rule in 1947, two independent countries were formed – India and Pakistan. The latter consisted of East Pakistan (now Bangladesh) and West Pakistan (present-day Pakistan). The two Pakistans had their share of problems since the beginning because of a number of reasons – the most glaring one being the geographical disconnect between them. East Pakistan was often overlooked in terms of administration as the top posts were held by those in the West. In the mid-1960s, leaders such as Sheikh Mujibur Rahman, who is also known as the founder of Bangladesh actively began protesting against these policies and helped form the Awami League. Soon, their demand became one for freedom and greater autonomy. The League ended up winning a stunning 160 of the 162 seats in East Pakistan in the 1970 elections and won no seats in the West. However, instead of recognizing the mandate, on March 25, 1971, the Pakistani military began a brutal crackdown that saw the mass slaughter of Bengalis. India had declared support for the League previously but without direct intervention. But when the Pakistan Air Force launched pre-emptive strikes towards Western India (including Amritsar, Pathankot, Srinagar, Avantipura, Ambala, Sirsa and Agra) on December 3, 1971, India formally declared war on December 4. On December 6, India formally recognised Bangladesh as an independent nation. Two days later, the Indian Navy launched an attack on Karachi. From December 12 to 16, Indian forces pushed through to Dhaka and entered the city, ending the war with a total victory. Significance:- This war not only reshaped regional geopolitics but also underscored the importance of upholding human rights during conflicts. Vijay Diwas is a day to honor the courage, sacrifice, and bravery of the soldiers who fought and to pay tribute to the martyrs. (The new defence systems handed over to Army) MUST READ: India-Bangladesh Relations SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect to the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002: (2023) Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm. Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3: 2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of Constitution Day: (2023) Statement-I: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the chairmanship of Dr B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft ·Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Kashi Tamil Sangamam Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi will inaugurate the second phase of Kashi Tamil Sangamam on 17th December 2023. Background:- The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi today called Kashi Tamil Sangamam forum a testament to the unity and diversity of India, strengthening the spirit of ‘Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat’. About Kashi Tamil Sangamam:- Date: 17th to the 30th of December 2023 VENUE: Varanasi. Inauguration: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi will inaugurate Kashi Tamil Sangamam 2023 at Namo Ghat on 17 December 2023. The second phase of Kashi Tamil Sangamam will commence from 17th to 30th December, 2023 at the holy city of Kashi (Varanasi). It will celebrate the many aspects of the historical and civilizational connection between India’s North and South. Nearly 1400 (7 Groups of 200 persons each) people are expected to be travelling from different parts of Tamil Nadu, representing varied walks of life. The 7 groups of Students (Ganga), Teachers (Yamuna), Professionals (Godavari), Spiritual (Saraswati), Farmers and Artisans (Narmada), Writers (Sindhu) and Traders and Businessmen (Kaveri) have been named after seven sacred rivers of India will travel from Chennai, Coimbatore and Kanyakumari to Kashi. The Ministry of Education, Government of India, will be the nodal agency for this event with participation from the Ministries of Culture, Tourism, Railways, Textiles, Food Processing (ODOP), MSME, Information & Broadcasting, Skill Development & Entrepreneurship, IRCTC and related departments of Government of Uttar Pradesh. IIT Madras will be acting as the implementing agency in Tamil Nadu and Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in Uttar Pradesh. History of ties between Kashi and Tamil Nadu:- Many households in Tamilnadu adopted the names of Kailasanatha and Kashinatha for naming their children, like those who are living in Kashi and Uttar Pradesh. King Adhiveera Rama Pandiyan of the Pandya Dynasty dedicated a Shiva Temple at Tenkasi of Tamilnadu after his pilgrimage to Kashi , whose ancestors established Sivakasi. Saint Kumaragurupara from Sri Vaikundam, Tuthukudi District of Tamil Nadu has excelled in bargaining with the Sultanate of Kashi with audacity and drove a lion to his courtyard to get back the Kedarghat and a place for the consecration of Vishweshwara Lingam. He has written “Kashi Kalambakam” a grammatical composition of poems on Kashi. MUST READ: India’s Cultural Renaissance SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Th Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference  to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Election Commission of India Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, Justice Nariman said that the new CEC law be struck down as ‘arbitrary it severely imperils the independence of the Election Commission of India. Background:- Justice (Retired) Rohinton F Nariman, former Supreme Court judge and former Solicitor General of India, on Friday said the recent Bill to regulate the appointment process of the Election Commission of India, once it becomes an Act, be struck down as “arbitrary” and “severely imperilling the independence of ECI”. “If it is not (struck down), it is fraught with the greatest danger to democracy,” he said. The Bill seeks to regulate the appointment of the Election Commission of India (ECI) by constituting a three-member selection committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition or leader of the single largest Opposition party in the Lok Sabha and a Cabinet Minister named by the PM. About the Election Commission of India:- The Election Commission is a permanent and independent body established by the Constitution of India. (Election Commission) Objective: to ensure free and fair elections in the country. Article 324 of the Constitution: provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission. Composition Election Commission of India:- Members: The election commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and a such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. Appointment: The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made by the Head: When any other election commissioner is so appointed the chief election commissioner shall act as the chairman of the election commission. Regional commissioners: The president may also appoint after consultation with the election commission such regional commissioners as he may consider necessary to assist the election commission. Procedure of Removal:- The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge by Parliament. Judges of High Courts and Supreme Court, CEC, Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) may be removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on grounds of ‘Proven misbehaviour or incapacity’. Removal requires a special majority of 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50% of the total strength of the house. Conditions of service: it shall be such as the President may by rule. Tenure of office: President may by rule determine it. Key Functions of ECI:- ECI superintendents, direct and control the entire process of conducting elections. These include elections to Parliament and Legislature of every State and to the offices of President and Vice-President of India. It decides the election schedules for the conduct of periodic and timely elections, whether general or bye-elections. It prepares electoral rolls and issues Electronic Photo Identity Cards (EPIC). It decides on the location of polling stations, assignment of voters to the polling stations, location of counting centres, and other related arrangements to be made. It grants recognition to political parties. It allots election symbols to them along with settling disputes related to it. Advisory jurisdiction: it can advise in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures. It issues the Model Code of Conduct in elections for political parties and candidates. Model Code of Conduct: a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India for the conduct of political parties and candidates during elections. It sets limits of campaign expenditure per candidate to all the political parties and also monitors the same. MUST READ: Cohort on Election Integrity SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean? (2023) The principle of natural justice The procedure established by law Fair application of law Equality before law Q.2) With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements : (2023) When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Indira Gandhi Zoological Park (IGZP) Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY/ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the Indira Gandhi Zoological Park (IGZP) , got two new species from Warangal Zoo as part of an animal exchange programme.  Background:- As part of the exchange, the IGZP has received Mouse Deer (1 male, 2 female) and Chowsinga (four Horned antelope) (1 male, 2 female). In return, the zoo is sparing hog deer (1 male, 2 female), barking deer (1 male, 2 female) and Lutino Parakeets (1 male, 2 female) About Indira Gandhi Zoological Park (IGZP):- Location: Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh. Area : 625 acres Indira Gandhi Zoological Park is located amidst Seethakonda Reserve Forest . The construction for this ex-situ facility started in the very year 1972 when Wildlife Protection Act of this country came into existence. It was opened to public on 19th May, 1977. It is surrounded by beautiful and scenic hills of Eastern Ghats on three sides and the Bay of Bengal on the fourth side. Being a Large category Zoo recognized by the Central Zoo Authority it houses 843 number of animals like mammals, carnivores, lesser carnivores, canids, ungulates, reptiles, birds and butterflies belonging to 123 species in a natural ambience. (Wildlife Institute of India (WII)) This place is also home to many free-ranging animals and birds owing to its existence in a forest area close to Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary. MUST READ: Wildlife Protection SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? (2020) Askot Wildlife Sanctuary Gangotri National Park Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary Manas National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only Nyholm prize Syllabus Prelims –AWARDS Context: Recently, Mumbai professor bagged Royal Society of Chemistry’s Nyholm prize. Background:- Professor Savita Ladage from Mumbai’s Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education, Tata Institute of Fundamental Research, received the Royal Society of Chemistry’s Nyholm Prize for Education in recognition of her contributions to chemistry education. Ladage bagged the award for her advocacy of the significance of chemical education. Her efforts include mentoring chemistry educators and spearheading impactful teacher and student programs that advance chemistry education in the country. In addition to the prize, Prof. Ladage will be awarded £5,000, along with a medal and a certificate. About Nyholm prize:- Presented by: The Royal Society of Chemistry. Nyholm Prize, celebrate individuals working across various levels of education.( Chess Olympiad) It recognizes the dedication of teachers, technicians, and education professionals. This prize recognizes inspirational, innovative and dedicated individuals or teams making a substantial and sustained impact within education. It is run annually. The prize alternates between being open to nominees both in the UK and Ireland and internationally, and open only to nominations from the UK and Ireland. For 2023, the prize is open to nominees based anywhere in the world. The winner(s) receives £5000, a medal and a certificate. The winner(s) will complete a series of lectures or workshops in the UK. The winner(s) will be chosen by the Education Prize Committee. MUST READ: Sastra Ramanujan Prize SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000: (2021) American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award. The award has been received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far. Roger Federer received this award a maximum number of times compared to others. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Social Stock Exchange Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, Unnati became the first entity to list on the social stock exchange. Background:- There are 38 more NPOs registered with the NSE SSE, and more listings could be in the offing in the next few months. About Social Stock Exchange:- Social Stock Exchange(SSE) is a platform that allows investors to invest in select social enterprises or social initiatives. Objectives: The SSE would function as a separate segment within the existing stock exchange and help social enterprises raise funds from the public through its mechanism. The Union Budget ( 2019 –20 )proposed to initiate steps for creating a stock exchange under the market regulator’s ambit. SEBI constituted a group under the chairmanship of Tata group veteran Ishaat Hussain in 2019. In 2020, SEBI again set up the Technical Group(TG) under Harsh Bhanwala, ex-Chairman, NABARD to get further expert advice and clarity on SSE. The Social Stock Exchange (SSE) is a novel concept in India and such a course is meant to serve private and non-profit sector providers by channeling greater capital to them. Global Examples: SSE exists in countries such as Singapore, and the UK among others. Salient Features: It is meant to serve private and non-profit sector providers by channelling greater capital to them. As per the proposal, SSE can be housed within the existing stock exchange such as the BSE and/or National Stock Exchange (NSE). Retail investors can only invest in securities offered by for-profit social enterprises (SEs) under the Main Board. In all other cases, only institutional investors and non-institutional investors can invest in securities issued by SEs. Eligibility: Any non-profit organization (NPO) or for-profit social enterprise (FPSEs) that establishes the primacy of social intent would be recognized as a social enterprise (SE), which will make it eligible to be registered or listed on the SSE. NPOs can raise money either through the issuance of Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) Instruments from private placement or public issue, or donations from mutual funds. About Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) Instruments : These are issued by a Not for Profit Organisation (NPO) which will be registered with the Social Stock Exchange (SSE) segment of a recognized stock exchange. The Finance Ministry has declared zero coupons zero principal instruments (ZCZP) as securities for the purposes of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956. These instruments will be governed by rules made by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) About Zero-coupon bond It is a debt security that does not pay interest but instead trades at a deep discount, rendering a profit at maturity, when the bond is redeemed for its full face value. The difference between the purchase price of a zero-coupon bond and the par value indicates the investor’s return. MUST READ: Allowing non-profit organisations to list on social stock exchanges recommended SOURCE: BUISINESSLINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to India : (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between (‘ 15 crore and(’25 crore). All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to (2023) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms · an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward. a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible. a numeric value that measures the fluctuations. of stock to changes in the overall stock market. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: OPERATIONS YEAR Operation Polo 1979 Operation Meghdoot 1984 Operation Vijay 1961 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Indira Gandhi Zoological Park (IGZP)  is located in Karnataka. Statement-II : It is located amidst Seethakonda Reserve Forest. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Election Commission of India, consider the following statements: It does not grant recognition to political parties. It allots election symbols to them along with settling disputes related to it. It is not a permanent and independent body. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  16th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 15th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test  Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 15th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Climate Change Performance Index 2023 Syllabus Prelims-IMPORTANT INDICES Context: Recently, India ranked 7th on the climate change performance index 2023. Background:- India ranked up one spot from the previous one and also remained among the highest performers. About Climate Change Performance Index:- Published since: 2005. Time period: annual. Published by German Watch, New Climate Institute and Climate Action Network International based in Germany. Objective: to enhance transparency in international climate politics and enables comparison of climate protection efforts and progress made by individual countries. Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is an independent monitoring tool for tracking the climate protection performance of 59 countries and the EU. These 59 countries together account for 92% of global greenhouse gas emissions. The climate protection performance is assessed in four categories: GHG Emissions (40% of overall score), Renewable Energy (20% of overall score), Energy Use (20% of overall score) and Climate Policy (20% of overall score). Key highlights:- Denmark retained the top spot with a score of 75.59 per cent. Estonia and the Philippines occupied the second and third ranks respectively, with 72.07 and 70.70. Saudi Arabia was at the bottom 67th in the performance list, The host country United Arab Emirates occupied the 65th position. India’s performance:- While India is the world’s most populous country, it has relatively low per capita emissions, the index said. The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) country experts reported that India is trying to meet its Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), with clear long-term policies in place that focus on promoting renewable energy and providing financial support for domestic manufacturing of renewable energy components. India’s growing energy needs are still being met by its heavy reliance on coal, along with oil and gas, the report pointed out. “This dependence is a major source of greenhouse gas emissions and causes severe air pollution, especially in the cities.( Green future for Indian cities) India has relatively high taxes on petrol and diesel, which are intended to act as carbon taxes. The impact of these taxes on consumption remains disputed. Suggestions:- The policies are largely mitigative, yet they should also focus on transformative adaptation and disaster risk management. The policymakers should also adopt ecosystem-based solutions and consider equity. MUST READ: Mitigating Climate Change SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements: (2021) The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is part of a project led by Climate Change, Agriculture, and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research program. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centres. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) has invested Rs 27,105 crore in exchange-traded funds (ETFs) during the current fiscal till October, Parliament was informed recently. Background:- EPFO had invested Rs 53,081 crore in the ETFs during the fiscal 2022-23, higher than Rs 43,568 crore in 2021-22, Minister of State for Labour and Employment Rameshwar Teli said in a written reply to the Lok Sabha. About Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs):- An exchange-traded fund (ETF) is a collection of investments such as equities or bonds. ETFs will let one invest in a large number of securities at once. They often have cheaper fees than other types of funds. ETFs are also more easily traded. However, ETFs, like any other financial product, are not a one-size-fits-all solution. Advantages of Investing in ETFs:- Easy to trade: they can be bought and sold at any time of day. ETFs are more tax efficient than actively managed mutual funds because they generate less capital gain distributions. They allow investors to avoid the risk of poor security selection by the fund manager while offering a diversified investment portfolio. The stocks in the indices are carefully selected by index providers and are rebalanced periodically. They offer anytime liquidity through the exchanges. Risks of ETFs:- Trading cost: If you invest modest sums frequently, dealing directly with a fund company in a no-load fund may be less expensive. Market risk: ETFs are subject to the same market fluctuations and volatility. Liquidity risk: ETFs may experience low trading volume or wide bid-ask spreads, which can affect their liquidity and price. Regulatory risk: ETFs are subject to changing laws and regulations that may affect their structure, operation, or taxation. About Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO):- The EPFO is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India. It is one of the World’s largest Social Security Organisations in terms of clientele and the volume of financial transactions undertaken. It into existence with the promulgation of the Employees’ Provident Funds Ordinance on the 15th of November 1951. It was replaced by the Employees’ Provident Funds Act, of 1952. The Employees’ Provident Funds Bill was introduced in the Parliament in the year 1952 as a Bill to provide for the institution of provident funds for employees in factories and other establishments. (EPFO’s New Facility on UMANG App started) The Act is now referred to as the Employees’ Provident Funds & Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 which extends to the whole of India. Schemes under EPFO:- EPF Scheme 1952 It provides for the accumulation plus interest upon retirement and death. Partial withdrawals are allowed for education, marriage, illness and house construction. (Nidhi Aapke Nikat 2.0) Pension Scheme 1995 (EPS) It provides monthly benefits for superannuation/retirement, disability, survivor, widow(er) and children. It provides a minimum pension on disablement. It provides past service benefits to participants of the erstwhile Family Pension Scheme, 1971. Insurance Scheme 1976 (EDLI) It provides the benefit in case of the death of an employee who was a member of the scheme at the time of death. It provides the benefit amount 20 times the wages. Maximum benefit is 6 lakhs. MUST READ: Alternate Investment Fund and Credit Default Swap SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) An increase in the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 Stonehenge Syllabus Prelims –HISTORY Context: As per recent reports, Stonehenge is at risk of being ‘de-listed’ as a UNESCO World Heritage site if the A303 tunnel goes ahead. Background:- Recently, the efforts to stop the construction of a two-mile road tunnel close to the Great Circle of Stonehenge in the United Kingdom were seen by a (New sites added to India’s tentative list of UNESCO world) About Stonehenge:- Location: Salisbury Plain in England. It is not clear who built Stonehenge. The site has been used for ceremonial purposes and modified by many different groups of people at different times. Archaeological evidence suggests that the first modification of the site was made by early Mesolithic hunter-gatherers. (Bhimbetka cave) The monument called Stonehenge was built in six stages between 3000 and 1520 BCE. The site was used for ceremonial purposes beginning about 8000–7000 BCE. Stonehenge is constructed from sarsen stones, a type of silicified sandstone found in England, and bluestones, a dolomite variation extracted from western Wales. There is debate surrounding the original purpose of Stonehenge. Previously thought to be a Druid temple, Stonehenge may instead be, according to researchers and others, a burial monument, a meeting place between chiefdoms, or even an astronomical “computer.” MUST READ: Archaeological Survey of India SOURCE: BBC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Who among the following rulers advised his subjects through this inscription? (2020) “Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames other sects out of excessive devotion to his own sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his own sect very severely.” Ashoka Samudragupta Harshavardhana Krishnadeva Raya Q.2) Which one of the following is not a Harappan site? (2018) Chanhudaro Kot Diji Sohgaura Desalpur Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, a first-of-its-kind Eastern Ghats Nature Interpretation Centre, located along the periphery of the Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary opened up. Background:- The new Nature Interpretation Centre, a separate section at the recently-inaugurated Eastern Ghats Biodiversity Centre near PM Palem, is an immersive experience of traversing through the diverse ecosystems of the region, that has long awaited systematic documentation. About Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary:- Location: Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh. Area: Approximately 71 square kilometers. Vegetation: Dry evergreen forests and scrubland. The sanctuary derives its name from the local hill, Kambalakonda. It was declared a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1970 under the Wildlife Protection Act of India,1972. he sanctuary features considerable hilly terrain with steep slopes. Biodiversity:- It is Home to Indian leopards, deer species, wild boar, jackals, reptiles, birds, and medicinal plants. Flora: Predominantly dry evergreen forests with moist deciduous patches. Fauna: The indicator species is the Indian leopard. Other species found here are Indian clouded gecko, bulbuls, barbets, cuckoos, flycatchers, hornbills and leafbirds, starlings. (Wildlife Institute of India (WII)) MUST READ: Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? (2020) Askot Wildlife Sanctuary Gangotri National Park Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary Manas National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS /POLITY Context: Recently, India rejected a statement by the Organization of Islamic Cooperation on the Supreme Court verdict on Article 370. Background:- The OIC had expressed concern over the apex court order, which on Monday, ruled that Article 370 was a temporary provision. The OIC General Secretariat reiterated its call to reverse all illegal and unilateral measures taken by India ever since, seeking to change the internationally-recognised disputed status of the territory. About the Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC):- Established at: 1969 summit in Rabat (Morocco). HQ: Jeddah, Saudi Arabia. Official languages: Arabic, English, and French. Members: It has a membership of 57 states spread over four continents. Objective: It endeavours to establish solidarity among member states, support restoration of complete sovereignty and territorial integrity of any member state under occupation; protect, defend and combat defamation of Islam, prevent growing dissention in Muslim societies and work to ensure that member states take a united stand on the international stage. The Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) is the second largest intergovernmental organization after the United Nations with a membership of 57 states. It is the collective voice of the Muslim world. It endeavors to safeguard and protect the interests of the Muslim world in the spirit of promoting international peace and harmony among various people of the world. The OIC has consultative and cooperative relations with the UN and other inter-governmental organisations to protect the interest of Muslims. Objectives:- It is the collective voice of the Muslim world. It endeavours to safeguard and protect the interests of the Muslim world. It aims to promote international peace and harmony among various people of the world. India is not a member of the OIC.  MUST READ: India Rejects OIC’s Proposal SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Q.2)  With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, consider the following statements: (2015) It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Endotheliotropic herpesvirus subtypes (EEHV) Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY / GOVERNANACE Context: A recently undertaken study of endotheliotropic herpesvirus subtypes (EEHV) might help in the development of diagnostics & therapeutics. Background:- The research on the path-epidemiology or the study of the determinants, occurrence, and distribution of the disease can help develop sero-diagnostics, vaccines and therapeutics against the disease. The study by ICAR-Indian Veterinary Research Institute (ICAR-IVRI), Izatnagar, Bareilly, supported by Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB), an attached institution of Department of Science and Technology, has found the exact status of EEHV and its subtypes circulating among Asian elephant population in India. About Endotheliotropic herpesvirus subtypes (EEHV):- The EEHV is a type of herpesvirus that can cause a highly fatal haemorrhagic disease in young Asian elephants. When EEHV is triggered, the elephant dies of massive internal bleeding and symptoms which are hardly visible. EEHV belongs to the Herpesviridae family and specifically affects elephants. It comprises several subtypes, with EEHV1A being the most common and associated with severe disease in young Asian elephants. EEHV1B and EEHV2 are also identified but with varying prevalence and impact. Each subtype may exhibit genetic diversity, contributing to differences in virulence and disease manifestation. (Elephant Conservation) Transmission:- EEHV spreads primarily through contact with infected bodily fluids like saliva, blood, or urine. Additionally, indirect transmission via contaminated objects, including equipment and surfaces, poses a risk. Diagnosis:- Diagnosis involves various methods, including PCR testing to detect the virus in bodily fluids, serology to identify antibodies, and biopsies for microscopic examination. Treatment:- Presently, there’s no specific antiviral treatment for EEHV-HD. Supportive care through intravenous fluids, blood transfusions, and other measures aims to alleviate symptoms and enhance survival chances.  MUST READ: Endangered Asian elephant in Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: ORGANIZATIONS HQ OPEC New York World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) Geneva, Switzerland WTO Switzerland How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) has headquarters in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia. Statement-II : It is the world’s largest organization. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Endotheliotropic herpesvirus subtypes (EEHV) , consider the following statements: EEHV spreads primarily through contact with infected bodily fluids like saliva, blood, or urine. Presently, there’s no specific antiviral treatment for EEHV-HD. It comprises several subtypes, with EEHV1A is most common. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  15th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 13th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test  Click Here

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 2] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 2 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Reflect on a time when you had to step out of your comfort zone. What did you do, and what did you learn about yourself in the process? Think about a significant turning point in your personal life. How did it influence your beliefs, values, or goals? Describe a moment when you had to make a tough personal decision. What factors did you consider, and how do you feel about that decision now? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  Imagine a future where Artificial Intelligence (AI) has become a common part of the workplace. Some jobs are being done faster and more efficiently, but there’s a catch – AI might be replacing human roles. This scenario isn’t just science fiction; it’s gradually becoming a reality, and countries like India are at the forefront of this transformation. So, what’s your take on this? How should India navigate the delicate balance between embracing AI for its efficiency and protecting its workforce? Think about the policies or steps that could be implemented to make sure AI becomes a job creator, not just a job replacer. We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Atal Pension Yojana (APY) Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, Atal Pension Yojana (APY) enrolments crossed the 6 crore mark. Background:-           The total enrolment under the Atal Pension Yojana (APY) has crossed 6 crore, with over 79 lakh enrolments in the current Financial Year. About Atal Pension Yojana (APY):- Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is an old-age income security scheme for all savings account holders between the age group 18-40 years. The scheme also addresses the longevity risks among the workers in the unorganized sector and encourages the workers to voluntarily save for their retirement. Under APY, the individual subscribers shall have the option to make the contribution on a monthly basis. Banks will be collecting  additional amounts for delayed payments, such amount will vary from a minimum of Rs. 1 per month to Rs 10/- per month as shown below: 1 per month for contributions up to Rs. 100 per month. 2 per month for contributions up to Rs. 101 to 500/- per month. 5 per month for contributions between Rs 501/- to 1000/- per month. 10 per month for contributions beyond Rs 1001/- per month. Discontinuation of payments of contribution amount shall lead to the following:- After 6 months account will be frozen. After 12 months account will be deactivated. After 24 months account will be closed. Upon exit on attaining 60 years The subscriber shall receive the following three benefits on attaining the age of 60: Guaranteed minimum pension amount: Each subscriber under APY shall receive a guaranteed minimum pension of Rs. 1000 per month or Rs. 2000 per month or Rs. 3000 per month or Rs. 4000 per month or Rs. 5000 per month, after the age of 60 years until death. Guaranteed minimum pension amount to the spouse: After the subscriber’s demise, the spouse of the subscriber shall be entitled to receive the same pension amount as that of the subscriber, until the death of the spouse. Return of the pension wealth to the nominee of the subscriber: After the demise of both the subscriber and the spouse, the nominee of the subscriber shall be entitled to receive the pension wealth, as accumulated till age 60 years of the subscriber. The contributions to the Atal Pension Yojana (APY) are eligible for tax benefits similar to the National Pension System (NPS) under section 80CCD(1). Voluntary exit (Exit before 60 Years of age): – The subscriber shall only be refunded the contributions made by him to APY along with the net actual accrued income earned on his contributions (after deducting the account maintenance charges). Exception: In the case of subscribers who joined the scheme before 31st March 2016 and received Government Co-Contribution shall not receive the Government co-contribution and the accrued income earned on the same, if opted for Voluntary exit before 60 years. Age of joining and contribution period The minimum age for joining APY is 18 years and the maximum age is 40 years. The age of exit and start of pension would be 60 years. Exclusions:- Tax Payers will not be eligible to join APY from 1 Oct 2022. Members of the statutory social security scheme are not eligible under this scheme. Members enrolled in statutory social security schemes like:- Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provision Act, 1952. The Coal Mines Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provision Act, 1948. Assam Tea Plantation Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provision, 1955. Seamens’ Provident Fund Act, 1966. Jammu Kashmir Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provision Act, 1961. Any other statutory social security scheme.  MUST READ: National Pension System SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2017) Resident Indian citizens only Persons of age from 21 to 55 only All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April 2004. Indian Tent Turtle Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, DRI rescued 436 baby Indian Tent Turtles in Lucknow. Background:- Acting on the basis of specific intelligence developed by Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI), Zonal Unit, Lucknow, seized 436 baby Indian Tent turtles from a person illegally transporting them interstate. About Indian Tent Turtles:- Family: Geoemydidae Genus :    Pangshura Species :   tentoria The size of the carapace ranges from 20 cm to 26.5 cm depending upon the subspecies. The colour of the turtles also varies according to each subspecies. Subspecies tentoria has an olive or brownish head with a red postocular spot, the carapace is brown in colour with amber or hazel stripe in the first three vertebras and the plastron is yellow with black blotches. A semi-aquatic species, mainly found in rivers and associated systems. Reproduction is oviparous. Distribution:- The species is native to India, Nepal and Bangladesh, with three subspecies recorded from the region viz., P. t. tentoria, P. t. circumdata and P. t. flaviventer. P. t. tentoria occurs in peninsular India and is recorded from Orissa, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Assam and Madhya Pradesh. P. t. circumdata occurs in the western tributaries of the Ganga and the rivers of Gujarat. Threats:- Damming of river (Turtle Conservation) Habitat degradation Conservation Status:- IUCN: Least concern IWPA: Schedule I CITES: Appendix II MUST READ: National Marine Turtle Action Plan SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which of the following organisms perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q2. Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY/ IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: Recently, the Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA) will hold ‘National Conference on Responsible Business Conduct 2023. Background:- The Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA), an autonomous institution under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Govt. of India, will hold the ‘National Conference on Responsible Business Conduct 2023: Embracing ESG in India’ on 14th and 15th December 2023 About Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA):- Established: 2008. Ministry: Ministry of Corporate Affairs. IICA was registered as a society on September 12, 2008, under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. It is an autonomous institute. It works to deliver opportunities for research, education, and advocacy. It is also a think tank that curates a repository of data and knowledge for policy makers, regulators as well as other stakeholders working in the domain of corporate affairs. It was set up as the premier organization that aims to provide astute and credible intellectual leadership in corporate regulation, governance and running sustainable businesses. Significnce:- Its objective is to continuously improve the quality of all corporate financial reporting in India. MUST READ : Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2020 SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (2022) Central Statistics Office Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade Labour Bureau National Technical Manpower Information System Q.2)With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Inflation Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, retail inflation rises to 5.55% in November. Background:- Consumer prices rose at a three-month high pace of 5.55% in November from 4.87% in October, with food price inflation surging to 8.7% from 6.6% driven by a surge in the inflation rate for vegetables, pulses, fruits, and sugar. About Inflation:- Inflation refers to a sustained increase in the general price level of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. It is the rise in the prices of most goods and services of daily or common use, such as food, clothing, housing, recreation, transport, consumer staples, etc. Inflation measures the average price change in a basket of commodities and services over time. The opposite and rare fall in the price index of this basket of items is called ‘deflation’. Inflation is indicative of the decrease in the purchasing power of a unit of a country’s currency. This is measured in percentage. Measures of Inflation in India:- In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation measures inflation. There are two main set of inflation indices for measuring price level changes in India:- Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and Consumer Price Index (CPI). GDP deflator is also used to measure inflation. WPI vs CPI Parameters WPI CPI Indicates average change in prices of commodities at the wholesale level. average change in the prices of commodities at the retail level. Prices paid by Manufacturers and dealers Consumers Goods & Services Only goods are covered Goods and services both are covered Released by Office of Economic Advisor (Ministry of Commerce & Industry) ·       National Statistical Office (NSO) (Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation) calculates CPI (Rural/Urban/Combined) ·       Labour Bureau calculates CPI for Industrial Workers (IW), Agricultural Labour (AL) and Rural Labour (RL). Types of Commodities covered Manufacturing inputs and intermediate goods like minerals, machinery basic metals, etc. Education, transportation, recreation, apparel, foods and beverages, housing and medical care Base year 2011-12 2012  Impact of inflation:- The purchasing power of a currency unit decreases as the commodities and services get dearer. This also impacts the cost of living in a country. When inflation is high, the cost of living gets higher as well, which ultimately leads to a deceleration in economic growth. MUST READ: Rising Oil Prices and Stagflation SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: (2022) They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence Summit (GPAI) Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the ‘Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence Summit’ (GPAI) . Background:- He said that India is committed to responsible and ethical use of Artificial Intelligence (AI). Mr Modi stressed that Artificial Intelligence is for social development and inclusive growth. About Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence Summit (GPAI):- Date: December 2023. Venue: Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi. ( National Science, Technology and Innovation Policy (STIP 2020) ) GPAI is a multi-stakeholder initiative with 29 member countries. It aims to bridge the gap between theory and practice on AI by supporting cutting-edge research and applied activities on AI-related priorities. India is the lead chair of GPAI in 2024. As one of the founding members of GPAI in 2020, the current incoming Support Chair of GPAI, and the Lead Chair for GPAI in 2024, India is hosting the Annual GPAI Summit from December 12-14, 2023. Multiple sessions on diverse topics like AI & global health, education and skilling, AI and data governance, and ML Workshop, among others will be organized during the summit. Other attractions at the summit include the Research Symposium, AI Gamechangers Award and India AI Expo. The summit will witness the participation of 50+ GPAI experts and 150+ speakers from across the countries. Further, Top AI Gamechangers from across the world will be participating in different events including Intel, Reliance Jio, Google, Meta, AWS, Yotta, Netweb, Paytm, Microsoft, Mastercard, NIC, STPI, Immerse, Jio Haptik, Bhashini etc. Besides, students who are winners under the YUVA AI initiative and start-ups will also showcase their AI models and solutions.  MUST READ: RAISE 2020 Artificial Intelligence Summit SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to (2017) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes. Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings. Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme. Mount Marapi Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, the volcano Mount Marapi erupted. Background:- Mount Marapi in Indonesia erupted, with 23 people dead or presumed dead. About Mount Marapi:- Location: West Sumatra, Indonesia. Mount Merapi (Mountain of Fire) is one of the world’s most active volcanos located in Indonesia. It rises to 9,551 feet. It is located near the centre of the island of Java and Indonesia’s cultural capital, Mt Merapi’s last significant eruption was in 2010. At that time, more than 300 people were killed and some 2,80,000 residents were forced to evacuate the surrounding areas. Indonesia is located on the Pacific Ring of Fire. The local name for Mount Merapi is Gunung Merapi which can be translated to Fire Mountain or Mountain of Fire. Merapi is the combination of two Javanese words: “Meru” which means “Mountain” and “api” which means “fire.” Mount Merapi sits on a subduction zone where the Indo-Australian Plate subducts under the Eurasian Plate Merapi is the youngest volcano in southern Java. It is also the most active volcano of the roughly 129 active volcanoes in Indonesia. This stratovolcano has been active for roughly 10,000 years.  MUST READ: Mt. Mauna Loa SOURCE: INDIA TODAY  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: VOLCANO COUNTRY Mt. Mauna Loa USA Mount Yasur Egypt Mount Etna Italy How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The Indian tent turtle is native to India, Nepal and Bangladesh. Statement-II : It is under Appendix I of CITES. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Mount Marapi, consider the following statements: It is a stratovolcano. It is located near the centre of the island of Java and Indonesia’s cultural capital, Yogyakarta. Merapi is the oldest volcano in southern Java. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  13th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 12th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here