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[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 1] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) - > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) - Day 1 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Reflect on a significant decision you made in the past. How did it shape your life and what did you learn about yourself from that experience? Consider your core principles and values. How do they influence your ambitions and goals? Are your current career aspirations aligned with these values? Think about a challenging situation you faced. How did you handle it, and what does your approach reveal about your personality and coping mechanisms? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  Picture a world where renewable energy isn't just a part of the energy mix; it's the main character. This isn't a far-off dream. It's happening now, and the speed of this change is breathtaking. Countries are pledging to reduce their carbon footprints, and renewable energy is at the center of these promises. India, with its massive population and growing energy needs, is right in the middle of this energy revolution. Let's dive into this scenario - How does India balance its skyrocketing energy demands with a commitment to renewable and sustainable energy? What challenges and opportunities does this big shift present, and how should India navigate them? Think about the role of technology, innovation, and policy in this transition. We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   PM Vishwakarma Scheme Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: As per recent data, the PM Vishwakarma Scheme, launched by the Centre has received over 21 lakh applications in two and a half months. Background:- The highest number of applications came from Karnataka (6.28 lakh), followed by West Bengal (4.04 lakh), Assam (1.83 lakh), Uttar Pradesh (1.53 lakh) and Andhra Pradesh (1.21 lakh). About PM Vishwakarma Scheme:- Launched: September 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). It is a Central Sector Scheme. Objectives of PM Vishwakarma scheme:- To strengthen and nurture the Guru-Shishya parampara or family-based practice of traditional skills by artisans and craftspeople working with their hands and tools. To improve the quality, as well as the reach of products and services of artisans and craftspeople. To ensure that the Vishwakarmas are integrated with the domestic and global value chains. Salient Features of PM Vishwakarma scheme:- The artisans and craftspeople will be provided recognition through a PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card. Credit Support: Credit of up to Rs.1 lakh (First Tranche) and Rs.2 lakh (Second Tranche) will be given with a concessional interest rate of 5%. Skill learning: The Scheme will further provide Skill Upgradation, Toolkit Incentives, Incentives for Digital Transactions, and Marketing Support. Training: Skill development programs encompass both basic and advanced training. Stipend: Participants are entitled to a stipend of Rs 500 per day during their training period. Modern Tools and Equipment: Beneficiaries are eligible for financial support of up to ₹15,000 to procure modern tools, enhancing their efficiency and productivity. Sectors: Eighteen traditional trades will be covered in the first instance under PM Vishwakarma. These trades include (i) Carpenter (Suthar); (ii) Boat Maker; (iii) Armourer; (iv) Blacksmith (Lohar); (v) Hammer and Tool Kit Maker; (vi) Locksmith; (vii) Goldsmith (Sonar); (viii) Potter (Kumhaar); (ix) Sculptor (Moortikar, stone carver), Stone breaker; (x) Cobbler(Charmkar)/ Shoesmith/Footwear artisan; (xi) Mason (Rajmistri); (xii) Basket/Mat/Broom Maker/Coir Weaver; (xiii) Doll & Toy Maker (Traditional); (xiv) Barber (Naai); (xv) Garland maker (Malakaar); (xvi) Washerman (Dhobi); (xvii) Tailor (Darzi); and (xviii) Fishing Net Maker. Eligibility Criteria: – Indian Citizenship: Applicants must be Indian. Artisan or Craftsman: The applicant should be a traditional artisan or craftsman. Age Limit: No Age Limit for applying to the scheme. (Production Linked Incentive Scheme and its Implications) Benefits of PM Vishwakarma scheme:- The scheme will provide support to artisans and craftspeople in rural and urban areas across India. It caters to both urban and rural areas, facilitating employment. ( MSME Sustainable (ZED) Certification Scheme) Funding for training programs to enhance traditional skills. MUST READ: Small savings schemes SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Kavach system Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: As per a recent government release, the Kavach system, has so far been deployed on 1465 route km and 139 locomotives on South Central Railway sections. Background:- The sections include Lingamapalli – Vikarabad – Wadi and Vikarabad – Bidar section (265 Rkm), Manmad-Mudkhed-Dhone-Guntkal section (959Rkm) and Bidar-Parbhsection (241Rkm). About Kavach system:- IMAGE SOURCE: newssimplified.in KAVACH is an Automatic Train Protection (ATP) electronic system designed to help the Indian Railways achieve Zero Accidents. Objective: to achieve safety in train operations across Indian Railways. Development:- It has been indigenously developed. It was developed by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with the Indian industry. Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO): it is a research and development organisation under the Ministry of Railways. Working:- It has a set of electronic devices and Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) devices installed in locomotives, in the signalling system as well as the tracks. (RFID) These connect to each other using ultra-high radio frequencies to control the brakes of trains. It also alerts drivers, all based on the logic programmed into them. (KAVACH) It is a Safety Integrity Level 4 (SIL-4) certified technology. Safety Integrity Level (SIL): it comes from two voluntary standards used by plant owners/operators to quantify safety performance requirements for hazardous operations. There are four SIL Levels (1-4). A higher SIL Level means a greater process hazard and a higher level of protection. KAVACH will be the world’s cheapest automatic train collision protection system. First successful trial: between Gullaguda–Chitgidda Railway stations of South Central Railway in 2022. Salient features:- Automatic activation of the train braking system if the driver fails to control the train speed. Preventing collision between two Locomotives equipped with a functional KAVACH system. Sending continuous updates of Movement. (Mobile Train Radio Communication (MTRC) ) Auto Whistling while approaching Level Crossing Gates Sending SoS Messages during emergency situations. Centralised live monitoring of train movements through the Network Monitor System.  MUST READ: Vande Bharat 2.0 SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following communication technologies: (2022) Closed-circuit Television Radio Frequency Identification Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies? 1 and 2 only. 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of (2020) Digital security infrastructure Food security infrastructure Health care and education infrastructure Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure Halley's Comet Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Comet Halley reached the farthest point from the sun recently. Background:- The comet will reached the farthest point from the sun on December 9, 2023. It’ll come closest to the sun again on July 28, 2061. About Halley’s Comet:- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideShare Comet Halley is the most famous of all comets. A comet is icy and when it comes near the sun it warms and starts releasing gases filled inside it: this is outgassing which creates a tail in a comet. A Halley’s comet consists of water and many gases e.g. methane, ammonia, carbon dioxide etc etc. As it’s an icy cool rocked structure and its path is also elliptical so as soon as it reaches the soon gases and ice inside it expands and develop into a tail which later appears like a beautiful shooting star from the observation point or from earth. The comet is officially called 1P/Halley. It was the first comet ever predicted to return. It is named after English astronomer Edmond Halley, who examined reports of a comet approaching Earth in 1531, 1607 and 1682. He concluded that these three comets were actually the same comet returning over and over again, and predicted that it would return in 1758. This comet has been heading away from the sun since its last closest approach in 1986. Now it’s reaching the end of its outward journey, due to arrive at its farthest point from our sun on December 9, 2023. Afterwards, it’ll start making the trip back toward the sun, due to arrive in our vicinity by 2061. Helley’s is also known as the short-period comet as its orbit is lasting 200 years or less.  MUST READ: Bernardinelli-Bernstein comet SOURCE: EARTHSKY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6, and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2)  Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies do not change Gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in straight line Speed of light is always same Girsu Syllabus Prelims –HISTORY Context: Recently, two temples, were discovered in the ancient megacity of Girsu in Iraq. Background:- Archaeologists found the two temples, one buried atop the other. About Girsu:- Location: Iraq. Girsu was a Sumer civilization city. It was discovered in the nineteenth century. The first excavations took place in the 1880s by the French archaeologist Ernest de Sarzec. It was noteworthy because it first revealed the existence of the Sumerian civilization to the world. It also brought to light some of Mesopotamian art and architecture’s most important monuments. Sumer Civilization was one of the earliest known civilizations, flourishing between approximately 4100 and 1750 BCE in the historical region of southern Mesopotamia. The Sumerians were responsible for many technological advancements, including measurements of time as well as writing. They essentially “invented” time by dividing day and night into 12-hour periods, hours into 60 minutes, and minutes into 60 seconds. They built the first known cities as well as creating the first known code of law. (Rakhigarhi)  MUST READ: Language in Indus Valley Civilization SOURCE: LIVESCIENCE  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2017) Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following characterizes/characterize the people of Indus Civilization? (2013) They possessed great palaces and temples. They worshipped both male and female deities. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare. Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1, 2 and 3 None of the statements given above is correct Article 370 Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, PM Modi wrote that ‘The SC verdict on Article 370 has strengthened the spirit of Ek Bharat, Shreshtha Bharat. Background:- On December 11, the honourable Supreme Court of India delivered a historic judgment on the abrogation of Articles 370 and 35(A). Through its judgment, the court has upheld the sovereignty and integrity of India, something that is cherished by every Indian. The court rightly observed that the decision taken on August 5, 2019 was done with the purpose of enhancing constitutional integration and not disintegration. The court has also recognised the fact that Article 370 was not permanent in nature. About Article 370:- Article 370 of the Indian constitution dealt with the provision of certain special powers to the state of Jammu and Kashmir. It grants a ‘temporary’ autonomous status to the state of Jammu & Kashmir (J&K). The article was an outcome of Kashmir’s accession to India after the Independence. (Delimitation in Jammu and Kashmir) Provisions of Article 370:- It permitted J&K to draft its own Constitution. It further restricted the Indian Parliament’s legislative powers in the state. Except for Defense, Foreign Affairs Finance and Communications, the Indian Government was required State Government’s nod to apply all other laws. The central govt. had no power to impose financial emergencies in the state. Emergency could be imposed only on the grounds of internal disturbances and imminent danger from a foreign enemy. Indian nationals belonging to other states cannot buy land or property in the state of J&K. woman who marries a person belonging to any other state loses her right to ownership. Background:- Post independence: Jammu & Kashmir (J&K) acceded to the Dominion of India by signing the Instrument of Accession on 26 October 1947 with certain special provisions. On the same line, Article 370 was added to the Indian constitution in It was added as a ‘temporary provision’, giving certain exemptions to the state of Jammu & Kashmir. These provisions gave the state government control over how it needs to govern the state without worrying about the consent of the central government. Removal of Article 370 In accordance with the authority afforded by Clause (1) of Article 370 of the Indian Constitution, the President of India issued the Constitution (Implementation to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 2019 on August 5, 2019, repealing the special status previously accorded to Jammu and Kashmir. Resulting Consequences:- Jammu and Kashmir no longer has its own constitution, flag, or anthem. Its population no longer has dual citizenship as a result of the repeal of Article 370. Jammu and Kashmir now abide by all legislative amendments made by the parliament, including the Right to Information Act and the Right to Education Act. Jammu & Kashmir is fully covered by the Indian Constitution and all 890 Central legislation.  MUST READ: Operation Sadbhavana SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the constitution of India? (2021) Article15 Article 19 Article 21 Article 29 Q.2) Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? (2020) Preamble Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Megamouth Shark Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AD ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the First EVER Pregnant Megamouth Shark Washes Up On Philippines Beach. Background:- The 18-foot shark was discovered in Aurora, the Philippines, and was pregnant with seven pups that had been ejected from her body. About Megamouth Shark:- Scientific Name: Megachasma pelagios It was first discovered in 1976 off the coast of Hawaii. Size: Up to 5.5 meters (18 feet) in length. It has a large mouth, bulbous head, rubbery lip, and dark grey/black body with a white underbelly. Diet: Filter feeder, consuming plankton, jellyfish, and small fish. It swims with its mouth wide open, filtering water for plankton and jellyfish. (National Surveillance Programme for Aquatic Animal Diseases) It is recognizable from its large head with rubbery lips. A relatively poor swimmer, the megamouth has a soft, flabby body and lacks caudal keels. Reproduction is Conservation Status:- IUCN: Least Concern.  MUST READ: Zebrafish SOURCE: TIMES NOW  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following fauna: (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: (2023) They build nests by making burrows in the ground. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: SPECIES IUCN STATUS African Savannah Elephant Endangered Pygmy Hog Vulnerable Jenkin’s Andaman Spiny Shrew Critically Endangered How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Halley’s Comet is officially called 1P/Halley. Statement-II : It was the first comet ever predicted to return. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Kavach system, consider the following statements: It has been indigenously developed. KAVACH will be the world’s cheapest automatic train collision protection system. The First successful trial was between Gullaguda–Chitgidda Railway stations of South Central Railway in 2020. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  12th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 11th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 12th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

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[REGISTER NOW] Personality Test UPSC 2023 – IASbaba’s INTERVIEW MENTORSHIP PROGRAM (IMP) under the guidance of Mohan Sir!

Register Now -> Click Here Dear Students,UPSC has announced UPSC Civil Services Mains Examination 2023 Results.We congratulate all the aspirants who have cleared the Mains Exam and wish you the best for UPSC CSE Exam – Personality Test. In the grand stage of the UPSC Civil Services Examination, where dreams meet determination, the final act unfolds in the interview room. It’s not just a conversation; it’s the pinnacle where your knowledge, personality, and aspirations converge. At IASbaba, we understand the gravity of this moment, and we present to you our UPSC IAS Interview Mentorship Program – a transformative journey towards your coveted success. Register Now -> Click HereRead Complete Details -> Click Here

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[INTERVIEW] SESSIONS on DAF, Cadre and Service Preference by (as part of IASbaba’s Interview Mentorship Program) by Dr. Nagarjuna Gowda (IAS) on 12th December @ 8 PM

Dear Students, UPSC has announced the UPSC Civil Services Mains Examination 2023 Results. We congratulate all the aspirants who have cleared the Mains Exam and wish you the best for the UPSC CSE Exam – Personality Test. DAF Filling forms an essential part of the Interview Preparation but is often neglected by the candidates. The most important step right now is filling up your Detailed Application Form (DAF). Your DAF introduces you to the board before you get to introduce yourself. The utmost care is needed to ensure that you do not make blunders in filling it up. As part of IASBABA’s Interview Mentorship Program (IMP), we are conducting LIVE SESSIONS to help you with the detailed application form, focusing on selecting services, cadre preference, hobbies, achievements, extracurricular activities, etc. DAF-II, SERVICE & CADRE PREFERENCE LIVE SESSION of 12th of December (Tuesday) at 08:00 PM by Dr. Nagarjuna Gowda, IAS CSE 2018 (INTERVIEW SCORE: 193) REGISTER NOW – Click Here Note: The Session will be held live on Zoom and the access will be subject to Registration only. Know More about IASbaba’s Interview Mentorship Programme (IMP) & 1:1 Mentorship with Mohan Sir –> Click Here REGISTER NOW – Click Here For further queries concerning the interview, you can mail us at support@iasbaba.com or call us on 91691 91888 (10 am to 5:30 pm).  All the Best IASbaba Team For a dedicated peer group, Motivation & Quick updates, Join our official telegram channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccount Subscribe to our YouTube Channel HERE to watch Explainer Videos, Strategy Sessions, Toppers Talks & many more…

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Zonal Councils Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, Union Home Minister Amit Shah chaired the 26th Eastern Zonal Council Meeting in Patna. Background:- Addressing the representatives of Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal and Odisha Mr. Shah appealed to all members to work with the spirit of cooperative federalism for all-round development. About Zonal Council:- Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies. They are established by an Act of Parliament, that is, the States Reorganization Act of 1956. Historical Background:- The idea of the creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first Prime Minister of India, Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1956. Five Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-III of the States Re-organisation Act, 1956 – north, south, east, west and central. The North Eastern Statese. (i) Assam (ii) Arunachal Pradesh (iii) Manipur (iv) Tripura (v) Mizoram (vi) Meghalaya and (vii) Nagaland are not included in the Zonal Councils Their special problems are looked after by the North Eastern Council, set up under the North Eastern Council Act, of 1972. The State of Sikkim has also been included in the North Eastern Council vide the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002. Objectives:- Zonal Councils aim to promote collaboration and coordination among states, UTs, and the Union. They discuss and give recommendations on several topics. They are only consultative and deliberative bodies. The States Reorganization Act of 1956 established these statutory entities. The country was divided into 5 zones by the Act:- Northern Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, the National Capital Territory of Delhi, Union Territory of Chandigarh and Ladakh. Headquarter: New Delhi Central Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. Headquarter: Allahabad Eastern Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West Bengal. Headquarter: Kolkata Western Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Goa, Gujarat, and Maharashtra and the Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli. Headquarter: Mumbai Southern Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry. Headquarter: Chennai Structure:- Chairman – The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils. Vice Chairman – The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time. Members- Chief Minister and two other Ministers as nominated by the Governor from each of the States and two members from Union Territories included in the zone. Functions:- Each Zonal Council is an advisory body and may discuss any matter in which States have a common interest and advise the Government. In particular, a Zonal Council may discuss, and make recommendations with regard to: any matter of common interest in the field of economic and social planning; any matter concerning border disputes, linguistic minorities or inter-State transport; any matter connected with or arising out of, the re-organization of the States under the State’s Reorganization Act. MUST READ: Integration of North-Eastern India and its Significance SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In which one of the following states is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located? (2018) Arunachal Pradesh Manipur Meghalaya Nagaland Q.2) Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? (2013) National Development Council Planning Commission Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Conference on Disarmament (CD) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY/INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, Foreign Secretary Vinay Kwatra and, the UN Under-Secretary-General discussed India’s presidency of the Conference on Disarmament. Background:- Their talks centred around global advancements in arms control and disarmament, with a focus on key initiatives discussed at the recent 78th UNGA First Committee. About Conference on Disarmament (CD):- Established: 1979. HQ: Palais des Nations in Geneva. It is a multilateral disarmament forum established by the international community. Objective: to negotiate arms control and disarmament agreements. The Conference meets annually in three separate sessions in Geneva. Members: The Conference is comprised of 65 member States, including the five NPT nuclear-weapon States and 60 other States of key military significance. The CD has three sessions each year. The CD conducts its work by consensus. The Director-General of the United Nations Office at Geneva, is the Secretary-General of the Conference on Disarmament. The CD and its predecessors have negotiated major multilateral arms limitation and disarmament agreements such as:- the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT), the Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production and Stockpiling of Bacteriological (Biological) and Toxin Weapons and on Their Destruction (BWC), the Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, Stockpiling and Use of Chemical Weapons and on Their Destruction (CWC) Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT). Historical Background:- The Conference on Disarmament (CD), was recognized by the Tenth Special Session on Disarmament of the United Nations General Assembly (SSOD-I) (1978) as a single multilateral disarmament negotiating forum of the international community. It succeeded other Geneva-based negotiating fora, which include the Ten-Nation Committee on Disarmament (1960), the Eighteen-Nation Committee on Disarmament (1962-68), and the Conference of the Committee on Disarmament (1969-78). It was renamed the Conference on Disarmament in 1984. Functions:- Cessation of the nuclear arms race and nuclear disarmament. Prevention of nuclear war, including all related matters. Prevention of an arms race in outer space. Effective international arrangements to assure non-nuclear-weapon States against the use or threat of use of nuclear weapons. New types of weapons of mass destruction and new systems of such weapons; radiological weapons. Comprehensive programme of disarmament. Transparency in armaments. (India’s Nuclear Doctrine) MUST READ: Fragile State of Nuclear Disarmament SOURCE: AWAZ PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Consider the following countries: (2015) China France India Israel Pakistan Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as the Nuclear Non-Proliferaton Treaty (NPT)? 1 and 2 only 1, 3, 4 and 5 2, 4 and 5 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, Foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) injected ₹26,505 crore into the Indian equity markets in the first six trading sessions of December Background:- Kislay Upadhyay, the founder of FidelFolio Investments, attributed the FPI inflows to the outcome of major State elections that signalled political stability going forward. About Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs):- Foreign portfolio investors are those who invest funds in markets outside of their homes. Their investments typically include equities, bonds and mutual funds. It does not provide the investor with direct ownership of financial assets. It is relatively liquid depending on the volatility of the market. Examples of FPIs include stocks, bonds, mutual funds, exchange-traded funds, American Depositary Receipts (ADRs), and Global Depositary Receipts (GDRs). FPI is part of a country’s capital account and is shown on its Balance of Payments (BOP). Advantages:- Investors can gain substantially from exchange rate differences. Helps companies raise significant capital without incurring massive expense. FPIs help investors diversify their portfolios, which, in turn, boosts their confidence. FPIs inevitably move towards larger markets with lower competition. This combination is rather attractive to any investor. Disadvantages:- Economic turmoil and political instability may have a negative impact on any investment via the FPI route. Despite the fluid nature of FPIs, losses may pile up if funds are not withdrawn hastily.  FPIs vs FDIs:- An FDI, by default, establishes a tangible and direct business interest in the target country. An FPI does not entail any such hands-on business It is a passive form of investing. Unlike FDIs, an FPI does not require any transfer of IP, technology, or know-how. There is no need to enter a joint venture with a partner company. FDI comprise significantly larger sums and any tie-ups or operations tend to last longer than portfolio investors. FDIs are usually the domain of major players in the industry, venture capital ecosystems, and investment branches of globally recognized financial institutions. Most FPIs include smaller players who invest in a foreign country’s assets and securities for short-term profit. MUST READ: FPI and InvITs SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)  With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements. (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2)With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, which one of the following is considered its major characteristic? (2020) It is the investment through capital instruments essentially in a listed company. It is a largely non-debt-creating capital flow. It is the investment which involves debt-servicing. It is the investment made by foreign institutional investors in Government securities Kadalekayi Parishe Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Kadalekayi Parishe started recently. Background:- Efforts are being made to keep the festival plastic-free. About Kadalekayi Parishe:- Kadalekai parishe is ground nut fair held at heart of Bengaluru near basavana gudi. It is offering of first crop to dodda basava or nandi whose temple is atop the bugle rock. Farmers from various districts of Karnataka comes down to the festival to offer the first ground nut crop followed by fair which is spread across close to a kilometer. Kadalekayi Parishe welcomes the first yield of the groundnut crop It is popularly known as the groundnut festival. It is held on the last Monday of Karthika Masa each year. (Hornbill Festival) As the festival follows the Hindu calendar, its exact date as per the English calendar doesn’t stay fixed. Kadale kai parishe in Basavanagudi of Bengaluru is between 9th December 2023 to 11th December 2023. The prime event is held on 11th December 2023. Karnataka’s farmers congregate at the Bull Temple each year to seek blessings for a good harvest. During Kadalekai Parishe, visitors buy groundnuts in bulk directly from farmers at prices cheaper than market rates. During Kadalekai Parishe special pooja and prayers are held at the bull temple. Decorated streets will have lots of shopping options, food outlets, games and toys for kids. Locals look forward to the festival and indulge in celebrations as well as shopping. MUST READ: Sari Festival “VIRAASAT SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2022) 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2)With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to (2022) dance forms of Northwest India musical instruments pre-historic cave paintings tribal languages VINBAX-2023 Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: The Indian Armed Forces contingent reached Hanoi, Vietnam to take part in the fourth edition of Joint Military Exercise VINBAX-2023 recently. Background:- The Indian contingent comprises 39 personnel from an Engineer Regiment of Bengal Engineer Group and six personnel of Army Medical Corps. The Vietnam People’s Army contingent will also be represented by 45 personnel. About VINBAX-2023:- Date: from 11th to 21st December 2023. Venue: Hanoi, Vietnam. Exercise VINBAX was instituted in 2018. The first edition was conducted at Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh. It is an annual training event conducted alternatively in India and Vietnam. (Military Exercises) The last edition was conducted at Chandimandir Military Station in August 2022 Objective: to foster collaborative partnership, promote interoperability and share best practices between the two sides under Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter on Peacekeeping Operations. The joint exercise will encourage the exchange of ideas and both contingents will jointly rehearse tactics, techniques and procedures. Ideas will be exchanged on modern methods to construct roads, culverts, helipads, ammunition shelters and observation posts in operational areas. In addition, rehearsals will be carried out for drills related to combat engineering and combat medical tasks. Both sides will conduct technical military operations in accordance with scenarios akin to the worldwide deployment of United Nations’ contingents. The joint exercise will help in promoting understanding and interoperability between the two contingents and further strengthen the defence cooperation between the friendly armies. MUST READ: India and Vietnam relations SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs : Port                                                           Well known as Kamaraj Port:                              First major port in India registered as a company · Mundra Port:                              Largest privately owned port in India Visakhapatnam:                         Largest container port in Port India How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs All three pairs None of the pairs Q.2) Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (2016) Amphibious warfare ship Nuclear-powered submarine Torpedo launch and recovery vessel Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier Pertussis Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: According to the UK Health Security Agency, 716 cases of pertussis were reported between July and November, three times more than the same period in 2022. Background:- Following reports, Dr Gayatri Amirthalingam, the agency’s Deputy Director of Public Health Programmes, said that the number of infections dropped during the COVID-19 epidemic due to social distancing and lockdown regulations but is currently on the rise. About Pertussis:- Pertussis, famously known as whooping cough, is a highly contagious respiratory infection caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. Prolonged coughing causes air to be expelled from your lungs. When you gasp for air quickly and deeply after a coughing fit, a whooping cough sound might accompany the inhalation of air. This sound is a loud, high-pitched “whooping” noise. That’s where pertussis gets its name. It only humans are affected by the disease. Pertussis spreads easily from person to person mainly through droplets produced by coughing or sneezing. The disease is most dangerous in infants, and is a significant cause of disease and death in this age group. Symptoms:- The first symptoms generally appear 7 to 10 days after infection. Early pertussis symptoms may resemble those of the common cold. These symptoms may persist for one to two weeks and may include:- Slight fever. Mild or occasional coughing. Runny nose. A pause in breathing in babies (apnea). Whooping cough symptoms after the first or second week have passed usually include: Prolonged, repeated or violent coughing episodes (paroxysms) that recur intermittently for up to 10 weeks or more. Whooping sound when inhaling after the coughing stops. Vomitting. Exhaustion due to prolonged coughing. Treatment:- Whooping cough treatment should begin as soon as possible after diagnosis. (Disease Surveillance System) A provider will prescribe antibiotics to help prevent the spread of the disease. But antibiotics can’t prevent or treat your cough. Cough syrups and other medicines can’t relieve your coughing spells, so you’ll need to use other forms of home treatment to manage your symptoms. In the 1950s, a vaccine was developed that significantly reduced its impact. Getting the whooping cough vaccine is the best way to prevent it getting whooping cough. MUST READ: Non communicable and communicable diseases SOURCE: FREE PRESS JOURNAL PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: DISEASE CAUSED BY Chickenpox Varicella-zoster virus Meningoencephalitis Naegleria fowleri Anthrax Bacillus anthracis How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Zonal Councils are constitutional bodies. Statement-II : Eastern Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West Bengal. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the VINBAX-2023, consider the following statements: Exercise VINBAX was instituted in 2014. The first edition was conducted in Vietnam. It is an annual training event conducted alternatively in India and Vietnam. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  11th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 9th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 9th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Infinity Forum 2.0 Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi will address the 2nd Edition of the flagship Financial Technology event – Infinity Forum 2.0. Background:- Distinguished speakers from the Central and State Governments include Chief Minister of Gujarat Bhupendra Patel, Union Minister of Commerce and Industry Piyush Goyal, and Minister for Railways, Communications and IT Ashwini Vaishnaw will witness the event. About Infinity Forum 2.0:- Hosted by: International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) and Gujarat International Finance Tec-City, GIFT City. Theme ‘GIFT-IFSC: Nerve Centre for New Age Global Financial Services. It is Organized as a pre-cursor event to the Vibrant Gujarat Global Summit 2024. The 2nd edition of the Infinity Forum 2.0, will be held in hybrid mode, with an invite-only in-person event scheduled in GIFT City and for virtual participation from participants across the globe. The Infinity Forum is a global thought leadership platform on financial services, where progressive ideas, pressing problems, and innovative technologies from across the world get Discovered, Discussed and Developed into solutions and opportunities. The 1st edition of the Forum was organized in December 2021. It will also witness participation and insightful discussions by several luminaries from the financial sector in India and across the globe. The event will be preceded by an Investors Meet for FinTech entities which are authorized by IFSCA or recommended by institutions having MoU with IFSCA or accelerators which are authorized by IFSCA. The theme of the 2nd edition of Infinity Forum is ‘GIFT-IFSC: Nerve Centre for New Age Global Financial Services’, which will be dovetailed through the following three tracks: Plenary Track: Making of a New Age International Financial Centre Green Track: Making a case for a “Green Stack” Silver Track: Longevity Finance Hub at GIFT IFSC Each track will comprise an Infinity Talk by a senior industry leader and a discussion by a panel of industry experts and practitioners from the financial sector in India and across the globe, providing practical insights and implementable solutions. The Forum will witness the participation of 300+ CXOs with strong online participation from India and a global audience across 20+ countries including the USA, UK, Singapore, South Africa, UAE, Australia and Germany. The event will also be attended by Vice-Chancellors from foreign universities and representatives of foreign embassies. MUST READ: National Stock Exchange (NSE) and Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following:  (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) In India, the Central Bank’s function as the “lender of last resort” usually refers to which of the following? (2021) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 3 only Egypt’s mummified baboons Syllabus Prelims –HISTORY Context: The mystery origin of Egypt’s mummified baboons has been finally cracked recently. Background:- The scientists have recently retrieved ancient mitochondrial DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) from a mummified baboon found at the Gabbanat el-Qurud site in Egypt, which will help discover its origin. About Egypt’s mummified baboons:- The Egyptian god Thoth was represented by a baboon — which is odd because baboons aren’t native to Egypt. In 1905, Egyptologists Louis Lortet and Claude Gaillard discovered mummified baboons in Gabbanat el-Qurud. Gabbanat el-Qurud is also known as the ‘Valley of the Monkeys’. The baboons belonged to the ancient city of Adulis in present-day coastal Eritrea, a trade centre between the 1st and 7th centuries AD. The lost city of Punt can be one of the potential locations of its origin. The city of Punt was mentioned in accounts of Greco-Roman historians and was associated with the trade of leopard skin, gold, and live exotic animals. Significance of discovery:- The study aligns with historical accounts, drawing attention to the significance of the Red Sea in trade relationships between India, Egypt, and Europe.  About Baboons:- Baboons are some of the world’s largest monkeys. All baboons have a strong torso, a snoutlike face, the same dentition with long, sharp canine teeth, and powerful jaws. Distribution: Africa & Arabia. Habitat: prefer savanna and other semi-arid habitats, though a few live in tropical forests. Baboon social behaviour is matrilineal, in which a network of social relationships is sustained over three generations by the female members of the species. MUST READ: India-Egypt relations SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements: (2021) Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of the egg. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from the mother and not from the father. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School? (2021) Annie Besant Debandranath Tagore Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar Sarojini Naidu Thanjavur Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi has rrecently, replied to a social media post by Hollywood actor Michael Douglas on his visit to Thanjavur. Background:- Via a post on X, the Prime Minister said: “Thanjavur is beautiful indeed! And, there is a lot more to see in India which will leave tourists from across the world spellbound.” About Thanjavur:- Thanjavur (Tanjavur or Tanjore) is a temple site in the Tamil Nadu region of southern India. Thanjavur was the capital of the great Chola (Cola) king Rajaraja I. It was he who commissioned the site’s magnificent temple, the Brihadishvara, in the early 11th century CE. Many other temples and shrines were added over the centuries making Thanjavur one of the most important and most visited historical sites in India today. Thanjavur is listed by UNESCO as a World Heritage Site. About Brihadishvara temple:- Brihadishvara (or Brhadisvara) temple was constructed between c. 995 and 1025 CE using Chola war booty and tribute from Sri Lanka. The temple was dedicated to the Hindu god Shiva. The entire rectangular complex measures approximately 140 x 75 metres and is surrounded by a wall with regular interior niches. Inside the compound are various secondary shrines and a monumental double gateway entrance (gopuras). The two-storey Brihadishvara temple is built on a high dadoed-base platform. The granite tower (vimana), rises in thirteen diminishing levels above the sacred garbhagriha (inner shrine). It is topped by a dome structure which rests on a single 7.7 m square granite block weighing around 80 tons. The temple was laid out on a precise plan of 16 x 16 squares, a design known as padmagarbhamandala in the Dravida architecture of southern India. The garbhagriha contains a 4-metre tall Shiva linga (phallus). Murals decorate the interior walls, and, once hidden by later Nayaka period paintings, these include fine images of Rajaraja I, his spiritual advisor or guru, and his three queens. Other subjects include a Nataraja (Shiva as Lord of the Dance) who was the clan deity of the Cholas (kuladevata). MUST READ: Hoysala temples SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference  to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Financial Stability Board (FSB) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, the Financial Stability Board (FSB) in their latest report assessed the risks associated with multi-function crypto-asset intermediaries (MCIs) Background:- The Financial Stability Board (FSB)’s latest report on crypto-asset intermediaries sought measures to enhance cross-border cooperation and information sharing among local authorities About Financial Stability Board (FSB):- Establishment: 2009. HQ: Basel, Switzerland. It was established in April 2009 after the G20 Summit in London as the successor to the Financial Stability Forum. The board includes all G20 major economies. The Financial Stability Board (FSB) is an international body that monitors and makes recommendations about the global financial system. Members: The FSB consists of 68 member institutions. It comprises several central banks, ministries of finance, and supervisory and regulatory authorities from 25 jurisdictions, as well as 10 international organizations and six Regional Consultative Groups (RCGs). India is an active Member of the FSB, having three seats in its Plenary represented by the Secretary (Dept of Economic Affairs), Deputy Governor-RBI, and Chairman-SEBI. The FSB’s decisions are not legally binding on its members. Objectives:- Assess vulnerabilities affecting the global financial system as well as identify and review, on a timely and ongoing basis within a macroprudential perspective, the regulatory, supervisory and related actions needed to address these vulnerabilities and their outcomes. Promote coordination and information exchange among authorities responsible for financial stability Monitor and advise on market developments and their implications for regulatory policy. Monitor and advise on best practices in meeting regulatory standards. Undertake joint strategic reviews of the international standard-setting bodies and coordinate their respective policy development work to ensure this work is timely, coordinated, focused on priorities and addresses gaps. Set guidelines for establishing and supporting supervisory college Functions:- It promotes international financial stability by coordinating national financial authorities and international standard-setting bodies as they work toward developing strong regulatory, supervisory and other financial sector policies. It fosters a level playing field by encouraging coherent implementation of these policies across sectors and jurisdictions. The FSB, working through its members, seeks to strengthen the financial system of the world. About Multifunction crypto-asset intermediaries (MCIs):- Multifunction crypto-asset intermediaries (MCIs) are individual firms, or groups of affiliated firms, that combine a broad range of crypto-asset services, products, and functions typically centred around the operation of a trading platform. (Cryptocurrency) MCIs typically combine many services, which may include exchange, brokerage, dealing, market-making, custody, clearing and asset management activities; issuing, promoting and distributing crypto-assets, including so-called stablecoins Additionally, some MCIs have substantial proprietary trading and investment functions, some of which are conducted in the course of offering some of the aforementioned services and others which are solely for the MCI’s own account.   Structure:- MCIs typically operate their platforms using a global website that serves as a primary entry point for services. Some MCIs have chosen, in some jurisdictions, to create country-specific local versions of their platforms with legal structures purportedly separate from their main operations. Additionally, some MCIs also establish local subsidiaries (sometimes by buying a local licensed firm) that may receive some level of regulatory permission to provide crypto-asset services to domestic residents, while still connecting to the global platform. Governance:- MCIs do not generally disclose their internal governance, but there are strong indications that independent and robust risk management functions are lacking. Vulnerabilities of MCIs:- Leverage: MCIs engaging in proprietary trading or market-making on their own trading platforms could exacerbate the build-up of leverage. Liquidity mismatch: MCI investment programmes, including staking-as-a-service and yield/earn programmes, create liquidity mismatch. Technological and operational vulnerabilities: MCIs are susceptible to several technological and operational vulnerabilities. MCIs have been a target of cyber-attacks and a number of them have had funds stolen by hackers in the past. MUST READ: Crypto Asset Regulation SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: (2022) They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to ‘Bitcoins’, sometimes seen in the news which of the following statements is/are correct (2016) Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of the countries. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin address. Online payments can be sent without either side knowing the identity of the other. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Aditya-L1 Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, the payload onboard Aditya-L1 captured full-disk images of the Sun. Background:- The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) announced that the Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) instrument on board the Aditya-L1 spacecraft has successfully captured the first full-disk images of the Sun. About Aditya-L1:- Aditya L1 shall be the first space-based Indian mission to study the Sun. Launched by: ISRO. Launch Vehicle: PSLV-XL. (PSLV-C54 launch) Destination site: The spacecraft shall be placed in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system, which is about 1.5 million km from the Earth. Lagrange points: specific locations in space where the gravitational forces of two large bodies, such as a planet and its moon or a planet and the Sun, produce enhanced regions of gravitational equilibrium. There are five primary Lagrangian points, labeled L1 through L5, in a Sun-Earth system. L1 (Lagrange Point 1):- Founded by: Joseph Louis Lagrange. Location: about 1.5 million kilometres inside Earth’s orbit, between the Sun and the Earth. The L1 point of the Earth-Sun system gives a clear view of the sun all the time, without any occultation/ eclipses. Significance of Aditya L1: It will provide a greater advantage in observing solar activities and their effect on space weather in real-time. Objectives of Aditya L1:- Study of Solar upper atmospheric Study of chromospheric and coronal heating, physics of the partially ionized plasma, initiation of the coronal mass ejections, and flares. Sun’s corona: the outermost layer of its atmosphere Study of the Physics of the solar corona and its heating mechanism. Study of Diagnostics of the coronal and coronal loops plasma: Temperature, velocity, and density. Study of Magnetic field topology and magnetic field measurements in the solar corona. Paylaods in Aditya L1:- There are a total of seven payloads on board. (IN-SPACe) Four of them carry out remote sensing of the Sun. Three of them carrying in-situ observation. Remote Sensing Payloads:- Visible Emission Line Coronagraph(VELC) Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) Solar Low Energy X-ray Spectrometer (SoLEXS) High Energy L1 Orbiting X-ray Spectrometer(HEL1OS) In-situ Payloads:- Aditya Solar wind Particle Experiment(ASPEX) Plasma Analyzer Package For Aditya (PAPA) Advanced Tri-axial High-Resolution Digital Magnetometers MUST READ: Shukrayaan SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Indian Bison Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the Koya tribe rode the eco-friendly wave to help conserve the Indian Bison of Eastern Ghats. Background:- In a move to conserve the Indian Bison in their forests, the indigenous Koya tribe inhabiting the Papikonda hill range in Andhra Pradesh have made an exemplary transition by shedding the use of bison horns to make their traditional flute, Permakore, and replacing it with an instrument made of eco-friendly palm leaf. About Indian Bison:- Indian Bison are one of the largest extant bovines. (Wildlife Institute of India (WII)) It is one of the largest species among the wild cattle, reaching a shoulder height of up to 220 cm. The Indian gaur, a reclusive beast that lives in the wild. They are found on the forested hills and grassy areas of south to southeast Asia. In India, they are found in Nagarhole, Bandipur, Masinagudi National Parks and BR Hills. Threats:- Food Scarcity Poaching Habitat Loss due to deforestation and commercial plantations. Human-Animal Conflict Conservation status:- Wild Life Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I. International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List: Vulnerable. About Koya tribe:- The Koya population is primarily found in Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha. They speak the Koya language, which belongs to the Dravidian language family. They practice Podu form of shifting cultivation, as practiced by various tribal groups in forest areas has for long been an economic survival versus environmental sustenance issue. The held ST status in Chattisgarh but they were not granted ST status in their migrated states such as Telangana. Koyas popularly call themselves as Dorala Sattam (Lords group) and Putta Dora (original lords). The Godavari and Sabari rivers which flow through their area of habitation exercise profound influence on Koyas’ economic, social and cultural life. MUST READ: New Breeds of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)-National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following organisms ·perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q.2) Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: SPECIES IUCN STATUS Kondana Rat Vulnerable Javan Rhinoceros Critically Endangered Ganges Shark Least concern How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The Financial Stability Board (FSB) was established in 2005. Statement-II : The board includes all G20 major economies. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Infinity Forum 2.0, consider the following statements: The theme is Nerve Centre for New Age Global Financial Services. It is Organized as a pre-cursor event to the Vibrant Gujarat Global Summit 2024. The 1st edition of the Forum was organized in December 2020. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  9th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 8th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

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[RESULTS] UPSC Civil Services MAINS Examination 2023 Results Announced!

Dear Students UPSC has announced UPSC Civil Services Mains Examination 2023 Results. We congratulate all the aspirants who have cleared the Mains Exam and wish you the best for UPSC CSE Exam – Personality Test. DOWNLOAD MAINS WRITTEN RESULT – CLICK HERE DOWNLOAD MAINS WRITTEN RESULT (NAME-WISE) – CLICK HERE IASbaba’ INTERVIEW MENTORSHIP PROGRAMME (IMP) IASbaba’s Interview Mentorship Programme (IMP) is the most comprehensive initiative for the personality test. The program has helped many previous year rankers to qualify for the Civil Services Exam. We have designed IMP in such a way that it is not just a ritual that has to be done by the aspirants but personal attention will be given to each and every candidate and guidance will be provided according to the individual needs of the candidates. Following the feedback of the toppers is a testimony of that. To Know More about ‘INTERVIEW MENTORSHIP PROGRAM’ – CLICK HERE Those who are interested in the IMP Programme, please fill out the Registration Form below: REGISTRATION FORM – CLICK HERE IMPORTANT NOTE: Students, who have filled the Registration Form, can use the DISCUSSION ROOMS at Bengaluru, Delhi, Bhopal and Lucknow Centres. The Discussion Rooms will be specially reserved for interview purposes. Also, to make the discussion more streamlined, a mentor will oversee the discussions. For further queries with regard to the interview, you can mail us at support@iasbaba.com or call us on 91691 91888 (10 am to 5:30 pm).  All the Best IASbaba Team

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 8th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   National Mission for Clean Ganga Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, Under the National Mission for Clean Ganga a total of 450 projects have been taken up at an estimated cost of Rs. 38,022.37 Crore, out of which 270 projects have been completed and made operational. Background:- So far, a total of 450 projects have been taken up at an estimated cost of Rs. 38,022.37 Crore, out of which 270 projects have been completed and made operational. About National Mission for Clean Ganga:- Launched: 12th August 2011. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Objective: to ensure effective control of pollution and rejuvenation of the river Ganga by adopting a river basin approach to promote inter-sectoral coordination for comprehensive planning and management. ( Cleaning of River Ganga) NMCG was listed as a society under the Societies Registration Act, of 1860. It is responsible for implementing the government’s ambitious Namami Gange programme. It acted as the implementation arm of the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) which was constituted under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act (EPA),1986. NGRBA was dissolved in 2016 and replaced by the National Council for Rejuvenation, Protection, and Management of River Ganga NMCG is an initiative taken by the Government of India to address the pollution of the river Ganga by providing financial and technical assistance. Further, to maintain minimum ecological flows in the river Ganga to ensure water quality and environmentally sustainable development. The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) has undertaken comprehensive public awareness campaigns to foster a sense of responsibility and engagement among the public in efforts to clean and conserve the Ganga River. Through educational materials, community outreach, school programs, mass media campaigns, and online engagement. Challenges:- Land Acquisition: In many instances, the Detailed Project Reports (which prescribe all the steps necessary to execute a project, and the roles of agencies) needed revision. Lack of Local Initiatives: State Governments are under the impression that building treatment plants was entirely the Centre’s responsibility. Improper Funding: Though NMCG is a ₹20,000 crore mission, the government has so far given in-principle approval for projects worth ₹37,396 crore, of which only ₹14,745 crore has been released to States for infrastructure work, as of June 2023. Municipal Solid Waste Management: The mission faced criticism for not adequately addressing the problem of municipal solid waste flowing into the Ganga. Inadequate Sewerage Coverage: Much of India’s urban population resides outside sewerage networks, resulting in a substantial portion of waste not reaching STPs. Improper Waste Disposal: The study by the Quality Council of India revealed that rubbish heaps are found near ghats in numerous towns along the river, indicating improper waste disposal practices. This poses a threat to the cleanliness of the Ganga. MUST READ: River Cities Alliance SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)  Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? (2022) Cauvery Manjira Pennar Tungabhadra Q.2) R2 Code of Practices” constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2022) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources Ethics Committee Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the ethics committee of the Lok Sabha is believed to have recommended the expulsion of Trinamool Congress Member of Parliament (MP) Mahua Moitra from the Lok Sabha for her “unethical conduct” and “breach of privileges”. Background:- Ethics Committee, tasked with overseeing the moral conduct of parliamentarians. About the ethics committee:- The ethics committee was constituted in 2000. Objective: to oversee the moral and ethical conduct of members and examine cases of ‘unethical conduct’ referred to it. The Committee examines complaints filed against members of the House by other members; outsiders through a member; or referred by the Speaker. The Committee makes a prima facie inquiry before deciding to examine a complaint. It presents its report to the Speaker, who places it before the House for consideration. The term ‘unethical’ is not defined. It is left to the Committee to decide whether any act is unethical or not. Privileges Committees:- While the Ethics Committee handles cases of unethical conduct, the Privileges Committee, or Special Inquiry Committee, deals with more severe accusations against a member. These committees have historical precedence, with a special committee in 1951 finding a member guilty of promoting a business interest through questions in return for financial benefits. About Committees of Parliament:- Parliamentary committees are broadly categorized as Standing Committees and Ad Hoc Committees. Standing Committees are permanent and operate continuously, while Ad Hoc Committees are temporary and disband upon task completion. It includes Financial Committees, Departmental Standing Committees, Committees to Enquire, Committees to Scrutinise and Control, Committees Relating to the Day-to-Day Business of the House, and House-Keeping Committees. Ad Hoc Committees are subdivided into Inquiry Committees and Advisory Committees. The Parliamentary committees draw their authority from the constitution. Article 105: Powers, privileges, etc., of the houses of Parliament and of the members and committees thereof. Article 118: Each House of Parliament may make rules for regulations, subject to the provisions of this constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business. Functions of the Parliamentary Committees:- Reviewing and scrutinising the work of the government. Power to summon ministers and officials. Parliamentary committees play a key role in the legislative process by examining and reviewing bills before they are passed into law. They can make recommendations for changes to the bill and ensure that it is consistent with the Constitution and the laws of the land. Signification of Parliamentary Committees- Parliamentary committees are crucial for legislative decision-making, offering expertise to MPs who may lack in-depth knowledge on specific issues. These committees, acting as mini-parliaments, comprise MPs from various parties, elected proportionally. They serve as instruments for meticulous scrutiny, closely examining bills and seeking input from external stakeholders, including the public. MUST READ: Joint Parliamentary Committee SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model? (2021) As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the parliament to legislate is limited. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC) Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC), under the United Nations Environment Programme, met in Nairobi. Key highlights:- It met for its third round of negotiations (INC-3) to develop an international legally binding instrument to end plastic pollution worldwide. Under the UNEA Resolution 5/14, the INC is responsible for delivering a global plastics treaty by 2025 INC-3 was a make-or-break opportunity as countries came together to negotiate the ‘zero draft’ text developed by the Committee’s Secretariat, with various options for core obligations and control measures. UNEA Resolution 5/14- UNEA adopted a resolution to develop an international legally binding instrument on plastic pollution, including in the marine environment. A zero draft is a preliminary version of a document that contains various options for potential provisions or elements of the document. The zero draft as prepared by the Secretariat contained strong options for an international legally binding treaty to end plastic pollution. The zero draft was a good starting point for the negotiations because it catered to ambitions at all levels: strong and binding, moderate and flexible, weak and voluntary. About Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC):- Establishment: 2022. It was established at the 5th session of the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA-5.2). The Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC) was established to develop an international legally binding instrument on plastic pollution, including in the marine environment between 2022 and 2024. ( Plastic Pollution) The instrument must include marine, land, and water plastic pollution, and promote the sustainable production and consumption of plastics through environmentally sound waste management policies based on the circular economy approaches. Under the legally binding agreement, countries are expected to develop, implement and update national action plans reflecting country-driven approaches to contribute to the objectives of the instrument. They will be expected to promote national action plans to work towards the prevention, reduction and elimination of plastic pollution and to support regional and international cooperation. It aims to engage with stakeholders across the value chain of plastics production including manufacture, use, recycling, and disposal at the sub-national, national, regional, and global levels. The INC is assisted by the IUCN whose prior expertise in international negotiations and initiatives regarding the implementation of circular economies locally, regionally, and globally, as part of ensuring a strong and effective global plastics treaty. Mitigation Efforts to Reduce Plastic in India:- The Indian government has implemented bans on certain single-use plastic items known to cause environmental harm. National Frameworks and Policies: The Plastic Waste Management Rules (2016), focus on reducing plastic waste, enhancing recycling, and phasing out the use of non-recyclable plastics. The Swachh Bharat Mission, a nationwide campaign to clean up the streets, roads, and infrastructure of India’s cities and rural areas, addresses plastic waste as a significant component of municipal solid waste. Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR): Under the EPR framework, producers, importers, and brand owners are held responsible for the collection and processing of post-consumer plastic waste, ensuring a reduction in plastic waste leakage into the environment. Recycling and Waste Management Innovations Public Awareness Campaigns (Plastic Waste management) Numerous NGOs and community-based organizations in India are actively involved in beach clean-ups, awareness drives, and promoting sustainable practices at the local level. MUST READ: Global Treaty on Pollution SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements: (2023) None of them uses seawater. None of them is set up in a water-stressed district. None of them is privately owned. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Garba Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi today expressed happiness on the inscription of the Garba of Gujarat on the Intangible Heritage List of UNESCO. Background:- The Prime Minister posted on X; “Garba is a celebration of life, unity and our deep-rooted traditions. Its inscription on the Intangible Heritage List showcases to the world the beauty of Indian culture. This honour inspires us to preserve and promote our heritage for future generations. Congrats on this global acknowledgement.” Garba, was included in the UNESCO list of Intangible Cultural Heritage. About Garba:- Garba is a traditional dance form from Gujarat. Garba is the 15th cultural item from India to be featured on the UNESCO list. It is a traditional dance form primarily performed during the Navratri festival to worship the Hindu goddess Durga. It celebrates fertility, honour womanhood, and pay respect to any of an array of mother goddesses. The term “Garba” comes from “Garbha” (womb) and “Deep” (lamp). The dance is performed around a central lamp or a representation of the Goddess, symbolizing life, death, and rebirth. The light (the Garba Deep) or a picture of the Goddess Durga is put in the centre of concentric rings, and the people dance around it, bending sideways with each step and making sweeping gestures with their arms, each movement concluding with a clap. Women wear a chaniya choli (a colourful, embroidered skirt set) and men don a kediyu and dhoti or pyjama, often embellished with mirrors and embroidery. Garba is often followed by Dandiya Raas, another dance form using sticks (dandiyas), especially after the Aarti (worship ritual). (Mohiniyattam)  MUST READ: Lavani SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Sovereign Green Bonds Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, Sovereign Green Bonds of Rs. 16,000 crores were raised by the government in 2022-23 for financing renewable energy projects. About Sovereign Green Bonds:- A sovereign green bond is a financial instrument that is issued by a sovereign entity, inter-governmental group, alliance, or corporation. Green bonds are issued by companies, countries and multilateral organizations to exclusively fund projects that have positive environmental or climate benefits and provide investors with fixed-income payments. The proceeds of the sovereign green bond are utilized for projects classified as environmentally sustainable. These are issued with a longer maturity period. The first green bond was issued in 2007 by the European Investment Bank, the EU’s lending arm. This was followed a year later by the World Bank. Significance:- It will catalyze domestic market development and provide impetus to institutional investors. It will provide benchmark pricing, liquidity and a demonstration effect for local issuers, helping to support the growth of a local market. Challenges associated with Sovereign Green Bonds:- Monitoring challenge: There would be a challenge with respect to monitoring how this green grading performs. This will be a challenge until such time the system of evaluation is streamlined as deviations from the norm are hard to capture. Pricing issue: Should they be lower than the regular bond or higher is the major question here. Ideally, it needs to be higher; this is because investors need to be rewarded for choosing to promote ESG goals. On the other side it can be argued that the rates can be lower than normal because investors like to reward green projects, anyway. Overseas launch: The downside is that once the government goes global, then credit rating will matter a lot as all bonds issued globally need to be rated. Once one is rated by them, there is constant scrutiny of domestic policies. Presently, this does not matter because the government of India does not borrow from the overseas market. MUST READ: Climate Finance SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2)With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. IIGs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Betelgeuse Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent studies show that Betelgeuse Is Set to Almost Disappear. Background:- Betelgeuse, one of the most visible stars in our skies, has been behaving strangely over the past few years. The red supergiant, which sits in the constellation of Orion, abruptly dimmed in 2019 causing astronomers to wonder if it was about to explode. About Betelgeuse:- Betelgeuse is a red supergiant star in the constellation Orion. Supergiant star: over 20 times bigger than the Sun. It is one of the largest visible to the naked eye. It is the second-brightest in the constellation of Orion. The star is approximately 650 light-years from Earth. Betelgeuse is called ‘Thiruvathirai’ or ‘Ardra’ in Indian astronomy. ( IN-SPACe) It is a distinctly reddish, semiregular variable star whose apparent magnitude, varies between +0.0 and +1.6. At near-infrared wavelengths, Betelgeuse is the brightest star in the night sky. It is known for its periodic dimming and brightening up. In massive stars like Betelgeuse, the carbon-burning stage lasts only up to a few hundred years, after which the star ‘dies’ and collapses into a supernova within a few months. Supernova A supernova is the name given to the explosion of a massive star. They are the largest explosion that takes place in space. A star can go supernova in one of two ways:- Type I supernova: Star accumulates matter from a nearby neighbour until a runaway nuclear reaction ignites. Type II supernova: Star runs out of nuclear fuel and collapses under its own gravity. Orion constellation The Orion constellation is named after the hunter in Greek mythology. Orion, is one of the most prominent and recognizable constellations in the sky and can be seen throughout the world. In total, Orion is home to 10% of the seventy brightest stars, despite covering only 1.4% of the sky. MUST READ: SpaceTech Innovation Network (SpIN) SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to (2020) Voyager-2 New Horizons LISA Pathfinder Evolved LISA Q.2) Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘black holes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation? (2019) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected. ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected. Possibility of intergalactic space travel through a ‘wormhole’ was confirmed. It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: INTERNATIONAL ORGANIZATIONS HQ United Nations Environment Programme Nairobi World Wide Fund for Nature Sweeden United Nations Conference on Trade and Development New York How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Garba is the 10th cultural item from India to be featured on the UNESCO list. Statement-II : The term “Garba” comes from “Garbha” (womb) and “Deep” (lamp). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to sovereign green bonds consider the following statements: The proceeds of the sovereign green bond are utilized for projects classified as environmentally sustainable. These are issued with a shorter maturity period. The first green bond was issued in 2002. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  8th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 7th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a