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[UPSC Mains 2023] GENERAL STUDIES PAPER 3 (GS3) – UPSC CIVIL SERVICES (CSE) MAINS EXAMINATION 2023

Hi Please find the UPSC Mains 2023 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER 3 (GS3) Paper below:         DOWNLOAD PDF - CLICK HERE [UPSC Mains 2023] ESSAY PAPER- UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAINS EXAM (CSE) 2023 - CLICK HERE [UPSC Mains 2023] GENERAL STUDIES PAPER 1 (GS1) – UPSC CIVIL SERVICES (CSE) MAINS EXAMINATION 2023 - CLICK HERE [UPSC Mains 2023] GENERAL STUDIES PAPER 2 (GS2) – UPSC CIVIL SERVICES (CSE) MAINS EXAMINATION 2023 - CLICK HERE

UPSC Question Papers

[UPSC Mains 2023] GENERAL STUDIES PAPER 2 (GS2) – UPSC CIVIL SERVICES (CSE) MAINS EXAMINATION 2023

Hi Please find the UPSC Mains 2023 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER 2 (GS2) Paper below: 1. "Constitutionally guaranteed judicial independence is a prerequisite of democracy." Comment. 2. Who are entitled to receive free legal aid? Assess the role of the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) in rendering free legal aid in India. 3. "The states in India seem reluctant to empower urban local bodies both functionally as well as financially." Comment. 4. Compare and contrast the British and Indian approaches to Parliamentary sovereignty. 5. Discuss the role of Presiding Officers of state legislatures in maintaining order and impartiality in conducting legislative work and in facilitating best democratic practices. 6. The crucial aspect of development process has been the inadequate attention paid to Human Resource Development in India. Suggest measures that can address this inadequacy. 7. Discuss the role of the Competition Commission of India in containing the abuse of dominant position by the Multi-National Corporations in India. Refer to the recent decisions. 8. e-governance, as a critical tool of governance, has ushered in effectiveness, transparency and accountability in governments. What inadequacies hamper the enhancement of these features? 9. 'Virus of Conflict is affecting the functioning of the SCO' In the light of the above statement point out the role of India in mitigating the problems. 10. Indian diaspora has scaled new heights in the West. Describe its economic and political benefits for India 11. "The Constitution of India is a living instrument with capabilities of enormous dynamism. It is a constitution made for a progressive society." Illustrate with special reference to the expanding horizons of the right to life and personal liberty. 12. Explain the constitutional perspectives of Gender Justice with the help of relevant Constitutional Provisions and case laws. 13. Account for the legal and political factors responsible for the reduced frequency of using Article 356 by the Union Governments since mid 1990s. 14. Discuss the contribution of civil society groups for women's effective and meaningful participation and representation in state legislatures in India. 15. Explain the significance of the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act. To what extent does it reflect the accommodative spirit of federalism? 16. Explain the structure of the Parliamentary Committee system. How far have the financial committees helped in the institutionalisation of Indian Parliament? 17. "Development and welfare schemes for the vulnerable, by its nature, are discriminatory in approach." Do you agree? Give reasons for your answer. 18. Skill development programmes have succeeded in increasing human resources supply to various sectors. In the context of the statement analyse the linkages between education, skill and employment. 19. The expansion and strengthening of NATO and a stronger US-Europe strategic partnership works well for India.' What is your opinion about this statement? Give reasons and examples to support your, answer. 20. 'Sea is an important Component of the Cosmos’ Discuss in the light of the above statement the role of the IMO (International Maritime Organisation) in protecting environment and enhancing maritime safety and security. DOWNLOAD PDF - CLICK HERE [UPSC Mains 2023] ESSAY PAPER- UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAINS EXAM (CSE) 2023 - CLICK HERE [UPSC Mains 2023] GENERAL STUDIES PAPER 1 (GS1) – UPSC CIVIL SERVICES (CSE) MAINS EXAMINATION 2023 - CLICK HERE  

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA) recently, organized a workshop on Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR). Background:- The Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA), organized a workshop on Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR) in collaboration with UNICEF and the National Stock Exchange at the NSE premises in Mumbai on September 12, 2023. The workshop aimed to provide a comprehensive understanding of the BRSR framework, which is based on the nine principles of the National Guidelines for Responsible Business Conduct (NGRBC). About Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR):- The BRSR framework is a mandatory disclosure mechanism for the top 1000 listed companies or businesses to report their performance on environmental, social, and governance (ESG) aspects. It demonstrates their commitment to responsible business practices. It will be applicable to the top 1000 listed entities (by market capitalization), for reporting on a voluntary basis for FY 2021 – 22 and on a mandatory basis from FY 2022 – 23. It includes:- Sustainability Reporting: disclosure and communication of environmental, social, and governance (ESG) goals. It is intended to have quantitative and standardized disclosures on ESG parameters to enable comparability across companies, sectors, and time. Environmental criteria: consider how a company performs as a steward of nature. Social criteria: examine how it manages relationships with employees, suppliers, customers, and the communities where it operates. Governance: deals with a company’s leadership, executive pay, audits, internal controls, and shareholder rights. The listed entities already preparing and disclosing sustainability reports based on internationally accepted frameworks (such  as  GRI,  SASB,  TCFD, or Integrated  Reporting) Significance:- Such disclosures will be helpful for investors to make better investment decisions. It shall also enable companies to engage more meaningfully with their stakeholders, by encouraging them to look beyond financials and social and environmental impacts. MUST READ: National Stock Exchange (NSE) and Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the investments in the following assets: (2023) Brand recognition Inventory Intellectual property Mailing list of clients How many of the above are considered intangible investments? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 NeVA Project Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: President Droupadi Murmu launched the Gujarat Assembly’s National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA) project recently. About National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA) project:- National eVidhan Application (NeVA) is an online application. It is a Mission Mode Project (MMP) that comes under the Digital India Programme. Objective: to make all legislatures digital with the help of Information & Communication Technologies (ICT). Ministry: Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs (MoPA). It is the ‘Nodal Ministry’ for its implementation in all the 31 States/UTs with Legislatures. Funding: It is provided by the MoPA. The funding of NeVA is through Central Sponsored Schemee. 60:40; and 90:10 for North East & and hilly States and 100% for UTs. The technical support by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MietY). So far, 21 State Assemblies have signed Memorandums of Understanding to implement NeVA, and funding has been allocated for 17 of them. Nine legislatures have transitioned fully into digital Houses and actively operate on the NeVA platform. Himachal Pradesh was the first Digital Legislature of the country. Significance:- NeVA epitomizes the concept of ‘One Nation, One Application’, with a mission to prioritize cloud-first and mobile-first approaches. It is to serve the Members of Legislative Assemblies more effectively. It enables automation of the entire law-making process, tracking of decisions and documents, and sharing of information. Through the cloud technology (Meghraj), data deployed can be accessed anywhere at any time. The live webcasting of Lok Sabha TV and Rajya Sabha TV is also available on this application. MUST READ: Global Digital Governance SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centers. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Regarding Digi Locker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under the Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Probiotics Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent studies have shown the positive role of probiotics in reducing Cholesterol. Background:- Using probiotics to reduce cholesterol is an upcoming area of interest and the research is promising. Probiotics are thought to help lower cholesterol levels via a number of mechanisms. These include helping to incorporate cholesterol into cells and adjusting the microbiome of the gut to favor the elimination of cholesterol via the faeces. In a 2018 study, researchers pooled results from 32 studies and analyzed them all together in a type of study known as a meta-analysis. The people who took probiotics reduced their total cholesterol level by 13 percent. Other systematic reviews support these findings. (Indian scientists develop a next-generation probiotic) About Probiotics:- Probiotics are a combination of live beneficial bacteria and/or yeasts. Probiotic supplements are a way to add good bacteria to our body. A probiotic community is made up of things called Microbes. We have trillions of microbes on and in our body. These microbes are a combination of: Bacteria. Fungi (including yeasts). Viruses. Protozoa. Everyone’s microbiome is unique. No two people have the same microbial cells. Even twins are different. The most common type of probiotic bacteria is Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium. Probiotics are also made up of good yeast. The most common type of yeast found in probiotics is Saccharomyces boulardii. Working mechanism:- We constantly have both good and bad bacteria in our body. (iNCOVACC) When we get an infection, there are more bad bacteria, knocking your system out of balance. Good bacteria help eliminate extra bad bacteria, returning the balance Characteristics of a probiotic:- For a microbe to be called a probiotic, it must have several characteristics. These include being able to: Be isolated from a human. Survive in your intestine after ingestion (being eaten). Have a proven benefit. Be safely consumed. Help your body digest food. Keep bad bacteria from getting out of control and making you sick. Create vitamins. Help support the cells that line your gut to prevent bad bacteria that you may have consumed (through food or drinks) from entering your blood. Break down and absorb medications. Probiotic-rich foods:- Yogurt. Buttermilk. Sourdough bread. Cottage cheese. Kombucha. Tempeh. Fermented pickles. MUST READ: National Institute of Biologicals (NIB) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Dividend distribution tax (DDT) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal has recently ordered Cognizant Technology Solutions, to pay dividend distribution tax (DDT) on Rs 19,080-crore share buyback in the assessment year 2017-18 Background:- During the assessment year 2017-18, Cognizant bought 94,00,534 equity shares from its shareholders in the US and Mauritius at Rs 20,297 per share, totaling Rs 19,080 crore. About Dividend distribution tax (DDT):- DDT was a tax imposed by the Indian government on companies distributing dividends to shareholders. Objective: taxing dividend income indirectly through the company. However, it was repealed and abolished for Indian corporations in the Finance Act 2020. Now, shareholders are taxed on dividends based on their individual tax brackets. Dividend: a return given by a company to its shareholders from its annual profits. Salient features:- It was a tax levied on dividends that a company pays to its shareholders out of its profits. DDT was taxable at source. (Bond Yields) It is deducted at the time the company distributes dividends. All local and international businesses operating in India were to comply with the DDT. However, the tax rate varied based on the tax treaty between India and the foreign company’s home country. Significance: This tax was designed to ensure the government gets a fair part of the company’s revenues. MUST READ: Increase in Direct Tax Collections SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? (2022) Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. IIGs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation? (2022) Department of Consumer Affairs Expenditure Management Commission Financial Stability and Development Council Reserve Bank of India PM Ujjwala Yojana Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, the centre approved the expansion of PM Ujjwala Yojana. Background:- Addressing media after the Union Cabinet meeting, Information and Broadcasting Minister Anurag Singh Thakur said in New Delhi that under it, a total of 75 lakh LPG connections over three years from Financial Year 2023-24 to 2025-26 will be released. So far 9.60 crore LPG cylinders have been distributed under the Ujjwala scheme and another 75 lakh free LPG connections will be given to women from poor and needful families so that they can avail of the benefits from the scheme. About PM Ujjwala Yojana:- IMAGE SOURCE: AIR Launched: May 2016. Ministry: Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Objective: to make clean cooking fuel such as LPG available to the rural and deprived households that were otherwise using traditional cooking fuels such as firewood, coal, cow-dung cakes, etc. Pradhan MantriUjjwalaYojana (PMUY) – Diversion of LPG Significance: It will help achieve the Prime Minister’s vision of universal access to LPG. Salient Features:- Ujjwala 1.0 had a target to provide deposit-free LPG connections to 5 crore women members of BPL households. The scheme was expanded in April 2018 to include women beneficiaries from seven more categories (SC/ST, PMAY, AAY, most backward classes, tea garden, forest dwellers, etc.). EMI facilities were given for stove and refill costs (Interest-free loan). Ujjwala 2.0:- The Union budget for FY 21-22, announced the provision for an additional one crore LPG connection under the PMUY scheme. Additional allocation of 1.6 Crore LPG Connections under the PMUY Scheme with a special facility to migrant households. It will provide a deposit-free LPG connection. (UJJWALA 2.0) It will also give the first refill and hotplate (stove) free of cost to the beneficiaries. The migrants will not be required to submit ration cards or address proof. A self-declaration for both a ‘family declaration’ and a ‘proof of address’ will suffice. MUST READ: Special Discussion on Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Engineers’ Day 2023 Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, Engineers’ Day 2023 was celebrated. Background:- It was celebrated on September 15. Engineer’s Day is also celebrated in Sri Lanka and Tanzania on September 15. About Engineers’ Day 2023:- The day is celebrated to recognize the contributions made by M Visvesvaraya in the field of science and technology. Born:1861. M Visvesvaraya was born in a Telugu family at Chikkaballapur near Bengaluru, Karnataka. He was known as the father of Modern Mysore. His full name is Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya. After completing his formal school education in his hometown, Visvesvaraya went to study BA at the University of Madras. However, he later switched and pursued a diploma in civil engineering at the College of Science in Pune. He was a pro in flood disaster management and irrigation techniques. He was recognized for his work in irrigation techniques and flood control. He was Diwan of Mysore from 1912 to 1918. Contributions: He was the chief engineer responsible for the construction of the Krishna Raja Sagara Dam in Mysore. He designed and patented automatic water floodgates in 1903, which were first installed at the Khadakwasla reservoir in Pune. In 1917, Visvesvaraya established the Government Engineering College in Bengaluru, which was later named University Visvesvaraya College of Engineering in his honour. He founded the Bangalore Agricultural University. He was a renowned precursor of economic planning in India. Awards: In 1955, the Government of India honoured him with the highest civilian honour — Bharat Ratna for his numerous industrial, economic and social projects. He was also conferred the British knighthood by King George V, earning the title “Sir.” MUST READ: Satyendra Nath Bose SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements : (2018) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. IRNSS covers the entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only None Lead Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent studies show that Lead exposure led to 30% of global cardiovascular deaths in 2019. Background:- Exposure to lead accounted for 30 percent of all cardiovascular disease deaths globally in 2019, meaning about 5.5 million people, according to a study recently published in The Lancet Planetary Health journal. The researchers used blood lead levels as an indicator to estimate the global heavy metal exposure from 2019. Key Highlights of reports:- Global lead exposure has health and economic costs on par with fine particulate matter5 (PM2.5) air pollution. Lead exposure affects poorer countries disproportionately. Despite the phase-out of leaded petrol, About 95 percent of the health impacts were observed in people living in low- and middle-income countries (LMIC). Deaths from cardiovascular disease were six times higher in LMICs. The average blood lead level in LMICs was 4.6 microgrammes per decilitre (μg/dL), compared with 1.3 μg/dL in high-income countries. The exposure to the heavy metal also led to the loss of 765 million intelligence quotient (IQ) points in children under the age of five. IQ loss in LMICs due to lead exposure was nearly 80 percent higher than a previous estimate — children in these countries lost an average of 5.9 IQ points. In 2019, cardiovascular disease accounted for 94 percent of mortality. In 2019, lead exposure led to global losses worth $6 trillion, or seven percent of the global gross domestic product (GDP). The number was as high as 10 percent of the GDP for LMICs in the same year. Other than cardiovascular disease, exposure to the metal can also lead to chronic kidney disease and idiopathic developmental intellectual disability — meaning damage to the brain and lowering brain development. Countries with the highest burden: Iran, Afghanistan, Yemen, Peru, Vietnam, the Philippines, and parts of Central Africa. Other reports:- Around one in three children worldwide record blood lead levels of over five μg/dL (the tolerable limit set by the World Health Organization), according to a 2020 report by the United Nations Children’s Fund and Pure Earth, a US-based environmental health non-profit. Lead:- Lead is a naturally occurring toxic metal. It is found in the Earth’s crust. In the body lead is distributed to the brain, liver, kidney, and bones. It is stored in the teeth and bones, where it accumulates over time. Human exposure is usually assessed through the measurement of lead in blood. Lead in bone is released into the blood during pregnancy and becomes a source of exposure to the developing foetus. There is no level of exposure to lead that is known to be without harmful effects. Lead exposure is Preventable. Lead is one of 10 chemicals of major public health concern by the World Health Organization (WHO). WHO has joined with the United Nations Environment Programme to form the Global Alliance to Eliminate Lead Paint. Effect of Lead in the human body:- Once lead enters the bloodstream, it goes directly to the brain, particularly in children. Because there is no specific blood-brain barrier for lead that can restrict movement of the metal. MUST READ: Lead Poisoning in India SOURCE:  DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2021) Low-density polyethylene Polycarbonate Polyethylene terephthalate Polyvinyl Chloride Q.2) Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning? (2012) Smelting units Pens and pencils Paints Hair oils and cosmetics Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Mains: Gender Responsive Budgeting Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently UNICEF India representative Cynthia McCaffrey has said the country is being looked upon as a leader in child and gender-responsive budgeting, especially in South Asia. About Gender Responsive Budgeting (GRB): Gender budgeting is a fiscal strategy to achieve equality between women and men by focusing on how public resources are collected and spent. Gender Responsive Budgeting initiatives can help to close the gender gaps, ensuring that public money is raised and spent more effectively. India’s Gender Responsive Budgeting: GRB began in India in 2005-2006 as a fiscal innovation, every year since then the Ministry of Finance has been publishing “Gender Budget Statements” along with the Union Budget. In 2010, the Planning Commission clarified that in place of the Women Component Plan, the Ministry of Finance and MoWCD should adopt Gender Responsive Budgeting or Gender Budgeting only. The ‘Gender Budgeting Handbook, 2015’ released by the Ministry of Women and Child Development notes that Gender Budgeting is a tool for gender mainstreaming. In the 2023-24 Union budget, the Finance Minister emphasised ‘Nari-Shakti’ (woman power) and shifted the focus from women’s development to women-led development. Significance of Gender Responsive Budgeting: Achievement gender equity and equality: The Constitution of India not only grants equality to women, but also empowers the State to adopt measures of positive discrimination in favour of women. Improving Literacy: The Government has been successfully running the Vidhya shakti program with focus on female literacy. Monitoring The Achievement Of Policy Goals: GRB is a tool to monitor the achievement of the goals of the National Policy for Empowerment of Women 2001 and other policy goals. Economic Growth: Ensures allocation of resources to address specific needs and challenges faced by women and girls. The Bharatiya Mahila Bank Ltd, first of its kind in the banking industry in India and the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana besides promoting financial inclusion are emerging as a catalyst for gender justice and equality. Challenges need to be tackled: Political representation: Women comprise only 14.44 % of the 545 members of the 17th Lok Sabha. Education: According to the World Bank India report, while male literacy rate in the country is at 84.7 percent, for females, it is 77 percent. Economic Opportunities: According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey 2021-22, only 32.8 percent of women between 15-29 years were part of India’s labour force in 2021-2022, while men were at 77.2 percent. Low budgetary allocation: Despite having been in operation for almost two decades, budgetary expenditure on it remains a mere 4-5 percent of the total allocation in Union Budget 2023-24. Skewed Implementation: NITI Aayog paper on Gender Mainstreaming (June 2022) has noted that only 62 out of 119 centrally-sponsored schemes are practising GB. The paper noted that the record of Ministers associated with Environment and Climate Change, Urban Transformation, Skill etc. have done poorly. Quality gender disaggregated data: The government agencies who do not capture gender-disaggregated information from their schemes and programmes may not be able to assess the targeted expenditure towards the empowerment of women and girls. Government Initiatives toward Gender Responsive Budgeting: Safe City Project: To ensure the safety of women by strengthening public resources. Samarthya Scheme: Launched by clubbing existing women’s empowerment programmes such as the Pradhan Mantri Vandana Yojana and Swadhar Greh etc. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana Saksham Anganwadi scheme and POSHAN 2.0 Swachh Bharat Mission Beti Bachao, Beti Padao Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) Way Forward: Gender Responsive Budgeting (GRB) in India has made strides in promoting gender equality through government initiatives and budget allocations. However, challenges like disparities in education, economic opportunities, and political representation needs to be addressed as a top priority. By doing so, India can achieve Beijing Declaration’s principles and address deeper socio-economic issues beyond fiscal measures. Source: Business Standard The New Post Office Bill, 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The new Post Office Bill (2023) recently introduced in the Rajya Sabha seeks to replace the Indian Post Office Act (1898) in the light of the changing role of post offices. Key features of the bill: Exclusive privileges of the central government: The Act provides that wherever the central government establishes posts, it will have the exclusive privilege of conveying letters by post, as well as incidental services such as receiving, collecting, sending, and delivering letters. Services to be prescribed: The Act specifies the services provided by the Post Office to include: The delivery of postal articles including letters, postcards, and parcels, and money orders. The Bill provides that the Post Office will provide services prescribed by the central government. Powers to intercept shipments: The Act allows for the interception of a shipment being transmitted through the post on certain grounds. An interception may be carried out on the occurrence of any public emergency, or in the interest of public safety or tranquillity. Such interceptions may be carried out by the central government, state governments, or any officer specially authorised by them. Director General to make regulations regarding services: The Act, as well as the Bill, provides for the appointment of the Director General of Postal Services. Under the Act, the Director General has powers to decide the time and manner of delivery of postal services. Under the Act, the central government can notify charges for postal services through notifications. Examination of shipment prohibited under law or liable for duty: Under the Act, an officer in charge of the Post Office may examine a shipment if he suspects that it contains goods which are prohibited, or are liable to be paid duty upon. The officer must send a notice to the addressee inviting him to attend the examination in person or by agent. The Director General may direct the presence of two witnesses in the absence of the addressee. The Bill removes the powers of examination instead provides that in such cases, the central government may empower an officer of the Post Office to deliver the shipment to the customs authority or any other specified authority.  The authority will then deal with the item in question. Removal of offences and penalties: The Act specifies various offences and penalties.  For instance, theft, misappropriation or destruction of postal articles by an officer of the Post Office is punishable with imprisonment up to seven years and a fine. Sending certain prohibited items through post is punishable with imprisonment up to one year, a fine, or both. The Bill does not provide for any offences or consequences, except one. Exemptions from liability: The Act exempts the government from any liability related to the loss, mis delivery, delay or damage to a postal article. This does not apply where the liability is undertaken by the central government in express terms. Officers are also exempt from such liability unless they have acted fraudulently or wilfully. However, it provides that instead of the central government, the Post Office may prescribe the liability regarding its services. Significance of the bill: Authority: While the 1898 Act had focused only on mail services, the new post office Bill authorized the Director General of Postal Services to make regulations related to activities necessary for providing various such other services as the central government may prescribe, and to fix charges of them. Revision of Charges: This provision is important as parliamentary approval will not be a prerequisite for revision of charges for any service offered by post offices, including traditional mail services. Challenges associated with the new Post Office Bill (2023): Differing Legislation: There is no similar legislation for courier firms. High Control of the Government: The provision to intercept and open parcels in the course of transmission by the couriers would have given teeth to the Bill to control the movement of contraband goods in parcels. Way Forward: The bills brings welcome flexibility and modernization to India’s postal services. The Bill represents a positive step towards modernizing India’s postal services and adapting to contemporary communication needs challenges like differing legislation for courier firms remain. It balances the need for security with the demands of a competitive market. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Disease Pathogen 1.Anthrax Bacillus anthracis 2.Whooping cough Clostridium tetani 3.Tetanus Bordetella pertussis How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The National eVidhan Application (NeVA) is to serve the Members of Legislative Assemblies more effectively. Statement-II: Telangana was the first Digital Legislature in the country. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Probiotics, consider the following statements: Buttermilk is a Probiotic-rich food. Probiotics create vitamins. Probiotics never contain yeast. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Discuss the key changes adopted in the New Post Office Bill 2023 to replace the Indian Post Office Act (1898). (250 words) Q.2) What is gender budgeting? How it can help in women empowerment in India? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  16th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 15th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

UPSC Question Papers

[UPSC Mains 2023] GENERAL STUDIES PAPER 1 (GS1) – UPSC CIVIL SERVICES (CSE) MAINS EXAMINATION 2023

Hi Please find the UPSC Mains 2023 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER 1 (GS1) Paper below: 1. Explain the role of geographical factors towards the development of Ancient India. 2. What was the difference between Mahatma Gandhi and Rabindranath Tagore in their approach towards education and nationalism? 3. Bring out the socio-economic effects of the introduction of railways in different countries of the world. 4. Discuss the consequences of climate change on the food security in tropical countries. 5. Why is the world today confronted with a crisis of availability of and access to freshwater resources? 6. How are the fords formed? Why do they constitute some of the most picturesque areas of the world? 7. Why is the South-West Monsoon called Purvaiya' (easterly) in Bhojpur Region? How has this directional seasonal wind system influenced the cultural ethos of the region? 8. Do you think marriage as a sacrament is loosing its value in Modern India? 9. Explain why suicide among young women is increasing in Indian society. 10. Child cuddling is now being replaced by mobile phones. Discuss its impact on the socialization of children. 11. What are the main features of Vedic society and religion? Do you think some of the features are still prevailing in Indian society? 12. What were the major technological changes introduced during the Sultanate period? How did those technological changes influence the Indian society? 13. How did the colonial rule affect the tribals in India and what was the tribal response to the colonial oppression? 14. Comment on the resource potentials of the long coastline of India and highlight the status of natural hazard preparedness in these areas. 15. Identify and discuss the factors responsible for diversity of natural vegetation in India. Assess the significance of wildlife sanctuaries in rain forest regions of India. 16. Why did human development fail to keep pace with economic development in India? 17. From being net food importer in 1960s, India has emerged as a net food exporter to the world. Provide reasons 18. Does urbanization lead to more segregation and/or marginalization of the poor in Indian metropolises? 19. Why is caste identity in India both fluid and static? 20. Discuss the impact of post-liberal economy on ethnic identity and communalism.         DOWNLOAD PDF - CLICK HERE [UPSC Mains 2023] ESSAY PAPER- UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAINS EXAM (CSE) 2023 - CLICK HERE  

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 15th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Edible oil Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: India could soon see record imports of edible oil of over 16 to 16.5 million tonnes during the current oil year ending October 2023. Background:- Low rainfall in the month of August, along with other factors, is driving the high demand. Data released on September 2023, showed the import of edible oil in August 2023 was 35 percent higher compared to imports in August 2022. About Edible oil:- IMAGE SOURCE: bestfoodfacts.org Oilseeds and edible oils are two of the most sensitive essential commodities. India is the world’s second-largest consumer and number one importer of vegetable oil. In terms of volumes, palm oil, soya bean oil, and mustard oil are the three largest consumed edible oils in India. India is one of the largest producers of oilseeds in the world. (Edible oil prices) India produces- rapeseeds, soybean, peanut, groundnut, copra, cottonseeds and sunflower seeds. In India, the Edible Oil industry is dependent on the vagaries of monsoons like other agricultural products. In order to cater to rising demand, India imports refined edible oil or crude stock to meet the demand-supply gap. India imported 0 million tonnes of edible oil in the year 2019, while the production is around 7.0 million tonnes. At present, India meets nearly 55% to 60% of its edible oil demand through imports. Palm oil (Crude + Refined) constitutes roughly 62% of the total edible oils imported and is imported mainly from Indonesia and Malaysia. Soyabean oil (22%) is imported from Argentina and Brazil. Sunflower oil (15%) is imported mainly from Ukraine and Russia. India’s Export-Import Policy on Edible Oils:- To reduce the import of edible oils in the country, the Indian Government is focusing on increasing the production and productivity of oilseeds and area expansion under Oil Palm and tree-borne oilseeds to enhance the domestic availability of edible oils. National Mission on Oil Seed and Oil Palm (NMOOP) was launched by the Government from 2014-15 to increase the production and productivity of Oilseed crops including mustard and soybean in the country. The scheme is now merged with the National Food Security Mission from 2018-19 as NFSM-Oilseeds & Oil Palm. (National Food Security Act) It has also placed the import of refined palm oil in the ‘restricted’ category with effect from 8th January 2020. MUST READ: National Mission on Edible Oil-Oil Palm (NMEO-OP) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: India accounts for 3·2% of global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all imported edible oils as a special case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Hindi Diwas Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Hindi Diwas was celebrated across country recently. About Hindi Diwas:- “Hindi Diwas” is celebrated annually on September 14th in India. It commemorates the adoption of Hindi as one of India’s official languages. The Constituent Assembly of India, on September 14, 1949, formally recognized Hindi, written in the Devanagari script, as the official language of India for central government and Union purposes. This decision was enshrined in Article 343 of the Constitution of India. Article 351 pertains to the ‘Directive for development of the Hindi language’. World Hindi Day is observed on 10th January. (International Mother Language Day) About 425 million people speak Hindi as their first language and about 120 million people speak Hindi as their second language. The Hindi language is majorly spoken in states like Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Haryana, Bihar, Jharkhand etc. Hindi is also spoken in Mauritius, Nepal, Fuji, Suriname, Guyana, Trinidad and Tobago. Other languages in India:- The Indian constitution recognizes 22 major languages of India in what is known as “the 8th Schedule” of the Constitution. These include Sanskrit, Assamese, Bangla, Bodo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi, Kashmiri, Kannada, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, Santali, Sindhi, and Urdu. MUST READ: Languages of India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Q.2) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho, and Kui’ pertain to (2021) dance forms of Northwest India musical instruments pre-historic cave paintings tribal languages Skill India Digital app Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT POLICIES Context: Recently, the centre launched the Skill India Digital app. Background:- The Skill India Digital app, brings together listings for upskilling courses and job listings. The app was soft launched in April 2023, and was announced by Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman during the Budget session of Parliament. About Skill India Digital app:- Launched in 2023. Developed by: National Skill Development Corporation. Ministry: Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. Skill India Digital app, brings together listings for upskilling courses and job listings. The app will be linked with DigiLocker and Aadhaar to issue verifiable certificates of course completion. It will generate digitally signed CVs for job applicants and people taking courses. The app would help in distributing courses on skills. It will use digital matchmaking to bring potential employers and employees together. Skill India Digital:- Launched: September,2023. Ministry: Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. (Schemes related to skill development) Skill India Digital is a state-of-the-art platform to bring all skilling initiatives together. It is the Digital Public Infrastructure for skilling, employment, and education. It engages and caters to learners, central and state ministries, employers, content providers, knowledge partners, sector skill councils, assessment bodies, and media. It is also a comprehensive information gateway for all government skilling and entrepreneurship initiatives. It is a go-to hub for citizens in pursuit of career advancement and lifelong learning. It is linked to the Udyam portal for the registration of micro, small, and medium enterprises. It is “the marketplace, the platform where all those who are interested — commercial or non-commercial stakeholders — can come together, plug in, deliver skills, gain skills, look for employment, and offer employment. It has a vision to make skill development more innovative, accessible, and personalized in its embodiment, focusing on digital technology and Industry 4.0 skills.( Skill Development in India) It will be a breakthrough in accelerating skilled talent hiring and facilitating lifelong learning and career advancement.  MUST READ: National Skill Development Mission SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between (15 crore and 25 crore). All bank loans to the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Bhoj wetland Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology/Geography Context: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) recently, ordered the Madhya Pradesh government to stop the operation of cruise vessels as well as other motor-propelled boats in the Bhoj wetland. About Bhoj wetland:- IMAGE SOURCE: ResearchGate Location: Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. Bhoj Wetland consists of two contiguous human-made reservoirs. The upper and lower lakes are located in the city of Bhopal. Historical Background:- The Bhoj wetland was first conceived by the visionary king Paramara Raja Bhoj in 1005-1055 CE. He built the lake by raising an earthen dam across the Kolans. The Lower Lake was built much later in 1794 by Chhote Khan, a minister to Nawab Hayath Mohammad Khan. Bhadbhada dam was built on the southeast corner of Bhojtal in 1965. It was designated as the Ramsar site in 2002. Threats to the Bhoj Wetland:- The Bhoj wetland faces various threats from urbanization and human settlements on all sides. MUST READ: COP14 of Ramsar Convention on Wetlands SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland? (2023) Bhitarkanika Mangroves Marakkanam Salt Pans Naupada Swamp Rann of Kutch Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake. Meandering of the Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None OIML (International Organisation of Legal Metrology) Certificates Syllabus Prelims – ECONOMY Context: Recently, India has become the 13th country in the world that issue Internationally Accepted OIML (International Organisation of Legal Metrology) Certificates. About OIML (International Organisation of Legal Metrology) Certificates:- Established: 1955. HQ: Paris. OIML (International Organisation of Legal Metrology) is a renowned international standard-setting body in the field of legal metrology. Its primary role is to develop model regulations, standards, and related documents for use by legal metrology authorities and industries worldwide. These standards are crucial in harmonizing national laws and regulations concerning the performance of measuring instruments, such as clinical thermometers, alcohol breath analyzers, radar speed measuring instruments, ship tanks at ports, and petrol dispensing units. India became an OIML member in 1956. India signed the metric convention, emphasizing its commitment to international standards in metrology. The OIML-CS (Certificate System) is a globally recognized system for issuing, registering, and using OIML certificates, along with their associated OIML-type evaluation/test reports. Advantages:- Indian manufacturers can now export their products with greater ease. The certification services provided by India will attract international manufacturers. To meet the growing demand for certification services, India is expected to witness a surge in employment opportunities in the legal metrology sector. MUST READ: Legal metrology (packaged commodities) rules Amendment 2022 SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following actions: (2023) Detection of car crash/ collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of the display between portrait and landscape mode. In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022) Cloud Services Quantum Computing Visible Light Communication Technologies Wireless Communication Technologies World Trade Report 2023 Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The onset of the Ukraine war has started fragmenting world trade as per the recent World Trade Report 2023. About World Trade Report 2023:- Launched:12 September 2023. Published by: WTO. (India Challenges WTO verdict on sugar) It emphasizes policy goals beyond trade efficiency, including peace, security, poverty reduction, and sustainability. It features findings on how re-globalization or increased international cooperation and broader integration can support security, inclusiveness, and environmental sustainability. Key Highlights:- The report addresses the shift in the narrative around globalization. It emphasizes policy goals beyond trade efficiency, including peace, security, poverty reduction, and sustainability. Re-globalization: The report advocates for “re-globalization,” expanding trade integration to more economies, people, and issues. Reorientation of Trade It states reorientation of Trade Trade is gradually aligning along geopolitical lines. It states Trade flows within hypothetical geopolitical “blocs” are growing faster than those between them, indicating a shift towards friend-shoring. Geopolitical Shifts It states that Geopolitical tensions, the Ukraine conflict, and the rise of China have impacted global trade dynamics. It states COVID-19 pandemic highlighted the importance of resilient supply chains. It states that despite challenges, bilateral trade between China and the United States reached record highs. (China’s Developing Status at WTO) Inclusiveness: It states inclusiveness Trade integration has lifted millions out of poverty. Sustainability: It states Sustainability Trade can contribute to sustainability by providing access to green technologies. MUST READ: 12th WTO Ministerial Conference SOURCE: BUISINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: (2023) It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or SWIFT system. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Walter Alfred Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES Context: Recently, Former Press Trust of India (PTI) journalist Walter Alfred passed away at the age of 103. About Walter Alfred:- Birth: Mangalore, Karnataka. He covered India’s Independence. He also covered the days of Indira Gandhi’s Emergency. He also reported on the India-Pakistan and Vietnam wars. Three days after the 1971 India-Pakistan war, Alfred was arrested on espionage charges in Pakistan and imprisoned for a month in Rawalpindi. He was PTI’s Southeast Asia correspondent stationed in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia, and Singapore. He featured leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru, Pakistani General Ayub Khan, and the former Indonesian premier Sukarno. Although he retired in 1980 after a 60-year career in journalism, he continued his profession. He taught journalism at New Delhi’s Indian Institute of Mass Communication. In 1997, he returned to Mumbai and continued to contribute articles for Indonesian and Malaysian newspapers for several more years. He traversed the globe as a PTI correspondent and witnessed some of the most historic moments of the 20th century. MUST READ: Satyendra Nath Bose SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolor Indian National Flag here. Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of the Andhra region from here. Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here. Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up the headquarters of the Theosophical Society first here. Q.2) Who among the following is associated with ‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English? (2021) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Jawaharlal Nehru Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi Sarojini Naidu Mains: India-Brazil relations Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: Aiming for United Nations Security Council (UNSC) reforms, India and Brazil recently agreed to conduct regular bilateral meetings. About India-Brazil relations: Historical ties: Pedro Alvares Cabral, a Portuguese explorer landed on the East Coast of Brazil in 1500, two years after Vasco de Gama had landed in India. Between the 16th and 18th centuries, Brazil and Goa, both outposts of the Portuguese imperialist empire, had bilateral exchanges that are reflected in food and dressing as well as local traditions. The ‘Ongole’ strain from Andhra Pradesh led to the production of the zebu variety known in Brazil as ‘Nelore’. Political: The strategic partnership established in 2006 between Brazil and India has deepened, with both countries cooperating closely within BRICS, IBSA, G4, G20, and the wider multilateral context of the United Nations. Brazil and India along with Germany and Japan jointly pursued aspirations of permanent seats in the UN Security Council and worked towards a multipolar world where large developing countries can frame global rules and democratise international institutions. Both countries played a pivotal role as leaders of the Global South or South-South cooperation. The Brazilian foreign policy of reciprocal multilateralism is in concurrence with India’s policy of strategic autonomy. India-Brazil trade relation: Trade between Brazil and India increased to $7.02 billion in 2021, with Brazilian exports worth $4.8 billion and imports from India valued at $6.7 billion. In 2021, India became the world’s 5th largest trading partner of Brazil (2nd in Asia), and the 5th largest source of Brazilian imports and the 13th largest destination of Brazilian exports. Major Indian exports to Brazil includes processed Petroleum products, Agro-chemicals (insecticides, fungicides), Chemicals, Pharmaceutical, Textured filament yarn, and Unwrought Aluminum. Brazilian exports to India included Crude oil, soya oil, Gold (non-monetary), cane sugar, cotton, gum, wood and turpentine oils, chemicals (carboxylic acids) and iron ore and concentrates. Brazil played a crucial role in the India-MERCOSUR Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) that improves India’s access to the large South American market. Defence and Security Cooperation: India and Brazil signed an agreement in 2003 for cooperation in defence. Meetings of Joint Defence Committee (JDC) are held as an institutionalized mechanism for defence cooperation. Brazilian firearms company Taurus Armas SA signed a joint venture with Jindal Defence (part of O P Jindal Group) to produce and sell small arms in India. An MoU on cooperation in the area of Cyber Security between CERT-In and its counterpart agency was signed during the State Visit of President Bolsonaro in January 2020. Cultural Cooperation Brazil has a strong community of Yoga and Ayurveda The Brazilian Association of Ayurveda (ABRA) is a non-profit association with offices in 9 states of Brazil and has members all over Brazil. Mahatma Gandhi is highly regarded in Brazil and the government and NGOs are trying to inculcate the philosophy of non-violence among students, youth and police. A Cultural Exchange Programme (CEP) for the years 2020-2024 was signed during the State Visit of President Bolsonaro to India in January 2020. Challenges in the bilateral relationship between India and Brazil: Trade competition: Both India and Brazil are major exporters of agricultural products such as sugar and meat, which can create competition and trade friction between the two countries. China’s trade dominance: Furthermore, there are concerns as China, which is Brazil’s largest trading partner, can have an impact on relations between India and Brazil. Sugarcane subsidy: Brazil’s complaint to the World Trade Organization about India’s subsidies to sugarcane farmers. This has led to tensions between the two countries due to Brazil’s concerns over India’s agricultural policies that could negatively impact its economic interests. Limited people-to-people contact: India and Brazil have a limited number of people-to-people contacts, including business, cultural, and educational exchanges. Differences in strategic priorities: India and Brazil are both emerging powers that seek to enhance their global influence, but their approaches to regional and global issues may differ. Way Forward: The decade long bilateral strategic partnership between India and Brazil is based on a common global vision, shared democratic values, and a commitment to foster economic growth with social inclusion for the welfare of the people of both countries. With their uniting stance on various multilateral and plurilateral forums, the two countries are considered to be important for the creation of new world order. Source:     The Hindu East Asia Summit (EAS) and its significance Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: Recently the Prime Minister attended the 18th East Asia Summit (EAS) was held in Jakarta. Key highlights of the 18th East Asia Summit (EAS): Leaders’ Declaration on ASEAN: At the 18th EAS, the Leaders’ Declaration on ASEAN as an Epicentrum of Growth was adopted. It was discussed on building resilience against emerging challenges and future shocks through cooperation on enhancing energy security and food security, maintaining financial stability, and strengthening regional health architecture. Plan of Action (POA): The Plan of Action (POA) for the next five years outlines the priorities that include efforts on the mainstreaming and implementation of the ASEAN Outlook on the Indo-Pacific (AOIP). It lays emphasis on strengthening partnerships, through cross-sectoral collaborations that includes efforts in furthering the implementation of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. Meet of ASEAN and non-ASEAN states: The meet provided an opportunity for ASEAN member states and the eight non-ASEAN countries to exchange views on issues concerning the region and the world at large. Significance of East Asia: Regional Security: Considering tension on the Korean Peninsula, South China and in the Taiwan Strait, among others, it is vital for Japan, China and South Korea to maintain a common stance and to share a common concern for security in the East Asian region. Economic benefit: It represents nearly 50 per cent of the world’s population with 20 percent of global trade, and comprising 16 nations that are on a dynamic path of economic development. Global Implications: An East Asia community would play a big role in instilling a sense of responsibility in Asian countries and in leading them jointly in contributing to the resolution of global issues. Challenges in the region: Regional challenges: While the EAS participating countries share a common perspective aimed at achieving peace and security in the Indo-Pacific, ongoing contestations like China with other countries issue limits cooperative and collaborative framework as envisaged originally. Complex geopolitical issues: Strengthening the EAS as a forum for dialogue and cooperation on a wide spectrum of strategic, political, and economic matters of common interest and concern, remains complex. This stems from the existing and ever-evolving multi-faceted threats and challenges which get compounded through the intense geo-political and geo-economic discourse being witnessed in the region. Concerns over the relevance: The deepening geo-political divide being witnessed today raises concern on the relevance of the EAS in addressing issues of human security challenges as a consequent of the socio-economic fallout from the COVID-19 and the ongoing Ukraine-Russia war. Hampering efficacy and effectiveness: The nature of the relations amongst the EAS participating countries, marked by confrontation and contestations, has had its impact on its efficacy and effectiveness. Way Forward: It was an attempt at the 18th EAS to strengthen the efficacy and effectiveness of the institution by emphasising on an international community, built on cooperation without division and confrontation. The EAS promotes adherence to international law and a rules-based order in the region which includes respecting maritime rights and territorial integrity and working towards peaceful conflict resolution. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Ramsar Wetland Location 1.Kanwar Lake Bihar 2.Nalsarovar Rajasthan 3.Yashwant Sagar Uttar Pradesh How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: “Hindi Diwas” is celebrated annually on 10 January in India. Statement-II: The Indian constitution recognizes 22 major languages of India in what is known as “the 8th Schedule” of the Constitution. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the World Trade Report 2023, consider the following statements: It was launched in September,2022. It was Published by WTO. It shows that bilateral trade between China and the United States reached a record High. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mains Practice Question Q.1) Analyse the significance of East Asia Summit (EAS) as a premier forum for strategic dialogue in the Indo-Pacific. What are the geo-political and geo-economic challenges faced by the forum? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  15th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 14th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

UPSC Question Papers

[UPSC Mains 2023] ESSAY PAPER- UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAINS EXAM (CSE) 2023

[UPSC Mains 2023] ESSAY PAPER- UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAINS EXAM (CSE) 2023 SECTION A Thinking is like a game, it does not begin until there is an opposite team. Visionary decision making happens at an intersection of intuition and logic. Not all who wander are lost. Inspiration for creativity springs from the effort to look for the magical in the mundane. SECTION B Girls are weighed down by restrictions, boys with demands - two equally harmful disciplines. Mathematics is the music of reason. A society that has not justice is a society that needs less charity. Education is what remains after one has forgotten what one has learned in the school.   HOW WAS THE PAPER?

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Nipah Virus (NiV) Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: There has been an outbreak of Nipah Virus (NiV) in the state of Kerala recently. Background:- Two people have died and two others have been hospitalized, one of whom is in critical condition in the latest outbreak. The state government has set up a control room to monitor the evolving situation. NiV was first reported in the state in 2018 in Kozhikode district. About Nipah Virus (NiV):- IMAGE SOURCE: gmsciencein.com Nipah virus (NiV) is a zoonotic virus. Zoonotic virus: It is transmitted from animals to humans. Natural host: Fruit bats (Pteropodidae family) Incubation period: 4 to 14 days. Incubation period: interval from infection to the onset of symptoms. Fatality rate: 40% to 75%. The Nipah virus was first recognized in 1999 during an outbreak among pig farmers in, (Zika Virus Disease) It was also recognized in Bangladesh in 2001, and nearly annual outbreaks have occurred in that country since. The disease has also been identified periodically in eastern India. The 2018 annual review of the WHO R&D Blueprint list of priority diseases indicates that there is an urgent need for accelerated research and development for the Nipah virus. Transmission:- Nipah virus can be transmitted to humans from animals (such as bats or pigs), or contaminated foods. Human-to-human transmission of the Nipah virus has also been reported among families and caregivers of infected patients. Signs and symptoms:- Human infections range from asymptomatic infection to acute respiratory infection (mild, severe), and fatal encephalitis. Infected people initially develop symptoms including fever, headaches, myalgia (muscle pain), vomiting and sore throat. This can be followed by dizziness, drowsiness, altered consciousness, and neurological signs that indicate acute encephalitis. Some people can also experience atypical pneumonia and severe respiratory problems, including acute respiratory distress. Encephalitis and seizures occur in severe cases, progressing to coma within 24 to 48 hours. Diagnosis:- Nipah virus infection can be diagnosed with clinical history during the acute and convalescent phases of the disease. The main tests used are:- Real-time polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) from bodily fluids. Antibody detection via enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay Virus isolation by cell culture. Treatment:- There are currently no drugs or vaccines specific for Nipah virus infection. WHO has identified Nipah as a priority disease for the WHO Research and Development Blueprint. Intensive supportive care is recommended to treat severe respiratory and neurologic complications. Prevention:- Reducing the risk of bat-to-human transmission: decreasing bat access to date palm sap and other fresh food products. Reducing the risk of animal-to-human transmission: Gloves and other protective clothing should be worn while handling sick animals or their tissues and during slaughtering and culling procedures. Reducing the risk of human-to-human transmission: Close unprotected physical contact with Nipah virus-infected people should be avoided MUST READ: Zombie Virus SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following : (2022) Bacteria Fungi Virus Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 e-Courts Mission Mode Project Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: The Government has recently, approved the e-Courts Mission Mode Project Phase -3 as part of the National e-Governance Plan. Background:- It is a part of the National e-Governance Plan. It will span for four years with a financial outlay of seven thousand 210 crore rupees. About e-Courts Mission Mode Project:- Launched:2007. Ministry: Ministry of Law & Justice. E-Courts Project is a mission-mode project undertaken by the Department of Justice, Government of India. Objective: to provide designated services to litigants, lawyers, and the judiciary by universal computerization of district and subordinate courts in the country and enhancement of ICT enablement of the justice system. Implementation: The e-Courts project is being implemented in association with the e-Committee Supreme Court of India and the Department of Justice. The project is aimed at providing the necessary hardware and software application to enable courts to deliver e-services, and the judiciary to be able to monitor and manage the functioning of courts. It is a Central Sector Scheme. The e Committee of the Supreme Court has been overseeing the implementation of the e Courts Project, conceptualized under the “National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in the Indian Judiciary-2005”. The Chairperson of the e Committee is Dr Justice Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, Judge, Supreme Court of India. Phases:- Phase I: It was implemented during 2011-2015. Phase II: It was started in 2015 under which various District and subordinate courts have been computerized. Draft vision document for Phase III aims for: (Phase III of the eCourts Project) Digitization of court processes. Upgrade the electronic infrastructure of the judiciary. Enable access to lawyers and litigants. Seamless exchange of information between various branches of the State through the Interoperable Criminal Justice System (ICJS). These branches include the judiciary, the police, and the prison systems. Advantages:- Faster justice (Digitization of Court Records) Clearing pendency which is around 3.27 crore cases before Indian courts. Reduce long delays and difficulties for ordinary litigants. Building people’s trust in the judiciary. Challenges:- Technical Challenges: Complex process that involves upgrading existing technology and infrastructure. Cybersecurity Risks. Equity Concerns: The digitization of courts can exacerbate existing disparities in access to justice for marginalized communities, particularly those without access to technology. Preservation of Records: Digitizing records poses challenges for preserving historical records MUST READ: Judiciary & AI SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centers. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Northern Sea Route Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: India and Russia have been exploring the use of the Northern Sea Route, and Eastern Maritime Corridor in recent times. Background:- India and Russia discussed the possibility of exploring new transport corridors like the Northern Sea Route (NSR). Both sides also agreed that Indian seafarers will be trained on Polar and Arctic waters at the Russian Maritime Training Institute in Vladivostok, which is equipped with simulators. India is keen to collaborate on a partnership regarding the development of the NSR recognizing the potential it holds for enhanced connectivity and trade. About Northern Sea Route:- IMAGE SOURCE: eusp.org Eastern and western regions of the Arctic Ocean are connected via the Northern Sea Route (NSR), sometimes known as the Northeast Passage (NEP). It is the shortest shipping route connecting Europe and the Asia-Pacific region. The route between Europe and Asia is just 13,000 km long, compared to the 21,000 km covered by the Suez Canal route, which reduces the travel duration from one month to less than two weeks. It passes through four seas of the Arctic Ocean. The route starts at the boundary between the Barents and Kara seas (Kara Strait) and concludes at the Bering Strait (Provideniya Bay). Advantages:- The NSR offers potential distance savings of up to 50% compared to existing shipping lanes via Suez or Panama. The region may hold over 40 percent of the current global reserves of oil and gas. There may also be significant reserves of coal, zinc, and silver. India’s gains in NSR development:- Growing Cargo Traffic: NSR cargo traffic increased by about 73% during 2018-2022. Strategic Transit Route: India’s geographical location and reliance on sea transportation make the NSR a crucial transit route. India – Russia Relations Geopolitics: India would like to complement China and Russia’s potential collective influence over NSR. (India-Russia military alliance) MUST READ: Russia-Ukraine War SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2023) Bulgaria Czech Republic Hungary Latvia Lithuania Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q.2) The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of: (2015) ASEAN BRICS OECD WTO TRIFED (Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India) at G20 Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the G20 Summit witnessed a remarkable showcase of India’s rich tribal heritage and craftsmanship, curated and presented by TRIFED (Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India). Key highlights of the event:- Several exquisite products, handcrafted by tribal artisans from various regions of India, captured the attention and admiration of delegates from around the world. These included:- Longpi Pottery:- Location: village of Longpi in Manipur. Tribe: Tangkhul Naga tribes. Unlike most pottery, Longpi does not resort to the potter’s wheel. Chhattisgarh Wind Flutes:- Location: Bastar in Chhattisgarh. Tribe: Gond Tribe. Unlike traditional flutes, it produces melodies through a simple one-handed twirl. Craftsmanship involves meticulous bamboo selection, hole drilling, and surface etching with fish emblems, geometric lines, and triangles. Gond Paintings:- Tribe: Gond tribe. The artistic brilliance shines through their intricate paintings, reflecting their deep connection to nature and tradition. Gujarat Hangings:- Location: Dahod, Gujarat. Tribe: Bhil & Patelia Tribe. It stems from an ancient Gujarat art form and initially dolls and cradle birds, featuring cotton cloth and recycled materials. Sheep Wool Stoles:- Location: Himachal Pradesh/Jammu & Kashmir. Tribe: Bodh, Bhutia, and Gujjar Bakarwal tribes. They exhibit their ingenuity with pure sheep wool, fashioning a diverse range of apparel, from jackets to shawls and stoles. Araku Valley Coffee: Location: Araku Valley in Andhra Pradesh. This coffee is renowned for its unique flavors and sustainable cultivation practices. Glass Mosaic Pottery:- It captures the mosaic art style, meticulously crafted into lampshades and candle holders. When illuminated, they unleash a kaleidoscope of colors, adding vibrancy to any space. Meenakari:- Location: Rajasthan. It is the art of decorating metal surfaces with vibrant mineral substances, a technique introduced by the Mughals. Metal Ambabari Craft:- Location: Rajasthan. Tribe: Meena Tribe. It is a meticulous process that elevates metal decoration. Today, it extends beyond gold to metals like silver and copper. About TRIFED:- Establishment: 1987. Ministry: Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Objective: to bring about the socio-economic development of tribals of the country by institutionalizing the trade of Minor Forest Produce (MFP) and surplus Agricultural Produce (SAP) collected/ cultivated by them. TRIFED was established in August 1987 under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 1984 by the Government of India as a National-level Cooperative body. (VanDhan Chronicle) Functions:- It plays the dual role of both a market developer and a service provider, empowering the tribals with knowledge and tools to better their operations in a systematic, scientific manner and also assisting them in developing their marketing approach. It is involved actively in capacity building of the tribal people through sensitization and the formation of Self Help Groups (SHGs). It also assists them in exploring and creating opportunities to market the developed products in national and international markets on a sustainable basis. MUST READ: Tech for Tribal SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the International economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho, and Kui’ pertain to (2021) dance forms of Northwest India musical instruments pre-historic cave paintings tribal languages Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT AWARDS Context: Recently, the last date for submission of nominations for the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar was announced. Background:- The Last date of submission of nomination for the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar is 15 September, 2023. About Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar:- Organized by: Ministry of Women & Child Development. Objective: to celebrate the energy, determination, ability, zeal, and enthusiasm of our children. Eligibility: Any child who is an Indian Citizen and residing in India and is not exceeding 18 years (as of the last date of receipt of application/nomination). The Awards are announced on December 26 on ‘Veer Bal Diwas’. Veer Baal Diwas: marks a tribute to the martyrdom of Guru Gobind Singh’s sons. (Parkash Purab of Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji) Conferred by: President of India. Ceremony: held every year in New Delhi in January every year. Historical Background: It was instituted in 1979 as the National Child Welfare Awards, renamed in 2018 as Bal Kalyan Puraskar. (Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA)) Field: This national-level award is given in the fields of Bravery, Sports, Social Service, Science and Technology, Environment, Arts and Culture, and Innovation. Eligibility:- A child who is an Indian Citizen and residing in India and is not exceeding 18 years (as of the last date of receipt of application/nomination). The act/incident/achievement should have been within 2 years of the last date of receipt of application/nomination. The applicant should not be a previous recipient of the same award earlier in any category. Decoration:- Medal Cash prize of Rs. 1,00,000 Certificate and citation The Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar is given under two categories:- Bal Shakti Puraskar It is given by the Government of India every year to recognize exceptional achievements of children in various fields., innovation, scholastic achievements, social service, arts & and culture, sports, and bravery. Padma awards Eligibility: A child who is an Indian Citizen residing in India and is between 5-18 years of age. Decoration: A medal, a cash prize of Rs. 1,00,000, book vouchers worth Rs.10,000, a certificate and a citation. Bal Kalyan Puraskar It is given as recognition to Individuals and Institutions, who have made an outstanding contribution towards service for children in the field of child development, child protection, and child welfare. Eligibility: An individual who is an Indian Citizen residing in India and should have attained the age of 18 years or above (as of 31st August of the respective year). S/he should have worked for the cause of children for not less than 7 years. MUST READ: Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar-2023 SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards: (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: India – Saudi Arabia Relations   Context: Recently, India and Saudi Arabia have cooperated in various sectors such as energy, trade, and culture. About India – Saudi Arabia Relations: Political relations: The establishment of diplomatic relations in 1947 was followed by high-level visits from both sides. The historic visit of King Abdullah to India in 2006 was a watershed moment that resulted in the signing of the ‘Delhi Declaration’, imparting a fresh momentum to the bilateral relationship. Saudi Arabia and India signed the Riyadh Declaration to enhance the strategic partnership covering security, economic, defense, technology and political areas and joint combat of terrorism. Economic Cooperation, Trade and Investment: India is the second largest trade partner of Saudi Arabia, while Saudi Arabia is the fourth largest trade partner of India. Saudi Arabia is currently India’s second-largest supplier of crude oil (Iraq has been India’s top supplier). India imports around 18% of its crude oil requirement and around 22% of its Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) requirement from Saudi Arabia. India’s imports from Saudi Arabia reached USD 34.01 billion and exports to Saudi Arabia were worth USD 8.76 billion. Defense and security cooperation: AL – Mohed AL – Hindi is the maiden bilateral naval exercise between India and Saudi Arabia. Riyadh has largely shown an understanding of India’s terrorism-related concerns, and has agreed to work with India in countering the global menace. Cultural Relations India successfully participated as ‘Guest of Honour’ in the 32nd edition of the prestigious Saudi National Festival of Heritage and Culture in 2018. Yoga was announced as a ‘sports activity’ in Saudi Arabia. Haj pilgrimage is another important component of bilateral relations. Indian Diaspora: The approximately 7 million strong Indian community is the largest expatriate community in the Kingdom. They send remittances of over US $11 billion annually to India. Challenges: The politics of the Middle East is complex and multidimensional so requires a collective and united effort. The Saudi Arabia-Turkey rivalry could create problems for India. Saudi Arabia-Iran Rivalry: India has close relations with both Saudi Arabia and Iran. However, India is yet to work out a way to balance its ties with Iran on the one hand and Saudi Arabia and the United States on the other. Hike in taxes: An astronomical hike in the ‘expatriate dependent fee’ or family tax, in Saudi Arabia is forcing thousands of Indians working in the kingdom to send their families back home. The Kafala system: The Kafala system requires all migrant workers to have a sponsor in the country where he or she is to work in order that a valid visa and residence permit may be issued. This practically places the migrant worker at the mercy of his or her employer, leading to his/her exploitation. Way Forward: Economic Reform: Economic reform programs (Vision 2030) are underway in Saudi Arabia, for which it needs India’s economic as well as technological assistance. Saudi Arabia plays an important role in India’s energy security while India is a vital partner in Saudi Arabia’s food security. Investments: Saudi investment of around $100 billion is in the pipeline in areas ranging from energy, refining, petrochemicals and infrastructure to agriculture, minerals and mining. It is one of the largest consumers of hydrocarbons in the world and this makes India an attractive investment destination for the world. Countering Militias: Saudi Arabia appears to have limited experience in countering threats from groups like Houthi militias. This is an area where India’s expertise in fighting such threats could be imparted to the Saudi side, by enhancing joint military training programs. Source:  The Hindu Role and functions of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)   Context: Recently the CVC has reconstituted the advisory board on Banking and Financial Frauds (ABBFF) that conducts the first level examination of bank frauds before recommendations or references are made to investigative by agencies such as Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). About Central Vigilance Commission (CVC): CVC are conceived to be the apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilant work. The Parliament enacted Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 conferring statutory status on the CVC. Organization: The CVC has its own Secretariat, the Chief Technical Examiners’ Wing (CTE), and a wing of Commissioners for Departmental Inquiries (CDI). Appointment: The chairperson and the members are appointed by the President on the recommendations of a Committee consisting of the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Minister of Home Affairs, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha. Term: The term of office of the chairperson and the members is four years from the date on which they enter their office or till they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Salary and Allowances: The salary, allowances, and other service conditions of the Chief Vigilance Commissioner are similar to those of the Chairman of UPSC, and that of the Vigilance Commissioner are similar to those of the members of UPSC. Composition: CVC is a Multi-member Commission consisting of a Central Vigilance Commissioner (Chairperson) and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners (Members). Removal: The President can remove the chairperson or any other member from the office under the following circumstances: If the member is adjudged as insolvent. If the Central government holds him responsible for an offense involving moral turpitude or he is convicted for such an offense. engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office. If he is declared unfit by reason of infirmity of mind or body, by the President. The President can also remove the chairperson or any other member for proved misbehaviour or incapacity. In such cases, the President has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry. After the enquiry, if the Supreme Court upholds the cause of removal and advises so, then the President can remove him. Powers of Civil Court: It has all the powers of a Civil Court while conducting any inquiry. Its proceedings have judicial character. It can ask for information or report from authorities to exercise its mandate relating to vigilance and anti-corruption work. Advisory nature: After inquiry, it advises the Central Government or its authorities for further courses of action. Where the Central Government or any of its authorities does not agree with the advice of the CVC, it shall communicate the reasons to the CVC. Investigations: For investigation work, CVC has to depend on two external sources CBI and Chief Vigilance Officers (CVO). It submits its report to the President of India. Role of CVC as a vigilant organization: Vigilant against corruption: One critical role is the creation of credible deterrence against corruption by promptly enforcing anti-corruption laws and regulations, including the Prevention of Corruption Act, of 1988. The CVC referred the 2G Spectrum Scam case to the CBI for inquiry and oversaw its advancement. Preventive measures: Preventive vigilance works on the “principle of Catch them before they hatch”. Implementing effective preventive measures to minimize the scope of corruption, thereby reducing opportunities for corrupt practices. Supervision of administration : The organization supervises the functioning of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) and exercises superintendence over the vigilance administration of various central government ministries, departments, and organizations. This oversight helps maintain integrity and accountability within government bodies. Public awareness and ethical conduct: Raising public awareness is essential to inculcate ethical values and reduce society’s tolerance toward corruption. This aspect of the role focuses on educating and mobilizing the public against corrupt practices, fostering a culture of honesty and accountability. Limitations of CVC: Very low conviction rate and delay in the investigation: This has reduced the impact of CVC and its effectiveness. There is huge delay in the cases that CVC handles, hence it does not act as an effective deterrent. Recommendatory body: CVC is often considered a powerless agency as it is treated as an advisory body only with no power to register criminal case against government officials or direct CBI to initiate inquiries against any officer of the level of Joint Secretary and above. The Decisions of the CVC are not binding on the organizations or ministries. Although CVC is “relatively independent” in its functioning, it neither has the resources nor the power to act on complaints of corruption. Organizational jurisdiction: In most cases, the domains and the jurisdiction of the organizations is not clear. CVC cannot initiate suo moto inquiries but can only act on complaints received from the public or referrals from other authorities. Way Forward: In the recent past, India has emerged as a progressive and vibrant economy with huge investments were made in country’s infrastructure; construction, retail and many other sectors in the government. This rapid growth in economy throws up CVCs’ challenges in the fight against the menace of corruption. Therefore, there is a need to strengthen the CVC’s powers, autonomy and resources to enable it to perform its role more efficiently and effectively. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Disease Pathogen 1.Common cold Rhino Virus 2.Measles Rubeola virus 3.Smallpox Variola virus How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The e-Courts Mission is undertaken by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. Statement-II: It is being implemented in association with the e-Committee Supreme Court of India and the Department of Justice. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Malaria, consider the following statements: It is mostly found in tropical countries. It is not preventable and curable. The infection is contagious. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Briefly explain the India-Saudi Arabia bilateral relations along with recent developments. (250 words) Q.2) Critically analyse the role and mandate of Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) in addressing corruption in the country. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  14th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 13th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here