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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 8th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Gram Manchitra application Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, the Panchayati Raj Ministry Launched the  “Gram Manchitra” App. Background:- This information regarding the “Gram Manchitra” App was given by the Union Minister of State for Panchayati Raj, Shri Kapil Moreshwar Patil in a written reply in Lok Sabha. About Gram Manchitra application:- Launched: October 2019. Ministry: Ministry of Panchayati Raj Objectives: to encourage Spatial Planning by the Gram Panchayat. Salient Features:- The Geographic Information System (GIS) application “Gram Manchitra” (https://grammanchitra.gov.in) facilitates and supports Gram Panchayats to perform planning at the Gram Panchayat level using geospatial technology. A geographic information system (GIS) is an online system that analyses and displays geographically referenced information. It uses data that is attached to a unique location. Gram Manchitra provides a single/ unified Geo-Spatial platform to better visualize the various developmental works to be taken up across the different sectors and provide a decision support system for the Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP). Complementing “Gram Manchitra,” the Ministry has introduced “mActionSoft,” a mobile-based solution designed to capture photos with Geo-Tags, incorporating GPS coordinates. ( Bharat Net Project) This feature facilitates the geo-tagging of assets at three crucial stages: before the commencement of work, during the work, and upon completion. The resulting repository of information encompasses various sectors such as natural resource management, water harvesting, sanitation, agriculture, check dams, and irrigation channels. The assets geo-tagged using the “mActionSoft” application seamlessly integrate with “Gram Manchitra,” offering an enhanced visualization of developmental works in Gram Panchayats. This integration ensures transparency and accessibility of information related to assets created under finance commission funds. This application is also linked with the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) report and Mission Antyodaya. All this information is available in a single window, which will assist the Gram Panchayat user in better visualization of works during planning. Real-time monitoring of activities or development work implementation status and progress of execution of various schemes can be easily tracked. Benefits:- Gram Manchitra provides several planning tools that use GIS technology to help Gram Panchayat officials develop realistic and achievable development plans. These tools provide a decision support system in the preparation of development plans viz. tools for identifying potential sites for development projects, asset tracking, estimating the costs of projects, and assessing the impact of projects. It will help Gram Panchayat officials develop realistic and achievable development plans. MUST READ: E-PANCHAYAT FACILITY SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks in India, consider the following statements: (2020) They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. They can issue equity shares and preference shares. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, of 1949 through an Amendment in 1996 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Electoral bonds Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Political funding through anonymous electoral bonds shot up by over 400% during the recent Assembly elections in Telangana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Mizoram, as compared to the last polls in these states in 2018. Background:- The latest sales (29th tranche) under the electoral bond scheme saw the highest sales in Telangana’s capital of Hyderabad (Rs 359 crore), followed by Mumbai (Rs 259.30 crore), and Delhi (Rs 182.75 crore). About Electoral bonds:- IMAGE SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS An Electoral Bond is like a promissory note that may be purchased by a person who is a citizen of India or incorporated or established in India. A person being an individual can buy Electoral Bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals. The bonds are like banknotes that are payable to the bearer on demand and are interest-free. Historical Background:- The electoral bonds system was introduced in 2017 by way of a Finance bill. It was implemented in 2018. Salient Features:- Electoral Bonds serve as a means for individuals and entities to make donations to registered political parties while maintaining donor anonymity. State Bank of India (SBI) issues the bonds in denominations of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh, and Rs 1 crore. It is payable to the bearer on demand and interest-free. It is purchased by Indian citizens or entities established in India. It can be bought individually or jointly with other individuals. It is valid for 15 calendar days from the date of issue. The State Bank of India (SBI) is the authorized issuer. Electoral Bonds are issued through designated SBI branches. Electoral Bonds can be purchased digitally or through cheques. Encashment only through an authorized bank account of the political party. Political Parties must disclose their bank account with the Election Commission of India (ECI). Eligibility:- Only the Political Parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 and which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last General Election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State, shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds. Advantages of Electoral Bonds:- Ensures Accountability: Donations through Electoral Bonds will only be credited to the party bank account disclosed with the ECI. Discourage Cash: The Purchase will be possible only through a limited number of notified banks and that too through cheque and digital payments. More Transparency: It helps the political parties to operate in a more transparent manner with the election commission, regulatory authorities and the general public at large. Maintains Anonymity: The individuals, groups of individuals, NGOs, religious and other trusts are permitted to donate via electoral bonds without disclosing their details. Therefore, the identity of the donor is being preserved. Disadvantages of Electoral Bonds:- Hindering Right to Know: Voters will not know which individual, company, or organisation has funded which party, and to what extent. Before the introduction of electoral bonds, political parties had to disclose details of all their donors, who have donated more than Rs 20,000. The change infringes the citizen’s ‘Right to Know’ and makes the political class even more unaccountable. Unauthorized Donations: In a situation where the contribution received through electoral bonds is not reported, it cannot be ascertained whether the political party has taken any donation in violation of provision under Section 29B of the RPA, 1951 which prohibits the political parties from taking donations from government companies and foreign sources. Leads to Crony-Capitalism: It could become a convenient channel for businesses to round-trip their cash parked in tax havens to political parties for a favour or advantage granted in return for something. Anonymous funding might lead to an infusion of black money. MUST READ: Supreme Court Ruling on Electoral Bonds SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider · the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day : (2023) Statement-I : Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26 November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India· set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. UNFCCC COP 28 Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: The Adaptation Fund head expressed worries about not receiving adequate funds at UNFCCC COP 28. Background of the issue:- The Adaptation Fund, the global body that finances projects for vulnerable communities in developing countries to adapt to climate change. It was established under the Kyoto Protocol of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change. It finances projects and programmes that help vulnerable communities in developing countries adapt to climate change. It has only received around half of the funds at the ongoing COP28 compared to what it minimally requires. In March, the Adaptation Fund Board has calculated that at least $300 million is required and expected that fund to be raised at COP28. But so far, only around $165 million has been promised. Earlier, during informal consultations, developing countries expressed disappointment that the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’s Standing Committee on Finance had failed to arrive at a baseline for the doubling of adaptation finance. About COP28:- Date: November 30 to December 12, 2023. Venue: Dubai. COP, the Conference of Parties, is the supreme decision-making body of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Its primary role is to review and guide the implementation of the Convention, making it a crucial platform for discussing global climate policies. The ‘parties’ are the governments around the world that have signed the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). The UNFCCC entered into force on 21st March 1994 and has been ratified by 197 countries. It is the parent treaty of the 2015 Paris Agreement. It is also the parent treaty of the 1997 Kyoto Protocol. Every year, the COP is hosted by a different nation. The office of the COP President normally rotates among the five United Nations regional groups which are – Africa, Asia, Latin America and the Caribbean, Central and Eastern Europe and Western Europe and Others. The first such COP meeting – ‘COP1’ took place in Germany in 1995. (27th COP of UNFCCC) COP28 represents the 28th iteration of this global summit. COP28 is expected to focus on aggressive measures to combat climate change, with particular attention on the transition to sustainable energy production and the reduction of reliance on fossil fuels. Key Issues at COP28:- The Global Divide in Climate Responsibility: There remains a stark division between historically responsible developed countries and developing nations, who feel they are being asked to bear an unfair burden of climate action. 5 Degree Celsius Target. (Climate Change) Addressing the Resource and Trust Deficit: The gap between the required resources for climate action and their availability exemplifies a deeper trust deficit between developed and developing nations. Paris Agreement and the Kyoto Protocol. Principles of ‘Common but Differentiated Responsibilities’: Both the Kyoto Protocol and the Paris Agreement recognize the principle of ‘Common but Differentiated Responsibilities’, albeit in different capacities. Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM): an emerging concept designed to adjust the carbon content of imports to match domestic prices, thereby preventing carbon leakage and encouraging cleaner production methods. Delivery of $100 Billion: Developed countries pledged to mobilize $100 billion annually in climate finance from 2020, a commitment that remains unfulfilled. Progress: Developed nations are expected to claim fulfilment of this promise at COP28, though it remains inadequate compared to the trillions required for climate action. Issue: The greater challenge lies in negotiating additional funding beyond the $100 billion annually, commencing next year. MUST READ: COP 27: A field guide to climate jargon SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (2020) Automobile exhaust Tobacco smoke Woodburning Using varnished wooden furniture Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements : (2015) If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Goods and Services Tax Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The Goods and Services Tax (GST) has yielded almost ₹3.4 lakh crore through October and November. Background:- While revenues in October marked the second-highest monthly collections, November’s kitty is the third-highest. About Goods and Services Tax:- Launched:2017. Goods and Services Tax is an indirect tax used in India on the supply of goods and services. It is a value-added tax levied on most goods and services sold for domestic consumption. It was launched as a comprehensive indirect tax for the entire country. It is of three types:- CGST: levied by the Centre SGST: levied by the States and IGST: levied on all Inter-State supplies of goods and/or services. GST Council:- The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 (122nd Amendment Bill), paved the way for the implementation of GST. (GST Appellate Tribunal) The GST Council is a joint forum of the Centre and the states under Article 279-A of the constitution. Article 279-A. gives the President the authority to appoint a GST Council by executive order. The members of the Council include the Union Finance Minister (chairperson), and the Union Minister of State (Finance) from various states. As per Article 279, it is meant to “make recommendations to the Union and the states on important issues related to GST, like the goods and services that may be subjected or exempted from GST, model GST Laws”. It also decides on various rate slabs of GST. Benefits of GST:- Automated tax ecosystem: It helped the country in transitioning to an automated indirect tax ecosystem. Better Compliance: GST helped in achieving better tax compliance by subsuming multiple taxation and reducing in taxation burden in the last four years. E-invoice and More Revenue: The E-invoicing system helped reduce fake invoicing. The use of technology with online bill generation has resulted in smoother consignment movement and much fewer disputes with officials. Logistical efficiency and production cost cut: Another major achievement of this regime is the fact that over 50% of logistics effort and time is saved since GST has ensured the removal of multiple checkpoints and permits at state border checkpoints. Lesser transaction costs: After the introduction of GST, there has been a significant reduction in transaction costs. Cooperative Federalism: The customs portals are linked with the GST portal for credit availing on imports constitution of the GST Council and ensuring Centre-State partnership in the decision-making process. Challenges of GST:- Refund delay issues. Lack of Dispute redressal mechanism: There is no statutory mechanism under the GST regime that could ensure uniformity in the rulings passed by the Authorities. Constant amendments: Over the last few years, the GST law has seen many amendments. During this time, all these revisions often confused the taxpayer and the tax administrators which created misunderstandings and misconceptions. Adaption and Technical Issues: Small and medium businesses are still grappling to adapt to the tech-enabled regime MUST READ: GST- Five years on SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, the Central Bank’s function as the “lender of last resort” usually refers to which of the following? (2021) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 3 only Q.2) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (2017) It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Deepfakes Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, the Government reviewed social network progress in curbing deepfakes. Background:- Union Minister Rajeev Chandrasekhar met social media platforms to review progress made by them in tackling misinformation and deepfakes and asserted that advisories will be issued in the next two days to ensure 100 per cent compliance by platforms. About Deepfakes:- The term deepfake originated in 2017, when an anonymous Reddit user called himself “Deepfakes.” The term deepfake refers to digital representations (video and images), which are produced by artificial intelligence to replace the person in the original video with someone else. It is a method for manipulating videos, images, and audio utilizing powerful computers and deep learning. It is used to generate fake news and commit financial fraud among other wrongdoings. The algorithms of deepfake are intelligent enough to make decisions on their own. Deepfake technology employs sophisticated deep learning algorithms, particularly Generative Adversarial Networks (GANs) and autoencoder models, to analyze and synthesize realistic human faces, voices, and gestures. By analyzing large datasets of images and videos, deepfake algorithms learn to mimic facial expressions, speech patterns, and other human characteristics, enabling the creation of convincing and deceptive digital content. Applications:- Entertainment Industry: Deepfake technology has found applications in the entertainment industry, enabling the creation of engaging visual effects, digital doubles, and realistic character animations in movies and video games. Social Media and Misinformation: The proliferation of deepfake content on social media platforms has amplified concerns about the spread of misinformation, as manipulated videos and audio recordings can deceive the public and influence public opinion. Cybersecurity Threats: Deepfakes pose significant cybersecurity threats, as malicious actors can utilize this technology for identity theft, impersonation, and fraud, jeopardizing the security and privacy of individuals and organizations. Political Manipulation and Disinformation: The potential use of deepfake technology for political manipulation and disinformation campaigns raises concerns about the integrity of democratic processes and public trust in political institutions. Challenges:- Deepfake technology has raised concerns due to its potential misuse, posing significant challenges to various aspects of society. It has gained widespread attention for its applications in fake news, hoaxes, celebrity pornography, and identity theft. India’s Current Stand on Deepfakes:- India lacks a comprehensive legal framework dedicated to regulating deepfakes. India relies on pre-existing laws, such as Sections 67 and 67A of the Information Technology Act (2000), which may be applicable to some aspects of deepfakes, including defamation and explicit material dissemination. Defamation Provision: Section 500 of the Indian Penal Code (1860) offers punishment for defamation, which can be applied in cases involving deepfakes. Personal Data Protection Bill (2022): Although this bill might provide some protection against the misuse of personal data, it doesn’t explicitly address the issue of deepfakes MUST READ: Deepfake technology & China SOURCE: PTI  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to street lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps? (2021) Sodium lamps produce light at 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps. As street lights, sodium lamps have a longer life span than LED lamps. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street lighting. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Garba Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi today expressed happiness on the inscription of the Garba of Gujarat on the Intangible Heritage List of UNESCO. Background:- The Prime Minister posted on X; “Garba is a celebration of life, unity and our deep-rooted traditions. Its inscription on the Intangible Heritage List showcases to the world the beauty of Indian culture. This honour inspires us to preserve and promote our heritage for future generations. Congrats on this global acknowledgement.” Garba, was included in the UNESCO list of Intangible Cultural Heritage. About Garba:- Garba is a traditional dance form from Gujarat. (Mohiniyattam) Garba is the 15th cultural item from India to be featured on the UNESCO list. It is a traditional dance form primarily performed during the Navratri festival to worship the Hindu goddess Durga. It celebrates fertility, honour womanhood, and pay respect to any of an array of mother goddesses. The term “Garba” comes from “Garbha” (womb) and “Deep” (lamp). The dance is performed around a central lamp or a representation of the Goddess, symbolizing life, death, and rebirth. The light (the Garba Deep) or a picture of the Goddess Durga is put in the centre of concentric rings, and the people dance around it, bending sideways with each step and making sweeping gestures with their arms, each movement concluding with a clap. Women wear a chaniya choli (a colourful, embroidered skirt set) and men don a kediyu and dhoti or pyjama, often embellished with mirrors and embroidery. Garba is often followed by Dandiya Raas, another dance form using sticks (dandiyas), especially after the Aarti (worship ritual). MUST READ: Kathakali dance SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Dance State Bharatnatyam Andhra Pradesh Kuchipudi Tamil Nadu Mohiniyattam Kerala How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The term deepfake originated in 2017. Statement-II : India has a comprehensive legal framework dedicated to regulating deepfakes. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Electoral bonds, consider the following statements: It is purchased by Indian citizens or entities established in India. It can be bought individually only. It is valid for 25 calendar days from the date of issue. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  7th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Chandrayaan-3 Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, ISRO brought back the Chandrayaan-3 propulsion module from the Moon to Earth’s orbit. About Chandrayaan-3:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA Chandrayaan-3 is the successor to the Chandrayaan-2 mission. Launch Vehicle: Mark-III (LVM3). Launched site: Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC), Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Composition: It consists of an indigenous Lander module (LM), a Propulsion module (PM), and a Rover. Lander: a spacecraft that descends towards and comes to rest on, the surface of an astronomical body. Propulsion module: a box-like structure, mounted with a large solar panel on one side and a large cylinder on top. Rover: a small vehicle that can move over rough ground, often used on the surface of other planets, sometimes controlled from the earth. The Lander and the Rover have scientific payloads to carry out experiments on the lunar surface. There will not be any orbiters like Chandrayaan 2 in it. Objectives of Chandrayaan-3 mission:- To demonstrate a Safe and Soft Landing on the Lunar Surface. To demonstrate Rover roving on the moon. To conduct in-situ scientific experiments. Lander payloads:- Chandra’s Surface Thermophysical Experiment (ChaSTE): to measure the thermal conductivity and temperature Instrument for Lunar Seismic Activity (ILSA): for measuring the seismicity around the landing site Langmuir Probe (LP): to estimate the plasma density and its variations. A passive Laser Retroreflector Array from NASA is accommodated for lunar laser ranging studies. Rover payloads:- Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer (APXS) and Laser Induced Breakdown Spectroscope (LIBS): for deriving the elemental composition near the landing site. Propulsion Module Payload:- Spectro-polarimetry of Habitable Planet Earth (SHAPE): Future discoveries of smaller planets in reflected light would allow us to probe into a variety of Exo-planets which would qualify for habitability or for the presence of life. About GSLV-Mk III:- Weighs: 641 tones. Capacity: GSLV can take 10,000-kg satellites to lower earth orbits. It is also known as the Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3). It is a three-stage vehicle. It has two solid motor strap-ons, a liquid propellant core stage, and a cryogenic stage. It is the heaviest and the shortest among India’s operational launch vehicles MUST READ: Gaganyaan SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) has recommended to the authorities that the Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary abutting the Bandipur Tiger Reserve be declared as a core critical tiger habitat. Background:- This followed a site visit by Assistant Inspector General of Forests, NTCA, Ms. Harini Venugopal. The visit followed a slew of issues raised by conservation activist Giridhar Kulkarni pertaining to Bandipur. About Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary:- Location: Mysuru district, Karnataka. Geographic Area: Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary encompasses 30.32 sq km. (Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS)) The northern part of Nugu WLS is occupied by the Nugu Reservoir. Nugu is a vulnerable area as far as human–elephant conflicts are concerned. In 1974, Nugu was declared a Wildlife Sanctuary. It was added to the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve in the year 2003-2004. The average amount of rainfall received in this area is Most of the vegetation in the forests is dry, deciduous, interspersed with patches of plantations. Flora: Anogeissus latifolia, Tectonia grandis, Terminalia tomentosa etc. Fauna: elephant, leopards, jungle cats, wild pig, spotted deer, sambar deer, barking deer, etc. MUST READ: Tungareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? (2020) Corbett Ranthambore Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Sunderbans Guillain-Barre syndrome Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent research found out that the risk of developing ‘extremely rare’ Guillain-Barre syndrome increases due to COVID-19. About Guillain-Barre syndrome:- Guillain-Barre (gee-YAH-buh-RAY) syndrome is a rare disorder in which the body’s immune system attacks your nerves. Weakness and tingling in your hands and feet are usually the first symptoms. These sensations can quickly spread, eventually paralyzing your whole body. In its most severe form Guillain-Barre syndrome is a medical emergency. Most people with the condition must be hospitalized to receive treatment. The exact cause of Guillain-Barre syndrome is unknown. But two-thirds of patients report symptoms of an infection in the six weeks preceding. These include COVID-19, respiratory or gastrointestinal infection or Zika virus. Symptoms:- A pins and needles sensation in your fingers, toes, ankles or wrists Weakness in your legs that spreads to your upper body Unsteady walking or inability to walk or climb stairs Difficulty with facial movements, including speaking, chewing or swallowing Double vision or inability to move the eyes Severe pain that may feel achy, shooting or cramp-like and may be worse at night Difficulty with bladder control or bowel function Rapid heart rate Low or high blood pressure Difficulty breathing Types:- Guillain-Barre syndrome has several forms. The main types are: Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy (AIDP): the most common form in North America and Europe. The most common sign of AIDP is muscle weakness that starts in the lower part of your body and spreads upward. Miller-Fisher syndrome (MFS): in which paralysis starts in the eyes. MFS is also associated with unsteady gait. MFS is less common in the U.S. but more common in Asia. Acute motor axonal neuropathy (AMAN) and acute motor-sensory axonal neuropathy (AMSAN):are less common in the U.S. But AMAN and AMSAN are more frequent in China, Japan and Mexico. Treatment:- There is no known cure for this syndrome. The most commonly used treatment is intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG), which is made from donated blood that contains healthy antibodies. MUST READ: iNCOVACC SOURCE: OPHTHALMOLOGY TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) Syllabus Prelims – SPACE/ IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: Recently, it was revealed that ISRO chose to land Chandrayaan in the moon’s south pole region for water molecules. Background:- The Chandrayaan-3 Project Director said India has a road map for its space programmes until 2047. About ISRO:- Establishment: 1969. Agency: Department of Space (DOS). HQ: Bengaluru, Karnataka. (Gaganyaan) Objective: to harness space technology for national development while pursuing space science research and planetary exploration. Historic Background:- ISRO was previously the Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR), set up by the Government of India in 1962, as envisioned by Dr. VikramA Sarabhai. ISRO was formed on August 15, 1969, and superseded INCOSPAR with an expanded role to harness space technology. Salient Features:- ISRO is the space agency under the Department of Space of the Government of India. The organization is involved in science, engineering and technology to harvest the benefits of outer space for India and mankind. ISRO is a major constituent of the Department of Space (DOS), Government of India. The department executes the Indian Space Programme primarily through various Centres or units within ISRO. Functions: Space Science & Exploration Satellites. Antrix Corporation Limited (ACL) is a Marketing arm of ISRO for the promotion and commercial exploitation of space products, technical consultancy services, and transfer of technologies developed by ISRO. ISRO Milestones:- The first Indian-made sounding rocket was the RH-75 (Rohini-75). The first Indian satellite, Aryabhata, was built by the ISRO. Development of the PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) for placing satellites into polar orbits and the GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) for placing satellites into geostationary orbits. ISRO also launched the first IRS (remote-sensing satellite) in 1988. ISRO launched its first lunar mission Chandrayaan I in 2008. In January 2014, ISRO used an indigenously built cryogenic engine for a GSLV-D5 launch of the GSAT-14 satellite making it one of the only six countries in the world to develop a cryogenic technology. It also launched the Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) or the Mangalyaan in 2014. India launched Chandrayaan-2, its second lunar exploration mission after Chandrayaan-1 on 22nd July 2019. India launched Chandrayaan-3 in 2023. MUST READ: ISRO’s hybrid propulsion system SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct? (2023) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times that received at the poles. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Patriot Air Defence Missile System Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: The U.S. is sent the Patriot surface-to-air missile system to Middle East recently. Background:- The Pentagon recently said that it will send additional Patriot air defense missile system battalions to the Middle East in response to recent attacks on U.S. troops in the region. About Patriot Air Defence Missile System:- The Patriot is a surface-to-air guided missile system. It was first deployed in the 1980s. It is named after the Patriot (Phased Array Tracking Radar to Intercept on Target) radar system used in it. The Patriot system replaced the Nike Hercules system and the MIM-23 Hawk system as the U.S. Army’s primary High to Medium Air Defense (HIMAD) system and medium tactical air defense system respectively. It was initially developed as a system to intercept high-flying aircraft, by U.S. aerospace and defense giant Raytheon Technologies Corp. it was modified in the 1980s to counter other threats such as ballistic missiles. The Patriot system’s radar has a range of over 150 km . It can track over 50 potential targets at the same time. Currently, Patriot batteries can defend against ballistic missiles, cruise missiles, drones, jets and “other threats”. It has been deployed in 18 countries, including the U.S. It is operational across NATO geography. It is one of the most widely operated and reliable and proven air missile defense systems out there,” and the theater ballistic missile defense capability. Limitation:- It doesn’t offer protection against low-flying small drones. A Patriot battery can need as many as 90 troops to operate and maintain it. MUST READ: S-400 missile defence system SOURCE: MSN PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (2018) An Israeli radar system India’s indigenous anti-missile programme An American anti-missile system A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea. Parkinson's disease Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, Researchers have developed a blood test to identify individuals at risk of developing Parkinson’s disease. About Parkinson’s disease:- Parkinson’s disease is a progressive disorder that affects the nervous system and the parts of the body controlled by the nerves. Symptoms start slowly. The risk of developing it increases with age. Symptoms:- uncontrollable shaking and tremors slowed movement (bradykinesia) balance difficulties and eventual problems standing up stiffness in limbs Speech changes Writing changes Loss of automatic movements Causes:- Genes (Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs)) Environmental triggers The presence of Lewy bodies. Clumps of specific substances within brain cells are microscopic markers of Parkinson’s disease. These are called Lewy bodies. Parkinson’s disease is often accompanied by these additional problems like:- Thinking difficulties Depression and emotional changes Swallowing problems. Chewing and eating problems. Sleep problems and sleep disorders People also may experience rapid eye movement sleep behaviour disorder, which involves acting out dreams. Medicines may improve your sleep. Bladder problems. Constipation. Treatments:- Although there is no cure for Parkinson’s disease, medicines, surgical treatment, and other therapies can often relieve some symptoms. Medicines: Medicines can help treat the symptoms of Parkinson’s by: Increasing the level of dopamine in the brain Having an effect on other brain chemicals, such as neurotransmitters, which transfer information between brain cells Helping control non-movement symptoms Therapy: the main therapy for Parkinson’s is levodopa. Nerve cells use levodopa to make dopamine to replenish the brain’s dwindling supply. Deep brain stimulation: For people with Parkinson’s disease who do not respond well to medications, the doctor may recommend deep brain stimulation.  MUST READ: Rare Diseases SOURCE: MEDICAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following : (2022) Bacteria Fungi Virus Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: DISEASE CAUSED BY Plague Yersinia pestis Pneumonia Streptococcus pneumoniae Tetanus Clostridium tetani How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Parkinson’s disease is a progressive disorder that affects the nervous system and the parts of the body controlled by the nerves. Statement-II : The risk of developing it increases with age. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to ISRO, consider the following statements: It launched Chandrayaan-2 in 2005. It launched Chandrayaan-3 in 2023. It launched the Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) or the Mangalyaan in 2012. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  6th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 5th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 5th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   IBA Junior World Boxing Championship 2023 Syllabus Prelims –SPORTS Context: Recently, India bagged 3 gold, 5 silver and 1 bronze medals in IBA Junior World Boxing Championship 2023. About IBA Junior World Boxing Championship 2023:- Date: 23 November – 4 December Venue: MIKA Sports Arena, Yerevan Akansha won gold in the 70 kg category, Pari clinched the gold medal in the 48 kg weight category. Nisha won gold in the 52 kg category. (Sports Code) In the 52 kg weight category, Vini won the silver medal. Srishti Sathe won a silver medal in the 63 kg weight category. In the boys’ category, Jatin won the silver medal in the 54 kg category. While Hardik Panwar in the 80 kg category, Ameesha Kereta in the 54 kg category and Prachi Tokas in the 80 kg weight category had to settle for silver medals only. MUST READ: Chess Olympiad SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Exchange rate Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: As per the recent exchange rate, the Indian rupee closed at 83 rupees and 36 paise against the US dollar. Background:- The dollar index, which indicates the US dollar’s strength against a basket of six other leading currencies, was up 0.15 per cent to trade at 103.42 in intra-day trade. About Exchange rate:- Exchange rate is a rate at which a currency of one country can be exchanged with the currency of another country. Under a fixed exchange rate system, devaluation and revaluation are official changes in the value of a country’s currency relative to other currencies. Devaluation is when the price of the currency is officially decreased in a fixed exchange rate system. Revaluation is when the price of the currency is increased within a fixed exchange rate system. Under a floating exchange rate system, market forces generate changes in the value of the currency, known as currency depreciation or appreciation. Currency appreciation refers to the increase in value of one currency relative to another in the forex markets. Currency depreciation is a fall in the value of a currency in a floating exchange rate system. (Rupee Depreciation) Effects of currency appreciation on India:- Export costs rise: If the Indian Rupee (INR) appreciates, foreigners will find Indian goods more expensive because they have to spend more for those goods in INR. That means that with the higher price, the number of Indian goods being exported will likely drop. This eventually leads to a reduction in gross domestic product (GDP). Cheaper imports: If Indian goods become more expensive on the foreign market; foreign goods, or imports, will become cheaper in India. Effects of currency depreciation:- Improves export competitiveness. May lead to pulling of foreign investment. A weaker currency may escalate imported oil and edible oil prices and lead to higher food inflation. MUST READ: Recent Trend of Current Account Deficit (CAD) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2021) The effect of the devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily Improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets Increase the foreign value of the domestic currency Improves the trade balance Which of the above statements is/are 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of the Indian rupee? (2019) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee-denominated Masala Bonds Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing Following an expansionary monetary policy Scattered Spiders Syllabus Prelims – SECURITY  Context: The FBI Issued Warning About Dangerous ‘Scattered Spiders’ Hackers recently. Background:- The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) has issued a warning to organizations about a hacking group called Scattered Spiders. About Scattered Spiders:- Scattered Spiders is a hacking group notorious for invading various organizations across the world. This hacker group is known by other aliases as well, including Starfraud, UNC3944, Scatter Swine, and Muddled Libra. (Cybercrime) The members are as young as 16 years old and primary English speakers. It is known for sophisticated hacking techniques, including phishing, push bombing, SIM swap attacks, and social engineering. It impersonates IT support and help desk personnel to deceive employees into disclosing credentials, OTPs, and gaining access to networks. It Utilizes remote access tunnelling tools for monitoring and managing systems. (India’s cyber infrastructure) It evades detection by using living off-the-land techniques and frequently changing tactics, making them difficult to trace. Previous attacks targeted prominent companies such as Riot Games, DoorDash, and MailChimp. It even drew attention from companies like Microsoft. The criminals “frequently join incident remediation and response calls and teleconferences, likely to identify how security teams are hunting them and proactively develop new avenues of intrusion in response to victim defenses. MUST READ: Cyber Attacks in India SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following pairs of Terms sometimes seen in news vs Context /Topic: (2018) Belle II experiment: Artificial Intelligence Blockchain technology: Digital/ Cryptocurrency CRISPR — Cas9: Particle Physics Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 India Meteorological Department (IMD) Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, the India Meteorological Department (IMD) has declared a red alert in five districts of south coastal Andhra Pradesh and north coastal Tamil Nadu as well as an enclave of Puducherry Background:- Chennai is witnessing showers more severe than those experienced in the 1970s-80s, according to state minister KN Nehru. About India Meteorological Department (IMD):- Established: 1875. Ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences. IMD Headquarters: New Delhi. It is the National Meteorological Service of the country. It is the principal government agency in all matters relating to meteorology and allied subjects. Objectives:- To take meteorological observations and provide current and forecast meteorological information for optimum operation of weather-sensitive activities like agriculture, irrigation, shipping, etc. To warn against severe weather phenomena tropical cyclones, duststorms, heavy rains and snow, cold and heat waves,, which cause the destruction of life and property. To conduct and promote research in meteorology and allied disciplines. To provide meteorological statistics required for agriculture, water resource management, industries, oil exploration and other nation-building activities. The IMD uses 4 colour codes:- Green (All is well): No advisory is issued. (Colour Coded Weather Warning) Yellow (Be Aware): Yellow indicates severely bad weather spanning several days. Orange/Amber (Be prepared): The orange alert is issued as a warning of extremely bad weather with the potential of disruption in commute with road and rail closures, and interruption of power supply. Red (Take Action): When extremely bad weather conditions are certainly going to disrupt travel and power and have significant risk to life, the red alert is issued.   MUST READ: The India Meteorological Department (IMD) may introduce new monsoon models SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following : (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Emmy Awards Syllabus Prelims –AWARDS Context: Recently, Ektaa Kapoor was honoured with the International Emmy Directorate Award. Background:- She became the First Indian Woman Producer to receive the International Emmy Directorate Award. Additionally, Vir Das, along with Derry Girls season 3, was honoured with the International Emmy for Comedy. About Emmy Awards:- The Emmy Awards are a set of prestigious honours specifically for television and emerging media. The Emmy Awards, initially conceptualized in 1948, made their debut on January 25, 1949. The different sectors within television:- Primetime Emmy Awards: Administered by the Television Academy, these honour American TV shows aired during primetime. International Emmy Awards: Recognize excellence in international television programs outside the United States. Daytime Emmy Awards: Awarded to American shows aired during late-morning and afternoon time slots. Sports, News, and Documentary Emmy Awards: Overseen by the National Academy of Television Arts & Sciences, these categories focus on excellence in sports, news, and documentary programming. Technology and Engineering Emmy Awards: Recognize achievements in technological advancements within the television industry. Regional Emmy Awards: Celebrate excellence in regional television markets, including local news, state-to-state programming, and locally produced shows. These awards are presented by three distinct organizations:- The Television Academy administers the Primetime Emmy Awards.( Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA)) The National Academy of Television Arts & Sciences oversees daytime, sports, news, and documentary categories. The International Academy of Television Arts & Sciences is responsible for the International Emmys. MUST READ: Golden Globes Award SOURCE: THE MINT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards: Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? (2021) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000: American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award. The award has been received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far. Roger Federer received this award a maximum number of times compared to others. Which of the above statements is correct? (2021) 1 and 2 only and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 India Internet Governance Forum 2023 Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, the India Internet Governance Forum 2023 took place. About India Internet Governance Forum 2023:- Date: 05, December,2023. Venue: New Delhi .( India Internet Governance Forum (IIGF)) The forum is a multi-stakeholder platform bringing together representatives from various groups to discuss public policy issues related to the Internet. Theme: Moving Forward – Calibrating Bharat’s Digital Agenda. The event is an effort to discuss issues such as building a secure, trusted and resilient cyberspace for Bharat, Enabling Innovation for India’s Developmental Goals, Bridging Divides and Calibrating Bharat’s Digital Agenda. The India Internet Governance Forum is an initiative associated with the UN Internet Governance Forum. The session will be graced by the presence of Shri Rajeev Chandrasekhar, Minister of State for Electronics & Information Technology and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship. A special address will be delivered by Shri S Krishnan, Secretary, Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY), and the welcome address is slated to be given by Shri Sushil Pal, Joint Secretary, MeitY. The India Internet Governance Forum is aligned with the UN Internet Governance Forum (UN IGF). It was established in 2021. The Indian chapter, IIGF, is supported by a 14-member multi-stakeholder committee representing government, civil society, industries, the technical community, think tanks, and industry associations Significance:- It serves as a crucial platform for fostering a common understanding of maximizing internet opportunities while addressing associated risks and challenges.  MUST READ: Digital India Programme SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/      set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as the ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of its from 25th May 2018? (2019) Australia Canada The European Union The United States of America   Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: AWARD ESTABLISHED IN Bharat Ratna 1979 Saraswati Samman 1991 Jnanpith award 1961 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The Emmy Awards, initially conceptualized in 1948, made their debut on January 25, 1959. Statement-II : The International Academy of Television Arts & Sciences is responsible for the International Emmys. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the, consider the following statements: It was established in 1875. It is under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. Its Headquarters are in Mumbai. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  5th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 4th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 5th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 4th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Farlowichnus rapidus Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Scientists Discovered A New Dinosaur Species, Farlowichnus rapidus From Footprints In Brazil. Background:- The new species, called Farlowichnus rapidus, was a small carnivorous animal about the size of a modern-day seriema bird, or about 60-90 cm tall. About Farlowichnus rapidus:- Farlowichnus rapidus, was a small carnivorous It lived in the desert. It was a carnivore, so only ate meat It was 60-90 cm (2-3 feet) tall. It was about the size of a modern-day bird.( Kerala Bird Atlas (KBA)) From the large distance between the footprints found, it is possible to deduce that it was a very fast reptile that ran across the ancient dunes. The early Cretaceous period stretched from 100 to 145 million years ago. Significance:- The discovery not only enhances our understanding of ancient desert ecosystems. It also underscores the importance of continuous exploration and analysis of fossil records. MUST READ: Saltwater crocodile SOURCE: BBC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Cosmic Vine Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, James Webb Space Telescope recently discovered the ‘Cosmic Vine’ of 20 connected galaxies in the early universe. Background:- Astronomers using James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) data have discovered a massive chain of at least 20 closely packed galaxies from the early universe, and it could reveal insight into how the most massive structures in the cosmos form. About Cosmic Vine:- Cosmic Vine is a massive “vine-like structure” that encompasses 20 galaxies and stretches for over 13 light years. Galaxies are immense systems in space containing stars, stellar remnants, interstellar gas, dust, and dark matter, all held together by gravity. It’s also very ancient. The researchers pegged it at redshift 3.44, meaning it’s situated in the early universe. A redshift of 3.44 would mean light from the Cosmic Vine has been travelling for between 11 and 12 billion years before reaching JWST. It harbours two of the most massive galaxies ever discovered at such a high redshift—Galaxy A and Galaxy E, both in a quiescent state, indicating a reduced rate of star formation. Unique Characteristics:- It is exceptionally lengthy and vast, surpassing the size of other known compact galaxy groups at similar redshifts. It contains two of the most massive galaxies ever discovered at such high redshifts (Galaxy A and Galaxy E), both in a quiescent state, implying reduced star formation rates. Significance:- It offers new perspectives on the formation and evolution of massive galaxies. ( International Space Station (ISS)) It suggests that massive quiescent galaxies can form within expanding large-scale structures, contrary to some earlier models. MUST READ: IN-SPACe SOURCE: SPACE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Earthquake Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, a powerful 7.6 7.6-magnitude earthquake Struck the Southern Philippines. Background:- More than 500 aftershocks were recorded, and the Philippines Institute of Volcanology and Seismology (Phivolcs) urged caution as people resumed normal activities. About Earthquake:- An earthquake is the shaking or trembling of the earth’s surface. It is caused by the seismic waves or earthquake waves that are generated due to a sudden movement (sudden release of energy) in the earth’s crust (shallow-focus earthquakes) or upper mantle (some shallow-focus and all intermediate and deep-focus earthquakes). A seismograph, or seismometer, is an instrument used to detect and record earthquakes. Hypocentre/Focus: The point where the energy is released. Epicentre: The point on the surface directly above the focus. (Anatolian Plate) Isoseismic line: A line connecting all points on the surface where the intensity is the same. Causes of Earthquakes:- Fault Zones Plate tectonics Volcanic activity Human-Induced Earthquakes MUST READ: Urban Flooding SOURCE: MSN PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                                    Turkey Amhara                                                   Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                            Spain Catalonia                                                    Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) consider the following statements: (2020) Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. Only some cyclones develop an eye. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C less than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only National Pension System (NPS) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, National Pension System (NPS) Investors Can Now Choose Multiple Fund Managers To Maximise Returns Background:- The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) has issued new guidelines allowing National Pension System (NPS) subscribers to select up to three fund managers for various asset classes. About NPS:- IMAGE SOURCE: NPS: National Pension Schemes Eligibility, Types, Calculator (paisabazaar.com) National Pension System (NPS) is a government-sponsored pension scheme. It was launched in 2004 for government employees. However, in 2009, it was opened to all sections. Implementation Agency: it is being implemented and regulated by PFRDA (Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority) – a statutory body established by the PFRDA Act, 2013. Eligibility:- Any Indian citizen (Both Resident and Non-Resident) between 18 and 60 years can join NPS. The only condition is that the person must comply with Know Your Customer (KYC) norms. However, OCI (Overseas Citizens of India) and PIO (Person of Indian Origin) cardholders and Hindu Undivided Family (HUFs) are not eligible for opening of NPS account. BENEFITS OF NPS:- NPS is a transparent and cost-effective system wherein the pension contributions are invested in the pension fund schemes and the employee will be able to know the value of the investment on a day-to-day basis. It is simple – All the subscriber has to do, is to open an account with his/her nodal office and get a Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN). It is portable – Each employee is identified by a unique number and has a separate PRAN which is portable i.e., will remain the same even if an employee gets transferred to any other office. It is regulated – NPS is regulated by Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority- External website that opens in a new window, with transparent investment norms & regular monitoring and performance review of fund managers by NPS Trust- External website that opens in a new window.  MUST READ: National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) SOURCE: TIMES NOW PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2017) Resident Indian citizens only Persons of age from 21 to 55 only All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April 2004 Booker Prize Syllabus Prelims –AWARDS Context: Recently, Paul Lynch who is an Irish author won the 2023 Booker Prize for his fifth novel ‘Prophet Song.’ Background:- After being honoured with the award, Lynch said, “It is with immense pleasure that I bring the Booker home to Ireland.” About Booker Prize:- It is one of the best-known literary awards for fiction writing in English, including both novels and collections of short stories. First awarded: 1969 It was founded in 1969 by Booker McConnell, a British conglomerate. It is Awarded annually for a single book, written in another language and translated into English. The £50,000 prize money is divided equally between the author and translator each year. To be eligible for the Booker Prize, a novel must be written in the English language and published in the United Kingdom or Ireland. The novel must be a work of fiction that has been published for the first time in the year of the award. The Booker Prize is awarded by a panel of five judges, who are all well-respected figures in the literary world. The judges read all of the eligible novels and then select a shortlist of six novels. The winner of the Booker Prize is announced at a ceremony in London in November of each year. Indian-origin writers have won the Booker in the past:- Arundhati Roy (‘The God of Small Things) Salman Rushdie (‘Midnight’s Children) Kiran Desai (‘The Inheritance of Loss’) Aravind Adiga (‘The White Tiger’) MUST READ: Golden Globes Award SOURCE: BBC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship: The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 International Day of Persons with Disabilities Syllabus Prelims – IMPORTANT DAYS Context: Recently, Background:- The Education Ministry is celebrating the International Day of Persons with Disabilities with a special quiz. About International Day of Persons with Disabilities:- Every year on 3rd December, International Day of Persons with Disabilities is observed. The annual observance of this day began in 1992 after it was proclaimed by the United Nations General Assembly resolution 47/3. In 2006, the Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (CRPD) was also adopted. It aims at working towards creating equality. Definition of disability in India: Until the 2011 census, the questionnaire to identify people with disabilities, included questions on seven kinds of disabilities. This list of disabilities was expanded to 21 when the Rights of People with Disabilities Act, 2016 was introduced. MUST READ: Draft National Policy on Persons with Disabilities (PwD) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Q.2) With reference to ‘The Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, Consider the following statements: (2015) It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills It is an alliance meant for maritime security only Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: MISSIONS YEAR Chandrayaan I 2008. Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) 2017 ASTROSAT 2001 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : International Day of Persons with Disabilities is observed every year on 3rd December. Statement-II : The annual observance of this day began in 1992. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Farlowichnus rapidus, consider the following statements: It was a small omnivorous animal. It lived in the desert. It was 60-90 cm (2-3 feet) tall. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  4th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 2nd December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 4th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Gurupurab Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, Gurupurab was celebrated at Nanakshahi Gurudwara in Dhaka. Background:- The 554th birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev was observed at the historic Nanakshahi Gurudwara in Dhaka. Gurudwara Nanakshahi is a historic Gurudwara in Dhaka. Guru Nanak Dev visited Dhaka in the year 1506-07. The gurdwara was built in 1830 to commemorate the visit of Guru Nanak. Guru Tegh Bahadur also stayed in Dhaka for over two years. The Nanakshahi gurudwara at Dhaka houses two important relics including the wooden sandal of Guru Tegh Bahadur and two handwritten copies of Guru Granth Sahib. About Gurupurab:- Guru Nanak Gurupurab is also called Guru Nanak Jayanti or Guru Nanak Prakash Utsav. The day celebrates the birth of the first guru of Sikhism, Guru Nanak. (Guru Nanak Jayanti) His teachings and life laid the foundation for Sikhism, a monotheistic religion based on the principles of equality, social justice, and devotion to God Guru Nanak was born in Puranmashi of Kattak according to the Bikrami calendar. He was born in Talwandi, now in Pakistan. He was born in 1469. However, the Bhai Bala Janamsakhi claims that Guru Nanak was born on the full moon of Karthi (a lunar month). For this reason, some of the Sikhs celebrate Guru Nanak Jayanti in November month. 2023 is the 554th birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev Ji. He was born on the fifteenth lunar day in the month of Kartik, per the Hindu calendar. It usually falls in October and November, as per the Gregorian calendar. MUST READ: Sikh Separatism SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora River. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal River. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari River. Hemochromatosis Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent studies show that High iron levels raise the possibility of hereditary hemochromatosis (HH). Background:- Hemochromatosis or ‘bronze diabetes’, the rare genetic disorder that causes organ dysfunction – its causes, signs, and treatment. About Hemochromatosis:- Hemochromatosis (he-moe-kroe-muh-TOE-sis) causes your body to absorb too much iron from the food you eat. Excess iron is stored in your organs, especially your liver, heart, and pancreas. Too much iron can lead to life-threatening conditions, such as liver disease, heart problems, and diabetes.  (Disease Surveillance System) Symptoms:- Joint pain. Abdominal pain. Fatigue. Weakness. Diabetes. Loss of sex drive. Impotence. Heart failure. Liver failure. Bronze or grey skin colour. Memory fog. Causes:- Hemochromatosis is most often caused by a change in a gene. This gene controls the amount of iron your body absorbs from food. The altered gene is passed from parents to children. This type of hemochromatosis is by far the most common type. It’s called hereditary hemochromatosis. Treatment:- Phlebotomy is the standard treatment for primary hemochromatosis. In this, iron toxicity is reduced by removing red blood cells, the body’s main mobilizer of iron. MUST READ: India’s Health Sector SOURCE: OREGON PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: (2021) Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Earthquake Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, an Earthquake of magnitude 5.6 hit Bangladesh. Background:- The quake occurred on Saturday morning at 09:05:31 IST and was reported at a depth of 55 km. About Earthquake:- An earthquake is the shaking or trembling of the earth’s surface. It is caused by the seismic waves or earthquake waves that are generated due to a sudden movement (sudden release of energy) in the earth’s crust (shallow-focus earthquakes) or upper mantle (some shallow-focus and all intermediate and deep-focus earthquakes). A seismograph, or seismometer, is an instrument used to detect and record earthquakes. Hypocentre/Focus: The point where the energy is released. Epicentre: The point on the surface directly above the focus. Isoseismic line: A line connecting all points on the surface where the intensity is the same. Causes of Earthquakes:- Fault Zones Plate tectonics Volcanic activity Human-Induced Earthquakes Types of Earthquakes:- Tectonic Earthquakes The Earth is made of four basic layers (generally three): a solid crust, a hot, nearly solid mantle, a liquid outer core and a solid inner core. Tectonic plates (Lithospheric plates) are constantly shifting as they drift around on the viscous, or slowly flowing, mantle layer below. When tectonic plates move, it also causes movements at the Thus, the slipping of land along the faultline along convergent, divergent and transform boundaries cause earthquakes. (Anatolian Plate) Volcanic Earthquake Earthquakes produced by stress changes in solid rock due to the injection or withdrawal of magma (molten rock) are called volcano earthquakes. (Volcano) Human Induced Earthquakes In areas of intense mining activity, sometimes the roofs of underground mines collapse causing minor tremors. These are called collapse earthquakes. Ground shaking may also occur due to the explosion of chemical or nuclear devices. Such tremors are called explosion earthquakes. MUST READ: Urban Flooding SOURCE: THE STATESMAN PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                                     Turkey Amhara                                                      Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                             Spain Catalonia                                                       Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) consider the following statements: (2020) Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. Only some cyclones develop an eye. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C lesser than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only Pancorius sebastiani Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY  Context: Recently, a new species of jumping spider ’ Pancorius sebastiani’ has been discovered. Background:- It has been discovered from the Western Ghats. About Pancorius sebastiani:- Naming: It has been named Pancorius sebastiani after the late spider taxonomist P.A. Distribution: southeast Asia. Its distribution was hitherto limited to the east and northeastern regions of India. (Blackbuck) The new species is the first to be reported from the south. The males and the females exhibit reddish brown carapace. They have yellowish abdomen with black patches and chevron-shaped markings posteromedially. It belongs to the jumping spider genus Pancorius Simon, and Salticidae family. Only two States, West Bengal and Tamil Nadu, have reported high numbers of Salticidae species, while the others including those harbouring biodiversity hotspots like the Western Ghats and northeastern India have relatively few numbers of species. MUST READ:  Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (2023) Fishing cat Orangutan Otter Sloth bear Q.2) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Hubble Space Telescope Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, Hubble Space Telescope has been put in safe mode, as NASA paused operations. Background:- Hubble automatically entered safe mode on November 23 when one of its three gyroscopes gave faulty readings. About Hubble Space Telescope:- Launched: April 24, 1990. Launched by: Discovery. Hubble Space Telescope is a large, space-based observatory by NASA/ESA. (NASA’s DART mission) It has been deployed since 1990. National Aeronautics and Space Administration(NASA): is an independent agency of the U.S. federal government responsible for the civil space program, aeronautics research, and space research. European Space Agency(ESA): is an independent space agency. The Hubble Space Telescope is the first astronomical observatory placed into orbit around Earth with the ability to record images in wavelengths of light spanning the ultraviolet to near-infrared. Hubble orbits roughly 340 miles (547 km) above Earth’s surface. Hubble is the first space-based observatory specifically designed for servicing while in orbit. Hubble was designed as a general-purpose observatory, meant to explore the universe in visible, ultraviolet, and infrared wavelengths. To date, the telescope has made more than 1.5 million observations, collecting data and providing views astronomers were unable to capture from the ground. MUST READ: India’s Space Economy SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change The gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in a straight line Speed of light is always the same Cyclone Michaung Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, cyclone Michaung was seen brewing over the Bay of Bengal. Background:- IMD issues ‘Yellow Alert’ as depression escalates. About Cyclone Michaung:- A cyclone is a pattern of winds (or air mass) that circulates a low-pressure system. It rotates counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. It is typically associated with wet and stormy weather. (Naming of Cyclone) Classification:- There are two types of cyclones: Tropical cyclones and Extra-tropical cyclones (also called Temperate cyclones) Tropical cyclone:- It is an intense circular storm that originates over warm tropical oceans. It is characterized by low atmospheric pressure, high winds, and heavy rain .(Colour Coded Weather Warning) These are formed over slightly warm ocean waters. The temperature of the top layer of the sea, up to a depth of about 60 meters, needs to be at least 28°C to support the formation of a cyclone. April-May and October-December periods are conducive for cyclones. Then, the low level of air above the waters needs to have an ‘anticlockwise’ rotation (in the northern hemisphere; clockwise in the southern hemisphere). During these periods, there was an ITCZ in the Bay of Bengal. Extratropical cyclones:- It occurs in temperate zones and high-latitude regions, though they are known to originate in the Polar Regions. These are active above the mid-latitudinal region between 35° and 65° latitude in both hemispheres. The direction of movement is from west to east and is more pronounced in the winter seasons. MUST READ: Bomb Cyclone SOURCE: NEWS18 PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Cyclone Type Nivar Tropical cyclone Hamoon Temperate cyclone Michaung Tropical cyclone How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Guru Nanak was born in Puranmashi of Kattak according to the Bikrami calendar. Statement-II : He was born in Talwandi, now in Pakistan. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Hemochromatosis, consider the following statements: Phlebotomy is the standard treatment. Hereditary hemochromatosis is the least common type. Memory fog is one of its symptoms. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  2nd December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 1st December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – b