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UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Morocco Syllabus                 Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: The Moroccan media reported damage in many parts of Morocco including the city of Marrakesh due to the recent Earthquake. Background:- At least 1,037 people have been killed and 672 people injured in the 6.8 earthquake. The epicenter was in the High Atlas Mountains, 71 kilometres (44 miles) southwest of Marrakesh. The quake was felt in Marrakesh, Rabat, Casablanca, and several other areas. Moroccan media reported that the 12th-century Koutoubia Mosque in Marrakech, one of the city’s most famed landmarks, suffered damage. Marrakech is the chief city of central Morocco. The ancient section of the city, known as the medina, was designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1985. About Morocco:- IMAGE SOURCE: WorldAtlas Location: Western North Africa. Boundary: Algeria to the east and southeast, Western Sahara to the south, the Atlantic Ocean to the west, and the Mediterranean Sea to the north. It is the only African country with coastal exposure to both the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea. Strait: It lies directly across the Strait of Gibraltar from Spain. National languages of Morocco: Arabic. Climate: Mediterranean climate, with mild wet winters and hot dry summers. Mountain Ranges: The Atlas Mountains dominate the central part of the country, while the Rif Mountains make up the northern edge. Jebel Toubkal is the highest point in Morocco at 13,664 ft (4,165 m) and is also the highest peak of the Atlas Mountains. Seismic Activity:- It lies along the boundary of the African and Eurasian tectonic plates. These two massive plates interact, and their movements can result in seismic activity. About Earthquake:- An earthquake is an intense shaking of the Earth’s surface. The shaking is caused by movements in Earth’s outermost layer. The Earth is made of four basic layers: a solid crust, a hot, nearly solid mantle, a liquid outer core, and a solid inner core. The solid crust and top, stiff layer of the mantle make up a region called the lithosphere. It’s actually made up of tectonic plates which are constantly shifting as they drift around on the viscous, or slowly flowing, mantle layer below. This non-stop movement causes stress on Earth’s crust. When the stresses get too large, it leads to cracks called When tectonic plates move, it also causes movements at the faults. An earthquake is the sudden movement of Earth’s crust at a fault line. Hypocentre/Focus: The point where the energy is released. Epicentre: The point on the surface directly above the focus. Isoseismic line: A line connecting all points on the surface where the intensity is the same. Causes of Earthquakes:- Fault Zones Plate tectonics Volcanic activity Human-Induced Earthquake Types of Earthquakes:- Tectonic Earthquakes: These are caused by the movement of the tectonic plates along the fault line.  (Anatolian Plate) Volcanic Earthquake: Earthquakes produced by stress changes in solid rock due to the injection or withdrawal of magma (molten rock) are called volcano earthquakes (Volcano) Human-Induced Earthquakes: In areas of intense mining activity, sometimes the roofs of underground mines collapse causing minor tremors. These are called collapse earthquakes. Ground shaking may also occur due to the explosion of chemical or nuclear devices. Such tremors are called explosion earthquakes. MUST READ: Earthquake in Indonesia SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin? (2023) Cameroon Nigeria South Sudan Uganda Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 First Global Symposium on Farmers' Rights Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: President Droupadi Murmu inaugurated the First Global Symposium on Farmers’ Rights in New Delhi recently. About First Global Symposium on Farmers’ Rights:- Venue: ICAR Convention Centre, National Agricultural Science Centre, New Delhi. Date: September 12 to 15, 2023. Historical Background: The proposal to hold the first GFSR was mooted by the Government of India at the Ninth Session of the Governing Body (GB9) of the International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (International Treaty) held in India in September 2022, which was agreed by the FAO. Organized by: Secretariat of the International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (International Treaty) of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), Rome. Hosted by: Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India, in collaboration with the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPVFR) Authority, Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), ICAR-Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI), and ICAR-National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR). Objective: to address critical issues related to farmers’ rights and their essential role in global food security and agriculture. Eminent scientists and resource persons will participate from 59 countries across the globe. They will deliberate on how to recognize and reward the enormous contribution that local and indigenous communities and farmers of all regions of the world have made to the conservation and development of plant genetic resources (PGR). Key Agendas:- Focus on Farmers’ Rights: The symposium places a strong emphasis on farmers’ rights as its central theme. Proposal for Future Work: Participants engage in discussions and deliberations aimed at formulating proposals for future work. Knowledge and Awareness: An essential outcome of the symposium is the promotion of knowledge and awareness regarding farmers’ rights among its participants. (Tenant Farmers in India) Sharing Best Practices: The symposium serves as a valuable platform for stakeholders to share best practices, experiences, and lessons learned related to farmers’ rights. (Organic Farming) The interconnectedness of Farmers’ Rights and Human Rights: Recognizing that farmers’ rights are intrinsic to human rights underscores their significance within the broader context of agriculture and farming. MUST READ: Doubling the Farmers’ Income SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? (2022) Farmers harvesting their crops Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics A commercial bank lending money to a trading company A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and Q.2) Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-term credit support is given to farmers for which of the following purposes? (2020) Working capital for maintenance of farm assets harvesters, Purchase of combine tractors and mini trucks requirements of farm Consumption households Post-harvest expenses Construction of family house and setting up of village cold storage facility Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 5 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2,3,4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Megalithic dolmen site Syllabus Prelims – ART AND CULTURE Context: Ancient terracotta figurines were found during archaeological explorations at the megalithic dolmen site near Moodbidri recently. Background:- Unique terracotta figurines in different states of preservation, with bone and iron pieces have been found in recent archaeological explorations conducted in the megalithic dolmen site at Mudu Konaje, near Moodbidri, in Dakshina Kannada. About Megalithic dolmen site:- Discovery site: Moodbidri in Dakshina Kannada(Karnataka) Duration: 800-700 B.C. Discovery: Of the eight figurines found, there are two cow bovines, one mother goddess, two peacocks, a horse, the hand of a mother goddess, and an unknown object. These figurines were found inside the surface of dolmens, although some had been disturbed by treasure hunters. Megalithic culture is known for its different types of burials and use of iron in India and Dolmen is one among them. Under a dolmen, huge stone slabs known as orthostats were erected in clockwise order, which created a square room that was closed by another huge stone slab as a capstone. Generally, on the Eastern slab, a round or U-shaped entrance known as a port-hole was created. It was known by different names in South India like Kalmane, Pandavara Mane, Moriyara Mane, Moriyara Betta, and so on. Cow bovines:- One of the two cow bovines is a solid handmade human body with a bull’s head and is about 9 cm in height and 5 cm in width. It has a clear snout of a bull and its femininity is well attested by two breasts attached by the applique method. The second cow bovine is another solid handmade figurine which is about 5 cm in height and 4 cm in width. It has a bovine snout and an archetype head gear and applique ornamentation around the neck and below the belly. The presence of cow bovines helps determine the chronology of the dolmens. Cow goddesses have parallels in other megalithic terracotta figurines found in places like Kerala and Egypt. Peacock and Horse Figurines:- One of the two peacocks is a solid peacock which is about 11 cm in height and 7 cm in width, dipped into red ochre and its feathers are down towards the earth. Another peacock has an elongated head created separately, which can be insertable into a shallow body that is missing, and the feathers are designed upwards. The figurines of peacocks and a horse suggest a connection to animals in their beliefs or possibly a representation of their natural surroundings. Mother goddess:- The torso of a mother goddess has no head, hands, or legs. Significance of the discovery:– These discoveries offer insights into the cultural and religious practices of the people of coastal Karnataka during the 800-700 B.C. timeframe. These terracotta figurines provide a solid foundation for studying the Bhoota cult or Daiva Aradhane in coastal Karnataka during ancient times. The presence of these figurines in a megalithic burial context adds to our understanding of the religious and cultural practices of the region. MUST READ: Language in Indus Valley Civilization SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were well-known (2023) capital cities ports centres of iron-and-steel making shrines of Jain Tirthankaras Q.2) Who among the following rulers of the Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across the Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city? (2023) Devaraya I Mallikatjuna Vira Vijaya Virupaksha Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The Union Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, chaired a National KCC Conference recently, to boost Kisan Credit Card (KCC) saturation among animal husbandry and dairy farmers. Background:- The government in 2018-19 extended the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) facility to fisheries and animal husbandry farmers to help them meet their working capital requirements. The Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying in association with the Department of Financial Services, has been organizing various campaigns since June 2020 to provide Kisan Credit Card facilities to all eligible Animal Husbandry and Fishery farmers. More than 50,000 animal husbandry farmers virtually attended through 1,000 common service centers across the country. About Kisan Credit Card (KCC):- Ministry: Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying. Historical Background:- The scheme was introduced in 1998 for providing adequate and timely credit support from the banking system, under a single window and simplified procedure to the farmers. The scheme was further extended for the investment credit requirement of farmers viz. allied and non-farm activities in the year 2004. In the Budget-2018-19, the government announced the extension of the facility of Kisan Credit Card (KCC) to fisheries and animal husbandry farmers to help them meet their working capital needs. Objectives:- To meet the short-term credit requirement for cultivation. To manage post-harvest expenses. To meet the consumption requirement of the farmer’s household. Implementing Agencies:- Commercial Banks Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) Small Finance Banks Cooperatives Salient Features of Kisan Credit Card:- The KCC offers a number of features, including an ATM-enabled RuPay Card, one-time documentation, built-in cost escalation in the limit, and any number of withdrawals within the limit. In 2004, the program’s eligibility was expanded to include farmers’ needs for investment credit for non-farm and related activities. (Procurement Reforms) KCC provides for post-harvest expenses, produce marketing loans, household consumption needs for farmers, etc. The repayment period is decided on the basis of the harvesting of the crop and its marketing period. The maximum limit for a short-term agriculture loan is up to 1 year and for a long-term loan is 5 years. Moreover, banks can extend the tenure/duration of the loan at their discretion. To ensure the availability of agricultural credit at a reasonable cost of 7% per annum to farmers. The government of India implements an interest subvention scheme of 2% for short-term crop loans up to Rs. 3 lakh. In addition, the GOI provides interest subvention of 2% and a prompt repayment incentive of 3% to the farmers. Farmers are charged a simple interest rate when they make prompt payments. Compound interest is charged when cardholders fail to make timely payments. Benefits:- The Interest rate offered on the loan may go as low as 2.00%. Banks will not seek security on loans up to Rs. 1.60 lakh. Crop insurance coverage against a variety of calamities is given to the users. Farmer is provided insurance coverage against permanent disability, death, and other risks is also provided to the farmer. MUST READ: Minimum Support Prices SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger( Guizotia aoyssinica) seeds. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in the news in the recent past for its very severe famine? (2023) Angola Costa Rica Ecuador Somalia African Swine Fever Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, the African swine fever reached the Far North. Background:- On Monday 11 September,2023 the Swedish Board of Agriculture decided that all domestic pigs in the infected zone should be killed. There are about 50 pigs spread over five farms. Sweden is the 24th country in Europe to report outbreaks of ASF within its borders. About African swine fever:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA First detected: Africa in the 1920s. ASF is a highly contagious and fatal animal disease. It infects domestic and wild pigs, typically resulting in an acute form of hemorrhagic fever. The mortality is close to 100 percent, and since the fever has no cure, the only way to stop it from spreading is by culling the animals. It is not a threat to human beings since it only spreads from animals to other animals. Historically, outbreaks have been reported in Africa and parts of Europe, South America, and the Caribbean. However, more recently (since 2007), the disease has been reported in multiple countries across Africa, Asia, and Europe, in both domestic and wild pigs. ASF is a disease listed in the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE) Terrestrial Animal Health Code and thus, reported to the OIE. There is currently no effective vaccine against ASF. The virus is highly resistant to the environment, meaning that it can survive on clothes, boots, wheels, and other materials. It can also survive in various pork products, such as ham, sausages, or bacon. MUST READ: Swine Flu: Awareness and Cure SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2017) In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by ‘the same mosquito that transmits dengue. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) The H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases? (2015) AIDS Bird flu Dengue Swine flu World Trade Organisation (WTO) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT ORGANIZATIONS Context: Recently, the World Trade Organisation (WTO) disputes between the US and India were resolved through Mutually Agreed Solutions. Background:- With the decision to resolve six outstanding World Trade Organisation (WTO) disputes between the US and India through Mutually Agreed Solutions in June 2023, India has withdrawn additional duties on eight US-origin products, including apples, walnuts and almonds vide notification number 53/2023 (Custom). Additional duties of 20% each on apples and walnuts and Rs 20 per kg on Almonds were imposed on the US’s products in 2019 over and above the Most Favoured Nation (MFN) duty as a retaliation to the US’s state protectionist measure of increasing tariffs on certain steel and Aluminium products. These additional duties imposed by India on US-origin products have been withdrawn as the US agreed to provide market access to Steel and Aluminium products under the exclusion process. There is no reduction on the Most Favoured Nation (MFN) duty on apples, walnuts, and almonds, which still applies to all imported products, including US-origin products, at 50%, 100%, and Rs 100 per kg, respectively. Further, DGFT, vide its notification number 05/ 2023 dated 8 May 2023, made an amendment in import policy for Apples under ITC (HS) 08081000 by applying MIP (Minimum Import Price) of Rs 50 per Kg for imports from all countries except Bhutan. Therefore, this MIP will also apply to apples from the US and other countries (excluding Bhutan). This measure would protect against the dumping of low-quality apples and from any predatory pricing in the Indian market. About WTO:- Established: 1995. HQ: Geneva, Switzerland. Members: 164 members. India is a member of WTO. (China’s Developing Status at WTO) The WTO operates the global system of trade rules. It helps developing countries build their trade capacity. It also provides a forum for its members to negotiate trade agreements and resolve the trade problems they face with each other. Historical Background:- It was established following the Marrakesh Agreement which was ratified on April 15, 1994. The General Agreement on Tariff and Trade was substituted by the Marrakesh Agreement. The GATT was only a set of rules and multilateral agreements and lacked institutional structure. The GATT 1947 was terminated and WTO preserved its provisions in the form of GATT 1994 and continues to govern trade in goods. It is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations. Functions of WTO:- Establishing and Enforcing Rules for International Trade Negotiating trade rules Overseeing WTO agreements Maintaining open trade Settling disputes Collaboration Between International Economic Institutions Safeguarding The Trading Interest of Developing Countries MUST READ: Pact SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the International economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of: (2015) ASEAN BRICS OECD WTO Mains: MSMEs can Drive India’s Digital Push Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises’ (MSME) adoption of digital technologies is critical for their competitiveness. Status of MSME sector in India: Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) was introduced by the Government of India in agreement with the MSMED (Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises Development) Act of 2006. are small-sized business enterprises defined in terms of their investment. They are also accountable for one-third of India’s manufacturing output. It contributes about 11% of GDP from manufacturing and 24.63% of GDP from service activities. According to 2018-19 Annual Report of Department of MSMEs, there are 6.34 crore MSMEs in the country. Around 51 per cent of these are situated in rural India. 5 per cent of all MSMEs fall in the micro category. These MSMEs employ more than 11 crore people. They account for approximately 45% of India’s total exports. India’s global digital share: On the pace and scale of digital transformations, India has stolen a march over advanced economies, both domestically and in terms of exports. An UNCTAD 2018 report indicated that India had exported $89 billion in 2016-17 in the digitally delivered services segment. The OECD found that India’s share of global estimated digital trade exports grew by roughly 400 percent — from 1 percent in 1995 to nearly 4 percent in 2018. Types of MSME: Significance of MSMEs: Contribution to GDP and exports: In 2020-21, MSMEs accounted for 26.8% of Gross Value Added (GVA). The contribution of MSMEs in exports stood at 42.6%. The contribution of Manufacturing MSME Gross Value Added (GVA) contributed 38.4% of India’s total Manufacturing GVA (2020–21). The Ministry of MSME has set a goal of increasing its contribution to GDP to 50% by 2025. Growth drivers for rural development: In contrast to large corporations, MSMEs have aided in the industrialization of rural areas at a low capital cost. The sector has made significant contributions to the rural socioeconomic growth while also supplementing major industries. Creation of Employment: MSMEs are India’s largest employer outside of agriculture employing over 11.1 crore people, or 45% of all workers. Simple structure and operational ability: Given India’s middle-class economy, MSMEs offers the flexibility of starting with limited resources under the owner’s control. As a result, making decisions becomes easier and more efficient. Promotion of Innovation and Research: They support local resource mobilisation, capacity building, industrial development in rural areas, and give aspiring entrepreneurs a chance to develop innovative products. It has enormous potential for connecting India’s MSME base with large corporations. Multinational corporations are increasingly purchasing semi-finished and auxiliary products from small businesses. Challenges associated with the sector: Mounting NPAs if MSMEs: According to the RBI, bad loans of MSMEs now account for 9.6 per cent of gross advances of Rs 17.33 lakh crore as against 8.2 per cent in 2020. The MSME sector was among the most pandemic afflicted sectors. Thousands of MSMEs either shut down or became sick after the government announced a nationwide strict lockdown. Non-availability/Delays of Funds: Mounting losses and debts, non-availability of proper financial help and delays from the government, reluctance from the banks for the funding, etc. MSMEs in India typically rely on NBFCs for their financing needs, which in itself has been enduring a liquidity crunch since September 2018. Lack of Infrastructure and Technology: Poor quality of power with unscheduled cuts, no substations, no proper roads, no effective storm water drainage, inadequate sewage treatment plants and transport facilities. Most of India’s MSME sector is based on outdated technology, which hampers its production efficiency. Lack of Formalization: Almost 86% of the manufacturing MSMEs operating in the country are unregistered. Out of the 6.3 crore MSMEs, only about 1.1 crores are registered with the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime and the number of income tax filers are even less. Issues with Manpower and Scale: There is a huge shortage of labour and also identifying candidates through skill development initiatives is a challenge. The majority of the firms in MSMEs are micro-enterprises and scaling them up is a problem, especially when fund access is challenging. Hampered productivity: These issues hamper the productivity of small firms which is already very low relative to larger firms, which deters employment generation and dynamism in Indian manufacturing. Govt. Indicatives to boost the sector: Stand Up India: The scheme provides financial assistance to scheduled caste (SC), scheduled tribe (ST) and women entrepreneurs for setting up new enterprises. Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries (SFURTI): The scheme supports the establishment of collective manufacturing enterprises of artisans, to increase their production, making them produce value-added products, and enhancing the marketability of products. Public Procurement Policy for Micro and Small Enterprises: Ministry of MSME mandates 25% annual procurement from MSEs by Central Ministries/ Departments/ Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) including 4% from MSEs owned by SC/ST and 3% from MSEs owned by Women entrepreneurs. Procurement and Marketing Support (PMS) Scheme: The scheme promotes new market access initiatives and enhances the marketability of products and services in the MSME sector. International Cooperation Scheme: The Scheme provides financial assistance to Industry Associations to participate in International exhibitions abroad, to organize International conferences in India and to capacity build ‘First Time MSE Exporters’ on a reimbursement basis. Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) scheme Source: The Hindu India’s of Food Security Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: Despite being the fastest growing large economy, India is facing the alarming issue of food-price inflation as it can be seen on the affordability of a healthy diet for a significant portion of the population. Highlights of alarming findings: The ‘State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World’ of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) estimates the proportion of the population across countries unable to afford a healthy diet. An estimated 74% of the population cannot afford a healthy diet. Implied Reduction in Purchasing Power: It would be reasonable to expect that food consumption has been impacted. Food prices in India have been steadily increasing since 2019, with annual inflation exceeding 11% in July 2023, the highest in a decade. Rise in the Prevalence of Anaemia: As per latest National Family Health Survey (undertaken over 2019-21), over 50% of adult women were estimated to be anaemic. Ineffective Macroeconomic policies: It is criticised that the effectiveness of macroeconomic policies, particularly the Reserve Bank of India’s approach to controlling inflation through measures like inflation targeting are ineffective in addressing food inflation, which is largely driven by supply-side factors. Significance of Food security: Promotes health and nutrition: Food security improves the health and well-being of individuals by preventing malnutrition and its associated health problems, such as stunting, cognitive impairment, and disease susceptibility. Malnutrition is responsible for the death of 3.1 million children a year, which is nearly half of all deaths in children under the age of 5. Economic and social stability: Food security enhances the economic and social stability of individuals and nations by enabling them to be more productive, generate income, and participate in trade. A study by the World Bank estimated that the global cost of undernutrition in terms of lost productivity and human capital was USD 3.5 trillion per year. A report by the United Nations found that food insecurity was a key factor in 58% of the conflicts that occurred between 2017 and 2019. Reduced poverty and hunger: Food security contributes to poverty reduction by allowing people to afford and access nutritious food and invest in other essential needs, such as education and healthcare. These can help them escape the cycle of poverty. National Security: Food security strengthens national security by ensuring a reliable food supply that is not dependent on external factors, such as global food prices or supply chain disruptions. Food insecurity can make nations vulnerable to these factors and compromise their sovereignty. Towards sustainable development: Food security advances sustainable development by achieving one of its main goals (Goal 2: Zero Hunger) and supporting other related goals, such as poverty reduction, good health, gender equality, and environmental sustainability. Learning from the green revolution: India has a rich history of the Green Revolution, which took place in the 1960s. The government launched a supply-side strategy by equipping farmers with high-yielding seeds, affordable credit, and guaranteed prices through procurement. This endeavour achieved remarkable success. Within a short span, India no longer relied on food imports. It facilitated India’s aspiration for self-sufficiency. However, there were some mistakes at the level of strategy. There was excessive use of chemical fertilizers that led to soil degradation. There was also an overemphasis on procurement prices rather than boosting productivity to enhance farm incomes. It contributes to inflation. The policy predominantly concentrated on cereals rather than pulses, a primary source of protein for most Indians. Causes of Food insecurity: Russia-Ukraine War: Russia-Ukraine war has disrupted the Global supply chain following trade-related policies imposed by countries have surged. The global food crisis has been partially made worse by the growing number of food trade restrictions put in place by countries with a goal of increasing domestic supply and reducing prices. Domestic Inflation: Domestic food Inflation in many countries have added fuel to the fire and further aggravated the problem of food insecurity in the world. For Example, India has imposed a ban on wheat and rice exports to support its domestic population. Climate Variability and Extremes: Climate change has affected the availability and quality of water, land, and biodiversity, which are essential for food production. It has also altered the patterns and intensity of pests, diseases, and natural disasters, which has reduced crop yields and livestock productivity. According to the Global Report on Food Crises, weather and climate extremes were the primary driver of acute food insecurity in 12 countries in 2021, affecting nearly 57 million people. Economic Slowdowns and Downturns: They have reduced the income and employment opportunities of poor and marginalized people, who have spent a large share of their income on food. Economic shocks have also affected the supply and demand of food, leading to higher food prices and lower food quality. Way Forward: Suggestive measures Increased agriculture Expenditure: Review and optimize public spending on irrigation for efficiency. Research Institute Revival: India’s network of public agricultural research institutes needs to be energized to resume the sterling role they had played in the 1960s. Revival of the role of the gram sevak in the village, playing a crucial role in the dissemination of best practices. Increase of protein based crop production: Various initiatives should be dovetailed into a programme for the manifold increase of protein production. Develop a spirit of cooperative federalism: States are asked to play their part to enhance agricultural productivity rather than relying on food allocations to their Public Distribution System from the central pool. Focus on permanent access: In order to ensure that all Indians have permanent access to a healthy diet, no approach consistent with ecological security must be off the table. Intervention on the supply side: It is necessary to intervene on the supply side to ensure that food is produced at a steady price by raising the yield on land. Lowering of food prices: Need to focus on the specific goal of lowering the cost of producing food. Multidimensional approach: Need to extend irrigation to 100% of the net sown area, an end to restrictions on leasing of land, a quickening of agricultural research and the re-institution of extension. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: International organizations HQ 1.IMF Washington, D.C, USA 2.WHO Paris, France 3.UN New York, USA How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Morocco is located in Northwest Asia. Statement-II: It lies along the boundary of the African and Eurasian tectonic plates. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the WTO consider the following statements: WTO is not a UN specialized agency. The headquarters of the World Trade Organization is located in Melbourne. India is not a member of WTO. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Food security is a pressing global issue, with millions of people around the world facing hunger and malnutrition. In this context, discuss the role that India could play in addressing the global food security challenge. (250 words) Q.2) The MSME sector is a key driver of economic growth in India, but faces a significant credit gap. What are the challenges associated with lending to MSMEs, and how can innovative financial instruments be developed to cater to their unique needs? Discuss (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  13th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 12th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Phanigiri artifacts Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: The Phanigiri artifacts, belonging to 200 BCE-400 CE were put on display at the New York Metropolitan Museum of Art. Background:- The Phanigiri artifacts would be displayed in the art collection of the Tree and Serpent exhibition, which began at the New York Metropolitan Museum of Art (popularly known as The Met) in July 2023. The exhibition has 125 objects between 200 BCE and 400 CE. The exhibition at The Met is on till November 13, 2023. About the Phanigiri artifacts:- Discovered: 1942. Rediscovered: 2003. Location: Phanigiri, Phanigiri in Suryapet district is a small village of about 4,000 residents, about 150 km from Hyderabad. The Phanigiri Buddhist site is considered one of the most important finds in Buddhist iconography in this millennium. (Buddhist monastery complex at Bharatpur of Bengal) Phanigiri means the hillock of snake hood. Key Findings and their Significance:- The thoranas discovered at Phanigiri are very important as they are among the first found south of Sanchi. The same thorana has a panel that shows both the Mahayana and Hinayana school of thought. This shows that despite philosophical differences, both sects co-existed in Phanigiri. There is evidence from Phanigiri that shows the deification of Buddha. (The Buddhist Circuit) The change from a historical and spiritual identity and a transition to canonization and ritual is evident in Phanigiri. The artifacts from this site, include a limestone carving of Buddha wearing what appears to be a Roman toga. MUST READ: Buddhist caves, temples in Madhya Pradesh’s Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located? (2023) Andhra Gandhara Kalinga Magadha Q.2) With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements: (2023) The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin. The stupa was generally a repository of relics. The stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is working with lenders to introduce new features to popularise the central bank digital currency (CBDC), in recent times. About Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC):- CBDC is fiat money or money established/backed by a government through its central bank in a virtual form. It is a legal tender issued by a central bank in a digital form. It combines the power of blockchain with the logistics of distributed ledger technology (DLT), where data can be synchronized across multiple locations without the need for centralized storage. Salient Features:- CBDC is a high-security digital instrument. It is a means of payment, a unit of account, and a store of value. Just like paper currency, each unit is uniquely identifiable to prevent counterfeiting. It is a liability of the central bank just as physical currency is. It’s a digital bearer instrument that can be stored, transferred, and transmitted by all kinds of digital payment systems and services. Advantages:- CBDC is a faster system. Financial inclusion Improve Monetary policy facilitation. It can become a regional currency for cross-border transactions. MUST READ: Rupee SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: (2023) It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or the SWIFT system. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to: (2023) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms. an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market. Marine pollution Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Small island nations seek for protection from Marine /ocean pollution, and climate change in the United Nations recently. Background:- Small island nations that have been disproportionately harmed by the climate crisis will go up against high-emitting nations A landmark climate justice case started its hearing in the United Nations maritime tribunal in Hamburg, Germany, on September 11, 2023. About Marine pollution:- Marine pollution can be defined as the contamination of marine water, mainly big seas and oceans with pollutants and contaminants like industrial effluents, oil spills from huge vessels, chemical displacements, chemical spills, sewage, etc. Causes:- Sewage: Sewage or polluting substances flow through sewage, rivers, or drainages directly into the ocean. Industries: Industrial waste which is directly discharged into the oceans, results in ocean pollution. The runoff from industries raises the temperature of the ocean and causes thermal pollution due to which aquatic animals and plants have difficulty surviving at higher temperatures. Land Runoff: Land-based sources (such as agricultural run-off, discharge of nutrients and pesticides, and untreated sewage including plastics) account for approximately 80% of marine pollution. Oil Spills: Crude oil lasts for years in the sea and is extremely toxic to marine life, it suffocates the marine animals to death. Ocean Mining: Ocean mining sites drilling for silver, gold, copper, cobalt, and zinc create sulfide deposits up to three and a half thousand meters down into the ocean. Harmful Effects of Marine Pollution:- Reduction of oxygen level in the water: Most of the waste dumped in oceans uses up oxygen to decompose thereby decreasing the oxygen level in the water. Affects the oceanic food chain: Agricultural & and industrial waste enters the seawater and affects organisms. Upset the coral reef cycle. Oil spills that cover the surface of seawater do not allow sunlight to reach oceanic plants Prevention of Marine Pollution:- Puttin a stop using plastic-made material. Cleaning the sea beaches. The usage of organic farming techniques instead of using chemical pesticides and fertilizers by farmers.  Global Initiatives:- The Global Programme of Action (GPA) for the Protection of the Marine Environment from Land-based Activities: It is the only global intergovernmental mechanism directly addressing the connectivity between terrestrial, freshwater, coastal, and marine ecosystems. (Conserving Marine Resources) MARPOL convention (1973): It covers pollution of the marine environment by ships from operational or accidental causes. The London Convention (1972): It promotes the effective control of all sources of marine pollution and takes all practicable steps to prevent pollution of the sea by dumping wastes and other matter. MUST READ: Global Treaty on Pollution SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture Systems, consider the following statements : (2023) Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate. Biofilters increase phosphorus as a nutrient for fish in water. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) “R2 Code of Practices” constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2021) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) recently, reached 2.4 lakh Gram Panchayats to create awareness and promote compliance with Indian standards. Background:- The initiative aims to enhance the overall quality and safety of government programs and schemes implemented at the village level. About the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS):- Establishment: 1986. Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. HQ: New Delhi. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) was established under the BIS Act, 1986 for the harmonious development of the activities of standardization, marking, and quality certification of goods and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Objectives: harmonious development of the activities of standardization, marking, and quality certification of goods and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. BIS is the National Standard Body of India. Historical Background:- It was formerly the Indian Standards Institution (ISI), set up under the Resolution of the Department of Industries and Supplies in 1946. The ISI was registered under the Societies Registration Act, of 1860. A new Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016 which was notified on 22nd March 2016, has been brought into force with effect from 12 October 2017. It reinforces the activities of BIS with respect to standardization and certification of goods, articles, processes, systems, and services. Composition:- President, Ex-officio: Hon’ble Minister for Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India. Vice President, Ex-officio: Hon’ble Minister of State for Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India. Functions:- BIS is involved in various activities as given below:- Standards Formulation Product Certification Scheme Compulsory Registration Scheme Foreign Manufacturers Certification Scheme Hall Marking Scheme Laboratory Services Laboratory Recognition Scheme Sale of Indian Standards Consumer Affairs Activities Promotional Activities Training Services, National and international level Information Services MUST READ: Bureau of Indian Standards(BIS) and Hallmark SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2017) The Standard Mark of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Ban on Indica white rice exports by India Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: As per recent reports of the FAO (Food and Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations), global rice prices hit a 15-year high after a ban on Indica white rice exports by India. About the ban on Indica white rice exports by India:- The Indian government has prohibited the export of white rice and levied a 20% export duty on par-boiled rice till October 15, 2023. India has implemented these restrictions on non-basmati white rice exports to ensure sufficient availability in the domestic market at reasonable prices. The export ban is also intended to:- Support the ethanol-blending program Reduce costly oil imports Benefit the animal husbandry and poultry sectors by lowering animal feed costs. India is the second-largest producer of rice in the world, after China. India has become the largest rice exporter globally, accounting for nearly 40% of global rice exports in 2022/23. Non-basmati white rice constitutes approximately 25% of the total rice exported from the country. Impact of the ban:- IMF predicts a potential rise of 10-15% this year in international rice prices. Countries in Asia and Sub-Saharan Africa, which heavily rely on India as a major supplier of rice, may face vulnerability due to potential disruptions in the rice market.  Rice production estimate in the country:- As per the latest Advanced Estimate from the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, rice production during the Rabi season of 2022-2023 witnessed a decrease of 13.8%. Kharif sowing data, indicates that rice has been cultivated on 384.05 lakh hectares up to August 25 this year, in contrast to the 367.83 lakh hectares during the same period last year. However, in certain states like Tamil Nadu, some farmers anticipate delayed planting due to insufficient rainfall from the southwest monsoon. MUST READ: Basmati Rice SOURCE: NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger( Guizotia aoyssinica) seeds. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in the news in the recent past for its very severe famine? (2023) Angola Costa Rica Ecuador Somalia Achanakmar Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the officials in  Achanakmar Tiger Reserve have been trying to recover big cat numbers. Background:- A recent NTCA report found Chhattisgarh had only 17 tigers compared to 46 in 2014. Tracking teams inside Achanakmar Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh are undertaking a grueling task — keeping tabs on a tigress released in April 2023 to augment the reserve’s falling population of the big cat. About Achanakmar Tiger Reserve:- Location: Bilaspur, Chhattisgarh. (Indravati Tiger Reserve) Area: approximately 553.286 sq. Km. It is a part of the huge Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve. Mountain Ranges: Maikal mountain range Water bodies: Maniyari River. Historical Timeline:- Wildlife Sanctuary: In 1975, Achanakmar Wildlife Sanctuary was established, under the provisions of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Biosphere Reserve: In 2005, the Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve was created by the Government of India. Tiger Reserve Status: It was declared a tiger reserve in 2009. UNESCO Biosphere Reserve: Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve was recognized by UNESCO in 2012 for its biological diversity and cultural significance. Significance:- It has a corridor connecting Kanha and Bandhavgarh Tiger reserves and plays a critical role in the dispersal of tigers among these reserves. Vegetation: Tropical deciduous forest. Flora: Sal, bija, saja, haldu, teak, tinsa, dhawara, lendia, khamar ,bamboo etc. Fauna: Wild fauna includes the tiger, leopard, bison, flying squirrel, Indian giant squirrel, chinkara, wild dog, hyena, sambar, etc. MUST READ: Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following ‘fauna: (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: (2023) They build nests by making burrows in the ground. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mains: Bihar government’s caste-based survey Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently in its reply to the Supreme Court on the Bihar government’s caste-based survey, the Union government recently said only the Centre is entitled to conduct a census. About Caste Census: The Socio-Economic and Caste Census 2011 (SECC) was conducted for the 2011 Census of India. The SECC 2011 was conducted in all states and union territories of India. SECC 2011 was the first paperless census in India conducted on hand-held electronic devices by the government in 640 districts. SECC 2011 was the first caste-based census since the 1931 Census of India. SECC 2011 was not conducted under the 1948 Census of India Act, which made information disclosure voluntary for citizens, and not a mandatory disclosure. Caste Census is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs: Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India. About Census in India: Census in India was started in 1872 under British Viceroy Lord Mayo, However, the first complete census was taken in 1881 under Lord Ripon. Since 1881, the Census has been undertaken every 10 years. It is conducted by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India under the Ministry of Home Affairs. All the censuses since 1951 were conducted under the 1948 Census of India Act. Significance of Caste Census: Steps towards equality: It would help to point out those castes that are not represented in the institutions of this country so that steps towards equality can be established. It would justify the extension of reservations to various communities. Usage of last census data: last caste census was in 1931 and the government still uses this as a basis to estimate demography and different caste groups. There have been significant changes in the demography of this country. Data unavailability: The Rohini Commission too, faced difficulties due to the unavailability of data on various communities classified under OBCs. The Commission was set up to examine the issue of sub-categorisation of OBCs. Effective service delivery: A fresh estimate of the population is necessary to ensure more effective delivery of targeted welfare. State actions on caste data collection: Karnataka, Odisha and Telangana had carried out similar counts in the name of “socio-economic surveys”. Popular demand: Along with Bihar, other states like Jharkhand and Odisha are also reiterating their support for the caste census. Criticisms associated with it: Way for caste divisions: The 21st century India should be discussing ‘let’s do away with caste’ rather than further divide India on those lines. It may “rekindle divisive feelings among people. A colonial practice: Every Census until 1931 had data on caste. So it was a colonial practice of divide and rule which drove them toward collecting such data. Every Census in independent India from 1951 to 2011 has published data on Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, but not on other castes. Demand for reservations: Reservations that were implemented for 10 years have continued for 75 years and a caste-based census may lead to a demand for more. Constitutional Mandate: Unlike in the case of the SCs and the STs, there is no constitutional mandate for the Registrar-General and Census Commissioner of India, to provide the census figures of the OBCs and the BCCs. Feasibility of the count: Union government contended that such an exercise was not feasible given that there are too many castes and sub-castes in each state and Union territory making it difficult to classify them. People use their clan/gotra, sub-caste and caste names interchangeably. The government has cited numerous administrative, operational and logistical reasons. Census data enumerators are part-timers with 6-7 days of training and are “not an investigator or verifier” There is a fear that such counting could endanger the census exercise itself. Political agenda: At a deeper level there are politics involved in the matter. Bihar’s politics has been dominated by the Other Backward Castes (OBCs), the numerically powerful social group. Way Forward: The need for a caste census can be seen in the vast income disparity in the country. For instance the 2020 Oxfam report states that the top 10% of India’s population owns 74.3 % of the total wealth; the middle 40% owns 22.9%;  and the bottom 50% owns a shocking 2.8 %. This indicates unequal distribution of wealth demands a greater understanding of Indian society. The SECC will help to move to the principle of ‘program-specific indicators for program-specific entitlements’. Recognizing many dimensions of poverty and tackling them with different programs, in multiple fields like health, education, sanitation, and mid-day meal can be universal; others like affordable housing and disability can be targeted. Source:    Indian Express Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The CAG has criticised the Arunachal Pradesh government for “several deficiencies” while implementing the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) yojana in the northeastern State. About Comptroller and Auditor General(CAG): The Constitution of India provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). He/she is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department and is the guardian of the public purse at the Centre and the States. He shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. It is his/her duty to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration. The Constitution of India, under Article 148, provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). He is one of the bulwarks of India’s democratic system of government. Powers and functions of CAG:   Expenditure Audits: CAG audits the accounts related to all expenditures from the Consolidated Fund, Contingency Fund and the Public Account of India, each state and union territory having a Legislative Assembly. Special Audits: It also audits receipts, stock accounts and others, with the approval of the President or when required by the President. Government Transactions: It audits all transactions of the Central and state governments related to debt, sinking funds, deposits, advances, suspense accounts and remittance business. Financial Oversight: CAG audits the receipts and expenditures of the following: All bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Central or state revenues; Government companies; and other corporations and bodies when so required by related laws. Authority Audits: It audits the accounts of any other authority if requested by the President or Governor, for example – the audit of local bodies. Accounting Guidance: It advises the President about the prescription of the form to keep the accounts of the Centre and the states. Parliament’s Agent: It is an agent of the Parliament and conducts an audit of expenditure. Significance The CAG plays a vital role in ensuring transparency, accountability and good governance in India. The CAG’s reports provide valuable insights into the financial performance, compliance, efficiency and effectiveness of various government programs and activities. The CAG’s reports also highlight the gaps, weaknesses and irregularities in the public financial management system and suggest corrective measures for improvement. The CAG’s reports serve as a basis for parliamentary oversight and public debate on various issues related to public finance. Challenges faced by CAG: Limited scope of audit: There are many public-private partnerships, autonomous bodies, trusts, societies, etc. that are involved in delivering public services or utilizing public resources, but are outside the purview of the CAG. Lack of follow-up action: There is no mechanism to ensure that the audited entities take corrective action on the audit observations and recommendations. Lack of timely submission of audit reports due to various reasons, such as non-cooperation from the audited entities, procedural hurdles, political interference, etc. This affects the timeliness and relevance of the audit findings and recommendations. Secret service expenditure is outside the purview of the CAG and he cannot call for particulars of expenditure incurred by the executive agencies. But has to accept a certificate from the competent administrative authority that the expenditure has been so incurred. Way Forward: Despite the severest limitations, the CAG still creditably survives in the defence of accountability, a knight in shining armour amidst the overwhelming rot. The office is a unique combination of knowledge, integrity, commitment and fearlessness. Some of the notable examples are the 2G spectrum scam, the coal block allocation scam, the Commonwealth Games scam etc. The CAG audit reports enable the Parliament to hold the executive accountable in financial administration. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Tiger Reserve Location 1.Sariska Tiger Reserve Madhya Pradesh 2.Kali Tiger Reserve Kerala 3.Pakke Tiger Reserve Arunachal Pradesh How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Marine pollution can be prevented by avoiding the use of microplastics. Statement-II: Ocean mining is a source of marine pollution. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC), consider the following statements: It is a faster system. It aids financial inclusion It can Improve Monetary policy facilitation. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What is the significance of Caste census. Critically analyse how it will lead to equitable growth and welfare of marginalised sections in the country. (250 words) Q.2) Discuss the powers and functions of CAG (Comptroller and Auditor General) as an anti-corruption body. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  12th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 11th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 12th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) G20 New Delhi Declaration Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: The Group of Twenty (G20) recently adopted the G20 New Delhi Leader’s Declaration. Background:- The New Delhi Leader’s Declaration was adopted on September 9, 2023. The Countries committed to, accelerating their actions to address environmental crises and challenges, including climate change. About G20 New Delhi Leader’s Declaration:- The New Delhi Leader’s Declaration was adopted with consensus on a number of issues. These include sustainable development goals (SDG), climate finance, energy transitions, using and restoring natural ecosystems, harnessing and preserving ocean-based economy, plastic pollution, reducing disaster risk, and building resilient infrastructure. (SDG India) In the declaration under the Green Development Pact for a Sustainable Future, the countries have committed to “urgently accelerate actions to address environmental crises and challenges, including climate change”. Paris Agreement: One of the aims of the declaration is “to tackle climate change by strengthening the full and effective implementation of the Paris Agreement and its temperature goal. This reflects equity and the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities (CBDR). The inclusion of the principles of CBDR is interesting as some developed G20 countries such as the United States have been averse to the usage. The G20 members also cited the findings of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) Sixth Assessment Synthesis Report. It stated that Global greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions are projected to peak between 2020 and at the latest before 2025 in global modeled pathways that limit warming to 1.5°C with no or limited overshoot and in those that limit warming to 2°C and assume immediate action. (Mitigating Climate Change) The G20 members also highlighted the macroeconomic risks stemming from climate change and transition pathways. The G20 countries also noted the institutionalization of the Disaster Risk Reduction Working Group under the presidency of India, which catalyzed efforts toward disaster risk reduction. The document also talks about accelerating progress on early warning and early action through strengthening national and local capacities, innovative financing tools, private sector investments, and knowledge sharing. The members supported the United Nations initiatives such as the Global Platform for DRR and the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure in “furtherance of such collaboration and sharing”. MUST READ: India and G20 Presidency SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the International economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of: (2015) ASEAN BRICS OECD WTO Golden egg Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, a Golden egg was found on the Alaskan seafloor. Background:- Researchers from NOAA Ocean Exploration found the yellowish object while diving on a small seamount in the Gulf of Alaska. Initially referred to as ‘yellow hat’, the still-unidentified object is now being dubbed as ‘golden egg’ or ‘golden orb’. About Golden Egg:- Discovered on: 30 August 2023. Discovery site: Gulf of Alaska. Discovered by: National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA). It was discovered during a mission to map unexplored deepwater habitats off Alaska using remotely operated vehicles. Features:- The ‘golden egg’ is a gold, dome-shaped It is about 10 centimeters (4 inches) in diameter. It was tightly adhered to a rock. A small hole or tear near its base revealed a similarly colored interior. It is still unclear whether the ‘golden egg’ is associated with a new species or represents the unknown life stage of an existing one. Significance: Researchers believe that the new species have the potential to reveal new sources for medical therapies and vaccines, food, energy, and other societal benefits and knowledge. The researchers are still working to unveil the ‘golden egg’ mystery. MUST READ: Dinosaur eggs SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following ‘fauna: (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to (2017) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs an early human species a cave system found in North-East India a geological period in the history of the Indian subcontinent HII-A rocket Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Japan launched the HII-A rocket recently. About HII-A rocket:- Launching site: Tanegashima Space Center in southwestern Japan. Launched by: Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA). Objective: to explore the origins of the universe. Composition:- The rocket put a satellite called X-Ray Imaging and Spectroscopy Mission, or XRISM, into orbit around Earth. It will measure the speed and makeup of what lies between galaxies. This information will help in studying how celestial objects were formed. It can also lead to solving the mystery of how the universe was created. The mission is significant for delivering insight into the properties of hot plasma. Plasma: superheated matter that makes up much of the universe. Understanding the distribution of this hot plasma in space and time, as well as its dynamical motion, will shed light on diverse phenomena such as black holes, the evolution of chemical elements in the universe, and the formation of galactic clusters. The rocket also has the Smart Lander for Investigating Moon, or SLIM which is a lightweight lunar lander. MUST READ: India’s first private rocket – Vikram-S SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media?  (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on it. Konark Wheel Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: India showcased the Konark Wheel of the Konark Sun Temple the recently held G 20 Summit. Background:- As world leaders started arriving at Bharat Mandapam in Delhi for the G20 Summit, Prime Minister Narendra Modi personally welcomed each and every one of them at the arrival area on the building’s second level. PM Modi shook hands with them for the customary photo-op, with a wall depicting the Konark Wheel of Odisha in the background. About Konark Wheel:- Located: Konark Sun Temple, Puri in Odisha. The Konark Wheel, also known as the Konark Chakra. It is an iconic symbol associated with the Konark Temple. The wheel symbolizes the Sun God’s chariot. Different theories exist regarding the significance of the Konark Wheel:- According to one interpretation, the seven horses represent the days of the week, the 12 pairs of wheels symbolize the 12 months of the year, and the 24 wheels represent the 24 hours of a day, with the 8 major spokes denoting three-hour periods (prahars) of a day. Another interpretation suggests that the wheels symbolize the cycle of creation, preservation, and realization, akin to the “Wheel of Life.” Some believe the 12 pairs of wheels may represent the 12 zodiac signs. Others draw parallels between the Konark Wheel and the Dharmachakra, the Wheel of Karma, in Buddhist symbolism. ( Buddhist Philosophy on Dharmachakra Day) Carvings and Decorations:- The 24 wheels of the Konark Temple, though similar in size and architecture, feature unique carvings all over. The thicker spokes are adorned with circular medallions at their centers. The axles of the wheels project about one foot from the surface, also decorated at their ends. The rims of the wheels are intricately carved with foliage designs, along with depictions of various birds and animals. The medallions in the spokes of the wheels showcase figures of women in various poses, often of a sensual nature. It serves as a representation of the cosmic cycle and the concept of time in Hindu mythology. Konark Sun Temple Timeline: It was constructed in the 13th century. Historical Background: The temple was constructed during the reign of King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty. It is designed in the shape of a colossal chariot with 12 pairs of stone-carved wheels. They represent the chariot of the Sun God. (Modhera Sun temple) The temple is built using Khondalite rocks. It is carved to depict various mythological and religious themes. Konark Sun Temple was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984. MUST READ: Puri Jagannath Temple SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were well-known (2023) capital cities ports centres of iron-and-steel making shrines of Jain Tirthankaras Q.2) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 MQ-9B drones Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: India recently initiated the process to purchase 31 MQ-9B drones from the USA. About MQ-9B drones:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA Developed by: General Atomics Aeronautical Systems (GA-ASI). The MQ-9B drone is a variant of the MQ-9 “Reaper”. MQ-9 Reaper: an unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) capable of remotely controlled or autonomous flight operations. These are high-altitude long-endurance drones. They are designed for intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance missions and come equipped with air-to-ground missiles and smart bombs. They are armed with strike missiles which can take out enemy targets with high accuracy. The MQ-9B has two variants: SkyGuardian and SeaGuardian. The Indian Navy has been operating the MQ-9B Sea Guardian since 2020. (Drone Insurance Policy) Features of MQ-9B SeaGuardian :- Payload: It can carry up to 5,670 kg. Altitude: 40,000 feet. Endurance time: 40 hours. This makes it useful for long-hour surveillance. It can support land, maritime surveillance, anti-submarine warfare, anti-surface warfare, strike, electronic warfare, and expeditionary roles. It is capable of automatic take-offs and landings. It can safely integrate into civil airspace. This enables joint forces and civil authorities to deliver real-time situational awareness anywhere in the maritime domain — day or night. MUST READ: India bans drone import SOURCE: HIDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following actions: (2023) Detection of car crash/ collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of the display between portrait and landscape mode. In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None Swaminarayan Akshardham temple Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: UK Prime Minister Rishi Sunak and his wife Akshata Murty visited the Swaminarayan Akshardham temple recently. About Swaminarayan Akshardham temple:- Opened in 2005. Location: New Delhi, India. Swaminarayan Akshardham is the world’s largest comprehensive Hindu temple. The temple was built to honor Bhagwan Swaminarayan (1781-1830), the founder of the Swaminarayan tradition. It is a fine example of architectural prowess that upholds the Hindu cultural legacy of thousands of years. It lies east of the Yamuna River. Features:- The temple complex showcases stunning architecture inspired by ancient Vedic and Hindu architectural principles. The main monument is made of intricately carved pink sandstone and white marble. It stands 141 feet tall. It is 316 feet (96 meters) broad and 356 feet (109 meters) long. It features more than 20,000 statues and sculptures. The central monument represents Mount Meru, the mythical abode of the gods. The intricate carvings all over the interior and exterior walls depict various life forms. One of the most revered symbols of Hindu worship, the elephant, features prominently in the carvings. At the temple’s base are 148 life-size, perfectly sculpted elephants, weighing a total of 3000 tonnes. Another astounding fact is that the temple is not supported by steel or concrete. It houses a Musical Fountain (also known as the Yagnapurush Kund) which is India’s largest step well. The Akshardham Temple was inducted into the Guinness World Records in 2007 for being the world’s largest comprehensive Hindu Temple, attracting visitors from all over the world. MUST READ: Khajuraho temples SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to the history of ancient India, Bhavabhuti, Hastimalla, and Kshemeshvara were famous (2021) Jain monks playwrights temple architects philosophers India- USA Relations Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: Recently the US President arrived in New Delhi to attend the G-20 Summit and met Prime Minister Narendra Modi for a bilateral meeting. Highlights of the bilateral meeting: INDUS -X: The leaders commended the India-U.S. Defence Acceleration Ecosystem (INDUS-X) team for establishing a robust collaboration agenda to harness the innovative work of the U.S. and Indian defence sectors to address shared security challenges. UN Security Council seat: US reaffirmed support for a reformed UN Security Council with India as a permanent member. Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technology (iCET): Both the countries intend to undertake a midterm review of iCET in September 2023 to continue to drive momentum toward the next annual iCET review, co-led by the National Security Advisors of both countries, in early 2024. India-U.S. Global Challenges Institute: The leaders welcomed the signing of an MoU between Indian universities, represented by the Council of Indian Institutes of Technology (IIT Council), and the Association of American Universities (AAU) to establish the India-U.S. Global Challenges Institute. Technology Transfer: The leaders commenced of negotiations for a commercial agreement between GE Aerospace and Hindustan Aeronautical Limited (HAL) to manufacture GE F-414 jet engines in India. About India- USA Relations: Historical: During the Cold War, India pursued a non-aligned foreign policy and maintained a distance from both the US and the Soviet Union. In the early 1990s, India began to open up its markets to foreign investment, including from the US, and undertook significant economic reforms. This led to a gradual improvement in relations between the two countries. The two countries have also increased their defence ties, with the US becoming India’s second-largest arms supplier after Russia. In recent decades, India’s growing strategic importance as a counterweight to China has led to closer ties with the US, particularly in the security and defence domains. Political: India has joined the US-led Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF). India-U.S. 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue: It is led by the heads of foreign and defence ministries of India and the U.S. Two successful rounds of this Dialogue have been held so far. India-U.S. Commercial Dialogue: The India-U.S. Commercial Dialogue is led by the Minister of Commerce and Industry (CIM) and the U.S. Secretary of Commerce. India – U.S. Economic and Financial Partnership: The India – U.S. Economic and Financial Partnership is led by the Finance Minister (FM) and the U.S. Secretary of the Treasury. Trade and commerce: The U.S. has emerged as India’s biggest trading partner in 2022-23 on account of increasing economic ties between the two countries. The bilateral trade has increased by 7.65% to USD 128.55 in 2022-23 as against USD 119.5 billion in 2021-22. Exports to the U.S. rose by 2.81% to USD 78.31 billion in 2022-23 as against USD 76.18 billion in 2021-22, while imports grew by about 16% to USD 50.24 billion. In 2021-22, India had a trade surplus of USD 32.8 billion with the US. The U.S. is the largest destination for India’s merchandise exports, while it ranks as India’s third-largest merchandise import supplier, after China and the European Union. Defence Cooperation:  Both have strong defence cooperation, which is based on the “New Framework for India US Defence Cooperation” that was renewed in 2015 for a period of ten years. Several defence agreements have been signed, such as the Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Association in 2016, the Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement in 2018, the Industrial Security Agreement in 2019, and the Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement in 2020. The two countries conduct a number of bilateral military exercises such as Yudh Abhyaas and Vajra Prahari, and also participate in defence exchanges to deepen their military-to-military cooperation. In 2019, the two countries conducted a tri-services exercise called Tiger Triumph. Another grouping in the Middle East – I2U2 involving India, Israel, UAE and the US is being termed as the new Quad along with the existing QUAD Education partnership:  It is an important pillar of India-US ties and both the countries share strong linkages and history of higher education collaborations. The United States Educational Foundation in India (USEFI) was set up after a bilateral agreement on education exchange was signed between India and the US on February 2, 1950 Increased diaspora: The number of Indians and Indian Americans in the U.S. is estimated at around 4 million, which accounts for almost 1% of the total U.S. population. Indian diaspora in America over the years have increased. It has contributed to income creation in the USA through knowledge-based employment and also to Indian economic growth through remittance. Growing financial and political clout of the affluent Asian Indian diaspora is noteworthy. Challenges associated with the relations: Trade: Recently India and US confronted each other regarding tariffs and protectionist policies. US has continuously accused India of high tariffs and India have accused USA of restriction to US markets and high tariffs on Indian products. Intellectual Property Rights: US has continuously criticised India for its IPR policies. It has accused India of acting against Intellectual properties of major companies especially pharmaceutical over generic drugs. Continuous support to Pakistan: Although US has reduced support to Pakistan, it has still provided monetary support to Pakistan. In February 2016, USA intended to provide Pakistan eight nuclear-capable F-16 fighters and assorted military goods. Relations with Russia: India is all time friend of Russia while USA is its all-time rivalry. In 2018, India inked the historic agreement worth with Russia to procure four S-400 surface-to-air missile defence system ignoring America’s CAATSA With she U.S. threatened India with sanctions over India’s decision. Relations with Iran: India has continuously bought oil from Iran despite of US sanctions on Iran. The United States threatened India with sanctions over India’s decision to buy oil from Iran. But recently it exempted India from sanctions that allowed India to buy oil from Iran. Way Forward: Therefore, it is in the mutual interest for both India and USA to rise above differences and ensure continuous cooperation to establish a peaceful, progressive and multilateral world. The partnership between India and US is simply one of the most consequential in the world. Source:  The Hindu Need for Fintech Self-Regulatory Organizations (SROs) Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor recently urged fintech entities to establish Self-Regulatory Organizations (SROs) in the rapidly evolving fintech sector, About Fintech Self-Regulatory Organizations (SROs): Financial technology or Fintech refers to innovative technologies designed to enhance and automate the delivery of financial services. Fintech encompasses technological advancements across various financial sectors, including retail banking, investments, and decentralized cryptocurrencies like DeFi, with a focus on improving financial literacy and education. An SRO is a non-governmental entity responsible for creating and enforcing industry-specific rules and standards. SROs prioritize safeguarding consumer interests, promoting ethical conduct, ensuring equality, and nurturing professionalism. They collaborate with industry stakeholders to formulate and administer regulations. Functions of a Self-Regulatory Organization (SRO): Acts as communication channel: SROs serve as a bridge between their member organizations and regulatory authorities such as the RBI. They facilitate communication, cooperation, and collaboration between industry participants and regulators. Establishing standards: One of the primary functions of an SRO is to set and enforce industry standards and minimum benchmarks. Standardization ensures consistency and fairness within the industry. Training and awareness: SROs are often responsible for providing training and awareness programs to their member organizations. This helps enhance the knowledge and skills of employees and industry professionals, ensuring that they stay up-to-date with industry best practices and regulatory requirements. Grievance redressal: When disputes or non-compliance issues arise among member organizations, these mechanisms help address and resolve such conflicts in a fair and efficient manner. This contributes to the smooth functioning of the industry and helps maintain trust among stakeholders. Significance of SROs: Evolution of industry best practices: Fintech companies operate in a rapidly evolving landscape, and the industry needs to adapt and evolve its practices. The RBI recognizes the need for fintech’s to establish and follow industry best practices that align with the legal and regulatory framework of the country. This includes adhering to standards that ensure the responsible and ethical conduct of business. Preventing unethical selling: Mis-selling refers to the unethical or deceptive practices of selling financial products or services to customers. The RBI wants fintech’s to set standards that prevent mis-selling and ensure that products and services are marketed and sold transparently, without misleading or harming customers. Privacy protection norms: FinTech’s handle sensitive customer data, and data privacy and protection have become paramount concerns globally. RBI expects fintech companies to establish robust privacy and data protection norms that safeguard customer information and comply with the relevant data protection laws. Transparency of Pricing: Transparency in pricing is essential for consumers to make informed decisions. Fintech companies are expected to be transparent in their pricing structures, ensuring that customers have clear information about the costs and charges associated with the products or services they offer. Concerns related to regulation of FinTech’s in India: Regulation: It is a major problem in the emerging world of FinTech, especially Due to the diversity of offerings in FinTech, it is difficult to formulate a single and comprehensive approach to these problems. In most countries, they are unregulated and have become fertile ground for scams and frauds. Uncertainty in the business: uncertainty in the FinTech sector is making things complicated for both FinTech service providers and consumers. The absence of an overarching regulatory framework for FinTech’s have created multiple points of ambiguity in the system for companies, investors and consumers. Unethical practices: Being away from the radar of the regulator, a number of unethical practices in lending have also been reported. Brutal collection methods, opaque lending practices, mis-selling of products, customer harassment, etc. are some of the instances. Way Forward: With the rising fintech sector in India, SROs emerge as indispensable entities, shaping industry behavior, promoting ethical conduct, and safeguarding consumer interests. Their role as industry experts and watchdogs helps create a more transparent, trustworthy, and well-regulated environment for all stakeholders. Source:   Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Rocket Agency 1.Vikram-S Skyroot Aerospace 2.Falcon Heavy Rocket SpaceX 3.RH-200 sounding rocket ISRO How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: HII-A rocket was launched from California, USA. Statement-II: It was launched by the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Konark Temple wheel, consider the following statements: The 24 wheels of the Konark Temple, are all similar in size and architecture. The Konark Temple was constructed during the reign of King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty. It is located in Madhya Pradesh. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Analyse the India and US bilateral relations in light of the recent developments. (250 words) Q.2) What are the potential benefits and challenges of fintech technology  in India? Why the RBI has proposed setting-up a Self-Regulatory Organisation for fintech’s. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  11th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 9th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 9th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Fujianvenator prodigiosus Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: The evidence of a Bizarre’ bird-like dinosaur Fujianvenator prodigiosus has enthralled scientists recently. Background:- Scientists reported to have unearthed the fossil of a Jurassic Period dinosaur they named Fujianvenator from the Fujian Province. (Dinosaur footprints in China) It is a creature that sheds light on a critical evolutionary stage in the origin of birds. About Fujianvenator prodigious:- Distribution: southeastern China. (Abnormal’ dinosaur egg in India) Fujianvenator is a member of a grouping called This group includes all birds and their closest non-avian dinosaur Survival: Despite their modest beginnings, birds survived the asteroid strike 66 million years ago that doomed their non-avian dinosaur comrades. Diet and lifestyle: The Fujianvenator fossil, discovered lacks the animal’s skull and parts of its feet, making it hard to interpret its diet and lifestyle. Physical Description: – It was a pheasant-sized and bird-like dinosaur. It had elongated legs and arms built much like wings. It had a puzzling anatomy suggesting it either was a fast runner or lived a lifestyle like a modern wading bird. Its lower leg bone – the tibia – was twice as long as its thigh bone – the femur. It also had a long bony tail. The forelimb is generally built like a bird’s wing, but with three claws on the fingers, which are absent from modern birds. It cannot be determined whether it could fly or not  MUST READ: Dinosaur eggs SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1Consider the following fauna: (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to (2017) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs an early human species a cave system found in North-East India a geological period in the history of the Indian subcontinent Battery energy storage systems Syllabus Prelims –Government Scheme Context: The government recently approved ₹3,760 crore for viability gap funding of up to 40% of total capital cost to set up a 4,000 MWh battery energy storage system in the country. Background:- The entire ₹3,760 crore viability gap funding (VGF) will be borne by the central government. The VGF will be released in five tranches till 2030-31. Viability Gap Finance: It means a grant to support projects that are economically justified but not financially viable. It aims to reduce the levelized cost of storage (LCoS) to ₹5.50-6.60 per kilowatt-hour (kWh), making storage a viable option to manage peak power demand. It will help in the creation of 4,000 MWh storage across the country. The selection of BESS developers for VGF grants will be carried out through a transparent competitive bidding process, promoting a level-playing field for both public and private sector entities. About Battery energy storage systems:- A battery energy storage system is a type of energy storage system that uses batteries to store and distribute energy as electricity. These are often used to enable energy from renewable sources, like solar and wind, to be stored and released. Types of Battery energy storage systems:- Residential BESS: for homes Commercial BESS: for businesses Utility-scale BESS: for large-scale energy storage. Benefits:- BESS will enhance renewable energy integration into the grid. (Sustainable Energy) It will reduce wastage, and minimize infrastructure upgrade costs. It will reduce peak demand and associated costs. Challenges:- It has High initial costs. ( Battery Energy Storage System (BESS) for 1000 MWhourproject) Recycling and disposal of batteries issues. Regulatory and grid integration issues.  MUST READ: Solar Energy in India SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) “R2 Code of Practices” constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2021) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources UPI-ATM Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, India’s first UPI-ATM was unveiled. Background:- India’s first UPI-ATM was launched recently as a White Label ATM (WLA) by Hitachi Payment Services in collaboration with the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) in order to enable “seamless cash withdrawals”. It offers an experience that allows customers of certain banks to enjoy “QR-based cashless withdrawals”. About UPI-ATM:- IMAGE SOURCE: Paisabazaar.com The UPI-ATM service is also known as Interoperable Cardless Cash Withdrawal (ICCW). It offers a convenient way for customers of participating banks who are using UPI to withdraw cash from any ATM that supports UPI-ATM functionality, without the need for a physical card. India’s first UPI-ATM was launched recently as a White Label ATM (WLA) by Hitachi Payment Services in collaboration with the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). (UPI and NPCI Regulation) Working Mechanism:- When a customer selects the ‘UPI cash withdrawal’ option at the ATM, they will be prompted to enter the desired withdrawal amount. Once the amount is entered, a unique and secure dynamic QR code will appear on the ATM screen. To complete the transaction and obtain cash from the ATM, the customer simply needs to scan this QR code using any UPI app and authorize the transaction with their UPI PIN on their mobile device. Features of UPI-ATM Compatible with various systems. Transactions without the need for a physical card. Transaction limit of up to ₹10,000 per transaction, aligned with existing UPI daily limits and issuer bank’s UPI-ATM transaction limits. Allows cash withdrawals from multiple accounts via the UPI app. Benefits:- It will eliminate the need to carry physical ATM cards. It allows users to obtain cash from multiple accounts using the UPI app. It will prevent issues such as card skimming. Card skimming: a type of financial fraud where devices are installed at ATMs or point-of-sales terminals to gather card information such as PIN and card number to siphon off cash. MUST READ: India’s UPI Push SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to (2023) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible a numeric value that measures the fluctuations. of stock to changes in the overall stock market. Q.2) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: (2022) They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium transaction. of commercial Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 G20 Tourism and SDG Dashboard Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: The Ministry of Tourism in collaboration with the United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO), unveiled the G20 Tourism and SDG Dashboard recently. Background:- Union Tourism Minister G Kishan Reddy launched the dashboard in a virtual ceremony. The virtual launch witnessed participation from G20 member countries, invited countries, international organizations, various states and Union Territories, and industry stakeholders. About G20 Tourism and SDG Dashboard:- IMAGE SOURCE: SDG Launched: 2023. Developed by: the Ministry of Tourism in collaboration with the United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO). The G20 Tourism and SDG Dashboard showcases the best practices, case studies, and insights from G20 countries. These all are modeled for achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). (sustainable Development Goals (SDG) India Index) It serves as a comprehensive online public platform, amalgamating the collective knowledge of the G20 Tourism Working Group. It consolidates the GOA Roadmap, survey results, case studies, and best practices from G20 countries. It offers insights into sustainable tourism practices. It also provides a platform for knowledge exchange, collaboration, and growth. It offers a wealth of knowledge and showcases best practices, aimed at steering the tourism industry towards greater sustainability, resilience, and inclusivity. Significance:- This dashboard is a lasting legacy of India’s G20 Presidency. It reflects its dedication to global collaboration and sustainable growth in the global tourism industry. MUST READ: Top Three SDGs & India SOURCE: NEWS ON AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements : (2023) It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Amitava Roy Committee report Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Supreme Court sought the views of the Centre and the states on the Justice Amitava Roy Committee report. Background:- On August 29, the Supreme Court sought the views of the Centre and the states on the Justice Amitava Roy Committee report submitted on December 27, 2022, underlining that the correctional justice system is “evidently gender exclusionary”. About Amitava Roy Committee report:- IMAGE SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Formation: 2018. Formed by: Supreme Court of India. In September 2018, the Supreme Court formed a Committee on Prison Reforms chaired by former judge, Justice Amitava Roy. Objective: To examine the various problems plaguing prisons in the country, from overcrowding to lack of legal advice to convicts to issues of remission and parole. Historical Background:- The decision was taken based on a letter from former Chief Justice of India R.C. Lahoti highlighting the overcrowding in prisons, unnatural deaths of prisoners, gross inadequacy of staff, and the lack of trained staff. The court asked the committee to complete the collection of data and information and submit the report in a year. The committee submitted the final report in December 2022. Functions of the committee:- Examine the extent of overcrowding in prisons and correctional homes & and recommend remedial measures. Grant of remission, parole, and furlough. Reasons for violence in prisons and correctional homes. Recommend measures to prevent unnatural deaths. Assess the availability of medical facilities in prisons and correctional homes. Key Findings of the Committee:- Globally, one in three prisoners are undertrials. In India, three out of four, or about 77% of the total prison population in 2021, were undertrials. Undertrials: people waiting for the completion of a trial or investigation. Women prisoners face far worse conditions than men in terms of access to basic facilities. Prisons only in Goa, Delhi, and Puducherry allow female inmates to meet their children without any bars or glass separation. (National Commission for Women) Less than 40% of prisons provide sanitary napkins to female inmates. Only 18% of female prisoners get exclusive women’s prison facilities. Prison authorities of only 13 states and two Union Territories have designated a ‘complaint officer’ to deal with complaints of violation of rights of transgender inmates in prisons. Majority of the states and Union Territories have not formulated welfare schemes for transgender prisoners. Suicide is a major cause of the 817 unnatural deaths reported in jails across the country between 2017 and 2021. Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest number of suicides at 101 during this period. Key Recommendations of the Committee:- Speedy trials. Lawyer to prisoner ratio: There should be at least one lawyer for every 30 prisoners. Special courts should be set up to deal exclusively with petty offenses. Accommodative Transition: Every new prisoner should be allowed a free phone call a day to his family members to see him through his first week in jail. (Police & Prison Reform) Legal aid must be provided. Use of video-conferencing for trial. Modern cooking facilities and canteens to buy essential items. The Supreme Court should pass directions asking authorities to start the recruitment process against permanent vacancies within three months and the process should be completed in a year.  MUST READ: Inter-operable Criminal Justice System (ICJS) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, of 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Dancing Girl Statue Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: The Sculptures of Nataraja, Dancing Girl will be used greet delegates at Bharat Mandapam as per recent announcements. About Dancing Girl:- Discovered in 1926. Discovered by: Ernest Mackay. Discovered at Mohenjodaro, The ‘Dancing Girl’ is a sculpture made of bronze. It is one of the highest achievements of the artists of It belongs to the Indus Valley Civilization and dates back to circa 2500 BCE. It is 10.5 cm in height, 5 cm in width, and 2.5 cm in depth. Presently, it is on display in the Indus Valley Civilization gallery in the National Museum, New Delhi. The statue is named the ‘Dancing Girl’ owing to her posture, with her right hand on the back of her hip and the left hand resting on her left thigh. Her features are prominent with large eyes, curly hair, and a flat nose. She appears to be adorned by a necklace alongside some bangles. Her hair is plaited on the back and neatly tied in a bun. Her arms are unnaturally long which is a common feature of the artefacts of this time. Her head is tilted slightly backward. An interesting fact to notice is that the number of bangles in her hands differs. She has 24 bangles in one hand and 4 in the other. The sculpture was made using the ‘Lost Wax’ method. Lost Wax’ method: molten wax is poured into a mould to create a model. In the 1920s Daya Ram Sahni and D. Banerji began excavating in modern-day Harappa and Mohenjodaro. About Nataraja:- It is the representation of the Hindu god Shiva during his form as the cosmic dance. It is represented in metal or stone in many Shaivite temples, particularly in South India. (Shore temple) It is an important piece of Chola sculpture. Features of the Nataraja:- The upper right hand holds the drum: it signifies the sound of creation. All creations spring from the great sound of the The upper left hand holds the eternal fire: it represents the destruction. Destruction is the precursor and inevitable counterpart of creation. The lower right hand is raised in the gesture of Abhay Mudra signifying benediction and reassuring the devotee to not be afraid. The lower left hand points towards the upraised foot and indicates the path of salvation. Shiva is dancing on the figure of a small dwarf. The dwarf symbolizes ignorance and the ego of an individual. The matted and flowing locks of Shiva represent the flow of the river Ganges. This represents the fusion of male and female and is often referred to as A snake is wrapped around the arm of Shiva. The snake symbolizes the kundalini power, which resides in the human spine in the dormant stage.  MUST READ: Language in Indus Valley Civilization SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were well-known as (2023) capital cities ports centers of iron-and-steel making shrines of Jain Tirthankaras  Q.2) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Mains: India and ASEAN Relations Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: Recently the Prime Minister of India attended the 20th ASEAN-India Summit and the 18th East Asia Summit (EAS) in Jakarta, Indonesia. About India and ASEAN Relations: Political: India has been actively engaged with ASEAN in various regional forums and initiatives, such as the ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF), ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting + (ADMM+), and the East Asia Summit (EAS). In recent years, they share interests in cooperation in sectors, such as trade and investment, energy, infrastructure, and people-to-people contacts. India’s Act East Policy, which was formally enunciated in 2014, is a key pillar of its foreign policy and is focused on expanding its engagement with ASEAN and other countries in the region. Mission to ASEAN 2015 with a dedicated Ambassador to strengthen engagement with ASEAN and ASEAN-centric processes Delhi Dialogue hosted by India annually, traditionally inaugurated jointly by India and ASEAN at the Foreign Minister’s level, serves as the main Track 1.5 mechanism for our engagement. Trade and Investment: India and ASEAN have signed an FTA that has boosted trade and investment between the two. ASEAN is India’s 4th largest trading partner. Total trade stood at $110.4 billion in 2021-22. ASEAN-India Business Council (AIBC) was set up in 2005 with the aim of fostering closer business linkages. India’s export to ASEAN stands at 28% of our total exports. ASEAN accounting for approximately 28% of investment flows into India since 2000. Multilateral and Bilateral Engagements: Bilaterally, India has signed ‘strategic partnerships’ with four ASEAN countries, namely, Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore and Vietnam. At the multilateral level, India is a member of multiple ASEAN-led fora, including the East Asia Summit, the ASEAN Regional Forum, and the ASEAN Defence Ministers Meeting. Maritime cooperation: India’s flagship MILAN naval exercise, started in the 1990s, includes several ASEAN members. India also conducts bilateral coordinated patrols with several ASEAN countries, as well as exercises such as the Singapore-India Maritime Exercise, which completed 25 years in 2018. Socio-cultural cooperation: India and ASEAN have promoted cultural exchanges to enhance people-to-people ties. Inviting ASEAN students to India each year for the Students Exchange Programme, Special Training Course for ASEAN diplomats, Exchange of Parliamentarians, ASEAN-India Network of Think Tanks, ASEAN-India Eminent Persons Lecture Series, etc. India has established the ASEAN-India Centre at the Research and Information System for Developing Countries (RIS) to promote research and studies on ASEAN-India relations. Significance of ASEAN partnership for India: Significant market size: ASEAN constitutes the 3rd largest market in the world. This can help India utilize its export potential. Way for countering China’s influence: Strengthening relations with ASEAN countries can serve as a counterbalance to China’s influence in the region. Convergence with Indo-Pacific strategy: ASEAN is a crucial component of India’s “Act East” policy and its “Indo-Pacific” strategy, reflecting the convergence of interests in the region. Significance of rule-based order: ASEAN plays a central role in promoting a rules-based security architecture in the Indo-Pacific region, which is essential for the region’s stability and prosperity. Development of North East region: Connectivity initiatives with ASEAN can boost economic development in India’s northeastern states by positioning them as a hub for regional trade and commerce. India – ASEAN challenges: Slow implementation of projects: The lack of time-bound implementation of projects, such as the India-Myanmar-Thailand trilateral highway and Kaladan multimodal project, which would enhance connectivity between India and the ASEAN region. Trade and economic ties remain low: Despite efforts to strengthen economic ties, India’s trade and economic ties with ASEAN are much below their potential. But China remains the largest trading partner of the regional grouping, followed by the European Union and the United States. Quadrilateral Security Initiative: ASEAN has not been very favourable to the rise of QUAD as a significant security institution in the region. It is neither willing to be entangled in the possible power transition taking place in the Indo Pacific. Low FDI: India’s FDI in ASEAN is also low in comparison to China, with China’s FDI to ASEAN standing at a much higher figure. Territorial disputes hindering the progress: ASEAN member states are enmeshed in territorial disputes with interested powers for a long time, which creates a challenge for maintaining peaceful relations. Wobbling geopolitics: The geopolitical tension in the Indo-Pacific is producing geoeconomics consequences where issues of trade and technology cooperation as well as supply chain resilience are at peak. This is happening at a time when ASEAN remains a divided organization internally on how to manage these challenges. Indo-Pacific rivalry: The rivalry between major powers in the Indo-Pacific region, such as China and the United States, threatens the underlying stability on which rested the regional growth and prosperity. Way Forward: While the two sides have made tremendous progress in the last few decades and built strong linkages with each other, the potential for further growth and connections is immense. There is a bright future ahead for the ASEAN and India relations. As with the US and China, the ASEAN member states will need to seek to balance and pursue their interests in the developing India-China dynamic in the region. Source:   Indian Express Zero Draft of Global Treaty to End Plastic Pollution Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment) Context: The Intergovernmental negotiating committee (INC) to develop an international legally binding instrument on plastic pollution, recently released a zero draft to end plastic pollution. Highlights of the draft: The text is divided into four parts: Part I: It covers the objectives of the instrument and leaves placeholders, as requested at the second session of the committee from May 29-June 2 for elements that Members may wish to include but were not discussed at the second session. Part II: Elements in this Part are broadly structured around the life cycle of plastics and plastic products with the aim of addressing plastic pollution. It aims to collectively promote the sustainable production and consumption of plastics through product design and environmentally sound waste management, including through resource efficiency and circular economy approaches. Part III and IV: The third and fourth parts outline different options of measures aimed at collectively addressing the implementation of the instrument. About plastics and its pollution: Plastics are a group of materials, either synthetic or naturally occurring, that may be shaped when soft and then hardened to retain the given shape. Plastics can be divided into two general categories–thermoplastics and thermosets. Thermoplastics are defined as polymers that can be melted and recast almost indefinitely. Thermosets is a polymer that irreversibly becomes rigid when heated. Plastic pollution occurs when plastic has gathered in an area and has begun to negatively impact the natural environment and create problems for plants, wildlife, and even the human population. This includes killing plant life and posing dangers to local animals. Plastic is an incredibly useful material, but it is not biodegradable. Significance of Plastics: Properties of plastics such as resistant, inert, and lightweight offers many benefits to companies, consumers, and other links in society. This is all because of its low-cost and versatile nature. In the medical industry, plastics are used to keep things sterile. Syringes and surgical implements are all plastic and single use. In the automotive industry, it has allowed a significant reduction in vehicle weight, reducing fuel consumption and, consequently, the environmental impact of automobiles. Plastics protect our heads in the form of helmets. They keep us safer in our cars in the form of seatbelts, fuel tanks, windscreens and airbags. Major Concerns with Plastic pollution: Pollution: Plastic waste is blocking sewers, threatening marine life and generating health risks for residents in landfills or the natural environment. Food and health: Invisible plastic has been identified in tap water, beer, salt and are present in all samples collected in the world’s oceans, including the Arctic. The transfer of contaminants between marine species and humans through the consumption of seafood has been identified as a health hazard. Financial costs of marine plastic pollution: According to conservative forecasts made in March 2020, the direct harm to the blue economy of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations will be $2.1 billion per year. Boats become entangled in abandoned or discarded fishing nets or their engines may become blocked with plastic debris. Coastal pollution: Residents of coastal regions suffer from the harmful health impacts of plastic pollution and waste brought in by the tides and are inextricably linked to the fishing and tourism industry for their livelihoods. Tourism: Plastic waste damages the aesthetic value of tourist destinations, leading to decreased tourism-related incomes and major economic costs related to the cleaning and maintenance of the sites. Climate change: Plastic, which is a petroleum product, also contributes to global warming. If plastic waste is incinerated, it releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, thereby increasing carbon emissions. Govt of India’s initiatives to tackle plastic waste: The Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016: It clearly stipulates that urban local bodies (ULBs) should ban less than 50 micron thick plastic bags and not allow the usage of recycled plastics for packing food, beverage or any other eatables. It introduced the concept of EPR(Extended Producer Responsibility) to manage plastics in India. Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2022: The guidelines on EPR(Extended Producer Responsibility) coupled with the prohibition of identified single-use plastic items. It banned the manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale and use of carry bags made of virgin or recycled plastic less than seventy-five microns. Swachh Bharat Mission – Urban 2.0: Under this, every Urban Local Bodies (ULB) is required to adopt 100% source segregation of waste, and have access to a Material Recovery Facility (MRF) for sorting the dry waste (including plastic waste) into further fractions for recycling and/ or processing into value-added products. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB): CPCB along with state pollution bodies, will monitor the ban, identify violations, and impose penalties already prescribed under the Environmental Protection Act. Plastic Parks: India has set up Plastic Parks, which are specialized industrial zones for recycling and processing plastic waste. Project REPLAN: REducing PLastic in Nature launched by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) aims to reduce consumption of plastic bags by providing a more sustainable alternative. Way Forward: A comprehensive extended producer responsibility is also needed to ensure manufacturers are accountable for recycling, on the lines of rules for electronic waste. The whole world is mobilising efforts to decrease plastic footprint. Every country is reeling under this menace and there is a huge support system globally continuously created to tackle this menace. Source:   DTE Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Types of ATMs Definition 1.White Label ATM In this type of ATM, the hardware and lease of the ATM are owned by the service provider but the cash management and connectivity to the banking network are provided by the sponsor bank. 2.Brown Label ATM ATMs that are used for agricultural transactions. 3.Pink Label ATM This type of ATM is solely made for women’s banking. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The dancing girl sculpture has 24 bangles in one hand and 4 in the other. Statement-II: The sculpture is made of Gold. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Fujianvenator prodigiosus, consider the following statements: It survived the asteroid strike 66 million years ago that doomed its non-avian dinosaur comrades. It had wings and could fly. It inhabited southeastern China. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None  Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Analyse the significance and challenges of ASEAN relationship with India as the ‘central pillar’ of India’s Act East Policy? (250 words) Q.2) Plastic has become one of the most challenging environmental issues in the recent decades. Discuss the current status and the targets to be achieved pertaining to plastic waste management across the world. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  9th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 8th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 9th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 8th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Africa Climate Summit 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The Africa Climate Summit 2023 ended recently. Background:- The inaugural Africa Climate Summit (ACS23) in Nairobi culminated in the ‘Nairobi Declaration’, giving the continent a common voice ahead of upcoming key global engagements. The declaration has a raft of recommendations, pledges, and demands believed to have boosted Africa’s bargaining power on international platforms. The Nairobi summit largely focused on calls to unlock investment in clean energy. About Africa Climate Summit 2023:- IMAGE SOURCE: sgss8.com Date: 4th to 6th September 2023. Venue: Nairobi, Kenya (Africa) Objective: to address the increasing exposure to climate change and its associated costs, both globally and particularly in Africa. (African Union) At the Africa Climate Summit, leaders made ambitious pledges and commitments. A comprehensive “Pledging and Commitment Framework” was developed to guide these actions. Significance of Africa Climate Summit 2023:- Despite having a small carbon footprint, Africa disproportionately bears the human toll of climate change The Summit will highlight the urgent need for regional and global action. The outcomes of the summit are critical for the African continent to arrive at a consensus and mobilize action in the upcoming 28th Conference of Parties (COP28). COP28 of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change: is to be hosted in Dubai, United Arab Emirates. Theme and Focus Areas of Africa Climate Summit 2023:- Climate Action Financing. Green Growth Agenda for Africa. (Horn of Africa) Climate Action and Economic Development. Global Capital optimization.  MUST READ: India-Africa Relationship SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) About three-fourths of the world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by (2023) Argentina Botswana Democratic Republic. of the Congo Kazakhstan Q.2) Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin? (2023) Cameroon Nigeria South Sudan Uganda Electric vehicles (EVs) Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology/ Science and Technology Context: The preparations for the upcoming World Electric Vehicles (EVs) Day were seen in full swing recently. Background:- Every year, on September 9, the World Electrical Vehicle (EV) Day is celebrated. It is an initiative created by the sustainability media Co. GreenTV. 2020: the inauguration of the World EV Day. The day is designated as World EV Day to honour electric vehicles. It is an international movement that unites people in pursuing change. Science shows that replacing internal combustion engines (ICE) that power our diesel and petrol cars can eliminate toxic tailpipe emissions in our polluted cities, along with significantly lowering heat-trapping carbon emissions from fuel combustion. Global trends show that this shift from ICE to electric vehicles (EV) is inevitable in the next few decades. About Electric vehicles (EVs):- IMAGE SOURCE: evolveetfs.com An electric vehicle, uses one or more electric motors or traction motors for propulsion. They may be powered through self-contained batteries, solar panels or an electric generator to convert fuel to electricity. They run on electricity instead of gasoline. (Hybrid Electric Vehicles (HEV)) They emit no tailpipe pollution or greenhouse gas emissions. They tend to be quieter and smoother than other vehicles. Most electric cars have batteries that have to be recharged from an outside source of electricity. Advantages of electric vehicles (EVs):- EVs are eco-friendly. They have low maintenance costs. They protect the environment from noise pollution. They are an alternative to combustion engines powered by fossil fuels, which discharge harmful greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. The adoption of electric vehicles is consistent with India’s pledge to lower carbon emissions and provide renewable energy sources more support. They are unaffected by geopolitical tensions or rising oil prices. They can lessen India’s reliance on the Gulf countries for fuel imports. It provides a catalyst for future innovation in mobility- and hybrid-based technologies. EV production will benefit regional industries and expand India’s homegrown manufacturing sector. Setting up new production and charging systems infrastructure will improve skill-building programs and create more jobs. Thus providing Challenges of Electric Vehicles:- Lack of Associated Infrastructural Lack of a Stable Policy for EV Production. Long time for Charging Batteries. Battery manufacturing process and supply chain. Lack of Skilled Workers. Important Government Initiatives:- FAME India: Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric and Hybrid Vehicles in India. It is an incentive scheme that encourages the adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles. Manufacturers and infrastructure providers of electric vehicles receive this incentive in the form of subsidies. National Electric Mobility Mission Plan 2020:– It aims to deploy 5 to 7 million electric vehicles nationwide by 2020. It aims to promote the adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles in the country. The plan includes the following measures: providing incentives for manufacturers, promoting charging infrastructure, and encouraging research and development in the sector. Concessions on the GST: – The government promotes the use of electric vehicles by levying a 5% GST on electric vehicles as compared to a GST of 28% on internal combustion automobiles. Go Electric Campaign: The objective of this campaign is to create awareness and promote the use of electric vehicles and kitchen appliances and to ensure the nation’s energy security.  MUST READ: Electric Vehicles and Battery Fires SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2023) Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircraft. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following actions: (2023) Detection of car crash/ collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of the display between portrait and landscape mode In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) Syllabus Prelims – Important Organizations Context: Secretary General of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) Mathias Cormann arrived in New Delhi to attend the G20 Summit recently. Background:- European Council President Charles Michel also arrived to attend the G20 Summit. About the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD):- Establishment: 1960. HQ: Paris, France. Objective: to shape policies that foster prosperity, equality, opportunity and well-being for all. Historical Background:- The forerunner of the OECD was the Organization for European Economic Co-operation (OEEC). OEEC was formed to administer American and Canadian aid under the Marshall Plan for the reconstruction of Europe after World War II. The Convention transforming the OEEC into the OECD was signed in Paris in 1960 and entered into force in Members of OECD:- OECD currently has 38 member nations and the Member Countries are each represented by a delegation led by their ambassadors. The 38 Member Countries consist of: Australia, Austria, Belgium, Canada, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, South Korea, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Mexico, Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Turkey, the United Kingdom, and the United States. India is a non-member economy with working relationships with the OECD. Functions of OECD:- It is responsible for publishing economic reports, statistical databases, analyses, and forecasts on the outlook for economic growth worldwide. (OECD/G20 Inclusive Framework tax deal) The group analyzes the impact of social issues on economic growth and makes recommendations. It endeavours to eliminate bribery and other forms of financial crimes worldwide. It seeks to eliminate bribery and other financial crimes It also maintains a “blacklist” of nations that are considered uncooperative tax havens. Reports:- OECD Economic Outlook OECD Communication Outlook OECD Internet Economy Outlook  MUST READ: Digital taxation & OECD: On a weak pillar SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union makes the countries of the European Union share their infrastructure facilities enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only· two All three None Q.2) Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Malaviya Mission - Teachers Training Programme Syllabus Prelims – Government Initiatives Context: The Malaviya Mission – Teachers Training Programme was launched recently. Background:- Union Minister for Education and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship Shri Dharmendra Pradhan launched the Malaviya Mission – Teachers Training Programme by the University Grants Commission at Kaushal Bhawan, New Delhi. He also inaugurated the Portal of the Programme and released its information brochure. About Malaviya Mission – Teachers Training Programme:- Organized: September,2023. Organized by: University Grants Commission and Ministry of Education. Duration: 2 weeks. (NIPUN bharat mission) Objective: to provide tailored training programmes for teachers. This programme will work for the capacity building of faculty members in higher educational institutions. It will improve the quality of teachers’ training, build leadership skills in teachers and help realize the goals of NEP. (One year of NEP reform: new initiatives) Themes: 8 themes are identified for course curriculum/content for capacity building of faculty members at higher educational institutions. These include Holistic and Multidisciplinary Education, Indian Knowledge Systems (IKS), Academic Leadership, Governance and Management, Higher Education and Society, Research and Development, Skill Development, Student Diversity and Inclusive Education and Information and Communication Technology. Online Portal: To facilitate this transformative journey, the UGC has also established a dedicated portal for faculty members to register for the capacity-building programmes. (NISHTHA) Significance:- The programme will ensure continuous professional development. It will help in building capacities of 15 lakh teachers of HEIs through 111 Malaviya Mission centres across India in a time-bound manner. It will help to make educators future-ready with a deeper understanding of Indian values. MUST READ: Savitribai Phule: India’s first woman teacher SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Cauvery wildlife sanctuary Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Researchers discovered a ‘white’ sambar in the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary recently. Background:- A white sambar was photographed in the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary during a research study. This is the first recorded photographic record of a white form of sambar from this landscape. About Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary:- Location: Near Malemadeshwara Hills, Mandya, Karnataka. Area: It covers an approximate area of about 1027.53 square kilometres (396 square miles). Naming: The river Cauvery forms the boundary of the sanctuary and gives it its name. 1987: It was constituted under the Wildlife Protection Act, of 1973 for the purpose of Protecting, Propagating or developing Wildlife and its environment. It consists of reserve forests in Chamarajnagar, Ramanagar and Mandya Districts of Karnataka State. Vegetation: dry deciduous forests, scrublands, grasslands, and riverine ecosystems. Fauna: elephants, tigers, leopards, wild boars, deer, various species of birds, reptiles, etc. Among aquatic fauna, the predominant species are Crocodiles (listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act), Otters and Hump-backed Mahseer Fish. Significance: It provides a safe habitat for several endangered and vulnerable species. Sambar deer:- The Sambar (Rusa unicolour) is a large deer native to the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia. Habitats: dry deciduous forests, rainforests and mixed forests. Distribution: Their range is distributed from the foothills of the Himalayan Mountains across southern Asia and reaching the islands of Taiwan, Sumatra and Borneo. Significance: These deer play an important role in the ecosystem they live in by dispersing seeds throughout their native range. Threats:- Hunting by humans: Sambar has developed more of a nocturnal activity pattern as a response to hunting by humans, who hunt them for trade and food. Habitat encroachment. (Wildlife Protection) Habitat encroachment: refers to the intrusion of human activities, such as agriculture, infrastructure development, or urbanization, into natural habitats, often resulting in habitat loss and degradation. Conservation status:- IUCN: Vulnerable. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule-III.  MUST READ: (Blackbuck) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous? (2020) Kanha National Park Manas National Park Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Tal Chhaper Wildlife Sanctuary Q.2) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Satkosia Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, two sub-adult tuskers were found dead in Satkosia Tiger Reserve. Background:- In the latest incident of elephant deaths in the state, two sub-adults, including a 15-year-old tusker, were found dead in Satkosia Tiger Reserve. About Satkosia Tiger Reserve:- Establishment: 2007. Satkosia Tiger Reserve, comprises two adjoining sanctuaries of central Odisha named Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary and Baisipalli Sanctuary. These two sanctuaries together covering an area of 963.87 sq km were notified as Tiger Reserve in December 2007. Location: It is located in the Angul district of Odisha. River: This reserve spans four districts and is characterized by the Mahanadi River flowing through its valleys. Biodiversity: Satkosia is the meeting place of India’s two bio-geographic zones, the Eastern Ghats and the Deccan Peninsula, both of which provide enormous biodiversity. Flora:- The area supports moist deciduous forests, dry deciduous forests and moist peninsular Sal forest. Fauna:- Tiger, Leopard, Elephant, Gaur, Chousingha, Sloth bear, Wild dog, varieties of resident and migratory birds, reptilian species, etc. MUST READ: Wildlife Institute of India (WII) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’ the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest Hunting is not allowed in such areas. People in such areas are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce. People of such areas are allowed traditional agricultural practices. How many of the above statements are correct.? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? (2020) Askot Wildlife Sanctuary Gangotri National Park Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary Manas National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only Mains: Measuring unemployment in India Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), India’s unemployment rate was 6.1% in 2017 (the highest ever recorded) and the PLFS of 2021-22 showed unemployment reducing to 4.1%. About Unemployment: According to the International Labour Organisation (ILO), an unemployed person is a person aged 15 or over who simultaneously meets three conditions Unemployment is being out of a job. Being available to take a job. Actively engaged in searching for a job. Trends in unemployment rates in India: Measuring unemployment in India: Usual Principal and Subsidiary Status (UPSS): This method focuses on an individual’s primary economic activity over the course of a year. It considers an individual employed if they spent a relatively long time in economic activity during the previous year, even if they were unemployed for a significant portion of the year. This approach may lead to lower unemployment rates because it considers longer-term work patterns. Current Weekly Status (CWS): CWS, on the other hand, adopts a shorter reference period of one week. An individual is considered employed if they worked for at least one hour on at least one day during the seven days preceding the survey. This method is more sensitive to short-term employment fluctuations and may result in higher unemployment rates. Informal Economy: The definitions used in India are often tailored to capture the informal economy, where employment is characterized by irregular and casual work. This informal sector is a significant part of the Indian labour market, and traditional unemployment measures used in developed economies may not accurately reflect the employment dynamics in this context. Reasons for unemployment in India: Large population: The number of job seekers often exceeds the available job opportunities. Inadequate economic growth: Slow economic growth relative to the population growth rate means that the economy cannot create enough jobs to absorb the increasing workforce. Lack of vocational skills and education: Many job seekers in India lack the necessary vocational skills or have low educational qualifications, making them less competitive in the job market. Nearly 93% of the population in India did not receive any vocational or technical training, according to Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2017-18. Lack of employability: According to India Skills Report (ISR), less than half of the Indian graduates are employable. In 2021, as many as 45.9 per cent of graduates are employable, a decline from 46.21 per cent in 2020 and 47.38 per cent in 2010. Inadequate attention to small and medium enterprises (SMEs): SMEs are more labor intensive than that of large firms. However, big companies remain the main beneficiaries of the fiscal policy of the government. Agriculture as a seasonal occupation: Agriculture, which still employs a significant portion of the workforce, provides seasonal employment. Farmers and agricultural laborers often face unemployment during non-harvest seasons. Ineffective economic planning: A lack of comprehensive economic planning and policy measures to address the gap between labor supply and demand can result in unemployment. Impacts of unemployment in India: Poverty: Unemployment can indeed push individuals and families into poverty. This not only affects their living standards but can also have intergenerational consequences as children growing up in impoverished households may face limited opportunities. Social unrest: High levels of unemployment can lead to social unrest and protests. When a large segment of the population is without jobs and opportunities, frustration and discontent can build up, potentially resulting in civil unrest and protests. This can disrupt the social fabric and stability of a nation. Mental health issues: Prolonged unemployment can take a toll on individuals’ mental health. The stress and anxiety of not being able to find work, coupled with the social stigma often associated with unemployment, can lead to mental health problems such as depression, anxiety, and a loss of self-esteem. Economic loss: Unemployment results in an economic loss for a country. When people are not employed, they are not contributing to the country’s production and GDP. This can lead to lower economic growth and reduced overall prosperity. Reduced consumer spending: Unemployed individuals have less disposable income, which in turn leads to reduced consumer spending. This decrease in consumer demand can negatively affect businesses, leading to lower sales, layoffs, and potentially a vicious cycle of economic downturn. Steps taken to address unemployment by the government: Atma Nirbhar Bharat Package: The government announced the Aatmanirbhar Bharat package to stimulate business and mitigate the impact of COVID-19. It includes various long-term schemes and policies for self-reliance and employment opportunities. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS): Statutory guaranteed 100 days employment for an unskilled worker in rural areas. Startup India: The Startup India initiative is designed to encourage entrepreneurship and support the growth of startups. By fostering innovation and providing financial incentives, regulatory support, and mentorship, this program aims to create jobs and stimulate economic growth through the startup ecosystem. Make in India: The Make in India campaign promotes manufacturing and aims to transform India into a global manufacturing hub. By attracting both domestic and foreign investments in manufacturing, it seeks to create job opportunities in the industrial sector and boost economic growth. National Skill Development Mission: It was set up in November 2014 to drive the ‘Skill India’ agenda in a ‘Mission Mode’ in order to converge the existing skill training initiatives and combine scale and quality of skilling efforts, with speed. Source:  The Hindu End of Old Multilateralism – and the Beginning of a New Order Syllabus     Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: Post-Cold War, the multilateralism is past its peak — at both the global and regional levels. Recent East Asia Summit in Jakarta and the G20 summit in Delhi highlight the deep and arguably irreversible crises in the old multilateral order. About Multilateralism: The relationship between three or more groups of states is known as multilateralism. It consists of some qualitative principles that construct the character of an institution or arrangement. The principles are a commitment to the diffusion of reciprocity, indivisibility among participants on interest, and a system to settle disputes. The new multilateral world order is a term that refers to the emergence of new forms of cooperation and dialogue among different countries and regions in the 21st century. It is a response to the challenges and opportunities posed by globalization, climate change, pandemics, terrorism, and other issues that require collective action and shared solutions. Post-Cold War Multilateralism: The end of the Cold War at the turn of the 1990s created favourable conditions for an intensive phase of multilateralism. Europe moved towards rapid regional economic integration and expansion under the banner of the European Union. In Asia, the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) provided the framework for intensifying regional economic and political cooperation. Regionalism in Europe and Asia was facilitated by the end of the great power rivalry in both continents. Russia was drawn into the Group of Seven (G7) led by Western countries, making it the G8. Moscow was also engaged in consultations with the NATO. In Asia, China became a close partner for the US on economic and political fronts. This, in turn, translated into new possibilities for cooperation among major powers on global issues — such as the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction, climate change, and pandemics. Reasons behind Decline of Existing Multilateralism: Contradictions within the multilateral system: The multilateral system itself has faced internal contradictions and challenges. These internal disagreements and conflicting interests among member states have weakened the effectiveness of multilateral organizations and impeded consensus-building. Rise of alternative security forums: In response to China’s expansionism, alternative security forums like the Quad, AUKUS, and trilateral compacts have emerged. These forums reflect a shift away from traditional multilateral institutions, raising questions about the continuing relevance and centrality of existing regional organizations like ASEAN. Changing perspectives of key players: The changing perspectives of key players, such as India, have also contributed to the decline of existing multilateralism. India’s evolving view of the international order, shifting from concerns about a “unipolar Asia” dominated by China to a more proactive engagement with the United States and its allies, has altered the dynamics of multilateralism in the Indo-Pacific region. Rise of china and its expansionism: One of the primary reasons behind the decline of existing multilateralism is the rise of China as a global economic and military power. China’s expansionist policies, both in Asia and globally, challenge the existing multilateral order. Its unilateral efforts to alter borders with neighbours and its assertive territorial expansionism have created tensions and destabilized regional and global institutions. Impacts of Russian actions: The Russian occupation and annexation of Ukraine’s Crimea in 2014 (and ongoing war) marked a significant challenge to the post-Cold War security order, particularly in Europe. This event disrupted multilateralism by causing rifts and conflicts in the international community. Salient features of India’s new multilateral approach? Quad collaboration: At the Jakarta summit, Indian’s PM emphasizes that the Quad complements ASEAN’s efforts and promotes regional stability. The expansion and diversification of the existing multilateral institutions, such as the UN, the IMF, and the World Bank, to include more voices and perspectives from the developing world and the Global South. Focus on Re-globalisation: External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar advocates for a diversified, democratic globalisation, moving away from a China-centric production model. Collective responsibility: Despite challenges in multilateralism, India continues to seek collective solutions, focusing on diverse issues like modernising the global tax regime. Concerns of Global South: India prioritizes the concerns of the Global South in the G-20 agenda, aiming to enhance cooperation between developed and developing nations, rather than reviving old confrontational politics. Role of India: Acting as central player: India is emerging as a pivotal figure in shaping both regional and global dynamics, highlighted by its active participation in forums like the Indo-Pacific Quadrilateral Forum. Evolution of G20 grouping: India is pushing for the G20 to address the concerns of the Global South, signalling its desire to play a more substantial role in global economic discussions. Shifting alliances: Historically aligned with Moscow and Beijing for a multipolar world, India’s focus has shifted due to China’s increasing assertiveness, leading it closer to nations like Australia, Japan, and the US. Embracing the Indo-Pacific: India has adopted the Indo-Pacific concept and rejuvenated the Quad alliance to counterbalance China’s influence in the region. Way Forward: As a hosting country for G20 presidency, India can use G20 summit as an opportunity to showcase its vision and achievements as a global leader, as well as to forge consensus on important issues such as climate change, sustainable development, health security, and digital transformation. It offers the perfect platform for India to infuse partner nations with foundational ideas and pave the way for the beginning of a new world order. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: International Organization HQ 1.Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries Vienna, Austria 2.Food and Agriculture Organization Rome, Italy 3.WHO New York City, USA How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Malaviya Mission-Teachers Training Programme is organized by the University Grants Commission only. Statement-II: It aligns with the goals of the National Education Policy (NEP). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Africa Climate Summit 2023, consider the following statements: It will be hosted by Egypt. Global Capital optimization is one of the focus areas. It will address the increasing exposure to climate change and its associated costs, only in Africa. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Elucidate on the social and economic impacts of unemployment problems in India. What innovative strategies do you suggest to unemployment rate in India? (250 words) Q.2) Discuss the reasons behind the decline of the old World Order and emergence of new multilateral world order. What is the significance for India in this context? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  8th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 7th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Build Operate Transfer (BOT) model Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Minister of Road Transport and Highways Nitin Gadkari recently suggested the revival of the Build Operate Transfer (BOT) model via smaller highway projects. Background:- Minister of Road Transport and Highways said that the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) and other road-building agencies should look at reviving the Build Operate Transfer (BOT) model by putting up projects costing less than Rs 1,000 crore for award through this route. The minister’s comments came amid a prolonged dearth of private investments in the sector caused much strain on the exchequer. About Build Operate Transfer (BOT) model:- IMAGE SOURCE: apollobt.com A build-operate-transfer (BOT) contract is a model used to finance large projects, typically infrastructure projects developed through public-private partnerships. They are normally large-scale, greenfield infrastructure projects that would otherwise be financed, built, and operated solely by the government. Under a build-operate-transfer (BOT) contract, an entity—usually a government—grants a concession to a private company to finance, build, and operate a project for a period of 20 to 30 years, hoping to earn a profit. After that period, the project is returned to the public entity that originally granted the concession. Other commonly used PPP investment models in India:- Build ,Operate ,Least ,Transfer (BOLT):– In this approach, the government gives a concession to a private entity to build a facility (and possibly design it as well), own the facility, and lease the facility to the public sector. At the end of the lease period transfer the ownership of the facility to the government. Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM):- The central government bears 40% of the project cost. The remaining amount is arranged by the developer. Engineering, Procurement and Construction Model (EPC) The EPC Model partnership requires the government to undertake the total funding of the project. The Private sector partner provides the engineering and construction requirements. About the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI):- Establishment: Ministry: Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. NHAI is an autonomous agency of the Union Government, responsible for the management of a network of over 70,000 km of national highways in India. It is a statutory body. It was established through the National Highways Authority of India Act, 1988. 1995: It was formally made an autonomous body. It is responsible for the development, management, operation, and maintenance of National Highways. MUST READ: Forum for Decarbonizing Transport SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following infrastructure sectors: (2023) Affordable housing Mass rapid transport Healthcare Renewable energy On how many of the above do UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiatives focus on investments? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) About three-fourths of the world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by (2023) Argentina Botswana Democratic Republic. of the Congo Kazakhstan Adopt a Heritage 2.0 programme Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) recently, launched the revamped ‘Adopt a Heritage 2.0’ programme. Background:- Apart from the programme an Indian Heritage app was also launched. The app, provides a comprehensive guide to monuments under ASI’s ambit. It lists historical structures along with pictures, public facilities available on site and geo-tagged locations. About Adopt a Heritage 2.0 programme:- Launched: 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Culture. Implementing Agency: Archaeological Survey of India Salient Features:- Under this programme, the Archeological Survey of India (ASI) invites corporate stakeholders to enhance the amenities at the monuments by utilizing their CSR funds. The programme is a revamped version of the earlier scheme launched in 2017. (Need for heritage conservation) It clearly defines the amenities sought for different monuments as per the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act or AMASR Act 1958. The stakeholders can apply for adopting a monument or specific amenity/ amenities at a monument through a URL indianheritage.gov.in. The portal contains the details of monuments sought for adoption dedicated web portal along with gap analysis and financial estimation of amenities. Selection:- The process for selection will be carried out after due diligence and discussions with various stakeholders and assessing the economic and developmental opportunities at each monument. The selected stakeholders will develop, provide, and/or maintain amenities in hygiene, accessibility, safety, and knowledge categories. (Indian Institute of Heritage) Significance:- The programme seeks to foster collaboration with corporate stakeholders through which they can contribute to preserving these monuments. MUST READ: World Heritage Sites Under Threat SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with (2023) archaeological excavations establishment of the English Press in colonial India establishment of Churches in Princely States construction of railways in colonial India Article 371 D Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: The students of Andhra Pradesh stare at the prospect of losing ‘local quota’ in educational institutions as Article 371 D may not come to their rescue when the validity of the A.P. Reorganisation Act ceases after the 10-year period in May 2024. Background:- The teaching fraternity and the student community fear the prospect of losing the ‘local quota’ in educational institutions in the near future. Their fear stems from the fact that the Andhra Pradesh Reorganization Act, which came into force in May 2014, is valid only for 10 years. This means that the rules and regulations formulated prior to the bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh will not hold good after May 2024. About Article 371 D:- Article 371 of the Indian Constitution deals with special provisions for eleven states of the Indian Union. It is a part of XXI of the Constitution of India, Article 371. Beneficiary states:- This Article ranges from Article 371-A to Article 371-J. It gives special provisions for the states of Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Goa and Karnataka. The main objectives behind Article 371 granting special provisions to some states are:- To meet the unique needs of the backward regions of these states. Protect the economic and cultural interests of these regions. Combat the local challenges and protect the customary laws in these regions. Article 371D, gives special provisions for the state of Andhra Pradesh. It was added to the Constitution in 1974 by the 32nd Amendment Act, 1973. It states that: the president must ensure “equitable opportunities and facilities” in “public employment and education to people from different parts of the state”. He may require the state government to organize “any class or classes of posts in the civil service of, or any class or classes of civil posts under, the State into different local cadres for different parts of the State”. He has similar powers vis-à-vis admissions in educational institutions. Benefits:- It provides equitable opportunities and facilities for the people of the state. It safeguards their rights in matters of employment and education. (Domicile-based job quota) The state government may organize civil posts or direct recruitment to posts in the local cadre as required. MUST READ: Asymmetrical federalism SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider · the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: (2023) Statement-I: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26 November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India· set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) Syllabus Prelims – Economy/ Science and Technology Context: Recently, the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) launched a slew of new payment options on payment platforms UPI. Background:- Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor Shaktikanta Das announced the launch of the products by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) at the ongoing Global Fintech Festival in Mumbai. The latest offerings are aimed at creating an inclusive, resilient, and sustainable digital payments ecosystem and will help UPI achieve the target of 100 billion transactions per month. About National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):- Establishment:2008. HQ: It was established under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. Objective: to create a robust Payment and settlement Infrastructure in India. It is an umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India. It is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA). It has been incorporated as a “Not for Profit” Company under the provisions of Section 25 of the Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013), with an intention to provide infrastructure to the entire Banking system in India for physical as well as electronic payment and settlement systems. Important Services Offered by NPCI:- Bharat Bill Payment Interface (BBPI): It was developed by the NPCI to help the retail payments sector. National Automated Clearing House (NACH): an offline web-based system for bulk push and pull transactions which provides an electronic mandate platform to register mandates facilitating paper paperless collection processes for corporates and banks. Immediate Payment Service (IMPS): It gives the option to transfer funds immediately and is available at any given time. Aadhaar-enabled Payment System (AePS): It has been introduced to access funds at the doorstep & and drive financial inclusion in India. RuPay: It is an affordable card and can be issued as credit cards, debit cards, and prepaid cards. (RuPay Debit Cards and BHIM UPI) USSD Services: It was introduced by the NPCI to allow individuals to make banking solutions without the need for the internet or smartphones. BHIM: It uses UPI to complete payment transfers. No smartphone is required to transfer funds via BHIM. United Payments Interface (UPI): It allows you to transfer funds from your smartphone. Money is transferred directly from one bank to another. (India’s UPI Push) MUST READ: UPI and NPCI Regulation SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: (2022) They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Vijayawada Railway Station was certified with a Platinum rating by the Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) recently. Background:- In the recertification process this year, Vijayawada railway station outperformed and immensely improvised its amenities in almost all aspects compared to the 2019 Gold Standard Rating and clinched the Platinum standard IGBC Rating. About Indian Green Building Council (IGBC):- Establishment:2001. HQ: The Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) is a part of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII). Vision: To enable a sustainable built environment for all and facilitate India to be one of the global leaders in the sustainable built environment by 2025. IGBC is India’s Premier certification body. It is also among the 5 countries that are on the board of the World Green Building Council, discussing global issues at COP and similar global platforms. (Green Buildings Need & Benefits) Green building movement: It is a Pan India movement with over 10,930 projects with a green footprint of over 10.26 billion sq. ft. IGBC is working closely with the Government of India on green building projects for more than 1000 projects across the country. Today, more than 90% of green buildings in the country are being facilitated by IGBC and more than 3,480 projects are certified & and fully operational. IGBC-rated green projects are encouraged by Central and State government incentives in 12 Indian states. IGBC is National by Choice and Global in Performance. All the stakeholders of the construction industry comprising architects, developers, product manufacturers, corporate, Government, academia and nodal agencies participate in the council activities. The council also closely works with several State Governments, the Central Governmethe nt, the World Green Building Council, and bilateral multi-lateral agencies in promoting green building concepts in the country. Services offered:- Developing new green building rating programmes Certification services and green building training programmes. Organizing Green Building Congress which is an annual flagship event on green buildings. MUST READ: 12th GRIHA (Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment) Summit SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2  Q.2) Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Comet Nishimura Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recent reports suggest, that Comet Nishimura could be visible in September. Background:- As per NASA ‘It seems like a good bet’ that Comet Nishimura could become visible to the naked eye this September (2023). Its orbit could bring it on a close approach to Earth on 12, September 2023, when it could be as close as 125 million kilometers away. About Comet Nishimura:- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideServe Discovered on: August 11, 2023. Discovered by: Hideo Nishimura. (Bernardinelli-Bernstein comet) It was discovered during 30-second exposures with a standard digital camera. Comet Nishimura was imaged from June Lake, California, USA. Comets: Comets are celestial objects composed of frozen gases, dust, and rocks that orbit the Sun. They originate from the early solar system and develop tails when they approach the Sun due to the release of gas and dust. These tails make them visible from Earth. It was pictured sporting a green coma and a thin tail. It’s expected to brighten to a magnitude of 1.8. Its closest approach to us will be on Sep 12 and its perihelion on Sep 17/18. The comet is currently located in the constellation Leo. Constellation Leo: A prominent constellation in the night sky, represented by the shape of a lion. It is one of the zodiac constellations and contains various stars and celestial objects. The constellation is visible toward the east-northeastern horizon about 90 minutes before sunrise. As the comet approaches the sun, the visitor is also getting closer to the horizon, thus making it more difficult to observe it after this week. Since its discovery, C/2023 P1 Nishimura has increased in brightness and its path across the inner Solar System determined. As the comet dives toward the Sun, it will surely continue to intensify and possibly become a naked-eye object in early September. The comet will also be angularly near the Sun, so it will only be possible to see it near sunset or sunrise.  MUST READ: Exoplanets SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface speed. Mains: One Nation One Election' system (ONOE) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The ‘one nation one election’ proposal was mooted yet again by the government. About ‘One Nation One Election’ system: Current system: The country holds separate polls for the Lok Sabha and state Assemblies in a gap of five years, i.e. When the tenure of the Lower House or the state government concludes, or either of them is dissolved prematurely. The term of state assemblies may not necessarily be in sync with one another or that of the Lok Sabha. As a result, the mammoth task of conducting elections goes all round the year. One Nation One Election proposes that simultaneous elections be held in all states and the Lok Sabha in a gap of five years. This would mean that the voters will cast their vote for electing members of the LS and the state assemblies on a single day, at the same time (or in a phased manner as the case may be). Background of ONOE: Simultaneous elections have previously been conducted in India in 1952, 1957, 1962 and 1967. Soon after, this norm was discontinued following the dissolution of some Legislative Assemblies between 1968 -69. Since then, the Indian Electoral system holds polls to Centre and states separately. Important articles to be amended to conduct ONOE: Article 172 and Article 83 deal with the duration of the Houses of Parliament, and guarantee a five-year term to both the elected Lok Sabha and state assemblies, unless they are dissolved sooner. Article 85 of the Indian Constitution deals with the powers of the President to summon Parliamentary sessions, not exceeding a gap of more than six months. The President also carries the power to adjourn either House of the Parliament and the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Article 356 of the Indian Constitution, comes into action in case of governance and constitutional failure in a state and deals with the President’ Rule. Amendments in the People’s Representation Act, 1951(RPA Act 1951) and the Anti Defection Law must be made for organised conduct and stability in both Lok Sabha and state assemblies. Arguments in favour of ONOE: Reduction of Financial burden on state exchequer: Continuous election cycles are a financial burden on the state exchequer. ONOE will reduce the overall expenditure on political process by ECI. Focus on governance instead of being in ‘election mode’: One nation one election” will ensure continuity of policies and programmes of the central and state governments. It will reduce disruption of normal public life as political rallies will be kept to a minimum. It will improve the delivery of essential services to public. Better utilisation of financial resources by political parties: Simultaneous elections will reduce the campaign expenditure of political parties and the candidates. This will help smaller regional parties in better management of financial resources. Reduced duration of ‘model code of conduct: Frequent imposition of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) during polls stalls all development work for months at a time. It will reduce ‘policy paralysis’ that results from the imposition of the Model Code of Conduct during election time. Increase of administrative efficiency: During elections the entire state machinery focuses on conducting a free and fair electoral process which impacts the everyday administration because officials are engaged in polling duties. ONOE will increase efficiency of administrative system. Increase of voter turnout-: According to the Law Commission, ONOE will increase voter turnout because it will be easier for people to cast many votes all at once. Reduced use of black money: Elections involve considerable expenditure by prospective candidates most of which is black money. ONOE will reduce the circulation of black money in economy. Improvement in social harmony: Frequent elections perpetuate caste, religion, and communal issues across the country as elections are polarising events that have accentuated casteism, communalism, and corruption. ONOE would reduce the fault lines between communities created due to multiple elections. Arguments against ONOE: Only states are contesting: ‘India’ does not have an election every year, one of India’s States does. So, when there are elections in a few States, ‘India’ is not in an election mode; some of India’s States are. All of India’s major political parties are not in an election mode, only some are. Against India’s federalism: Each of India’s States has different political cultures and parties. An elected Chief Minister of a State has the powers to recommend dissolution of their State legislatures and call for early elections. Under a ‘one election’ framework, state parties will not have the right to do this. These powers will be taken away from the States and only the Union government will have the powers to dictate the election schedule for every State. Increase in cost: In the short term, simultaneous elections will increase the costs for deploying far larger numbers of electronic voting machines and control units. Political parties and candidates may spend a lot more money on elections than the government but that is not the tax-payers’ money. On the contrary, there is economic research to suggest that such election spending by parties and candidates actually benefits the economy and the government’s tax revenues by boosting private consumption and serving as a stimulus. Works for presidential system: A single election calendar may work in a presidential system where the survival of the executive is not dependent upon a legislative majority. Unworkable and unfeasible: ‘One nation one election’ is a politically unfeasible, administratively unworkable and constitutionally unviable proposition. Way Forward: The concept of ‘One India One Election’ holds promise as a positive change, provided it is executed with meticulous attention to policies and regulations. Addressing the growing demand for skilled administrative staff and heightened security is crucial. Forming a dedicated group consisting of constitutional experts, think tanks, government officials, and political party representatives is essential to working out the intricate details of implementation. Source: Indian Express Criminalising Ecocide Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment) Context: Recently Mexico’s ‘Maya train’ project has been criticised as a “megaproject of death” causing an ecological disaster in the region. The Tribunal for the Rights of Nature said the project caused “crimes of ecocide and ethnocide”. About Ecocide: It is defined as “as unlawful or wanton acts committed with knowledge that there is a substantial likelihood of severe and either widespread or long-term damage to the environment being caused by those acts”. Commonly cited examples include: Deforestation during the Vietnam War, The destruction of the environment during the Russian invasion of Ukraine, deforestation in Indonesia and the Amazon rainforest, Oil pollution in the Niger Delta and the Chernobyl disaster. The term was popularised by Olof Palme when he accused the United States of ecocide at the 1972 UN Conference on the Human Environment. There is no international law against ecocide that applies in peacetime, but the Rome Statute makes it a crime. The Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court (ICC) deals with four atrocities: genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and the crime of aggression. The provision on war crimes is the only statute that can hold a perpetrator responsible for environmental damage, but only if it is intentional and in wartime. Ecocide – a crime: Ecocide is a crime in 11 countries, with 27 others considering laws to criminalise environmental damage that is wilfully caused and harms humans, animals, and plants. The European Parliament voted unanimously this year to enshrine ecocide in law. Most national definitions penalise “mass destruction of flora and fauna”, “poisoning the atmosphere or water resources” or “deliberate actions capable of causing an ecological disaster.” The ICC and Ukraine’s public prosecutor are also investigating Russia’s role in the collapse of the Nova Kakhovka dam, which unleashed a flood that drowned 40 regions, and released oils and toxic fluids into the Black Sea. Significant evidences to consider ecocide as a crime: Over a third of the earth’s animal and plant species could be extinct by 2050. Unprecedented heat waves have broken records worldwide. Changing rainfall schemes have disrupted flood and drought patterns. Deforestation of the Amazon, deep-sea trawling or even the catastrophic 1984 Bhopal gas disaster could have been avoided with ecocide laws in place. Ecocide laws could also double up as calls for justice for low- and middle-income countries disproportionately affected by climate change. Limitations in defining ecocide as a crime: Varied arguments: Regarding the need for a separate law and the definition of ‘ecocide’. Ambiguous definition: Words like “long-term” or “widespread damage” are abstract and leave room for misinterpretation. Complexity: This constructs a development-versus-environment narrative, with the implication that it is okay to destroy the environment as long as it benefits humans. Great Nicobar Project is criticised for endangering indigenous communities and biodiversity. But the government claims the Project is in service of holistic development. Threshold– In 1940 genocide requires proof on two accounts Mens rea (an intention to kill) and Actus reus (a guilty act) — to prove a crime was committed. It creates confusion as some argue that environmental disasters are not caused intentionally or deliberately. Limited power to ICC: ICC has a low track record when it comes to converting prosecutions into convictions. The court’s power is limited to “natural persons,” and without any changes, ICC would be unable to hold corporate entities criminally liable. India and Ecocide: Chandra CFS and Terminal Operators Pvt. Ltd. v. The Commissioner of Customs and Ors (2015) case: The Madras High Court noted “the prohibitory activities of ecocide has been continuing unbridled by certain sections of people by removing the valuable and precious timbers”. N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs Union of India & Ors: The Supreme Court called attention to an “anthropogenic bias” and argued that “environmental justice could be achieved only if we drift away from the principle of anthropocentric to ecocentric”. India’s legislative framework vis-à-vis environmental and ecological governance includes: The Environmental (Protection) Act 1986, The Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, and The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (CAMPA) 2016, as well as separate Rules to prevent air and water pollution. The National Green Tribunal, India’s apex environmental statutory body, does not have the jurisdiction to hear matters related to The Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, The Indian Forest Act 1927, and Other State-enacted laws. Indian laws are themselves in a state of conflict: The Parliament passed the controversial Forest Conservation (Amendment) Bill 2023 and Biodiversity (Amendment) Bill 2023, which experts have said will dilute current legal protections and will lead to the loss of 20-25% of forest area in the country and the attendant biodiversity and ecosystem issues. Way Forward: Therefore an ecocide law should be a part of the broader process of changing public consciousness, recognising that we are in a relationship with our environment, we are dependent for our well-being on the wellbeing of the environment. India needs to first bring its environmental laws in tune with ecocide idea before the ecocide laws come up internationally. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Investment Model Description 1.Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM) Both the government and a private entity own and develop the facility simultaneously bearing 50% of the project cost each. 2.BOLT The central government bears 40% of the project cost and the remaining amount is arranged by the developer. 3.EPC The government undertakes the total funding of the project while the Private sector partner provides the engineering and construction requirements. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) was established in 2009. Statement-II: It is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Article 371D, consider the following statements: It was added to the Constitution in 1974 by the 22nd Amendment Act, of 1973. It safeguards rights in matters of employment and education. It gives special provisions for the state of Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None  Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Analyse the historical background of the “One Nation One Election” concept in India. Highlight the key advantages it offers and the legal challenges associated with its implementation. Suggest measures to address these challenges? (250 words) Q.2) What do you mean by ecocide? Elucidate the implications of making it a crime on environmental protection and corporate accountability. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  7th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a