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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 8th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) LIGO-India Project Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: As per recent reports, the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory project (LIGO)-India, is the next focus of Indian scientists after the Chandrayaan and Aditya missions. Background:- Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory project (LIGO) observatory. About Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory project (LIGO)-India:- IMAGE SOURCE: LIGO-INDIA Location: Hingoli district of Maharashtra, India. Built by: the Department of Atomic Energy and the Department of Science and Technology with an MoU with the U.S. National Science Foundation. The LIGO-India Project aims to detect gravitational waves from the universe. Gravitational waves: They were first postulated (1916) in Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity. These waves are produced by the movement of massive celestial bodies, such as black holes or neutron stars They are the ripples in spacetime that propagate outward. Four comparable detectors will be operating simultaneously around the globe to localize a source of gravitational waves anywhere in the sky. (International Space Station (ISS)) LIGO-India will be the third of its kind in the world. (Space Economy of India) It is made to the exact specifications of the twin LIGO, in Louisiana (first) and Washington (second) in the U.S. The fourth detector will be in Kagra, Japan. LIGO: an international network of laboratories that detect gravitational waves. The LIGO in the US first detected gravitational waves in 2015, which led to a Nobel Prize in Physics in 2017. Significance:- It will bring India into a prestigious international scientific experiment. It will bring advances in astronomy, astrophysics, and cutting-edge technology. MUST READ: SpaceTech Innovation Network (SpIN) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘black holes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation? (2019) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected. ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected. Possibility of intergalactic space travel through a ‘wormhole’ was confirmed. It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’. Classical dances of Kerala Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Various classical dances of Kerala were performed during Onam celebrations held recently. Background:- This year, Onam festivities began on 20th August 2023 and Thiruvonam fell on August 31 as the 10-day harvest festival was observed across the South Indian state of Kerala. It marks the beginning of the Malayalam year, called Kolla Varsham, and commemorates the return of the mythical King Mahabali with great enthusiasm and cultural fervor. About Classical dances of Kerala:- Kerala is known for its rich cultural heritage. (Karakattam dance) It includes various classical dance forms, some of these performed during Onam 2023 celebrations include:- Kathakali:- It originated in Kerala over 300 years ago. (Kathakali dance) It is one of the most famous classical dance forms of the state. It is One of the eight classical dances of India. It is a highly stylized and dramatic art form combining the elements of dance, music, acting, devotion, drama, costumes, and make-up. Kathakali performances retell the great stories of the past, mostly from Indian epics, or depict episodes from the Mahabali legend or other mythological stories associated with the festival, using hand and facial gestures and expressions. Mohiniyattam:– It is a graceful and lyrical dance form. (Mohiniyattam) It is performed in honor of the Hindu god Vishnu in his incarnation as the enchantress Mohini. It is One of the eight classical dances of India. It is performed exclusively by women. It is characterized by gentle, flowing movements and expressive storytelling, narrating the stories related to King Mahabali during the Onam festival. Koodiyattam:- It is recognized as a UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage. It is one of the oldest classical theater forms in the world. It involves elaborate and ritualistic performances with traditional costumes and makeup. It depicts stories from Hindu epics and Puranas that are sometimes staged during Onam. Thiruvathirakali:- It is a traditional group dance. It involves graceful circular movements by the women and clapping of their hands to the rhythm of the music. This group dance is often performed by women. It is considered a celebration of womanhood. It is mostly performed in the evening under the moonlight. Chakyar Koothu:- It is a traditional solo performance. It has the artist narrating episodes from epics like the Ramayana and the Mahabharata in a humorous and dramatic manner on Onam. It is not a dance form per se. It is an integral part of Kerala’s performing arts tradition. Ottamthullal:- The dance form was created by the renowned Malayalam poet Kunchan Nambiar. It involves a single performer narrating stories with dance and song in a satirical and humorous style. The performance is accompanied by a mridangam (barrel-shaped drum). MUST READ: National Tribal Dance Festival 2022 SOURCE: HIDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Gramodyog Vikas Yojna Syllabus Prelims – Government Initiatives Context: The Lieutenant Governor of Delhi, Shri Vinai Kumar Saxena, distributed Honey Bee-Boxes and Toolkits under the ‘Gramodyog Vikas Yojna’ recently. Background:- The Lieutenant Governor of Delhi, Shri Vinai Kumar Saxena, distributed Honey Bee-Boxes and Toolkits to 130 beneficiaries. The program was organized under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC), Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, State Office Delhi, Government of India. Addressing the occasion, Shri Vinai Kumar Saxena emphasized the vital role played by the Khadi and Village Industries Commission in generating employment opportunities in rural India. About Gramodyog Vikas Yojna:- Launched: March 2020. Ministry: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) Objective: assisting and developing of agarbatti industry and its artisans. The programme aims to enhance the production of ‘Agarbatti’ in the country. It aims to create sustainable employment for the traditional Artisans, by providing them with regular employment and an increase in their wages. Components of the Yojana:- Research & Development and Product Innovation: R&D; support would be given to the institutions that intend to carry out product development, new innovations, design development, product diversification processes, etc. Capacity Building: exclusive capacity building of staff, as well as the artisans, would be adequately addressed through the existing Multidisciplinary Training Centers (MDTCs) and institutions of excellence. Marketing & Publicity: The institutions will be provided market support. (Effects of globalization on the rural population of India) About Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC):- Establishment: 1957. Ministry: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises It is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act, of 1956. Objectives of KVIC:- To boost employment in the country. (Project Re-Hab) To promote the promotion and sale of Khadi articles. Function:- It is charged with the planning, promotion, organization, and implementation of programmes for the development of Khadi and other village industries in rural areas. It coordinates with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary. MUST READ: Rural Manufacturing SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following organisms perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Commission for Schedule Tribes (NCST) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Kalahandi Gram Sabhas wrote to the National Commission for Schedule Tribes (NCST), invoking an atrocities act against the Jharkhand Divisional Forest Officer (DFO), recently. Background of the issue:- DFO illegally seized a consignment of kendu leaves being transported from Odisha to West Bengal, a federation of Gram Sabhas alleges. The Kasturapadar and Khasiguda Gram Sabhas of the federation had issued transit permits to a company, Green India, for carrying kendu leaves (also known as tendu), which are used to roll beedi, from Kalahandi to Dhulian in West Bengal in May this year. On May 31, the company’s truck, along with 400 sacks of kendu, was seized during transit by the DFO of Simdega forest division in Jharkhand. The Mahasangh has alleged that the seizure is in violation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 (FRA) and the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989: It is an Act to prevent the commission of offenses of atrocities against the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. It provides for Special Courts for the trial of such offenses for the relief and rehabilitation of the victims of such offenses and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. The letter dated June 19, 2023, appealed NSCT to take legal action against the Simdega DFO for “illegal interference with the enjoyment of forest rights of Schedule Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers”. About the National Commission for Schedule Tribes (NCST):- Establishment: Ministry: Ministry of Tribal Affairs. HQ: New Delhi. It was established by amending Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A. It was done through the Constitution through the Constitution (89th Amendment) Act, 2003. By this amendment, the erstwhile National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was replaced by two separate Commissions namely:- National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC), and National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) The commission submits its report to the President annually. It gives data on the working of safeguards and measures required for the effective implementation of Programmers/ Schemes relating to the welfare and socio-economic development of STs. Structure:- Term of office of Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and each member: three years from the date of assumption of charge. Chairperson has been given the rank of Union Cabinet Minister. Vice-Chairperson that of a Minister of State Other Members have the ranks of a Secretary to the Government of India. Powers:- NCST is empowered to investigate and monitor matters relating to safeguards provided for STs under the Constitution under other laws or under Govt. order. It is also authorized to inquire into specific complaints relating to the rights and safeguards of STs and to participate. It can advise in the Planning Process relating to the socio-economic development of STs and evaluate the progress of their development under the Union and States.  MUST READ: Addition of Tribes in ST List SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Q.2) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho, and Kui’ pertain to  (2021) dance forms of Northwest India musical instruments pre-historic cave paintings tribal languages Africa Climate Summit 2023 Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently, Africa Climate Summit 2023 was inaugurated. Background:- Despite having a small carbon footprint, Africa disproportionately bears the human toll of climate change. Thus, highlighting the urgent need for regional and global action, President William Ruto reminded us while inaugurating the Africa Climate Summit, 2023 (ACW23) on September 4, 2023, in Nairobi, Kenya. About Africa Climate Summit 2023:- Date: 4th to 6th September 2023. Venue: Nairobi, Kenya. (Africa) The summit aims to address the increasing exposure to climate change and its associated costs, both globally and particularly in Africa. At the Africa Climate Summit, leaders will be called upon to make ambitious pledges and commitments. A comprehensive “Pledging and Commitment Framework” will be developed to guide these actions. The outcomes of the summit are critical for the African continent to arrive at a consensus and mobilize action in the lead-up to the upcoming 28th Conference of Parties (COP28) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change to be hosted in Dubai, United Arab Emirates. Theme & Focus Areas:- Climate Action Financing. Green Growth Agenda for Africa. Climate Action and Economic Development. Global Capital optimization. MUST READ: 27th COP of UNFCCC SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Thal Sena Bhawan Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: As per recent reports, the Indian Army’s new Thal Sena Bhawan will conform with GRIHA-IV (Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment) norms. Background:- The Indian Army’s new Thal Sena Bhawan (TSB), coming up on a sprawling 39-acre site with a built-up area of 143,450 sq. m. The building will be ready by May-June 2025. About Thal Sena Bhawan:- Area:143,450 sq. m. It has been designed to be earthquake-resistant. The complex is designed to cater to the needs of 5,600 personnel. It will bring together the Indian Army Headquarters currently split into eight pockets across Delhi, including South Block, Sena Bhawan, Hutments Area, R. K. Puram, and Shankar Vihar. Thal Sena Bhawan adheres to GRIHA-IV specifications and criteria. For instance, the topsoil of the entire site will be preserved, and its fertility will be maintained during the construction phase. This preserved soil will then be used for landscaping the area after construction. GRIHA: It is the national rating system that evaluates the environmental performance of a building holistically over its entire life cycle. It evaluates the environmental performance of a building holistically over its entire life cycle, thereby providing a definitive standard for what constitutes a ‘green building’. These buildings consume resources from municipal wastes or indirectly from emissions of electricity generation. The rating system, based on accepted energy and environmental principles, will seek to strike a balance between the established practices and emerging concepts, both national and international. It is under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. The ‘Thal Sena Bhawan’ is conceptualized as a multi-story green building. ( Green Buildings Need & Benefits) It will house offices, a residential area for security personnel, and basic amenities. Significance:- The new structure will bring together various pockets of the Army headquarters spread across Delhi under one roof. It will improve working efficiency while reducing the carbon footprint and logistics requirements. It would also allow more family time for all personnel at peace posting in Delhi. The newly created Department of Military Affairs (DMA) headed by the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) will work from here. This will help in jointness. MUST READ: 12th GRIHA (Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment) Summit SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 AG-365S Drone Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: Recently, AG-365S of Marut Drones became the first DGCA-certified drone for dual usage. Background:- Marut Drones has secured type certification approvals from the Director General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) for its AG-365S kisan drone for use in agriculture and also for drone pilot training given by the remote pilot training organization (RPTO). This certification allows the drone to be used in agriculture as well as for drone pilot training. About AG-365S Drone:- Developed by: Marut Drones. Marut Drones: an Indian drone technology company based in Hyderabad. It is the first multi-utility agriculture small-category drone in India to receive the DGCA-approved type certificate. DGCA (Director General of Civil Aviation): The regulatory body responsible for overseeing civil aviation operations in India, including the certification and regulation of drones. It is a ‘Made-in-India’ kisan drone. It has been developed to help farmers reduce crop losses, lower the use of agrochemicals, and improve yields as well as profits. It aims to enhance crop yields, reduce agrochemical usage, and minimize crop losses. It is a multi-utility agricultural drone in the small category (less than 25kg). It has a flight endurance of 22 minutes. It is equipped with high-end sensors for smooth operations. It has undergone extensive testing to ensure the highest quality. It is a small-category drone developed by the Hyderabad-based Indian company. It has advanced features, including obstacle and terrain sensors. It has the capacity for multiple agricultural tasks. It is equipped with multiple payloads. One AG-365S can be used for spraying pesticides, and granular spreaders. MUST READ: MQ-9B Predator Drone SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Q.2) The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to (2020) Voyager-2 New Horizons LISA Pathfinder Evolved LISA Mains: Should Agriculture Income be Taxed? Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: Recently, the debates were floated around exemptions and non-taxation of agricultural income in India. Agriculture employs about 50% of the population contributing approximately 17% to the GDP of the country. According to Indian Constitution, agriculture and the taxation of agricultural incomes has been a state subject. Accordingly, section 10(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, exempts agricultural income from taxation by the central government. This has led to rich farmers and landlords immune from the tax net. History of Taxing Agriculture income: The issue of taxing agricultural income (and wealth) goes back to the 1960s. Seventh Schedule, entry 82 in the Union List mentions taxes other than agricultural income, while Entry 46 in the State List mentions taxes on agricultural income. Therefore, arguing that this is in the State List is valid. Income Tax Act of 1860 (which introduced income tax in India) it taxed agricultural income till 1886. Income tax act 1961 had provisions for taxing agricultural income. Agricultural Income Tax Acts are present in Bihar, Assam, Bengal, Orissa, Uttar Pradesh, Hyderabad, Travancore and Cochin and Madras and Old Mysore State. Therefore, states tax some kinds of agricultural income, such as plantations. Significance of not taxing agricultural income: No revenue potential: Around 95% of the total assets are owned by small and marginal farmers which means only 5% of the farmers will be liable to pay the tax. Therefore, it will not have major revenue potential. So, the tax income would be very limited and it is not worth consideration. Burden on the poor: The income of small and marginal farmers is very low; they can hardly earn a living and thus are left with either no savings or a very small amount. The average per month income of a farm household in India in 2012-13 as per the National Sample Survey Office was just Rs. 6,491. The income-expenditure gap for a majority of farmers is in the negative. Lack of documentation and records: The small farmers are usually illiterate and uninformed and thus they are unaware of the procedure to make proper documentation of their land. Reduction in credits: If agricultural tax is imposed on farmers, it will reduce their chances of getting significant credits and it will lead to credit flowing only to rich farmers, as they’ll have a higher income to show. May lead to suicides: With so many farmers committing suicide because of pending debts, low productivity and small income, imposing agriculture tax may even increase the suicide rate. Fluctuating incomes and profit margins: There is a large fluctuation in the annual income of farmers. Harvests are unpredictable as they are affected by weather, disease and pests. Various challenges: Political will: Many states may have been reluctant to tax agriculture incomes as they do not wish to lose vote bank of farmers. Moreover, India’s state legislatures have typically been populated by land owners who have been blocking efforts to impose a tax on themselves. Cash transactions: In India in particular, agriculture is harder to tax as it is based largely on cash transactions which are hard to track and trace. Cash transactions not routed through the banking system are difficult to verify and be used for assessment of agricultural incomes. Burden small farmers: In a country where 83% of the farming community comprises small and marginal farmers. Many farmers do not hold land and work on contract. Rich farmers would pass on the burden of tax on these farmers. Fraud “farmer” certificates: There is also a significant lack of credibility about the way states issue “farmer” certificates. Way Forward A bold and dynamic approach is needed in India whereby all the stakeholders to organize a conclave to debate and discuss the issues concerning taxation of agricultural income in India. Agricultural income taxation must be integrated with non-agricultural income taxation. Land revenue tax hasn’t quite worked and must be replaced. If implemented this would be an indirect tax on commodities, like an excise or sales tax, which will get subsumed under GST. The income of the farmer will still be outside the ambit of income tax. The underlying argument in the current discussion is to bring more people under the tax net to expand the tax base and also curb tax evasion. Source:LM Maritime Infrastructure Perspective Plan (MIPP) 2023-37 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS3 (Security) Context: The Minister of State for Defence recently released the Maritime Infrastructure Perspective Plan (MIPP), 2023-37 at the second edition of the biennial Naval Commanders Conference. About Maritime Infrastructure Perspective Plan (MIPP): It aims to synchronise and enmesh the infrastructure requirements of the Navy, over the next 15 years, through a comprehensive perspective plan model. It is aligned with the government’s vision on creation of sustainable infrastructure, and encompasses salient for compliance with broader policy directives on PM Gati Shakti project, disaster resilience, transition to net zero, among others. The Navy received a revised set of “IRS Rules and Regulations Handbook for Construction and Classification of Naval Combatants” to accommodate technological advancements and promote self-reliance in naval shipbuilding. This rule book represents the self-reliance of the naval shipbuilding industry and aims to keep pace with modern technology. Two new initiatives: the “Family Logbook for Defence Civilian Personnel of the Indian Navy” for personal records and the “Electronic Service Document Project” to enhance HR records within the Navy. Significance of Maritime security for India: India as a maritime nation: With 12 major and 200+ non-major ports situated along its 7500 km long coastline and a vast network of navigable waterways. Trade: The country’s maritime sector plays a crucial role in its overall trade and growth, with 95% of the country’s trade volume and 65% of the trade value being undertaken through maritime transport. Blue economy: Marine fisheries sector is one major contributor to the economy and livelihood of the fishing community. There are almost three lakh fishing vessels. India’s foreign relations: Maritime security is a prominent feature of India’s relations with Indian Ocean littoral states. The Indian Ocean, which has been an “ocean of peace”, is now witness to rivalries and competitions. Challenges associated  maritime sector in India: Inadequate infrastructure: India’s maritime infrastructure, including ports and inland waterways, is inadequate and requires significant investment and development. Poor connectivity: The lack of connectivity between ports, as well as ports and hinterland, leads to inefficiencies and increased costs. Skill gaps: There is a shortage of skilled manpower in the maritime sector, including seafarers, engineers, and other professionals. Environmental concerns: The maritime sector can have a significant impact on the environment, and there are concerns around issues such as oil spills, pollution, and the impact of climate change. Security challenges: Terrorism(26/11 attack), arms smuggling, piracy, drug trafficking, illegal migration and natural disasters became the major challenges in the maritime domain. China factor: With the growing Chinese belligerence, efforts to further strengthen maritime security and surveillance of India’s coastline needs to be undertaken. India’s Initiatives for Maritime Security: Security and Growth for All (SAGAR) Policy: India’s SAGAR policy is an integrated regional framework, unveiled by the Indian Prime Minister during a visit to Mauritius in March 2015. SAGAR is a maritime initiative which gives priority to the Indian Ocean region (IOR) for ensuring peace, stability and prosperity of India in the Indian Ocean region. Abiding by the International Law: India has time and again reiterated its commitment to respecting the rights of all nations as per the UN Convention on Law of Sea (UNCLOS) UNCLOS 1982, also known as Law of the Sea divides marine areas into five main zones namely: Internal Waters, Territorial Sea, Contiguous Zone, Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), and the High Seas. Data Sharing: Sharing data on threats to commercial shipping is an important component of enhancing maritime security. India established an International Fusion Centre (IFC) for the Indian Ocean region in Gurugram in 2018. Source:    The Hindu MUST READ:  India’s blue economy Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Classical Dance State 1.Sattriya Mizoram 2.Kuchipudi Andhra Pradesh 3.Bharatnatyam Kerala How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: AG-365S Drone is a ‘Made-in-India’ Kisan drone. Statement-II: It does not have the capacity to operate multiple agricultural tasks at a time Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the National Commission for Schedule Tribes (NCST), consider the following statements: It is a statutory body. It was established in 1988. It submits its report to the President annually. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None  Main Practice Questions Q.1) Analyse the significance of exempting agriculture from taxation in India? What are the constitutional provisions directing exemption? Discuss the challenges of exempting agriculture from taxation. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  6th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 5th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 5th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) BS 6 Stage II Electrified Flex fuel vehicle Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The World’s first prototype of the BS 6 Stage II ‘Electrified Flex fuel vehicle’ was launched recently. Background:- These vehicle technologies will provide the opportunity for greater substitution of petrol by Ethanol as it is capable of using any of the higher blends of ethanol mix beyond 20%. About Electrified Flex fuel vehicle:- IMAGE SOURCE: U.S. Department of Energy Flex-fuel vehicles (FFV) are capable of running on 100% petrol,100% bio-ethanol, or a combination of both. These vehicles are equipped with engines that can adjust their fuel mixture based on the available fuel blend. Electrified Flex Fuel Vehicles are an advanced version of FFVs. They are able to operate on both ethanol-based fuels and electricity. ( The technology powering hybrid electric vehicles) They provide increased fuel efficiency. They reduce emissions compared to traditional gasoline-only vehicles. An Electrified Flex Fuel Vehicle has both a Flexi Fuel engine and an electric powertrain. This gives it the ability to provide the dual benefit of higher ethanol use and much higher fuel efficiency. A Strong Hybrid Electric Vehicle (SHEV), can provide 30-50% higher Fuel Efficiency as it can run 40-60% in EV mode with engine shut off. The world’s 1st BS-6 Stage-II, Electrified Flex fuel vehicle, has been developed by Toyota Kirloskar Motor. It has both a flex-fuel engine as well as an electric powertrain, thereby offering higher use of ethanol combined with better fuel efficiencies. About Bharat Stage VI (BS VI): It is a set of emission standards established to regulate the level of air pollutants emitted from internal combustion and spark-ignition engine equipment. BS-VI contains enhanced fuel quality, and reduced the permissible Sulphur content by 80%, from 50 Parts Per Million (ppm) to a maximum of 10 ppm. India has made it mandatory to follow BS-VI emission (from previously BS-IV) norms in two phases:- Phase 1: Effective from April 1, 2020. It witnessed substantial reductions in permissible pollutant limits, setting new standards for emissions. Phase 2: Initiated on April 1, 2023. It focuses on Real Driving Emission (RDE) testing which measures emissions emitted by a vehicle while in real-world driving conditions. MUST READ: (Flex Fuel Technology) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for (2021) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world. Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading. Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries. Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit of time. Q.2) “R2 Code of Practices” constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2021) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry. Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention. Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands. ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources. Personalized Adaptive Learning (PAL) Syllabus Prelims – Government initiatives Context: The National e-Governance Division (NeGD) recently announced plans to integrate Personalised Adaptive Learning (PAL) into its existing Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA) platform. Background:- PAL’s software-based approach will allow each student to have an individualized learning experience over the course of the curriculum based on their unique needs and abilities. The Ministry of Education intends to begin PAL implementation for challenging subjects like Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics for Classes 9 to 12. By focusing on these subjects, the initiative aims to improve learning outcomes and school retention rates, addressing the issue of dropouts after Class 10. About Personalised Adaptive Learning (PAL):- It is an educational approach that uses technology, particularly artificial intelligence (AI), to customize the learning experience for individual students. (A new global standard for AI ethics) It is based to cater individual student’s unique needs, abilities, and progress. It employs AI to monitor student progress and identify areas of difficulty. For instance, if a student makes a mistake in a calculation, the system detects it and redirects the student to relevant foundational content, ensuring a better understanding of the concept. PAL adapts to the unique progress and challenges faced by each student, offering a more effective and engaging learning experience. Benefits of PAL:- Personalized Study Plans. Support for Special Needs. Flexibility in Learning. Challenges faced by states in implementing PAL:- States like Assam and Haryana have faced budget constraints when implementing PAL. While Assam discontinued the project due to funding issues. Haryana found the streaming costs for content to be prohibitively high, leading to a standstill in the adoption process. About DIKSHA:- Launched: 2017. Ministry: Ministry of Education. DIKSHA is the platform for providing quality e-content for school education in States/UTs and QR-coded Energized Textbooks for all grades. It aids teachers in learning and training themselves for which assessment resources will be available. It houses digitized National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) textbooks, teaching videos, and practice questions. It also has assistive technologies for learners with disabilities, but it’s a static content repository. MUST READ: Regulating Artificial Intelligence SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? (2020) Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units Create meaningful short stories and songs Disease diagnosis Text-to-speech conversion Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2, 4, and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 CSIR PRIMA ET11 Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, CSIR-CMERI developed a Compact Electric Tractor- CSIR PRIMA ET11. About CSIR PRIMA ET11:- Developed by: CSIR-CMERI. CSIR PRIMA ET11 is an indigenously designed, compact, 100% Pure Electric Tractor. ( First-ever Electric Tractor) Capacity: It can tow a 8-ton capacity trolley with a max speed of 25 mph. (Tractor industry) Objective: to cater to small and marginal farmers of India. Application: It caters to the demands of agriculture field applications. Design: Its dynamics, weight distribution, transmission engagements, then lever and pedal position everything has been well designed. Special characteristic: It has been made women-friendly with all the levers, switches, etc. being placed for an easy approach to the women. Many mechanical systems are also being replaced with electronic switches for easy operations. Battery: It has a state-of-the-art Lithium-ion battery with Prismatic cell confirmation. When the tractor is not in operation, its battery power can be utilized for other secondary applications like pump and irrigation, etc. The farmers can charge the tractor using a conventional home charging socket in 7 to 8 hours and operate the tractor for more than 4 hours at the field. ( Lithium reserves in India) Benefit: The tractor design helps to achieve the desired efficiency at a minimum cost. MUST READ: India’s First CNG Tractor to be launched SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following actions: (2023) Detection of car crash/ collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of the display between portrait and landscape mode. In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan is a national campaign to (2016) Rehabilitate the homeless and destitute persons and provide them with suitable sources of livelihood Release the sex workers from their practice and provide them with alternative sources of livelihood Eradicate the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitate the manual scavengers Release the bonded laborers from their bondage and rehabilitate them Saint Narayana Guru Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Saint Narayana Guru’s birth anniversary was celebrated recently. Background:- Social reformer and saint Narayana Guru’s birth anniversary was celebrated in Yadgir on 31, August 2023. About Saint Narayana Guru:- Narayana Guru was a saint & and social reformer of India. (Bhakti Movement) He has been credited with transforming the social fabric of He fought the caste system and for equality among people from all communities. He was a great thinker of that era. He raised his voice for the people of downtrodden communities and for their rights. He guided people against superstition, which was deep-rooted in society. He built a temple for Dalits who were denied entry into temples for worship. He preached the ‘oneness’ of humanity He preached the ‘oneness’ of humanity, crossing the boundaries of caste and creed. In 1888, he installed an idol of Siva at Aravippuram in Kerala in his effort to show that the consecration of god’s image was not a monopoly of the Brahmins. This is popularly known as the Aravippuram movement. He contributed many important literary works, the most influential being Atmopadesa Satakam which he composed in 1897. MUST READ: Sant Kabir SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts: (2022) Nettipakarana Parishishtaparvan Avadanashataka Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina’s texts 1,2 and 3 2 and 4 only 1,3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements: (2018) Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna. Tyagaraja created several new ragas. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries. Annamacharya kirtans are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 Rayagada shawls Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: As per recent reports, Rayagada shawls, and Koraput’s kala jeera rice are most likely to get GI tags. About Rayagada shawls:- From Rayagada district in Odisha. It is also called Kapdaganda. It is the handwoven shawls weaved by the Dongria Kondhs of Odisha. Dongria Kondhs: Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) community in Odisha. The shawl is weaved and embroidered with their tribal motifs. It has been an age-old practice in the Dongria Kondh tribal community. It has become an important source of income for 1,800 tribal women in Rayagada district. These traditional shawls are being sold far and wide. (Pashmina Shawls) Koraput’s kala jeera rice:- From Koraput district in Odisha. The rice is grown in Koraput district’s Tolla, Patraput, Pujariput, Baliguda, and Mohuli areas. The farmers of Koraput district have domesticated Kalajeera rice over generations. It is called the ‘Prince of Rice’. It is an aromatic variety of rice. (Basmati Rice) It is popular for its black colour, good aroma, taste, and texture. The ancient text explains that Kalajeera rice improves memory and controls diabetes. It is believed to increase hemoglobin levels and the body’s metabolism. This fragrant grain has antispasmodic, stomachic, carminative, antibacterial, astringent, and sedative MUST READ: GI tag for Narasinghapettai nagaswaram SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in: (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: According to recent reports, released by the United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF), children in 48 African countries are at high risk of climate change impacts. Background:- The report of the United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) was released on September 1, 2023. Children in 48 out of 49 African countries assessed were categorized as at ‘high’ or ‘extremely high’ risk of climate change, the report said. (Horn of Africa) About United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF):- Establishment: 1946. HQ: New York, USA. Historical Background: It was created in 1946 as the International Children’s Emergency Fund (ICEF) by the UN Relief Rehabilitation Administration to help children affected by World War II. Objective: to save children’s lives, defend their rights, and help them fulfill their potential, from early childhood through adolescence. It works to reach the most disadvantaged children and adolescents and to protect the rights of every child, everywhere. Its Executive Board is the governing body of UNICEF. It works in over 190 countries and territories with 7 regional offices It became a permanent part of the United Nations in 1953. It is mandated by the United Nations General Assembly. It is guided by the Convention on the Rights of the Child, 1989. 1965: It was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace for the “promotion of brotherhood among the nations”. MUST READ: India-Africa: Challenges & Way Ahead SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) Region often mentioned in the news:       Country Anatolia                                                  Turkey Amhara                                                   Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                        Spain Catalonia                                                Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 National Teachers Award 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi interacted with the winners of the National Teachers Award 2023. Background:- Prime Minister Narendra Modi interacted with the winners at his official residence in New Delhi on the eve of Teachers’ Day. Seventy-five award winners participated in the interaction. The Prime Minister appreciated the efforts of teachers in nurturing the young minds of the country. About National Teachers Award 2023:- Objective: to recognize the distinctive contributions of some of the finest faculty members in the country and honor them. The Award seeks to recognize and honour the unique and path-breaking achievements of faculty members in teaching, research, institutional service, community outreach, and novelty of work in the field of higher education. The ceremony is held on 5th September every year. Eligibility:- The award is open to all the faculty members of colleges/universities/higher educational institutions in India, satisfying the following conditions:- Should be a regular faculty member. Should have at least five years of full-time teaching experience at the Undergraduate and/or Post-graduate level. Should not be above 55 years of age as of the last date of receiving application for the awards. Vice-Chancellor/ Director/Principal (regular or officiating) are NOT eligible to apply. Decoration:- Each awardee shall be presented with the following. A medal A certificate Cash Prize of Rs 50,000/- No. of Awardees:- A total of Fifty Awards (25 in Category II and 25 in Category III) shall be conferred every year. Nominations:- Nominations for the award can be made by any of the following: Vice-Chancellor/Director/Principal of the same University/Institute/College, a colleague, or any other faculty member, including former faculty member/ Head/Dean of the same institution. Exclusions:- Self-nomination is NOT allowed. One person can make only one nomination at a time. A nomination is eligible for re-nomination. Former Vice-Chancellor/Director/Principal may apply subject to full-time current teaching assignment. Members of the Search cum Screening Committees may also take suo-moto cognizance of an outstanding faculty member and may nominate. Award Jury are NOT eligible to make a nomination for this award. The nominator may please ensure that the nomination form is duly completed and information, as required by the Committee, is included. Nominations received after the due date shall not be considered. Vigilance clearance and Integrity certificate are to be mandatorily provided by the HEI as per Annexure -1 stated in the scheme document. MUST READ: Gandhi Mandela Award SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: Assam to Draft Anti-polygamy Law Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) Context: Recently the Assam government has constituted a three-member panel to draft the proposed law to end polygamy in the State. About Polygamy: Polygamy comes from two words: “poly,” which means “many,” and “gamos,” which means “marriage.” As a result, polygamy relates to marriages that are several. Thus, polygamy is marriage in which a spouse of either sex may have more than one mate at the same time. Traditionally, polygamy mainly the situation of a man having more than one wife — was practiced widely in India. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 outlawed the practice. The Special Marriage Act (SMA), 1954 allows individuals to perform inter-religious marriages, but it forbids polygamy. The Act has been used by many Muslim women to help them stop practicing polygamy. Types of polygamy: Polygyny: It is the matrimonial structure in which a male individual has numerous wives. Polygamy in this form is more common or widespread. Monarchs and emperors in the Indus Valley Civilisation were believed to have several wives. Polyandry: It is a type of marriage in which a female has several husbands. Nevertheless, this can be an extremely uncommon occurrence. Bigamy: When one is already married additionally, the marriage continues to be valid, then married with someone else is known as bigamy plus the person committing this will be called bigamist. It is considered a criminal offense in many countries, including India. Status of Polygamy in India: The government data shows that polygamy cases in the country had come down to 4 per cent in 2019-20 as against 1.9 per cent in 2005-06. This rate has been higher in the northeastern states. According to reports, in Meghalaya, it is 6.1 per cent and in Tripura, it is 2 per cent. Polygamy is prevalent in Assam’s three districts of the Barak Valley and the areas of Hojai and Jamunamukh. This practice continues in Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha as well among some castes. Meanwhile, in Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, this practice is more prevalent among Muslims than Hindus. Major reasons for polygamy in India: Religion: Some religions allow or encourage polygamy as a part of their doctrine or tradition. For example, Islam permits a man to have up to four wives if he can treat them fairly and provide for them adequately. Culture: Some cultures accept or promote polygamy as a part of their social norms or values. For example, some tribal and rural communities practice polygamy as a way of increasing their population or maintaining their lineage. Economics: Some people practice polygamy as a way of securing their economic interests or improving their social status. For example, some men practice polygamy because they want to have more children who can work or earn for them. Some women practice polygamy because they want to have more resources or security from their husbands. Politics: Some people practice polygamy as a way of asserting their political rights or challenging the state authority. For example, some separatist groups in India practice polygamy as a way of expressing their resistance or rebellion against the Indian government. Social pressures: Some people practice polygamy because they face social pressures or expectations from their peers or elders. For example, some men practice polygamy because they want to prove their masculinity or virility. Personal preferences: Some people practice polygamy because they prefer it over monogamy or celibacy. For example, some men practice polygamy because they want to have variety or satisfaction in their life. Consequences of Polygamy in India For Women: polygamy often means a lack of autonomy, dignity and security. They have to share their husband’s attention, resources and affection with other wives, which can lead to jealousy, conflict and violence. They also face a higher risk of domestic abuse, sexual exploitation, reproductive health problems and mental stress. For Children: polygamy can result in neglect, deprivation and discrimination. They may not receive adequate care, nutrition and education from their parents, especially if they belong to a less favoured wife. For Society: polygamy can cause social instability, inequality and disharmony. It can also create gender imbalance and reduce the availability of marriageable partners for single men and women. lead to social problems such as domestic violence, child abuse, divorce, adultery and prostitution. Economic impact: Polygyny can increase the financial burden on the husband and his family. The husband may have to provide for multiple households, wives and children, which may affect his savings, investments and standard of living. The wives may have to compete for limited resources and may not have enough income or assets of their own. Views of judiciary on Polygamy: Parayankandiyal v. K. Devi & Others (1996): The Supreme Court (SC) concluded that monogamous relationships were the standard and ideology of Hindu society, which scorned and condemned a second marriage. Polygamy was not allowed to become a part of Hindu culture due to the influence of religion. Javed & Others v. State of Haryana & Others (2003): The SC decided that under Article 25 freedom is subjected to social harmony, dignity, and wellness. Muslim law allows for the marriage of four women, but it is not compulsory. This will not be violating religious practice to not marry four women. Legality of polygamy: Polygamy is permissible and legal exclusively for Muslims in nations such as India, Singapore, as well as Malaysia. Polygamy is still recognised and practiced in nations such as Algeria, Egypt, and Cameroon. These are the only areas in the world where polygamy is still legal. Way Forward: As per the United Nations Human Rights Committee, polygamy should be abolished in regions where it exists because it violates women’s dignity and restricts their free will. Laws such as polygamy, triple talaq and nikah halala are not only archaic, but they are also debilitating for Muslim women. The legality of such laws needs to be challenged and subsequently discarded. Source:    The Hindu Status of the Right to Information Act Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 4 (Ethics) Context: Recently many activists observed that  the Right to Information act has been weakened over the years. About Right to Information (RTI) Act: It was enacted by Parliament in 2005 . It empowers Indian citizens to seek accessible information from a Public Authority and makes the Government and its functionaries more accountable and responsible. It mandates timely response within 30 days to citizen requests for government information. Section 4 of the Right to Information Act deals with the obligations of public authorities. The right to information has been upheld by the Supreme Court as a fundamental right flowing from Article 19 of the Constitution, which guarantees every citizen the right to free speech and expression Section 24 of the RTI Act provides that the Act does not apply to the security and intelligence organisations specified in the Second Schedule of the Act. Amendments to the RTI Act: The RTI Act has seen significant amendments over the years. One notable change is the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, of 2023, which transformed the prohibition on personal data disclosure into a total ban, potentially hindering social audits in vital areas like ration distribution. Additionally, the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, of 2019, granted the Union Government unilateral powers over the appointment and compensation of information commissioners, raising concerns about their independence. Significance of the RTI Act: Anti-corruption tool: In the past 17 years, it has been instrumental in uncovering a list of major scams. Scams like Adarsh Society Scam, 2G scam, Commonwealth Games Scam, Indian Red Cross Society Scam are some noticeable achievements under RTI. Empowered people’s voice: It has given ordinary citizens the confidence and the right to ask questions of Government authorities. The RTI Act has empowered people in containing corruption and bringing transparency and accountability in the working of the Government. Strengthened Democracy: Every citizen has the right to claim information from public authorities under the Act. On the other hand, public authorities have an obligation to provide the sought information to the applicants (with certain exceptions). This has strengthened democracy through active participation of the public. Transparency and Accountability: A large amount of information has to be placed in the public domain by ways of manuals prescribed under the Act. All the Government departments along with a number of bodies which receive substantial funding from the Government have been brought under the RTI. This has ushered in an era of transparency and accountability. Concerns with the act: Bureaucratic attitude: Frequently cited as a reason for the dismissive approach towards RTI queries is the prevalence of frivolous or malicious inquiries. However, it’s important to note that such queries account for only approximately 4 percent of all appeals and can be easily addressed. Issues in State Information Commissions: Several problems plague State Information Commissions, including Vacancies Remain Unfilled. Some Commissions Operate Without Appointed Chiefs. Unwillingness to Disclose “Uncomfortable” Information. Problems with Public Information Officers (PIOs): PIOs in some cases exhibit audacious behavior. For instance, an information commissioner in Madhya Pradesh had to issue an arrest warrant for a PIO who repeatedly ignored 38 summons to appear at commission hearings and failed to comply with SIC orders. Lack of Preparedness Among PIOs: Serious RTI inquiries, especially those involving multiple government departments, often necessitate involvement from higher-ranking officials. However, it’s typically junior-level PIOs who attend hearings and frequently lack the necessary knowledge. These junior officers often bear the brunt of commission scrutiny and may face penalties. Government negligence: Government departments often display negligence in taking disciplinary action against errant PIOs. Such a cavalier attitude poses a significant challenge to the RTI regime. Code of conduct: Some commissioners openly expressing their political affiliations is a matter of concern, as it can raise questions about their impartiality and objectivity. Legal entanglements: Numerous RTI cases become entangled in lengthy judicial procedures. High courts frequently issue stay orders on decisions made by Information Commissions, even though the RTI Act clearly designates the information commissions as the final appellate authority. Appeals are sometimes disguised as writ petitions to seek relief from high courts. View of the Supreme Court: It has directed the Central Information Commission and the State Information Commissions to ensure proper implementation of provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005 including on proactive disclosure of information by public authorities. Way Forward: Though the Right to Information Act, 2005, has been a milestone in promoting transparency, its effectiveness is under threat due to legislative amendments, bureaucratic challenges, and issues with online portals. To ensure its continued success in empowering citizens and holding public officials accountable, addressing these concerns and enhancing the Act’s implementation is crucial. Source:    The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: GI Tags State 1.Navara Rice Karnataka 2.Kani Shawl Jammu & Kashmir 3.Palakkadan Matta Rice Kerala How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Electrified Flex Fuel Vehicles provide increased fuel efficiency. Statement-II: The world’s 1st BS-6 Stage-II, Electrified Flex fuel vehicle, has been developed by Tata Motors. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the CSIR PRIMA ET11, consider the following statements: It is a 100% Pure Electric Tractor. It has a state-of-the-art Lithium-ion battery with Prismatic cell confirmation. The farmers can charge the tractor using a conventional home charging socket. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Polygyny poses several challenges for society, women and legal aspects. How can India address these challenges and ensure the rights and dignity of all women in polygynous marriages? Suggest ways to reduce or eliminate polygyny in India? (250 words) Q.2) Critically analyze the significance and limitations of the Right To Information Act. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  5th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 4th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 5th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 4th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) issued an order against M/s IQRA IAS Institute, to discontinue the false testimonials and misleading claims from their website with immediate effect recently. Background:- The issue came to the notice of CCPA through the website of IQRA IAS Institute established in 2018 deliberately and falsely claimed through the testimonials of top-rank holders of UPSC CSE in 2015 & 2017 as their students which is factually deceiving. Therefore, CCPA took Suo-moto cognizance and found that along with the aforesaid false claim the institute claimed itself as the only coaching academy to have the best faculty from all around India for providing the best UPSC online prelims test series 2020, thus making it the top UPSC coaching within a year in Pune. Accordingly, the notice was issued to IQRA IAS Institute in view of the violation of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. Consumer Protection Act, 2019:- Definition of consumer: The act defines a consumer as a person who buys any good or avails a service for consideration. Exclusion: It does not include a person who obtains a good for resale or a good or service for commercial purposes. It covers transactions through all modes including offline, and online through electronic means, teleshopping, multi-level marketing, or direct selling. Definition of misleading advertisement: The Act defines “misleading advertisement” in relation to any product or service as “an advertisement, which:- Falsely describes such product or service. Gives, a false guarantee to, or is likely to mislead the consumers as to the nature, substance, quantity, or quality of such product or service. Conveys an express or implied representation which, if made by the manufacturer or seller or service provider thereof, would constitute an unfair trade practice. Deliberately conceals important information. Rights of consumers:- Six consumer rights have been defined in the Act, including:- Right to safety, right to be Informed, right to choose, right to be heard, right to seek redressal, and right to consumer education. About Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA):- Establishment: 2020. Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs. HQ: Delhi. Objective: To protect the rights of the consumer by cracking down on unfair trade practices, and false and misleading advertisements that are detrimental to the interests of the public and consumers. The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) is an authority constituted under Section 10(1) of The Consumer Protection Act, 2019. Composition:- Head: Chief Commissioner Members: two other commissioners as members. One of these will deal with matters relating to goods while the other will look into cases relating to services. Investigation Wing: The CCPA will have an Investigation Wing, headed by a Director General. District Collectors: They too, will have the power to investigate complaints of violations of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and false or misleading advertisements. Powers and Functions of CCPA:- Inquire or investigate matters relating to violations of consumer rights or unfair trade practices Suo moto, or on a complaint received, or on a direction from the central government. Recall goods or withdrawal of services that are “dangerous, hazardous, or unsafe. Pass an order for a refund of the prices of goods or services so recalled to purchasers of such goods or services. Impose a penalty of up to Rs 10 lakh, with imprisonment of up to two years, on the manufacturer or endorser of false and misleading advertisements. The penalty may go up to Rs 50 lakh, with imprisonment up to five years, for every subsequent offense committed by the same manufacturer or endorser. Ban the endorser of a false or misleading advertisement from making an endorsement of any products or services in the future. File complaints of violation of consumer rights or unfair trade practices before the District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, and the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission. MUST READ: New consumer rights law SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? (2022) Farmers harvesting their crops Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics A commercial bank lending money to a trading company A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Spamouflage Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Meta recently, claimed that it is fighting a Chinese ‘Spamouflage‘ operation. About Spamouflage:- It is an online Chinese spam operation. (Cyberattacks) It pushes positive narratives about China and negative commentary about the United States, Western foreign policies, and critics of the Chinese government. Origin: China. Targets: Taiwan, the United States, Australia, Britain, Japan, and global Chinese-speaking audiences. It mimicked websites of mainstream news outlets in Europe and posted stories about Russia’s war on Ukraine and then spread it online. (Cybercrime) The accounts in the campaign have a tendency to intersperse political posts. It has been active on over 50 platforms and forums, including Facebook, Instagram, TikTok, YouTube, and X (formerly Twitter). Companies involved in the campaign were recently sanctioned by the European Union. MUST READ: Global Cybersecurity SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The terms ‘Wanna Cry, Petya, and Eternal Blue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to (2023) Exo-planets Crypto-currency Cyber attacks Mini satellites Q.2) With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? (2023) Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units Create meaningful short stories and songs Disease diagnosis Text-to-speech conversion Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2, 4, and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Stem cell therapy Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: The Delhi High Court Recently permitted two children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) to undergo stem cell therapy for treatment of their condition.(AUTISM SPECTRUM DISEASE) About Stem cell therapy:- IMAGE SOURCE: jointpainclinic.co.uk Stem cell therapy is a novel therapeutic approach. It utilizes the unique properties of stem cells, to regenerate damaged cells and tissues in the human body or replace these cells with new, healthy, and fully functional cells. Stem cells: cells that have the natural ability to generate new cell types. Apart from stem cells, no other cell in the body has the natural ability to generate new cell types. Types of stem cells:- Embryonic stem cells: These stem cells come from embryos that are 3 to 5 days old. These are pluripotent stem cells, meaning they can divide into more stem cells or can become any type of cell in the body. Adult stem cells: These stem cells are found in small numbers in most adult tissues, such as bone marrow or fat. Compared with embryonic stem cells, adult stem cells have a more limited ability to give rise to various cells of the body. Induced pluripotent stem cells: These are stem cells that scientists make in the laboratory. They are pluripotent and can develop into any cell type just like embryonic stem cells. Mechanism:- Under the right conditions in the body or a laboratory, stem cells divide to form more cells called daughter cells. These daughter cells become either new stem cells or specialized cells (differentiation) with a more specific function, such as blood cells, brain cells, heart muscle cells, or bone cells. Uses:- To treat many human diseases and to repair tissue damage resulting from injury or ageing. In Organs transplantation Damaged organs can be replaced by obtaining healthy organs from a donor. However, donated organs may be rejected by the immune system. Induced pluripotent stem cells generated from the patient could be used here to grow new organs that would have a lower risk of being rejected. Regulations in India:- In March 2019, the Union Health Ministry notified the ‘New Drugs and Clinical Trial Rules, 2019’ which state that stem-cell-derived products are to be used as “new drugs”. This meant that any doctor who uses stem-cell therapy needs to get permission from the government. In India as well as globally, only blood stem cells from bone marrow to treat blood cancers and different blood disorders are permitted. (Base Editing) The clinical use in any other disease or use of any stem cells other than these is still in the research stage. MUST READ: CRISPR bio-technology SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: India’s public sector healthcare System largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care. Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements: (2021) Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of the egg. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from the mother and not from the father. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Pulikkali Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: The Pulikkali show was presented during the Onam celebrations, in Thrissur city (Kerala) recently. Background:- Thrissur city turned into a sea of stripes and spots as more than 250 ‘human tigers and leopards’ pranced about the streets in a rollicking show of Pulikkali to lend a carnivalesque finish to Onam celebrations. About Pulikkali:- Place: Kerala. Venue: The Swaraj Ground in Thrissur district, Kerala Introduced by: Maharaja Rama Varma Sakthan Thampuran(the erstwhile ruler of Cochin) Naming: Puli means Leopard/Tiger and Kali means Play in Malayalam. Main theme: tiger hunting. It is also called the Tiger Dance. It is a recreational street folk art. It is performed on the fourth day of Onam celebrations. Artists paint their bodies like tigers with stripes of yellow, red, and black and dance to the rhythm of traditional percussion instruments such as thakil, udukku, and chenda. The participants play the role of tiger and hunter. Onam: It is the biggest and the most important festival in the state of Kerala. It is a harvest festival. It is celebrated at the beginning of the month of Chingam, the first month of the Malayalam Calendar (Kollavarsham). MUST READ: Kathakali dance SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Men’s Hockey5s Asia Cup 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Sports Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi congratulated the Indian Men’s Hockey team on winning the Men’s Hockey 5s Asia Cup. Background:- In a social media post, Mr. Modi said, their victory is a testament to the unwavering dedication of the country’s players. About Men’s Hockey5s Asia Cup 2023:- Date: 29 August to 2 September 2023. Venue: Salalah, Oman. Host nation: Oman. It was the first-ever Men’s Hockey5s Asia Cup 2023. (Grand Slam) It was a historic event in the world of field hockey. (Sports Code) Elite group: India, Malaysia, Pakistan, Japan, Oman, and Bangladesh competed in the Challenger group: Hong Kong China, Indonesia, Afghanistan, Kazakhstan, and Iran. Significance: This tournament was the qualifier for the FIH Hockey5s World Cup 2024. Three teams got to earn their tickets to the global stage. MUST READ: Social change through sports SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 20th ASEAN-India Summit Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi will be on a two-day visit to Indonesia to attend the ASEAN-India Summit and East Asia Summit. About 20th ASEAN-India Summit:- Host: Indonesia. Venue: Jakarta, Indonesia Significance: It will be the first Summit since the elevation of India-ASEAN relations to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership last year. (India-ASEAN relations) It will review the progress of India-ASEAN relations and chart the future direction of cooperation. About East Asia Summit:- Etablished :2005.( East Asia Summit) First summit: Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia. Date: 14 December 2005. 18th summit: Jakarta, Indonesia. It is a forum of 18 regional leaders for strategic dialogue and cooperation on the key political, security, and economic challenges facing the Indo-Pacific region. This forum has an important role to play in advancing closer regional cooperation. The 18th East Asia Summit will provide an opportunity for leaders of ASEAN countries and its eight dialogue partners, including India, to exchange views on issues of regional and global significance. MUST READ: India-ASEAN conclave SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Q.2) Consider the following countries: (2018) Australia Canada China India Japan USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4, 5 and 6 1, 3, 4 and 5 2, 3, 4 and 6 Mains: National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Environment) Context: In the seven years, since the government unveiled its ambitious NMCG, it has installed treatment plants capable of treating just 20% of the sewage. These plants are capable of treating 20% of the sewage to be generated in the five major States that lie along the river– Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal. This is expected to increase to about 33% by 2024; and 60% by December 2026. About National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) Source:  DTE It was registered as a society in 2011 under the Societies Registration Act 1860. It acted as the implementation arm of National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) which was constituted under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act (EPA),1986. NGRBA has since been dissolved with effect from 2016 consequent to the constitution of National Council for Rejuvenation, Protection and Management of River Ganga which is referred as National Ganga Council. National Ganga Council under the chairmanship of Prime Minister of India. NMCG has a two-tier management structure and comprises of: Governing Council Executive Committee Both are headed by Director General, NMCG. Significance of Namami Gange programme: Creating sewage treatment capacity: 48 sewage management projects are under implementation and 98 sewage projects have been completed in the basin states. Biodiversity conservation: One of NMCG’s long-term visions for Ganga rejuvenation is to restore viable populations of all endemic and endangered biodiversity of the river, so that they occupy their full historical range and fulfil their role in maintaining the integrity of the Ganga River ecosystems. Creating river-front development: 68 Ghats/Crematoria projects for construction, modernization, and renovation of 267 Ghats/Crematoria and Kunds/Ponds have been initiated. River surface cleaning: River Surface cleaning for collection of floating solid waste from the surface of the ghats and river and its disposal are afoot and pushed into service at 11 locations. Afforestation: The process involves enhancement of productivity and diversity of the forests in head water areas and all along the river and its tributaries. Ganga gram: Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation identified 1674 Gram Panchayats situated on the bank of River Ganga in 5 States (Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal). Challenges of the mission: Sludge control: While the containment of human waste has be largely achieved by Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) through construction of toilet in Ganga grams, its safe disposal still poses a huge challenge. Faecal sludge is a bigger pollutant than sewerage. Sewage treatment: Despite initiatives, there are challenges like delay in new projects because of land acquisition and other procedural requirements, poor performance of Sewage treatment plants (STPs) and lack of sewerage network in cities. Industries find it easy to dispose their entire waste in the common drain which carries both domestic as well as industrial waste into the river. Restoring the flow: With enough flow, a river acts as self-purifying system. However, the Ganga fails this basic test except during monsoons. Due to restrictions and decrease in flow, the velocity of water decreases and siltation increases and the self-purification capacity decreases. Cost overruns: The costs of the programme have increased as a result of delays in multiple projects, and ineffective financial management. Governance Issues: The Ganga Action Plans lacked the coordination of various Ministries. Lack of coordination results in faulty execution, delays and cost overruns. Way Forward: Therefore, monetization of sludge and treated water is one of the focus areas of Namami Gange Programme under the banner of ‘Arth Ganga’, which means linking people with Ganga through a ‘Bridge of Economics’. A targeted dissemination of information must be done to bring about the desired change. There is a need to create a “generation with cleanliness conscious’ and everything else will automatically fall into place. Source:  The Hindu Stem Cell Therapy Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: The Delhi High Court recently permitted two children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) to undergo stem cell therapy. About stem cell therapy: Stem cells are undifferentiated biological cells that can differentiate into specialized cells and can divide to produce more stem cells. Treatments or therapies are used stem cells to prevent or treat any disease are known as stem cell therapy. Stem cells are grown in the labs, these stem cells are manipulated to specialize into specific types of cells, such as heart muscle cells, blood cells or nerve cells etc. Stem cell therapy promotes the reparative treatment of diseased, dead or injured tissue. Potential applications of Stem cell therapy: The therapy can be used to treat: Orthopedic injuries and musculoskeletal problems Spinal cord injuries, brain trauma and spinal stenosis Cardiovascular diseases, including hypertension, coronary heart disease, stroke and congestive heart failure Hair loss and vision impairment Diabetes and other pancreatic dysfunctions Neurodegenerative diseases such as Parkinson’s, multiple sclerosis and Alzheimer’s Significance of stem cell therapy: medical benefits: It offers a lot of medical benefits in the therapeutic cloning and regenerative medicine. It shows great potential in the treatment of a number of conditions like Parkinson’s disease, spinal cord injuries, Alzheimer’s disease, schizophrenia, cancer, diabetes and many others. A better knowledge of human growth: It helps the researchers know more about the growth of human cells and their development. The stem cell research can allow the scientists to test a number of potential medicines and drugs without carrying out any test on animals and humans. The drug can be tested on a population of cells directly. Early care and treatment: The stem cell therapy also allows researchers to study the developmental stages that cannot be known directly through the human embryo and can be used in the treatment of a number of birth defects, infertility problems and also pregnancy loss. A higher understanding will allow the treatment of the abnormal development in the human body. Reduced risk of rejection: The stem cell therapy puts into use the cells of the patient’s own body and hence the risk of rejection can be reduced because the cells belong to the same human body. Disadvantages: Destruction of blastocysts: The use of the stem cells for research involves the destruction of the blastocysts that are formed from the laboratory fertilization of the human egg. Unknown side-effects: Like any other new technology, it is completely unknown what the long-term effects of such an interference with nature could be Limitations of adult cells: The disadvantage of adult stem cells is that the cells of a particular origin would generate cells only of that type, like brain cells would generate only brain cells and so on. Potential rejection: If the cells used in the therapy are embryonic, then the cells will not be from the same human body and there are chances of rejection. Potential use in negative activities: It can be used to create bio-weapons or weapons of mass destruction Way Forward: Stem cell therapy is gaining popularity in India to treat a wide variety of medical conditions. considering the fact that therapy is frequently and worldwide offered as a universal human remedy, studies should be focused on continuous monitoring and long-term follow-up of animal research models in order to determine possible pro-tumorigenic and other detrimental effects of therapy. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Harvest Festival State 1.Nuakhai Orissa 2.Pongal Kerala 3.Bohag Bihu Arunachal Pradesh How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) can recall goods or withdrawal services that are “dangerous, hazardous, or unsafe. Statement-II: It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce And Industry. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements about ‘Pulikkali’:- It is performed on the fourth day of Onam celebrations. It was introduced by Maharaja Rama Varma Sakthan Thampuran. It is a recreational street folk art of Karnataka. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 1 and 2 only 1 only 1,2 and 3 2 and 3 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What are the main components and objectives of the National Mission to Clean Ganga? What are the challenges and opportunities for its successful implementation? Discuss (250 words) Q.2) Stem cell therapy is gaining popularity in India to treat a wide variety of medical conditions. Describe briefly what stem cell therapy is and what advantages it has over other treatments? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  4th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 2nd September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 4th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The recently released Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) report suggests that air pollution shortens the lives of the residents of Delhi by around 11.9 years. Key Highlights of the report:- On account of the number of people that high particulate matter levels affect in India, the country faces the greatest health burden from air pollution among all the countries in the world. In South Asia, particulate pollution has increased by 9.7 percent from 2013 to 2021. In India, 5 levels rose 9.5 percent. Particulate matter( PM): particles found in the air, including dust, dirt, soot, smoke, and liquid droplets that remain suspended in the air for long periods of time. According to PM2.5 data for 2021 derived from satellites, pollution in India has increased from 56.2 µg/m3 in 2020 to 58.7 µg/m3 in 2021. This is more than 10 times the WHO guideline of 5 µg/m3. Delhi’s annual average PM2.5 level in 2021 was found to be 126.5 µg/m3, which is more than 25 times the World Health Organization (WHO) ( Delhi and Air Pollution) The report said particulate matter pollution is also the biggest threat to human health in India in terms of lowering life expectancy, beating cardiovascular diseases, and child and maternal malnutrition. The average Indian resident is set to lose 5.3 years of life expectancy if the WHO guideline is not met. About Air Quality Life Index (AQLI):- Produced by: Energy Policy Institute at the University of Chicago (EPIC). Published: Annually. The Air Quality Life Index ( AQLI), provides details of impact of air pollution on life expectancy. Special Features of AQLI:- The research underlying the AQLI is based on pollution data at the very high concentrations that prevail in many parts of the world today. The causal nature of the AQLI’s underlying research allows it to isolate the effect of air pollution from other factors that impact health. The AQLI delivers estimates of the loss of life expectancy for the average person. The AQLI uses highly localized satellite data, making it possible to report life expectancy that impacts at the county or similar level. MUST READ: India’s uphill battle to bring down air pollution SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m3 and the annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 ug/m3. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Sixth census on minor irrigation Syllabus Prelims – Government Initiatives Context: The Jal Shakti Ministry has released the sixth census on minor irrigation schemes report. Key Highlights of the report:- As per the report, 14 million minor irrigation (MI) schemes have been reported in the country. The report also revealed that there has been an increase of about 1.42 million in MI schemes as compared to the previous census. Minor Irrigation Schemes(MI): those structures either in groundwater or in the surface water category having culturable command areas up to 2,000 hectares. Out of these 93 million are Ground Water (GW) and 1.21 million are Surface Water (SW) schemes. Ground Water (GW) schemes: provide irrigation throughout the year. Surface Water (SW) scheme: comprises surface flow schemes and surface lift irrigation schemes. For the first time, the information about the gender of the owner of the MI scheme was also collected in the case of individual ownership. Out of all the individually owned schemes, 1 percent are owned by women. Minor irrigation (MI) schemes: Uttar Pradesh possesses the largest number of MI schemes in the country. It was followed by Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu. Ground Water (GW) ranking: The same ranking of states as MI follows for the Ground Water (GW) Surface Water (SW) ranking: Maharashtra leads in SW schemes followed by Karnataka, Telangana, Odisha, and Jharkhand. About the 6th census on minor irrigation:- IMAGE SOURCE: PIB Published in 2023. Published by: Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Past censuses: 1986-87, 1993-94, 2000-01, 2006-07 and 2013-14. Objective: to gather a sound and reliable database for minor irrigation schemes for effective planning and policy making in this sector. The census was conducted under the centrally sponsored scheme “Irrigation Census”. The 6th MI census work was delayed due to the Covid-19 pandemic. It was executed in 32 States/ UTs across the country. Detailed information on various parameters of Irrigation sources, irrigation potential created (IPC), potential utilized, ownership, holding size of land by owner, windmills, etc. were collected. Irrigation sources: dug well, shallow tube well, medium tube well, deep tube well, surface flow, and surface lift schemes. (‘Per Drop More Crop’) Significance of report:- This report will be useful for planners, policy makers, researcher scholars, agricultural and groundwater scientists, and administrators & all concerned with the development of irrigation and the agricultural economy of the country. ( Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)) MUST READ: Precision Agriculture SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia aoyssinica) seeds. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) Expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. Checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 World Sanskrit Day 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: The World Sanskrit Day 2023 was celebrated in Colombo recently. About World Sanskrit Day 2023:- Venue: Colombo. Celebrated on: 31st August,2023. The event was organized by the cultural arm of the High Commission of India, Swami Vivekananda Cultural Centre (SVCC) in collaboration with 12 universities and institutes of Sri Lanka. The event marked the silver jubilee of SVCC. It featured a collaborative effort with several prestigious Sri Lankan universities. Significance:- This celebration of Sanskrit underscores the profound cultural and linguistic ties between India and Sri Lanka. It emphasizes the importance of Sanskrit as a shared heritage. World Sanskrit Day:- It is an annual celebration observed on the day of Shravan Poornima. ( Sanskrit Grams Programme: Uttarakhand) Shravan Poornima: This is considered to be one of the most sacred days in the month of Shravan and is dedicated to Lord Shiva. Historical Background: The Ministry of Education declared World Sanskrit Day back in 1969 on the occasion of Shraavana Poornima. On the day of World Sanskrit Day in India, Panini is remembered and honoured for his contribution to this ancient language. Panini: a Sanskrit linguist, who wrote the Sanskrit grammar guide named the About Sanskrit:- Sanskrit is among the oldest surviving languages. (What is ‘Sanskritisation) It is said that Sanskrit belongs to the Indo-Germanic or Indo-Aryan family of languages. It is around 3,500 years old. This makes the Sanskrit language one of the oldest in the world. It is a sacred language in several traditions. It is a repository of ancient knowledge including the Vedas and other renowned literary works such as the Yoga Shastra. It is also known as the mother of many present-day languages such as Hindi and Sinhala. MUST READ: International Mother Language Day SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct? (2022) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture. The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets. Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethics. Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational. Q.2) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho, and Kui’ pertain to (2021) dance forms of Northwest India musical instruments pre-historic cave paintings tribal languages Bhoramdeo Wildlife Sanctuary (BWS) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Chhattisgarh High Court dismissed a petition that aimed to designate the Bhoramdeo Wildlife Sanctuary (BWS) as a tiger reserve. Background of the issue:- Former Chhattisgarh chief minister Raman Singh had cleared the proposal for notifying the Bhoramdeo Wildlife Sanctuary as a tiger reserve in 2017 following a recommendation of India’s National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) as it was argued that it forms a critical part of the tiger habitat in the central Indian landscape. However, the idea was dropped in 2018. One of the reasons that was reportedly behind shelving the decision is that the local population living in and around the sanctuary area mainly has Baiga tribals who are not interested in relocating elsewhere. As a result, the government is also not keen on displacing them ultimately resulting in the government ignoring the NTCA’s request. Subsequently, in 2019, a wildlife activist filed public interest litigation in the Chhattisgarh High Court, which states that non-compliance with the NTCA’s recommendation is illegal as it is mandatory under the provisions of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 for the state to comply with the tiger authority to declare any area as a tiger reserve. ( National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) on Tribal Rights) About Bhoramdeo Wildlife Sanctuary (BWS):- Location: Kawardha district, Chhattisgarh. Naming: It is named after the famous 11th-century, Bhoramdeo Temple which is situated near the Sanctuary. Area: The sanctuary covers an area of approximately 325 square kilometres (125 square miles). Rivers: This wildlife sanctuary is the origin of the Fen and Sankari rivers. Important Landscape: It is characterized by its lush green forests, rolling hills, and the Maikal Range of the Satpura Hills. Vegetation: It offers a mix of dense forests and open grasslands. Flora: sal, saja, tinsa, kara and haldu etc. Fauna: tigers, leopards, wild dogs, sloth bears, sambar deer, barking deer, chital (spotted deer), gaur (Indian bison), and various species of birds and reptiles. (Wildlife Protection) Significance: It shares a border with Kanha National Park (Madhya Pradesh), making it an important tiger habitat in central India. MUST READ: Wildlife Institute of India (WII) SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following animals (2021) Hedgehog Marmot Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protects its/their vulnerable parts? 1 and 2 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to one of the following sites (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Ramon Magsaysay Award Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: Recently, an Assam-based oncologist was among the winners of the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2023. Background:- Oncologist Ravi Kannan, a recipient of India’s fourth-highest civilian award Padma Shri, and the director of Assam’s Cachar Cancer Hospital and Research Centre (CCHRC), has been named one of the four winners of the 2023 Ramon Magsaysay Award. His pioneering efforts have revolutionized cancer treatment in Assam by prioritizing people-centric and pro-poor healthcare solutions. About Ramon Magsaysay Award:- Established: 1957. Naming: It is named after Ramon Magsaysay. Ramon Magsaysay: the third president of the Republic of the Philippines. It recognizes and honours individuals and organizations in Asia, regardless of race, creed, gender, or nationality, who have achieved distinction and have helped others generously without aiming for public recognition. It is Asia’s equivalent of the Nobel Prize. Award Categories:- Till 2009: awards were traditionally given in five categories:- These include Government service; public service; community leadership; journalism, literature and creative communication arts; and peace and international understanding. Post-2009: The Ramon Magsaysay Award Foundation annually selects the awardees for the field of Emergent Leadership. Award Decoration:- Awardees are presented with a certificate, a medallion with an embossed image of Ramon Magsaysay, and a cash prize. Important Indian Awardees: – Till date, India has received a total of 59 awards, while the Philippines has received 65 awards, making it the highest among all countries. Vinoba Bhave (1958) Mother Teresa (1962) Verghese Kurien (1963) Jayaprakash Narayan (1965) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay (1966) Satyajit Ray (1967) S. Subbalakshmi(1974) Arun Shourie(1982) Kiran Bedi (1994) Mahasweta Devi (1997) Aruna Roy (2000) Rajendra Singh(2001) Arvind Kejriwal (2006) Anshu Gupta of Goonj (2015) Bezwada Wilson, human rights activist (2016) Ravish Kumar, journalist (2019) MUST READ: Gandhi Mandela Award SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? (2020) Preamble Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Sagar Parikrama Syllabus Prelims – Government Initiatives Context: Sagar Parikrama Phase-VIII commenced at Thengapattanam Fishing Harbour in Kanyakumari recently. Ministry: Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying. First phase Began :5th March 2022 . First phase location: Mandvi, Gujarat. Eight-phase location: Thengapattanam, Tamil Nadu. Organized by: Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, and National Fisheries Development Board along with- Department of Fisheries, Government of Gujarat, Indian Coast Guard, Fishery Survey of India, Gujarat Maritime Board and Fishermen representatives. Objective: to address the challenges faced by fishers and stakeholders while uplifting their economic prospects through various fisheries schemes and programs, such as Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) & and Kisan Credit Cards (KCC). Sagar Parikrama is a navigation journey to be conducted in all coastal states/UTs through a pre-decided sea route to demonstrate solidarity with all fisherfolk, fish farmers, and concerned stakeholders. It is envisioned as a part of ‘Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsava’ saluting our great freedom fighters, sailors, and fishers. The Parikrama shall be accompanied by the State Fisheries officials, Fishermen representatives, Fish-Farmers entrepreneurs, stakeholders, professionals, officials, and Scientists from across the nation. It is to be celebrated through a pre-decided sea route down right from Gujarat, Diu, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal, Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep Islands. The Sagar Parikrama Program is to have an interaction with fishermen, fisher communities, and stakeholders in these locations and districts. (Conserving Marine Resources) Significance:- Sagar Parikrama Program is being celebrated as a part of the 75th “Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsava”. It is an initiative to know the problems of Coastal Fisherfolk. It will demonstrate solidarity with all fisherfolk, fish farmers, and concerned stakeholders. MUST READ: Marine Spatial Planning Framework SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution: (2023) Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution. There is no known ·safe level of exposure to mercury. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 DSC A 20 (Yard 325) Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: Recently, the ‘DSC A 20’ (Yard 325) ship was launched. About DSC A 20 (Yard 325):- Built by: M/s Titagarh Rail Systems Ltd (TRSL), Kolkata (formerly known as M/s Titagarh Wagons Ltd (TWL)) for the Indian Navy. Launched: 31 Aug 2023. Launched atTitagarh, Kolkata (WB). The Launch Ceremony was presided over by VAdm Sanjay Mahindru, Deputy Chief of Naval Staff (DCNS). In keeping with Naval tradition, Mrs. Aradhana Mahindru launched the ship with an invocation from Atharva Veda. Historical Background: The contract for building five (05) Diving Support Craft (DSC) was signed between MoD and M/s Titagarh Wagons Ltd (TWL), Kolkata on 12 Feb 2021. All five (05) DSC are anticipated to be delivered to the Indian Navy in FY 2024-25. DSC A 20’ (Yard 325) is the first ship of the Five (05) Diving Support Craft (DSC) project. These ships are designed to undertake operational/ training diving operations in harbours and coastal waters. They are 30 m long catamaran hull ships, with a displacement of approx 300 tons. DSC are being fitted with state-of-the-art diving equipment and tools for performing diving operations. These ships are indigenously designed and built under relevant Naval Rules and Regulations of the Indian Register of Shipping (IRS). The hydrodynamic analysis/ model testing of the ships during the design stage was undertaken at the Naval Science and Technological Laboratory (NSTL), Visakhapatnam. Significance: These ships are proud flag bearers of Make in India and Make for the World initiatives of the Government of India (GoI)/ Ministry of Defence (MoD). MUST READ: 26th Exercise Malabar SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Mains: India’s growing mental health issues Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Standing Committee on Health and Family Welfare recently tabled its report on ‘Mental Health Care and Its Management in Contemporary Times’ in the Parliament. Highlights of the report: The report defines mental health as a state of well-being that enables people to cope with the stress of life. It highlighted that the mental health-related issues are rising in India and the country lags with inadequate staff, medical infrastructure and budgetary allocation. The Committee stated that India currently has 0.75 psychiatrists per lakh people, which is significantly low. The Committee observed that if India targets having three psychiatrists per lakh people, it will need 27,000 more psychiatrists. Global Scenario: In 2010, global economic losses of around $2.5 trillion annually were attributed to poor mental health, stemming from diminished well-being and productivity. This will surge to $6 trillion by 2030. Inadequate funding: The report highlights inadequate funding for care and research. It requires not only increased financial support and expanded psychiatry residency programmes, but also establishment of positions for trained psychiatrists and ensuring an ample number of working psychologists. Status of mental healthcare India: It is estimated that 6-7 % of the population suffers from mental disorders in India. WHO estimates that the burden of mental health problems in India is 2443 disability-adjusted life years (DALYs) per 100 00 population. The age-adjusted suicide rate per 100 000 population is 21.1. The economic loss due to mental health conditions, between 2012-2030, is estimated at USD 1.03 trillion. Global: As per World Bank, nearly 1 billion people live with a mental disorder and in low-income countries; more than 75% of people with the disorder do not receive treatment. Every 40 seconds, a person dies by suicide. About 50% of mental health disorders start by the age of 14. As per WHO Depression is one of the leading causes of disability and suicide is the fourth leading cause of death among 15-29-year-olds. People with mental illness may be subject to the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (CRPD). Causes of mental illness: Exposure to unfavourable social, economic, geopolitical and environmental circumstances including poverty, violence, inequality and environmental deprivation also increases people’s risk of experiencing mental health conditions. Over the past two years, the pandemic-led lockdowns and the uncertainties associated with them have had a detrimental effect on mental well-being Early adverse life experiences, such as trauma or a history of abuse (for example, child abuse, sexual assault, witnessing violence, etc.) Use of alcohol or drugs, having feelings of loneliness or isolation, etc. Impacts of poor mental health: Impact on relationships: Mental-health conditions during adolescence and young adulthood can have a significantly negative impact on the development of safe and healthy relationships with peers, parents, teachers, colleagues and partners. Impact on physical health: A study found that positive psychological well-being can reduce the risks of heart attack and stroke. On the other hand, poor mental status can lead to poor physical health or harmful behaviour. Depression has been linked to many chronic illnesses. These illnesses include diabetes, asthma, cancer, cardiovascular disease, and arthritis. Impact on productivity: It impacts a person’s ability to concentrate and engage in productive activities. Government of India Initiatives: National Mental Health Programme (NMHP) in 1982: To ensure the availability and accessibility of minimum mental healthcare for all in the foreseeable future. Mental Healthcare Act, 2017: It provides mental healthcare and services for persons with mental illness in India. Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2017: The Act acknowledges mental illness as a disability and seeks to enhance the Rights and Entitlements of the Disabled. National Suicide Prevention Strategy National Tele-Mental Health Programme: To improve access to quality mental health counselling and care services in the country. Kiran Helpline: It provides for suicide prevention and can help with support and crisis management. World Mental Health Day: To raise awareness of mental health issues around the world and to mobilize efforts in support of mental health. Source:  The Hindu Technical Textiles in India Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: The Ministry of Textiles recently has approved the Startup Guidelines for Technical Textiles – Grant for Research and Entrepreneurship across Aspiring Innovators in Technical Textiles (GREAT). The Guidelines provides thrust in Technical Textiles’ application areas including Agro-textiles, Building-textiles, Geo-textiles, Home-textiles, Medical-textiles, Mobile-textiles, Packaging- textiles, Protective-textiles, Sports-textiles, Smart Textiles using Artificial Intelligence, Internet of Things, 3D/4D Printing among others. The guidelines focus on supporting individuals and companies to translate prototypes to technologies & products including commercialization. About Technical Textiles: A technical textile is a textile product manufactured for non-aesthetic purposes, where function is the primary criterion. Technical textiles include textiles for automotive applications, medical textiles, geotextiles, agrotextiles, and protective clothing. They improve the efficiencies in those sectors of the economy. The government has also launched a National Technical Textiles Mission for promoting R&D efforts in technical textiles and their applications. Status of Technical Textile in India India is the second largest producer of polyester in the world and is now emerging as a key player in technical textiles industry contributing to a market size of $ 19 Bn. Technical textile accounts for approximately 13% of India’s total textile and apparel market and contributes to India’s GDP at 0.7%. The Indian Technical Textiles market is the 5th largest in the world and is rapidly growing, both in terms of value and output. India’s exports of technical textiles in 2018-19 is estimated at $ 1.9 Bn, which has grown at a CAGR of 4% over the past four years. India’s imports of technical textiles have increased at a CAGR of 8% within the last four years, from $ 1,635 Mn to $ 2,209 Mn in 2018-19. Challenges in Textile Sector in India: Shortage in supply of raw material: Shutting down some units in China and Europe due to pollution issues has resulted in an unprecedented rise in prices of basic raw materials in international markets. Pressure to meet stringent social and environmental norms: Failing to comply with environmental regulations can put supply chain in jeopardy, as pressure mounts for the apparel industry to improve environmental compliance efforts. Increase in cost of raw material: Prices are increasing after many units in China were shut down due to pollution norms. Inflexible labour laws: India’s system of labour regulations is rather complex. There are over 200 labour laws, including a quarter of Central Acts. Several labour laws such as the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 put limitations on firm size and not allow manufacturing firms to grow. Uneven regional development: The country’s textile industry is concentrated in a few pockets of Gujarat and Maharashtra in the west and Tamil Nadu and Karnataka in the south. A large proportion of workers employed by these units comes from Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and West Bengal. Infrastructural bottlenecks: Poor quality of infrastructure in India has been a major hurdle. This results in Lack of efficiency due to manual work being practiced. Highly fragmented: The Indian textile industry is highly fragmented and is being dominated by the unorganized sector and small and medium industries. Government of India initiatives to promote the growth of the Textile Industry: National Technical Textile Mission: It seeks to enhance domestic technical textile consumption while establishing the nation as a global leader in the field. By 2024, it hopes to increase the size of the domestic market to between $40 billion and $50 billion USD. Amended Technology Upgradation Fund Scheme (ATUFS): In order to modernize the textile industry’s technology, the government approved the “Amended Technology Upgradation Fund Scheme (ATUFS)” in 2015. The Scheme for Integrated Textile Parks (SITP) aims to help small and medium-sized textile business owners cluster investments in textile parks by providing financial support for the parks’ top-notch infrastructure. The SAMARTH (Scheme for Capacity Building in the Textile Sector): The government started the SAMARTH Scheme for Capacity Building in Textile Sector (SCBTS) to alleviate the scarcity of trained people. The North East Region Textile Promotion Scheme (NERTPS) is a program that supports all areas of the textile industry with infrastructure, capacity building, and marketing assistance. Power-Tex India: It includes innovative power-loom textile research and development, new markets, branding, subsidies, and worker welfare programs. The Silk Samagra Scheme seeks to lessen the nation’s reliance on imported silk by enhancing the quality and productivity of domestically produced silk. PM Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel (PM MITRA) Parks: It aims to integrate the entire textile value chain from spinning, weaving, processing/dyeing, printing to garment manufacturing at one location. Way Forward: Technical textiles industry is at a nascent stage in India and hence, holds a vast potential for growth. With the government’s aim to create world class infrastructure in the country, in addition to the implementation of several policies and schemes to boost the textile sector, technical textiles is poised for growth. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Ancient Sanskrit literature Written by 1.Abhijnanshakuntalam Kalidasa 2.Mricchakatika Shudraka 3.Raghuvamsha Tulsidasa How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None  Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Bhoramdeo Wildlife Sanctuary (BWS) is characterized by its lush green forests, rolling hills, and the Maikal Range of the Satpura Hills. Statement-II: It is located in Kawardha district, Jharkhand. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Smog can comprise airborne particulate matter, mostly PM 2.5 and PM 10. The exposure to particulate PM 10 is associated with the worsening of respiratory diseases like asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD). The combustion of gasoline, oil, diesel fuel, or wood produces much of the PM 2.5. Which one of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 3 2 only 1 only 1,2, and 3 Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Discuss the significance of growth of the technical textile industry in India. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 2nd September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 1st September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 2nd September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here