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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 2nd December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 1st December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   HH 1177 system Syllabus Prelims – SPACE Context: Recently, for the first time, astronomers have glimpsed a young star HH 1177 system outside the Milky Way galaxy. Background:- Newborn stars with these circumstellar disks had been observed by astronomers only in our Milky Way galaxy – until now About HH 1177 system:- HH 1177 is a massive star, with a rotating disk that was spotted in the Large Magellanic Cloud, a neighbouring dwarf galaxy that’s about 160,000 light-years away. ( Map of Milky Way |) A colossal star such as HH 1177 lives fast and dies young, forming more quickly and only having a life span that’s a fraction of that of a star like our sun. This shortened timeline makes the early stages of a massive star hard to observe in our galaxy, as both the star and its disk are hidden from view by the dusty material from which it forms. HH 1177 is within a stellar nursery, called N180, that has less dust and lower metal abundance. The star isn’t obscured by a cocoon of gas and dust. A newborn star grows in size by pulling in matter from its surroundings. The gas and dust accumulate in a flat disk around the star, known as an accretion disk, as a result of strong gravitational forces. The spinning disk transports the matter onto the star, which gets increasingly larger. The greater the star’s mass, the more powerful its gravitational field becomes, thereby pulling more gas and dust into the disk. MUST READ: Dark galaxy SOURCE: CNN PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q2. Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Rheumatoid arthritis Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY-HEALTH Context: Recent studies show cases of rheumatoid arthritis in young adults. Background:- According to health experts, youngsters with RA may find themselves navigating a world of chronic pain, fatigue and limited physical abilities. About Rheumatoid arthritis:- IMAGE SOURCE: CreakyJoints Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory disorder. It is an autoimmune disorder, which occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks its own body’s tissues. Causes:- In a healthy person, the immune system fights invaders, such as bacteria and viruses. But with an autoimmune disease like RA, the immune system mistakes the body’s cells for foreign invaders and releases inflammatory chemicals that attack those cells. Unlike the wear-and-tear damage of osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis affects the lining of joints, causing a painful swelling that can eventually result in bone erosion and joint deformity. Symptoms:- Tender, warm, swollen joints. Joint stiffness that is usually worse in the mornings and after inactivity. Fatigue Fever Loss of appetite. Risk factors:- Sex: Women are more likely than men to develop rheumatoid arthritis. Age: Rheumatoid arthritis can occur at any age, but it most commonly begins in middle age. ( National Centres for Disease Control (NCDC)) Family history: If a member of your family has rheumatoid arthritis, you may have an increased risk of the disease. Smoking Treatment:- Exercise Medication Surgery MUST READ: Disease Surveillance System SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Air pollution Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY/ GEOGRAPHY Context: Recent studies show that  Air pollution causes over 2 million deaths annually in India. Background:- The research found that air pollution from using fossil fuels in industry, power generation, and transportation accounts for 5.1 million extra deaths a year worldwide. About Air pollution:- Air pollution is the presence of substances in the atmosphere that are harmful to the health of humans and other living beings, or cause damage to the climate or materials. (Delhi and Air Pollution) Different types of air pollutants include– Gases: such as ammonia, carbon monoxide, sulphur dioxide, nitrous oxides, methane, carbon dioxide and chlorofluorocarbons. Particulates: both organic and inorganic. Biological molecules. Air pollution may cause diseases, allergies, and even death to humans. Additionally, it may hurt other living things like animals and food crops, as well as impair the built environment or the natural environment (for instance, by causing climate change, ozone depletion, or habitat destruction) (for example, acid rain). Harmful Impacts of Air Pollution:- It may cause diseases, allergies and even death in humans. It can cause harm to other living organisms such as animals and food crops. Can lead to climate change and may damage the natural environment Ozone depletion or habitat degradation Built hazardous environments (for example, acid rain).  MUST READ: National Clean Air Campaign SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for (2021) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit of time BSF Raising Day Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi conveyed his greetings on the occasion of BSF Raising Day. Background:- The Prime Minister posted on X; “On BSF’s Raising Day, we laud this excellent force, which has made a mark as a guardian of our frontiers. Their valour and unwavering spirit in protecting our nation is a testament to their dedication. I would also like to appreciate the role of BSF during rescue and relief work in the wake of natural disasters.” About BSF Raising Day:- The BSF was raised in 1965 after the India-Pakistan war. The Raising Day is the day the BSF unit was raised. It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). It is one of the five Central Armed Police Forces of the Union of India. Other Central Armed Police Forces are Assam Rifles (AR), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), National Security Guards (NSG) and Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB). It was raised to ensure the security of the borders of India and for matters connected therewith. They are deployed on the Line of Control (LoC) along with the Indian Army and in Anti-Naxal Operations. The BSF has its own cadre of officers but its head, designated as a Director-General (DG), since its raising has been an officer from the Indian Police Service (IPS). BSF has been crusading against natural calamity to save precious human lives as and when warranted. (Self-reliance in defence) It contributes dedicated services to the UN peacekeeping Mission by sending a large contingent of its trained manpower every year. MUST READ: Mobile app ‘Prahari SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2  Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Irritable Male Syndrome Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Irritable Male Syndrome has been observed recently in males. Background:- Christie Saju, Counselling Psychologist at Lissun, explained that IMS is not medically recognized yet, although it could be an issue of irregularities in testosterone levels. About Irritable Male Syndrome:- Irritable Male Syndrome is characterized by men experiencing frustration, anxiety, and anger. It can be due to many factors, such as hormonal changes and stress. The signs and symptoms can vary from person to person. Some of the common manifestations, according to experts, include:- Mood swings: Men with IMS may experience rapid and intense changes in mood, ranging from irritability and anger to sadness and depression. Increased irritability: IMS can lead to heightened levels of irritability and sensitivity, causing individuals to become easily frustrated or angered by small things. Fatigue: IMS may cause feelings of persistent tiredness and lethargy, even with sufficient sleep and rest. Decreased libido: Men with IMS might notice a decline in their sexual desire and overall interest in sexual activities. Social withdrawal: IMS can contribute to a decreased desire for social interaction, leading affected individuals to isolate themselves from others. Poor concentration and memory: IMS may result in difficulties with focus, concentration, and memory retention. Irritable Male Syndrome can be diagnosed by:- Evaluation of symptoms: detailed information about the individual’s symptoms, medical history, and any underlying conditions that could contribute to their symptoms. Physical examination: A physical examination may be conducted to rule out any other possible causes for the symptoms and to assess general health. Hormone testing: In some cases, hormone levels, particularly testosterone, may be measured through blood tests. However, it’s important to note that hormone levels can vary throughout the day, so testing may not always provide a definitive diagnosis. Psychological assessment: Psychological assessment to evaluate mental health and identify any underlying psychological factors that could be contributing to the symptoms. (Mental Health) Treatment:- Currently, there is limited research on specific treatments for Irritable Male Syndrome (IMS). However, it can be treated or managed by:- Lifestyle modifications: Adopting a healthy lifestyle. Counselling or therapy: Talk therapy, such as cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT), can be beneficial in managing mood swings, irritability, and other emotional symptoms associated with IMS. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT): In some cases, if low testosterone levels are identified through blood tests, a healthcare professional may recommend hormone replacement therapy. Symptom management: Addressing specific symptoms that may involve strategies such as stress management techniques. MUST READ: DENGUE SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: (2021) Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 India Meteorological Department (IMD) Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, the India Meteorological Department (IMD) has predicted a wet spell with thunderstorm activity over Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. Background:- It has also predicted isolated heavy rainfall over coastal Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, Karaikal and Kerala. About India Meteorological Department (IMD):- Established: 1875. Ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences. IMD Headquarters: New Delhi. It is the National Meteorological Service of the country. It is the principal government agency in all matters relating to meteorology and allied subjects. Objectives:- To take meteorological observations and provide current and forecast meteorological information for optimum operation of weather-sensitive activities like agriculture, irrigation, shipping, etc. To warn against severe weather phenomena tropical cyclones, duststorms, heavy rains and snow, cold and heat waves,, which cause the destruction of life and property. To conduct and promote research in meteorology and allied disciplines. To provide meteorological statistics required for agriculture, water resource management, industries, oil exploration and other nation-building activities. The IMD uses 4 colour codes:- Green (All is well): No advisory is issued. (Colour Coded Weather Warning) Yellow (Be Aware): Yellow indicates severely bad weather spanning several days. Orange/Amber (Be prepared): The orange alert is issued as a warning of extremely bad weather with the potential of disruption in commute with road and rail closures, and interruption of power supply. Red (Take Action): When extremely bad weather conditions are certainly going to disrupt travel and power and pose significant risk to life, the red alert is issued. MUST READ: The India Meteorological Department (IMD) may introduce new monsoon models SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following : (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Gangetic river dolphins Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: A recent publication by scientists and researchers has revealed that 19 Gangetic river dolphins were rescued from the irrigation canals of the Ganga-Ghagra basin in Uttar Pradesh between 2013 and 2020. Background:- The development of dams and barrages has severely affected this habitat as dolphins move into irrigation canals, studies show About Gangetic river dolphins:- Common Name: Susu Scientific Name : Platanista gangetica gangetica (Dolphins) Status: Endangered (IUCN). Habitat: Ganges river dolphins prefer deep waters, in and around the confluence of rivers. Distribution: India covers seven states namely, Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal. The upper Ganga River (in Uttar Pradesh), Chambal River (Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh), Ghaghra and Gandak Rivers (Bihar and Uttar Pradesh), Ganga River, from Varanasi to Patna (Uttar Pradesh and Bihar), Son and Kosi rivers (Bihar), Brahmaputra from Sadia (foothills of Arunachal Pradesh) upto Dhubri (on the Bangladesh border) and Kulsi River, a tributary of the Brahmaputra River, form ideal habitats for the Ganges river dolphin. The Ganges river dolphin has a sturdy, yet flexible, body with large flippers and a low triangular dorsal fin. Females are larger than males. They are among the oldest creatures in the world along with some species of turtles, crocodiles, and sharks. The Gangetic Dolphins are generally blind. They emit an ultrasonic sound that reaches the prey. Threats:- Direct killing habitat fragmentation by dams and barrages Indiscriminate fishing MUST READ: Irrawaddy dolphins SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (2023) Fishing cat Orangutan Otter Sloth bear Q2. Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: SPECIES IUCN STATUS African Savannah Elephant Endangered Bengal Roof Turtle Vulnerable Narrow-snout Sawfish Least concern How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Irritable Male Syndrome is characterized by men experiencing frustration, anxiety, and anger. Statement-II : The signs and symptoms are the same in all. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Gangetic Dolphins, consider the following statements: They are among the oldest creatures in the world along with some species of turtles, crocodiles, and sharks. The Gangetic Dolphins are generally blind. They emit an ultrasonic sound that reaches the prey. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  1st December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 30th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 1st December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 30th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Finland Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, Finland announced that it will close its last remaining road border with Russia due to its concerns over migration. Background:- Finnish Prime Minister Petteri Orpo has said, that Finland will close its last remaining road border with Russia due to its concerns over migration, as the country accused Moscow of undermining Finland’s national security. About Finland:- IMAGE SOURCE: BRITANNICA Capital: Helsinki Finland, a country located in northern Europe. Finland is one of the world’s most northern and geographically remote countries. It is subject to a severe climate. Finland forms a symbolic northern border between Western and Eastern Europe. Bilateral relations:- Finland has excellent relations with India. Finland established diplomatic relations with India in 1949, after the country had gained independence in 1947. In recent years, the consolidation of the political and economic cooperation between the countries has been reflected in an increase in joint initiatives and the active exchange of delegations. Trade and economic relations:- Finland’s trade and economic relations with India rely on the export of paper, machinery, equipment and industry services from Finland to India. India’s exports to Finland are correspondingly centred on pharmaceutical, chemical and textile products. Services – particularly in the area of ICT and digital solutions also have a significant role in Indian exports to Finland. ( Finland gets world’s youngest PM)  MUST READ: Finlandization SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia Turkey Amhara Ethiopia Cabo Delgado Spain Catalonia Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Pirola Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Pirola, has seen a threefold increase in cases over a two-week period. Background:- Pirola is predominantly circulating in the US northeast, where it ranks as the second most prevalent variant (13%) following HV.1. About Pirola:- Pirola or 2.86 Variant is a new strain of COVID-19 with 35 mutations, causing concerns about immune evasion and vaccine efficacy. It demonstrates distinct symptoms like rashes, conjunctivitis, and diarrhoea. (Second Wave of COVID-19) The Pirola variant has been detected in several countries, including the US, the UK, and others. The fact that these cases are unrelated suggests some degree of international transmission, which is concerning. The concern with such mutations is that they could potentially make the virus more transmissible or resistant to immunity gained from previous infections or vaccinations. The WHO has classified BA.2.86 as a variant under monitoring. The spike protein of the Pirola variant has over 30 mutations, which is the protein that the virus utilizes to bind to human cells. This indicates that the Pirola variant could be more contagious or evade vaccines more than other Omicron subvariants. MUST READ: iNCOVACC SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. VAJRA PRAHAR Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, Indo-US Special Forces Exercise Vajra Prahar Began. Background:- Indian and US special forces on Tuesday started joint exercise “Vajra Prahar” at the Joint Training Node, in Umroi, Meghalaya. About VAJRA PRAHAR:- Date: November 21 to December 11, 2023. Time period: it is conducted annually. Venue: Umroi Cantonment, Meghalaya. Vajra Prahar is an annual exercise alternately hosted by the Special Forces of India and the United States. These Special Forces units are dedicated to covert operations, counterterrorism, and other specialized military tasks. It is crucial for addressing the security challenges both nations face in the current global context. VAJRA PRAHAR has evolved as a platform to exchange ideas, enhance interoperability, and strengthen defence cooperation between the Special Forces of both India and the United States. The exercise is conducted in two phases, involving combat conditioning, tactical-level special missions training exercises, and a subsequent validation phase to assess and confirm the training received by both contingents. Key activities include Combat Free Fall insertion of troops, Waterborne insertion of troops, Precision engagement of targets at long ranges, Combat air controlling of fixed-wing and rotary-wing aircraft, and Airborne insertion and sustenance of troops.  MUST READ: India-USA relations SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin? (2023) Cameroon Nigeria South Sudan Uganda Q.2) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Pneumonia Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, amid reports of a surge in Pneumonia among children in China, the Karnataka government’s health department has placed its healthcare infrastructure on alert statewide. Background:- The advisory emphasizes seasonal flu, an infectious disease lasting five to seven days, known for its low morbidity and mortality rates. About Pneumonia:- Pneumonia is an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs. The air sacs may fill with fluid or pus (purulent material), causing cough with phlegm or pus, fever, chills, and difficulty breathing. A variety of organisms, including bacteria, viruses and fungi, can cause pneumonia. Symptoms:- Chest pain when you breathe or cough Confusion or changes in mental awareness (in adults age 65 and older) Cough, which may produce phlegm Fatigue Fever, sweating and shaking chills Lower than normal body temperature (in adults older than age 65 and people with weak immune systems) Nausea, vomiting or diarrhoea Shortness of breath Risk factors:- Being hospitalized. Chronic disease. Smoking. Weakened or suppressed immune system. Prevention:- Get vaccinated. (Disease Surveillance System) Make sure children get vaccinated. Practice good hygiene. Don’t smoke. Treatment:- Vaccine: Pneumonia caused by bacteria is easily preventable with vaccines. 3 doses of the primary vaccine (Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) to prevent it are recommended. A new vaccine for one of the main viral causes of pneumonia is under development. India has introduced a nationwide rollout of PCV under the Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP). MUST READ: National Centres for Disease Control (NCDC) SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) What is the cas9 protein that is often mentioned in the news? (2019) molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing. A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients. A gene that makes plants pest-resistant A herbicidal substance synthesized in generally modified crops Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra received a warm welcome. Background:- Prime Minister Narendra Modi today virtually interacted with beneficiaries of the central government’s welfare schemes under the outreach programme Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra. About Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra:- Launched: 2023. Objectives:- Reaching the unreached – reach out to the vulnerable who are eligible under various schemes but have not availed of benefits so far. Dissemination of information and generating awareness about schemes. Learning from the citizens – Interaction with beneficiaries of government schemes through personal stories/experience sharing. Enrolment of potential beneficiaries through details ascertained during the Yatra. Salient Features:- It aims to promote and publicize government welfare schemes. The schemes that will be publicized through the yatra include Ayushman Bharat; PMJAY PM Garlb Kalyan Anna Yojana;  Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana among others. Five specially designed IEC (Information, Education and Communication) Vans will carry the message of the Government’s flagship welfare programmes. The target is to cover over 2.55 lakh Gram Panchayats and over 3,600 urban local bodies by 25th January 2024. In order to have synergy, the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, the Ministry of Rural Development and the Ministry of Tribal Affairs will be the nodal Ministries for rural areas with significant Scheduled Tribe populations. For urban areas, the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs will be the Nodal Ministries. Government of India proposes to appoint Nodal Officers at States/ Districts for effective coordination MUST READ: Digital India Programme SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: India’s public sector healthcare System largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care. Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming. to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Hybrid puffins Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY  Context: Recent studies show that, Hybrid puffins may have emerged in the 20th century due to warming. Background:- Two distinct subspecies of Atlantic puffins are now interbreeding in Norway, possibly as a result of Arctic warming forcing some birds away from their usual habitat. About Hybrid Puffins:- Scientific Name: Fratercula arctica. Habitat:- During the breeding season they roost on rocky cliffsides. Outside the breeding season the Atlantic puffins spend all their time at Distribution:- Atlantic puffins are the only species of puffin to live on the Atlantic Ocean. The other three puffin species live in the Pacific Ocean. They are spread around the coast of Europe from Russia’s northwest to France and all around the UK coastline. Physical Appearance:- The Atlantic puffin is a short creature. Its face is white with a black stripe running along the bottom of the eye. Their bill is as tall as their face and is triangular in shape when viewed from the side. Atlantic puffins are Most of their diet is fish with some shrimp, crustaceans, molluscs and polychaete worms also being taken on occasion. Reproduction: These monogamous birds lay their eggs.  MUST READ: Kerala Bird Atlas (KBA) SOURCE: NEW SCIENTIST PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following fauna: (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: (2023) They build nests by making burrows in the ground. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: EXERCISES COUNTRIES Sampriti India & Bangladesh Maitree Exercise India & Thailand Yudh Abhyas India & UK How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Vajra Prahar is conducted biannually. Statement-II : The 2023 edition will take place in Umroi Cantonment, Meghalaya. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Pirola, consider the following statements: Pirola is also called BA.2.86 . It demonstrates distinct symptoms like rashes, conjunctivitis, and diarrhoea. The Pirola variant has only been detected in the US. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  30th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 29th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 30th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 29th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Zimbabwe Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS/ GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Zimbabwe announced the construction of its first utility geothermal power plant. Background:- The project aims to reduce Zimbabwe’s reliance on hydropower energy sources, which are under threat due to climate change. About Zimbabwe:- IMAGE SOURCE: WorldAtlas Location: Southern Africa. Capital: Harare. Zimbabwe is a landlocked country. Zimbabwe shares its borders with Zambia, Mozambique, South Africa, and Botswana. The country boasts diverse landscapes, including savannas, mountains (such as the Eastern Highlands), and plateaus. It has the iconic Victoria Falls on the Zambezi River. Zimbabwe, lies to the north of the Tropic of Capricorn. It is completely within the tropics but enjoys subtropical conditions. It is dominated by Savvanah grasslands. Major Rivers:- Zambezi River: The Zambezi, one of Africa’s largest rivers, flows through Zimbabwe, creating the iconic Victoria Falls, one of the world’s largest waterfalls. Limpopo River: Forms part of Zimbabwe’s southern border with South Africa and serves as a vital water source for the region. Save River: A major river in southeastern Zimbabwe, it is a key waterway supporting agriculture and wildlife in the region. Mountains and Highlands:- Eastern Highlands: This mountainous region, bordering Mozambique, features high peaks, lush forests, and fertile valleys. Mount Nyangani is the highest peak in Zimbabwe, part of the Eastern Highlands. Chimanimani Mountains: A subrange of the Eastern Highlands, known for its scenic beauty, diverse flora, and popular hiking trails. Matobo Hills: Located in the southwest, these granite hills are renowned for their unique rock formations, ancient rock art, and spiritual significance to the local communities. MUST READ: India-Africa Relationship SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                                    Turkey Amhara                                                   Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                          Spain Catalonia                                                   Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 ISSF World Cup Final 2023 Syllabus Prelims –SPORTS Context: Recently, the competitive phase of the ISSF World Cup Final 2023 began. Background:- The ISSF World Cup Final 2023 began with 10m Air Pistol Men and women events. About ISSF World Cup Final 2023:- Date: November 18th, to 26th November, 2023. Venue: Doha, Qatar. The competition will witness 13 Indian shooters competing for top honours across various shooting disciplines. This season finale will showcase the top 15 shooters from this year’s World Cup circuit across 12 shooting events. (Grand Slam) India currently holds the third position in the World Cup medal standings with three gold, one silver and five bronze medals. China is leading the table with seven gold medals. Serbia is in second spot with the same number of golds as India and an additional silver medal. Leading the Indian contingent will be Aishwarya Pratap Singh Tomar, a multiple medal-winner at the Asian Games 2022 and Rudrankksh Balasaheb Patil, a former world number one. Apart from these two, the team comprises the Paris Olympics 2024 quota holders Mehuli Ghosh, Akhil Sheoran, Sarabjot Singh, Anish Bhanwala, and Asian Games 2022 bronze medalist Ramita Jindal. Tokyo Olympian Elavenil Valarivan is another key member of the team. MUST READ: Sports Code SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship: The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Black Stork Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, Black Stork was spotted for the first time in Hastinapur. Background:- A Black Stork, a species rarely seen, has been spotted in the Hastinapur Wildlife Sanctuary in Uttar Pradesh, India. About Black Stork:- Scientific Name: Ciconia nigra. FAMILY: Ciconiidae. The black stork is a large bird in the stork family Ciconiidae. (Blackbuck) It was first described by Carl Linnaeus in the 10th edition of his Systema Naturae. Measuring on average 95 to 100 cm (37 to 39 in) from beak tip to end of tail with a 145-to-155 cm (57-to-61 in) wingspan. The adult black stork has mainly black plumage, with white underparts, long red legs and a long pointed red beak. It is a widespread but uncommon species. It breeds in scattered locations across Europe (predominantly in Portugal and Spain, and central and eastern parts), and east across the Palearctic to the Pacific Ocean. It is a long-distance migrant, with European populations wintering in tropical Sub-Saharan Africa, and Asian populations in the Indian subcontinent. When migrating between Europe and Africa, it avoids crossing the Mediterranean Sea and detours via the Levant in the east or the Strait of Gibraltar in the west. An isolated, non-migratory, population occurs in Southern Africa. Conservation status:- IUCN: Least concern  MUST READ: Atapaka Bird Sanctuary SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which of the following organisms perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q2. Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) Syllabus Prelims –SPACE Context: India and the US will launch the joint microwave remote sensing satellite for Earth observation named NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) soon. Background:- The Department of Space in a statement said that NISAR is targeted for launch onboard India’s Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV). About NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar):- Launch year :2024. Agency: NASA and ISRO. The NASA-ISRO SAR (NISAR) Mission will measure Earth’s changing ecosystems, dynamic surfaces, and ice masses providing information about biomass, natural hazards, sea level rise, and groundwater. It will support a host of other applications. NISAR will observe Earth’s land and ice-covered surfaces globally with 12-day regularity on ascending and descending passes, sampling Earth on average every 6 days for a baseline 3-year mission. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration will provide one of the radars for the satellite, a high-rate communication subsystem for science data, GPS receivers and a payload data subsystem. NISAR will be equipped with the largest reflector antenna ever launched by NASA. The Indian Space and Research Organisation (ISRO) will provide the spacecraft bus, the second type of radar (called the S-band radar), the launch vehicle and associated launch services. Objectives:- Tracking subtle changes in the Earth’s surface, Spotting warning signs of imminent volcanic eruptions, Helping to monitor groundwater supplies, and Tracking the rate at which ice sheets are melting. Significance:- NISAR’s data can help people worldwide better manage natural resources and hazards, as well as provide information for scientists to better understand the effects and pace of climate change. MUST READ: India – USA space cooperation SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6, and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2)  Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies do not change Gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in straight line Speed of light is always same Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: Recently, it was revealed that ISRO chose to land Chandrayaan in moon’s south pole region for water molecules. Background:- The Chandrayaan-3 Project Director said India has a road map for its space programmes until 2047. About Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO):- Establishment: 1969. Agency: Department of Space (DOS). HQ: Bengaluru, Karnataka. Objective: to harness space technology for national development while pursuing space science research and planetary exploration. Historic Background:- ISRO was previously the Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR), set up by the Government of India in 1962, as envisioned by Dr. VikramA Sarabhai. ISRO was formed on August 15, 1969 and superseded INCOSPAR with an expanded role to harness space technology. Salient Features:- ISRO is the space agency under the Department of Space of Government of India. The organization is involved in science, engineering and technology to harvest the benefits of outer space for India and the mankind. ISRO is a major constituent of the Department of Space (DOS), Government of India. The department executes the Indian Space Programme primarily through various Centres or units within ISRO. Functions: Space Science & Exploration Satellites. Antrix Corporation Limited (ACL) is a Marketing arm of ISRO for the promotion and commercial exploitation of space products, technical consultancy services, and transfer of technologies developed by ISRO. ISRO Milestones:- The first Indian-made sounding rocket was the RH-75 (Rohini-75). The first Indian satellite, Aryabhata, was built by the ISRO. Development of the PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) for placing satellites into polar orbits and the GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) for placing satellites into geostationary orbits. ISRO also launched the first IRS (remote-sensing satellite) in 1988. ISRO launched its first lunar mission Chandrayaan I in 2008. In January 2014, ISRO used an indigenously built cryogenic engine for a GSLV-D5 launch of the GSAT-14 satellite making it one of the only six countries in the world to develop a cryogenic technology. It also launched the Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) or the Mangalyaan in 2014. India launched Chandrayaan-2, its second lunar exploration mission after Chandrayaan-1 on 22nd July 2019. India launched Chandrayaan-3 in 2023.  MUST READ: IN-SPACe SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct? (2023) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times that received at the poles. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Swine Flu Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, a new Swine Flu Strain has been discovered in a Human in the UK For the First Time. Background:- The UK Health Security Agency (UKHSA) verified that a person tested positive for Influenza A H1N2v, a distinct but similar virus to the flu viruses spreading in pigs across the country. About Swine Flu:- The H1N1 flu, sometimes called swine flu, is a type of influenza A virus. Influenza viruses such as H1N1 infect the cells that line your nose, throat and lungs. The virus spreads through the air in droplets released when someone with the virus coughs, sneezes, breathes or talks. The virus enters your body when you breathe in contaminated droplets. (Disease Surveillance System) Symptoms:- Fever, but not always. Aching muscles. Chills and sweats. Cough. Sore throat. Runny or stuffy nose. Watery, red eyes. Eye pain. Body aches. Headache. Tiredness and weakness. Diarrhea. Feeling sick to the stomach, vomiting, but this is more common in children than adults. Preventions:- Wash hands often. Cover the coughs and sneezes. Avoid touching face. Avoid touching eyes, nose and mouth. Clean and disinfect surfaces. MUST READ: African Swine Fever SOURCE: SCIENCE DIRECT    PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Disease Caused by Plague Bordetella pertussis Whooping Cough Yersinia pestis Pneumonia Streptococcus pneumoniae How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) is planned to be launched in year 2024. Statement-II : It is joint effort of Agency NASA and ESA. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Zimbawe, consider the following statements: Its Capital is Harare. Zimbabwe is a landlocked country. Zimbabwe does not share its borders with Botswana. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  29th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 28th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 29th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Silkyara Tunnel Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Silkyara tunnel rescue operations entered their 16th day. Background:- The accident when the workers were trapped in the Silkyara Tunnel located on the Uttarkashi-Yamnotri Road. The collapse happened about 270m from the entrance of the Silkyara side. The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF), the State Disaster Relief Force (SDRF) and the police are among the main figures in the multi-agency rescue operations. About Silkyara Tunnel:- Location: Uttarakhand. The total length of the tunnel is 5 km. It is meant to connect Silkyara to Dandal gaon in Uttarkashi district. The double-lane tunnel is pegged as one of the longest tunnels under the Char Dham all-weather road project. (The significance of the Char Dham board verdict) It aims to reduce the journey from Uttarkashi to Yamunotri Dham by 26 kilometres. From the Silkyara side, 2.3km of tunnel has been constructed, while 1.6km of tunnelling work has been completed from the Barkot end. Approximately, a 400m stretch of the tunnel is yet to be constructed. The Silkyara tunnel is part of the ongoing construction between Silkyara and Dandalgaon on the Brahmakhal-Yamunotri stretch of the National Highway under the Char Dham project. Char Dham Project: Launched in December 2016, it aims to enhance connectivity between the four pilgrimage sites of Char Dham—Kedarnath, Badrinath, Yamunotri, and Gangotri. MUST READ: Char Dham Highways SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 New Zealand Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Christopher Luxon sworn in as New Zealand’s prime minister. Background:- The swearing-in ceremony was presided over by Governor-General Cindy Kiro. About New Zealand:- IMAGE SOURCE: Nations Online New Zealand, an island country in the South Pacific Ocean, the southwesternmost part of Polynesia. It lies more than 1,000 miles (1,600 km) southeast of Australia, its nearest neighbour. The country comprises two main islands—the North and the South Island—and a number of small islands, some of them hundreds of miles from the main group. The capital city is The largest urban area in Auckland. The North Island of New Zealand has a ‘spine’ of mountain ranges running through the middle, with gentle rolling farmland on both sides. The central North Island is dominated by the Volcanic Plateau, an active volcanic and thermal area. The massive Southern Alps form the backbone of the South Island. To the east of the Southern Alps is the rolling farmland of Otago and Southland, and the vast, flat Canterbury Plains. India-New Zealand Relations:- Historical Relations: India and New Zealand have a longstanding, friendly and growing relationship. Our ties go back to the 1800s, with Indians settling in Christchurch as early as the 1850s. Political Relations: India and New Zealand have cordial and friendly relations rooted in the linkages of the Commonwealth, parliamentary democracy, and the English language. Economic relations: India NZ Business Council (INZBC) and India NZ Trade Alliance (INZTA) are the two prominent organizations working to promote India-NZ trade and investment relations. ( India and RCEP) Cultural Relations: All Indian festivals including Diwali, Holi, Rakshabandhan, Baisakhi, Guruparv, Onam, Pongal, etc. are celebrated with much enthusiasm all over NZ. MUST READ: India-Australia relations SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (2022) Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Q.2) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco Region along the Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea areas Dead Sea Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, A new school for 400 children evacuated from the Gaza area opened near the Dead Sea. Background:- One month after the start of the war in Gaza, Israel’s Minister of Education Yoav Kish held the official opening ceremony of the first school established in the Tamar Regional Council (by the Dead Sea) for students from first to twelfth grades who were evacuated from their homes. About Dead Sea:- The Dead Sea is a landlocked salt lake between Israel and Jordan in southwestern Asia. The Dead Sea, also known as the Salt Sea. It has the lowest elevation on land and is the world’s lowest body of water. (Global Sea-level Rise and Implications) The water in the Dead Sea is roughly ten times saltier than ocean water in general. This salinity makes for a harsh environment in which animals cannot flourish, hence its name. It lies to the east of the Mediterranean Sea and south of the Sea of Galilee. It lies in the Jordan Rift Valley. It is fed mainly by the Jordan River, which enters the lake from the north. It is 306 m deep, the deepest hypersaline lake in the world. Clinical studies have shown that the high mineral concentration of its water and mud, zinc, and oxygen-rich air can treat a variety of ailments, including psoriasis and other skin conditions, asthma, rheumatism, high blood pressure, and more. MUST READ: Deep-Sea Mining SOURCE: NEWSX PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second-largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Election Commission of India (ECI) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, Election Commission of India (ECI) issued a notice to the Karnataka government over publishing advertisements related to its achievements in newspapers in poll-bound Telangana. Background:- The Commission has sought an explanation from the State Congress government. About Election Commission of India (ECI):- The Election Commission is a permanent and independent body established by the Constitution of India. (UPSC CSE: Election Commission) Objective: to ensure free and fair elections in the country. Article 324 of the Constitution: provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission. Composition Election Commission of India:- Members: The election commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and a such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. Appointment: The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made by the Head: When any other election commissioner is so appointed the chief election commissioner shall act as the chairman of the election commission. Regional commissioners: The president may also appoint after consultation with the election commission such regional commissioners as he may consider necessary to assist the election commission. Procedure of Removal:- The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge by Parliament. Judges of High Courts and Supreme Court, CEC, Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) may be removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on grounds of ‘Proven misbehaviour or incapacity’. Removal requires a special majority of 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50% of the total strength of the house. Conditions of service: it shall be such as the President may by rule. Tenure of office: President may by rule determine it. Key Functions of ECI:- ECI superintendents, direct and control the entire process of conducting elections. These include elections to Parliament and Legislature of every State and to the offices of President and Vice-President of India. It decides the election schedules for the conduct of periodic and timely elections, whether general or bye-elections. It prepares electoral rolls and issues Electronic Photo Identity Cards (EPIC). It decides on the location of polling stations, assignment of voters to the polling stations, location of counting centres, and other related arrangements to be made. It grants recognition to political parties. It allots election symbols to them along with settling disputes related to it. (Remote Voting by ECI) Advisory jurisdiction: it can advise in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures. It issues the Model Code of Conduct in elections for political parties and candidates. Model Code of Conduct: a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India for the conduct of political parties and candidates during elections. It sets limits of campaign expenditure per candidate to all the political parties and also monitors the same. MUST READ: Appointment of Chief Election Commissioner and Other ECs SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean? (2023) The principle of natural justice The procedure established by law Fair application of law Equality before law Q.2) With reference to the Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements : (2023) When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Debrigarh Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, a rare grey wolf was sighted in Debrigarh Sanctuary recently. Background:- Wolf, a schedule-1 endangered species in India, has been sighted at Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary for the first time in the recent past. About Debrigarh Sanctuary:- Location: Bargarh district, Odisha. The Hirakud reservoir on the east and north boundaries of the sanctuary attracts migratory waterfowl during the winter months. Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary is characterized by a variety of vegetation types, including dry deciduous forests, mixed forests, and grasslands. The sanctuary is known for its rich biodiversity and is home to numerous wildlife species. It was declared as a wildlife sanctuary on 8th February 1985. It is an important site for in situ conservation of wildlife and its habitat in the state of Odisha. It finds a special mention because of noted freedom fighter Veer Surendra Sai. During his rebellion against the British, Veer Surendra Sai made his base at ‘Barapathara,” located within the sanctuary. Flora:- Dry deciduous forests. Fauna:- Four-horned antelope, Indian leopard, Indian elephant, sambar, chital, gaur, etc. MUST READ: Sanctuary SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which of the following organisms perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q2. Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Qatar Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, Qatar said that an agreement was reached to extend a truce in Gaza between Israel and Hamas by two more days. Background:- In a social media post, Qatar’s foreign ministry spokesperson Majed Al-Ansari said that the truce between Israel and Hamas in the Gaza Strip will be extended by two days, opening the way for further releases of hostages and prisoners. About Qatar:- IMAGE SOURCE: WORLDATLAS Qatar is located in Asia continent. It is primarily a desert country. The temperatures in the summer go above 40 degrees Celsius with high humidity. Qatar shares a land border with Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, and the United Arab Emirates. Due to the presence of massive offshore natural gas fields, the nation has one of the world’s highest per capita incomes. The majority of its 2.9 million people live around its capital, Doha, on its eastern coast. Background of the ISRAEL-PALESTINE war:- Both Israelis and Palestinians were struggling for self-determination and sovereignty over the territory, developing respective movements for their causes. Both Palestinians and Israelis see the territory between the Jordan River and the Mediterranean Sea as their own, and Christians, Jews, and Muslims all hold parts of the land as sacred. The past seven decades have brought war and uprisings. ( 15th India-Israel Joint Working Group) Historic Timeline of the war:- Ottoman Empire: The Ottoman Empire had controlled that part of the Middle East from the early 16th century until control of most of the region was granted to the British after World War I. In 1916: the Sykes-Picot Agreement secretly negotiated between Britain and France planned to carve up the Middle East into spheres of influence, and determined that the land in question was to be internationalized. In 1917: Britain’s foreign secretary, Lord Arthur Balfour, expressed his government’s support for “the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people. 1947: After World War II, nearing the end of the British Mandate for Palestine, the United Nations General Assembly in 1947 passed Resolution 181, urging the partition of the land into two independent states — one Arab and one Jewish. Religiously significant Jerusalem is to be under special international administration. The plan is not implemented after the Arab side rejects it, arguing that it is unfavourable to their majority population. Violence in the regional conflict grows. 1948: Israel declares independence. Israel declared independence in May 1948. The next day, a coalition of Arab states, allied with Palestinian factions, attacked Israeli forces in what became the first of several Arab-Israeli wars. In the end, Israel gains control of an even larger portion of territory — not including the areas of the West Bank and Gaza Strip January 2023: Israeli forces raid the Palestinian city of Jenin, killing nine people in a shootout. Summer 2023: Retaliatory attacks flare Israel launches surprise airstrikes across the Gaza Strip in May. October 2023: Israel is attacked by Hamas. Prime Minister of Israel, Netanyahu formally declared war on Hamas on Oct. 8 following a surprise assault by Hamas militants that came a day after the 50th anniversary of the start of the 1973 Yom Kippur War. MUST READ: India, Israel and Palestine SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Q.2) Consider the following countries: (2018) Australia Canada China India Japan USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4, 5 and 6 1, 3, 4 and 5 2, 3, 4 and 6 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Exercises Countries Al Nagah India & Oman Naseem Al Bahr India & Qatar Lamitiye India & Seychelles How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Israel declared independence in 1946. .Statement-II : There is no specific treatment or vaccine for Hepatitis E. Qatar shares a land border with Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, and the United Arab Emirates. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Silkyara tunnel, consider the following statements: The total length of the tunnel is 4.5 km. It is meant to connect Silkyara to Dandal Gaon in Uttarkashi district. The double-lane tunnel is pegged as one of the longest tunnels under the Char Dham all-weather road project. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  28th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 27th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 28th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 27th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Nidirana noadihing Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, scientists have discovered a new species of ‘music frog’ Nidirana noadihing in Arunachal Pradesh. Background:- The scientists, Bitupan Boruah, V Deepak, and Abhijit Das, detailed their findings in an article published in the November 15 edition of the journal Zootaxa About Nidirana noadihing:- The Noa-Dihing Music Frog boasts a ‘robust’ body. The males measure approximately 1.8 to 2.3 inches and females ranging from about 2.4 to 2.6 inches. ( New Species of frog in Andaman found) It received its name, Nidirana noadihing, as a homage to the Noa-Dihing River, the vicinity where these unique specimens were encountered and collected. They have ’rounded’ snouts and ‘smooth’ skin, adorned with bony protrusions on their backs. They showcase a striking colour palette, featuring a ‘pale cream’ line bordered with dark brown along the centre of their bodies. Light brown limbs, adorned with dark stripes, further enhance their visual distinctiveness. The speciality of this new species of frog, Nidirana noadihing, is that both the male and female are vocal. Noa-Dihing Music Frogs are distinguished not only by their size but also by their oval toe tips, the tubercles on their backs, and a distinctive call. The irregularly shaped and sized spots on their eyelids, along with dark stripes around their moderately large eyes, contribute to their unique visual features. Significance of the Discovery:- This discovery marks the first confirmation of the Nidirana genus’s presence in India, expanding its known habitat beyond regions in Japan, Taiwan, China, Vietnam, Laos, and Thailand. MUST READ: Atelopus or harlequin frogs SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Governor Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the Supreme Court, in a 27-page judgment, has clarified that the rejection of a Bill by a Governor does not mean its death. Background:- The court says Article 200 of the Constitution provides the Governor with three options — consent to the proposed law, withhold consent, or reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President About Governor:- Article 153 of the Constitution provides the provision that there shall be a Governor for each State. Articles 155 and 156: Under Articles 155 and 156 of the Constitution, a Governor is appointed by the President and holds office “during the pleasure of the President”. If this pleasure is withdrawn before the completion of the five-year term, the Governor has to step down. As the President works on the aid and advice of the Prime Minister and the council of ministers, in effect, the Governor can be appointed and removed by the central government. Article 163: says the Governor will normally be aided and advised by the Council of Ministers except in those functions which require his discretion.  Constitutional power of the Governor related to State Bills:- Article 200 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Governor’s powers in relation to assenting to legislation enacted by the State legislature and other functions of the Governor such as reserving the bill for consideration by the President. Article 201 relates to “Bills Reserved for Consideration”: Governors have absolute veto power, suspense veto power (except on money bills), but no pocket veto power. Absolute Veto: This refers to the Governor’s power to refuse to sign a bill passed by the Assembly. Suspensive Veto: A suspensive veto is used by the Governor when he returns a bill to the State Assembly for reconsideration. If the Assembly resends the bill to the Governor, with or without alteration, he must approve it without using any of his veto powers. The Governor may not use his suspensive veto in connection to the Money Bill Pocket Veto: Power of the President, in pocket veto, the bill is held pending indefinitely. He neither rejects nor sends the measure back for review. MUST READ: Delhi CM-LG stalemate SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2018) No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? (2014) Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule Appointing the Ministers Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration by the President of India Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Wasp-107b Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, a Jupiter-sized exoplanet “Wasp-107b” discovered by NASA. Background:- NASA’s James Webb Telescope has discovered a new exoplanet, which is the size of Jupiter. About Wasp-107b:- WASP-107b is an exoplanet. It was discovered in 2017. It orbits the star WASP-107. It is 200 light years away from the Earth. It is located in the constellation Virg. Earlier, scientists believed that the planet was huge in size due to the huge gas envelope that surrounded the planet. Also, the scientists believed that such huge gas envelopes are possible only with massive and dense cores. However, a recent study says that the cores of WASP-107b are not as dense as thought earlier. It orbits the star WASP-107. It is 200 light years away from the Earth. It is located in the constellation Virg MUST READ: Space sustainability SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q2. Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fueled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Earthquake Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, an Earthquake of 3.0 magnitude hit Haryana’s Sonipat region. Background:- The epicentre of the earthquake was in Sonipat and occurred at latitude 29.15 degrees north and longitude 76.97 degrees east, at a depth of 5 km. About Earthquake:- An earthquake is the shaking or trembling of the earth’s surface. It is caused by the seismic waves or earthquake waves that are generated due to a sudden movement (sudden release of energy) in the earth’s crust (shallow-focus earthquakes) or upper mantle (some shallow-focus and all intermediate and deep-focus earthquakes). A seismograph, or seismometer, is an instrument used to detect and record earthquakes. Hypocentre/Focus: The point where the energy is released. Epicentre: The point on the surface directly above the focus. Isoseismic line: A line connecting all points on the surface where the intensity is the same. Causes of Earthquakes:- Fault Zones Plate tectonics Volcanic activity Human-Induced Earthquakes Types of Earthquakes:- Tectonic Earthquakes The most common ones are tectonic earthquakes. The Earth is made of four basic layers (generally three): a solid crust, a hot, nearly solid mantle, a liquid outer core and a solid inner core. Tectonic plates (Lithospheric plates) are constantly shifting as they drift around on the viscous, or slowly flowing, mantle layer below. When tectonic plates move, it also causes movements at the (Anatolian Plate) Thus, the slipping of land along the Faultline along convergent, divergent and transform boundaries cause earthquakes. Volcanic Earthquake Earthquakes produced by stress changes in solid rock due to the injection or withdrawal of magma (molten rock) are called volcano earthquakes. Human Induced Earthquakes In areas of intense mining activity, sometimes the roofs of underground mines collapse causing minor tremors. These are called collapse earthquakes. Ground shaking may also occur due to the explosion of chemical or nuclear devices. Such tremors are called explosion earthquakes. MUST READ: (Volcano) SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                                    Turkey Amhara                                                   Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                          Spain Catalonia                                                  Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) consider the following statements: (2020) Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. Only some cyclones develop an eye. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C less than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only Constitution Day Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT DAYS Context: Recently, Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar addressed a gathering in New Delhi on the occasion of Constitution Day. Background:- Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar has said that the Constitutional Day is a befitting occasion to remember the visionary leaders who framed the Indian constitution which is the spine of democracy. About Constitution Day:- The Constitution of India is the supreme law of India. It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on 26 November 1949. Constitution Day marks the ratification of the Constitution, whereas Republic Day, on January 26th, commemorates the establishment of the Constitution of India. The adoption of the constitution marked the transition to full independence from Britain as it ended Lord Mountbatten’s role as governor-general of India. After gaining independence, the Constituent Assembly, comprised of 299 elected members, played a pivotal role in shaping the destiny of the nation. Until 2015, this day was recognized as Law Day in India. In 2015, on the occasion of the 125th birth anniversary of B.R. Ambedkar, the Union government declared November 26 as Constitution Day. Objective: to encourage citizens to uphold and follow the constitutional values in their daily lives, fostering a deeper understanding of the principles that guide the nation. Timeline:- On December 6, 1949, the Constitution Assembly was formed and its first meeting was held on December 9. Rajendra Prasad was appointed its President and H C Mukherjee its vice-chairman. On August 29, 1947, the drafting committee appointed Ambedkar as its chairman and six other members — Munshi N Gopalaswami Ayyangar, Khaitan, Mitter, Muhammed Sadulla, Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer. The members of the Constituent Assembly signed two hand-written copies of the document (one each in Hindi and English) on January 24, 1950. On November 26, 1949, the Constitution of India was adopted by the Assembly. On January 26, 1950, the Constitution was enforced. MUST READ: International Mother Language Day SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Q.2) The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to : (2015) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes determine the boundaries between states determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats protect the interests of all the border States Mount Etna Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Italy’s Mount Etna eruption was captured from space as ash, and lava spews out of it recently. Background:- The event was so significant that it was observed from space by the Copernicus Sentinel-2 mission, which used shortwave-infrared bands to highlight the lava flow at the time of acquisition. About Mount Etna:- IMAGE SOURCE: BRITANNICA Mount Etna is the highest Mediterranean island mountain. It is about 3,326 metres high. It is on the eastern coast of Sicily. It is the highest peak in Italy South of the Alps. It is also the most active stratovolcano in the world. Its recorded volcanic activity dates back to 1500 B.C. Since then, it has erupted more than 200 times. A stratovolcano is also called a composite volcano.  (Volcano) This volcanic landform is characterized by a conical shape formed by layers of volcanic material deposited during successive volcanic eruptions. The volcano also supports important terrestrial ecosystems including endemic flora and fauna. Etna has erupted in a variety of modes, including tremendous explosions and massive lava flows. MUST READ: Mt. Mauna Loa SOURCE: BBC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: VOLCANO TYPE Mount Fuji Stratovolcano Mt Etna Shield volcano Mount Vesuvius Cinder cone volcano How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : On January 26, 1950, the Constitution of India was adopted by the Assembly. Statement-II : There is no specific treatment or vaccine for Hepatitis E. 26th November,2023 is Law Day in India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Mount Etna, consider the following statements: It is on the western coast of Sicily. It is the highest peak in Italy South of the Alps. It is also the least active stratovolcano in the world. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  27th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 25th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c