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Nov 27, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Tropical cyclones Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recent studies suggest that Tropical cyclones cause more damage than we think. Background:- India is among the countries facing a high social cost of carbon. About Tropical cyclones:- IMAGE SOURCE: Britannica A cyclone is a pattern of winds (or air mass) that circulates a low-pressure system. It rotates counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. (Naming of Cyclone) It is an intense circular storm that originates over warm tropical oceans. It is characterized by low atmospheric pressure, high winds, and heavy rain. These are formed over slightly warm ocean waters. The temperature of the top layer of the sea, up to a depth of about 60 meters, needs to be at least 28°C to support the formation of a cyclone. April-May and October-December periods are conducive for cyclones. ( Bomb Cyclone) Then, the low level of air above the waters needs to have an ‘anticlockwise’ rotation (in the northern hemisphere; clockwise in the southern hemisphere). During these periods, there was an ITCZ in the Bay of Bengal. MUST READ: (Colour Coded Weather Warning) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Igla-S Syllabus Prelims –DEFENCE Context: Recently, India announced the procurement of Igla-S, a powerful air defence system from Russia. Background:- India is all set to procure a powerful anti-aircraft missile system from Russia — its top weapons supplier which will help boost its defence capabilities along the China and Pakistan borders. About Igla-S:- Igla-S is a prominent and highly effective man-portable air defence system (MANPADS) developed by Russia. The Igla-S is developed and manufactured by the Russian state-owned defence company, KBM (Design Bureau of Machine Building), which specializes in designing missile systems. It entered service with the Russian Army in 2004. (Ballistic missiles) It can be fired by an individual or crew to bring down an enemy aircraft. It is a next-generation surface-to-air missile designed for engaging low-flying aircraft, helicopters, drones, and cruise missiles. It offers superior performance over earlier supplied SA-18 missiles to India. It is designed for use against visible aerial targets at short ranges such as tactical aircraft, helicopters, unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs), and cruise missiles, head-on or receding, in the presence of natural (background) clutter and countermeasures. The Igla-S system consists of the 9M342 missile, which is a part of combat equipment. MUST READ: Intercontinental Ballistic Missile SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) India is a member of which of the following? (2015) Asia-Pacific economic corporation. Association of South-East Asian Nations. East Asia Summit Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2, and 3 India is a member of none of them Q.2) With reference to ‘The Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, Consider the following statements: (2015) It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills It is an alliance meant for maritime security only Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Hindustan Aeronautics Limited Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited the Hindustan Aeronautics Limited site in Bengaluru. Background:- The visit has come at a crucial time as the Indian Air Force recently issued a tender to HAL for the purchase of 12 advanced Su-30MKI fighter jets. About Hindustan Aeronautics Limited:- HQ: Bangalore, India. MINISTRY: Ministry of Defense. HAL is a state-owned Indian aerospace and defense firm. VISION: To be a global leader in the Aerospace & Defense Industry. The Company which had its origin as Hindustan Aircraft Limited was incorporated on 23 Dec 1940 at Bangalore by Shri Walchand Hirachand in association with the then Government of Mysore, with the aim of manufacturing aircraft in India. In March 1941, the Government of India became one of the shareholders in the Company and subsequently took over its management in 1942. In collaboration with the Inter Continental Aircraft Company of USA, the Company commenced its business of manufacturing Harlow Trainer, Curtiss Hawk Fighter and Vultee Bomber Aircraft. In January 1951, Hindustan Aircraft Limited was placed under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence, Government of India. It mainly engages in aerospace activities and is presently involved in the fabrication & production of aircraft, design, helicopters, jet engines & their replacement parts. (Dornier aircraft) It has many facilities scattered throughout India, including Bangalore, Kanpur, Nasik, Koraput, Korwa, Lucknow, Kasaragod and Hyderabad. MUST READ: Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q2. Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Sea buckthorn Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Ladakh is eyeing more production of sea buckthorn post GI tag. Background:- As per official records, at least 600 tonnes of sea buckthorn berries are harvested in Ladakh annually. About Sea buckthorn:- Scientific Name: Hippophae rhamnoides It is a shrub which produces an orange-yellow coloured edible berry. In India, it is found above the tree line in the Himalayan region, generally in dry areas such as the cold deserts of Ladakh and Spiti. In Himachal Pradesh, it is locally called Uses:- Treating stomach, heart and skin problems Its fruit and leaves are rich in vitamins, carotenoids and omega fatty acids Helps troops in acclimatizing to high-altitude Important source of fuelwood and fodder Prevents soil-erosion Checks siltation in rivers Helps preserve floral biodiversity (Invasive Species) Used in making juices, jams, nutritional capsules etc. MUST READ: Water Hyacinth SOURCE: THE TRIBUNE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which of the following organisms perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q2. Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None 54th International Film Festival of India Syllabus Prelims – AWARDS Context: Recently, ‘Odh won the best film award at the ‘75 Creative Minds of Tomorrow’ film challenge held at the 54th International Film Festival of India (IFFI). Background:- The Union Information and Broadcasting Minister Anurag Singh Thakur launched the ‘75 Creative Minds of Tomorrow’ film challenge at IFFI in Goa. About the 54th International Film Festival of India:- Date: 20th to 28th of November. Venue: Goa. Organized by: National Film Development Corporation of India Ltd (NFDC). Ministry: Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. Historical Background:- Since 1952, India has hosted 53 International Film Festival of India (IFFI) both competitive and non-competitive. The festival became an annual event from 1975 onwards. The 54th edition of the festival, which includes a competition for feature films by Directors from all Continents will be held in Goa. Government of India in collaboration with the State Government of Goa and the Indian Film Industry. The Festival is recognized by the International Federation of Film Producers Associations (FIAPF) as a Competitive Feature Film Festival. Objectives:- providing a common platform for filmmakers of the world to project their excellence in film art. contributing to the understanding and appreciation of film cultures of different nations in the context of their social and cultural ethos promoting friendship and co-operation among people of the world. Categories:- The festival programme is broadly divided into the following categories: – International Competition for Feature Films (up to 15 numbers. Up to three Indian Films will be selected for this section. Fiction Films with a minimum duration of 70 minutes and above). Non-Competition (World Panorama) – for feature films from around the world ( Films with a minimum duration of 70 minutes and above). Country Focus & other specially curated packages (Indian & Foreign) and Special Screenings/Gala Premieres. Indian Panorama – for Indian feature films, Indian Panorama Regulations 2023 will be applicable. Technical Workshops/Masterclasses/other Interactive and academic Sessions/Panel Discussions/Talent Hub etc. both virtual and physical. Film Bazaar: IFFI also hosts the Film Bazaar, South Asia’s largest and One of Asia’s most prolific Film Markets showcasing rich content to potential buyers from different countries across the world. National Film Development Corporation Ltd (NFDC) reserves the right to exclude films that are not in conformity with the philosophy and objective of the festival, which could offend the feelings/susceptibilities of any participating country, or are likely to promote discrimination of any kind. Awards & Prizes:- Best Film: A Cash prize of Rs. 40,00,000/- to be shared equally between the Director and Producer. (The urgent need for CBFC reforms) Director to be given the Golden Peacock and a Certificate in addition to the cash component. Producer to be given a Certificate in addition to the cash component. Best Director: Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs.15,00,000/- Best Actor (Male): Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/- Best Actor (Female): Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/- Special Jury Award: Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 15,00,000/- given to a film (for any aspect of the film which the jury wishes to award/acknowledge) or an individual (for his/her artistic contribution to a film). The award, if given to a film, will be given to the Director of the film. Award for Best Debut Feature Film of a Director. Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award for Excellence in Cinema This prestigious award, instituted in the name of legendry filmmaker Satyajit Ray, consisting of a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/-, certificate, shawl, Medal (Silver Peacock) and a scroll, is conferred upon a master filmmaker/film technician/film personalities for his / her outstanding contribution to cinema. Indian Film Personality of the Year Award This prestigious award consisting of a cash prize of Rs 10, 00,000/-, certificate, shawl and Medal (Silver Peacock) is conferred upon an Indian film personality for his/her outstanding contribution to Indian Cinema. ICFT UNESCO – Gandhi Medal Award The Gandhi Medal Award is given to a film reflecting UNESCO’s fundamental mandate of building peace in the minds of men and women, particularly human rights. MUST READ: Golden Globes Award SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Yoga Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: A recent, study conducted by AIIMS has revealed that practising Yoga can reduce felt stigma among adults suffering from epilepsy. Background:- Manjari Tripathi, Head of the Neurology Department, AIIMS, said that the result suggested that yoga enhances the overall quality of life by reducing the burden of epilepsy and felt stigma when used as an add-on, in people with epilepsy who are on medications. About YOGA:- IMAGE SOURCE: WordPress.com The word ‘yoga’ is derived from Sanskrit and means to join or to unite. It symbolizes the union of body and consciousness. Yoga is an ancient physical, mental and spiritual practice. It originated in India. It was put on the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity by UNESCO in 2016. UNESCO List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity: includes forms of expression that demonstrate the diversity of intangible heritage and raise awareness of its importance. India has 13 intangible heritage including Yoga as a part of this list. (UNESCO Heritage Sites in Maharashtra) Related Initiatives M-Yoga App:- The app is a work of collaboration between the World Health Organisation (WHO) and the Ministry of Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy (Ministry of AYUSH), Government of India. New website for International Day of Yoga (IDY):- This web portal provides all the updated and relevant information relating to the International Day of Yoga. Yoga as a sport:- The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, after reviewing the categorization of various Sports disciplines, recognised Yoga as a sports discipline and placed it in the ‘Priority’ category in 2015. Common Yoga Protocol:- It is an initiative of the Ministry of AYUSH. Vocational Education Courses in Yoga:- The Beauty & Wellness Sector Skill Council (B&WSSC) has vocational education courses in Yoga for CBSE schools. Skilling initiatives:- Thousands of candidates have been trained as yoga instructors and trainers through various skilling initiatives like the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY). PMKVY: it is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. Fit India Movement:- Yoga is also a part of the Fit India Movement. Fit India Movement: a nationwide campaign that aims at encouraging people to include physical activities and sports in their everyday lives. MUST READ: New sites added to India’s tentative list of UNESCO world heritage sites SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2021) 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2018) Crafts Heritage of Puthukkuli Shawls Tamil Nadu Sujni Embroidery Maharashtra Uppada Jamdani saris Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is /are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Fighter Aircraft Country Rafale Russia Tejas India Sukhoi 30 France How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : M-Yoga App is a work of collaboration between the World Health Organisation (WHO) and the (Ministry of AYUSH), Government of India. Statement-II : Yoga is also a part of the Fit India Movement. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Tropical cyclone, consider the following statements: April-May and October-December periods are conducive for cyclones. It is characterized by low atmospheric pressure, high winds, and heavy rain. These are formed over slightly cooler ocean waters. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 25th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 24th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

Nov 27, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Nov 25, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 25th November 2023

Nov 24, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 24th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Malaria Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, experts say that East Africa may experience a surge in El Nino-related malaria infections. Background:- Impending outbreaks of new infections can wipe away gains in malaria control, they say. About Malaria:- It is a life-threatening mosquito-borne blood disease. It is caused by Plasmodium parasites. It is predominantly found in the tropical and subtropical areas of Africa, South America as well and Asia. It is preventable as well as curable. Symptoms:- Symptoms usually begin ten to fifteen days after being bitten by an infected mosquito. Symptoms include fever, tiredness, vomiting, and headaches. In severe cases, it can cause jaundice, seizures, coma, or death. Transmission:- The parasites spread through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. In the human body, parasites initially multiply in liver cells and then attack the Red Blood Cells (RBCs). There are 5 parasite species that cause Malaria in humans and 2 of these species (Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax) pose the greatest threat. Prevention:- Using mosquito nets when sleeping in places where malaria is present Using mosquito repellents (containing DEET, IR3535 or Icaridin) after dusk Using coils and vaporizers. Wearing protective clothing. Using window screens. Treatment:- Artemisinin-based combination therapy medicines like artemether-lumefantrine are usually the most effective medicines. Chloroquine is recommended for the treatment of infection with the vivax parasite only in places where it is still sensitive to this medicine. Primaquine should be added to the main treatment to prevent relapses of infection with the P. vivax and P. ovale parasites. Most medicines used are in pill form. Some people may need to go to a health centre or hospital for injectable medicines. (Malaria Vaccine) India’s status:- In India, malaria elimination efforts were initiated in These were intensified after the launch of the National Framework for Malaria Elimination (NFME) in 2016. It is an initiative under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. NFME is in line with WHO’s 2016-2030 Malaria Strategy. (World Malaria Report 2021) WHO’s 2016-2030 Malaria Strategy: guides the WHO Global Malaria Programme (GMP). Status on elimination: India continues to show a sustained decline in overall malaria but faces several challenges in its malaria elimination journey. MUST READ: New hope for malaria vaccine SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following diseases (2014) Diphtheria Chickenpox Smallpox Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 None Q.2) Widespread resistance of the malarial parasites to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine? (2010) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host Air Quality Index (AQI) Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY/ ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the Air Quality Index in the overall Delhi region was recorded at 323. Background:- The air quality level was recorded in the “Very Poor” category in the National Capital. About Air Quality Index (AQI):- Air Quality Index (AQI) is a number used by government agencies to measure air pollution levels and communicate it to the population. (Air pollution) There are six AQI categories, namely Good, Satisfactory, Moderately polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and Severe. Each of these categories is decided based on ambient concentration values of air pollutants and their likely health impacts (known as health breakpoints). AQ sub-index and health breakpoints are evolved for eight pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb) for which short-term (up to 24-hours) National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed. As the AQI increases, it means that a large percentage of the population will experience severe adverse health effects. The measurement of the AQI requires an air monitor and an air pollutant concentration over a specified averaging period. The results are grouped into ranges. Each range is assigned a descriptor, a colour code and a standardized public health advisory. The pollution sources in India and in most Asian countries are numerous and incompletely understood. In Delhi, for example, it comes mostly from light and heavy-duty vehicle traffic emissions, road dust, solid fuel combustion for heating and cooking, biomass, waste burning, thermal power plants, diesel generators, construction and small-scale local industries. ( Delhi and Air Pollution) Government Initiatives:- The National Air Quality Index Standard (NAQI): It was launched by The Minister for Environment, Forests & Climate Change, Shri Prakash Javadekar, on 17 September 2014. The initiative constitutes part of the Government’s mission to introduce the “culture of cleanliness”, as air pollution has been a huge concern in the country, especially in urban areas The National Air Monitoring Program (NAMP): it covers 240 cities in the country, has been operated by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and developed by the Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur (IIT), providing data in the public domain, on a real-time basis. System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research (SAFAR) Portal. Graded Response Action Plan. Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) Reducing Vehicular Pollution: BS-VI Vehicles, Push for Electric Vehicles (EVs), Odd-Even Policy as an emergency measure. Subsidy to farmers for buying Turbo Happy Seeder (THS) Machine. MUST READ: Initiatives and Measures for Prevention of Air Pollution SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 ug/m3. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Lucy Mission Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY-SPACE Context: Recently, the Lucy spacecraft successfully completed its first flyby of an asteroid named Dinkinesh. Background:- It is a mission by NASA. About Lucy Mission:- It was successfully launched on 16, 2021, from the Kennedy Space Center in Florida, US. The spacecraft was launched on an Atlas V 401 rocket. It is a NASA space probe. It is on a twelve-year journey to ten different asteroids. It is the first solar-powered spacecraft to venture so far from the Sun. (Aditya-L1 Mission) It will observe more asteroids than any probe before it — eight in all. It includes Jupiter’s Trojan asteroids. They orbit the Sun in two loose groups: one group leading ahead of Jupiter in its orbit, the other trailing behind at the same distance from the Sun as Jupiter. Asteroids sharing an orbit with a planet, but which are located at the leading (L4) and trailing (L5) Lagrangian points, are known as Trojan asteroids. The mission is named after ‘Lucy’, a 3.2 million-year-old ancestor who belonged to a species of hominins (which include humans and their ancestors). The spacecraft carries two infrared spectrometers and four cameras. MUST READ: IN-SPACe SOURCE: MSN PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only National Investigation Agency (NIA) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT AGENCIES/GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, the National Investigation Agency (NIA) conducted simultaneous raids in Kaimur, Gaya and Aurangabad districts following Naxal-related inputs in Bihar. Background:- During the raids at different locations in Naxal affected Adhaura area in Kaimur three suspected Maoists were arrested. About National Investigation Agency (NIA):- NIA is functioning as the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency in India. Establishment: 2008. It was established by National Investigation Agency Act, enacted on 31-12-08. (NIA) Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs. HQ: New Delhi. It is a central agency to investigate and prosecute offences:- affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India, security of the State, and friendly relations with foreign States. against atomic and nuclear facilities. smuggling in High-Quality Counterfeit Indian Currency. Objectives:- It implements international treaties, agreements, conventions and resolutions of the United Nations, its agencies and other international organisations. Historical Background:- The agency at the Central level was created for t investigation of offences related to terrorism and certain other Acts post-2008 Mumbai terror attacks. Functions of NIA:- In-depth professional investigation of scheduled offences using the latest scientific methods. Ensuring effective and speedy trials. Developing into a thoroughly professional, result-oriented organization. Developing a professional workforce through regular training and exposure to the best practices and procedures. Maintaining professional and cordial relations with the governments of States and Union Territories and other law enforcement agencies in compliance with the legal provisions of the NIA Act. Assist all States and other investigating agencies in the investigation of terrorist cases. Build a database on all terrorist-related information. Share the database available with the States and other agencies. Study and analyse laws relating to terrorism in other countries. Evaluate the adequacy of existing laws in India and propose changes as and when necessary. To win the confidence of the citizens of India through selfless and fearless endeavours. MUST READ: Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements : (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India : (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four SURAT Warship Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: Recently, the Crest unveiling ceremony of the Indian Navy’s Warship “SURAT”. Background:- The Crest of Indian Navy’s latest, indigenous under-construction, guided missile destroyer, ‘Surat’, is scheduled to be unveiled by Shri Bhupendra Patel, the Chief Minister of Gujarat in the presence of Adm R Hari Kumar, the Chief of the Naval Staff, at a ceremony to be held in the city of Surat . About SURAT Warship:- Constructed by: Mazagon Docks Shipbuilders Ltd. Mumbai. Naming: The Destroyer has been named after Gujarat’s commercial capital- Surat, which has a rich maritime and ship-building history. INS Surat is the fourth and the last ship of the Project 15B Indian Navy Destroyers. These are called the Visakhapatnam class after the lead vessel INS Visakhapatnam. The Indian Naval Destroyers are named after Indian cities as per the naval tradition. It began with Project 15, under which three destroyers were built: INS Delhi in 1997, INS Mysore in 1999 and INS Mumbai in 2001. Project 15 was followed by the three-destroyer Project 15A, under which INS Kolkata was commissioned in 2014, INS Kochi in 2015 and INS Chennai in 2016. It was followed by the ‘Project 15B’ programme involves the construction of four next-generation stealth-guided missile destroyers, of which ‘Surat’ is the fourth and the last ship. Under project 15-B:- The first: INS Visakhapatnam. (Project-15B stealth guided missile destroyers) The second: INS Mormugao. The third: INS Imphal. The fourth: INS Surat. While INS Mormugao will be commissioned in 2022, INS Imphal will be commissioned in 2023 and INS Surat is likely to be commissioned in 2024, all at one-year intervals. INS Surat has been built using Block construction methodology that involves hull construction in two different locations and then joined together at one hub. It is a Guided-missile destroyer. This is the first capital warship to be named after the city of Gujarat. MUST READ: Dunagiri, a Project 17A Frigate SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q2. Consider the following countries : (2023) Bulgaria Czech Republic Hungary Latvia Lithuania Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? Only two Only three Only four Only five Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) Syllabus Prelims – IMPORTANT ORGANIZATION Context: Recently, the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) has busted a major module of cyber-enabled crimes allegedly coercing foreign nationals for payments and recovered cash amounts of nearly 2.2 crore rupees. Background:- As part of the operation, the CBI conducted searches in an ongoing investigation of a case at around 24 locations across multiple States, including Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, and Gujarat. About CBI:- It was established as the Special Police Establishment in 194. Objective: to investigate cases of corruption in procurement during the Second World War. Later, the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption recommended the establishment of the CBI. As a result, it was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Union Home Ministry. The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) setup in 1941 was also merged with the CBI Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office. The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, of 1946. The CBI is the main investigating agency of the Central Government. The CBI investigates the crime of corruption, economic offences and serious and organized crime other than terrorism. The CBI is headed by a Director who is assisted by a special/additional director. The Director of CBI has been provided security of two-year tenure by the CVC Act, 2003. As per the CVC Act of 2003, the Central Government shall appoint the Director of CBI on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Chief Justice of India or Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him. If there is no recognized leader of the opposition in the Lok Sabha, then the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha would be a member of that committee. The CBI Academy is located in Ghaziabad, UP and started functioning in 1996. It also has three regional training centres at Kolkata, Mumbai & Chennai. (CBI and its troubles) The superintendence of CBI related to the investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 lies with the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC). Other matters with the Department of Personnel & Training (DOPT) in the Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Grievances of the Government of India Functions:- Investigating cases of corruption, bribery and misconduct of Union govt employees Investigating cases relating to infringement of fiscal and economic laws Investigating serious crimes, having national and international ramifications, committed by organised gangs of professional criminals. Coordinating activities of the anticorruption agencies and various state police forces Taking up, on the request of a state government, any case of public importance for investigation. The Central Government can authorize CBI to investigate such a crime in a State but only with the consent of the concerned State Government. It takes up investigation of conventional crimes like murder, kidnapping, rape etc., on reference from the state governments or when directed by the Supreme Court/High Courts. Maintaining crime statistics and disseminating criminal information. The CBI acts as the “National Central Bureau” of Interpol in India. MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: EXERCISE COUNTRIES Mitra Shakti India & Sri Lanka Siam Bharat India & Thailand Cope India India & US How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The CBI Academy is located in Ghaziabad, UP Statement-II : The CBI Investigates cases of corruption, bribery and misconduct of Union govt employee. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Lucy Mission, consider the following statements: It is a NASA space probe. It is on a twelve-year journey to ten different asteroids. It is the first solar-powered spacecraft to venture so far from the Sun , consider the following statements How many of the statements given above is/are correct? only 1, 2 and 3 only and 3 only only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 24th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 23rd November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Nov 24, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th November 2023

Nov 23, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Ozone Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent reports suggest that the ozone Hole May Not Be Recovering After all. Background:- The hole in the Antarctic ozone layer has been getting deeper in mid-spring over the last two decades, despite a global ban on chemicals that deplete Earth’s shield from deadly solar radiation, new research suggested. About Ozone:- Ozone is a gas composed of three atoms of oxygen. It is both a natural and a man-made product. It occurs in the Earth’s Stratosphere and the Troposphere. Stratospheric ozone is formed naturally through the interaction of solar ultraviolet (UV) radiation with molecular oxygen (O2). Ozone is produced naturally in the stratosphere. But this ozone is gradually being destroyed by man-made chemicals referred to as ozone-depleting substances (ODS), including chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), halons, methyl bromide, carbon tetrachloride, and methyl chloroform. Effects of Ozone Layer Depletion:- Humans may have severe health problems as a result, including skin conditions, cancer, sunburns, cataracts, rapid ageing, and weakened immune systems. Animals that are directly exposed to UV light develop skin and eye cancer. Strong UV radiation may prevent plants from growing, blooming, or performing photosynthesis. Planktons are greatly affected by exposure to harmful ultraviolet rays. (Ozone Levels Exceeding Permitted Levels) Efforts taken to control ground-level ozone pollution:- Adoption of BS-VI standards The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) for Delhi was prepared by the Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate Change (MoEFCC) after the order of the Supreme Court in December 2016. The Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) is responsible for its implementation. It aims to prevent the worsening of the Air Quality of Delhi-NCR including Ozone pollution. (Ozone Hole Recovery) National Clean Air Programme (NCAP): The government launched this campaign to reduce air pollution in 102 non-attainment cities including Ozone pollution. MUST READ: Preservation of Ozone Hole SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements: (2021) The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is part of a project led by Climate Change, Agriculture, and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research program. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centres. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 ISRAEL-PALESTINE CONFLICT Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi welcomed the agreement for the ongoing ISRAEL-PALESTINE CONFLICT. Background:- Israel and the Palestinian terror group Hamas agreed to the release of 50 hostages held in Gaza and a temporary pause in fighting. In his remarks at the virtual G20 Leaders Summit last evening, Mr Modi expressed hope that all the hostages will be released soon. About ISRAEL-PALESTINE CONFLICT:- IMAGE SOURCE: express.co.uk Both Israelis and Palestinians have been in a struggle for self-determination and sovereignty over the territory, developing respective movements for their causes. (India, Israel and Palestine) Both Palestinians and Israelis see the territory between the Jordan River and the Mediterranean Sea as their own, and Christians, Jews, and Muslims all hold parts of the land as sacred. The past seven decades have brought war and uprisings. (15th India-Israel Joint Working Group) Historic Timeline:- Ottoman Empire: The Ottoman Empire had controlled that part of the Middle East from the early 16th century until control of most of the region was granted to the British after World War I. In 1916: the Sykes-Picot Agreement secretly negotiated between Britain and France planned to carve up the Middle East into spheres of influence, and determined that the land in question was to be internationalized. In 1917: Britain’s foreign secretary, Lord Arthur Balfour, expressed his government’s support for “the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people. 1947: UN resolution 1947: After World War II, nearing the end of the British Mandate for Palestine, the United Nations General Assembly in 1947 passed Resolution 181, urging the partition of the land into two independent states — one Arab and one Jewish. Religiously significant Jerusalem is to be under special international administration. The plan is not implemented after the Arab side rejects it, arguing that it is unfavourable to their majority population. Violence in the regional conflict grows. 1948: Israel declares independence. Israel declared independence in May 1948. The next day, a coalition of Arab states, allied with Palestinian factions, attacked Israeli forces in what became the first of several Arab-Israeli wars. In the end, Israel gains control of an even larger portion of territory — not including the areas of the West Bank and Gaza Strip. 1967: the Six-Day War In June of 1967, a war known as the “Six-Day War” or the 1967 Arab-Israeli War broke out amid lingering conflicts, including Egypt’s continued blockade of shipping into the Gulf of Aqaba. Israel ultimately takes control of the Gaza Strip, Sinai, the West Bank, the Golan Heights, and predominantly Palestinian East Jerusalem. The Arab armies suffered massive losses. 1987: First intifada A Palestinian uprising, or intifada, brings largely spontaneous clashes, protests, and civil disobedience against Israeli occupation in the West Bank, Gaza, and Israel, leading to harsh Israeli military crackdowns. Unrest continues for years, with many killed or injured on both sides. 1993: Oslo Accords The first of two pacts, known as the Oslo Accords, was signed between Israel and the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO). It set out a peace process based on previous U.N. resolutions. It charted out the expansion of a limited Palestinian self-rule in the West Bank and Gaza Strip. A follow-up accord was signed in 1995. However, key issues such as Israeli settlements in the West Bank and the status of Jerusalem, were left unresolved. 2006: Hamas elected in Gaza Israel withdrew its troops from Gaza in 2005. The Palestinian militant group Hamas wins legislative elections the next year, leading to political strains with the more moderate Fatah party controlling the West Bank. 2017: U.S. recognizes Jerusalem as capital The Donald Trump administration recognizes Jerusalem as the capital of Israel and announces that it plans to shift the U.S. Embassy from Tel Aviv, stirring outrage from Palestinians. 2022: Netanyahu sworn in for sixth term Benjamin Netanyahu is sworn in again as Israeli prime minister, after winning an election that gives him his sixth term and elevates a once-fringe bloc of far-right politicians into powerful seats. 2023: Recent events:- January 2023: Israeli forces raid the Palestinian city of Jenin, killing nine people in a shootout. Summer 2023: Retaliatory attacks flare Israel launches surprise airstrikes across the Gaza Strip in May. October 2023: Israel is attacked by Hamas. Prime Minister of Israel, Netanyahu formally declared war on Hamas on Oct. 8 following a surprise assault by Hamas militants that came a day after the 50th anniversary of the start of the 1973 Yom Kippur War. MUST READ: India-Israel Industrial R&D & Technological Innovation Fund (I4F) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin? (2023) Cameroon Nigeria South Sudan Uganda Q.2) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Vanuatu Islands Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: A Magnitude 6.7 Earthquake Jolted the Vanuatu Islands Near Australia recently. About Vanuatu Islands:- IMAGE SOURCE: BRITANNICA Vanuatu, a country in the southwestern Pacific Ocean. It consists of a chain of 13 principal and many smaller islands located about 500 miles (800 km) west of Fiji and 1,100 miles (1,770 km) east of Australia. Vanuatu (officially, the Republic of Vanuatu) is divided into 6 provinces. These provinces are Malampa, Penama, Sanma, Shefa, Tafea and Torba. These provinces are further subdivided into municipalities. The indigenous population, called ni-Vanuatu, is overwhelmingly Melanesian, though some of the outlying islands have Polynesian populations. Subsistence agriculture has traditionally been the economic base of Vanuatu, together with an elaborate exchange network within and between islands. Since independence, Vanuatu’s tourism and offshore financial services have emerged as the largest earners of foreign income. The Lapita sites became Vanuatu’s first UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2008. About Earthquake:- An earthquake is the shaking or trembling of the earth’s surface. (Anatolian Plate) It is caused by the seismic waves or earthquake waves that are generated due to a sudden movement (sudden release of energy) in the earth’s crust (shallow-focus earthquakes) or upper mantle (some shallow-focus and all intermediate and deep-focus earthquakes). A seismograph, or seismometer, is an instrument used to detect and record earthquakes. Hypocentre/Focus: The point where the energy is released. Epicentre: The point on the surface directly above the focus. Isoseismic line: A line connecting all points on the surface where the intensity is the same. MUST READ: (Volcano) SOURCE: TIMES NOW PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news: Country Anatolia Turkey Amhara Ethiopia Cabo Delgado Spain Catalonia Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) consider the following statements: (2020) Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. Only some cyclones develop an eye. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C less than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INSTITUTION Context: Recently, the central government has suspended Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) official Anil Gill with immediate effect. Background:- The action was taken by a vigilance committee established by the DGCA to conduct its preliminary investigation into allegations of corruption. About Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA):- The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is a statutory body of the Government of India. It was formed under the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, of 2020. It comes under the Ministry of Civil Aviation. (New Director General of Bureau Of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) appointed) It aims to regulate civil aviation in India. It primarily deals with safety issues in civil aviation. Its headquarters are located in New Delhi. It has regional offices in various parts of India. Mandate: DGCA is responsible for the regulation of air transport services to/from/within India and for enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety, and airworthiness standards. (Reforms In Civil Aviation Industry) Functions:- Registration of civil aircraft. Formulation of standards of airworthiness for civil aircraft registered in India and grant of certificates of airworthiness to such aircraft. Licensing of pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers and flight engineers, and conducting examinations and checks for that purpose. Licensing of air traffic controllers. Investigating accidents/incidents. Taking accident prevention measures. Coordination at the national level for flexible use of air space by civil and military air traffic agencies Interaction with ICAO for the provision of more air routes for civil use through Indian air space. Promoting indigenous design and manufacture of aircraft. MUST READ: International Air Connectivity Scheme (IACS) scheme SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Sant Mirabai Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited Mathura in Uttar Pradesh today to take part in Sant Mirabai Janmotsav. Background:- The programme is being organized to mark the 525th Birth Anniversary of Sant Mirabai. During the event, the Prime Minister will also release a commemorative stamp and a coin in honour of Sant Mira Bai. About Sant Mirabai:- Mirabai was born into a Rajput royal family in Kudki, Rajasthan’s Pali region, and spent her youth in Merta. By around 1600 CE, she was referenced in Bhaktamal, indicating that she was a well-known and revered figure in the Bhakti movement. Mirabai was a Rajput princess who married a prince from the royal family. She became a follower of Ravidas, a saint who was said to be untouchable. (Sant Ravidas) She committed her life to Lord Krishna’s devotion. She was the first to introduce the Giridhara Gopala cult of Brindavan and also the first to introduce Bhajan in the Bhakti movement Her bhajans were composed in the language of Vraj Bhasha. Meerabai’s five teachings are:- She did not believe in the caste hierarchy and instead attacked higher caste standards. She fled the kingdom because of her great devotion to Lord Krishna. She was not a follower of kingly traditions. She preached love while avoiding hatred. Despite being from the royal family, she became a follower of Ravidas, who was considered untouchable. MUST READ: The Sant Tukaram temple SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts: (2022) Nettipakarana Parishishtaparvan Avadanashataka Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina texts 1,2 and 3 2 and 4 only 1,3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following pairs: (2020) Parivrajaka — Renunciant and Wanderer Shramana — Priest with a high status Upasaka — Lay follower of Buddhism Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 PAVANA RIVER Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, a laundry owner was booked for polluting the Pavana River. Background:- A laundry owner from Tathawade was booked for allegedly discharging untreated contaminated water in the Pavana River. About Pavana River:- Location: Pune District, Maharashtra. The river is a prominent river that runs through Pune City. It separates it from the Pimpri-Chinchwad district. It comes from the Western Ghats, around 6 kilometres south of Lonavala. It is a tributary of the Bhima River that joins the Mula River in Pune. Flowing eastward at first, it turns south and travels through the suburbs of Dehu, Chinchwad, Pimpri, and Dapodi before joining the Mula River. The “Pavana Nagar Dam” is being built on this river at Pavana Nagar. It is a gravity earthfill. (River Cities Alliance) It has a total storage capacity of 30,500.00 km3 and measures 1,329 m (4,360 ft) long and 42.37 m (139.0 ft) high. MUST READ: Teesta River SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. Only some cyclones develop an eye. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C less than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: RIVER ORIGIN Penna River Nandi Hills Sabari River Sinkaram hill ranges Dihing River Patkai Hills How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Pavana River is a prominent river that runs through Kolkata. Statement-II : It separates it from the Pimpri-Chinchwad district. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Earthquake, consider the following statements: The point where the energy is released is called the epicentre. A line connecting all points on the surface where the intensity is the same is called an Isoseismic line. A seismograph, or seismometer, is an instrument used to detect and record earthquakes. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 23rd November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 22nd November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Nov 23, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23rd November 2023

Nov 22, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) World Television Day Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT DAYS Context: Recently, World Television Day was globally observed. Background:- World Television Day is globally observed today to highlight the importance of visual media and to recognize its increasing impact on decision-making and potential role in shaping global conversations. About World Television Day:- Date: 21st November Theme for 2023: ‘Accessibility’. Historical Background:- On this day in 1996, the United Nations held the First World Television Forum and decided to observe 21st November every year as World Television Day. TV was invented by a Scottish engineer, John Logie Baird in 1924. TV in India:- It was introduced in India on 15th September 1959 in New Delhi with the assistance of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). Daily transmission began in 1965 as a part of Akashvani. National telecast was introduced in 1982 and in the same year, colour television was introduced in the Indian market. During this time, there was only one national channel, the government-owned ‘Krishi Darshan’ was telecast in 1967 as the first and Indian television’s longest-running programme. ‘Ramayana’ and ‘Mahabharata’ were the first major television series produced. Other shows like ‘Hum Log’, ‘Wagle Ki Duniya’ and ‘Buniyaad’ were also popular. The invention of television revolutionised the way we communicate and consume information. On this day, meet-ups at local and global levels take place to raise awareness among people about the role television plays in communication and globalization. (Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development (BIND) scheme) Significance:- This day also marks the commitment of governments, news organizations and individuals to deliver unbiased information in times when the authenticity of content on social media platforms is questionable. MUST READ: On regulation of Digital media (Sudarshan TV Case) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 54th International Film Festival of India Syllabus Prelims – AWARDS Context: Recently, Veteran Hollywood actor & producer Michael Douglas addressed a Masterclass at the 54th International Film Festival of India in Goa. Background:- The legendary American actor will also be honoured with the Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award at the closing ceremony of IFFI on the same day. About the 54th International Film Festival of India:- Date: 20th to 28th of November. Venue: Goa. Organized by: National Film Development Corporation of India Ltd (NFDC). Ministry: Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. Historical Background:- Since 1952, India has hosted 53 International Film Festival of India (IFFI) both competitive and non-competitive. The festival became an annual event from 1975 onwards. The 54th edition of the festival, which includes a competition for feature films by Directors from all Continents will be held in Goa. Government of India in collaboration with the State Government of Goa and the Indian Film Industry. The Festival is recognized by the International Federation of Film Producers Associations (FIAPF) as a Competitive Feature Film Festival. Objectives:- providing a common platform for filmmakers of the world to project their excellence in film art. contributing to the understanding and appreciation of film cultures of different nations in the context of their social and cultural ethos promoting friendship and co-operation among people of the world. Categories:- The festival programme is broadly divided into the following categories: – International Competition for Feature Films (up to 15 numbers. Up to three Indian Films will be selected for this section. Fiction Films with a minimum duration of 70 minutes and above). Non-Competition (World Panorama) – for feature films from around the world ( Films with a minimum duration of 70 minutes and above). Country Focus & other specially curated packages (Indian & Foreign) and Special Screenings/Gala Premieres. Indian Panorama – for Indian feature films, Indian Panorama Regulations 2023 will be applicable. Technical Workshops/Masterclasses/other Interactive and academic Sessions/Panel Discussions/Talent Hub etc. both virtual and physical. Film Bazaar: IFFI also hosts the Film Bazaar, South Asia’s largest and One of Asia’s most prolific Film Markets showcasing rich content to potential buyers from different countries across the world. National Film Development Corporation Ltd (NFDC) reserves the right to exclude films that are not in conformity with the philosophy and objective of the festival, which could offend the feelings/susceptibilities of any participating country, or are likely to promote discrimination of any kind. Awards & Prizes:- Best Film: A Cash prize of Rs. 40,00,000/- to be shared equally between the Director and Producer. (The urgent need for CBFC reforms) Director to be given the Golden Peacock and a Certificate in addition to the cash component. Producer to be given a Certificate in addition to the cash component. Best Director: Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs.15,00,000/- Best Actor (Male): Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/- Best Actor (Female): Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/- Special Jury Award: Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 15,00,000/- given to a film (for any aspect of the film which the jury wishes to award/acknowledge) or an individual (for his/her artistic contribution to a film). The award, if given to a film, will be given to the Director of the film. Award for Best Debut Feature Film of a Director. Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award for Excellence in Cinema This prestigious award, instituted in the name of legendry filmmaker Satyajit Ray, consisting of a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/-, certificate, shawl, Medal (Silver Peacock) and a scroll, is conferred upon a master filmmaker/film technician/film personalities for his / her outstanding contribution to cinema. Indian Film Personality of the Year Award This prestigious award consisting of a cash prize of Rs 10, 00,000/-, certificate, shawl and Medal (Silver Peacock) is conferred upon an Indian film personality for his/her outstanding contribution to Indian Cinema. ICFT UNESCO – Gandhi Medal Award The Gandhi Medal Award is given to a film reflecting UNESCO’s fundamental mandate of building peace in the minds of men and women, particularly human rights. MUST READ: Golden Globes Award SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Dr SS Badrinath Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES Context: Recently, PM, condoles the death of Sankara Nethralaya founder Dr SS Badrinath. Background:- The founder of Sankara Netralaya Dr.S.S Badrinath passed away in Chennai. About Dr SS Badrinath:- He was the founder of Sankara Netralaya. He was 83 due to illness. Born on February,24,1940. S.S. Badrinath graduated from Madras Medical College in 1962. He pursued his post-graduation in the United States. After returning to India in 1970, he worked with the Voluntary Health Services in Adyar. He was closely associated with the Sankara Mutt as he performed cataract surgery on his spiritual guru Chandrasekara Saraswathi Swamigal. He founded the Sankara Nethralaya as a unit of the Medical Research Foundation in 1978. The institution which he founded has become iconic, a symbol of the progress of modern medicine. Achievements:- He was a recipient of:- Padma Shri:1983 Padma Bhushan: 1999. (Padma awards) MUST READ: Padma awardee Shanti Devi SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019) PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Enforcement Directorate (ED) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, the Enforcement Directorate (ED) seized over 751 crore rupees in assets in the National Herald money laundering case. Background:- In a social media post, the agency said, the investigation revealed that Associated Journals Ltd. (AJL) is in possession of proceeds of crime in the form of immovable properties spread across many cities of India such as Delhi, Mumbai, and Lucknow the tune of 661.69 crore rupees. About ED:- The Enforcement Directorate is a multi-disciplinary organization founded in 1956. It is a law enforcement organization tasked with enforcing economic laws and combating economic crime in India, such as money laundering and foreign exchange irregularities. It works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Headquarters: New Delhi The functions of the Directorate include the enforcement of the following Acts:- The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) (Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) 2002) The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA): A civil law under which ED conducts an investigation into suspected contraventions of foreign exchange laws and regulations. ( Foreign Exchange Management Act) The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act 1973 Sponsoring Organizations under the 1974 Foreign Exchange Conservation and Smuggling Activity Prevention Act The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA): A law whereby the Directorate is mandated to attach the properties of fugitive economic offenders who have escaped from India warranting arrest and providing for the confiscation of their properties to the Central Government. (Fugitive Economic Offenders) Director of Enforcement:- Appointed by the central government on the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Central Vigilance Commissioner and members comprising of Vigilance Commissioners, Home Secretary, Secretary DOPT and Revenue Secretary. Tenure: up to 5 years. Recruitment of other officers:- Other officers may be recruited directly from other investigative agencies or indirectly. It is made up of representatives from the police, excise, customs, and income tax departments of the Indian Revenue Services (IRS), the Indian Police Services (IPS), and the Indian Administrative Services (IAS). MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 G-20 summit Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL ORGANIZATIONS Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi to chair the concluding G-20 summit-2023 virtually soon. Background:- The Virtual G20 Summit is going to be held today under the chairmanship of Prime Minister Narendra Modi. Briefing media on the Summit, G20 Sherpa Amitabh Kant said this will be the second time that the Prime Minister will be hosting the Leaders of the G20 in a span of two and a half months. India holds the G20 Presidency until the 30th of November, 2023. The G20 Troika during the Brazilian G20 Presidency in 2024 will comprise India, Brazil, and South Africa. About G-20 summit:- Establishment: 1999. ( G20) Historical Background: The G20 forum was established by the finance ministers and central bank governors of seven countries – Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the U.K., and the U.S. after a meeting in Washington DC. Members: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the U.K., the U.S. and the European Union. Presidency of the G20: it rotates every year among members. The country holding the presidency, together with the previous and next presidency-holder, forms the ‘Troika’. India assumed the presidency of the G20 grouping from Indonesia, in 2022 and will hold the post for a year. During India’s presidency, India, Indonesia and Brazil will form the troika. The G20 does not have a permanent secretariat or Headquarters. MUST READ: India and G20 Presidency SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the International economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of: (2015) ASEAN BRICS OECD WTO Zika Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, a 64-year-old woman in Pune was found to be infected with Zika. Background:- A 64-year-old woman in the Yerawada area of Pune has been found to be infected with Zika, a mosquito-borne disease. Co-director of the Epidemiology Department Dr. Pratap Singh Saranikar met the patient and instructed her regarding taking care of her health. About Zika:- IMAGE SOURCE: share.upmc.com The Zika virus is a mosquito-borne flavivirus. It was first identified in Uganda in 1947 in monkeys. It was later identified in humans in 1952 in Uganda and the United Republic of Tanzania. Most infections in humans are asymptomatic or with mild symptoms, including fever, rash, and joint pain. Transmission:- It is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected Aedes mosquitoes, particularly Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus. It can also spread through sexual contact, blood transfusion, and from an infected mother to her baby during pregnancy or childbirth. The Zika virus became notorious during the 2015-2018 outbreak that swept through the Americas. The outbreak was characterized by an alarming increase in the number of microcephaly cases in newborns, prompting the World Health Organization to declare it a public health emergency of international concern in early 2016. Treatment:- There is no vaccine or medicine for Zika. Instead, the focus is on relieving symptoms and includes rest, rehydration and acetaminophen for fever and pain. MUST READ: Controlling Dengue Using Wolbachia Bacteria SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Organizations Headquarters United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) Brussels, Belgium North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) New York, USA Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) Vienna, Austria How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The G20 does not have a permanent secretariat or Headquarters. Statement-II : During India’s presidency, India, Indonesia and Brazil will form the troika. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Zika, consider the following statements: The Zika virus is a mosquito-borne flavivirus. It was first identified in India in 1947 in monkeys. Most infections in humans are asymptomatic or with mild symptoms, including fever, rash, and joint pain. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 22nd November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 21st November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Nov 22, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 22nd November 2023

Nov 21, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) India and Australia Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, India and Australia exchanged views on deepening multifaceted ties in several areas in two-plus two dialogues in New Delhi. Background:- The second India-Australia Two plus Two Dialogue was held in New Delhi . About India and Australia:- The Australia-India relationship was upgraded to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership (CSP) in June 2020. (India-Australia relations) It is based on mutual understanding, trust, close connections and a shared vision of a stable, open and prosperous Indo-Pacific. Diplomatic Relationship:- Australia and India established diplomatic relations in 1943 when Lieutenant-General Sir Iven Mackay was appointed Australia’s first High Commissioner to India. India’s first High Commissioner to Australia, Sir Raghunath P Paranjpe arrived in Canberra in 1945. Australia is one of only three countries with which India holds annual leader-level summits. The Prime Ministers of Australia and India also regularly interact at major international meetings, including through the Quad, G20 and East Asia Summit. In addition, Australian and Indian Foreign and Defence Ministers meet every second year to discuss strategic issues in a ‘2+2’ format. People-to-people Relationship:- The Indian community is Australia’s second-largest, and fastest-growing, overseas-born group. In the 2021 Census, the number of people reporting Indian heritage was 976,000. Of these, there were 673,000 Indian-born Australians, representing 2.6 per cent of the Australian population. India remains Australia’s largest source of skilled migrants. India is also the second-largest source of international students. Economic relationship:- According to the International Monetary Fund (IMF), India is the world’s fifth-largest economy in nominal terms and third-largest by Purchasing Power Parity. The IMF estimates India’s GDP will grow by 5.9 per cent in 2023 and 6.2 per cent in 2025. In 2022, India was Australia’s sixth-largest two-way goods and services trading partner and fourth-largest goods and services export market. Two-way goods and services trade with India was $48.4 billion in 2022. Australia’s exports to India totalled $34.8 billion and imports from India totalled $13.5 billion in 2022. Australia’s stock of investment in India was $17.6 billion in 2022. India’s total investment in Australia was $34.5 billion. Environmental Relationship:- During Prime Minister Modi’s visit to Sydney in May 2023, Australia and India agreed on Terms of Reference for the Australia-India Green Hydrogen Taskforce. The task force will be comprised of Australian and Indian experts in green hydrogen production and deployment. It complements the work of the India-Australia Solar Taskforce welcomed by the Prime Ministers of Australia and India in March 2023. The Solar Taskforce will provide advice on opportunities to accelerate solar PV deployment and enhance supply chains. The Australia-India Green Steel Partnership is helping India meet growing steel requirements while supporting the commercialization of innovative technologies that improve efficiencies and environmental outcomes in steel production. Education Relationship:- Education is Australia’s largest service export to India, valued at $4.4 billion in 2022. As of May 2023, almost 88,000 Indian visa holders were studying in Australia. Defence Relationship:- Australia’s defence engagement with India gathered significant momentum in 2022 and has continued to grow. Since signing our CSP in 2020 and the Mutual Logistics Support Agreement in 2021. For the first time in 2023, Australia will host Exercise Malabar – a joint training initiative with India, the US and Japan. They regularly exercise together during Exercise AUSTRAHIND and AUSINDEX, bilateral army and navy exercises. They conduct Maritime Patrol Aircraft deployments to enhance maritime domain awareness. MUST READ: India-Australia Economic Co-operation and Trade Agreement SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of:(2015) ASEAN BRICS OECD WTO Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) Syllabus Prelims – ECONOMY Context: Recent data shows that the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) added 17.21 lakh net members during September 2023. Background:- This is an increase of 21 thousand 475 net members over the previous month of August. About Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO):- The EPFO is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India. It is one of the World’s largest Social Security Organisations in terms of clientele and the volume of financial transactions undertaken. It into existence with the promulgation of the Employees’ Provident Funds Ordinance on the 15th of November 1951. It was replaced by the Employees’ Provident Funds Act, of 1952. The Employees’ Provident Funds Bill was introduced in the Parliament in the year 1952 as a Bill to provide for the institution of provident funds for employees in factories and other establishments. The Act is now referred to as the Employees’ Provident Funds & Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 which extends to the whole of India. The Act and Schemes framed there under are administered by a tri-partite Board known as the Central Board of Trustees, Employees’ Provident Fund. The Central Board of Trustees : It consists of representatives of Government (Both Central and State), Employers, and Employees. It administers a contributory provident fund, a pension scheme and an insurance scheme for the workforce engaged in the organized sector in India. It is assisted by the Employees’ PF Organization (EPFO), consisting of offices at 138 locations across the country. The Organization has a well-equipped training set-up where officers and employees of the Organization as well as Representatives of the Employers and Employees attend sessions for training and seminars. Vision: An innovation-driven social security organisation aiming to extend universal coverage and ensure Nirbadh (Seamless and uninterrupted) service delivery to its stakeholders through state-of-the-art technology. Schemes under EPFO:- EPF Scheme 1952 It provides for the accumulation plus interest upon retirement and death. Partial withdrawals are allowed for education, marriage, illness and house construction. (Nidhi Aapke Nikat 2.0) Pension Scheme 1995 (EPS) It provides monthly benefits for superannuation/retirement, disability, survivor, widow(er) and children. It provides a minimum pension on disablement. It provides past service benefits to participants of the erstwhile Family Pension Scheme, 1971. Insurance Scheme 1976 (EDLI) It provides the benefit in case of the death of an employee who was a member of the scheme at the time of death. It provides the benefit amount 20 times the wages. Maximum benefit is 6 lakhs. MUST READ: EPFO’s New Facility on UMANG App started SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) An increase in the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: Recently, the Indian Media Delegation met with Dr Kao Kim Hourn, Secretary General of ASEAN, as part of the ASEAN-India Media Exchange Programme in Indonesia’s capital Jakarta. Background:- Addressing the Indian media delegates, the Secretary-General underscored the significance, ASEAN places on its relationship with India. He highlighted the evolution of the three-decade-long India-ASEAN relationship into a comprehensive strategic partnership, signifying substantial progress. The Secretary-General also expressed ASEAN’s proactive pursuit of specific areas of partnership with India in the upcoming years, covering the digital economy, tourism, maritime security, counter-terrorism and trade cooperation. About ASEAN-India Media Exchange Programme:- It involves visits by Indian journalists to ASEAN countries and reciprocal visits by ASEAN journalists to India. It is to foster a deeper understanding of the socio-economic and cultural ethos between ASEAN and India among the journalists from both regions. About ASEAN:- IMAGE SOURCE: blogspot.com Establishment: 8 August 1967. Secretariat: Jakarta, Indonesia. Members: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Brunei, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, and Cambodia. Bangkok Declaration, 1967, formally established the ASEAN. The first ASEAN Summit was in 1976. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a regional association that was founded to maintain social stability and political equilibrium among Asia’s post-colonial states amid escalating conflicts. “One Vision, One Identity, One Community” is its motto. The 8th of August is celebrated as the ASEAN Day. Institutional mechanism of ASEAN:- ASEAN Summit: It meets annually to discuss regional issues and set policy directions. (India-ASEAN Connectivity Partnerships) ASEAN Coordinating Council (ACC): It oversees the implementation of ASEAN agreements and decisions. ASEAN Secretariat: It supports and facilitates ASEAN’s activities and initiatives. ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF): It is a platform for dialogue and cooperation on political and security issues among ASEAN member countries and their partners. Decision Making: It is done through consultation and consensus. Significance of ASEAN for India:- India needs a close diplomatic relationship with ASEAN nations both for economic and security reasons. Connectivity with the ASEAN nations can allow India to improve its presence in the region. (India-ASEAN conclave) These connectivity projects keep Northeast India at the centre, ensuring the economic growth of the northeastern states. Improved trade ties with the ASEAN nations would mean a counter to China’s presence in the region and economic growth and development for India. ASEAN occupies a centralized position in the rules-based security architecture in the Indo-Pacific, which is vital for India since most of its trade is dependent on maritime security. Collaboration with the ASEAN nations is necessary to counter insurgency in the Northeast, combat terrorism, tax evasion etc. MUST READ: India-ASEAN relations SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Region often mentioned in the news: Country (2022) Anatolia Turkey Amhara Ethiopia Cabo Delgado Spain Catalonia Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (2018) China Israel Iraq Yemen INFUSE Mission Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY-SPACE Context: Recently, NASA launched the ‘INFUSE’ payload mission. Background:- INFUSE stands for Integral Field Ultraviolet Spectroscope Experiment (INFUSE) mission. NASA’s INFUSE Probes Sizzling Supernova Secrets. About INFUSE Mission:- Launched by: NASA. (India – USA space cooperation) Objective: to study the Cygnus Loop, a 20,000-year-old supernova remnant located 2,600 light-years away from Earth. The Cygnus Loop is a favourite spot for both amateur astronomers and scientists due to its prominent location near the constellation Cygnus, often referred to as the “swan.” The remnants of this colossal supernova, known as the Cygnus Loop or the Veil Nebula, continue to intrigue researchers. The INFUSE mission, led by Brian Fleming from the University of Colorado Boulder, seeks to delve into the life cycle of stars. The INFUSE mission involves collecting crucial data about the Cygnus Loop from an altitude of 150 miles (240 km) for a few minutes. The mission’s instrument will capture far-ultraviolet wavelengths of light emanating from the Cygnus Loop. One of the primary objectives is to understand how the supernova releases energy into our Milky Way galaxy. It will observe the release of light as the supernova’s blast wave collides with pockets of cold gas dispersed throughout the galaxy. By studying the Cygnus Loop and its remnants, the INFUSE mission contributes to our understanding of the intricate processes involved in the life cycle of stars and their profound impact on the evolution of galaxies. MUST READ: International Space Station (ISS) SOURCE: SCITECHDAILY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct? (2023) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times that received at the poles. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan National Investigation Agency Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS/GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, the National Investigation Agency has registered a case against ‘listed individual terrorist’ Gurpatwant Singh Pannun. Background:- The case has been registered for his latest viral video threatening the passengers flying with Air India Airlines and closure of the operations of the airline. According to the NIA, Pannun also threatened that Air India would not be allowed to operate in the world. About National Investigation Agency:- NIA is functioning as the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency in India. Establishment: 2008. It was established by the National Investigation Agency Act, enacted on 31-12-08. (NIA) Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs. HQ: New Delhi. It is a central agency to investigate and prosecute offences:- affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India, security of the State, and friendly relations with foreign States. against atomic and nuclear facilities. smuggling in High-Quality Counterfeit Indian Currency. Objectives:- It implements international treaties, agreements, conventions and resolutions of the United Nations, its agencies and other international organizations. Historical Background:- The agency at the Central level was created for the investigation of offences related to terrorism and certain other Acts post-2008 Mumbai terror attacks. Functions of NIA:- In-depth professional investigation of scheduled offences using the latest scientific methods. Ensuring effective and speedy trials. Developing into a thoroughly professional, result-oriented organization. Developing a professional workforce through regular training and exposure to the best practices and procedures. Maintaining professional and cordial relations with the governments of States and Union Territories and other law enforcement agencies in compliance with the legal provisions of the NIA Act. Assist all States and other investigating agencies in the investigation of terrorist cases. Build a database on all terrorist-related information. Share the database available with the States and other agencies. Study and analyse laws relating to terrorism in other countries. MUST READ: Unlawful Activities and (Prevention) Act (UAPA)) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India : (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements : (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Lemru Elephant reserve Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: The Union coal ministry recently said that Coal India Limited’s (CIL) 40 coal blocks in and around the Lemru Elephant Corridor (LEC) will not be auctioned on the request of the Chhattisgarh government. Background:- The ministry said areas beyond the LEC have also been considered for exemption from mining at the request of the state government. About Lemru Elephant Reserve:- Location: Korba district of Chhattisgarh. The reserve is aimed at reducing human-animal conflict and destruction of property. In addition it aims at providing a permanent habitat to the elephants. Earlier, the state government notified the reserve (Conservation Reserve) in October 2020 under Section 36A of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 (WLPA). The reserve is part of an elephant corridor that connects Lemru (Korba), Badalkhol (Jashpur), and Tamorpingla (Surguja). Elephant reserves in India-: There are 33 notified Elephant Reserves (ERs) in the country, spread over 14 states. ( Elephant Conservation) Significance:- North Chhattisgarh alone is home to over 240 elephants. More than 150 elephants have died in the state over the last 20 years, including 16 between June and October 2020. MUST READ: Endangered Asian elephant in Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Laodracon carsticola Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, a New ‘dragon lizard’ species (Laodracon carsticola) with impressive camouflage capabilities was found in Southeast Asia. Background:- An international team of biologists, animal management specialists, geneticists and forestry managers has discovered a new species of “dragon lizard” in Laos—one with very impressive camouflage capabilities. About Laodracon carsticola:- The name of this newly discovered species is Laodracon carsticola or the Khammouane Karst dragon. It was first discovered in August 2022, when a botanist team conducting a plant survey spotted an “unusual” looking lizard on the karst rocks nearby. The Khammouane karst dragon is considered “medium-sized,” reaching about 1 foot (about 30 centimetres) in length. It has a triangular head, long and slender appendages, as well as bluish-grey eyes and roughly textured scales. Its body is black with a few larger white bands on its back and speckles of white across the rest of its head and limbs. Its belly and a spot under its throat are tinged blue. The lizards are suspected to have a diet of ants. It possesses extraordinary camouflage abilities. It belongs to the mainland Asian subfamily Draconinae. This subfamily contains around 256 species that all live across Asia. ( Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI)) Locals described the lizards as “rare,” most active in the afternoon and entirely restricted to the rocks. MUST READ: Wildlife Institute of India (WII) SOURCE: PHYS.ORG PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: EXERCISE PARTICIPATING COUNTRIES Exercise Indra India & Russia Ajeya Warrior India & USA Lamitiye India &Maldives How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Lemru Elephant Reserve lies in the Korba district of Jharkhand. Statement-II : The reserve is part of an elephant corridor that connects Lemru (Korba), Badalkhol (Jashpur), and Tamorpingla (Surguja). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the INFUSE Mission, consider the following statements: It was launched by JAXA. It was led by Brian Fleming. It will observe the release of light as the supernova’s blast wave collides with pockets of cold gas. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 21st November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 20th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

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