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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 21st November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Eklavya Model Residential School Syllabus Context: Recently, President Droupadi Murmu inaugurated an Eklavya Model Residential School at Kuliana in the Mayurbhanj district. attended the inaugural session of the 36th Annual Conference and Literary Festival of All India Santali Writers’ Association at Baripada, Odisha. Background:- Out of 87 new Eklavya Model Residential Schools sanctioned in Odisha, Mayurbhanj district alone has 19 schools, one in every block, the largest for any district in India. About Eklavya Model Residential School:- Eklavya Model Residential School is a Government of India scheme for model residential schools for Indian tribals (Scheduled Tribes, ST) across India. Objectives of EMRS:- Comprehensive physical, mental and socially relevant development of all students enrolled in each and every EMRS. Students will be empowered to be change agents, beginning in their school, in their homes, in their village and finally in a larger context. Focus differentially on the educational support to be made available to those in Standards XI and XII, and those in Standards VI to X, so that their distinctive needs can be met, Support the construction of infrastructure that provides education, physical, environmental and cultural needs of student life. Salient Features:- EMRS started in the year 1997-98. It is one of the flagship interventions of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. The schools focus not only on academic education but on the all-round development of the students. Each school has a capacity of 480 students, catering to students from Class VI to XII. Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRSs) for ST students are set up in States/UTs with provisioning of funds through “Grants under Article 275(1) of the Constitution”. The establishment of EMRSs is based on the demand of the concerned States/UTs with the availability of land as an essential attribute. There will be an autonomous society under the ministry of tribal affairs — similar to Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti — to run the EMRSs. Apart from school building, including hostels and staff quarters, playgrounds, computer labs and teacher resource rooms are also included in the scheme. Significance:- EMRS can impact quality education for Scheduled Tribes (ST) children. MUST READ: Integrating tribal knowledge systems SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Q.2) At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? (2021) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climatic Change. Ministry of Panchayat Raj Ministry of Rural Development Ministry of Tribal Affairs Chickenpox Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, U.S. data underscored the benefits of chickenpox vaccination. Background:- On November 14, the U.K. government announced that the Joint Committee on Vaccination and Immunization (JCVI) had recommended a vaccine against chickenpox (varicella) should be added to the routine childhood immunization programme. The vaccine is to be offered to all children in two doses, at 12 and 18 months of age. A final decision to introduce the vaccine has not been taken yet. About Chickenpox:- Chickenpox is an illness caused by the varicella-zoster virus. It brings on an itchy rash with small, fluid-filled blisters. (Delta Variant as contagious as Chicken Pox) Chickenpox spreads very easily to people who haven’t had the disease or haven’t gotten the chickenpox vaccine. Symptoms:- Rash: The rash caused by chickenpox appears 10 to 21 days after you’re exposed to the varicella-zoster virus. The rash often lasts about 5 to 10 days. Other symptoms that may appear 1 to 2 days before the rash include:- Fever. Loss of appetite. Headache. Tiredness and a general feeling of being unwell. Causes: A virus called varicella-zoster causes chickenpox. Transmission:- It can spread through direct contact with the rash. It also can spread when a person with chickenpox coughs or sneezes and you breathe in the air droplets. Treatment:- Most people diagnosed with chickenpox will be advised to manage their symptoms while they wait for the virus to pass through their system. The doctor may prescribe antihistamine medications or topical ointments, or you may purchase these over the counter to help relieve itching. The chickenpox vaccine prevents chickenpox in 98 per cent of people who receive the two recommended doses. (Approaches to Vaccine Making) MUST READ: Ramsay Hunt Syndrome SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 ICC Cricket World Cup 2023 Syllabus Prelims –SPORTS Context: Recently, the Australian cricket team lifted the ICC Cricket World Cup 2023 trophy after defeating India in the finals in Ahmedabad on November 19, 2023. Background:- Travis Head and Marnus Labuschagne stitched a 192-run partnership for the fourth wicket. About ICC Cricket World Cup 2023:- Date: 5th October 2023 – 19th November 2023. The Cricket World Cup was held entirely in India for the first time . Ten participating nations vie for 50-over supremacy. It was the 13th edition of the quadrennial One Day International (ODI) competition. It was contested in the same format as the last edition, with 48 matches to be played. Originally scheduled for early in 2023, the COVID pandemic forced a delay as qualification tournaments were pushed back amid cricket’s congested calendar. It was initially expected to take place between February and March 2023 but officials announced in July 2020 that it would be pushed back due to COVID restrictions wreaking havoc with the qualification process. Competing countries: India (hosts), England, Australia, Afghanistan, Pakistan, New Zealand, Bangladesh, Netherlands, Sri Lanka and South Africa. Cities in which the tournament be held:- Ahmedabad, Kolkata, Mumbai, Bengaluru, Pune, Delhi, Lucknow, Dharamsala, Chennai, Hyderabad MUST READ: Sports Code SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Manohar Parrikar Yuva Scientist Award Syllabus Prelims – IMPORTANT AWARDS Context: Recently, ISRO’s Dr. Mathavaraj was selected for Goa Govt.’s first ‘Manohar Parrikar Yuva Scientist Award’. Background:- Dr Mathavaraj had designed the powered descent trajectory of the Chandrayana 3 Mission that had successfully landed on the South Pole of the moon. As many as 106 applications were received by the government for the award, and former Atomic Energy Commission of India Chairman Dr Anil Kakodkar, who chaired the Expert Committee of Selection of Yuva Scientist, shortlisted 14 applicants. About Manohar Parrikar Yuva Scientist Award:- Award presentation date: 13th December 2023 . It is the birth anniversary of Dr. Manohar Parrikar. “The award will be presented at Manohar Parrikar Vigyan Mahotsav at NIO. The selection committee headed by Dr Anil Kakodkar selected Dr Mathavaraj, who designed the powered descent trajectory of the Chandrayaan-3 Mission, for the award. Decoration:- The award comprises of:- ₹5 lakh and a citation. It is the highest cash prize in science and technology. MUST READ: Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Euclid Space Telescope Syllabus Prelims –SPACE Context: Recently, European astronomers recently released the first images from the newly launched Euclid space telescope. Background:- The release of the images in Darmstadt, Germany, coincided with the second of two days of European space talks in Spain dominated by Europe’s continued dependency on foreign launches. About Euclid Space Telescope:- Launched: July 1, 2023. Launched from Cape Canaveral in Florida. Launch Vehicle: SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket. Launched by: European Space Agency (ESA). Duration: The mission is expected to have a nominal operational lifetime of 6 years. Objective: to study the nature and properties of dark energy and dark matter, which together constitute a significant portion of the Universe. Dark energy was discovered in 1998 and it explains the unexpected acceleration of the universe’s expansion. Euclid’s mission aims to provide a more precise measurement of this acceleration, potentially uncovering variations throughout cosmic history. The telescope will travel to Lagrange point L2 which is about 1 million miles away from Earth. The Lagrange point is a location where the gravitational pull of two large masses, the sun and Earth in this case, precisely equals the force required for a small object, to maintain a relatively stationary position behind Earth as seen from the sun. It will create a 3D map of the universe by observing billions of galaxies up to 10 billion light-years away, which will be useful in studying dark matter closely.  MUST READ: India – USA space cooperation SOURCE: NDTV PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q2. Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 British Academy Book Prize 2023 Syllabus Prelims –AWARDS Context: Recently, India-born author Nandini Das has been named the winner of the  British Academy Book Prize 2023. Background:- Nandini Das won the prize for her book ‘Courting India: England, Mughal India and the Origins of Empire’. About British Academy Book Prize 2023:- Established: 2013. Given by: The British Academy Prize Money: £25,000 Objective: To reward and celebrate the best works of non-fiction books. It was formerly known as Nayef Al-Rodhan Prize. (Nobel Peace Prize 2022) Nandini Das, a 49-year-old Indian-born author and Professor in the English faculty at the University of Oxford won the 2023 British Academy Book Prize for Global Cultural Understanding. Her winning book is titled “Courting India: England, Mughal India, and the Origins of Empire,” which explores the origins of the British Empire by focusing on the first English ambassador in India, Sir Thomas Roe, in the early 17th century. Other Shortlisted Work: The shortlist for the prize also included a work titled “Black Ghost of Empire: The Long Death of Slavery and the Failure of Emancipation” by Kris Manjapra.  MUST READ: Padma awards SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Nobel Prize 2023 Set up Chemistry Katalin Karikó, Drew Weissman Medicine Moungi G. Bawendi, Louis E. Brus, Aleksey I. Yekimov Physics Pierre Agostini, Ferenc Krausz, Anne L’Huillier   How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : British Academy Book Prize was established in 2011. Statement-II : It was formerly known as Nayef Al-Rodhan Prize. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Eklavya Model Residential School, consider the following statements: They are set up in States/UTs with provisioning of funds through “Grants under Article 275(1) of the Constitution”. The establishment of EMRSs is based on the demand of the concerned States/UTs with the availability of land as an essential attribute. There will be an autonomous society under the Ministry of Home Affairs to run the EMRSs. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  20th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 18th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) -d Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 20th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[CURRENT AFFAIRS] IAS UPSC REVAMPED Current Affairs Magazine October 2023

/*! elementor - v3.16.0 - 12-09-2023 */ .elementor-widget-image{text-align:center}.elementor-widget-image a{display:inline-block}.elementor-widget-image a img[src$=".svg"]{width:48px}.elementor-widget-image img{vertical-align:middle;display:inline-block} Archives /*! elementor - v3.16.0 - 12-09-2023 */ .elementor-widget-text-editor.elementor-drop-cap-view-stacked .elementor-drop-cap{background-color:#69727d;color:#fff}.elementor-widget-text-editor.elementor-drop-cap-view-framed .elementor-drop-cap{color:#69727d;border:3px solid;background-color:transparent}.elementor-widget-text-editor:not(.elementor-drop-cap-view-default) .elementor-drop-cap{margin-top:8px}.elementor-widget-text-editor:not(.elementor-drop-cap-view-default) .elementor-drop-cap-letter{width:1em;height:1em}.elementor-widget-text-editor .elementor-drop-cap{float:left;text-align:center;line-height:1;font-size:50px}.elementor-widget-text-editor .elementor-drop-cap-letter{display:inline-block} Hello Friends,This is October 2023 of IASbaba’s REVAMPED Current Affairs Monthly Magazine. Current Affairs for UPSC Civil Services Examination is an important factor in this preparation.An effort towards making your Current Affairs for IAS UPSC Preparation qualitative. We hope you make the best use of it!This edition covers all Important current affairs issues that were in the news for the month of October 2023.Kindly leave your feedback in the comment section below on the new design and presentation of the magazine. We would love to hear from you! Download The Magazine - October 2023 /*! elementor - v3.16.0 - 12-09-2023 */ .elementor-heading-title{padding:0;margin:0;line-height:1}.elementor-widget-heading .elementor-heading-title[class*=elementor-size-]>a{color:inherit;font-size:inherit;line-height:inherit}.elementor-widget-heading .elementor-heading-title.elementor-size-small{font-size:15px}.elementor-widget-heading .elementor-heading-title.elementor-size-medium{font-size:19px}.elementor-widget-heading .elementor-heading-title.elementor-size-large{font-size:29px}.elementor-widget-heading .elementor-heading-title.elementor-size-xl{font-size:39px}.elementor-widget-heading .elementor-heading-title.elementor-size-xxl{font-size:59px}Important Topics Covered In The Magazine Includes: Israel-Palestine Conflict Green Credit Programme Nasa’s Roman Space Telescope Special Marriage Act India-Israel Relation Regulating Generative Artificial Intelligence And Much More.... Download The Magazine - October 2023 To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow-TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccountYOUTUBE – https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQFACEBOOK – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/Also, SUBSCRIBE to the WEBSITE Below, so that you don’t miss out on important posts!Thank YouIASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   243th Corps of Engineers Day Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, the Indian Army celebrated the 243th Corps of Engineers Day. Background:- Chief of the Army Staff Gen Manoj Pande has conveyed best wishes to all ranks, veterans and families of the Corps on the occasion. About 243th Corps of Engineers Day:- The Indian Army Corps of Engineers is a combat support arm. (Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT)) It provides combat engineering support and develops infrastructure for armed forces and other defence organizations. It maintains connectivity along the borders, besides helping the civil authorities during natural disasters. These tasks are executed through four pillars of the Corps – Combat Engineers, Military Engineer Service, Border Road Organization and Military Survey. The Corps of Engineers had three groups, i.e. Madras Sappers, Bengal Sappers and Bombay Sappers. These were amalgamated into the Corps on the 18th of November 1932. Since its inception, history is replete with colossal exemplary contributions of the Corps of Engineers both in war and peace. MUST READ: The new defence systems handed over to Army SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2)  With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which of the following statements is correct? (2023) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about ·10 times of that received at the poles. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. G20 Summit Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: External Affairs Minister Dr S Jaishankar recently, said that the New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration adopted during the G20 Summit will be remembered. Background:- He said this in his opening remarks at the Foreign Ministers’ Session of the second Voice of Global South Summit. The External Affairs Minister reaffirmed India’s commitment to the Global South through an extensive range of development projects in 78 countries. He said these projects are demand-driven, outcome-oriented, transparent and sustainable. He stressed that as India embraces digital delivery, promotes green growth and ensures affordable health access, it will always have the Global South at the centre of its international partnerships. About G20 Summit:- Establishment: 1999. (G20) Historical Background: The G20 forum was established by the finance ministers and central bank governors of seven countries – Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the U.K., and the U.S. after a meeting in Washington DC. Members: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the U.K., the U.S. and the European Union. Presidency of the G20: it rotates every year among members. The country holding the presidency, together with the previous and next presidency-holder, forms the ‘Troika’. India assumed the presidency of the G20 grouping from Indonesia, in 2022 and will hold the post for a year. During India’s presidency, India, Indonesia and Brazil will form the troika. The G20 does not have a permanent secretariat or Headquarters. MUST READ: G20 Presidency SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 NISAR Syllabus Prelims – SPACE Context: Recently, NASA, ISRO completed key tests ahead of NISAR’s launch early next year. Background:- The mission, which has three-year duration, aims to survey all of Earth’s land and ice-covered surfaces every 12 days. About NISAR:- Launch year :2024. Agency: NASA and ISRO. The NASA-ISRO SAR (NISAR) Mission will measure Earth’s changing ecosystems, dynamic surfaces, and ice masses providing information about biomass, natural hazards, sea level rise, and groundwater. It will support a host of other applications. NISAR will observe Earth’s land and ice-covered surfaces globally with 12-day regularity on ascending and descending passes, sampling Earth on average every 6 days for a baseline 3-year mission. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration will provide one of the radars for the satellite, a high-rate communication subsystem for science data, GPS receivers and a payload data subsystem. NISAR will be equipped with the largest reflector antenna ever launched by NASA. The Indian Space and Research Organisation (ISRO) will provide the spacecraft bus, the second type of radar (called the S-band radar), the launch vehicle and associated launch services. Objectives:- Tracking subtle changes in the Earth’s surface, Spotting warning signs of imminent volcanic eruptions, Helping to monitor groundwater supplies, and Tracking the rate at which ice sheets are melting. Significance:- NISAR’s data can help people worldwide better manage natural resources and hazards, as well as provide information for scientists to better understand the effects and pace of climate change MUST READ: India – USA space cooperation SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6, and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2)  Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies do not change Gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in straight line Speed of light is always same Tamil Lambadi embroidery Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, The Porgai Artisan Association Society have been trying to keep the intriguing Tamil Lambadi art of embroidery alive. Background:- The Porgai Artisan Association Society, with 60 plus women, has been making and selling embroidered clothes to ensure that there is awareness about the art form and that it is passed on to the next generation. About Tamil Lambadi embroidery:- Origin: Tamil Nadu. (Tamil-Brahmi script) It is rooted in the cultural practices and traditions of the Lambadi community. Several hundred years ago, the Lambadi tribals migrated from North Western India to South for a living. They were a nomadic tribe but ended up settling down in Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Sittilingi Valley (Tamil Nadu) is the second southernmost settlement of Lambadis in India. Vibrant colour schemes with a focus on bold and contrasting hues. Intricate embroidery and mirror work that embellish textiles and clothing. Symbolic representations of nature, folklore, and traditional beliefs. The traditional Tamil Lambadi embroidery designs are all geometrical patterns with squares, rectangles, and circles. They have also been influenced by the local forests, birds, fruits and flowers. A majority of Porgai’s products are made from organic cotton grown in their own villages. Significance:- It reflects the rich cultural heritage and identity of the Lambadi community. It serves as a medium for storytelling and preserving cultural narratives. MUST READ: 50 iconic Indian heritage textiles by UNESCO SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1.) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Kalamkari painting refers to (2015) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India. a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in Northeast India. a block-painted woollen cloth in the Western Himalayan region of India. a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India. Chandrayaan-3 Syllabus Prelims –SPACE Context: Recently, Cryogenic upper stage of Chandrayaan-3’s launch vehicle makes uncontrolled re-entry into the Earth’s atmosphere. Background:- The probable impact point was predicted over the North Pacific Ocean, says ISRO About Chandrayaan-3’s:- Chandrayaan-3 is the successor to the Chandrayaan-2 mission. (CHANDRAYAAN-2) Launched by: Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LVM3). Launched from: Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR , Sriharikota. It consists of an indigenous Lander module (LM), a Propulsion module (PM) and a Rover. Lander: a spacecraft that descends towards and comes to rest on, the surface of an astronomical body. Propulsion module: a box-like structure, mounted with a large solar panel on one side and a large cylinder on top. Rover: a small vehicle that can move over rough ground, often used on the surface of other planets, sometimes controlled from the earth. The Lander and the Rover have scientific payloads to carry out experiments on the lunar surface. The main function of the PM is to carry the LM from launch vehicle injection to the final lunar 100 km circular polar orbit and separate the LM from the PM. There won’t be any orbiters like Chandrayaan 2 in it. Objectives of Chandrayaan-3 mission:- To demonstrate a Safe and Soft Landing on Lunar Surface (Chandrayaan-3) To demonstrate Rover roving on the moon and To conduct in-situ scientific experiments. Lander payloads:– Chandra’s Surface Thermophysical Experiment (ChaSTE): to measure the thermal conductivity and temperature Instrument for Lunar Seismic Activity (ILSA) for measuring the seismicity around the landing site Langmuir Probe (LP): to estimate the plasma density and its variations. A passive Laser Retroreflector Array from NASA is accommodated for lunar laser ranging studies. Rover payloads:- Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer (APXS) and Laser Induced Breakdown Spectroscope (LIBS) for deriving the elemental composition in the vicinity of the landing site. Propulsion Module Payload:- Spectro-polarimetry of Habitable Planet Earth (SHAPE): Future discoveries of smaller planets in reflected light would allow us to probe into a variety of Exo-planets which would qualify for habitability or for the presence of life. GSLV-Mk III It is also known as the Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3). It is a three-stage vehicle with two solid motor strap-ons, a liquid propellant core stage and a cryogenic stage. It is the heaviest and the shortest among India’s operational launch vehicles. Weighs: 641 tonnes, which is equal to the weight of five fully loaded passenger planes. Capacity: GSLV can take 10,000-kg satellites to lower earth orbits. MUST READ: Gaganyaan SOURCE:THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Mycena chlorophos Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Rare bioluminescent mushroom, Mycena chlorophos was spotted recently. Background:- Decoding the Context: A team of researchers and the forest department have found a rare bioluminescent mushroom in the Kanyakumari Wildlife Sanctuary (KKWLS). About Mycena chlorophos:- Mycena chlorophos is a species of agaric fungus in the family Mycenaceae. It was first described in 1860. The fungus is found in subtropical Asia, including India, Japan, Taiwan, Polynesia, Indonesia, Sri Lanka, Australia, and Brazil. In Japan, the mushroom is known as yakoh-take, or “night-light mushroom”. In the Bonin Islands, it is called “Green Pepe”. Cap is conical or flat. It is It is a bioluminescent fungus. There are around 103 species of bioluminescent fungi in the world, of which seven are found in India. MUST READ: Medicinal Fungi SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which of the following organisms perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q2. Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Missions Agency Perseverance ESA Artemis NASA Aditya L ISRO How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Chandrayaan-3 is the predecessor to the Chandrayaan-2 mission. Statement-II : It was launched by Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LVM3). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Mycena chlorophos , consider the following statements: It has a cap which is conical or flat. It is saprotrophic. It is a bioluminescent fungus. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  13th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 11th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Reserve Bank of India Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, RBI tightened norms for unsecured personal loans for banks and non-banking financial companies. Background:- RBI in a circular said that it has been decided to increase the risk weights with respect to consumer credit exposure of commercial banks, both outstanding and new, including personal loans. About RBI:- Establishment:1935. HQ: Mumbai. The Reserve Bank of India is India’s central bank. It is the apex monetary institution which supervises, regulates controls and develops the monetary and financial system of the country. The Reserve Bank was established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, of 1934. Structure of RBI:- The Reserve Bank’s affairs are governed by a central board of directors. The board is appointed by the Government of India in keeping with the Reserve Bank of India Act. The directors are appointed/nominated for a period of four years. Functions of the Reserve Bank of India:- Monetary Policy of the Country (RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee) Inflation control: The RBI has targeted to keep the mid-term inflation at 4 four per cent (+/- 2 per cent). Decides benchmark interest rate RBI acts as a banker for both the central as well as state governments. It sells and purchases government securities on their behalf. Regulator of Foreign Exchange under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (“FEMA”). MUST READ: Financial Stability Report SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers’?(2017) The Reserve Bank of India The Department of Economic Affairs The Labour Bureau The Department of Personnel and Training Q.2) In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight? (2015) Coal production Electricity generation Fertilizer production Steel production Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation CEO Summit took place recently. Background:- Speaking at the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation CEO summit in San Francisco yesterday, President Biden stressed the importance of working together with India, Japan, the Republic of Korea, and Singapore to strengthen the critical semiconductor industry. About APEC:- Established: 1989 HQ: Singapore. Members: 21 Member Nations: Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, China, Hong Kong, Indonesia, Japan, South Korea, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Papua New Guinea, Peru, Philippines, Russia, Singapore, Chinese Taipei, Thailand, Vietnam and the United States. India is not a Member. It is an inter-governmental forum that promotes free trade throughout the Asia-Pacific region. (APEC virtual meet held) It was started in 1989 in response to the growing interdependence of Asia-Pacific economies and the advent of regional trade blocs in other parts of the world. It aimed to establish new markets for agricultural products and raw materials beyond Europe. Functions of Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC):- APEC works to help all residents of the Asia-Pacific participate in the growing economy. APEC projects provide digital skills training for rural communities and help indigenous women export their products abroad. Recognizing the impacts of climate change, APEC members also implement initiatives to increase energy efficiency and promote sustainable management of forest and marine resources. India and APEC:- India has been an important destination for APEC members’ foreign investment over the past 25 years, with three APEC economies—Singapore, Japan, and the United States—among the top five countries providing FDI inflows into India. India was denied APEC membership in 2007 on the grounds that its economy was not integrated into the global system. India is the region’s third-largest and now fastest-growing major economy. APEC economies, which account for 60 per cent of global GDP, are experiencing sluggish growth and must look for opportunities to bring new markets India is also projected to be the world’s third-largest economy by 2030 and will need well over $1 trillion of investment in infrastructure over the next decade. MUST READ: APEC summit, 2021 SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) In which one of the following groups are all four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea Ohio-class Submarine Syllabus Prelims –DEFENCE Context: Recently, a U.S. nuclear-powered Ohio-class submarine, equipped for precision missile strikes over considerable distances, has joined a fleet of Navy ships in the waters of the Middle East. Background:- In an unusual public announcement on November 5, the U.S. Central Command confirmed the arrival of an Ohio-class submarine in its designated area of responsibility. CENTCOM, responsible for directing U.S. military operations in the Middle East, shared this information succinctly through social media. About Ohio-class Submarine:- The Ohio class submarine is a class of nuclear-powered submarines. They are currently in service with the United States Navy. (India, Israel and Palestine) They are the largest submarines ever built for the U.S. Navy. The Ohio class submarines were developed during the Cold War to provide the United States with a robust and survivable sea-based strategic deterrent. The first Ohio class submarine, USS Ohio (SSBN-726), was commissioned in 1981. A total of 18 submarines were built between 1976 and 1997. These submarines are designed for extended underwater operations. They are equipped with advanced technology to support various missions, including strategic deterrence, surveillance, and special operations. Each of these submarines is provided with two complete crews, called the Blue Crew and the Gold Crew, with each crew serving typically on 70- to 90-day deterrent patrols. They can travel at speeds of 30+ knots. They can remain submerged indefinitely. Significance:- Ohio class submarines play a crucial role in the United States’ nuclear triad, serving as a platform for submarine-launched ballistic missiles (SLBMs) armed with nuclear warheads. Ohio-class submarines provide the Navy with unprecedented strike and special operation mission capabilities from a stealthy, clandestine platform, and they play a crucial role in the nation’s defences. MUST READ: Submarine Vagir SOURCE: ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (2018) An Israeli radar system India’s indigenous anti-missile programme An American anti-missile system A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea. Voice of Global South Summit-2023 Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi led the inaugural session of the second ‘Voice of Global South Summit-2023’. About Voice of Global South Summit-2023:- Date: 12-13 January 2023. The “Voice of Global South Summit” is a platform for generating ideas from the developing world for achieving energy security, which is affordable, accessible and sustainable. India is hosting the Summit in a virtual format. The inaugural session will be followed by four parallel Ministerial sessions. These include the sessions by Ministers of External Affairs, Education, Finance and Environment. Four more parallel Ministerial sessions will be held in the afternoon. The theme of the inaugural Leaders’ Session: “Together, for Everyone’s Growth, with Everyone’s Trust” and that of the Concluding Leaders’ Session is “Global South: Together for One Future”. Akashvani correspondent reports that the Summit will focus on sharing with the countries of the Global South, the key outcomes achieved in various G20 meetings over the course of India’s Presidency. India hosted a two-day Voice of Global South Summit on 12-13 January 2023. The Summit was held in a virtual format, with 10 sessions in total. It saw the participation of Leaders and Ministers from 125 countries of the Global South. India convened this one-of-a-kind Summit to focus international attention on the priorities, perspectives and concerns of the developing world. This is particularly relevant as the world passes through a difficult period marked by challenges to health, food security, affordable access to energy, climate finance and technologies, and economic growth. (Climate Change Performance Index(CCPI) 2023) Significance:- This Summit is a timely reminder of what is at stake for over three-fourths of the planet’s population that is most vulnerable to the deleterious impact of the several interlinked risks we confront. MUST READ: India and G20 Presidency SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1.) In which one of the following groups are all four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand. Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam. Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea. Q.2) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of (2020) Digital security infrastructure Food security infrastructure Health care and education infrastructure Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure SATURN Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, astronomers explained the possibility of the disappearance of rings around Saturn. About Saturn:- Saturn is the sixth planet from the Sun. It is the second largest planet in our solar system. Adorned with a dazzling system of icy rings, Saturn is unique among the planets. Saturn is a massive ball made mostly of hydrogen and helium. The farthest planet from Earth discovered by the unaided human eye, Saturn has been known since ancient times. The planet is named for the Roman god of agriculture and wealth, who was also the father of Jupiter. Saturn isn’t the only planet to have rings. The rings we see are made of groups of tiny ringlets that surround Saturn. They’re made of chunks of ice and rock. Saturn has a thick atmosphere. One day on Saturn goes by in just 7 hours. One year on Saturn is 29 Earth years. Saturn has been known since ancient times because it can be seen without advanced telescopes. Four robotic spacecraft have visited Saturn, including Pioneer 11, Cassini, and Voyager 1 and 2. (Exoplanets)  MUST READ: New Study on Ninth Planet SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q2. Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Measles Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: As per recent reports there was a  43% increase in measles deaths from 2021-2022. Background:- The number of measles deaths worldwide increased by 43 per cent from 2021-2022, following years of falling vaccination rates, according to a new assessment by the World Health Organization (WHO) and the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). About Measles:- Measles is a highly contagious, serious airborne disease caused by a virus that can lead to severe complications and death. Measles is caused by a virus found in the nose and throat of an infected child or adult. It spreads easily when an infected person breathes, coughs or sneezes. It can cause severe disease, complications, and even death. Measles can affect anyone but is most common in children. Measles infects the respiratory tract and then spreads throughout the body. Symptoms include a high fever, cough, runny nose and a rash all over the body. Measles vaccination averted 56 million deaths between 2000 and 2021. Even though a safe and cost-effective vaccine is available, in 2021, there were an estimated 128,000 measles deaths globally, mostly among unvaccinated or under-vaccinated children under the age of 5 years. In 2022, about 83% of the world’s children received one dose of measles vaccine by their first birthday through routine health services – the lowest since 2008. Risk factors:- Being unvaccinated. Traveling internationally. Having a vitamin A deficiency. (India’s plan to eradicate measles, rubella) MUST READ: Ni-kshay Mitra SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.   Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Disease Caused by Plague Yersinia pestis Chickenpox Varicella-zoster virus. Small Pox Variola virus How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Measles spreads easily when an infected person breathes, coughs or sneezes. Statement-II : Measles can affect only children. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Saturn, consider the following statements: Saturn is the seventh planet from the Sun. It is the second largest planet in our solar system. It is a massive ball made mostly of hydrogen and helium. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  17th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 16th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Alzheimer's Disease Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, the World’s Leading Theory on Alzheimer’s in Crisis fail After Major Drug Trials. Background:- In two trials, a drug designed to eradicate the sticky plaques has failed to preserve the cognitive abilities of people with early Alzheimer’s disease compared to people given a placebo. The monoclonal antibody gantenerumab did significantly reduce the amount of amyloid beta in the brain as intended, but this did not translate into improvements in cognitive function. About Alzheimer’s Disease:-   Alzheimer’s disease is a neurological disorder. It causes brain cells to degenerate and die. This leads to loss of memory, problems with words in speaking or writing, poor judgment, changes in mood and personality, confusion with time or place, etc. It is a brain disorder that gets worse over time. Alzheimer’s is the most common cause of dementia among older adults. Alzheimer’s is an incurable disease, as the death of brain cells cannot be reversed. Women have a higher risk of having Alzheimer’s disease than men. Causes:- Alzheimer’s disease is thought to be caused by the abnormal build-up of proteins in and around brain cells. One of the proteins involved is called amyloid, deposits of which form plaques around brain cells and the other protein is called tau. Tau is a protein that when it occurs in tangled formations in the brain of Alzheimer patients, disrupts the ability of neurons to communicate with one another in the brain. Symptoms:- A gradual decline in some, most or all of the following:- Reasoning and handling of complex tasks. Understanding visual form and space relationship. Management and Treatment:- Medication: There’s no cure for Alzheimer’s disease, but certain medications can temporarily slow the worsening of dementia symptoms. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has approved two types of drugs to treat the symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease: Cholinesterase inhibitors. NMDA antagonists. Managing behaviour changes:- Maintaining a familiar environment for them. Monitoring patients’ comfort. Providing comfort objects, such as a favourite stuffed animal or blanket.   MUST READ: Need for stronger mental health strategy SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following? (2023) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting a series of drug trials in  a population Q.2) ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations? (2023) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal  samples from land surfaces and  water bodies Employees’ State Insurance Scheme Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recent data shows that over 18.88 lakh new workers enrolled under the Employees’ State Insurance Scheme in September 2023. Background:- Over nine lakh young employees, up to the age group of 25 years, constitute the majority of new registrations. About Employees’ State Insurance Scheme:- IMAGE SOURCE: AIR The Employees’ State Insurance Scheme (ESI)is an integrated measure of social Insurance embodied in the Employees’ State Insurance Act, of 1948. ( ESIC) Objectives: ESI Scheme is designed to accomplish the task of protecting ’employees’ as defined in the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 against the impact of incidences of sickness, maternity, disablement and death due to employment injury and to provide medical care to insured persons and their families. (Draft Social Security Code ) Implementing Agency: Employees’ State Insurance Corporation. Applicability of ESI Scheme:- It applies to factories and other establishments Road Transport, Hotels, Restaurants, Cinemas, Newspaper, Shops, and Educational/Medical Institutions wherein 10 or more persons are employed. However, in some States threshold limit for coverage of establishments is still Beneficiary Selection:- Employees of the aforesaid categories of factories and establishments, drawing wages up to Rs.15,000/- a month, are entitled to social security cover under the ESI Act. ESI Corporation has also decided to enhance the wage ceiling for coverage of employees under the ESI Act from Rs.15,000/- to Rs.21,000. Coverage of the ESI Scheme:- 1952: In the beginning, the ESI Scheme was implemented at just two industrial centres in the country, namely Kanpur and Delhi. The Scheme today, stands implemented at over 830 centres in 31 States and Union Territories. Funding of ESI Scheme:- The Employees’ State Insurance Scheme (ESI Scheme) is financed by contributions from employers and employees. The rate of contribution by employer is 3.25% of the wages payable to employees. The employees’ contribution is at the rate of 75% of the wages payable to an employee. Benefits under the ESI Scheme:- The main benefits provided under ESI Scheme are: Sickness Benefit Disablement Benefit Dependants’ Benefit Maternity Benefit Medical Benefit Other benefits: Confinement Expenses, Funeral Expenses, Vocational Rehabilitation, Physical Rehabilitation, Unemployment Allowance (RGSKY) and Skill Upgradation Training.   MUST READ: Finding Unemployment Benefits SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments, and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (2022) Central Statistics Office Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade Labour Bureau National Technical Manpower Information System Q.2)Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, ‘medium enterprises are those with investments in plant and machinery between (‘ 15 crores and ’25 crore). All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Rabhindra Bhavan Syllabus Prelims – ART AND CULTURE Context: Veteran artist Jatin Das inaugurated two curated Exhibitions at Rabhindra Bhavan recently. Background:- Lalit Kala Akademi, the apex cultural body under Ministry of Culture, Government of India, presents two exhibitions, namely ‘Imag(in)ing the Immediate- Curating from a National Collection’ and ‘The Afghan Journal’, both curated by Akademi’s Assistant Editor and renowned curator and art historian, JohnyML. About Rabhindra Bhavan:- Architect: Ar. Habib Rahman. Location: Feroz Shah Marg, Mandi House, New Delhi Area: 3.5 Acres Project year: 1961 Idea: building that would mark the birth centenary of Rabindranath Tagore. Rabindra Bhavan was built to mark the birth centenary of Tagore, who in addition to being a poet and novelist, was an artist, playwright and composer. The building is thus the home of three National Academies: Lalit Kala (Plastic Arts), Sangeet Natak (Dance, Drama and Music) and Sahitya (Literature). The building is divided into three major blocks- administrative building, exhibition gallery and theatre. The administrative block, which is the biggest of all, occupies prominent amount of space on the site. The Y – shape is chosen very thoughtfully to cover the maximum area on the site Reinterpreted form of chajjas in continuous horizontal louvers. Lighting through natural means. This building also serves as a memorial museum for studies on Tagore. It is also the hub for research studies on Rabindranath Tagore. These include old photographs which show his lifestyle. The wider range of artefacts and personal items of Shri Rabindranath Tagore attracts a large number of visitors.   MUST READ: Visva-Bharati University SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts: (2022) Nettipakarana Parishishtaparvan Avadanashataka Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina’s texts 1,2 and 3 2 and 4 only 1,3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Kalamkari painting refers to (2015) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India. a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in Northeast India. a block-painted woolen cloth in the Western Himalayan region of India. a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India. National Press Day Syllabus Prelims – IMPORTANT DAYS Context: Recently, National Press Day was celebrated. Background:- The day is observed on 16th November every year to commemorate a free and responsible press. About National Press Day:- It is observed in honour of the Press Council of India (PCI). Press Council of India (PCI) was established by the Parliament On 4 July 1966. The day is meant to mark the presence of the free and responsible press in India. Evolution of authority of maintaining the ethics of journalism: First Press Commission, 1956: In the year 1956, the First Press Commission decided to form a body bestowed with statutory authority, meant to fulfill the responsibility of maintaining the ethics of journalism. In 1966, on 16the November, the PCI was formed. The National Press Day has been celebrated ever since on 16th November, every year to commemorate the establishment of the council. Various seminars and workshops are organized to raise multiple issues faced by the Indian press.   MUST READ: Asia-Pacific Broadcasting Union SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centers. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Regarding DigiLocker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under the Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Crab Nebula Syllabus Prelims – SPACE Context: Recently, NASA’s James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) has captured new views of a stunning nebula, the Crab Nebula. Background:- NASA released a new image of the Crab Nebula, clearly showing a small white dot at its centre. About Crab Nebula:- Crab Nebula is a supernova remnant located 6,500 light-years away. It is located in the constellation Taurus. (SpaceTech Innovation Network (SpIN)) A nebula is a formation in space which is constituted mostly of helium, dust, and other gases in various concentrations. The shape and size of a nebula vary, and as such there can be various types of formations having different sizes. The Crab Nebula has continued to draw attention and additional study as scientists seek to understand the conditions, behaviour, and after-effects of supernovae through a thorough study of the Crab, a relatively nearby example. The discovery of the object as a nebula is attributed to the English physician and amateur astronomer John Bevis in about 1731. It is one of the few astronomical objects from which radiation has been detected over the entire measurable spectrum, from radio waves through infrared and visible wavelengths to ultraviolet, X-rays, and gamma rays. MUST READ: IN-SPACe SOURCE: SCIENTIFIC AMERICAN PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2)Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Niobium Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recently, The Union Cabinet recently approved royalty rates in respect of 3 critical and strategic minerals, including niobium, and Rare Earth Elements. Background:- The other two were lithium and Rare Earth Elements. About Niobium:- Niobium is a beautiful, white metal that changes to varying shades of blue, yellow and green when exposed to the air and the elements. It is a rare, soft, malleable, ductile, grey-white metal. It has a relatively high melting point, and in its elemental form, its melting point can go up to 2,468 °C. Niobium has a density that is lower than most other refractory metals. (Rare Earth Metals) It is anti-corrosive. It has high superconductivity properties. It usually forms layers of dielectric oxides when exposed to air. It is almost identical in terms of size, to tantalum atoms and exhibits Lanthanide contractions. It is not found free in nature but in minerals such as columbite and tantalite. Commercially, niobium is extracted by first forming the oxide (Nb2O5). The oxide is then reduced using carbon or hydrogen. Brazil is the world’s largest supplier, with Canada trailing far behind. Applications:- It is utilized in the manufacture of high-temperature-resistant alloys and specific stainless steels. It is also utilized to construct superconducting accelerating structures for particle accelerators in their pure form. Because they do not react with human tissue, niobium alloys are employed in surgical implants. Niobium carbide is used in the manufacture of cutting tools. As wires for superconducting magnets capable of producing extremely powerful magnetic fields, niobium-tin, and niobium-titanium alloys are utilized. MUST READ: Indian Bureau of Mines SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)Consider the following countries: (2023) Bulgaria Czech Republic Hungary Latvia Lithuania Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1)Consider the following pairs: SPACE MISSIONS AGENCY RISAT-2BR1 ISRO Mariner 3 NASA Pioneer JAXA How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Alzheimer’s disease  is a brain disorder that gets better with time. Statement-II : It causes brain cells to degenerate and die. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Niobium , consider the following statements: It is anti-corrosive. It has high superconductivity properties. It usually forms layers of dielectric oxides when exposed to air. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  16th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 15th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – c For a dedicated peer group, Motivation & Quick updates, Join our official telegram channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccount Subscribe to our YouTube Channel HERE to watch Explainer Videos, Strategy Sessions, Toppers Talks & many more…

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here