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[COMPILATION] IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains 2023 Answer Writing!

For TLP (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE Hello Friends, Hope you all have enjoyed the daily 5 questions from TLP. Here, we have come up with the much-awaited compilations of  TLP. Make the best use of it. To Know More about the Initiative -> CLICK HERE SCHEDULE/DETAILED PLAN -> CLICK HERE Compilations - Phase 2 Compilations - GS 1 Compilations - GS 2 Compilations - GS 3 Compilations - GS 4 To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow- TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccount YOUTUBE  –  https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQ FACEBOOK  – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/ Thank You IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Global Environment Facility (GEF) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The Global Biodiversity Framework Fund (GBFF) was ratified and launched at the Seventh Assembly of the Global Environment Facility (GEF) held recently. Global Biodiversity Framework Fund’s (GBFF) implications:- Governments, non-profits, and the private sector can now contribute their funds to GBFF. This will ensure that the world meets the goals and targets of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) formulated by the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) by 2030. As much as 20 percent of the funds would support Indigenous-led initiatives to protect and conserve biodiversity. It will also prioritize support for Small Island Developing States and Least Developed Countries, which will receive more than a third of the fund’s resources. This is the first time there would be funds channeled to non-state actors like the indigenous communities. Under Target 19 of GBF, at least $200 billion per year will need to be raised by 2030. Canada and the United Kingdom have already donated 200 million Canadian dollars and 10 million pounds respectively to the GBFF. After donations from Canada and the UK, $40 million is still needed to operationalize the fund by the end of 2023. The first GBFF Council meeting will be held in January 2024, with a view to approving the first work programme at the June 2024 Council meeting. The first tranche of the fund is likely to be disbursed after the council meeting to ensure that the first projects under the new Fund can be launched ahead of CBD’s CoP16. About Global Environment Facility (GEF):- IMAGE SOURCE: GEF Established:1991. It was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit of UNFCC. HQ: Washington, D.C. United States. Historical Background:- It was set up as a fund under the World Bank. Restructured: in 1994. 1992: At the Rio Earth Summit, the GEF was restructured and moved out of the World Bank system to become a permanent, separate institution. Since 1994, however, the World Bank has served as the Trustee of the GEF Trust Fund. Rio Earth Summit: It was a major United Nations conference held in Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) in 1992. It highlighted the impact of human socio-economic activities on the environment. ( Climate Ambition Summit 2020 held virtually) Members of GEF: It has 184 member India is a member. Venue of the seventh Assembly of GEF: Vancouver, Canada. It is a family of funds dedicated to confronting biodiversity loss, climate change, pollution, and strains on land and ocean health. Its grants, blended financing, and policy support to help developing countries address their biggest environmental priorities and adhere to international environmental conventions. It provides financial assistance for five major international environmental conventions:- The Minamata Convention on Mercury. Signed: 2013. Effective from 2014. It is an international treaty designed to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds. The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). Signed:2001. Effective from 2004. It is an international environmental treaty that aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants (POPs). The United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD) (UN Biodiversity Summit) Signed: 5 June 1992 – 4 June 1993. Effective from 1993. It is the international legal instrument for “the conservation of biological diversity, the sustainable use of its components, and the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD). Signed: 14 October 1994 – 13 October 1995. Effective from 1996. It was established in 1994 to protect and restore our land and ensure a safer, just, and more sustainable future. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Signed:1992-1993. Effective from 1994. It was adopted in 1992 with the ultimate aim of preventing dangerous human interference with the climate system. Organization of GEF:- The GEF’s governing structure is organized around an Assembly, Council, Secretariat, 18 implementing agencies, a Scientific and Technical Advisory Panel, and the Independent Evaluation Office. GEF Council: it is the GEF’s main governing body, and comprises 32 members appointed by constituencies of member countries. Functions of GEF:- It supports developing countries’ work to address the world’s most pressing environmental issues. It organizes work around five focal areas – biodiversity loss, chemicals and waste, climate change, international waters, and land degradation. It takes an integrated approach to support more sustainable food systems, forest management, and cities. GEF and India: India is a founder member of GEF. It is both a donor and recipient of GEF funds. India represents the GEF South Asia Constituency (including, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, and Sri Lanka) in the GEF Council. GEF Political Focal Point: Department of Economic Affairs (DEA). It is responsible for issues related to GEF governance, including policies and decisions, as well as relations between member countries and the GEF Council and Assembly. GEF Operational Focal Point (OFP): The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) MUST READ: Climate Adaptation Summit 2021 SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following : (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) It serves as a financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at the global level It is an agency under the OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with the specific aim of protecting their environment Both (a) and (b) Multi Commodity Exchange Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Gold prices declined 50 rupees at Multi Commodity Exchange for October 2023. Background:- Gold was trading at 58,769 rupees per 10 grams. Silver was also down by 404 rupees to trade at 73,600 rupees per kilogram for September 2023 Contracts. About Multi Commodity Exchange:- A commodities exchange is a legal entity that facilitates the trading of standardized commodity contracts and related investment products. Commodity Exchange was first regulated by the Forward Market Commission (FMC). After the merger of FMC with SEBI in 2015 it is now regulated by Major Commodity Exchange in India:- Multi Commodity Exchange (MCX) National Commodities and Derivative Exchange (NCDEX) National Multi-commodity Exchange (NMCE) Of these commodity exchanges, the NCDEX and NCME focus primarily on agricultural commodities trading. Multi Commodity Exchange (MCX):- Established: 2003. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. HQ: Mumbai. It is India’s first listed exchange. It facilitates online trading of commodities like gold, silver, copper, zinc, lead, crude oil, natural gas (NG) nickel, aluminum, etc. (Gold Reserve) It holds 86% of the market share of commodity exchanges in India. It is the world’s largest exchange for silver and gold.( Bureau of Indian Standards(BIS) and Hallmark) It involves trading in more than 40 commodities. Promoters: National Spot Exchange Limited, India Energy Exchange, Singapore Mercantile Exchange Global Board of Trade, IBS Forex, etc. Traded commodities: metal, fibre, bullion, energy, spices, etc. MUST READ: Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme 2022-23 SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2017) The Standard Mark of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) What is/are the purpose/purposes of the Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and ‘Gold Monetization Scheme’? (2016) To bring the idle gold lying with Indian households into the economy To promote FDI in the gold and jewelry sector To reduce India’s dependence on gold imports Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Tele-Law- 2.0 Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Union Law and Justice Minister Arjun Ram Meghwal launched Tele-Law- 2.0 recently. About Tele-Law- 2.0:- Ministry: Ministry of Law & Justice. It Integrates Tele-Law and Nyaya Bandhu App. Objective: to further enhance citizen accessibility to legal aid. It will enable the common citizen to access legal advice, legal assistance, and legal representation through a single registration and single gateway of Tele-Law. (Lakhs of people benefit through Tele-Law) About the Tele-Law programme:- Ministry/ministries: Ministry of Law and Justice and Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). Objective: the programme connects the disadvantaged section with a panel of lawyers through an e-interface platform. Working:- It uses video conferencing facilities and telephone services to connect lawyers to litigants who need legal advice. It is to facilitate the delivery of legal advice through a panel of lawyers stationed at the State Legal Services Authorities (SALSA) and CSC (Common service centres). Fee:- The service is free for those who are eligible for free legal Aid under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987. For all others, a nominal fee is charged. MUST READ: Citizens’ Tele-Law Mobile App SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Regarding Digi Locker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under the Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 The Grand Cross of the Order of Honour Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: Recently, Prime Minister Modi became the first Foreign Head of a Govt. to be awarded ‘The Grand Cross of the Order of Honour’ by the Greek govt. Background:- This recognition was given during Prime Minister Modi’s official visit to Greece. About The Grand Cross of the Order of Honour:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA Established:1975. Conferred by: President of Greece. (Aegean sea & islands) Description: The head of the goddess Athena is depicted on the front side of the Star with the inscription “ONLY THE
RIGHTEOUS SHOULD BE HONOURED”. Conferred to: Prime Ministers and eminent personalities who by reason of their distinguished position, have contributed to enhancing the stature of Greece. (Greece- Turkey Clash) MUST READ: NATO SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (2018) China Israel Iraq Yemen India Smart Cities Awards Contest 2022 Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the Winners of the India Smart Cities Awards Contest 2022 were announced. Key Highlights:- President Droupadi Murmu will felicitate the winners of the ISAC 2022 awards on the 27th of September in Indore, Madhya Pradesh. About India Smart Cities Awards Contest 2022:- The India Smart Cities Awards Contest (ISAC) recognizes the exemplary work championed by cities, projects, innovations, and partners in promoting ‘smart’ development in cities. (Smart City Mission) Participants: All 100 smart cities have participated in the ISAC. There have been three editions of the ISAC, viz., ISAC 2018, ISAC 2019 and ISAC 2020. It was the Fourth edition of the awards. Ministry: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Selection Process:- The award has a two-stage submission process:- First stage or ‘Qualifying Stage’: It involves an overall assessment of the city’s performance. Second stage or ‘Proposal Stage’: requires smart cities to submit their nominations for six award categories viz. These include Project Award, Innovation Award, City Award, State/UT Award, Leadership Award and Partners Award. (Fifth anniversary of the Smart Cities Mission) The Partners Award is a new addition to the Award categories. It is to honour the various collaborators of the smart city ecosystem, e.g., industry partners, knowledge partners, and community-based organizations for their contribution to championing the cause of the Smart Cities Mission. Results of the ISAC 2022 announced: 15th August 2022. MUST READ: Smart Cities and Academia Towards Action & Research (SAAR) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Project Accelerated Mission for Better Employment and Retention (AMBER) Syllabus Prelims –Government initiatives Context: Recently, the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), launched Project ‘AMBER’. Background:- MSDE started the project in collaboration with Generation India Foundation (GIF) and Amazon Web Services India Private Limited (AWS India). About Project ‘AMBER’:- Launched: 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). It is a joint initiative of the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC), Generation India Foundation (GIF), and Amazon Web Services India Private Limited (AWS India). The initiative has been undertaken under the SANKALP programme. Objective: to train 30,000 youth, focusing on women and underprivileged groups. Among the 30,000 youth, 50% will be women. Learners engage in the AWS (re/Start) program, gaining fundamental AWS cloud skills and practical career guidance. Features of the project:- The learners take part in AWS (re/Start), a workforce development program for unemployed and underemployed individuals. It covers fundamental AWS cloud skills as well as practical career tips, including resume writing and interview preparation. Through real-world scenario-based exercises, labs, and coursework, learners are trained in multiple technologies, including Linux, Python, networking, security, and relational databases. The program covers the cost for learners to take the AWS Cloud Practitioner Certification exam. AWS Cloud Practitioner Certification exam: an industry-recognized credential that validates their cloud skills and knowledge and connects the participants with job interview opportunities in cloud or IT with local employers. Significance:- It will bring entry-level talent into the workforce. It helps individuals to launch successful cloud careers. (Cloud Computing) It helps organizations to increase their competitive edge with in-demand talent, and communities. It focuses on women to improve gender diversification in the tech industry and underprivileged groups. MUST READ: National Super Computing Mission (NSM) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: India and One Health Approach Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently the G20 health ministers prioritise, commit to tackling antimicrobial resistance (AMR) with One Health approach during their meet in Gandhinagar, Gujrat. About the One Health Approach: ‘One Health’ is an interdisciplinary approach that recognises the interconnections between the health of humans, animals, plants, and their shared environment. An early articulation can be found in the writings of Hippocrates, who contemplated the relationships between public health and clean environments. The 19th-century German physician and pathologist Rudolf Virchow later wrote that between animal and human medicines there are no dividing lines – nor should there be.” Recently, the eminent veterinarians James Steele and Calvin Schwabe have championed the value of ecology for both animal and human health. Significance of One Health approach: Requirement of less resources: It minimises resource requirements across sectors. An important way it does this is by encouraging coordination across governmental units. Exchange of information: Taking a One Health approach allows researchers to share their laboratories and findings, and ultimately make decisions that lead to resilient, sustainable, and predictable policies. Potential economic benefits: The economic benefits of One Health are understood in contrast to the cost of managing a pandemic with a non-One-Health approach. An assessment of the G20 Joint Finance and Health Taskforce estimated the latter to be around $30 billion a year. On the other hand, estimates by the World Bank have indicated that the former would cost $3 billion to $11.5 billion annually. Integrated approach: The COVID-19 pandemic has renewed interest among scientists and policy makers for building an integrated approach for prevention, early detection and instituting appropriate response to control such public health emergencies. Associated challenges: Spread of disease: About 60 per cent of the known infectious diseases in humans and 75 percent of all emerging infectious diseases are caused by pathogens that originate in animals. Antibiotic-resistant microbes also can effectively be transmitted from animals to humans and cause diseases in humans which may not respond to affordable antibiotics. Extensive and irrational use of antibiotics especially in the livestock sector for increasing yield and preventing diseases causes emergence and selection of resistant pathogens. These spread through animal-human interaction or food chain. Govt Initiatives on One health approach: Consortium on One Health: The Department of Biotechnology launched India’s first consortium on One Health in 2021. It brings together 27 organisations from several ministries and plans to assess the burden of five transboundary animal diseases and 10 select zoonotic diseases. Standing Committee on Zoonoses: The Government of India established its ‘Standing Committee on Zoonoses’ in 2006 under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW). It is to provide the Union and the State governments guidance and recommendations on challenges related to zoonoses. Pilot projects: Pilot projects in some states: In 2022 a One Health pilot project was launched in Karnataka and Uttarakhand. It intends to strengthen intersectoral collaborations through capacity-building, with the goal of improving livestock health, human health, wildlife health, and environmental health. National One Health Mission: India is also currently preparing for a wider ‘National One Health Mission’ to be spearheaded by the Office of the Principal Scientific Advisor. The idea is to coordinate, support and integrate all existing One Health initiatives in the country. Way Forward: India should move beyond short-term collaborations and create an integrated, science-based environment. This is a prerequisite for platforms to not just share office space but to also provide access to laboratories and biological samples to the relevant researchers. Therefore nexus of science, social science, indigenous knowledge and policy at national, state and local levels can put forward strategies and institutions for implementation of One Health. Source:  DTE The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2023 Syllabus     Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The bill was recently introduced in Rajya Sabha will consist of the Prime Minister as the chairperson, the Leader of the Opposition as a member, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister as another member. This bill proposes to exclude the Chief Justice of India (CJI) from the three-member committee that recommends the names of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and the Election Commissioners (ECs) to the President. Background: The Supreme Court (SC) in recently ruled that CEC and ECs will be appointed by the President of India on the advice of a Committee consisting of the Prime Minister, and Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and the Chief Justice of India until a law is enacted by Parliament on their appointments. This ruling emerged from a 2015 Public Interest Litigation (PIL) challenging the appointment process. Key provisions of the bill: Composition of the commission: The bill maintains the existing structure of the Election Commission, consisting of the CEC and other ECs. The CEC and ECs are appointed by the President of India. However, the bill introduces the requirement that their appointments will be made on the recommendation of a Selection Committee. Selection committee: The Selection Committee will comprise the Prime Minister as the Chairperson, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. If there is no recognized Leader of the Opposition, the leader of the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha will take on this role. Search committee: A Search Committee will be responsible for preparing a panel of five potential candidates for the Selection Committee’s consideration. The Search Committee will be headed by the Cabinet Secretary and will have two other members who are senior government officials with expertise in election-related matters. The Selection Committee can also consider candidates who were not included in the panel prepared by the Search Committee. Qualification: Individuals who hold or have held positions equivalent to the rank of Secretary in the central government will be eligible for appointment as CEC and ECs. Additionally, these individuals should possess expertise in managing and conducting elections. Salaries and allowances: The bill stipulates that the salary, allowances, and service conditions of the CEC and other ECs will be the same as those of the Cabinet Secretary. Term of office: Both the CEC and other ECs will serve for a term of six years or until they reach the age of 65, whichever comes first. If an EC is elevated to the position of CEC, its total term cannot exceed six years. The bill also specifies that the CEC and ECs will not be eligible for reappointment. Conduct of business: The Election Commission’s business will continue to be conducted through unanimous decisions. If a difference of opinion arises between the CEC and other ECs on any matter, it will be resolved through a majority vote. Removal and resignation: The bill maintains the existing procedure for removing the CEC and ECs from office. The CEC can only be removed through a process similar to the removal of a Supreme Court judge, requiring a motion passed by both Houses of Parliament with majority support of the total membership and at least two-thirds support from members present and voting. The recommendation of the CEC is required for the removal of an EC. Resignation provisions remain the same as well. Criticisms associated with the bill: Balance of Power: The Prime Minister and a Cabinet Minister (nominated by the Prime Minister) forming part of the three-member committee, the Leader of Opposition is left with a minority vote even before the process begins. This raises questions about the balance of power within the committee and whether the selection process truly ensures independence or remains skewed in favour of the Executive. Impact on electoral governance: The proposed changes may have implications for the autonomy and functioning of the ECI. The independence of the Election Commission is crucial for ensuring impartiality and integrity in the conduct of elections. Any perceived influence of the Executive in the selection process might raise concerns about the EC’s ability to carry out its responsibilities without bias. Alignment with Framers Intentions: The SC, in its previous ruling, emphasized that the framers of the Constitution intended for an independent body to oversee elections. Critics of the proposed Bill raise questions about whether the new composition of the Selection Committee aligns with the framers’ objective of creating an impartial and independent body responsible for elections. Way Forward: Therefore, preserving the autonomy of the Election Commission is not only crucial for maintaining the integrity of elections but also for upholding the very foundation of democracy. The government should look after the  review the composition of the selection committee and consider making it more balanced. This might involve giving the opposition a stronger representation to ensure a fair decision-making process. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Conventions Signed in 1.United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification 1998 2.Minamata Convention on Mercury 2003 3. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). 2011 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Project AMBER Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Statement-II: The initiative is under the SANKALP programme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: India Smart Cities Awards Contest 2022 winners will be felicitated by President Droupadi Murmu in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. Statement-II: Surat held the top position India Smart Cities Awards Contest 2022. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What is ‘One Health Approach’ (OHA)? Discuss the significance of OHA in context of rising zoonotic infections in the country. (250 words) Q.2) Highlighting the significance of independence of Election Commissioner. Discuss the challenges associated with the recently introduced Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2023. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 26th August 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 25th August – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 26th August 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the TestClick Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) Syllabus Prelims – Sports Context: The United World Wrestling (UWW) has suspended the Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) for not conducting elections on time. Background:- The UWW suspended the WFI for not conducting its elections within the mandated 45 days, which meant that the Indian grapplers would not be able to compete in Belgrade from September 16 under the Indian flag. About the Wrestling Federation of India (WFI):- Establishment: 1958. Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports. HQ: New Delhi. It is the governing body of wrestling in India. Objective: to promote wrestling players for the Olympics, Asian Games, National Wrestling Championships, and World Wrestling Championships. Historical Background of Wrestling in India:– Wrestling in India has been practiced since the 5th millennium B.C. In Ancient India, wrestling was known as Many characters in Mahabharata are considered to be great wrestlers of the time, included: Bhimawas Jarasandha, Keechak, and Balrama. Ramayana mentions Hanuman as one of the greatest wrestlers of his time. It is called kushti in Punjab and Haryana. Composition of WFI:- President -01 Senior Vice President – 01 Vice Presidents – 04 Honourary Secretary General – 01 Honourary Treasurer – 01 Honourary Joint Secretaries – 02 Executive Members – 05 Functions of WIFI:- To encourage, promote, and control amateur wrestling activities. To affiliate with the Indian Olympic Association. To affiliate with the United World Wrestling [UWW] and to enforce the rules and regulations of UWW. To arrange the holding of Senior, Junior, and Sub-Junior Wrestling Championships every year as per UWW Rules. To authorize a State Wrestling Association to hold wrestling competitions of Inter-Regional nature. To maintain control over officials and keep a panel of trained officials to work in approved. To arrange for their training and tests whenever required. To conduct systematic coaching camps for the benefit of wrestlers. To lay down the general policy under which the State Wrestling Associations. To register wrestlers and promote friendly bouts among them.   About-United World Wrestling (UWW):- It is the international governing body for the sport of wrestling. HQ: Objective: to lead the growth of Wrestling, competitive and recreational, around the world. The UWW was formerly known as FILA (Fédération Internationale des Luttes Associées).   MUST READ: Sports Code SOURCE: AIR Shaheed Rajguru Syllabus Prelims – Modern Indian History Context: The Union Minister Amit Shah paid tribute to Shaheed Rajguru on his birth anniversary recently. About Rajguru:- Birth: 24 August 1908. Birth Place: Khed, near Pune, Maharashtra. Death: 23 March 1931. Rajguru was a freedom fighter in the Indian National movement. He was 22 years old when he was martyred. Ideology: He believed in militant nationalism and thought that oppression was to be met with ferocity and violence. Political Career:- He joined the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA). HSRA: It was a revolutionary group founded during the freedom movement in India. Its members consisted of revolutionaries such as Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqulla Khan, and Sachindra Nath Bakshi. They believed that India could gain independence only by force. The group engaged in violent methods to achieve their objective. Assassination of J P Saunders:- The young revolutionaries wanted to take revenge for the death of Lala Lajpat Rai who died due to injuries sustained in a brutal police lathi charge during the protests against the Simon Commission. Rajguru among other revolutionaries wanted to assassinate James A. Scott, the police officer who had ordered the lathi charge. However, in a case of mistaken identity, J. P. Saunders, a British police officer was killed. Rajguru was caught and arrested. Trial:- In the trial that followed the shooting, all three leaders Rajguru, Bhagat Singh, and Sukhdev were sentenced to death. Rajguru, along with his fellow revolutionaries, was hanged in Legacy:- Rajguru, Bhagat Singh, and Sukhdev were hanged on 23 March 1931. This day is observed as Martyrs’ Day in India. MUST READ: Chandra Shekhar Azad SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a: (2014) revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters in San Francisco. nationalist organization operating from Singapore. militant organization with headquarters in Berlin. communist movement for India’s freedom with headquarters at Tashkent. Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) Syllabus Prelims – Defense/Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Defence Acquisition Council approved proposals worth 7,800 crore rupees to enhance the operational capabilities of the Armed Forces. Background:- To enhance the efficiency of the Indian Air Force, the DAC granted Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for the procurement and installation of Electronic Warfare EW Suite on Mi-17 V5 Helicopters. The EW Suite will be procured from Bharat Electronics Limited BEL. The DAC has also accorded AoN for procurement of a Ground-Based Autonomous System for mechanized infantry and armoured regiments which will enable various operations like unmanned surveillance, logistic delivery of ammunition, fuel, and spares, and casualty evacuation on the battlefield. The AoN for procurement of Ruggedized Laptops and Tablets for the Indian Army under Project Shakti has also been accorded. About the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):- Establishment: 2001. Ministry: Ministry of Defense. HQ: Delhi. The Defence Acquisition Council is the highest decision-making body in the Defense Ministry. It decides new policies and capital acquisitions for the three services (Army, Navy, and Air Force) and the Indian Coast Guard. Objective: To ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the armed forces. Chairman: The Minister of Defense is the Chairman of the Council. Historical Background:- It was formed, after the Group of Ministers’ recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post Kargil War (1999). Functions of DAC:- Give in-principle approval of a 15-year Long Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP) for defense forces. Accord of acceptance of necessity to acquisition proposals. Categorization of the acquisition proposals relating to ‘Buy’, ‘Buy & Make’, and ‘Make’. Take decisions regarding ‘offset’ provisions in respect of acquisition proposals above Rs 300 crore. Take decisions regarding the Transfer of technology under the ‘Buy & Make’ category of acquisition proposals. Field trial evaluation. Monitor the progress of major projects on feedback from the Defense Procurement Board. MUST READ: Self-reliance in defence SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) recently, organized a one-day open house consultation on health insurance of persons with disabilities. About the event:- Organized by: The event is being held in collaboration with the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) and National Centre for Promotion of Employment of Persons with Disabilities, Mumbai. IRDAI: a statutory body under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance, tasked with regulating and licensing the insurance and re-insurance industries in India. The conference will be held in two sessions:- Identification of issues of PwDs in seeking insurance facilities and Identification of provisions and issues faced by insurance companies with respect to providing insurance to PwDs and way forward. Objectives:- To understand the challenges being faced by Persons with Disabilities (PwDs). Approaching insurance providers specifically for retail policies, challenges of insurance companies in providing their policies, regulatory authorities such as IRDAI, and challenges faced by insurance chains in providing end-to-end insurance services. To discuss and promote the launch of standardized insurance products developed by IRDAI for persons with disabilities.   About the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):- Established: 1993. HQ: New Delhi. NHRC is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993. The Act also provides for the creation of the State Human Rights Commission (SHRC) as well. Historical Background:- NHRC was established in conformity with the Paris Principles. Paris Principles: adopted for the promotion and protection of human rights in Paris in 1991. It was endorsed by the General Assembly of the United Nations in 1993. Composition of NHRC:- It is a multi-member body. It consists of a chairperson, five full-time Members, and seven deemed Members. Chairperson: a retired chief justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court. Appointments:- The chairman and members are appointed by the President on the recommendations of a six-member committee consisting of:- Prime Minister (head) Speaker of the Lok Sabha Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha Leaders of the Opposition in both Houses of Parliament Union Home Minister. Term: three years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. Removal: the President can remove them from office under specific circumstances. They can be removed only on the charges of proven misbehavior or incapacity if proved by an inquiry conducted by a Supreme Court Judge. Functions of NHRC:- To investigate the violation of human rights. To prevent a human rights violation. To conduct research about human rights. To create awareness campaigns through various mediums, and encourage the work of non-governmental organizations (NGOs). NGO: a group that functions independently of any government. It is the watchdog of human rights in the country.   MUST READ: New Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) appointed SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In India, Judicial Review implies – (2017) The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders. The power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures. The power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before the President assents to them. The power of the Judiciary to review its own judgments given earlier in similar or different cases. Paravanar River Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recently, Neyveli Lignite Corporation India Limited (NLCIL) completed the Permanent Diversion of Paravanar River Course. Background of the issue:- The temporary alignment of the Paravanar River course is just 60 meters away from the Mine. This Paravanar river has to handle stormwater from the catchment area of more than 100 sq. kms from the northwest and southern areas. As several villages are in this area, and it has become of paramount importance to safeguard the habitats as well as agricultural fields from inundation during incessant and heavy rains. Taking accountability and responsibility NLCIL took up the critical task of providing an adequate and permanent waterway through the work of permanent diversion of Paravanar. The long pending and vital work of permanent diversion of the Paravanar River course has been completed by NLCIL on 21st August 2023. About Paravanar River:- Location: Tamil Nadu. Paravanar River Basin which is a leaf-shaped river basin. It is the second smallest river basin of Tamil Nadu. It lies within the Cuddalore District of Tamil Nadu. The Paravanar River is not a mature river. It is a seasonal and ephemeral river. Ephemeral: lasting or used for only a short period of time. About NLCIL:- Establishment:1956. Ministry: Ministry of Coal. (Coal economy) HQ: Tamil Nadu, India. Core Business: Mining & Power Generation. Present Mining Capacity: 1 MTPA Lignite 32.1 MTPA Coal: 20.0 MTPA Present Power Generation Capacity (including JVs): 6061.06 MW Lignite: 3640MW Coal: 1000 MW Solar: 06  MW Wind: 51 MW NLCIL is a Navratna company Central Public Sector Undertaking. It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Coal. (India’s Transition away from Coal) MUST READ: River Cities Alliance SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) Coal ash contains arsenic, lead, and mercury. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment. High ash content is observed in Indian coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Monazite is a source of rare earth. Monazite contains thorium. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Advisory Board on Banking and Financial Frauds (ABBFF) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The Central Vigilance Commission has reconstituted the advisory board on Banking and Financial Frauds (ABBFF). Background:- The reconstituted APBFF will be chaired by Suresh N Patel, former Central Vigilance Commissioner. Central Vigilance Commission:- Establishment: 1964. HQ: New Delhi, Delhi. It was set up by the Government on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Santhanam. It is a statutory body governed by the Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003. Mandate: To inquire into offenses that might have been committed under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 by certain categories of public servants. Composition: Central Vigilance Commissioner (Chairperson) and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners (Members).   About the Advisory Board on Banking and Financial Frauds (ABBFF):- Constituted by: Central Vigilance Commission(CVC). HQ: New Delhi. Objective: It conducts the first level examination of bank frauds before recommendations or references are made to investigative agencies such as the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). Composition of ABBFF:- It consists of the Chairman and four other members. Tenure of the Chairman/ Members: two years. Functions of ABBFF:- It has been empowered to examine the role of officials/whole-time directors (including ex-officials/ex-whole time directors) in public sector banks, public sector insurance companies; and public sector financial institutions in case of frauds amounting to ₹ 3 crores and above. ( Bad Bank) To periodically carry out fraud analysis in the financial system and give inputs, if any, for policy formulation related to the frauds, to RBI and CVC. (Bad Bank: NARCL & IDRCL) The Central Vigilance Commission or the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) can also refer any case or technical matter to the board for its advice, the order stated. It can give inputs for policy formulation related to fraud to the Reserve Bank of India and the Central Vigilance Commission. It will tender its advice as may be requisitioned by ministries, departments, the Central Vigilance Commission, or the CBI.   MUST READ: DHFL SCAM SOURCE: BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 FIDE Chess World Cup 2023 Syllabus Mains – Sports Context: Magnus Carlsen of Norway beat India’s R. Praggnanandhaa in tie-breaks to win the title of the FIDE Chess World Cup 2023 held recently. About FIDE Chess World Cup 2023:- Venue: Baku, Azerbaijan. Date: from 29 July to 25 August,2023. Governing body: International Chess Federation (FIDE). FIDE Global Strategy Commission (hereinafter referred to as GSC) is in charge of preparing Regulations, communicating with the participants and the Organizer, and conducting inspections. The body responsible for adopting and changing these Regulations is the FIDE Council (upon GSC’s recommendations). At any time, any circumstance or unforeseen situation not covered in these Regulations shall be referred to the FIDE President for the final decision. Participation: 206 players shall take part in the World Cup. Prize: The prize money shall be paid by direct banker’s order drawn in USD.   MUST READ: Chess Olympiad SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 India-UK Relations Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: Recently, the India and UK strong partnership has ectended far beyond trade and investment into other field such as education, sport, culture and tourism. About India-UK Relations: Political: UK-India relationship is rooted in India’s colonial history with the British. The bilateral relationship was upgraded to a strategic partnership in 2004. The UK supports India’s proposal for permanent membership of the UNSC and is also an important interlocutor for India on global platforms. Economic and trade: Trade: UK is among India’s major trading partners and as per trade statistics of Ministry of Commerce and Industry, India’s trade with the UK in 2017-2018 was US $14.497 billion. Investment: UK is the 4th largest inward investor in India, after Mauritius, Singapore and Japan with a cumulative equity investment of US $26.09 billion (April 2000-June 2018), accounting for around 7% of all foreign direct investment into India. India continued to be the third largest investor in the UK and emerged as the second largest international job creator with Indian companies having created over 110,000 jobs in the UK. Defence: After Independence from the British Raj in 1947, India embarked on its own foreign and national defence policy that was characterized by the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM). After the end of the Cold War, the two countries entered into a strategic partnership in 2004. They have reaffirmed and strengthened Defence cooperation, with capacity building, technology development and transfers, joint military exercises (Ajeya Warrior-Army; Konkan-Naval; Indradhanush Force), intelligence sharing, etc. at its core. India considers the defence sector as one of the major areas where the bilateral partnership could be expanded around the ‘Make in India’ campaign. During Indian PM visit in 2015, the two sides agreed to move towards “a new Defence and International Security Partnership” that would intensify cooperation on defence and security, including cyber security, and maritime security pushing for joint working in key strategic areas. Education and Health: The UK-India Education and Research Initiative (UKIERI) was launched in 2005. A new ‘UKEIRI Mobility Programme: Study in India’ was also launched in 2019. Under this Britain’s universities collaborate with Indian partners and send UK students to India. The successful partnership between Oxford University, AstraZeneca and SII on COVID-19 vaccine demonstrated the potential of Indian and UK expertise working together to solve international challenges. The two sides are also working on pandemic preparedness, Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR), digital health, Ayurveda and alternative medicines, as well as health worker mobility. Cultural Linkages: Cultural linkages between India and UK are deep and extensive, arising out of shared history between the two countries. There has been a gradual mainstreaming of Indian culture and absorption of Indian cuisine, cinema, languages, religion, philosophy, performing arts, etc. 2017 was celebrated as the India-UK year of Culture to mark the 70th anniversary of Indian independence. Indian Diaspora: Around 1.5 million people of Indian origin live in Britain. Indian diaspora are making significant contributions to the British Society. This includes 15 Members of Parliament, three members in Cabinet, and two in high office as Finance and Home Ministers. Challenges: Bitter Past: The bitter legacies of the Partition, anti-colonial resentment and Britain’s prejudices and its perceived tilt to Pakistan have long complicated the engagement between India and the UK. Political Negativity: While there is no way of fully separating South Asian and British domestic politics, India’s problems have been accentuated by the British Labour Party’s growing political negativity towards India. WTO related issues: Interim FTA that do not convert into full FTAs can also face challenges from other countries at the World Trade Organisation(WTO) because the latter only permits for the preferential treatment between countries which have bilateral agreements between them. Domestic Politics: The large South Asian diaspora in the UK transmits the internal and intra-regional conflicts in the subcontinent into Britain’s domestic politics. Engagement with EU: The UK needs to sort out its own internal deliberations on the future of its trajectory with the EU. Steps taken to address the challenges: Immigration: “Frequent registered traveller scheme” for Indians travelling to Britain for business. Under the scheme, Indian nationals frequently visiting to the U.K. and contributing to growth in both countries will have a ‘significantly easier’ entry process including fewer forms to be filled, access to the EU-EEA passport controls, swifter passage through airports. Infrastructure: Both countries announced three UK-India city partnerships with Indore, Pune and Amaravati to support India’s ambitious urban development goals through technical assistance, expertise sharing and business engagement. River Cleaning: Both countries have launched a new Thames/Ganga partnership for healthy river systems. This partnership will consist of a collaborative programme of research and innovation to enable the sustainable management of water resources in the Ganga basin and a policy expert exchange in 2016 supported by the UK Water Partnership. Way Forward The profound ties of culture, history and language already give the UK a potentially strong foundation upon which to further deepen its relationship with India. With a whole new set of circumstances, India and Britain should recognise that they both need each other to achieve their larger goals. Source:                  The Hindu National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCF-SE) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently the final National Curriculum Framework policy (NCF) was unveiled by the Union Education Minister. About National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCF-SE): The National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCF-SE) is developed based on the vision of the NEP 2020, and to enable its implementation. The formulation of NCF-SE will be undertaken by the NCERT. The NCF will essentially overhaul school syllabi across the country, and was developed by a steering committee headed by former ISRO chairman K Kasturirangan. Key features of the policy: Language learning: The policy emphasizes the importance of learning multiple languages, especially native Indian languages. Students in Classes 9 and 10 will have to study three languages, out of which at least two should be Indian languages. In Classes 11 and 12, they will continue with two languages, one of which must be an Indian language. The goal is to enable students to achieve a “literary level” of proficiency in at least one Indian language. Board exams: The policy aims to reduce the stress and anxiety associated with board exams by allowing students to take them more than once a year. Students can choose the best score out of their multiple attempts. This will also give them more opportunities to improve their performance and showcase their abilities. Mandatory subjects: The policy has increased the number of compulsory subjects for Classes 9 and 10 to seven and for Classes 11 and 12 to six. This is intended to provide a broader and more balanced education to students. Optional subjects: The policy has categorized optional subjects into three groups: arts education (including visual and performing arts, physical education, and vocational education), social sciences and humanities, and science, mathematics, and computational thinking. Students can choose subjects from any of these groups according to their interests and aspirations. Flexible curriculum: The policy has made the curriculum more flexible and interdisciplinary by removing the rigid boundaries between academic and vocational subjects, as well as between different subject areas. Students can mix and match subjects from different groups and create their personalized learning paths. Environmental education: The curriculum for environmental education covers various topics related to the natural and human-made environment, such as ecosystems, biodiversity, climate change, pollution, conservation, and sustainable development. Students are encouraged to develop awareness, appreciation, and responsibility for the environment through experiential learning, projects, and field trips. Environmental education is integrated across all subjects in the Primary and Middle Stages and offered as a separate elective subject in the Secondary Stage. Content distribution: The Social Science curriculum for Classes 6 to 8 follows a multi-level approach that balances local, regional, national, and global perspectives. The content distribution is 20% local, 30% regional, 30% national, and 20% global. This helps students to understand the diversity and interdependence of different social groups, cultures, and regions, as well as the commonalities and challenges that they face. Alignment with 21st-century requirements: The NCF recognizes the need to prepare students for the changing demands and opportunities of the 21st century. Therefore, it aims to align the textbooks for Classes 3 to 12 with the skills and competencies that are essential for the future, such as critical thinking, creativity, communication, collaboration, digital literacy, and global citizenship. The textbooks also reflect the contemporary issues and concerns of society, such as gender equality, human rights, social justice, and environmental sustainability. Significance: The development of the NCF-SE was guided by a vision to align education with the demands of the 21st century and the ethos of the Indian knowledge system. The framework introduces multidisciplinary education, nurturing values, fostering creative pedagogies, and preparing students for practical problem-solving. It will help India in shaping a holistic, contemporary, and Indian-rooted educational landscape. Multilingualism, conceptual understanding in Mathematics, and capacities for scientific inquiry also receive renewed attention. Challenges in Indian education system:   India has achieved universal enrolment at the elementary level. This is a great achievement, but getting Students to School is only the beginning of human Capital formation. Poor quality of facilities, Shortage of qualified faculty. Out of date Curriculum, Limited university-industry Partnership. There are few rewards for being a good teacher and few punishments for being a Careless one. Need more effective and accountable governance Systems. The greed of Private Colleges to earn the maximum from every Student puts traumatic Pressure on Students which results in mental breakdown. More girls than boys drop out of School. While boys drop out to work, girls usually stay at home and help with domestic Work. Social Conception of gender roles is an important factor. Learning loss due to pandemics and the digital divide. Steps by the Government to reform Education Sector: The 86th Constitution Amendment provides the Fundamental right to free and compulsory education under Article 21A includes a Common education System where the “rich and Poor are educated under one roof”. Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan provides funding to eligible State higher educational institutions. Declaration of Educational Institutions as institutions of Eminence, to provide world-class education to Indian Students within the Country. Creation of Higher Education Financing Agency, for high-quality infrastructure in Premier educational institutions. GIAN Initiative to invite distinguished academicians, entrepreneurs, scientists, and experts from premier institutions across the world to teach in higher educational institutions in India. Way Forward: The NCF is a comprehensive document that outlines the vision and goals of education in India. It aims to transform the education system by enhancing linguistic skills, offering flexible options for subject selection, and providing a holistic education that prepares learners for the present and the future. Source:          The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Sports Award Purpose 1.Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award  To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams. 2.Dronacharya Award To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement. 3.Arjuna Award For the lifetime achievement of a sportsperson. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: India’s R. Praggnanandhaa won silver in the FIDE Chess World Cup 2023. Statement-II: It was held in Baku, Armenia. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Rajguru, Bhagat Singh, and Sukhdev were hanged on 14 February 1931. Statement-II Bhagat Singh and Rajguru threw bombs at the Central Legislative Assembly at Delhi. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I and Statement II are incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Discuss the importance of the National Curriculum Framework for Foundational Stage (NCF-FS) for education and children’s general well-being. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 25th  August 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 24th August – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c For a dedicated peer group, Motivation & Quick updates, Join our official telegram channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccount Subscribe to our YouTube Channel HERE to watch Explainer Videos, Strategy Sessions, Toppers Talks & many more…

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 25th August 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Yasuni National Park Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Ecuadorians voted against the oil drilling of the protected area in Yasuni National Park in the Amazon recently. About Yasuni National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: pbs.org Location: Ecuador, South America. Area: 9,820 square km (3,791 square miles). Water bodies: It is situated between the Napo and Curaray Rivers. Indigenous Communities: It is home to several indigenous communities like Tagaeri and Taromenani. 1989: Yasuni was designated a world biosphere reserve by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). (UNESCO World Heritage Forests) It is part of the Amazon rainforest. The park is considered one of the most biologically diverse areas on Earth. Biodiversity:- 610 species of birds, 139 species of amphibians, and 121 species of reptiles. At least three species are Endemic species: any species or other taxon whose geographic range or distribution is confined to a single given area. About Amazon Rainforests:- Location: South America. The Amazon is a vast biome that spans eight countries—Brazil, Bolivia, Peru, Ecuador, Colombia, Venezuela, Guyana, and Suriname—and French Guiana, an overseas territory of France. It is bounded by the Guiana Highlands to the north, the Andes Mountains to the west, the Brazilian Central Plateau to the south, and the Atlantic Ocean to the east. These are the world’s largest tropical rainforests. (Deforestation in Amazon Basin) As of 2021, the Amazon had 74% of its area covered by tropical rainforests and 9% of other natural vegetation types. They are home to nearly a fifth of the world’s land species and over 45 million people. The rainforest of the Amazon is home to 400–500 indigenous Amerindian tribes. Biodiversity:- It is the world’s richest and most-varied biological reservoir. Flora: a wide variety of trees, including many species of myrtle, laurel, palm, and acacia, as well as rosewood, Brazil nut, and rubber tree. Fauna: jaguar, manatee, tapir, red deer, capybara, and many other types of rodents, and several types of monkeys.  MUST READ: Amazon forests are no longer acting as a carbon sink SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of: (2015) ASEAN BRICS OECD WTO Maharaja Bir Bikram Manikya Bahadur Syllabus Prelims –History Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid homage to Maharaja Bir Bikram Manikya Bahadur on his 115th birth anniversary. About Maharaja Bir Bikram Manikya Bahadur:- Birth: August 19, 1908. Death: 17 May 1947. Dynasty: Maniyaka He was the last King of Tripura. He was a prominent royal figure who played a pivotal role in the modernization and development of the princely state of Tripura. His reign marked a transformative period in Tripura’s history, characterized by progressive reforms and visionary initiatives. Education:- He is popularly known as the Architect of Tripura due to his contribution to educational institutions. He established the Maharaja Bir Bikram College (MBB College) in Agartala, Tripura. Infrastructure:- Under his leadership, significant infrastructure projects were undertaken. Road networks, bridges, and public buildings were constructed to enhance connectivity and elevate living standards across the state. He built Tripura’s first airport at Agartala. He also set up one of the country’s first municipalities. Land Reforms:- He initiated land reforms, reserving vast tracks of land for Tripura’s tribal Healthcare:- He established hospitals and medical facilities, ensuring accessible and quality medical services for the people of Tripura. Administrative Efficiency He introduced administrative reforms to enhance governance and efficiency. His administration focused on inclusive policies that aimed at the welfare and upliftment of the people. Cultural Preservation:- He supported local arts, crafts, and traditions, ensuring that the state’s identity remained intact. ( Tripura government planning to promote Risa as the signature textile) MUST READ: Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal, designated as the Governor General of India? (2023) The Regulating Act The Pitt’s India Act The Charter Act of 1793 The Charter Act of 1833 Q.2) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Global Maritime India Summit 2023(GIMS 2023) Syllabus Prelims – Government Initiatives Context: Recently, a roadshow was organized in Visakhapatnam as a run-up to the Global Maritime India Summit 2023(GIMS 2023). Background:- Visakhapatnam Port Authority (VPA) organized a roadshow in Visakhapatnam as part of a series of nationwide roadshows under the guidance and direction of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways. It was organized to invite and attract clients and various stakeholders to actively participate in the three-day Global Maritime India Summit 2023 (GMIS) starting on October 17 in Delhi. About Global Maritime India Summit 2023 (GIMS 2023):- Ministry: Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. Event duration: 17th October-19th October 2023. Venue: Pragati Maidan, New Delhi. Organizers: Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Indian Port Association, and Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) IPA: constituted in 1966 under the Societies Registration Act, primarily with the idea of fostering the growth and development of all Major Ports. FICCI: is the largest and oldest apex business organization in India. It is an annual meeting of the Indian and international maritime community. Objective: to serve as a platform to showcase global best practices, foster investment partnerships, and chart a new and bright course for our collective future It is a flagship event aimed at propelling the Indian maritime economy by promoting global and regional partnerships and facilitating investments. It addresses key industry issues and exchanges ideas to bring the sector forward. The Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI) is the exclusive industry partner. It brings together global maritime players, policymakers and regulators, key opinion leaders, and industry leaders through a series of engaging dialogues, forums, and knowledge exchange platforms. The event includes:- Investor summit and International exhibition: to facilitate interaction and collaboration among the Indian and international maritime companies, policymakers, investors, and other stakeholders. Global CEOs’ Forum: to encourage dialogue and cooperation among key industry leaders. Maritime Excellence Achievers’ ceremony: to recognize partners that have made outstanding contributions to India’s development as a leading maritime center.  MUST READ: ( GREEN MARITIME SECTOR) SOURCE:  THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Likaru-Mig La-Fukche road Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: The construction of the world’s new highest motorable Likaru-Mig La-Fukche road began in Ladakh recently. Background:- The Border Roads Organization (BRO) is working on constructing the ‘Likaru-Mig La-Fukche’ road in Ladakh, which will be the new highest motorable road in the world. About Likaru-Mig La-Fukche road:- IMAGE SOURCE: The Times of India Location: Ladakh, India. (Operation Sadbhavana) It lies close to Hanle in Eastern Ladakh. Length:64-km. Altitude: about 19,400 feet. It is the highest motorable road in the world. It will surpass the Umling La Pass. Umling La Pass: located at an altitude of 19,300ft, is the highest motorable road in the world currently. It will connect Likaru to Fukche, situated 3 km from the Line of Actual Control (LAC). LAC: the demarcation that separates Indian-controlled territory from Chinese-controlled territory. ( India-China LAC standoff) Significance:- It would also provide an alternate land connectivity route to the Fukche advanced landing pad. It is the first project in India to be carried out entirely by an All Woman Road Construction Company. It is led by a five-member All Woman Border Road Task Force. With this project, the BRO will break its own record of the highest motorable road. MUST READ: India’s first-ever night sky sanctuary in Ladakh SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following? (2022) Brakes of motor vehicles Engines of motor vehicles Microwave stoves within homes Power plants Telephone lines Select the correct answer using the code given below 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) R2 Code of Practices” constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2022) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources National Conference on e-Governance Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the 26th National Conference on e-Governance was organized About the National Conference on e-Governance:- Venue: Indore, Madhya Pradesh. Organized by: the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology in collaboration with the Government of Madhya Pradesh. Historical Background: The Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances (DARPG), Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions, Government of India, and Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), have been jointly organizing it in partnership with one State Government since 1997. Theme: Developed India: Empowering Citizens. (Governance 4.0) Participants: Representatives from 28 states, nine union territories as well and industries will participate in the conclave. The conference will focus on 11 subjects including district-level initiatives, emerging technologies for providing citizen-centric facilities, and data governance. National e-Governance Awards 2023 in 5 categories will also be presented during the conference. National Awards for e-Governance:- They are presented every year for exemplary implementation of e-governance initiatives. (Global Digital Governance) Purpose of Award Recognize achievements in the area of e-Governance. Disseminate knowledge on effective methods of designing and implementing sustainable e-Governance initiatives. Encourage incremental innovations in successful e-Governance solutions. Promote and exchange experiences in solving problems, mitigating risks, resolving issues, and planning. NAeG 2022-23 This year, the categories under the Award Scheme of the National Awards for e-Governance 2022-23 have been revised. The 5 award categories are : Government Process Reengineering for Digital Transformation Application of Emerging Technologies for providing Citizen Centric Service District-level initiative in e-Governance Research on Citizen Centric Services by Academic/Research Institutions Application of Emerging Technologies in Governance by Startups MUST READ: E-RUPI & Governance SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Regarding DigiLocker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under the Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Sloth bear Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: A Sloth bear was captured and relocated near Udhagamandalam, Tamil Nadu. About Sloth Bear:- Scientific Name: Melursus ursinus. Distribution: India, Sri Lanka, and southern Nepal. Population: 90% of the global Sloth Bear population is found in India. Habitat: dry and moist forests and in some tall grasslands, where boulders, scattered shrubs, and trees provide shelter. Size: 5 to 6 feet (1.5 to 2 meters). Weight: 90 to 140 kilograms. Food: They primarily eat termites and ants. They have poor senses of sight and hearing. They have a good sense of smell. Sloth bears’ nostrils can close completely, protecting the animals from dust or insects when raiding termite nests or beehives. Threats:- Habitat loss. Poaching for body parts. Human action: are sometimes captured for use in performances or hunted because of their aggressive behavior and destruction of crops. Protection Status:- IUCN Red List: Vulnerable CITES listing: Appendix I Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I MUST READ: Nandankanan Zoological Park: Odisha SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (2023) Fishing cat Orangutan Otter Sloth bear Q.2) With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements is correct? (2020) It is spread over two districts. There is no human habitation inside the Park. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: India's Hunger Challenge Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: India has lifted 135 million people out of poverty; however, malnutrition remains an onerous challenge. About Hunger: The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) defines hunger as the habitual (or chronic) consumption of too few calories to provide the minimum dietary energy an individual requires to live a healthy and productive life. It is an uncomfortable or painful physical sensation caused by insufficient consumption of dietary energy. It is one of the significant manifestations of poverty. India’s achievements till date with regard to hunger and poverty: According to the Multi-dimensional Poverty Index (MDPI) prepared by the NITI Aayog, from 2015-16 to 2019-21, India lifted 135 million people out of poverty. When India got freedom in 1947 more than 80 percent of people were in extreme poverty, which today hovers around 15 per cent as per MDPI and about 11 per cent based on income criterion ($2.15 PPP). The UNDP has estimated that India lifted 415 million people out of poverty (MDPI) over the period 2005-06 to 2019-21. India seems to be on track to almost abolish poverty in the next five to 10 years. On hunger, at least in terms of food availability, India has done well. Challenges of Hunger: Poverty: Poverty restricts food choices and has been the causative factor of hunger related deaths. The persistent high prices of food items and the regional disparities in terms of development affects the people to afford balanced nutrition. Associated factors: Hunger and the related malnutrition are the result of various associated factors ranging from water, sanitation, access to food items. A person’s ‘nutritional quotient’ is also dependent on demographic factors like gender, caste, age, etc. For instance, the nutritional needs of girl child and elderly are not adequately addressed in our society. Climate Change: Erratic rainfall and increasing frequency of extreme events have impacted agricultural activities everywhere creating unfavourable conditions for food production. Climate variability affecting rainfall patterns and agricultural seasons, and climate extremes such as droughts and floods, are among the key drivers behind the rise in hunger, together with conflict and economic slowdowns. Lack of Effective Implementation of Policies: Another important reason behind the persistent hunger is the poor implementation of the schemes and policies. The Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and the National Health Mission (NHM) have not achieved adequate coverage. Non-communicable diseases: The rising burden of cardiovascular and other non-communicable diseases in India, particularly among the rapidly growing “middle class”, is strongly linked to diet and nutrition. Consequences of the prevalence of hunger in India: Malnutrition: Hunger leads to inadequate intake of essential nutrients, which can cause malnutrition, stunting, and wasting among children and adults. Malnutrition can lead to impaired physical and cognitive development, weakened immune system, and higher risk of diseases. Health problems: Hunger can lead to several health problems such as anaemia, low birth weight, micronutrient deficiencies, and other diet-related diseases like diabetes and cardiovascular diseases. Poverty: Hunger can lead to poverty, as people may not be able to work and earn an income due to a lack of food and energy. Hunger also increases health care costs and reduces productivity, which can perpetuate poverty and inequality. Education: Hunger also affects education, as children who suffer from hunger are more likely to miss school, have poor concentration, and drop out of school. Social unrest: Hunger can lead to social unrest and conflict, as people may resort to violence to obtain food or other basic needs. Govt. Initiatives to tackle hunger in India: Eat Right India Movement: An outreach activity organized by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) for citizens to nudge them towards eating right. POSHAN Abhiyan: Launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development in 2018, it targets to reduce stunting, undernutrition, anaemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls). Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana: A centrally sponsored scheme executed by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, is a maternity benefit programme being implemented in all districts of the country with effect from 1st January, 2017. Food Fortification: Food Fortification or Food Enrichment is the addition of key vitamins and minerals such as iron, iodine, zinc, and Vitamin A & D to staple foods such as rice, milk and salt to improve their nutritional content. National Food Security Act, 2013: It legally entitled up to 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population to receive subsidized food grains under the Targeted Public Distribution System. Mission Indradhanush: It targets children under 2 years of age and pregnant women for immunization against 12 Vaccine-Preventable Diseases (VPD). Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme: Launched in 1975, the ICDS Scheme offers a package of six services to children in the age group of 0-6 years and pregnant and lactating mothers. Source:  Indian Express Indian Institute of Management (IIM) Amendment Bill 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Lok Sabha has recently passed the Indian Institutes of Management (Amendment) Bill, 2023. About IIMs: Indian Institutes of Management (IIM) are the country’s premier institutions imparting the best quality education in management on globally benchmarked processes of education and training in management. IIMs are recognized as world-class management Institutions and Centers of Excellence and have brought laurels to the country. All IIMs are separate autonomous bodies registered under the Societies Act. Being societies, IIMs are not authorized to award degrees and, hence, they have been awarding Post Graduate Diploma and Fellow Programme in Management. IIM-Calcutta was the first Indian Institute of Management, established in 1961. Currently, there are 20 IIMs in the country. The Indian Institute of Management Act, 2017 provides for the creation of an academic council for each IIM. This academic council is the principal academic body under the Act as it decides the: academic content; criteria and processes for admissions to course; and guidelines for conduct of examinations. Key provisions of IIM (Amendment) Bill, 2023: President of India as a Visitor: It designates the President of India as a Visitor of every Institute covered by the Act. Appointments: As per the IIM Act, 2017, the chairperson of the board of governors and the institute’s director are to be appointed by the board of governors. The board of governors includes the chairperson, director, government nominees, eminent persons, and faculty. The recent amendment altered the selection process to include the involvement of the Visitor (President of India) such that the Visitor nominates the chairperson, and the selection committee for director will consist of one member (out of three) nominated by the Visitor. Constitution of Search Committee: At present, the Search Committee comprises the Chairperson of the Board, and three members from amongst eminent administrators, industrialists and educationists. The Bill reduces these three members to two and adds another member to be nominated by the Visitor. Termination of Director: The Board will require prior approval of the Visitor before removing a Director. It also grants the Visitor the authority to terminate the services of the Director, as may be prescribed. The Bill also states the Chairperson of the Board will be nominated by the Visitor. Inquiries against IIMs: The Bill proposes a new procedure for inquiries against IIMs. It confers the power of inquiry upon the Visitor. The Visitor may appoint persons to review the work of any Institute and hold inquiries into its affairs. Based on the report of such inquiries, the Visitor may issue directions which will be binding on the Institute. Conditions for dissolving Board: The Bill provides that the central government may prescribe the conditions and procedure for dissolving or suspending an Institute’s Board. If a Board is suspended or dissolved, the central government will constitute an interim board for six months or until a new Board is constituted. Coordination Forum: At present, the Act provides for a Coordination Forum for all the Institutes, the Chairperson of which is selected by a Search-cum Selection Committee. Under the provisions of the Bill, the Chairperson will be nominated by the Visitor. Need for the Amendment: The Indian Institutes of Management Act of 2017, hugely expanded the autonomy enjoyed by the IIMs, and contains an important clause. It requires the Board of Governors (BoG) of the IIMs to commission an independent review of the institutes at least once every three years and place the report in the public domain. However, very few of the 21 IIMs have done so. A dangerous governance vacuum has been created in the IIM system in the years since the government relinquished control over these institutes. The IIM Act 0f 2017 created a situation where there were no meaningful checks and balances on the director of IIMs. Criticism: The Bill has raised serious concerns among the academic community and the alumni of the IIMs, who fear that it will compromise the autonomy and academic freedom of the IIMs, and make them vulnerable to political interference and bureaucratic meddling. They argue that the Bill goes against the spirit and intent of the 2017 Act, which was meant to empower the IIMs to manage their affairs without any external influence or pressure. They also contend that the Bill will adversely affect the quality and reputation of the IIMs, and hamper their ability to attract and retain talented faculty and students. Way Forward: The Indian Institutes of Management play a vital role in shaping the nation’s future leaders and contributing to economic growth. The 2023 IIM Amendment Bill represents a significant step by the government to address concerns of governance and accountability in the IIM system. By introducing the position of a Visitor and empowering them with oversight authority, the government seeks to strike a balance between autonomy and accountability. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: National Parks in news Country 1.Yasuni National Park Brazil 2.Yellowstone National Park Ecuador 3.Kuno National Park Madhya Pradesh How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Sloth bear are Endangered as per the IUCN Red List. Statement-II: They are found in India, Sri Lanka, and southern Nepal. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Maharaja Bir Bikram Manikya Bahadur established the Maharaja Bir Bikram College (MBB College) in Agartala, Tripura. Statement-II: He believed in the modernization and development of the state and did not support local arts, crafts, and traditions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) There is a growing divergence in the relationship between poverty and hunger in India. The shrinking of social expenditure by the government is forcing the poor to spend more on Non- Food essential items squeezing their food – budget. – Elucidate. (250 words) Q.2) Analyze the role and powers of the proposed Visitor in the 2023 IIM Amendment Bill and its potential impact on the functioning of IIMs. Compare the balance between autonomy and accountability in the IIMs and other state-controlled educational bodies like IITs. (250 Words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 23rd  August 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 17th August – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th August 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

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[UPSC MAINS 2023] FREE TLP MAINS OPEN MOCKS (GS and ESSAY)

With Mains just days away, we know how each one of you must be feeling anxious. A mixed bag of emotions And we totally understand. We also know how important it is, at this point, for you to really ascertain your position so that you can identify areas that need more attention. To help you solve these doubts in your mind and provide you with the winning guidance, IASbaba has decided to conduct.. FREE OPEN TLP FULL MOCK TEST for GENERAL STUDIES and ESSAY WHY SHOULD YOU ATTEND THIS FULL MOCK TEST BY IASBABA? Here you will not just appear for the examination to test your knowledge, but to understand if your approach has been preparing you for the next cutoff or not. Your speed, your decision-making skills, your weak areas, and your strong ones all will get evaluated.  And deep down inside, you know that you want this reality check.   IASbaba will: Test you with UPSC-level questions that will really make you thinkImmersion into those moments of high pressure in a simulated environment - relax your body and mind through it. We will be conducting an Open Mock for all GS Papers (Including Essay) Note:  Synopsis shall be provided. This test is being conducted so that you practice writing the exam in a simulated environment. We are trying to replicate the UPSC Environment, where in you write for 6 Hours everyday. This will be very helpful for you in a way that you won’t feel anxious or nervous during the UPSC Mains 2023 Exam. Note: TLP Open Mocks is only for the ones who are appearing for UPSC Mains 2023 DETAILS OF THE OPEN MOCK General Studies & Essay Slot 1st (Fri), 2nd (Sat), 3rd (Sun) September Register Here (Only for Mains 2023) ARE YOU READY TO CRACK UPSC-MAINS 2023? We know that you are and we wish you all the very best! Team IASbaba 

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Hurricane Hilary Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, Hurricane Hilary caused extensive damage in the United States. Background:- Hilary is the first tropical storm to hit Southern California in 84 years. About Hurricane Hilary:- IMAGE SOURCE: dailybreeze.com Location: near the west coast of Baja California. Baja California: The long Mexican peninsula bound by the Gulf of California in the east and the North Pacific Ocean in the west. Origin and Trajectory:- It originated as a Tropical Storm off the shores of Mainland Mexico. This weather phenomenon rapidly transformed into a Category 2 hurricane and then into a Category 3 storm Soon, it was officially designated as a Category 4 hurricane, nearly a day before its projected timeline. This rapid intensification is anticipated to continue, leaving open the possibility of a Category 5 upgrade before eventual weakening. ( Cyclones forecast) Categories of Hurricanes:- Hurricanes are categorized on the Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale based on their maximum sustained wind speeds. The scale ranges from Category 1 (weakest) to Category 5 (strongest). Each category represents a higher wind speed and potential for damage. Possible Factors behind its intensification:- Scientists expected climate change to not only spike the occurrence of such hurricanes but also make them more intense due to the following implications:- Rise of the surface temperatures of the oceans: global mean sea surface temperature has gone up by close to 0.9 degree Celsius since 1850 and around 0.6 degrees Celsius over the last four decades. Higher sea surface temperatures: it causes marine heat waves, an extreme weather event, which can also make storms like hurricanes and tropical cyclones more intense. Marine heatwaves: they are extended periods of anomalously warm sea surface temperatures in the ocean. El Nino: The situation has been worsened by El Nino, developing for the first time in seven years. This has weakened the vertical wind shear in the eastern Pacific, allowing more hurricanes in the region. El Nino: a weather pattern that refers to an abnormal warming of surface waters in the equatorial Pacific Ocean. Risk or Threat:- Unlike hurricane-prone states on the Gulf of Mexico, California and Mexico’s west coast lack experience in dealing with such events. (Bomb Cyclone) Its expected landfall in the Baja peninsula of Mexico poses risks of landslides, flooding, and extensive damage due to the region’s geographical features and population density. About Hurricane:- Hurricanes are tropical storms that form in the Atlantic Ocean. Wind speeds: at least 119 kilometers (74 miles) per hour. Hurricanes derive their energy from the heat released when moist air rises and condenses into clouds and rain. Key characteristics of hurricanes:- Hurricanes form over warm ocean waters when the sea surface temperature is typically above 26 degrees Celsius (79 degrees Fahrenheit). Low-Pressure Centre: Hurricanes have a well-defined centre of low atmospheric pressure, known as the Strong Winds: winds can reach sustained speeds of at least 74 miles per hour (119 kilometers per hour) or higher. Heavy Rainfall. MUST READ: Hurricane Ida SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (Bharat NCAP) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Union Minister of Road Transport and Highways Shri Nitin Gadkari launched the Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (Bharat NCAP) recently. About Bharat New Car Assessment Programme (Bharat NCAP):- Launched:2023. Implementation: October 1, 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Objectives: to enhance road safety by elevating vehicle safety standards for up to 3.5-tonne vehicles in India. It is a safety assessment program for passenger vehicles weighing less than 3.5 tonnes and capable of seating up to eight people. Salient Features of Bharat NCAP:- It proposes a mechanism of awarding ‘Star Ratings’ to automobiles based on their performance in crash tests. The voluntary Bharat NCAP would assign vehicles between one and five stars on parameters such as Adult Occupant Protection (AOP), Child Occupant Protection (COP), and Safety Assist Technologies (SAT). This will help assess to what extent a car may suffer damage in the event of an Potential car buyers can refer to these star ratings to decide which car to buy by comparing the safety standards. Bharat NCAP standard is aligned with global benchmarks and it is beyond minimum regulatory requirements. The testing of vehicles for this programme will be carried out at testing agencies, with the necessary infrastructure. Benefits of NCAP: Develop a safety-sensitive car market in India. Consumer Awareness. Enhanced Safety and Export Potential. Making the Indian automobile industry self-reliant. (Atmanirbhar Bharat 3.0) MUST READ: Electric Vehicles SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following actions: (2023) Detection of car crash/ collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode. In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None Q.2)  Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022) Cloud Services Quantum Computing Visible Light Communication Technologies Wireless Communication Technologies Agnibaan SOrTeD (SubOrbital Technological Demonstrator) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: A Chennai-based start-up AgniKul Cosmos, has commenced the process of integrating its cutting-edge Agnibaan SOrTeD rocket at its private Launchpad in Sriharikota. Background:- The integration process was initiated on Independence Day on August 15, 2023. A successful launch would make AgniKul the second Indian space tech start-up to send its launch vehicle into space after Skyroot Aerospace. AgniKul: Established in 2017, by aerospace engineers Srinath Ravichandran and Moin SPM, along with IIT-Madras faculty member Prof. Sathyanarayan R Chakravarthy. About Agnibaan SOrTeD (SubOrbital Technological Demonstrator):- Type: single-stage launch vehicle. Powered by: AgniKul’s patented Agnilet engine. Agnilet engine: It is the world’s sole single-piece 3D-printed engine. It is a single-piece, 6 kilonewton (kN) semi-cryogenic engine. Initial trial: early 2021. Verified at the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) in Thiruvananthapuram. 3D printing: uses materials such as plastics and metals to convert products envisaged on computer-aided design to real three-dimensional items. Payloads: up to 100 kg. Altitude: 700 km It can carry payloads in five different configurations. (LVM3-M2 rocket) Stages: It is a customizable launch vehicle that could be launched in one or two stages. Unique feature: unlike traditional sounding rockets that launch from guide rails, it will lift off vertically and follow a predetermined trajectory to perform a precisely orchestrated set of maneuvers during flight. The rocket’s first stage could have up to seven Agnilet engines, depending on the mission, which are powered by Liquid Oxygen and Kerosene. The rocket is also designed for launch from more than 10 different launch ports. To ensure its compatibility with multiple launch ports, AgniKul has built a launch pedestal named ‘Dhanush’. It will support the rocket’s mobility across all its configurations. (Falcon Heavy Rocket)  MUST READ: India’s first private rocket – Vikram-S SOURCE: BUSINESS TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its India's foreign exchange reserves Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: As per recent data by the Reserve Bank of India, India’s foreign exchange reserves snapped a three-week losing streak. Background:- India’s foreign exchange reserves also increased by $708 million to $602 billion in the week ended August 11. The rise in the reserves was mainly on account of an increase in foreign currency assets, which grew by $999 million to $534 billion in the previous week. About foreign exchange reserves:- IMAGE SOURCE: BUISINESS STANDARD Foreign exchange reserves are assets held on reserve by a central bank. It includes foreign currencies, gold, Special Drawing Rights (SDR) and Reserve tranche of IMF. These assets are held to ensure that the central bank has backup funds if the national currency rapidly devalues or becomes altogether insolvent. Objectives of Holding Forex Reserves:- Supporting and maintaining confidence in the policies for monetary and exchange rate Provides the capacity to intervene in support of the national or union currency. Limits external vulnerability by maintaining foreign currency liquidity to absorb shocks during times of crisis or when access to borrowing is curtailed. India’s Forex Reserve:- India’s FOREX is governed by RBI under the RBI Act, of 1934. It includes:- Foreign Currency Assets(FCA) Assets that are valued based on a currency other than the country’s own currency. It is the largest component of the forex reserve. It is expressed in dollar terms. Gold reserves: Special Drawing Rights Created in 1969. Created by: IMF. Objective: to supplement its member countries’ official reserves. It is an international reserve asset. It is neither a currency nor a claim on the IMF. The value of the SDR is calculated from a weighted basket of major currencies, including the S. Dollar, the Euro, the Japanese Yen, the Chinese Yuan, and the British Pound. Reserve position with the International Monetary Fund (IMF) It implies a portion of the required quota of currency each member country must provide to the International Monetary Fund (IMF) that can be utilized for its own purposes. It is basically an emergency account that IMF members can access at any time without agreeing to conditions or paying a service fee. MUST READ: Foreign Exchange Management Act SOURCE: BUISINESS STANDARD  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India? (2022) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) Syllabus Prelims – Social Issues Context: The Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) will soon announce the results of the research award proposals it had invited to study the impact of various schemes and public policy initiatives of the Union government. Background:- The Indian Council of Social Science Research had recently given a special call for short-term research proposals to assess the reach and socioeconomic impact of 31 government schemes, including Ujjwala Yojana, Awas Yojana, Ayushman Bharat, New Education Policy, Mudra Yojana and Start-up India among others. Objective: to independently assess the impact of various government schemes Funding: Each selected project will be funded up to ₹6 lakh. For collaborative projects, the funding is fixed at up to ₹30 lakh. Eligibility: Research scholars from recognized institutions, civil servants, officers from defense services, and other professionals with social science perspectives having not less than 20 years of regular service will be eligible to apply.  About the Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR):- Established: 1969. HQ: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Education. Objective: to promote research in social sciences in the country. Functions of ICSSR:- It promotes research in social sciences in India. It provides grants for projects, fellowships, international collaboration, capacity building, surveys, publications, etc. It provides library and information support services to researchers in social sciences. It has developed ICSSR Data Service to serve as a national data service for promoting a powerful research environment.  MUST READ: Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the funds under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements is correct? (2020) MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on a yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, and 3 only 1, 2, and 4 only Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the United States of America’s Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved the first respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) vaccine for use in women during pregnancy to protect the baby. Background:- This vaccine has been developed by The approval allows the vaccine to be given to women 32 to 36 weeks into pregnancy for the prevention of lower respiratory tract infection and severe disease in infants until they are six months old. About Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV):- It is a common respiratory virus. It is highly contagious in naturee., it has a high potential to infect people. It commonly infects children, especially those under 2 to 6 years of age. In most of the cases it has symptoms like the common cold. It can also cause more severe infections, especially in people at high risk. These infections include bronchiolitis, and pneumonia, an infection of the lungs. Bronchiolitis: an inflammation of the small airways in the lung. Pneumonia: an infection of the lungs. Transmission:- It spreads from person to person through:- By coughing and sneezing. Direct contact. Touching an object or surface with the virus on it and then touching your mouth, nose, or eyes. Duration:- People who have an RSV infection are usually contagious for 3 to 8 days. But sometimes infants and people with weakened immune systems can continue to spread the virus for as long as 4 weeks. Symptoms:- Runny nose Decrease in appetite Cough Sneezing Fever(Dengue and DNA vaccines) Wheezing The symptoms of RSV infection usually start about 4 to 6 days after infection. Treatment:- There is no reliable cure available for RSV infection. The recent vaccine developed by Pfizer can be used in women during pregnancy to protect the baby. (iNCOVACC)  MUST READ: Vaccine Development for COVID-19 SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens. Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: The Role of Emotional Intelligence in Effective Leadership Syllabus Mains – GS 4 (Ethics) Context: Emotional intelligence, or the ability to understand and manage one’s emotions and those of others, is crucial for effective leadership in this technology driven modern era especially for the good governance. About Emotional Intelligence (EI): Emotional Intelligence (EI) refers to the capability of a person to recognize, understand and manage own emotions, as well as to understand, manage and influence emotions of others. It is not always virtuous and can be used as a tool for positive and negative ends. Elements of EI (as given by Daniel Goleman) Self-Awareness: It is the skill of being aware of and understanding one’s emotions as they occur and as they evolve. Self-Regulation: It is about controlling one’s emotions i.e. instead of reacting quickly; one can reign in one’s emotions and thus will think before responding. Internal Motivation: It includes one’s personal drive to improve and achieve commitment to one’s goals, initiative, or readiness to act on opportunities, and optimism and resilience. Empathy: It is an awareness of the needs and feelings of others both individually and in groups, and being able to see things from the point of view of others. Social Skills: It is applying empathy and balancing the wants and requirements of others with one’s. It includes building good rapport with others. Development of EI among civil servants: Training: through practice and feedback, civil servants can learn from their mistakes using real life examples and reflection opportunities. Experiential learning: Emotional and behavioral changes require life activities, which are primarily outside of the traditional classroom, and is commonly referred to as experiential learning. Learning transfer: it refers to how people use what they learn in training for performance improvement. Learning transfer seeks to reinforce and apply the information learned on the job immediately. Support: Coaching, encouragement and peer support can assist with lasting change and positive development of EI competencies. Significance of Emotional Intelligence in Civil/Public Services: Better decision making: Biological evidence suggests that decision-making is neurologically impossible without being informed by emotions. Therefore, EI furthers neutrality and impartiality when there is conflict of interest. Better Communication: Emotionally intelligent people listen to other people and know how to communicate effectively (Goleman 1997). Hence, an emotionally intelligent Civil Servant manages to execute policies effectively through better communication with public at large. Empathy and integrity takes precedence over personal biases when one is emotionally sorted out. Management of disruptive emotions– A civil servant while working in high-pressure environment often becomes subject to political pressure, life threats etc. Only a public servant who is Emotionally Intelligent would be able to handle such pressures without succumbing to anger, depression or compromise. Better execution of Policies– According to a research working with colleagues who are not self-aware can cut a team’s success in half and, lead to increased stress and decreased motivation. Fosters Leadership– Self-awareness is at the core of everything. It describes the ability to not only understand one’s strengths and weaknesses, but to recognize emotions and the effect they have on herself (public servant) and her team’s performance. More efficient administration: Because Emotional intelligence helps to – Respond to situations very flexibly. Take advantage of the right time and right place. Make sense of ambiguous or contradictory messages. Build Trust with people: Emotionally intelligent people listen to other people’s emotions and can empathize with them. Emotionally intelligent people act ethically and build trust through integrity and reliability. Better Governance: All public service is people service. Relationships are at the heart of governance. To the extent that public administration mirrors the hearts and minds of people, it is governance. EI helps in building relationships with people and ensures better implementation of public schemes. Negative side of EI: Emotions are complex, and they cannot always be managed or controlled. Emotional intelligence does not guarantee that one’s emotions will always work in their favour. Example: Hitler speeches to play with Germans emotions Emotional intelligence is not a substitute for critical thinking or problem-solving skills, and it cannot guarantee success in all situations. Left wing extremism and Terror organisations manipulating innocent youth emotions and led them to fight against state. Way Forward: Thus, the leaders/bureaucrats who possess high levels of emotional intelligence are able to coach teams, control stress, give criticism, and work effectively with others. To improve emotional intelligence, leaders can practice self-reflection and regulate their emotions, remain motivated, show empathy, and develop social skills such as conflict resolution and effective communication. Source:    Economic Times Marine Heat Waves Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Geography) and GS 3 (Environment) Context: Extreme heat has plagued the Mediterranean for weeks ending with wildfires across nine countries in the region from Algeria to Greece. This increasing heat has affected the marine life as well. About Mediterranean Sea: The Mediterranean Sea is a sea connected to the Atlantic Ocean and almost completely enclosed by land: on the north by Western and Southern Europe and Anatolia, on the south by North Africa, and On the east by the Levant. The Mediterranean Sea covers an area of 0.7% of the global ocean surface, but its connection to the Atlantic via the Strait of Gibraltar—the narrow strait that connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea and separates the Iberian Peninsula in Europe from Morocco in Africa—is only 14 km (9 mi) wide. The Mediterranean Sea encompasses a vast number of islands, some of them being of volcanic origin. The two by far largest islands are Sicily and Sardinia. In the extreme northeast, it is connected to the Black Sea via the Dardanelles Strait, the Sea of Marmara, and the Bosporus Strait. The Mediterranean Sea is also connected to the Red Sea via the Suez Canal in the southeast. 22 countries and one territory (Gibraltar – a British Overseas Territory) have coasts on the Mediterranean Sea. The Mediterranean Sea offers a staggering 46,000 km (28,600 mi) long coastline and includes 15 marginal seas, such as the Balearic Sea, the Adriatic Sea, the Levantine Sea and the Ionian Sea. About Marine heat waves (MHW): A marine heatwave is defined as when seawater temperatures exceed a seasonally varying threshold (usually the 90th percentile) for at least five consecutive days. Successive heatwaves with gaps of 2 days or less are considered part of the same event. Due to increased greenhouse gas emissions, extended periods of extreme warming in seas and oceans have increased in frequency by 50% in the past 10 years and are becoming more severe. According to a recent forecast by an organisation Mercator Ocean International, at present, MHWs have gripped: the north-east Pacific, the southern hemisphere in the southern Indian Ocean and the Pacific, the north-east Atlantic, tropical North Atlantic, and the Mediterranean. Reasons for Marine Heat Waves: The main cause of marine heat waves is the increase in ocean temperature due to the absorption of greenhouse gasses from the atmosphere, which leads to global warming. Natural climate variability can also contribute to marine heat waves, including changes in ocean currents, weather patterns, and atmospheric circulation. El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) and the Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) can contribute to the occurrence of marine heat waves. The other common drivers of marine heatwaves include ocean currents, which can build up areas of warm water and air-sea heat flux, or warming through the ocean surface from the atmosphere. Winds can enhance or suppress the warming in a marine heatwave, and climate models like El Niño can change the likelihood of events occurring in certain regions. Impacts of Marine Heatwaves: Coral bleaching: Marine heatwaves can lead to coral bleaching, which is the loss of photosynthetic algae, called zooxanthellae, from the coral. This can ultimately lead to the death of coral. Ocean acidification: Marine heatwaves can exacerbate ocean acidification, which is the increase in acidity of seawater due to the absorption of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. This can have negative impacts on marine organisms that build shells or skeletons out of calcium carbonate, such as corals and some types of plankton. Harmful algal blooms: Marine heatwaves can cause harmful algal blooms, which can produce toxins that are harmful to humans and marine life. Ocean circulation: Marine heatwaves can also affect ocean circulation by altering the temperature and density of ocean water, which can have implications for ocean currents and the transport of nutrients and heat around the globe. Marine biodiversity: Marine heatwaves can affect the composition and abundance of marine species, leading to changes in marine biodiversity. Benefits to some species: Jellyfish bloom: Jellyfish are thriving because of higher temperatures, as well as nutrient run-off from farms and sewage. Overfishing and loss of fish habitat mean the jellyfish have few or no predators. When currents push the animals together, the Mediterranean turns into a crowded jellyfish hotspot. Invasive species: The sea also hosts around 1,000 invasive species — the highest number in the world. While this is not directly linked to climate change or rising temperatures such conditions clearly favour species introduced from warmer seas. For instance, invasive Rabbitfish native to the Indo-Pacific and Rea Sea feed on seaweed and have reshaped the habitat of the eastern Mediterranean. Underwater deserts have replaced dense seaweed forests. Way Forward: Suggestive measures Mitigation: Reducing greenhouse gas emissions is crucial to slow down global warming and the frequency of MHWs. Governments and industries should invest in renewable energy sources, promote energy efficiency, and adopt sustainable practices to mitigate climate change. Adaption: National and sub-national governments should design and implement measures to protect communities and build regional ocean resilience. Examples of such measures include creating and protecting marine protected areas to act as refuges for species of coral, kelp and seagrass; and enforcing catch management or fishing restrictions to help limit economic losses linked to MHWs. Nature Based Solutions: Governments must invest in nature-based solutions alongside ambitiously reducing fossil fuel-based emissions to achieve the goals agreed to under the Paris Agreement. International Collaboration: Foster international collaboration and networks, such as the Marine Heatwave International Group, to share knowledge, data, and best practices in addressing MHWs on a global scale. Research and Monitoring: Invest in research and monitoring programs to better understand MHWs, their impacts, and their future projections. Source:   Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Disease Vaccine 1.Malaria Sputnik V 2.Dengue DEN-2 3.Typhoid iNCOVACC How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Hurricane Hilary originated as a Tropical Storm off the shores of Mainland Mexico. Statement-II: It is the first tropical storm to hit Southern California in 84 years. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Foreign exchange reserves are assets held on reserve by a central bank in foreign currencies. Statement-II: India’s Forex Reserve contains only US dollars. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What do you understand by Emotional Intelligence (EI)? Highlight its significance; discuss the ways to develop EI among civil servants. (250 words) Q.2) How far do you agree that the behaviour of the Mediterranean climate has been changing due to humanizing landscape and natural? Discuss. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 23rd August 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 22nd August – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – d