Nov 15, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 15th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   National Children's Day Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT DAYS Context: President  Droupadi Murmu stressed the need to inspire children from childhood to help others and have a feeling of love and respect for the environment on National Children’s Day. Background:- The President stated this while addressing the children from various schools and organisations at Rashtrapati Bhavan on Children’s Day. About National Children’s Day:- Children’s Day is also known as ‘Bal Diwas’ in India. Children’s Day is the annual celebration in the country that falls on the birthday of India’s first Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, on November 14. Its celebrations date back to 1956, when the day was observed as ‘Universal Children’s Day’ on November 20, keeping with the United Nations. But, after Pt Nehru died in 1964, it was decided the celebrations be moved to commemorate his birth anniversary. Pt Nehru’s love for children was well-known. He was hailed as ‘Chacha Nehru’ owing to his popularity among children. It is said that he considered them to be the future assets of the country, for whom an all-rounded education would be of importance for their career, and for the country. (Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE)) Thus, Pt Nehru became a role model for many future generations. He also established pioneer scientific institutions like the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), the Indian Institutes of Technology (IIT), the Indian Institutes of Management (IIM), and the National Institutes of Technology (NIT). Significance:- The day stands for the rights of children and prioritizes their needs and voices. (The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment Bill, 2021) It also raises awareness of the need for the education of children to enable them to be better citizens of the country in the coming years. MUST READ: Child Marriage in India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 ASEAN Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, Defence Minister Rajnath Singh attended the 10th ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting-Plus (ADMM Plus). Background:- It will be held in Jakarta, Indonesia, from the 16th of November to the 17th of November,2023. Since 2017, the ADMM-Plus Ministers have been meeting annually to bolster cooperation between ASEAN and the Plus countries. About ASEAN:- Establishment: 8 August 1967. Secretariat: Jakarta, Indonesia. Members: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Brunei, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, and Cambodia. Bangkok Declaration, 1967, formally established the ASEAN. The first ASEAN Summit was in 1976. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a regional association that was founded to maintain social stability and political equilibrium among Asia’s post-colonial states amid escalating conflicts. “One Vision, One Identity, One Community” is its motto. The 8th of August is celebrated as the ASEAN Day. Institutional mechanism of ASEAN:- ASEAN Summit: It meets annually to discuss regional issues and set policy directions. ASEAN Coordinating Council (ACC): It oversees the implementation of ASEAN agreements and decisions. ASEAN Secretariat: It supports and facilitates ASEAN’s activities and initiatives. ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF): It is a platform for dialogue and cooperation on political and security issues among ASEAN member countries and their partners. Decision Making: It is done through consultation and consensus. Significance of ASEAN for India:- India needs a close diplomatic relationship with ASEAN nations both for economic and security reasons. Connectivity with the ASEAN nations can allow India to improve its presence in the region. (India-ASEAN conclave) These connectivity projects keep Northeast India at the centre, ensuring the economic growth of the northeastern states. Improved trade ties with the ASEAN nations would mean a counter to China’s presence in the region and economic growth and development for India. ASEAN occupies a centralized position in the rules-based security architecture in the Indo-Pacific, which is vital for India since most of its trade is dependent on maritime security. Collaboration with the ASEAN nations is necessary to counter insurgency in the Northeast, combat terrorism, tax evasion etc. MUST READ: India-ASEAN FTA SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Helicobacter pylori Syllabus Prelims –SCIENC AND TECHNOLOGY Context: The National Institute of Cholera and Enteric Diseases has made quick detection of drug-resistant ‘Helicobacter pylori possible recently. Background:- A two-step PCR-based assay of a small region of the Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) bacteria can help detect H. pylori infection and also identify clarithromycin-resistant bacteria and those that are drug-sensitive in six-seven hours has been developed by a team of researchers from the National Institute of Cholera and Enteric Diseases (ICMR-NICED), Kolkata. About Helicobacter pylori:- H pylori is a bacterium that infects the stomach lining. It is linked to gastrointestinal issues like peptic ulcers and stomach cancer. About two-thirds of the world’s population has it in their bodies. For most people, it never causes any symptoms. In India, H. pylori infection affects 60-70% of the population. This usually happens during childhood and remains in the stomach throughout their life if not treated with antibiotics effectively. Symptoms:- An ache or burning pain in your stomach (abdomen) Stomach pain that may be worse when your stomach is empty Nausea Loss of appetite Frequent burping Bloating Unintentional weight loss Treatment:- Clarithromycin is an antibiotic commonly used to treat H. pylori infections, but drug-resistant strains in India have raised concerns about its effectiveness. Diagnosis:- Traditional H. pylori infection diagnosis and antibiotic sensitivity testing involved time-consuming bacterial culture, taking weeks. Delayed diagnosis and sensitivity testing can result in ineffective treatment and antibiotic resistance. The National Institute of Cholera and Enteric Diseases (ICMR-NICED) in Kolkata created a two-step PCR-based assay for diagnosing H. pylori infection. This assay amplifies a specific DNA segment, targeting a critical mutation linked to clarithromycin resistance. Significance of discovery:- The PCR-based assay offers a faster and more accurate alternative to traditional culturing methods, aiding in prompt diagnosis and effective treatment. The assay has demonstrated 100% sensitivity and specificity. (Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs)) MUST READ: Rare Diseases SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: (2021) Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Odonata Species Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: A recent Survey in Mudumalai Tiger Reserve has identified 50 Odonata species. Background:- Around 50 Odonata (the insect order comprising dragonflies) species were identified on the first day of the two-day Odonata survey that commenced in Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR) recently. About Odonata Species:- Odonata is an order of flying insects that includes the dragonflies and damselflies. They are globally distributed, from the tropics, where they are most numerous and varied, to the boreal forests of Siberia and North America. It is one of the ancient orders of insects. Odonata is a diverse group, with over 6,000 known species. All Odonata have aquatic larvae called naiads (nymphs). All of them, larvae and adults, are The adults can land but rarely walk. Their legs are specialized for catching prey. They are almost entirely The largest living odonate is the giant Central American helicopter damselfly Megaloprepus coerulatus. The abdomen is almost always longer than any of the wings. More than 80% of their brain is devoted to analyzing visual information. Large, active by day, and often strikingly coloured, they are usually seen flying near water. (Wildlife Institute of India (WII)) MUST READ: Blackbuck SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Consider the following animals Hedgehog Marmot Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts? (2021) 1 and 2 only only 1 and 3 Orionid Meteor Shower Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY- SPACE Context: Recently, the Orionid Meteor Shower was seen. About Orionid Meteor Shower:- October month every year, Earth passes through the tail of debris left behind by Halley’s comet. This comet orbits the sun approximately every 76 years. The Orionid meteor shower, an annual phenomenon that lights up the night sky every October. It is produced when Earth passes through the debris left behind by Halley’s Comet. The result is what NASA calls “one of the most beautiful showers of the year”: the Orionid meteor shower.( Bernardinelli-Bernstein comet) This shower lasts until November 22, but don’t wait to get out there and look up, because it’s about to peak this weekend. Halley’s Comet was predicted, by the calculations by English astronomer Edmond Halley. Interestingly, the comet is named after its orbit calculator rather than its discoverer. Halley’s Comet measures about five by nine miles in size and loses between three to ten feet of material on each passage through the inner solar system. Halley’s Comet has a unique history of predictable returns and has been observed throughout history, with recorded sightings dating back to 240 CE. MUST READ: Exoplanets SOURCE: CNN PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2)  Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its INS SUMEDHA Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, INS Sumedha made a port call at Walvis Bay, Namibia. Background:- INS Sumedha in continuation with Indian Navy’s mission-based deployment to West Africa and Atlantic made a port call at Walvis Bay, Namibia from 10-13 November 23. This port call is a manifestation of India’s warm ties with Namibia, its commitment to enhance maritime security and demonstrate solidarity with friendly nations. About INS SUMEDHA:- Built by: Goa Shipyard Limited. INS Sumedha is an indigenously built Naval Offshore Patrol Vessel. It is part of the Indian Navy’s Eastern Fleet based at Visakhapatnam. It is the third ship of the indigenous Naval Offshore Patrol Vessel (NOPV) Project to be inducted into the Indian Navy. It is deployed for multiple roles independently and in support of Fleet Operations. Its primary role is to undertake EEZ surveillance, anti-piracy patrols, fleet support operations, providing maritime security to offshore assets and carry out escort operations for high value assets. Significance:- It is a highly potent platform that can be deployed for a variety of operational missions. It bears testimony to the capabilities of the Indian ship building industry. (INS Mormugao) MUST READ: Dunagiri, a Project 17A Frigate SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second-largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: EXERCISE Countries Hand-in-Hand Exercise India & China Table Top India & Bangladesh Eastern Bridge India & Nepal How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Halley’s Comet orbits the sun approximately every 56 years. Statement-II : Halley’s Comet was predicted, by the calculations by English astronomer Edmond Halley. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the ASEAN, consider the following statements: The motto of ASEAN is “One Vision, One Identity, One Community”. 7th August is observed as ASEAN Day. ASEAN Secretariat is in Indonesia, Jakarta. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  15th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 14th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – d

Nov 15, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Nov 14, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   International Trade Fair-2023 Syllabus Prelims – IMPORTANT EVENTS Context: The 42nd edition of the India International Trade Fair -2023 began recently. Background:- Union Minister of State for Commerce and Industry Anupriya Patel will inaugurate the fair which will continue till the 27th of this month. About International Trade Fair:- Date: 14th – 27th November 2023. Timings: The timings of the fair will be from 10 A.M. to 7.30 PM. Venue: Pragati Maidan in New Delhi. The 42 edition of the India International Trade Fair(IITF) will be held in the newly built halls of the International Exhibitioncum Convention Centre (IECC). It is a fourteen-day fair. Theme: The theme is Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam. The theme emphasizes the significance of interconnectedness and cooperation in trade for achieving sustainable growth and well-being. In line with the G20, the theme shares India’s ancient wisdom and strength in diverse sectors, perspectives and opinions on key socio-economic issues and to participate in shaping global economic policies. Participants: Over three thousand exhibitors from both India and abroad will participate in the fair. Representatives from 13 countries including Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Oman, Egypt, Nepal, Thailand, Turkiye, Vietnam, Tunisia, Kyrgyzstan, Lebanon, Iran and UAE are participating in the event from overseas. The First five days of the Trade Fair will be reserved for the business category and for the general public, it will be open from the 19th of this month. Bihar and Kerala are the Partner States while Delhi, Jammu and Kashmir, Jharkhand, Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh are the Focus States. Visitors can purchase the trade fair tickets online and also from select 55 metro stations. For Divyang and Senior citizens, entry into the fair will be free. It has a wide spectrum of Business, Social, Cultural and Educational Dimensions that are weaved together where visitors and exhibitors, media persons, marketing professionals, social activists, NGOs etc. source their needs and objectives. Significance:- A number of Government Organizations use this platform to spread awareness about their programmes and policies among the public. Almost all States and Union Territories of the Federal Government of India participate in this mega event. IITF 2023 will feature the country’s latest export potential in diverse fields especially when we are celebrating India’s presidency of the G20. (Free Trade Agreements regime) MUST READ: New Foreign Trade Policy SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2)  With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Aurora Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, NASA recently shared an incredible picture of an aurora captured from the International Space Station. Background:- The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) on Tuesday shared a remarkably beautiful image of an aurora taken from the International Space Station as it flew above the American state of Utah. About Aurora:- Auroras are a space weather phenomenon that occurs when electrically charged electrons and protons collide with neutral atoms in the upper atmosphere. An Aurora is a display of light in the sky predominantly seen in the high-latitude regions (Arctic and Antarctic). It is also known as a Polar light. In the Northern Hemisphere, the phenomenon is called the northern lights (aurora borealis), while in the Southern Hemisphere; it’s called the southern lights (aurora australis). Auroras result from emissions of photons in the Earth’s upper atmosphere (above 80 km), from ionized nitrogen atoms regaining an electron, and from electrons from oxygen and nitrogen atoms returning from an excited state to the ground state. The solar wind coming from the sun is the origin of the charged protons and electrons that excite oxygen and nitrogen and cause auroras. The aurora’s colour depends on the type of atom that is excited and how its electrons return from those excited states to the ground state. High-energy electrons cause oxygen to emit green light (the most familiar colour of the aurora), while low-energy electrons cause red light. Nitrogen generally gives off a blue light. The blending of these colours can also lead to purples, pinks, and whites. The oxygen and nitrogen also emit ultraviolet light, which can be detected by special cameras on satellites. Auroras are not just something that happens on Earth. If a planet has an atmosphere and magnetic field, they probably have auroras. Discrete Auroras on Mars: Unlike auroras on Earth, which are seen only near the north and south poles, Discrete Auroras (DA) on Mars are seen all around the planet at night time. (Discrete Auroras of Mars) Auroras have been observed on Saturn and Jupiter. MUST READ: Aditya-L1 Mission SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only PM PVTG (Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups) Development Mission Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi will launch the PM PVTG (Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups) Development Mission soon. Background:- Sources said the Modi Government will launch a 24 thousand crore rupee scheme to ensure holistic development of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups on the occasion of JanJaatiya Gaurav Divas. About PM PVTG (Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups) Development Mission:- Expected Launch: 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment. The launch of Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission was announced in the budget of this year. Objective: to improve the socio-economic conditions of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups. There are 75 PVTGs in 18 States and Union Territories living in 22 thousand 544 villages having a population of around 28 lakhs. These tribes stay in scattered, remote and inaccessible habitations, often in forest areas. Salient Features:- The Mission plans to saturate PVTG families and habitations with basic facilities. These include road and telecom connectivity, electricity, safe housing, clean drinking water and sanitation, improved access to education, health and nutrition and sustainable livelihood opportunities. (Significance of Tribal Culture in Sustainable Development) A fund of Rs 15,000 crore for the next three years has been allocated for the socio-economic development of the group. It will be launched as part of ‘Reaching The Last Mile’, one of the seven Saptarishi priorities enlisted in this year’s Budget. The Mission will be implemented through the convergence of 11 interventions of nine Ministries. In addition, saturation will be ensured for schemes such aper Centradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojna, Sickle Cell Disease Elimination, TB Elimination, 100 percent immunisation, PM Surakshit Matritva Yojana, PM Matru Vandana Yojana, PM Poshan, and PM Jan Dhan Yojana. Implementation: Among the ministries that are expected to be roped in to implement the PM-PVTG Mission are the Rural Development Ministry, the Water Resources Ministry, the Education Ministry, the Health Ministry and the Women and Child Development Ministry. MUST READ: National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Paintbrush swift butterfly Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, a Paintbrush swift butterfly was photographed for the first time in Himachal Pradesh. Background:- The State is home to 25% of the butterfly species found in India; 120 species of butterflies have been documented by the Wild Bhattiyat Project initiated by the State Forest Department in 2022 About Paintbrush Swift Butterfly:- Its scientific name is Baoris Farri. It is from the Hesperiidae family. The species’ larvae feed on bamboo and some other grass species. Its habitat is distributed in northeast, central and south India. It is identified based on two separated spots in the upper forewing cell. The species’ larvae feed on bamboo and some other grass species. Habitat loss and scarcity of larval host plants are major causes of the decline in the butterfly population. Conservation status:- Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule IV The paintbrush swift (Baoris farri), a butterfly species of the Hesperiidae family, was sighted and photographed during a field survey conducted under the Wild Bhattiyat Project initiated by the Bhattiyat Forest Range of the Dalhousie Forest Division of the Himachal Pradesh Forest Department in 2022. (Atapaka Bird Sanctuary) MUST READ: Kerala Bird Atlas (KBA) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following trees : (2023) Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus.) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three Inflation Syllabus Prelims – ECONOMY Context: The Retail inflation eased to 4.87% in October 2023 compared to 5.02 % in September 2023. Background:- Retail inflation, based on the Consumer Price Index (CPI), eased to 4.87 per cent in October compared to 5.02 per cent in September this year. About Inflation:- Inflation refers to a sustained increase in the general price level of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. It is the rise in the prices of most goods and services of daily or common use, such as food, clothing, housing, recreation, transport, consumer staples, etc. Inflation measures the average price change in a basket of commodities and services over time. The opposite and rare fall in the price index of this basket of items is called ‘deflation’. Inflation is indicative of the decrease in the purchasing power of a unit of a country’s currency. This is measured in percentage. Measures of Inflation in India:- In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation measures inflation. There are two main sets of inflation indices for measuring price level changes in India the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and the Consumer Price Index (CPI). GDP deflator is also used to measure inflation. Impacts of inflation:- Reduces people’s purchasing power Reduces overall demand Harms savers and helps borrowers Helps the government meet debt obligations: In the short term, the government, which is the single largest borrower in the economy, benefits from high inflation. In the short term, corporates, especially the large and dominant ones, could enjoy higher profitability because they might be in a position to pass on the prices to consumers. Worsens the exchange rate. MUST READ: Inflation Targeting as Monetary Policy SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. IIGs provide protection to investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Attenborough echidna Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, an elusive Attenborough echidna was rediscovered in Indonesia. Background:- An elusive echidna feared extinct after disappearing for six decades has been rediscovered in a remote part of Indonesia, on an expedition that also found a new kind of tree-dwelling shrimp. About Attenborough echidna:- It is a long-beaked echidna named for famed British naturalist David Attenborough. It had last been seen in 1961. Echidnas are nocturnal and shy, making them difficult to find at the best of times. The Attenborough long-beaked echidna has never been recorded outside the extremely remote Cyclops Mountains of Indonesia’s Papua region. They are the last vestiges of an ancient animal line. It is a monotreme: an evolutionarily distinct group of egg-laying mammals that includes the platypus. This echidna species is so special because it is one of only five remaining species of monotremes, the sole guardians of this remarkable branch of the tree of life. Conservation status:- IUCN: Critically Endangered. MUST READ: H5N1 virus/Bird Flue SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon Frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray Chinned Minivet and White-throated Redstart are (2020) Birds Primates Reptiles Amphibians Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) The Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Devil Comet Syllabus Prelims – SPACE Context: The mysterious ‘Devil Comet’ is approaching Earth for the first time in decades. Background:- The 12P/Pons-Brooks comet is passing by Earth for the first time in the 21st century. About Devil Comet:- The so-called Devil Comet is scientifically named Comet 12P/Pons-Brooks. (Bernardinelli-Bernstein comet) It is larger than typical comets and has been dubbed the “Devil Comet” for appearing to have horns. Its “horns” are actually tails of gas and dust formed by an odd series of explosive outbursts that scientists still do not understand. An “outburst,” is where comets suddenly get much more active, throwing off tons of gas and dust in a short period of time. When this happens, the comet brightens really rapidly and then sort of fades back to the brightness it had before. In Pons-Brooks, these are really, really large outbursts which makes this comet interesting to scientists. This short-period comet orbits the Sun once every 71.2 years, similar to the famous Halley’s Comet. This comet is not a newcomer to the solar system scene. Scientists have known about Pons-Brooks ever since 1812. Comet hunter Jean-Louis Pons spotted it at 4th magnitude. However, observations of the comet weren’t precise enough to predict exactly when or where it would return, so it was rediscovered in 1883 by William Brooks. Judging by its brightness, astronomers have estimated that the solid part of the comet, or its nucleus, is about 12.4 miles across — roughly twice the size of Mount Everest. It might be bright enough to be seen with naked eyes or with binoculars. MUST READ: IN-SPACe SOURCE: LIVE SCIENCE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Species IUCN Status Jenkin’s Andaman Spiny Shrew Least Concern Forest Owlet Critically Endangered Himalayan Quail Vulnerable How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : PM PVTG (Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups) Development Mission is under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Statement-II : The mission is aimed at improving the socio-economic condition of particularly tribal Group C. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Aurora, consider the following statements: In the Northern Hemisphere, the phenomenon is called the Northern Lights (aurora australis). It is a phenomenon exclusively seen on planet Earth. In the Southern Hemisphere; it’s called the southern lights (aurora borealis). How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  14th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 13th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

Nov 14, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Nov 14, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Dubai Airshow 2023 Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, the 18th edition of the Dubai Airshow 2023 was commenced. Background:- The 18th edition of the highly anticipated Dubai Airshow is set to kick off on November 13, at Dubai World Central (DWC), under the patronage of Sheikh Mohammed bin Rashid Al Maktoum, Vice President and Prime Minister of the UAE and Ruler of Dubai. About Dubai Airshow 2023:- Date: November 13, 2023. Venue: Dubai World Central (DWC), UAE. Theme: The Future of the Aerospace Industry. Time period: biennial. The airshow is set to welcome 1,400+ exhibitors from across the world of aviation, with 180+ aircraft set to be displayed. Key Highlights:- Dubai Airshow is strictly open to trade and media guests only but does offer a public grandstand to view the daily flying display with prior registration. A highlight of this year’s Dubai Airshow is the static display, boasting a new benchmark with over 180 commercial aircraft, including Airbus’ A320P2F, A321neo, A330neo, A400M Atlas CMk1, H225 (Helicopter), and C295. Embraer’s E195-E2 will make its public debut with a new livery. Boeing will showcase a flying demonstration of its highly anticipated 777-9. Leading and emerging airlines from around the world will showcase new concepts, with Saudia presenting a Boeing 787-10 featuring a new brand livery and a flyadeal Airbus 320neo. The world’s first premium leisure airline, Beyond, will feature its state-of-the-art Airbus A319 on static display, among other industry-leading aircraft. Special passport stamps at Dubai Airports Dubai Airports has revealed that travellers arriving at Dubai International Airport and Dubai World Central Airport between November 6th and November 18th will receive a special stamp on their passports commemorating the Dubai Airshow. Gulfstream is Planning To Debut The G700 Private Jet At The Dubai Airshow, MUST READ: Defence Acquisition Council SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q2. Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Tiger Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, a 60% increase in the overall tiger population was seen. Background:- The habitat & biodiversity loss is threatening Southeast Asian big cats. About Tiger:- Scientific Name: Panthera tigris. Indian Sub Species: Panthera tigris tigris. WEIGHT: 220–660 pounds. LENGTH: 6–10 feet. HABITATS: Tropical rainforests, evergreen forests, temperate forests, mangrove swamps, grasslands, and savannas. It is the largest cat species and a member of the genus Panthera. Distribution: Its habitat stretches from Siberian temperate forests to subtropical and tropical forests on the Indian subcontinent and Sumatra. Traditionally eight subspecies of tigers have been recognised, out of which three are extinct. Bengal Tigers: Indian Subcontinent Caspian tiger: Turkey through central and west Asia (extinct). Amur tiger: Amur Rivers region of Russia China, and North Korea Javan tiger: Java, Indonesia (extinct). South China tiger: South central China. Bali tiger: Bali, Indonesia (extinct). Sumatran tiger: Sumatra, Indonesia. Indo-Chinese tiger: Continental south-east Asia. Tigers are mostly solitary, apart from associations between mother and offspring. Tigers eat large prey animals like deer and wild pigs, though they make exceptions for some small animals, including porcupines. Threats:- Habitat destruction Habitat fragmentation and Poaching. Conservation Status:- International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List: Endangered. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES): Appendix I. Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I MUST READ: Tiger Estimation SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (2023) Fishing cat Orangutan Otter Sloth bear Q.2) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) Syllabus Prelims – IMPORTANT INSTITUTION Context: Globally, 21 million tonnes of plastics leaked into the environment last year as per a recent Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) report. Background:- Report released two days before Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee on Plastic Pollution for an international treaty on plastics. About the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD):- Establishment: 1961. HQ: Paris, France. Total Members: 38. The 38 Member Countries consist of Australia, Austria, Belgium, Canada, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, South Korea, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Mexico, Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Turkey, the United Kingdom, and the United States. India is not a member, but a key economic partner. The Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) is an international organization that works to build better policies for better lives. It formulates policies to promote prosperity, equality, opportunity and prosperity for all. Its goal is to shape policies that foster prosperity, equality, opportunity and well-being for all. Organisational structure:- COUNCIL: Oversight and strategic direction. COMMITTEES: Discussion and review. SECRETARIAT: Evidence and analysis. Objectives:- The OECD’s main objective is to enhance the world economy and promote international trade. It offers the governments of various countries the opportunity to work jointly to find solutions to common problems. It includes working with democratic countries that share a commitment to enhance the general population’s economy and well-being. The main objective of the OECD is to support governments throughout the world: Increase confidence in the functioning of markets and institutions. To achieve future sustainable economic growth, obtain healthy public finances. To achieve growth through innovation, sustainable strategies and developing economies’ sustainability. Provide resources to enhance people’s productive skills. Reports and Indices by OECD:- Government at a Glance 2017 report. International Migration Outlook. OECD Better Life Index. MUST READ: Digital taxation & OECD: On a weak pillar SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:     Country Anatolia                                                       Turkey Amhara                                                        Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                               Spain Catalonia                                                        Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH) Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: New Delhi to host the 33rd Conference on World Animal Health by the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH). Background:- The delegates from 36 member countries including India, senior officers from regional and international organizations and representatives from the private sector and private veterinary organizations will participate in the conference. About World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH):- Establishment: 1924. HQ: Paris. Members: in 2018 a total of 182 member states. Objective: to control epizootic diseases and thus prevent their spread. Other objectives consist of transparency, scientific information, international solidarity, sanitary safety, the promotion of Veterinary Services, food safety, and animal welfare. The World Organization for Animal Health (WOAH), is an inter-governmental organization coordinating, supporting, and promoting animal disease control. It was formerly the Office International des Epizooties (OIE). It is recognized as a reference organization by the World Trade Organization (WTO). The WOAH does not depend on the UN system, its autonomy is both institutional and financial, and its activities are governed by its own constitutional texts. WOAH is recognized as a reference organization by the World Trade Organization (WTO) and in 2022 counted a total of 182 member states. Its newest member state is Saint Lucia. WOAH maintains permanent relations with 45 other international and regional organizations and has Regional and sub-regional Offices on every continent. Functions:- Setting international standards: The organization develops and updates international standards and guidelines for the control and prevention of various animal diseases. (World Antimicrobial Awareness Week 2022) Information exchange: The OIE serves as a global reference point for information on animal diseases, providing a platform for member countries to share information on disease outbreaks and surveillance. Capacity building: The OIE supports member countries in building their capacity to manage and control animal diseases. This includes training programs, technical assistance, and the establishment of veterinary services. Veterinary education and research: The organization promotes research and education in the field of animal health and veterinary sciences to improve the understanding and management of animal diseases. Emergency response: The OIE assists member countries in managing and responding to animal disease outbreaks, including providing guidance on disease control measures and crisis management. International cooperation: The OIE collaborates with other international organizations, such as the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations, to address global health and food safety issues. MUST READ: National Surveillance Programme for Aquatic Animal Diseases SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to one of the following sites (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Q.2) What is/are unique about ‘Kharai Camel’, a breed found in India? (2016) It is capable of swimming up to three kilometres in seawater It survives by grazing on mangroves It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Volcano Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Iceland Declared a State of Emergency due to a Volcanic eruption. Background:- A town in Iceland, home to 4,000 people, could be devastated by an imminent volcanic eruption, experts said. About Volcano:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA A volcano is a vent or a fissure in the crust from which lava (molten rock), ash, gases, and rock fragments erupt from a magma chamber below the surface. Causes of Volcanism:- There is a huge temperature difference between the inner layers and the outer layers of the earth due to the differential amount of radioactivity. This temperature difference gives rise to convectional currents in the mantle. The convection currents in the mantle create convergent and divergent boundaries (weak zones). At the divergent boundary, molten, semi-molten and sometimes gaseous material appears on Earth at the first available opportunity. At the convergent boundary, the subduction of denser plates creates magma at high pressure which will escape to the surface in the form of violent eruptions. Types of Volcanoes:- Strato or Composite Volcanoes: These are large, steep-sided volcanoes that can reach heights of over 8000 feet. The lava they produce can flow at incredibly high speeds and temperatures, posing a significant threat to nearby life and property. Shield Volcanoes: These volcanoes produce non-explosive eruptions and fast-flowing lava. While they can cause property damage, the risk of death or injury is low. Dome Volcanoes: The lava produced by these volcanoes is thick and viscous, which means it doesn’t travel far from the source. Volcanoes in India:- Barren Island: Andaman Islands (India’s only active volcano) (National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)) Narcondam: Andaman Islands Baratang: Andaman Islands Deccan Traps: Maharashtra Dhinodhar Hills: Gujarat Dhosi Hill: Haryana MUST READ: Mt. Mauna Loa SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. Only some cyclones develop an eye. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C less than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Black Hole Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, Physicists Simulated a Black Hole in the Lab. Background:- Using a chain of atoms in a single file to simulate the event horizon of a black hole, a team of physicists in 2022 observed the equivalent of what we call Hawking radiation. Hawking radiation: particles born from disturbances in the quantum fluctuations caused by the black hole’s break in spacetime. About Black Hole:- A black hole is such an astronomical object with such a powerful gravitational field, that nothing not even light can escape from the gravitational effect. It is a region of space having a gravitational field so intense that no matter or radiation can escape. No other things, including light, can be returned after a point called Event Horizon around the Black hole. It is called “black” because it also absorbs all the light that falls on it and does not reflect anything. Formation:- A stellar-mass black hole forms when a star with more than 20 solar masses exhausts the nuclear fuel in its core and collapses under its own weight. The collapse triggers a supernova explosion that blows off the star’s outer layers. But if the crushed core contains more than three times the Sun’s mass, no known force can stop its collapse into a black hole. The origin of supermassive black holes is poorly understood, but we know they exist from the very earliest days of a galaxy’s lifetime. It is exactly like a perfect black body in thermodynamics. Two main classes of black holes have been extensively observed. Stellar-mass black holes with three to dozens of times the Sun’s mass is spread throughout our Milky Way galaxy while supermassive monsters weighing 100,000 to billions of solar masses are found in the centres of most big galaxies. MUST READ: International Space Station (ISS) SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on it. Q.2) Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation? (2019) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected. ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected. Possibility of intergalactic space travel through a ‘wormhole’ was confirmed. It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: ORGANIZATION HQ OPEC UAE WTO Tokyo FAO Switzerland How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Shield Volcanoes produce non-explosive eruptions and fast-flowing lava. Statement-II : The lava produced by Dome Volcanoes is thick and viscous, which means it doesn’t travel far from the source. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Black Hole, consider the following statements: A black hole is such an astronomical object with such a powerful gravitational field, that nothing not even light can escape from the gravitational effect. It is a region of space having a gravitational field so intense that no matter or radiation can escape. It is exactly like a perfect black body in thermodynamics. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  13th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 11th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Nov 13, 2023 Important Articles

[REGISTER NOW] IASbaba’s INTERVIEW MENTORSHIP PROGRAM (IMP) for UPSC 2023 Personality Test under the Guidance of Mohan Sir (Founder IASbaba)

The mains are over. But your mind does not stop thinking of what will happen. Will you be crossing on to the next stage? If yes, what is a sure-shot way to ensure that you make it count? Deep down inside, you know, that more than luck, what you really require is – this last stage to make sense for you to prepare strategically. Add to that: the courage to really sail this through! To improve one’s chances of winning this game, one must perform well in the personality test. But do you know yourself too well? The most crucial problem with us humans is that we do not really understand ourselves completely. We wear so many hats in our day-to-day busy life that we do not even have time to comprehend and make sense of our own behaviors at times. Hence, it becomes imperative for one to understand their own story first – their motivations, desires, and dreams and this when done on a guided basis, creates a roadmap for your better life ahead. But do you get there automatically? Of course not! On top of that, the pressure of performance, the mindset that gets tested each minute and the need to present oneself as an upcoming Civil Servant based on different criteria by different sets of judges. So in the face of all of this, how do you really stay focussed on winning this game? What do you really need to crack the Interview Stage? Right Guidance. Right Strategy. Yes! But you also need an environment that fosters practice and mentors you on an individual basis, mentors that do not let you get complacent, and tools and techniques that can make it possible to dramatically increase one’s chances of being in the final list. Before you start your journey, please understand that your personality is composed of many aspects – your confidence, knowledge, way of talking, ability to handle pressure, being precise in your response, even your way of seating, and so on. While preparing for the personality test, it is critical that you focus on each of these components. To take out the guesswork and to ensure that you put your best foot forward to nail this once and for all, we present you: The most practical & result-oriented program - IASbaba’s Interview Mentorship Programme (IMP) under the Guidance of Mohan Sir (Founder, IASbaba) Much More than Mock Interviews; The Most Comprehensive Interview Mentorship Programmme for UPSC Civil Services! This program is the most comprehensive initiative for the personality test available today. Not only it has helped many previous year rankers to qualify for the Civil Services Exam, but it has also guided them to adopt the mindset of a Civil Servant too. 1:1 Mentorship with Mohan Sir : For complete hand-holding throughout the interview phaseImpactful Sessions: Streamlines your line of thought and knowledge and helps you reach at an advantageous positionSimulation of the ACTUAL InterviewMentor Monitored Discussion: Focused on Majopr Issues & On the spot thinkingFine-tuning your own content to be holistic and relevantTraining on Body Language and Communication SkilsA deeper perspective of the way you think and the way you are Register Now -> Click Here IMP is built on the following pillars: DAF Sessions: Dedicated sessions by previous year’s toppers, Ex Bureaucrats, Mohan Sir to help you with the detailed application form, with a particular focus on the selection of services, cadre preference, hobbies, achievements, extracurricular activities, etc.Panel Mocks:An expert panel of retired and serving civil servants, subject matter experts, and other distinguished personalities from varied fields to give you a near-real feel of the interview board, complemented with detailed feedback and recordings.One to One Mocks & Mentorship with Mohan Sir: An excellent opportunity to get a detailed assessment of your answers and preparation by none other than Mohan Sir, who is hugely popular among interview candidates for his succinct and precise analysis and boosting the interview scores by a significant margin and helped a lot of them achieve a 190+ Score. One-on-one discussion with Mohan sir is the most important aspect of the IMP as Sir identifies the issues in your preparation and guides you to fill those loopholes.DAF Questionnaire: Detailed discussion on your DAF with particular stress on probable questions and focus areas. The DAF discussion helps you analyze your DAF and expect possible questions in the interview and be prepared to face such questions. The mentor will help you generate a question bank covering your native place and state, educational background, work experience, hobbies, accomplishments, etc.Current Affairs: Detailed discussion on your DAF with particular stress on probable questions and focus areas. The DAF discussion helps you analyze your DAF and expect possible questions in the interview and be prepared to face such questions. The mentor will help you generate a question bank covering your native place and state, educational background, work experience, hobbies, accomplishments, etc.Open Mocks: A unique technique developed by IASbaba that can do wonders for your confidence. In this process, Mock interviews are conducted in front of other candidates. Observing others giving their interview helps you understand the common mistakes to be avoided in front of the board. Open mocks help you develop the right attitude to be carried to the interview.Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP): A biweekly initiative meant to serve as the regular dose of self-assessment through probing questions on your personality, along with analytical questions on current affairs to keep you on toes for your preparation. 1:1 Mocks & Mentorship with Mohan Sir Vast Experience: Mohan Sir brings a wealth of experience to the table. With years of expertise in mentoring thousands of UPSC aspirants every year, his insights into the intricacies of the interview process are invaluable. Benefit from the wisdom of someone who has witnessed numerous success stories. Holistic Skill Development: Mohan Sir understands that the interview is not just about knowledge; it’s about holistic skill development. From communication skills to personality development, articulation of thoughts, prioritization of points, he guides you through a comprehensive journey, polishing every facet that contributes to a successful interview. Personalized/Customised Guidance: Taking into account your background, current knowledge, and the specific requirements of the UPSC interview you will receive personalized feedback and guidance tailored to your strengths and weaknesses. Mohan Sir understands that every aspirant is unique, and the program is crafted to address individual needs. Motivational Mentorship: Beyond the technicalities of the interview, his encouragement and belief in your potential serve as a constant source of inspiration, keeping you focused and resilient throughout the challenging UPSC journey. Flexibility and Adaptability: One-to-one sessions with Mohan Sir offer flexibility. The mentor adapts to your pace of learning, ensuring that you are neither overwhelmed nor underprepared. This adaptability is crucial for optimizing the effectiveness of your interview preparation. Rich Repository of Success Stories: Mohan Sir’s mentorship is backed by a rich repository of success stories. Many aspirants who have benefited from his guidance have gone on to ace the UPSC interview and secure top ranks. This track record speaks volumes about the effectiveness of his mentoring. Many aspirants have not only cracked the interview but have also credited the program for instilling the confidence and skills necessary to excel in the final stage of the UPSC CSE. We believe that IMP with its ingredients can dramatically enhance your chances. The trick is to start early and start strongly. Our team is working really hard to make IMP your best companion. Please join us to start a challenging yet exciting journey towards success. Those who are interested in the IMP Programme, please fill out the Registration Form below: Please fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test (UPSC 2023). Also, Mohan sir will be interacting one on one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. Register Now -> Click Here For further queries with regard to the IMP Programme, you can mail us at support@iasbaba.com or call us on 91691 91888 (10 am to 5:30 pm).  All the Best IASbaba Team

Nov 13, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Nov 11, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT ORGANIZATIONS Context: Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) facilitated the export of the first trial shipment of fresh bananas to the Netherlands. Background:- The trial shipment of bananas to Europe was carried out by the APEDA-registered ‘INI Farms – a top exporter of fruits and vegetables from India. The first export consignment of bananas to the Netherlands was flagged off by APEDA Chairman Abhishek Dev from Baramati, Maharashtra. About APEDA:- Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry. HQ: New Delhi. It is a statutory body established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act passed by the Parliament in 1985. The Authority replaced the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC). APEDA has been entrusted with the responsibility of monitoring the import of sugar as well. APEDA also functions as the Secretariat to the National Accreditation Board (NAB) for the implementation of accreditation of the Certification Bodies under the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) for organic exports. Chairman – appointed by the Central Government (APEDA inks MoU with NAFED) Functions:- Development of industries relating to the scheduled products for export by way of providing financial assistance. Registration of persons as exporters of the scheduled products on payment of such fees as may be prescribed. Fixing standards and specifications for the scheduled products for the purpose of exports; Carrying out inspection of meat and meat products in slaughterhouses, processing plants, storage premises, conveyances, or other places Improving packaging of the Scheduled products. Improving marketing of the Scheduled products outside India. Promotion of export-oriented production and development of the Scheduled products. APEDA is mandated with the responsibility of export promotion and development of the following scheduled products: Fruits, Vegetables and their Products. Meat and Meat Products. Poultry and Poultry Products. Dairy Products. Confectionery, Biscuits, and Bakery Products. Honey, Jaggery, and Sugar Products. Cocoa and its products, chocolates of all kinds. Alcoholic and Non-Alcoholic Beverages. Cereal and Cereal Products. Groundnuts, Peanuts, and Walnuts. Pickles, Papads, and Chutneys. Guar Gum. Floriculture and Floriculture Products. Herbal and Medicinal Plants. De–oiled rice bran. Green pepper in brine. Cashew Nuts and Its Products. Basmati Rice has been included in the Second Schedule of the APEDA Act. MUST READ: Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past? (2020) Minimum Support Price Government’s trading Government’s stockpiling Consumer subsidies Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 4 only 1,3, and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? (2020) Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Social Capital Development Free electricity supply to farmers Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system Setting up of cold storage facilities by the governments. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 5 only 1, 3, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, and 6 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 National Ayurveda Day Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT DAYS Context: Recently, the Ayush Ministry celebrated the 8th National Ayurveda Day at Panchkula. Background:- Union AYUSH Minister Sarbanand Sonowal said that ayurvedic medicine is part of a thousands-year-old culture and has been present in the society, education, service and lifestyle of India since ancient times. About National Ayurveda Day:- The National Ayurveda Day is celebrated every year on Dhanteras which is the Birth Anniversary of Lord Dhanwantri. It is believed that Lord Dhanwantari is the Hindu God for Medicine and is an avatar of Lord Vishnu. It is celebrated to promote and globalize Ayurveda as one of the most ancient and holistic approaches to medicine globally. The theme of the 8th National Ayurveda Day 2023 celebration is “Ayurveda for One Health” with the tagline “Ayurveda for everyone on every day’. National Ayurveda Day was first celebrated in India on October 28, 2016. Objectives of National Ayurveda Day:- Celebration of National Ayurveda Day is an initiative to further promote Ayurveda into the mainstream. Its motives also includes a focus on the strengths of Ayurveda for the well-being of human and its unique treatment principle. Ayurveda also reduces the burden of disease morbidity and mortality. This also explores the potential of Ayurveda to contribute towards National Health Policy and Programs. This also aims to create a sense of awareness among the general masses and promote Ayurvedic principles of healing in society for the well-being of all living creatures. Significance:- National Ayurveda Day is an opportunity to learn more about Ayurveda and its benefits and to promote its use as a complementary and alternative medicine system. (WHO and Traditional Medicine) Various events are held across India on this day, including free health camps, seminars, and exhibitions. MUST READ: Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following infrastructure sectors : (2023) Affordable housing Mass rapid transport Health care Renewable energy On how many of the above does the UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus on its investments? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in  the context of interventions being  undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt  Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four El Nino Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) has launched a plan to reduce the projected impacts of the climate phenomenon El Nino on agricultural livelihoods and food security of the most at-risk and vulnerable populations recently. Background:- It released an anticipatory action plan after WMO forecasts El Nino to stay till April 2024. About El Nino:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA El Niño is the warming of seawater in the central-east Equatorial Pacific that occurs every few years. During El Niño, surface temperatures in the equatorial Pacific rise, and trade winds — east-west winds that blow near the Equator — weaken. Normally, easterly trade winds blow from the Americas towards Asia. Due to El Niño, they falter and change direction to turn into westerlies, bringing warm water from the western Pacific towards the Americas. It occurs every 3-6 years and lasts for about 9-12 months. It can cause droughts, flooding, and changes in temperature. It can lead to below-normal rainfall, which affects India’s agricultural sector. Outcomes of El Nino:- Disruptions in the food chain: The phenomena of upwelling, where nutrient-rich waters rise towards the surface, is reduced under El Niño. This in turn reduces phytoplankton. Thus, fish that eat phytoplankton are affected, followed by other organisms higher up the food chain. Disruptions in the overall ecosystem: Warm waters also carry tropical species towards colder areas, disrupting multiple ecosystems. Alterations in wind and weather patterns: Since the Pacific covers almost one-third of the earth, changes in its temperature and subsequent alteration of wind patterns disrupt global weather patterns. El Niño causes dry, warm winters in the Northern U.S. and Canada and increases the risk of flooding in the U.S. Gulf Coast and southeastern U.S. It also brings drought to Indonesia and Australia. MUST READ: Monsoon trough SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds. In the temperate Zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 COVID-19 Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, India reported 14 new cases of COVID-19. Background:- India recorded the highest number of deaths (1,260) globally from September 25 to October 22, 2023, primarily due to retrospective adjustment, according to WHO data. About COVID-19:- Coronavirus, also known as COVID-19. (Second Wave of COVID-19) It is a type of virus that has caused a horrific life-killing pandemic since 2019. This disease is caused by Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (SARS-CoV-2). The outer layer of this virus is covered with spike-like proteins which surround it like a crown, thus named COVID. This disease has caused millions of deaths worldwide. COVID-19 is an infectious disease that spreads from person to person. Treatment:- Currently, there is no such fully effective treatment. However, there are COVID-19 vaccines that work on the body’s immunity, which is why infected people are not given vaccines until 15 days after testing negative. COVID-19 vaccines have played a vital role in reducing the horrifying effect of the virus on the world. (iNCOVACC) Challenges faced by India:- Large Population Poor Public Hygiene Unknown Incubation Period MUST READ: Tuberculosis SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following : (2022) Bacteria Fungi Virus Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Index of Industrial Production (IIP) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, Index of Industrial Production (IIP) growth fell to a 3-month low, rising year-on-year. Background:- The data released by the National Statistical Office (NSO) showed that the manufacturing sector’s output grew by 4.5 per cent in September 2023. About the Index of Industrial Production (IIP):- Publication time: monthly. (IIP) Published by: National Statistical Office (NSO). Ministry: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. Base Year: 2011-2012. IIP is an indicator that measures the changes in the volume of production of industrial products during a given period. It is a composite indicator that measures the growth rate of industry groups classified under: Broad sectors: Mining, Manufacturing, and Electricity. The relative weights of these three sectors are 6% (manufacturing), 14.4% (mining) and 8% (electricity). Eight core industries: Electricity, crude oil, coal, cement, steel, refinery products, natural gas, and fertilizers. They comprise about 40 per cent of the weight of items included in the IIP. The eight core sector industries in decreasing order of their weightage: Refinery Products> Electricity> Steel> Coal> Crude Oil> Natural Gas> Cement> Fertilizers. Use-based sectors: Basic Goods, Capital Goods, and Intermediate Goods. Significance of IIP:- The index indicates the relative change over time in the volume of production in the industrial sector. It is an effective tool to measure the trend of current industrial production. It is used by government agencies including the Ministry of Finance, the Reserve Bank of India, etc, for policy-making purposes. ( Draft New Industrial Policy) MUST READ: Industrial Revolution 4.0 SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to India : (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises are those with investments in plant and machinery between (15 crore and 25 crore). All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight? (2015) Coal production Electricity generation Fertilizer production Steel production Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: Recently, the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) arrested the three accused, and busted an illegal job racket allegedly operating in multiple states. Background:- A case was registered against six accused and unknown public servants and others. It was alleged that the organized syndicate consisting of private persons were taking a huge amount of money in the camouflage of processing fees or security deposits from prospective job seekers in various Central Government departments and Public Sector Undertakings. About the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):- It was established as the Special Police Establishment in 194. Objective: to investigate cases of corruption in procurement during the Second World War. Later, the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption recommended the establishment of the CBI. As a result, it was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Union Home Ministry. The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) set in 1941 was also merged with the CBI Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office. The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, of 1946. The CBI is the main investigating agency of the Central Government. The CBI investigates the crime of corruption, economic offences and serious and organized crime other than terrorism. The CBI is headed by a Director who is assisted by a special/additional director. The Director of CBI has been provided security of two-year tenure by the CVC Act, 2003. As per the CVC Act of 2003, the Central Government shall appoint the Director of CBI on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Chief Justice of India or Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him. If there is no recognized leader of the opposition in the Lok Sabha, then the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha would be a member of that committee. The CBI Academy is located in Ghaziabad, UP and started functioning in 1996. It also has three regional training centres at Kolkata, Mumbai & Chennai. The superintendence of CBI related to the investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 lies with the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC). Other matters with the Department of Personnel & Training (DOPT) in the Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Grievances of the Government of India Functions:- Investigating cases of corruption, bribery and misconduct of Union govt employees Investigating cases relating to infringement of fiscal and economic laws Investigating serious crimes, having national and international ramifications, committed by organised gangs of professional criminals. Coordinating activities of the anticorruption agencies and various state police forces Taking up, on the request of a state government, any case of public importance for investigation. The Central Government can authorize CBI to investigate such a crime in a State but only with the consent of the concerned State Government. It takes up investigation of conventional crimes like murder, kidnapping, rape etc., on reference from the state governments or when directed by the Supreme Court/High Courts. Maintaining crime statistics and disseminating criminal information. The CBI acts as the “National Central Bureau” of Interpol in India, (CBI and its troubles)  MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Organizations HQ RBI New Delhi SEBI Mumbai CBI Pune How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : APEDA is under the Ministry of Agriculture. Statement-II : Improving the packaging of the Scheduled products is one of its functions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the IIP, consider the following statements: It is published quarterly. It is published by the National Statistical Office (NSO). Its Base Year is 2011-2012. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  11th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 10th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Nov 11, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Nov 10, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 10th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Scabies Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent reports suggest that Malawi is battling an outbreak of scabies. Hospitals register thousands of people with infectious skin disease, months after a wave of cholera swept African country. About Scabies:- Scabies is a skin disease caused by a parasite named Sarcoptes scabie which is a tiny insect about 0.3 mm long called a mite. The female parasite burrows under the skin. It begins laying eggs within 2-3 hours of infection and generally lays 2-3 eggs daily. The eggs hatch and become adult mites (a term referring to this parasite) within 10 days. Scabies is a relatively contagious infection caused by a tiny mite (Sarcoptes scabie). Transmission is from person to person more by close skin contact. Symptoms:– Severe itch Itchy lines and bumps on the fingers, wrists, arms, legs, and belt area Larger rash in infants and small children, including on the palms, soles of the feet, ankles, and scalp. A more severe type of scabies, called crusted scabies, makes the skin crusty and scaly and affects large areas of the body. Treatment:- Several types of lotions (usually containing 5% permethrin) can be applied to the body and left on for 12-24 hours. One topical application is usually sufficient, although the scabicide may be reapplied after a week if mites remain. Itching can be lessened by the use of calamine lotion or antihistamine medications. Prevention:- Good hygiene is essential in the prevention of scabies. (Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs)) MUST READ: Type 1 diabetes SOURCE: THE GUARDIAN PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. Awaous Motla Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Researchers discover new freshwater fish species ‘Awaous Motla’ in Odisha’s Mahanadi River.  Background:- A group of scientists has discovered that an edible freshwater fish, available in the markets of western Odisha, is actually an unregistered species. About Awaous Motla:- The species belongs to the family ‘Awaous’ (Oxudercidae), thus named Awaous motla and ‘motla’ by fishermen. The fish has a vibrant yellow-coloured body and a fleshy upper lip. Can be consumed both fresh and dried. It was discovered from the Mahanadi River. It is one of the major east-flowing peninsular rivers in India. The river originates from the Sihawa range of hills in the Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh state. MUST READ: Zebrafish SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following? (2023) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting a series of drug trials in  a population Q.2) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Jericho Missile System Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, a call was given by an Israeli lawmaker suggesting deploying a ‘ Jericho Missile System’ against Hamas and Palestine in the ongoing war. About Jericho Missile System:- Jericho is Israel’s original ballistic missile programme, initiated in the 1960s. It was named after the biblical city located in the West Bank. This programme was initially a collaboration with the French aerospace company Dassault, but when France withdrew in 1969, Israel continued its development. Jericho-1 Missile System:- The Jericho-1 missile system, retired in the 1990s. It had a weight of 6.5 tons, a length of 13.4 meters, and a diameter of 0.8 meters. Jericho-1 missile system had a range of 500 kilometres. It could carry a 1,000-kilogram payload, though it had a 50 per cent chance of hitting within a 1,000-meter radius of its target. Jericho-2 Missile System:- It was developed in the late 1980s. It has a length of 15 metres and a diameter of 1.35 metres while maintaining the same payload capacity and range between 1,500 and 3,500 kilometres. It has the same payload capacity as Jericho-1. Jericho-3 Missile System:- It is the first Israeli Intercontinental Missile (ICBM). It was first tested in 2008 and entered service in 2011. The payload capacity extended to about 1,300 kilograms. It has a range of 4,800 to 6,500 kilometres. MUST READ: BrahMos Missiles SOURCE: MSN PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Alcalus fontinalis Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Researchers have discovered a new species of frog,  Alcalus fontinalis in the northeast Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh recently. The identification of the new species is based on molecular, morphological, and osteological characteristics. About Alcalus fontinalis:- The frog was formally named Alcalus fontinalis, meaning “spring or fountain,” referencing the tiny streams or brooks where the frog was found in Arunachal Pradesh. It was discovered in the Namdapha Tiger Reserve, Arunachal Pradesh. The new species stands out from its congeners due to a unique combination of morphological features. These include a snout-vent length of 27–28 mm in males and 29.9–36.2 mm in females. It has a disc on the fingers and toes with a horizontal/transverse groove on the dorsal surface. It has wrinkled dorsal skin. It has a pair of faint dorsolateral stripes on the back. The new species also exhibits a DNA sequence divergence of 7.6–25.4% in the mitochondrial gene fragment 12S–tVal–16S rRNA (1533 base pairs), further distinguishing it from its congeners. The frog appeared to be a mix of a bush frog and a water frog. Significance:- The discovery of Alcalus fontinalis contributes significantly to our understanding of biodiversity in the Indo-Burma region. The finding reports a species new to science and a new genus from India. (Morphological Phenotypic Plasticity in Kalinga Frog) MUST READ: New Species of frog in Andaman found SOURCE: GROUND REPORT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (2023) Fishing cat Orangutan Otter Sloth bear Q2. Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Indian Porcupine Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, an Indian Porcupine killed an adult male Tiger in Tamil Nadu. About Indian Porcupine:- Scientific Name: Hystrix indica. Porcupines are large, thorny rodents. Their coats with sharp spines or quills protect them against predation. They are the longest-living rodent. Defensive behaviour displays in a porcupine depend on sight, scent and sound. The Indian Crested Porcupine is the largest rodent in India and is widely distributed in the Indian Subcontinent. It is found throughout southeast and central Asia and in parts of the Middle East, including such countries as India, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Pakistan, Israel, Iran, and Saudi Arabia. It mainly occurs on rocky hillsides but is also found in tropical and temperate scrublands, grasslands, and forests. Protection status:- IUCN Red List: least concern Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule IV  MUST READ: Atelopus or harlequin frogs SOURCE: ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Parkinson's disease Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, Scientists discovered a link between air pollution and Parkinson’s disease. About Parkinson’s disease:- Parkinson’s disease is a progressive disorder that affects the nervous system and the parts of the body controlled by the nerves. Symptoms start slowly. The risk of developing it increases with age. Symptoms:- Uncontrollable shaking and tremors Slowed movement (bradykinesia) Balance difficulties and eventual problems standing up Stiffness in limbs Speech changes Writing changes Loss of automatic movements Causes:- Genes Environmental triggers Presence of Lewy bodies: Clumps of specific substances within brain cells are microscopic markers of Parkinson’s disease. These are called Lewy bodies. Parkinson’s disease is often accompanied by these additional problems like:- Thinking difficulties Depression and emotional changes Swallowing problems Chewing and eating problems Sleep problems and sleep disorders People also may experience rapid eye movement sleep behaviour disorder, which involves acting out dreams. Medicines may improve your sleep. Bladder problems Constipation Treatments:- Although there is no cure for Parkinson’s disease, medicines, surgical treatment, and other therapies can often relieve some symptoms. Medicines: Medicines can help treat the symptoms of Parkinson’s by: Increasing the level of dopamine in the brain Having an effect on other brain chemicals, such as neurotransmitters, which transfer information between brain cells Helping control non-movement symptoms Therapy: the main therapy for Parkinson’s is levodopa. Nerve cells use levodopa to make dopamine to replenish the brain’s dwindling supply. Deep brain stimulation: For people with Parkinson’s disease who do not respond well to medications, the doctor may recommend deep brain stimulation. MUST READ: Rare Diseases SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following : (2022) Bacteria Fungi Virus Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Biomedical Waste Syllabus Mains – GS III – Environment Context: Biomedical waste, refers to any waste generated during the diagnosis, treatment, or immunization of humans or animals, as well as research activities related to healthcare. This waste can pose serious health and environmental risks due to its potential for carrying infectious materials and hazardous substances. Proper management and disposal of biomedical waste are essential to prevent the spread of infections and protect the environment. Of the total amount of waste generated by healthcare activities, about 85% is a general, non-hazardous waste. The remaining 15% is considered hazardous material that may be infectious, toxic, or radioactive. Environmental Impacts of Biomedical Waste Soil and Water Contamination: This contamination can occur when waste is dumped in landfills or improperly stored, allowing harmful substances to leach into the environment. The presence of hazardous chemicals, pharmaceuticals, and pathogens in biomedical waste can pose serious risks to the quality of soil and water resources. Spread of Infectious Diseases: Inadequate handling and disposal of biomedical waste can lead to the spread of infectious diseases in the environment. Pathogens from the waste can contaminate soil, water, and wildlife, potentially affecting human and ecosystem health. Toxin emissions: The most serious effect that biomedical waste has on our seas is the discharge of poisons into the waters that could then be consumed by ocean life creatures. Food chain contamination: Toxins would interject into the food chain and eventually reach humans who consume sea creatures. Plastic pollution: 85% of disposable plastic materials make up all medical equipment. Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, 2016 The objective of the rules is to properly manage the per day bio-medical waste from Healthcare Facilities (HCFs) across the country. The ambit of the rules has been expanded to include vaccination camps, blood donation camps, surgical camps or any other healthcare activity. Pre-treatment of the laboratory waste, microbiological waste, blood samples and blood bags through disinfection or sterilization on-site in the manner prescribed by the World Health Organization (WHO) or by the National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO). Bio-medical waste has been classified into 4 categories instead of the earlier 10 categories to improve the segregation of waste at source. The rules prescribe more stringent standards for incinerators to reduce the emission of pollutants in the environment. The State Government provides the land for setting up common bio-medical waste treatment and disposal facilities. Challenges to Waste Management Lack of awareness about the health hazards related to healthcare waste Inadequate training in proper waste management Absence of waste management and disposal systems Insufficient financial and human resources Many countries either do not have appropriate regulations or do not enforce them. International Agreement and Conventions The international agreements and conventions which are particularly pertinent in Biomedical Waste Management are- Basel Convention on Hazardous Waste: It is the most inclusive global environmental treaty on hazardous and other wastes. It has 170 member countries, and its objectives are to protect human health and the environment against the adverse effects resulting from the generation, management, and disposal of hazardous wastes, specifically clinical wastes from health care in hospitals, health centers, and clinics. Stockholm Convention on POPs: It is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from POPs (POPs – dioxins and furans). POPs are toxic chemicals that accumulate in the fatty tissue of living organisms and cause damage. These chemicals are formed by medical waste incinerators and other combustion processes. It deals with BEP including source reduction, segregation, resource recovery and recycling, training, and proper collection and transport. Minamata Convention on Mercury It is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from the adverse effects of mercury. On October 10, 2014, in Japan, more than 90 nations signed the first new global convention on environment and health. This treaty includes the phasing out of certain medical equipment in health-care services, including mercury-containing medical items such as thermometers and blood pressure device. Biomedical Waste Treatment in India Conclusion                         Proper segregation, safe storage, and effective treatment methods can minimize the risks associated with biomedical waste. Furthermore, promoting awareness and education on responsible waste management practices is crucial to ensuring the protection of the environment and public health. Connect the Dots How has WHO classified biomedical waste? What are different guidelines given by WHO for medical waste disposal? DEEPFAKES Syllabus Mains – GS III – Science and Technology What are Deepfakes? Deepfakes refer to realistic-looking, AI-generated content, typically images or videos that manipulate or replace the original content with new, often fabricated material. The term “Deepfake” is a combination of “deep learning” and “fake.” The term became popular when a Reddit contributor used publicly available AI-driven software to impose the faces of celebrities onto the bodies of people in pornographic videos. Deepfakes are back in news, after a video of actor Rashmika Mandanna has recently gone viral on social media. Researchers have observed a 230% increase in deepfake usage by cybercriminals and scammers, and have predicted the technology would replace phishing in a couple of years. How Does Deepfake Technology Work? The technology involves modifying or creating images and videos using a machine learning technique called generative adversarial network (GAN). The AI-driven software detects and learns the subjects’ movements and facial expressions from the source material and then duplicates these in another video or image. To ensure that the deepfake created is as close to real as possible, creators use a large database of source images. This is why more deepfake videos are created of public figures, celebrities and politicians. The dataset is then used by one software to create a fake video, while a second software is used to detect signs of forgery in it. Through the collaborative work of the two software, the fake video is rendered until the second software package can no longer detect the forgery. This is known as “unsupervised learning”, when machine-language models teach themselves. The method makes it difficult for other software to identify Deepfakes. Challenges Posed by Deepfakes Promotes ‘Liar’s Dividend’– Liar’s Dividend refers to the situation when an undesirable truth is dismissed as Deepfakes or fake news. Leader’s weaponries Deepfakes to replace an actual piece of media and truth. Ex- Donald Trump Deepfake videos. Deepfakes blur the line between reality and fake. People start dismissing reality as fake. Erosion of trust in democratic processes like elections- Doctored content, most likely in the form of a realistic fake video is presented as fact to alter public perception and create democratic deficit. For Ex- Capitol Hill violence, 2021 was incited by using deep fake media. Crime against women- The deepfakes are being used as a weapon to attack women dignity and chastity. According to AI company Deeptrace report, over 90% of the deepfake videos are pornographic in nature. Fuelling Radicalization and violence- The non-state actors like ISIS and Al-Qaeda, use fake videos to stir anti-state sentiments among people. For Ex- Fake videos showing armed forces committing ‘crimes in conflict areas’. Rise in cybercrimes- Cyber criminals are using deepfake technology to carry out phishing attacks, financial frauds and identity theft. Ex- CEO of a U.K. energy company was tricked using deepfake audio to transfer €2,20,000 to fraudsters. Deepfake Regulation in India and across World India India does not have specific laws or regulations that ban or regulate the use of deepfake technology. Sections 67 and 67A of the Information Technology Act (2000) related to defamation and publishing explicit material is applied in cases of deepfakes. India’s IT Rules, 2021 require that all content reported to be fake or produced using deep fake be taken down by intermediary platforms within 36 hours. Section 500 of the Indian Penal Code (1860) also provides punishment for defamation. United States     The U.S. introduced the bipartisan Deepfake Task Force Act to assist the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) to counter deepfake technology. European Union              European Union has updated Code of Practice on Disinformation that was introduced in 2018 to stop the spread of disinformation through deepfakes. The EU has issued guidelines for the creation of an independent network of fact-checkers to help analyse the sources and processes of content creation China    China has introduced Comprehensive Regulation on Deep Synthesis aimed at curbing disinformation. Conclusion Social media intermediaries have to develop technology to detect and report Deepfakes on their sites like watermarking AI-generated content. For Ex- Microsoft’s video authenticator is a new anti-deep fake technology to fight misinformation. Additionally, there should be ongoing discussions about the need for legal frameworks to address the malicious use of Deepfakes technology. Connect the Dots What can possible positive outcomes using Deepfakes technology? Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Disease Caused by Cholera Vibrio cholerae Plague Yersinia pestis Leprosy Mycobacterium Leprae How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Jericho-1 missile system had a range of 500 kilometres. Statement-II : Jericho-2 Missile System is the first Israeli Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBM). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to theAwaous Motla, consider the following statements: It was discovered from the Mahanadi River. It costs less than several other locally available fish. The species belongs to the family ‘Awaous’ (Oxudercidae). How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  10th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 9th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – a