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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th August 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Atal Bihari Vajpayee Syllabus Prelims –Important Personalities Context: Recently, the Vice President of India paid homage to Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee on his Punya Tithi on 16th August. About Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee:- He was Prime Minister thrice in 1996, 1998-1999, and 1999-2004. Birth: 25, December 1924. Born in Gwalior, Uttar Pradesh. Death:16, August 2018. Sadaiv Atal: the Samadhi of Atal Bihari Vajpayee. Political Career:- He was the first non-Congress PM to have finished a full term. He was elected 10 times to the Lok Sabha from four different States. He was twice a member of the Rajya Sabha. His birthday, December 25, is observed as Good Governance Day by the government. Awards:- 2015: He was awarded India’s highest civilian honor, Bharat Ratna. 1992: He was also awarded Padma Vibhushan. (Padma awards) Ideology:- He advocated and practiced positive nationalism. He proudly took Hindi to the UN first time and spoke it in the General Assembly. Important Initiatives:- He conducted the nuclear test in Pokhran in 1998. He himself rode a bus to Lahore in 1999 for Indo-Pak peace. He initiated the Delhi Metro rail as a mass transit system. He brought in National Highway Development Project leading to East West North South Corridor or the Golden Quadrilateral. He envisaged and executed the first round of Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana which connected rural India greatly. The New Telecom Policy of 1999 brought in by him was also a crucial part of the Indian telecom revolution.  Flagship Policy Initiatives:- Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan: Launched in 2000-2001 to provide free and compulsory education to children between 6 to 14 years. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana: it was launched on 25th December 2000 to provide all-weather access to unconnected habitations. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas: these conventions are being held every year since 2003.  MUST READ: Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyay SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The world’s second tallest statue in the sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja? (2022) The best means of salvation was devotion. Vedas are eternal, self-existent, and wholly authoritative. Logical arguments were meant for the highest bliss. Salvation was to be obtained through meditation. Q.2) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only PM Vishwakarma scheme Syllabus Prelims –Government Schemes Context: Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the ‘PM Vishwakarma’ scheme. Background:- The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi approved a new Central Sector Scheme “PM Vishwakarma” with a financial outlay of Rs.13,000 crore for a period of five years (FY 2023-24 to FY 2027-28). About PM Vishwakarma scheme:- IMAGE SOURCE: oneindia.com Launched: 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME). It is a Central Sector Scheme. Objectives of PM Vishwakarma scheme:- To strengthen and nurture the Guru-Shishya parampara or family-based practice of traditional skills by artisans and craftspeople working with their hands and tools. To improve the quality, as well as the reach of products and services of artisans and craftspeople. To ensure that the Vishwakarmas are integrated with the domestic and global value chains. Salient Features of PM Vishwakarma scheme:- The artisans and craftspeople will be provided recognition through a PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card. Credit Support: Credit of up to Rs.1 lakh (First Tranche) and Rs.2 lakh (Second Tranche) will be given with a concessional interest rate of 5%. Skill learning: The Scheme will further provide Skill Upgradation, Toolkit Incentives, Incentives for Digital Transactions, and Marketing Support. Training: Skill development programs encompass both basic and advanced training. Stipend: Participants are entitled to a stipend of Rs 500 per day during their training period. Modern Tools and Equipment: Beneficiaries are eligible for financial support of up to ₹15,000 to procure modern tools, enhancing their efficiency and productivity. Sectors: Eighteen traditional trades will be covered in the first instance under PM Vishwakarma. These trades include (i) Carpenter (Suthar); (ii) Boat Maker; (iii) Armourer; (iv) Blacksmith (Lohar); (v) Hammer and Tool Kit Maker; (vi) Locksmith; (vii) Goldsmith (Sonar); (viii) Potter (Kumhaar); (ix) Sculptor (Moortikar, stone carver), Stone breaker; (x) Cobbler(Charmkar)/ Shoesmith/Footwear artisan; (xi) Mason (Rajmistri); (xii) Basket/Mat/Broom Maker/Coir Weaver; (xiii) Doll & Toy Maker (Traditional); (xiv) Barber (Naai); (xv) Garland maker (Malakaar); (xvi) Washerman (Dhobi); (xvii) Tailor (Darzi); and (xviii) Fishing Net Maker. Eligibility Criteria: – Indian Citizenship: Applicants must be Indian. Artisan or Craftsman: The applicant should be a traditional artisan or craftsman. Age Limit: No Age Limit for applying to the scheme Benefits of PM Vishwakarma scheme:- The scheme will provide support to artisans and craftspeople in rural and urban areas across India. It caters to both urban and rural areas, facilitating employment. (MSME Sustainable (ZED) Certification Scheme) Funding for training programs to enhance traditional skills. MUST READ: PM SVANidhi scheme SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Vindhyagiri Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: Recently, the Steel Authority of India Ltd (SAIL) supplied the entire 4000 Tonnes of Special Steel for India’s indigenous sixth frigate ship, “Vindhyagiri”. About Vindhyagiri:- Lunched: 17 AUGUST 2023. Naming: it is named after the mountain range in Karnataka, Vindhyagiri. It is the sixth ship of the Project 17A programme. Project 17 Alpha frigates (P-17A): launched by the Indian Navy in The project was launched to construct a series of stealth guided-missile frigates. Aligning with the country’s resolute commitment to ‘AatmaNirbharta’, a substantial 75% of the orders for equipment and systems of Project 17A ships are from indigenous firms, including Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). Mazagaon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL): is responsible for constructing four of the Project 17A frigates. MDL: A Mumbai-based shipbuilding company. ( Dunagiri, a Project 17A Frigate) Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Limited (GRSE): A shipbuilding company located in Kolkata, tasked with constructing three Project 17A frigates. It is a technologically advanced frigate. It is the sixth and final ship of this series from the Nilgiri Class Frigates. Nilgiri Class Frigates: A class of frigates within the Indian Navy to serve in various maritime roles, including surveillance, patrol, and anti-piracy operations. It is for Maritime Surveillance to ensure security, safety, and compliance with maritime laws and regulations. MUST READ: Atmanirbhar Bharat 3.0 SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Aditya L1 Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context:  Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has planned its next launch of the Aditya L1 satellite in August 2023 About Aditya L1:- Aditya L1 shall be the first space-based Indian mission to study the Sun. Launched by: ISRO. Launch Vehicle: PSLV-XL. ( PSLV-C54 launch) Destination: The spacecraft shall be placed in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system, which is about 1.5 million km from the Earth. Lagrange points: specific locations in space where the gravitational forces of two large bodies, such as a planet and its moon or a planet and the Sun, produce enhanced regions of gravitational equilibrium. There are five primary Lagrangian points, labeled L1 through L5, in a Sun-Earth system. L1 (Lagrange Point 1):- Founded by: Joseph Louis Lagrange. Location: about 1.5 million kilometers inside Earth’s orbit, between the Sun and the Earth. The L1 point of the Earth-Sun system gives a clear view of the sun all the time, without any occultation/ eclipses. Significance of Aditya L1: It will provide a greater advantage in observing solar activities and their effect on space weather in real-time. Objectives of Aditya L1:- Study of Solar upper atmospheric Study of chromospheric and coronal heating, physics of the partially ionized plasma, initiation of the coronal mass ejections, and flares. Sun’s corona: the outermost layer of its atmosphere Study of the Physics of the solar corona and its heating mechanism. Study of Diagnostics of the coronal and coronal loops plasma: Temperature, velocity, and density. Study of Magnetic field topology and magnetic field measurements in the solar corona. MUST READ: Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Matangini Hazra and Kanaklata Barua Syllabus Prelims –History Context: Recently, President Droupadi Murmu paid tribute to Matangini Hazra and Kanaklata Barua. About Matangini Hazra:- Birth: 1869. Birth place Tamluk, West Bengal. Death:1942. She was married at a young age and became widowed at 18. After her husband’s death, she dedicated herself to social causes. She was involved in the Nationalist movement. She became an active member of the Indian National Congress and took to spinning her own Khadi. Ideology: She supported Mahatma Gandhi’s ideals. ( Mahatma Gandhi) People fondly called her Gandhi Buri (Old Lady Gandhi) for her dedication towards Gandhian principles. Political Participation: Civil Disobedience Movement, the Salt March, and Quit India Movement. (UPSC CSE: India and Mahatma Gandhi) 1933: When Sir John Anderson, Governor of Bengal visited Tamluk to address a public gathering, Matangini craftily managed to avoid the security and reached the dais where she waved a black flag. She was awarded six months of rigorous imprisonment for her bravado. During the Quit India Movement in 1942, at the age of 73, she led a large procession of around 6,000 protesters, advocating for the takeover of the Tamluk police station. In the ensuing clash with British authorities, she was shot and killed, becoming a martyr for the cause of Indian independence. About Kanaklata Barua:- Birth: 22 December 1924 Birthplace: Assam. Death: 1942. She was a young martyr of the Quit India Movement and a symbol of courage and determination. Participation: At just 17 years old, she led the Mrityu Bahini, a group of freedom fighters, in an attempt to hoist the Tricolour at the Gohpur police station in Assam on September 20, 1942. Contributions and Inspiration: – Despite her age, she was determined to lead the procession. During the confrontation with the police, she was shot and killed while holding onto the flag. Her sacrifice inspired many during a time when women’s involvement in the freedom struggle was gaining momentum. Legacy: In 2020, the Indian Coast Guard honoured her memory by naming a Fast Patrol Vessel (FPV) after her, the ICGS Kanaklata Barua. MUST READ: Gandhi as Political thinker and a Social reformer SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal, designated as the Governor General of India? (2023) The Regulating Act The Pitt’s India Act The Charter Act of 1793 The Charter Act of 1833 Q.2) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The Centre has pushed for faster admission of corporate insolvency cases at the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT). Background:- Faster admission of corporate insolvency cases is one of the key themes of the draft guidelines for the NCLT, which are being finalized by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA). About National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT):- Establishment: 2016 It was established based on the recommendation of the Balakrishna Eradi committee. Balakrishna Eradi committee: a committee on the law relating to the insolvency and the winding up of companies. Ministry: Ministry of Corporate Affairs. HQ: New Delhi. It is a quasi-judicial authority. It is incorporated for dealing with corporate disputes that are of civil nature arising under the Companies Act,2013. Composition: President and such number of Judicial and Technical Members as may be required. Powers of NCLT:- It is not limited or bound by the rules laid down in the Code of Civil Procedure. (Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022) It is guided by the principles of natural justice, subject to the other provisions of this Act and of any rules that are made by the Central Government. It can enforce any order that it gives in the same manner as a court would enforce it. It has the power to scrutinize its own orders. It has the power to regulate its own procedure. It is the adjudicating authority for the insolvency resolution process of companies and limited liability partnerships under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. MUST READ: Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2020 SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following .activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization’? (2023) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations Oversight of settlement and payment systems Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments Regulating the Functions of Nonbanking Financial Institutions Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) A share of the household’s financial savings goes towards government borrowings. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Pradhan Mantri Museum and Library (PMML) Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: The Nehru Memorial Museum & Library (NMML) Society has been renamed to Pradhan Mantri Museum and Library (PMML) Society. About Pradhan Mantri Museum and Library (PMML) S:- Designed by: Robert Tor Russel. Ministry: Ministry of Culture, Government of India. Location: New Delhi. It is located in the historic Teen Murti campus located south of Rashtrapati Bhavan in New Delhi. It is an autonomous institution. Objective: promoting advanced research on Modern and Contemporary India. Administration: The General Council and the President and Vice-President of the PMML Society are nominated by the Central Government. Historical Background:- It was built in 1929-30 as part of Edwin Lutyens’ imperial capital. Teen Murti House was the official residence of the Commander-in-Chief in India. 1948: after the departure of the last British Commander-in-Chief, Teen Murti House became the official residence of independent India’s first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, who lived here for sixteen years until his death on May 27, 1964. 1964: On Jawaharlal Nehru’s 75th birth anniversary on November 14, 1964, Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan, President of India, formally dedicated the Teen Murti House to the nation as the Nehru Memorial Museum. 1966: On 1 April 1966, the Government set up the Prime Ministers Museum and Library (PMML) Society to manage the institution. Major Constituents:- It has four major constituents, namely:- Memorial Museum Library on modern India Centre for Contemporary Studies (Amar Jawan Jyoti, War Memorial merged) Nehru Planetarium MUST READ: Sardar Patel – The Iron Man of India SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Who among the following is associated with ‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English? (2021) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Jawaharlal Nehru Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi Sarojini Naidu Q.2) In the context of Colonial India, Shah Nawaz Khan, Prem Kumar Sehgal, and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon is remembered as (2021) leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott Movement members of the Interim Government in 1946 members of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly officers of the Indian National Army Mains: Cauvery river water dispute Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Geography) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, the Tamil Nadu government urged the Supreme Court to direct Karnataka to ensure the release of water as per the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal (CWDT)’s final award of February 2007 that was modified by the SC in 2018. About Cauvery river: Source:    Indiawris.com Cauvery (or Kaveri) is the largest river in the state and originates at Talakaveri at Talakaveri in the Brahmagiri hills of the Western Ghats in Karnataka. It is often called the Dakshina Ganga (the Ganges of the South) and considered one of the sacred rivers of India. The origin of the River Kaveri, is a famous pilgrimage and tourist spot set amidst Bramahagiri Hills near Madikeri in Coorg. The tributaries of the Kaveri include: Harangi, Hemavathi (origin in western Ghats joins the river Kaveri near Krishnarajasagar), Lakshmanatirtha, Kabini (originates in Kerala and flows eastward and joins the Kaveri at Tirumakudal, Narasipur), Shimsha, Arkavati, Suvarnavathi or Honnuholé, Bhavani, Lokapavani, Noyyal, Amaravati. Cauvery Water Dispute: The dispute involves three states and one Union Territory (Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka and Puducherry). The dispute is almost 150 years old and dates to the two agreements of arbitration in 1892 and 1924between the then Madras presidency and Mysore. It entailed the principle that the upper riparian state must obtain consent of lower riparian state for any construction activity viz. reservoir on the river Cauvery. From 1974, Karnataka started diverting water into its four newly made reservoirs, without the consent of Tamil Nadu resulting in a dispute. To resolve the matter, the CWDT (Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal) was established in 1990, which took 17 years to arrive at the final order (2007) on how Cauvery water should be shared between the 4 riparian states in normal rainfall conditions. CWDT was constituted by the Central Government, in exercise of the powers conferred by section 4 of the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956.( Inter State River Water Dispute Act, 1956) Water sharing mechanism: Final order of the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal In 2007, the three-member Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal delivered its final award on. While considering that the total availability of water the Cauvery basin spread across the 4 states is 740 TMC in a “normal year” the Tribunal has allocated the water as follows: Tamil Nadu: 419 TMC (which had demanded 512 TMC), Karnataka: 270 TMC (which had demanded 465 TMC), Kerala: 30 TMC, and Pondicherry: 7 TMC Besides allocating 726 TMC for the four states, the award reserves 10 TMC for environmental purposes and 4 TMC for inevitable outlets into the sea. Impacts of the Issue: Agricultural Distress: Farmers in the Cauvery Basin heavily depend on the river’s water for irrigating their crops, particularly during the crucial sowing and growing stages. Fluctuations in water availability due to the dispute have resulted in the following consequences: Crop Failures: Inconsistent water supply has led to crop failures, reducing farmers’ incomes and pushing them into debt. Unpredictable Planning: Farmers find it challenging to plan their agricultural activities effectively due to uncertainty about water availability, affecting crop choices and cultivation practices. Economic Losses: Crop losses translate to economic losses for farmers, affecting their livelihoods and contributing to the cycle of poverty. Water Scarcity: Water scarcity is a significant outcome of the dispute, impacting various aspects of daily life and the environment: Drinking Water Shortages: Reduced water allocation affects the availability of clean and safe drinking water for both urban and rural populations. Hygiene and Health Issues: Water scarcity can lead to inadequate sanitation and hygiene practices, increasing the risk of waterborne diseases. Ecological Impact: Insufficient water flow in the river affects aquatic ecosystems, biodiversity, and the overall health of the river. Urbanization Challenges: Rapid urbanization in both states has increased water demand for domestic and industrial purposes, exacerbating water scarcity issues. Political Tensions: The Cauvery water dispute has had significant political implications and has often been a source of tension between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu: Interstate Relations: The dispute strains relations between the two states, affecting collaboration in other areas and hindering overall development. Public Outcry: The public often demands strong action from political leaders, putting pressure on them to adopt aggressive stances on the issue. Protests and Violence: The dispute has led to protests, rallies, and even violent incidents, which disrupt normal life and can lead to law and order problems. Legal Battles: The protracted legal battles over water sharing consume time, resources, and energy that could be otherwise invested in pursuits that are more productive. The current issue: Karnataka would have to provide 0.86 TMC a day or 12.9 TMC totally in the 15 days. The Authority also decided that based on future rainfall; there would be a re-evaluation of the quantity to be released. However, what apparently irked Tamil Nadu was the refusal of Karnataka to abide by the quantity that was agreed upon at the meeting. According to data of the Meteorological Department, Kodagu received 44% less rainfall during June 1-August 15 than what it was expected to experience. Karnataka has contended that lower rainfall in the Cauvery catchment including in Kerala has led to the poor inflow to its own reservoirs. Way forward: The river should not be the possession of any one state. It is a common public trust. People are the owners and the state is merely a custodian but the states have become dogmatic about their custodianship. They have started using their rights as territorial rights. With continued efforts from all stakeholders, it is possible to find a balanced and equitable solution that ensures the sustainable use of the Cauvery River’s water resources while addressing the needs of the riparian states. Source:   The Hindu Must Read: Indus Water Treaty Antimicrobial Resistance and Air Pollution Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: According to the Lancet Planetary Journal, Air laden with unhealthy amounts of PM2.5 can become a highway for antibiotic-resistant bacteria and genes. About Antimicrobials and Anti-microbial resistance: Antimicrobials – including antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals and antiparasitics – are medicines used to prevent and treat infections in humans, animals and plants. Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) occurs when bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites change over time and no longer respond to medicines making infections harder to treat and increasing the risk of disease spread, severe illness and death. As a result of drug resistance, antibiotics and other antimicrobial medicines become ineffective and infections become increasingly difficult or impossible to treat. Factors that accelerates the emergence and spread of AMR: AMR occurs naturally over time, usually through genetic changes. Antimicrobial resistant organisms are found in people, animals, food, plants and the environment (in water, soil and air). They can spread from person to person or between people and animals, including from food of animal origin. The main drivers of antimicrobial resistance include the misuse and overuse of antimicrobials; lack of access to clean water, sanitation and hygiene (WASH) for both humans and animals; poor infection and disease prevention and control in health-care facilities and farms; poor access to quality, affordable medicines, vaccines and diagnostics; lack of awareness and knowledge; and lack of enforcement of legislation. AMR in India Data show that India leads the world in antibiotic use. The indiscriminate use of antibiotics among people and animals, poor hygiene and sanitation, and lack of awareness have fueled this rise. The COVID-19 pandemic only exacerbated these issues, together with a surge in the sales of antibiotics to treat bronchitis and pneumonia. The higher circulation of antibiotic-resistant bacteria and antibiotic-resistance genes (ARGs) across humans, animals, and environments also creates new transmission pathways. A 2019 study found India’s rivers and lakes to be concentrated with antimicrobial-resistant bacteria. Pharmaceutical wastewater and untreated effluents from hospitals were the root causes. Particulate Matter (PM): Particulate matter (PM) are inhalable and respirable particles composed of sulphate, nitrates, ammonia, sodium chloride, black carbon, mineral dust and water. PM 2.5 refers to tiny particles or droplets in the air that are 2 ½ microns or less in width. Sources: The most common human-made sources include internal combustion engines, power generation, industrial processes, agricultural processes, construction, and residential wood and coal burning. The most common natural sources for PM2.5 are dust storms, sandstorms, and wildfires. (UPSC CSE: Air pollution) Relation between PM and AMR The authors of the journal have found that every 10% rise in air pollution was correlated with an AMR increase of 1.1% across countries and continents. 5 emissions from burning firewood in homes for cooking or heating could carry bacteria and antibiotic-resistant genes, be transmitted over long distances, and eventually be inhaled by individuals. 5 is known to penetrate the body’s defences and enter the bloodstream and lungs – a symptom associated with chronic conditions such as cancer, heart disease, and asthma. The analysis found that the contribution of PM2.5 to AMR was found to be greater than that of antibiotic use or due to drinking water. Issues Difficulty in treating infections: Microbial resistance to antibiotics has made it harder to treat infections such as pneumonia, tuberculosis (TB), blood-poisoning (septicaemia) and several food-borne diseases. Rising health cost: AMR also imposes a huge health cost on the patient in the form of longer hospitalisation, health complications and delayed recovery. AMR adds to the burden of communicable diseases and strains the health systems of a country. Other patients also at risk: It puts patients undergoing major surgeries and treatments, such as chemotherapy, at a greater risk. Many times, patients recover from advanced medical procedures but succumb to untreatable infections. Antimicrobials in the agri-food system: There is also an urgent need to reduce the usage of antimicrobials in the agri-food system. Scientific evidence suggests that the less antimicrobials are used, it is less likely that there will be an emergence of drug resistance. Measures Taken to Rising Antimicrobial Resistance in India: National Action Plan on Antimicrobial Resistance (NAP-AMR): It has a focus on the One Health approach and was launched with the aim of involving various stakeholders’ ministries/departments. AMR Surveillance Network: ICMR established the AMR surveillance and research network (AMRSN) to generate evidence and capture trends and patterns of drug resistant infections in the country. AMR Research and International Collaboration: ICMR has taken initiatives to develop new drugs /medicines through international collaborations in order to strengthen medical research in AMR. India’s National Action Plan for containment of AMR: It focuses on an integrated One Health approach and involves coordination at the state, national and international levels. Key priority of National Health Policy 2017: In its National Health Policy 2017, India has identified managing AMR as a key priority and since then the health ministry has taken several initiatives to nip the epidemic that is growing fast globally. WHO Initiatives at the global level: Global Action Plan on Antimicrobial Resistance (GAP) World Antimicrobial Awareness Week (WAAW) The Global Antimicrobial Resistance and Use Surveillance System (GLASS) Source:   DTE Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Missions to the Sun Space Agency 1.Aditya-L1 ISRO 2.Parker Solar Probe NASA 3.DSCOVR NASA How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: PM Vishwakarma scheme is under the Ministry of Culture. Statement-II: Credit support of up to Rs.1 lakh (First Tranche) and Rs.2 lakh (Second Tranche) will be given under the scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee was Prime Minister of India thrice. Statement-II: He was also awarded Padma Vibhushan in 2002. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What are the historical roots of the Cauvery water-sharing conflict between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu? How has this dispute affected agriculture, water scarcity, and political tensions in the region? How successfully has centre handled various inter-state river water dispute? Comment (250 words) Q.2) Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) is a classic “tragedy of the commons”. Examine. Also, analyse the correlation between pollution and antibiotic resistance. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 17th August 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 16th August – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th August 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Gallantry awards Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: President Droupadi Murmu approved 76 Gallantry awards on the eve of Independence Day. Background:- These include four Kirti Chakra, all posthumous, 11 Shaurya Chakras, including five posthumous, two Bar to Sena Medals (Gallantry), 52 Sena Medals (Gallantry), three Nao Sena Medals (Gallantry) and four Vayu Sena Medals (Gallantry). About Gallantry Awards:- These gallantry awards are announced twice a year. The first on the occasion of Republic Day and then on the occasion of Independence Day. Order of precedence: Param Vir Chakra, the Ashoka Chakra, the Mahavir Chakra, the Kirti Chakra, the Vir Chakra, and the Shaurya Chakra. All the gallantry awards may be awarded posthumously. Historical Background:- Post-independence, the first three gallantry awards namely Param Vir Chakra, Maha Vir Chakra, and Vir Chakra. They were instituted by the Government of India on 26th January 1950. Thereafter, other three gallantry awardse. Ashoka Chakra Class-I, Ashoka Chakra Class-II, and Ashoka Chakra Class-III were instituted by the Government of India on 4th January 1952. These awards were renamed Ashoka Chakra, Kirti Chakra, and Shaurya Chakra respectively in January 1967. MUST READ: Padma awards SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Bindeshwar Pathak Syllabus Prelims – Important Personalities Context: The founder of ‘Sulabh International’ Bindeshwar Pathak passed away. He was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 1991. About Sulabh International:- Founded: 1970. Founded by: Dr Bindeshwar Pathak. HQ: New Delhi. Objectives: to achieve equitable sanitation and hygiene for all. It has been at the forefront of the Government of India’s flagship Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (Clean India Campaign) with a focus on ending open defecation. It stresses adopting a gender-inclusive approach in its intervention programmes. It has been awarded the Gandhi Peace Prize for 2016. ‘SULABH MUSEUM OF TOILETS’, was rated by Time magazine as One of the 10 unique museums in the world. Areas of Functioning:- Equitable sanitation (Preventive Measures for Manual Scavenging) Rural sanitation Urban Sanitation Water for all Community toilets in slums (Stop Manual Scavenging) Fecal sludge Management Awareness and advocacy Ensuring the Dignity of Manual Scavengers MUST READ: Manual Scavenging in India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution: (2023) Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution. There is no known ·safe level of exposure to mercury. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)? (2022) CCO is the major source of coal Statistics in the Government of India. It monitors the progress of the development of Captive Coal/ Lignite blocks. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to the acquisition of coal-bearing areas. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 4 Rashtrapati Bhavan Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: On the occasion of 77th Independence Day, President Droupadi Murmu on August 15 hosted ‘At Home’ reception at Rashtrapati Bhavan in Delhi. About Rashtrapati Bhavan:- Location: on Rajpath, New Delhi, India. It is situated on Raisina Hill. Designed by: Sir Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker. Built in 1929. The Rashtrapati Bhavan (‘Presidential Palace’) is the official residence of the President of India. This presidential residence took seventeen years to build and was finished in 1929. The presidential office, guest rooms, and staff rooms are among the more than 300 rooms. It employs 750 people, including 245 working in the President’s Secretariat. The King George V’s silver chair, can be found at the Gift Museum of Rashtrapati Bhavan, where he sat at the Delhi Durbar in 1911. The Ashoka Hall of Rashtrapati Bhavan is used for ceremonial functions such as the swearing-in of Ministers. Rashtrapati Bhavan Museum It is a world-class museum inside the Bhavan with a high-tech story-telling format. It is a contextual narrative woven around original exhibits. Rashtrapati Bhavan Mughal Garden The designs for the Mughal Gardens were created by Sir Edwin Lutyens as early as 1917. MUST READ: C.Rajagopalachari (1878-1972) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora River. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal River. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari River. Tampara Lake Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology/Geography Context: National Green Tribunal (NGT) has asked the Odisha government to stop ‘illegal’ construction in and around Tampara Lake. Background:- The National Green Tribunal, Eastern Zone, has directed the Odisha government not to go ahead with ‘illegal’ construction in and around Tampara Lake, a designated Ramasar site and one of the largest picturesque freshwater lakes of the State. ( NGT) About Tampara Lake:- Location: Ganjam district, Odisha. Formed: 1766. Formation: It was formed due to explosives used during a battle. The depression on the ground gradually filled with rainwater from the catchment flow. It was called “Tamp” by the British and subsequently termed “Tampra” by the locals it is connected to the Rushikulya River. It is among the most prominent freshwater lakes in Odisha. The wetland is an important habitat for vulnerable species such as Cyprinus carpio, common pochard (Aythya ferina), and river tern (Sterna aurantia). It was given Ramsar site status in 2021. MUST READ: COP14 of Ramsar Convention on Wetlands SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019) Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of the Ramsar Convention. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Earthquake Syllabus Prelims –Geography/Disaster Management Context: Recently, an Earthquake jolted Dhaka, and nearby areas in Bangladesh. Background:- An earthquake measuring around 5.4 on the Richter scale jolted Dhaka and some other areas in Bangladesh this evening. About Earthquake:- An earthquake is the shaking or trembling of the earth’s surface. It is caused by the seismic waves or earthquake waves that are generated due to a sudden movement (sudden release of energy) in the earth’s crust (shallow-focus earthquakes) or upper mantle (some shallow-focus and all intermediate and deep-focus earthquakes). A seismograph, or seismometer, is an instrument used to detect and record earthquakes. Hypocentre/Focus: The point where the energy is released. Epicentre: The point on the surface directly above the focus. Isoseismic line: A line connecting all points on the surface where the intensity is the same. Causes of Earthquakes:- Fault Zones Plate tectonics Volcanic activity Human-Induced Earthquakes Types of Earthquakes:- Tectonic Earthquakes The most common ones are tectonic earthquakes. The Earth is made of four basic layers (generally three): a solid crust, a hot, nearly solid mantle, a liquid outer core and a solid inner core. Tectonic plates (Lithospheric plates) are constantly shifting as they drift around on the viscous, or slowly flowing, mantle layer below. When tectonic plates move, it also causes movements at the (Anatolian Plate) Thus, the slipping of land along the faultline along convergent, divergent and transform boundaries cause earthquakes. Volcanic Earthquake Earthquakes produced by stress changes in solid rock due to the injection or withdrawal of magma (molten rock) are called volcano earthquakes. (Volcano) Human Induced Earthquakes In areas of intense mining activity, sometimes the roofs of underground mines collapse causing minor tremors. These are called collapse earthquakes. Ground shaking may also occur due to the explosion of chemical or nuclear devices. Such tremors are called explosion earthquakes. MUST READ: Urban Flooding SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                                   Turkey Amhara                                                    Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                          Spain Catalonia                                                   Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) consider the following statements: (2020) Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. Only some cyclones develop an eye. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C lesser than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only Open Market Sale Scheme scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The Centre has decided to release 50 Lakh Metric Tonnes of wheat and 25 LMT of rice through E-auctions under the Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic) or OMSS (D) scheme. About Open Market Sale Scheme scheme (OMSS):- Launched: 1965. Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture. Implementing Agency: Food Corporation of India (FCI). Objectives: to enhance the supply of food grains (ensuring food security) during the lean season and thereby moderate the open market prices (controlling inflation), especially in the deficit regions. Salient Features of OMSS:- The purpose of OMSS is to dispose of surplus stocks of wheat and rice held by FCI and to regulate the prices of wheat in the open market. Under the OMSS, the FCI from time to time sells surplus food grains from the central pool, especially wheat and rice in the open market to traders, bulk consumers, retail chains, etc., at pre­determined prices. The FCI does this through e-­auctions where open market bidders can buy specified quantities. FCI conducts weekly auctions for the OMSS for wheat on the platform of the National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange Limited (NCDEX). NCDEX: a commodity exchange platform in India that provides a platform for trading in various agricultural and other commodities. States are also allowed to procure food grains through the OMSS without participating in the auctions, for their needs. Revision of OMSS:- The Centre decided to restrict the quantity that a single bidder can purchase from 3,000 metric tonnes (MT) to 10­-100 MT. This was done to accommodate more small and marginal buyers, curb retail prices as allowing smaller bids should ideally break monopolies of bulk buyers, allowing more competitive bids by small buyers Steps Taken by States:- States are considering alternative methods of obtaining wheat and rice. For example, TN is trying to purchase rice from government agencies other than FCI.  MUST READ: Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger( Guizotia aoyssinica) seeds. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in the news in the recent past for its very severe famine? (2023) Angola Costa Rica Ecuador Somalia Mains: Cloudbursts Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Geography) Context: Recently, cloudbursts have been reported from several places in India. About cloudbursts: A cloudburst is a localized but intense rainfall activity. According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD) a cloudburst features very heavy rainfall over a localized area at a very high rate of the order of 10 cm per hour featuring strong winds and lightning over a geographical region of approximately 20 to 30 Sq. Kms. By this definition, 5 cm of rainfall in a half-hour period over the same area would also be categorized as a cloudburst. Occurrence: The relative humidity and cloud cover is at the maximum level with low temperature and slow winds because of which a high amount of clouds may get condensed at a very rapid rate and result in a cloudburst. As temperatures increase, the atmosphere can hold more and more moisture and this moisture comes down as a short very intense rainfall for a short duration probably half an hour or one hour resulting in flash floods in the mountainous areas and urban floods in the cities. Cloudburst are different from Rainfall: Rain is condensed water falling from a cloud while cloudburst is a sudden heavy rainstorm. Rain over 100mm per hour is categorised as a cloudburst. The cloudburst is a natural phenomenon, but occurs quite unexpectedly, very abruptly, and rather drenching. Impact of Climate Change: Several studies have shown that climate change will increase the frequency and intensity of cloudbursts in many cities across the globe. In May 2021, the World Meteorological Organization noted that there is about a 40% chance of the annual average global temperature temporarily reaching 1.5°C above the pre-industrial level in at least one of the next five years. It added that there is a 90% likelihood of at least one year between 2021 and 2025 becoming the warmest on record and dislodge 2016 from the top rank. Impacts of Cloudburst: Flooding: A cloudburst can have a devastating impact triggering flash floods. These floods can cause uprooting of trees and movement of boulders and other debris. Damage to infrastructure: Cloudbursts can also damage houses, roads, loss of bridges because of the sheer force in which the downpour occurs. Landslides: Sudden heavy rain caused by cloudbursts in hilly and mountainous areas can trigger landslides. Another effect of cloudbursts is the damage they can cause to trees, plants, and crops, loss of arable land, livestock. Cloudburst prone areas in India: Cloudbursts in India occur mostly over the rugged terrains of the Himalayas, the Western Ghats, and northeastern hill States of India. The heavy spells of rain on the fragile steep slopes trigger landslides, debris flows, and flash floods, causing large-scale destruction and loss of people and property. On July 8, 2022, flash floods occurred in the Lidder Valley en route to Amarnath Temple in Jammu and Kashmir, taking the lives of several pilgrims. Strong monsoon wind surges along the coast can also result in cloudbursts, as in the case of Mumbai (2005) and Chennai (2015). Coastal cities are particularly vulnerable to cloudbursts since the flash floods make the conventional storm water and flood management policies in these cities dysfunctional. Measures to prevent and reduce the devastating impacts of cloudbursts: Regulation of construction activities along riverbanks with special consideration to water level during heavy rainfall. Strengthening of embankments, barrages and dams to constrain and regulate water flow. Localized planning taking into consideration the ecologically fragile nature of the region and involving the local communities. Regulate infrastructure projects and preserve the sanctity of eco-sensitive zones. Better forecasting by IMD and incorporation of advanced technology to monitor and predict extreme weather events can enable early warning, evacuation and preparedness Adoption of ecofriendly policies and eco-sensitive tourism for development of the region. Incorporation of disaster management and prevention into the developmental planning process. It is seen that more cloudbursts are happening in Himalayan region because the decadal temperature rise in the Himalayan region is higher than the global rate of rising temperatures. Is it possible to forecast cloudburst? The India Meteorological Department forecasts rainfall events well in advance, but it does not predict the quantum of rainfall — in fact, no meteorological agency does. The forecasts are for a relatively large geographical area, usually a region, a state, a meteorological sub-division, or at best a district. As they zoom in over smaller areas, the forecasts get more and more uncertain. Therefore, specific cloudburst events cannot be forecast. Way Forward: Climate change is projected to increase the frequency and intensity of cloudbursts worldwide. A 1-degree Celsius rise in temperature may correspond to a 7-10% increase in moisture and rainfall. As the moisture holding capacity of air increases, it results in prolonged dry periods intermittent with short spells of extreme rains and thus, deeper cumulonimbus clouds form, and the chances of cloudbursts increase. Thus, urgent action and policies are needed to protect lives and property from extreme events that will amplify as the global temperature change doubles. Source:   Indian Express The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2023, was recently introduced in Rajya Sabha. Key Features of the Bill Election Commission: As per Article 324 of the Constitution, the Election Commission consists of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and such number of other Election Commissioners (ECs), as the President may decide. The CEC and other ECs are appointed by the President. The Bill specifies the same composition of the Election Commission. It adds that the CEC and other ECs will be appointed by the President on the recommendation of a Selection Committee. Selection Committee: The Selection Committee will consist of: (i) the Prime Minister as Chairperson, (ii) the Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha as member, and (iii) a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister as member. If the Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha has not been recognised, the leader of the single largest opposition party in Lok Sabha will assume the role. Search Committee: A Search Committee will prepare a panel of five persons for the consideration of the Selection Committee. The Search Committee will be headed by the Cabinet Secretary. It will have two other members, not below the rank of Secretary to the central government, having knowledge and experience in matters related to elections. The Selection Committee may also consider candidates who have not been included in the panel prepared by the Search Committee. Qualification of CEC and ECs: Persons who are holding or have held posts equivalent to the rank of Secretary to the central government will be eligible to be appointed as CEC and ECs. Such persons must have expertise in managing and conducting elections. Salary and allowances: The 1991 Act provides that the salary of the ECs will be equal to that of a Supreme Court judge. The Bill provides that salary, allowance, and service conditions of the CEC and other ECs will be the same as that of the Cabinet Secretary. Term of office: The 1991 Act mandates that the CEC and other ECs will hold office for a term of six years or until they reach the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. If an EC is appointed as the CEC, his total term cannot exceed six years. The Bill retains the same tenure. Further, under the Bill, the CEC and other ECs will not be eligible for re-appointment. Conduct of business: All business of the Election Commission is to be conducted unanimously. In case of difference of opinion between the CEC and the other ECs on any matter, it shall be decided through majority. Removal and resignation: Under Article 324 of the Constitution, the CEC can only be removed from his office in a manner similar to that of a Supreme Court judge. This is done through an order of the President, based on a motion passed by both Houses of Parliament in the same session. The motion for removal must be adopted with: (i) majority support of total membership of each House, and (ii) at least two-thirds support from members present and voting. An EC can only be removed from office on the recommendation of the CEC. The Bill retains this removal procedure. Further, the 1991 Act provides that the CEC and other ECs may submit their resignation to the President. The Bill has the same provision. Significance of the bill: The Election Commission, led by a CEC and two other commissioners, is much too critical a body for the functioning of India’s democracy and integrity of elections to leave exposed to charges of external influence. A Supreme Court judgement stated that the Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and Chief Justice of India (CJI) would decide the EC’s leadership—until the Centre came up with a law. Concerns about the bill: Balance of Power: The Prime Minister and a Cabinet Minister (nominated by the Prime Minister) forming part of the three-member committee, the Leader of Opposition is left with a minority vote even before the process begins. This raises questions about the balance of power within the committee and whether the selection process truly ensures independence or remains skewed in favour of the Executive. Impact on Electoral Governance: The proposed changes may have implications for the autonomy and functioning of the ECI. The independence of the Election Commission is crucial for ensuring impartiality and integrity in the conduct of elections. Any perceived influence of the Executive in the selection process might raise concerns about the EC’s ability to carry out its responsibilities without bias. Alignment with Framers’ Intentions: The SC, in its previous ruling, emphasized that the framers of the Constitution intended for an independent body to oversee elections. Critics of the proposed Bill raise questions about whether the new composition of the Selection Committee aligns with the framers’ objective of creating an impartial and independent body responsible for elections. Way Forward: The independent V-Dem Institute in Sweden, which compares democracies worldwide, has downgraded India to an “electoral autocracy”, citing the loss in autonomy of the ECI. The need for a selection process that embodies insulation from executive preponderance makes sense. A non-partisan and independent ECI is a sine qua non for the robustness of electoral democracy. Source:  The Hindu Must Read: UPSC CSE 2024 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Ramsar sites Location 1.Tampara Lake Jharkhand 2.Deepor Beel Assam 3.Hirakud Reservoir Rajasthan How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Order of precedence of gallantry Awards is Param Vir Chakra, the Mahavir Chakra, the Kirti Chakra, the Ashoka Chakra, the Vir Chakra, and the Shaurya Chakra. Statement-II: All the gallantry awards may be awarded posthumously. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: A line connecting all points on the surface where the intensity is the same is called an Isoseismic line. Statement-II: The point where the energy is released is called the epicentre. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What is a cloudburst? What is the mechanism behind the occurrence of the cloudbursts? Discuss the measures to prevent and reduce the devastating impacts of cloudbursts. (250 words) Q.2) Discuss the role, powers, and responsibilities of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) in ensuring free and fair elections in India. Examine the significance of the autonomy of the Election Commission of India (ECI) and its impact on the democratic process, with reference to recent electoral reforms and challenges faced by the commission. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 16th August 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 14th August – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – a Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th August 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th August 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, Union Home Minister Amit Shah hailed the team of National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS) of National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) for winning the Gold Award. Background:- NAFIS won the Gold Award under the Excellence in Government Process Reengineering for Digital Transformation Category-1 of the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG). About National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS) Managed by: National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) at the Central fingerprint bureau, based in New Delhi. Objective: to collect fingerprint data of all the criminals from all the states and the Union Territories. It is a web-based application project. ( NAFIS) It is a country-wide searchable database of crime- and criminal-related fingerprints. Working of NAFIS:- NAFIS assigns a unique 10-digit National Fingerprint Number (NFN) to each person arrested for a crime. This unique ID will be used for the person’s lifetime, and different crimes registered under different FIRs will be linked to the same NFN. Uses:- It enables law enforcement agencies to upload, trace, and retrieve data from the database in real-time on a 24×7 basis. It would help in the quick and easy disposal of cases with the help of a centralized fingerprint database. National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) Established: 1986. HQ: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs. Objective: To function as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators. It was set up based on the recommendations of the National Police Commission (1977-1981) and the MHA’s Task Force (1985). Important publications of NCRB:- Accidental Deaths & Suicides in India. (NCRB Report ) Prison Statistics India. Fingerprints in India. (Facial recognition technology) Report on missing women and children in India. MUST READ: NATGRID and NCRB SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? (2020) Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units Create meaningful short stories and songs Disease diagnosis Text-to-speech conversion Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 3, and 5 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2, 4, and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of (2020) Digital security infrastructure Food security infrastructure Health care and education infrastructure Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure Luna 25 mission Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Luna 25 mission was launched by Russia. Background:- Russia launched its first mission to the surface of the Moon in nearly half a century, in a bid to be the first country to land on the lunar south pole. About Luna 25 mission:- IMAGE SOURCE: iki.rssi.ru Launched: 2023. Launched by: Roscosmos. Roscosmos: the State Space Corporation of Russia that is responsible for space flights, aerospace research, and cosmonautics programmes. Take off: Vostochny cosmodrome, Russia. Landing Site: southwest of the Manzini crater. It is also called the Luna-Glob-Lander. It is a Russian lunar lander mission. It is to carry thirty kilo grams of scientific instruments including a robotic arm and drilling hardware to collect soil samples. It will study the south pole of the moon. ( Moon’s Wobble Effect) Objectives of Luna 25 mission:- To study the composition of the polar regolith. To study the plasma and dust components of the lunar polar exosphere. MUST READ: Supermoon SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6, and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on it. Nagzira National Park Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a two-year-old female tiger from Nagzira National Park, was killed after being run over by a speeding car. About Nagzira National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: toptourguide.com Location: Gondia and Shandara Districts of Maharashtra. It has connectivity with the major tiger reserves in Central India like, Kanha and Pench tiger reserve in Madhya Pradesh, Tadoba-Andhari Tiger reserve in Maharashtra, etc. Topography: The landscape of Navegaon Nagzira National Park is characterized by undulating terrain with gentle hills and valleys. Water bodies: The prominent water bodies within the national park include Navegaon Lake, Nagzira Lake, and the Itiadoh Dam. Climate: It experiences a tropical monsoon climate. Vegetation: Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest which includes dry mixed forests to moist forest type. Flora: Terminalia tomentosa, Lagerstroemia parviflora, Anogeisus lotifolia, Pterocarpus marsupium, Diospyrus melanoxylon, etc. Fauna: Tiger, Panther, Small Indian Civet, Palm Civet, Wolf, Jackal, Wild Dog, Sloth Bear Flying Squirrel, Gaur, Sambar, etc. Timeline:- 1970: It was declared a Wildlife Sanctuary. ( Navegaon-Nagzira Tiger Reserve) 2012: the state government announced to merging this sanctuary with another national park to include in Tiger Project. 2013: It was notified as 46th tiger reserve of India. Other Tiger Reserves in Maharashtra:- Melghat Tiger reserve (1974) Tadoba Tiger Reserve (1993) Pench Tiger Reserve (1999) Sahyadri Tiger Reserve (2007) Bor Tiger Reserve (2014) MUST READ: Tiger Estimation SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following ‘fauna: (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: (2023) They build nests by making burrows in the ground. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Kendras Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The Railways Ministry has announced plans to establish Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Kendras at railway stations across the country. Background:- Railways Ministry aims to make available quality medicines to all at an affordable price through these initiatives. About Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Kendras:- Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Kendras are set up under Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana(PMJP). Objective of PMBJP: to provide quality medicines at affordable prices for all, particularly the poor, so as to reduce out-of-pocket expenses in healthcare. It is a medical outlet opened under the scheme which makes quality medicines available at affordable prices for all. It has been set up to provide generic drugs at lesser prices that are equivalent in quality and efficacy to expensive branded drugs. (Pradhan Mantri Janaushadhi Kendra (PMJK)) Bureau of Pharma PSUs in India (BPPI) supports Janaushadhi Kendras as a part of PMBJP. It has been established under the Department of Pharmaceuticals. It coordinates the procurement, supply, and marketing of generic drugs through Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana Kendra. Funding: Financial Support is provided by the government to eligible NGOs/Trusts/agencies/individuals to establish Jan Aushadhi stores. One-time financial assistance up to ₹2.50 lakh. Target: The Government has set a target to increase the number of Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Kendras (PMBJKs) to 10,500 by the end of March 2025. Eligibility to open a Jan Aushadhi Kendra:- State Governments or any organization / reputed NGOs / Trusts / Private hospitals / charitable institutions / Doctors / Unemployed pharmacists/ individual entrepreneurs are eligible to apply for the new Jan Aushadhi Kendra. The applicants shall have to employ one B Pharma / D Pharma degree holder as Pharmacist in their proposed store. About Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana(PMJP):- Launched: 2008. Ministry: Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. ( PMJP) Implementing Agency: Pharmaceuticals & Medical Devices Bureau of India (PMBI). Objectives of PMBJP: to provide quality medicines at affordable prices to people through special Kendras known as Pradhan Mantri Bharatiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana Kendra. Funding: Financial Support is provided by the government to eligible NGOs/Trusts/agencies/individuals to establish Jan Aushadhi stores. Benefit: The scheme ensures easy reach to affordable medicine to the people in every nook and corner of the country. MUST READ: Towards affordable healthcare in India: ‘Jan Aushadhi’ to ‘Jan Upyogi’ SOURCE:  NEWS ON AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC) Syllabus Prelims –Economy/Important Institutions Context: Recently, the National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC) delivered record performances in Fiscal Year 2023-2024. Background:- The NMDC is paving the way towards becoming a 100 Million Tonnes (MT) mining company. The Ministry of Steel said the Corporation has reported record-breaking production for the period up to July 2023. About National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC):- Establishment: 1958. Ministry: Ministry of Steel. ( Integrated Steel Hub) HQ: Hyderabad. Vision: To emerge as a global Environment-friendly Mining Organization and as a quality Steel producer with a positive thrust on Social Development. (Iron-Ore Policy 2021) It is India’s largest iron ore producer. The company has been categorized by the Department of Public Enterprises as a “Navratna” Public Sector Enterprise in 2008. Objectives of NMDC:- To expand the operations in the areas of Mining and Mineral Processing to meet the growing demands from domestic and international Markets. Achieve international standards in per capita productivity, value addition, and cost-effectiveness. To increase the iron ore production capacity to 67 MTPA by FY 2025. (Iron Ore) To conserve mineral resources through scientific mining. MUST READ: Decarbonizing India: Iron and Steel Sector report SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Steel slag can be the material for which of the following? (2020) Construction of base road Improvement of agricultural soil Production of cement Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight? (2015) Coal production Electricity generation Fertilizer production Steel production Geological Survey of India (GSI) Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, the Geological Survey of India (GSI) has discovered the oldest fossil remains of a long-necked, plant-eating dicraeosaurid dinosaur in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan. About the Study:- The scientists from IIT-Roorkee and the Geological Survey of India (GSI) conducted this research. Findings:- The remains are 167 million years old. They belong to a new species unknown to scientists thus far. It has been named ‘Tharosaurus indicus’. The first name refers to the ‘Thar desert’ where fossils were found. The second name is after its country of origin. The fossils of dicraeosaurid dinosaurs have been found previously in North and South Americas, Africa, and China, but such fossils were not known from India. The rocks in which the fossils were found are dated to be around 167 million years old. It makes this new Indian sauropod not only the oldest known dicraeosaurid but also globally the oldest diplodocoid. Diplodocoid: a broader group that includes dicraeosaurids and other closely related sauropods. Theories so far had suggested that the oldest dicraeosaurid was from China (about 166-164 million years old). About the Geological Survey of India:- Establishment: 1851. Ministry: Ministry of Mines. HQ: Kolkata. ( GSI) It has six Regional offices located at Lucknow, Jaipur, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Shillong, and Kolkata. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) is a scientific agency. It is one of the oldest of such organizations in the world and the second oldest survey in India after Survey of India (founded in 1767). ( Survey of India) It uses the latest computer-based technologies for the dissemination of geoscientific information and spatial data, through cooperation and collaboration with other stakeholders in the Geo-informatics sector. Role of GSI:- Conducting geological surveys and studies of India. Prime provider of basic earth science information to government, industry, and the general public. conduct multidisciplinary as well as fundamental geological research and studies. Coordinate geoscientific activities with stakeholders in all areas related to geosciences. Actively participate in international collaborative projects to improve our understanding of the Earth and its ecosystems and its geology. Maintain a leadership role in the geological field and develop partnerships with central, state, and other institutions. MUST READ: Abnormal’ dinosaur egg in India SOURCE: TIMES OF INIDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Monazite is a source of rare earth. Monazite contains thorium. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2, and 3 only 1, 2, and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and Q.2) The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to (2019) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs an early human species a cave system found in North-East India a geological period in the history of the Indian subcontinent Mains: The Bharatiya Sanhita Suraksha Bill, 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Bharatiya Sanhita Suraksha Bill, 2023 was introduced in Lok Sabha to replace the Indian Penal Code, Code of Criminal Procedure and Indian Evidence Act. Highlights of the Bill: The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita Bill 2023 prescribes capital punishment as the maximum sentence for mob lynching. The bill suggests 10 years of imprisonment for sexual intercourse with women on the false promise of marriage. The bill states that sexual intercourse by a man with his wife, when the wife is not under 18 years of age, is not considered rape. Repeal of Sedition Section The bills provide definitions for terrorism and offences such as separatism, armed rebellion against the government, and challenging the sovereignty of the country. Confiscation of property can be done based on court orders. The bills aim to provide speedy justice and create a legal system that aligns with contemporary needs and aspirations. In cases of sexual violence against women, the video recording of survivor statements is made compulsory. Police must inform about the status of a complaint within 90 days. Consultation with the victim is required before withdrawing a case punishable by seven years or more. Community service is being introduced for specific crimes. The maximum time to file a charge sheet is fixed at 180 days. In additional 90 days can be granted by the court, but it cannot exceed that. The government must decide prosecution sanctions against police officers and civil servants within 120 days, or it will be deemed permitted. Videography of search and seizure is made compulsory, and a charge sheet will not be accepted without it. Forensic collection of evidence is made compulsory for all crimes punishable by seven years. A designated police officer will certify the custody of an accused to their relatives, both online and physically. Rules for remission of sentences are stricter to prevent individuals with political influence from benefiting disproportionately. Significance of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita Bill: It will consolidate and amend the law relating to criminal procedure and calls for specific timelines for time-bound investigations, trials and judgements. It will ensure speedy delivery of justice. The draft legislation falls in line with the government’s Digital India initiative. For example, it provides for admissibility of digital or electronic record as evidence, which shall have the same legal validity and enforceability as a paper record. A ‘Zero FIR’ can be lodged at any police station and the FIR must be transferred within 15 days to the police station having jurisdiction over the place of crime. Unlike an FIR, which is restricted by jurisdiction, a zero FIR can be filed in any police station, regardless of whether the offence was committed under the jurisdiction of that particular police station. It will promote a human rights-based approach that respects the dignity and rights of all stakeholders in the criminal justice process. It will enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of the criminal justice system by reducing delays, pendency, backlog, and corruption. It will improve the quality and credibility of justice delivery by ensuring transparency, accountability, and professionalism. It will foster a culture of peace and harmony in society by preventing and curbing crimes that threaten social order and security. It will address the root causes of crimes by addressing socio-economic inequalities and injustices. It will strengthen the rule of law and democracy in India by upholding constitutional values and principles. Challenges: The bills may face opposition and resistance from some quarters who may perceive them as an infringement on their rights, interests, or autonomy. It may face legal challenges and scrutiny from the courts on the grounds of constitutionality, validity, or interpretation of certain provisions. It may face practical difficulties and bottlenecks in implementation due to a lack of awareness, cooperation, or coordination among various agencies or stakeholders. It may face unforeseen consequences or implications that may require further amendments or modifications in the future. Way Forward: The criminal justice system is the backbone of any democracy. It is essential to ensure that it is fair, efficient, and responsive to the needs and aspirations of the people. The introduction of these bills is a historic opportunity to achieve this goal. It is hoped that these bills will usher in a new era of criminal justice reform in India and make it a model for other countries to emulate. Source:     The Hindu Seed Technology in Indian Agriculture Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: The Indian government is promoting technology-enabled sustainable farming, including natural, regenerative and organic systems, during its G20 presidency. Status of Agriculture in India: Agriculture and allied sectors are central to the Indian economy. India is one of the major players in the agriculture sector worldwide and it is the primary source of livelihood for ~55% of India’s population. India: Has the world’s largest cattle herd (buffaloes), Has largest area planted to wheat, rice, and cotton, and it is the largest producer of milk, pulses, and spices in the world. It is the second-largest producer of fruit, vegetables, tea, farmed fish, cotton, sugarcane, wheat, rice, cotton, and sugar. Agriculture sector in India holds the record for second-largest agricultural land in the world generating employment for about half of the country’s population. Technological Advancement made in Seed Industry: Genetic advancement: Seed technology used today combines genetic advancement with applied technologies to provide quality-enhanced seeds with the ability to withstand a range of biotic and abiotic stressors. Priming and enhancement technologies: Priming and enhancement technologies are emerging as an essential package of practices to ensure that seeds perform well under a wide range of growing conditions. Film coating technology: Film coating technology is applied to organic and inorganic cultivation to improve seed handling, precision planting and use as carriers of pesticides and nutrients. Significance of Seed Technology in Indian Agriculture: Higher Productivity: Seed technology can increase the yield potential of crops by developing improved varieties that have desirable traits, such as high grain or fruit quality, resistance to pests and diseases, tolerance to drought or salinity, etc. Seed technology can also improve the germination rate, seedling vigour, and plant establishment of seeds by using priming or physiological advancement protocols. Higher Input Use Efficiency: Seed technology can reduce the amount and cost of inputs such as fertilizers, pesticides, and water by using film coating, pelleting, or seed treatments that can deliver these inputs directly to the seeds or plants in optimal doses. Seed technology can also enhance the nutrient uptake and utilization of plants by using bio-stimulants and nutrients that can stimulate plant growth and metabolism. Higher Resilience: Seed technology can improve the adaptability and stability of crops under changing and unpredictable climatic conditions by using genetic manipulation, speed breeding, gene-editing tools, or AI-responsive sensors or substances that can modulate plant responses to external stimuli. Seed technology can also improve the diversity and health of crops by using biologicals or microbial inoculum that can enhance plant immunity and soil fertility. Challenges: Demand and affordability: Though India has achieved food security with the production of food grains reaching 330 MT; the demand for coarse cereals, pulses, oilseeds and vegetables is not fully met. In addition, they are not affordable for a large part of the population, leading to a high proportion of the under/malnourished population, with a sizable percentage of child wasting (19.3 percent). Crop productivity: India is much lower than other advanced and emerging market economies due to various factors, like fragmented landholdings, lower farm mechanization and lower public and private investment in agriculture. Irrigation: Although India is the second largest irrigated country of the world after China, only one-third of the cropped area is under irrigation. Irrigation is the most important agricultural input in a tropical monsoon country like India. Conventional method of cultivation: In spite of the large-scale mechanization of agriculture in some parts of the country, most of the agricultural operations in larger parts are carried on by human hand using simple and conventional tools and implements like wooden plough, sickle, etc. Significant challenges: Depleting natural resources, a burgeoning population, extreme weather conditions and natural disasters because of climate change pose bigger challenges to Indian and regional agriculture, dominated by smallholder farmers. India’s performance in achieving the SDGs, especially goals one, two and three, ones linked to agriculture, are yet to reach desired levels. Suggestive measures: Way Forward Millet production: Being nutrient-rich, hardy and grown in a short cycle, millets are recognised as well suited for sustainable agriculture. India is the global leader in millet production. By producing quality-assured seeds of improved varieties of millets, especially minor millets, it has the potential to capture the global seed market. Seed technology: While crop variety development will become faster and more precise in the coming years by using molecular technologies, speed breeding and gene-editing tools, applied seed technologies would ensure good performance even under less favourable, unpredictable, and harsh environments. Hence, seed technology today must combine genetic advancement with applied technologies. These must ensure to provide quality-enhanced seeds of improved varieties having higher productivity, high input use efficiency and the ability to withstand a range of biotic and abiotic stressors. Role of public and private sectors: The R&D efforts of the public and private sectors can complement each other in developing environment-friendly, better-performing seeds at affordable costs. “Next Gen” technologies: “Next Gen” technologies may also introduce AI-based responses from seeds under specific external conditions (for example, moisture, temperature); or incorporate such molecules or metabolites that act as metabolic cues in biological pathways, which will require appropriate guidelines for application. Source:   Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Tiger Reserve Location 1.Melghat Tiger Reserve Karnataka 2.Palamau Tiger reserve Bihar 3.Nawegaon-Nagzira Tiger Reserve Maharashtra How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS) assigns a unique 10-digit National Fingerprint Number (NFN) to each person arrested for a crime. Statement-II: It would help in the quick and easy disposal of cases. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: GSI is under the Ministry of Earth Science. Statement-II: It uses the latest computer-based technologies for the dissemination of geoscientific information and spatial data. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct  Mains practice Questions Q.1) What is the significance of criminal justice system reforms in India and major challenges impede their implementation. What strategies can be envisioned to lead the way forward towards a more just and effective system? (250 words) Q.2) Technology can play a vital role in boosting Indian agriculture by enhancing the productivity, profitability, and resilience of its farming sector. Critically analyse. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 14th August 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 12th  August – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) -d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th August 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th August 2023

(PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Steel Authority of India (SAIL) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The Steel Authority of India (SAIL) has registered a growth of 8 percent in Crude Steel Production and 23 percent in Sales Volumes over the corresponding last year (2022). Background:- This is its best-ever performance in Crude Steel Production and Sales. It added that its turnover has increased by just one percent due to a decline in price realization, irrespective of the increase in the prices. About the Steel Authority of India (SAIL):- Establishment: Ministry: Ministry of Steel and Mines. HQ: New Delhi. Vision: To be the leader in the Indian steel business in quality, productivity, profitability, and customer satisfaction. Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) is one of the largest steel-making companies in India. (PLI Scheme For Specialty Steel) It is one of the Maharatnas of the country’s Central Public Sector Enterprises. Maharatnas : it is a category of Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) that meets certain operational and financial eligibility such as average annual turnover, annual net worth, and net profit after tax. Ownership and Management of SAIL:- The Government of India owns about 65% of SAIL’s equity and retains voting control of the Company. However, SAIL, by virtue of its ‘Maharatna’ status, enjoys significant operational and financial autonomy. Functions of SAIL:- It produces iron and steel at five integrated plants and three special steel plants. It manufactures and sells a broad range of steel products. It handles Strategically Located Integrated Operations with Access to Resource Base Including Large Landbank, Captive Mines. It has an in-house R&D centre, a centre for engineering & technology, and captive engineering shops for Research and Development. Integrated Steel Plants of SAIL:- Bhilai Steel Plant: Chhattisgarh  ( Integrated Steel Hub) Durgapur Steel Plant: West Bengal   Rourkela Steel Plant: Odisha Bokaro Steel Plant: Jharkhand      IISCO Steel Plant: West Bengal   MUST READ: Report SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following minerals: (2020) Bentonite Chromite Kyanite Sillimanite In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2, 3, and 4 only Q.2) Steel slag can be the material for which of the following? (2020) Construction of base road Improvement of agricultural soil Production of cement Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the government said that it has disbursed 2,900 crore rupees till March 2023, under the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme. About Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme:- Launched:2020. To enhance India’s Manufacturing capabilities and Exports, Union Budget 2021-22 announced the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for 13 key sectors. Objectives of the PLI scheme:- To boost domestic manufacturing and cut down on import bills. Introduce non-tariff measures that make imports more expensive. Promote domestic manufacturing by offering production incentives. Attract core knowledge competency and cutting-edge technologies. Promote job generation and employment. Construct district-level export hubs. Salient Features of the PLI Scheme:- Incentives: incentive of 4% to 6% on incremental sales (over base year) of goods manufactured in India and covered under target segments, to eligible companies. Time Period: incentives will be available for a period of five (5) years. Base year for the calculation of incentives: (FY) 2019-20. The Scheme will be implemented through a Nodal Agency which shall act as a Project Management Agency (PMA). Eligibility:- All manufacturing companies which are either Indian or have a registered unit in India will be eligible to apply for the scheme. These companies can either create a new unit or seek incentives for their existing units from one or more locations in India. Exception: all investments done by companies on land and buildings for the project will not be considered for any incentives or determine eligibility of the scheme. Sectors under PLI Scheme:- Mobile Manufacturing and Specified Electronic Components (Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) For Large Scale Electronics Manufacturing) Critical Key Starting materials/Drug Intermediaries & Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients Manufacturing of Medical Devices Automobiles and Auto Components Pharmaceuticals Drugs Specialty Steel Telecom & Networking Products Electronic/Technology Products ( Production Linked Incentive scheme (PLI) for IT Hardware) White Goods (ACs and LEDs) Food Products Textile Products: MMF segment and technical textiles (Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Textiles) High-efficiency solar PV modules Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) Battery Drones and Drone Components Benefits of the PLI Scheme:- Boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in the electronics value chain. Encourage local companies to set up or expand existing manufacturing units. Inviting foreign companies to set up shops in India. Target labor-intensive sectors in the hope to create new jobs in India. MUST READ: Production Linked Incentives in Key Sectors SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? (2022) Farmers harvesting their crops Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics A commercial bank lending money to a trading company A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Increase in the number of Elephants Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent estimates suggest that the number of elephants in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu has increased. Background:- Karnataka’s elephants increased from 6,049 in 2017 to 6,395 in 2023, the reports showed. In Tamil Nadu, there was a rise to 2,961 in 2023 from 2,761 in 2017. Meanwhile, in Kerala, the population has dropped from 9,026 to 4,306 in the same period. The overall elephant population for the three states was registered to be 13,662 in 2023, compared to 17,836 in 2017. About Asian Elephants:– IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA Height: Males: 9.0 ft and Females: 7.9 ft. Weight: Males: 4.4 short tons and Females: 3.0 short tons. Distribution: India, Nepal, Bangladesh, China, Laos, Malay, Myanmar, Nepal, Thailand, Vietnam, Sumatra, Sri Lanka. In India: Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Western Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Odisha, Jharkhand, Southern part of West Bengal, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Global Population: Estimated 20,000 to 40,000. More than 60% of the world’s elephant population is in India. (Technology and Conservation: Elephants counted from Space) There are three subspecies of Asian elephants which are the Indian, Sumatran, and Sri Lankan. Conservation Status:- International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List of threatened species: African Forest Elephant– Critically Endangered African Savanna Elephant– Endangered Asian Elephant– Endangered Convention of the Migratory Species (CMS): Appendix I Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I Concerns regarding Elephants:- Escalation of poaching. (Project Re-Hab) Habitat loss. Human-elephant conflict. Mistreatment in captivity. Abuse due to elephant tourism. Government and International Initiatives:- Project Elephant: it was launched in 1991-92 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme of the Ministry of Environment and Forests. Elephant Reserves were created to safeguard their population. Elephant Reserves: Elephant Reserve is a management entity notified by the State Governments as per the recommendation of the Government of India. Monitoring of Illegal Killing of Elephants (MIKE) Programme: it was mandated by the Conference of Parties (COP) resolution of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). It was launched to build institutional capacity within the range of States for the long-term management of their elephant populations. Important Mike Sites in India: Chirang-Ripu Elephant Reserve (Assam) Deomali Elephant Reserve ( Arunachal Pradesh ) Dihing Patkai Elephant Reserve ( Assam ) Garo Hills Elephant Reserve ( Meghalaya ) Eastern Dooars Elephant Reserve ( West Bengal ) Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve ( Odisha ) Shivalik Elephant Reserve (Uttarakhand ) Mysore Elephant Reserve ( Karnataka ) Nilgiri Elephant Reserve ( Tamil Nadu) Wayanad Elephant Reserve ( Kerala)  MUST READ: Elephant Conservation SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements: (2020) The leader of an elephant group is a female. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 3, and 4 only Turtle Survival Alliance (TSA) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The Pilibhit Tiger Reserve and Turtle Survival Alliance (TSA) has joined hands for turtles and tortoises conservation. Background:- Pilibhit Tiger Reserve, formulated its inaugural ‘five-year plan’ to safeguard turtles, conduct species identification and estimate their populations both within and outside the reserve. About Turtle Survival Alliance (TSA):- Formed: 2001. HQ: USA. Objective: it is a global partnership committed to achieving zero turtle extinctions in the 21st century. It was initially designated a Task Force of the IUCN Tortoise and Freshwater Turtle Specialist Group. (Indian Tent Turtles) Activities of TSA:- Captive breeding and reintroduction programs. In and ex-situ conservation programs. Research and surveys. Pilibhit Tiger Reserve:- Location: Pilibhit and Shahjahanpur district of Uttar Pradesh. It forms the part of Terai Arc Landscape in the upper Gangetic Plain. Terai Arc Landscape (TAL): an 810 km stretch between the river Yamuna in the west and the river Bhagmati in the east. It is one of the finest examples of the exceedingly diverse and productive Terai ecosystems. The northern edge of the reserve lies along the Indo-Nepal border while the southern boundary is marked by the river Sharada and Khakra. 2014: It was notified as Tiger Reserve. 2020: it bagged the international award TX2 for doubling up the number of tigers in the past four years. Flora: It has high sal forests, plantations, and grasslands with several water bodies. Fauna: Wild animals include tiger, swamp deer, Bengal florican, leopard, etc. Turtle And Tortoise:- They are the reptiles of the order Testudines. They are characterized by a special bony or cartilaginous shell developed from their ribs and acting as a shield. Habitat: freshwater or saltwater. Turtles are cold-blooded species. Tortoises are land dwelling. Conservation status of turtles found in India:- Olive Ridley – Vulnerable Green turtle – Endangered Loggerhead – Vulnerable Hawksbill – Critically Endangered Leather back – Vulnerable Indian Wildlife Protection Act of 1972: Schedule I. They are also protected under the Biodiversity Conservation and Ganga Rejuvenation programme. MUST READ: Pilibhit Tiger Reserve bags international award TX2 SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Q.2) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements: (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Around Rs 79 crore was transferred to ineligible beneficiaries under the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) between 2017 and 2021. Background:- An audit by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) has revealed the information regarding the transfers. About National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP):- Started: 1995. Ministry: Ministry of Rural Development Objective: to provide financial assistance to Below Poverty Line (BPL) individuals, elderly, widows, and persons with disabilities. Significance: It represents a significant step towards the fulfillment of the Directive Principles in Article 41 of the Indian Constitution. Salient Features of NSAP:- It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. (NSAP) Centrally Sponsored Schemes: schemes that are implemented by state governments of India but are largely funded by the Central Government with a defined State Government share. It provides financial assistance to Below Poverty Line (BPL) individuals, the elderly, widows and persons with disabilities, and bereaved families on the death of a primary breadwinner, in the form of social pensions. Components of NSAP:- At its inception, NSAP had three components:- National Old Age Pension Scheme (NOAPS), National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS) and National Maternity Benefit Scheme (NMBS). The National Maternity Benefit Scheme (NMBS) was subsequently transferred to the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in 2001. Presently, NSAP comprises five schemes:- Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS), Indira Gandhi National Widow Pension Scheme (IGNWPS launched in 2009), Indira Gandhi National Disability Pension Scheme (IGNDPS launched in 2009), National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS) and Annapurna (launched in 2000). Eligibility and scale of assistance:- IGNOAPS: The eligible age for IGNOAPS is 60 years. The pension is Rs 200 per month for persons between 60 – 79 years. For persons who are 80 years and above the pension is Rs 500/ – pm. IGNWPS: The eligible age is 40 years and the pension is Rs 300 pm. After attaining the age of 80 years, the beneficiary will get Rs 500/ – pm. IGNDPS: The eligible age for the pensioner is 18 years and above and the disability level has to be 80% (Dwarfs are eligible). The amount is Rs 300 pm and after attaining the age of 80 years Rs 500/ – pm. NFBS: Rs 20000/ – will be given as a lump sum assistance to the bereaved household in the event of the death of the breadwinner. Annapurna Scheme: 10 kgs of food grains (wheat or rice) is given per month per beneficiary. The scheme provides food security for those eligible old-aged persons who are not covered by the IGNOAPS. MUST READ: Old Pension vs New Pension Scheme (NPS) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments, and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (2022) Central Statistics Office Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade Labour Bureau National Technical Manpower Information System PUShP portal Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the National Power Committee (NPC) favored offering incentives for buying & selling power on the PUShP portal. About the PUShP portal:- Launched: Ministry: Ministry of Power. Objective: to enhance power availability during peak demand periods by enabling certain categories of sellers to offer power at prices surpassing the Rs 12 per unit ceiling. It is a national-level generating capacity utilization mechanism to help States, which are facing power cuts, buy power. The tariffs are regulated and determined by the concerned regulatory commissions. It facilitates the submission of surplus power availability by power distribution companies (DISCOMs) across various time blocks, days, or months. DISCOMs in need of power can requisition the surplus power indicated on the portal. (State of DISCOMs) Transaction mechanism:- The new buyer acquires the surplus power and pays both variable charge (VC) and fixed cost (FC) as determined by Regulators. Upon reassignment, the original beneficiary relinquishes the right to recall, transferring the entire FC liability to the new beneficiary. Benefits:- Reduces fixed cost burden on DISCOMs. Issues with DISCOMS) Maximizes the utilization of available generation capacity. Progress so far:- It has seen 17 States utilizing it. So far, 14 requests have been processed and the power has been reallocated to the new beneficiaries. MUST READ: India’s Power Crisis SOURCE: BUSINESSLINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: Smartphone Ban in Schools Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, UNESCO recommended a universal ban on the usage of smartphones in schools. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) Recommendation: Caution against Uncritical Embrace of Digital Technology: UNESCO has warned against blindly adopting digital products in education, pointing out that there is limited robust evidence to support the benefit of digital technology in learning. Negative Link Between Screen Time and Education: The study reveals that higher screen time among young people aged 2 to 17 is associated with poorer well-being, reduced curiosity, self-control, and emotional stability, along with higher levels of anxiety and depression diagnoses. Smartphone Ban in Schools: UNESCO’s report endorses the idea of banning smartphones in schools, especially when technology integration fails to improve learning or adversely affects student well-being. Concerns About Digital Infrastructure Costs and Inequality: The cost of moving to basic digital learning in low-income countries and connecting all schools to the internet in lower-middle-income countries would add 50% to their current financing gap for achieving national SDG 4 targets. Children’s Privacy and Data Protection: The report underscores the risk to children’s privacy posed by indiscriminate use of digital technology in education. The report reveals that only 16% of countries guarantee data privacy in education by law. Mobile and smartphone users in India: India has 1.2 billion mobile phone users and over 600 million smartphone users. That figure is expected to cross a billion by 2026, according to a Deloitte study, indicating that a future world will be dependent on these small devices. However, one place where smartphone usage has become controversial is the classroom. Countries restricting mobile use in schools: In England, children are allowed to bring in their phones from about Year 4 and Year 5, but they will have to deposit their phones. In Finland, from about 12 years of age, they are allowed to bring their phones along with them and they are allowed to keep it in their hands even when the classes are run. Earlier, Australia had no restrictions, but post-COVID, looking at the mental well-being and the emotional well-being, at the behaviour problems, which have started; they have also brought in some kind of restrictions with regard to usage of smartphones inside the campuses. While India does not have a legal ban on smartphones in schools, state governments and school, administrations take their own call on the matter. Arguments against using smartphones by students: Engagement on social media: Children studying in schools are getting too much engaged in social media, playing games leading to complete decline in their focus on academic tasks. UNESCO’s rationale: UNESCO has clearly warned against an uncritical rush towards embracing digital products in educational settings. There is little evidence of digital technology’s benefit in education. However, there is a clear threat also, with the report highlighting that mere proximity to a mobile device was found to distract students. This is more than sufficient for us to understand that mobile phones should not be allowed in the education system. Addiction and anxiety issues: Psychologists also advocate that mobile phones are addictive in nature, and can hinder concentration and social skills, and cause an increased number of anxiety and mental illness cases. Students are vulnerable to cyber bullying, comparisons, unrealistic standards, resulting in depression, feelings of inadequacy. Disparities among students: It might raise the disparities among students belonging to various socio-economic backgrounds, because students with access to the latest expensive devices could experience an advantage, while those with limited resources might feel left out or stigmatized. The presence of mobile phones also increases the risk of theft, and schools may struggle to manage security. Healthy learning: It is argued that we should promote more face-to-face interaction to maintain academic integrity and to foster a healthy learning atmosphere. Because in those times when there were no mobile phones in the class, then also learning happened. Concern Raised on smartphones in School: Dangers and Alarming Research: Research from the London School of Economics suggests that not allowing mobile phones in schools enhances academic performance. Addictive nature of Mobile phones: Psychologists also raise concerns about the addictive nature of mobile phones, their potential to hinder concentration and social skills, and their contribution to increased anxiety and mental illness cases. Vulnerability to Cybercrime: Schools can be vulnerable to problems like cybercrime due to the presence of mobile phones, as they are seen as sensitive targets. Disparities in Socio-Economic Backgrounds: Potential disparities could arise due to varying access to smartphones among students from different socio-economic backgrounds. Students who cannot afford high-end smartphones may feel left out or stigmatized, affecting their confidence and overall engagement in learning activities. Way Forward: Digital technology, including artificial intelligence, should always be subservient to a human-centred vision of education, and never replace face-to-face interaction with teachers and neglect the social dimension of education. The digital revolution holds immeasurable potential but just as warnings have been voiced for how it should be regulated in society, similar attention must be paid to the way it is used in education. Source:   The Hindu Mines and Mineral Bill 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Parliament recently passed the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2023. Scenario of the Mining Sector in India: Mining industry plays a crucial role in the country’s economy, serving as the backbone for manufacturing and infrastructure sectors. According to the Ministry of Mines (UPSC CSP: Bureau of mines), the total value of mineral production (excluding atomic and fuel minerals) during 2021-22 amounted to Rs. 2, 11,857 crore. India ranks 4th globally in terms of iron ore production and is the world’s 2nd largest coal producer as of 2021. Combined Aluminium production (primary and secondary) in India stood at 4.1 MT per annum in FY21 becoming the 2nd largest in the world. In 2023, the mineral’s demand is likely to increase by 3%, driven by expanded electrification and overall economic growth in India. ( Deep sea mining) Key Features of the Bill: It was passed to attract private sector investment in the exploration of critical and deep-seated minerals in the country. The Bill puts six minerals used in electric vehicle batteries and other energy storage into a list of critical and strategic minerals. It includes lithium, beryllium, niobium, titanium, tantalum, and zirconium. The exploration and mining of these minerals (previously classified as atomic minerals), were restricted to government-owned entities. The Bill seeks to bring exploration processes at par with that of developed countries by getting private sector capacity into exploration. In Australia and multiple other jurisdictions globally, private mining firms (junior explorers), engage in risk-taking by putting their expertise and limited financials into explorations to find potential mines. The Bill allows prohibited activities under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act (MMDR) like pitting, trenching, drilling, and sub-surface excavation as part of reconnaissance including mapping and surveys. Once discovered, these private companies can sell these to bigger mining companies who then develop and run these mines. This would multiply exploration projects and accelerate the pace of exploration. Significance of private sector participation in the exploration of critical and deep-seated minerals: Expertise and Innovation: Private companies often bring specialized technical expertise and innovative approaches to mineral exploration. They invest in advanced exploration techniques, technologies, and methodologies that can lead to more efficient and effective discovery of mineral resources. Accelerated Exploration: Private companies, often referred to as junior explorers, have the flexibility and incentive to accelerate exploration efforts. Their focus on quick and efficient project development can lead to a higher number of exploration projects, increasing the chances of discovering new mineral deposits. Increased Investment: Private sector involvement attracts investment from various sources, including venture capital, private equity, and exploration-focused funds. This infusion of funds can lead to larger exploration budgets, enabling more extensive and in-depth exploration activities. Resource Multiplication: Private exploration firms can multiply the number of exploration projects compared to government agencies alone. This diversification increases the likelihood of discovering valuable mineral resources across different geographic regions. Reduced Burden on Government: Engaging the private sector in mineral exploration reduces the financial burden on government agencies, allowing them to allocate resources to other critical areas while benefiting from private sector investments. Efficient Resource Allocation: Private companies typically allocate resources based on market demand and economic viability. This market-driven approach can lead to the discovery of minerals that are in high demand and align with the country’s industrial and technological needs. Technology Transfer and Capacity Building: Private sector participation facilitates technology transfer from experienced explorers to local professionals, enhancing domestic capacity and knowledge in mineral exploration. Competition and Collaboration: Private sector participation fosters healthy competition among exploration firms, encouraging them to innovate and adopt best practices. Collaboration between government agencies and private firms can lead to synergies and knowledge sharing. Job Creation and Economic Growth: Exploration activities create jobs and stimulate local economies. Private sector involvement can lead to increased employment opportunities and economic development in regions with potential mineral resources. Issues with the Bill: The primary way to generate revenue for a private company with an exploration license would be a share of the premium paid by the miner. A successfully discovered mine should be auctioned and operationalized for that purpose. The Bill has a provision that if the resources were proven after exploration, the state government would conduct a mining lease auction within six months of the submission of the report by the exploration license holder. Such a process would take a long time to materialize owing to government timelines for clearances, the complexity of the deposit, and geography. It would be difficult to find the value of the minerals before exploration and using the auction method of allocation for exploration licenses. A huge capital investment is needed to discover natural resources through exploration and mining contracts. In the new policy, only the government can auction the discovered mineral, but the explorer would only get a share of the premium at an unknown stage. This is unlike other global jurisdictions where private explorers can sell their discoveries to miners. Supreme Court directions: It ruled that the First Come First Served (FCFS) method was vulnerable to manipulation, favoritism, and misuse, asking the government to adopt a transparent and reasonable method. Auction that was duly published and fair would be the best method for resource distribution. Auctions were not the only available method for mineral extraction. The method should be fair, reasonable, non-discriminatory, transparent, non-capricious, unbiased, and without favoritism or nepotism. It should promote healthy competition and equitable treatment. Way Forward: Private players always get motivated by the profit they are going to make. If government want them to participate in the exploration of critical minerals in India, it needs to provide them certainty of the revenue stream from that investment, then only, India’s efforts towards self-sufficiency will be successful. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Steel Plants Location 1.IISCO Steel Plant West Bengal 2.Visvesvaraya Iron & Steel Plant Tamil Nadu 3.Salem Steel Plant Karnataka How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Annapurna Scheme provides 10 kgs of food grains (wheat or rice) is given per month per beneficiary. Statement-II: National Social Assistance Programme is a centre sector scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Leatherback is critically endangered under the IUCN red list. Statement-II: Loggerhead turtle is Vulnerable under the IUCN red list. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Examine the rationale behind recommending a universal ban on the usage of smartphones in schools. Suggest the middle path for balancing digital literacy along with implementing such bans. (250 words) Q.2) Despite India being one of the countries of Gondwanaland, its mining industry contributes much less to its Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in percentage. Discuss. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 12th August 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 11th August – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) -c

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Assam Rifles Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: In recent times, the Assam Rifles personnel have been facing increased hostility in Manipur. Background:- Normally, there are 20 battalions of the Assam Rifles in Manipur, with the primary mandate of counter-insurgency and border guarding. Since ethnic violence erupted in the state on May 3, 2023, two more battalions were moved in. Due to being tasked with manning “buffer zones” between Meitei- and Kuki-Zomi-dominated territories in Manipur, the Assam Rifles has been facing heat from the Meiteis, with some even demanding its removal from the state. About Assam Rifles:- Establishment:1835. Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs. It is a Central Paramilitary Force under the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF). CAPF: the collective name of central police organizations in India under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). It includes 7 forces: Assam Rifles (AR), Border Security Force (BSF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) and National Security Guard (NSG). Assam Rifles is the oldest Central Para Military Force in India. Historical Background:- The Assam Rifles was set up as Cachar Levy in 1835 to protect British Tea estates and their settlements against tribal raids. Post-Independence, role of the Assam Rifles continued to evolve ranging from:- Conventional combat role: during Sino-India War in 1962 Operating in a foreign land: as part of the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) to Sri Lanka in 1987 (Op Pawan) Peacekeeping role: in the North-Eastern areas of India. Structure of Assam Rifles:- The Force is commanded by an officer of the rank of Lieutenant General of the Army. (UPSC CSE: Administration of Assam Rifles) HQ Directorate General of Assam Rifles: Shillong. MUST READ: Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Renaming Kerala Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: The Kerala Assembly has passed the resolution to rename state as Keralam. Background:- The resolution, moved by Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan, was passed unanimously, with the Congress-led Opposition not suggesting any changes. Formation of Kerala:- 1949: Travancore and Kochi was merged, forming the Travancore-Cochin State. ( Integration of the princely states) State Reorganization Commission recommended the creation of Kerala as a state for Malayalam-speaking people. The state of Kerala came into being on November 1, 1956. In Malayalam, the state was referred to as Keralam, while in English it was Kerala. Origin of the name:- There are several theories about the origin of the name ‘Kerala’. Earliest epigraphic record: Asoka’s Rock Edict II of 257 BC. The inscription refers to the local ruler as Keralaputra (Sanskrit for “son of Kerala”), and also “son of Chera” referring to the Chera dynasty. About ‘Keralam’, scholars believe it could have originated from ‘Cheram’. Significance of the name: ‘Keralam’ aligns more closely with the native pronunciation, historical roots, and cultural identity of the region’s people. Process to rename a state in India:- The proposal has to first come from the state government. Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) Approval: The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) then takes over and gives its consent after it receives No Objection Certificates (NOCs) from several agencies. These agencies include the Ministry of Railways, Intelligence Bureau, Department of Posts, Survey of India, and Registrar General of India. Parliamentary proceedings: If the MHA finds the proposal acceptable and all the necessary NOCs are obtained, a Constitutional amendment bill is initiated. The Bill goes through the usual legislative process in both the Lok Sabha (Lower House) and the Rajya Sabha (Upper House). The Bill requires a simple majority to be passed in each house. After it is passed by both houses if the President gives his assent, the Bill becomes law. Implementation: With the President’s assent, the name change becomes official and the name of the state is changed thereafter. Constitutional provisions for renaming a State:- The renaming of an existing state requires Parliamentary approval under Articles 3 of the Constitution. Introduction: A bill for renaming a state may be introduced in the Parliament on the recommendation of the President State assembly consultation: Before the introduction of the bill, the President shall send the bill to the respective state assembly for expressing their views within a stipulated time. The views of the state assembly are not binding, neither on the President nor on the Parliament. Parliamentary approval: On the expiry of the period, the bill will be sent to the Parliament for deliberation. The bill in order to take the force of a law must be passed by a simple majority. Presidential Approval: The bill is sent for approval to the President. After the approval of the said bill, the bill becomes a law and the name of the state stands modified. MUST READ: Asymmetrical federalism SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character? (2021) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units The Union cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties The Fundamental rights are enforceable by Courts of Law Centre Moves Bill to Drop Chief Justice from Selection Panel for Election Commissioners Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, a Bill was listed to be introduced in the Rajya Sabha on the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs). Background:- The Centre’s Bill seeks to establish a committee of, the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, A Cabinet Minister nominated by the PM for selecting members of the Election Commission of India (ECI). In March this year, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court had ruled that the Election Commissioners should be selected by a committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition and the Chief Justice of India. The bench led by Justice KM Joseph passed the direction to ensure the independence of the Election Commissioners from the independence. While passing the direction, the bench noted that there is no Parliamentary law at place in terms of Article 324(2) of the Constitution laying down the selection procedure for Election Commissioners. About Election Commission India:- Establishment: 25th January 1950. It is a constitutional body responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India. It administers elections to Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, State Legislative Councils, and the offices of the President and Vice President of the country. Composition of Election Commission:- Originally the commission had only a Chief Election Commissioner. (Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)) It currently consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. 1989: For the first time, two additional Commissioners were appointed. Since 1993 the concept of a multi-member Commission has been in operation. Appointment, Tenure, and Privileges of Commissioners:- Appointment Procedure as of now: Under Article 324(2) the appointment of the CEC and other Election Commissioners shall be made by the President. The Law Minister suggests a pool of suitable candidates to the Prime Minister for consideration. The President makes the appointment on the advice of the PM. Tenure: six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Salary: They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India. Removal of Election Commissioners:- They can resign anytime or can also be removed before the expiry of their term. The CEC can be removed from office only by the order of the President, just like a judge of the Supreme Court. The issue in Removal of Other Commissioners:- The Constitution is silent about the procedure for the removal of the two Election Commissioners. The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission. The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government. MUST READ: Impartiality of the Election Commission SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2021) In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: (2017) The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Select the correct code: 1 and 2 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Interpol Global Academy Network Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) Academy joined the Interpol Global Academy Network. Background:- The CBI Academy has become the 10th member of the Interpol Global Academy Network. About Interpol Global Academy Network:-   IMAGE SOURCE: INTERPOL Launched: 2019. Objective: supporting Interpol in leading a global approach to Law Enforcement Training. The Interpol Global Academy Network is a network of trusted law enforcement education institutions. Members: The Network has members in all regions and supports academic collaboration amongst Law Enforcement Training Institutions across the globe. Significance: It seeks to promote academic excellence and innovation in law enforcement training by establishing quality standards, accreditation mechanisms, and recognition systems. Working mechanism: Its members support the creation and delivery of select digital and face-to-face training courses. These cover INTERPOL’s tools and services, crime areas, and other law enforcement topics. They also help identify and coordinate responses to training needs. They contribute to a knowledge exchange platform to advance law enforcement education through cutting-edge training tools and methodologies. About INTERPOL:- Establishment:1923. HQ: Lyon, France. Full name: International Criminal Police Organization and we are an inter-governmental organization. Members: 195 countries. India is one of the oldest members of Interpol. It joined Interpol in 1949. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) represents Interpol in India as the country’s national central bureau.’ (CBI and ED) MUST READ: Operation Garuda SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Amazon Cooperation Treaty Organization (ACTO) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the members of the Amazon Cooperation Treaty Organization (ACTO), met in Brazil to come up with a roadmap to protect tropical rainforests. Background:- Leaders and Ministers from eight Amazon nations signed a declaration on August 8, 2023, in Belem, Brazil. Belem Declaration laid out plans to drive economic development in their countries while preventing Amazon’s ongoing demise from reaching a point of no return. The summit aimed to address sustainable development in the Amazon Basin but fell short of achieving consensus on crucial environmental targets. About Amazon Cooperation Treaty Organization (ACTO):- IMAGE SOURCE: ResearchGate Establishment: 1978. HQ: Brasilia, Brazil. Official languages: Dutch, English, Portuguese, and Spanish. Members: Eight countries- Bolivia, Brazil, Colombia, Ecuador, Guyana, Peru, Suriname, and Venezuela. ACTO is an intergovernmental organization formed by the eight Amazonian countries which signed the Amazon Cooperation Treaty (ACT). ACT: it was signed in 1978, and gave rise to the ACTO. It is the only socio-environmental block in Latin America. The Directorate of the Permanent Secretariat and the coordination of the projects plan and execute their activities. Objective of ATCO:- Promote the harmonious development of the Amazonian territories Sustainable development of the Amazon Region. ( Deforestation in Amazon Basin) MUST READ: India and Brazil:  Bilateral Investment Treaty SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements: (2021) The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is part of a project led by climate change, Agriculture, and food security (CCAFS), an international research program. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’S research centres. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Exercise Malabar 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context:  Australia will host Exercise Malabar for the first time in 2023. Exercise Malabar 2023:- Location: Sydney, Australia. Date: August 11-21(2023). Participating countries: India, USA, Japan, and Australia. An Indian multi-role frigate, INS Sahyadri, and a guided missile destroyer, INS Kolkata, will represent the Indian Navy. US Navy (USN), the Japanese Maritime Self-Defense Force (JMSDF), and the Royal Australian Navy (RAN). Phases of the Exercise:-Malabar 2023 will be conducted in two phases.Phase I:It is the Harbour Phase and Phase II is the Sea Phase. About Exercise Malabar:- Started in 1992. Objective: to coordinate for a free, open, and inclusive Indo-Pacific. It is conducted annually. Timeline of Exercise Malabar:- First Malabar Exercise: Bay of Bengal, 2007. ( Malabar naval exercise) It began as a bilateral naval exercise between India and US Navy. 2015: It was expanded into a trilateral format with the inclusion of Japan. 2020: Australian Navy joined the Malabar Exercise, making it a quadrilateral naval exercise. Location: It takes place in the Indian Ocean and Pacific Oceans This exercise includes a diverse range of activities such as fighter combat operations and maritime interdiction operations. Significance of Exercise Malabar:- Enhanced Strategic Partnership. Sustainable Indo-Pacific Coalition. Ensuring peace and security in the Indo-Pacific Region. MUST READ: Exercise Talisman Sabre SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Privileges Committee Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, Rajya Sabha Chairman Jagdeep Dhankhar referred complaints related to the privilege of the House against TMC’s Derek O’Brien and AAP’s Raghav Chadha to the privileges committee. About Privileges Committee:- This committee consists of 15 members in Lok Sabha (LS) and 10 members in Rajya Sabha(RS). Nominated by: Speaker or Chairman of LS and RS respectively. Function: The committee examines every question involving a breach of privilege of the House or of the members or of any Committee referred to it by the Speaker/Chairman and makes suitable recommendations in its report. (LS Privileges Committee) Once presented, a motion has to be passed for the consideration of the report and amendments can be suggested. The right to raise a question of privilege must satisfy the following two conditions:- the question shall be restricted to a specific matter of recent occurrence and the matter requires the intervention of the Council. The Speaker/RS Chairman is the first level of scrutiny of a privilege motion. The Speaker/Chairman can decide on the privilege motion himself or herself or refer it to the privileges committee of Parliament. (Privilege Motion) MUST READ: Received privilege motion against Minister: Speaker SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Mains: Sponge cities Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Disaster management) Context: Recently China has been hit by devastating floods, inundating cities and causing deaths and infrastructural damage, as well as raising questions about the effectiveness of its 2015 “sponge city” initiative aimed at reducing urban flood risks. About Sponge cities: A sponge city is a city that is designed to passively absorb, clean and use rainfall in an ecologically friendly way that reduces dangerous and polluted runoff. Associated techniques include permeable roads, rooftop gardens, rainwater harvesting, rain gardens, green space and blue space such as ponds and lakes. Main reasons for Urban Floods: Inadequate Drainage Infrastructure: Cities like Hyderabad and Mumbai rely on a century-old drainage system, covering only a small part of the core city. In the last 20 years, the Indian cities have grown manifold with its original built-up area. As the city grew beyond its original limits, not much was done to address the absence of adequate drainage systems. Terrain Alteration: Lasting irreversible damage has been done to the city by property builders, property owners, and public agencies by flattening terrain and altering natural drainage routes. Reducing Seepage: Indian cities are becoming increasingly impervious to water, not just because of increasing built up but also because of the nature of materials used (hard, non-porous construction material that makes the soil impervious). Lax Implementation: Even with provisions of rainwater harvesting, sustainable urban drainage systems, etc., in regulatory mechanisms like the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA), adoption at user end as well as enforcement agencies remains weak. Encroaching Natural Spaces: The number of wetlands has reduced to 123 in 2018 from 644 in 1956. The green cover is only 9%, which ideally should have been at least 33 per cent. Significance of Sponge cities: It is a new way of thinking about storm water, not as a problem but as an opportunity and a resource to augment our water supply. In the long run, sponge cities will reduce carbon emissions and help fight climate change. Sponge cities also come with wider social benefits. Properly implemented sponge city can reduce the frequency and severity of floods and improve water quality. By capturing storm water, we are preventing beach pollution. Greening the city by planting new plants. Associated strategies such as green space can improve quality of life, improve air quality and reduce urban heat islands. Water can be used to keep green spaces verdant, provide an outdoor area for the people who live and work in the building, and even be used to grow food. This in-turn can improve urban eco-system diversity by providing new habitats for a wider range of organisms. China’s Sponge Cities: Case study Nowhere has embraced the idea of sponge cities as enthusiastically as China. The Chinese government is building water-absorbent projects in 30 cities as part of its “sponge city initiative.” The plan is to manage 60% of rainwater falling in the cities. Develop ponds, wetlands; build permeable roads and public spaces that enable storm water to soak into the ground. By 2020, China hopes that 80% of its urban areas will absorb and re-use at least 70% of rainwater. However, transforming entire cities into sponges will require massive investment. With growing urbanisation in India and increasing urban floods, it is time for India to move towards sponge cities. India’s Schemes/Programmes Related to Urban Development: Smart Cities Mission AMRUT Mission Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban HRIDAY Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban Aspirational district programme Way Forward: Acknowledging the role of different actors in the city can create a practical space to begin this work. Doing so will not just help control recurring floods but also respond to other fault lines, provide for water security, and more green spaces, and will make the city resilient and sustainable. The constant search for a scapegoat to blame, while a few people try what they can, limits our capacities and only creates cycles of devastation. Source:  Indian Express India takes first step to remove animals from Drug-testing Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance), GS 4 (Ethics) Context: An amendment to the New Drugs and Clinical Trial Rules (2023) was passed by the Government with the aim of stopping the use of animals in research, especially in drug testing. Key-highlights of the Amendment: The amendment grants researchers the authority to use alternative techniques that do not include animals and are more applicable to humans. These methods encompass technology such as 3D organoids, organs-on-chip, and sophisticated computational approaches, which are utilized to assess the safety and effectiveness of novel pharmaceuticals. The aforementioned regulations provide that any Contract Research Organization (CRO) doing a clinical trial or bioavailability/bioequivalence research involving novel or experimental medications in human participants must get registration from the Central Licensing Authority prior to commencing such investigations. Clinical Trials module in India: Every drug goes through a long journey of tests, designated to check whether it can treat the disease for which it was created and its harmful effects. The first step of the process for drug testing involves candidate molecule in at least two animal species: a rodent (mouse or rat) and a non-rodent, such as canines and primates. However, humans are more complex creatures, and biological processes and their responses often vary from person to person as well, based on factors such as age, sex, pre-existing diseases, genetics, diet, – and a lab-bred animal species reared in controlled conditions may not fully capture the human response to a drug. Technologies suggested as alternatives: Technologies developed using human cells or stem cells: These include millimeter-sized three-dimensional cellular structures that mimic specific organs of the body, called “organoids” or “mini-organs”. ‘Organ-on-a-chip’ Technology: These are AA-battery-sized chips lined with human cells connected to micro channels, to mimic blood flow inside the body. These systems capture several aspects of human physiology, including tissue-tissue interactions and physical and chemical signals inside the body. USING 3D Bioprinter: Bio printers are used to ‘print’ biological tissues using human cells and fluids as ‘bio-ink’. Since they can be built using patient-specific cells, they can also be used to personalise drug-tests. Challenges: Developing an organ-on-a-chip system: It typically requires multidisciplinary knowledge and expertise in cell biology to recreate the cellular behaviour in the lab. Materials science to find the right material to ensure that the chip does not interfere with biological processes. Fluid dynamics to mimic blood flow inside the microchannels; electronics to integrate biosensors that can measure pH, oxygen etc. in the chip; engineering to design the chip; and pharmacology and toxicology to interpret action of the drugs in the chips. Resources for research and development: Most of the reagents, cell-culture related materials and instruments are currently imported from the U.S., Europe, and Japan. There is a huge gap and opportunity in several diverse areas related to cell culture, material science and electronics, to develop an end-to-end ecosystem in India. Variability in the data arising from differences in lab-to-lab protocols and expertise. For example, one lab may create a system with only liver cells, while another lab attempting to study the immune system and liver may also incorporate immune cells in its liver-on-a-chip. It means there can be no ‘standard’ or ‘universal’ liver-on-a-chip to study all liver diseases. Status of regulations worldwide: United States: FDA Modernization Act 2.0 was passed in December 2022, allowing researchers to use these systems to test the safety and efficacy of new drugs. South Korea: A ‘Vitalization of Development, Dissemination, and Use of Alternatives to Animal Testing Methods’ bill was introduced in December 2022. European Union: In 2021, a resolution was passed on an action plan to facilitate transition towards technologies that do not use animals in research, regulatory testing, and education. Canada: The Environmental Protection Act was amended in June 2023 to replace, reduce or refine the use of vertebrate animals in toxicity testing. India: In March 2023, the government embraced these systems in the drug-development pipeline by amending the New Drugs and Clinical Trials Rules 2019. It did so after inviting comments from the people and in consultation with the Drug Technical Advisory Board, the statutory body that advises Central and State governments on drug-related technical matters. Way Forward: India’s drug development law change reduces animal experimentation and promotes ethical principles for safer and more effective pharmaceuticals. India establishes a foundation for responsible drug development by promoting alternative approaches, animal welfare, and international criteria. It’s a truly interdisciplinary endeavour and needs focused training and human-resource building, which is lacking in the country at present. Source:   The Hindu Additional information: Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB): DTAB serves as the supreme statutory decision-making authority concerning technical aspects of drugs within the nation. It is established in accordance with the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940. DTAB operates under the umbrella of the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO), which operates within the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO): CDSCO is India’s top regulatory authority for pharmaceuticals and medical devices. Established under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940. Operates under the Directorate General of Health Services (DGHS) in the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Mandate and Functions: Ensures safety, efficacy, and quality of drugs, cosmetics, and medical devices. Reviews new drug approvals, clinical trials, and import/export licenses. Regulates manufacturing, sale, distribution, labelling, and packaging. Monitors adverse reactions, conducts post-market surveillance. Collaborates with state authorities, industry, global regulators. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Exercise Countries 1.JIMEX India and Jordan 2.SANGAM India and US 3.Pitch Black India and Australia How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, provides for freedom from arrest and detention of members under civil process during the continuance of the meeting of the House. Statement-II: Article 194 of the Indian constitution deals with the powers, privileges, and immunities of the State Legislatures. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Renaming a state is under Articles 3 and 4 of the Indian constitution. Statement-II: Such a bill in order to take the force of law must be passed by a special majority. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Question Q.1) Discuss the significance of rainwater harvesting and sponge cities concept in reducing urban flooding. How can community engagement play a role in flood preparedness and water body conservation? (250 Words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 11th August 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 10th August – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) -d