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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 10th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –9th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Sharjah International Book Fair 2023 Syllabus Prelims – IMPORTANT EVENTS Context: The 42nd edition of the Sharjah International Book Fair (SIBF) is currently underway. Background:- The current edition of SIBF features an impressive participation of 2,033 publishers representing 109 countries. The India Pavilion is a vibrant and bustling hub at the book fair, representing the rich literary diversity of the country About Sharjah International Book Fair 2023:- Date: 1- 12th ,November,2023. Organized by: Sharjah Book Authority (SBA). Venue: Sharjah Expo Centre, UAE. (CEPA between India and the UAE) Theme: “We Speak Books” The 12-day agenda is a comprehensive cultural, creative, and entertaining extravaganza. Over 1,700 activities are being led by 215 guests hailing from 69 countries, catering to a wide range of interests and age groups. A highlight of the event is the participation of 600 authors who are present to sign their latest works. South Korea is taking centre stage as the Guest of Honour at SIBF this year. The festival is shining a spotlight on South Korea’s unique knowledge and cultural landscape, covering literature, art, technology, and culture. Historical Background:- The 10-day event which started in 1982 under the patronage of His Highness Dr Sheikh Sultan bin Muhammad Al-Qasimi, is a leading literary event that profiles the written work throughout the Middle East, Asia and Africa. The book fair is considered to be the 3rd largest fair in the world and saw 2.4 million visitors attend in 2021. The event also features a lineup of book signings, workshops and panel discussions. Significance:- It has been reported that UK and European publishers who attended past Sharjah International Book Fairs, said the fair had brought in new business opportunities for them. MUST READ: India-UAE relations SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries : (2023) Bulgaria Czech Republic Hungary Latvia Lithuania Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q.2) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores The region along North African shores stretches from Egypt to Morocco The region along the Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa The entire coastal areas of the Mediterranean Sea Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) Syllabus Prelims – IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: Recently, the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) has issued a show cause notice to Air India. Background:- In order to ensure compliance of passenger-centric CARs, DGCA has been carrying out inspections of scheduled domestic airlines, at various major airports since May this year. During the inspections, it was found that Air India was not complying with the provisions of the relevant CAR. About Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA):- Ministry: Ministry of Civil Aviation. HQ: New Delhi The Directorate General of Civil Aviation is an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation. It has regional offices in various parts of India. Functions of the DGCA:- It is the regulatory body in the field of Civil Aviation primarily dealing with safety issues. It is responsible for the regulation of air transport services to/from/within India and for the enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety and airworthiness standards. It is responsible for the Registration of civil aircraft. It is responsible for the Certification of airports. It is responsible for the Licensing of pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers, air traffic controllers and flight engineers, and conducting examinations and checks for that purpose. It is responsible for promoting indigenous design and manufacture of aircraft and aircraft components by acting as a catalytic agent. It is responsible for approving training programmes of operators for carriage of dangerous goods, issuing authorizations for carriage of dangerous goods, etc. It also coordinates all regulatory functions with the International Civil Aviation Organization. Aviation Safety Ranking:- In 2022, the DGCA made a significant leap in the International Civil Aviation Organization’s coordinated validation mission (or audit) that was conducted in November 2022. As a result, India’s effective implementation score has risen from the previous 69.95% to nearly 85.49%, thereby changing India’s Safety Oversight rank from 102 to 48, among the 193 contracting states. MUST READ: Reforms in the Civil Aviation Industry SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements : (2023) It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or SWIFT system. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (2022) Central Statistics Office Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade Labour Bureau National Technical Manpower Information System Horn of Africa Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Horn of Africa faced deadly floods due to El Nino-linked ‘above average’ rains. Background:- Several people in the Greater Horn of Africa are feared dead, property worth millions destroyed and populations displaced due to heavy rainfall in the region, according to officials. About Horn of Africa:- IMAGE SOURCE: iStock Countries: Somalia, Ethiopia, Eritrea and Djibouti. Location: northeast of the African It lies along the southern boundary of the Red Sea. It extends hundreds of kilometers into the Guardafui Channel, the Gulf of Aden, and the Indian Ocean. It is equidistant from the equator and the Tropic of Cancer. It extends out into the Arabian Sea for hundreds of kilometres. It is located along the south of the Gulf of Aden. The Horn of Africa is a UNESCO Biodiversity Hotspot and one of the two entirely arid ones. Biodiversity Hotspot: To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, an area must meet two strict criteria:- Contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants found nowhere else on Earth (known as “endemic” species). Have lost at least 70 per cent of its primary native vegetation. The Greater Horn of Africa region includes Burundi, Djibouti, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Kenya, Rwanda, Somalia, South Sudan, Sudan, Tanzania, and Uganda.  About the El Nino:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA El Nino is the warming of seawater in the central-east Equatorial Pacific that occurs every few years. During El Niño, surface temperatures in the equatorial Pacific rise, and trade winds ,east-west winds that blow near the Equator weaken. Normally, easterly trade winds blow from the Americas towards Asia. Due to El Niño, they falter and change direction to turn into westerlies, bringing warm water from the western Pacific towards the Americas. It occurs every 3-6 years. It lasts for about 9-12 months. It can cause droughts, flooding, and changes in temperature. It can lead to below-normal rainfall, which affects India’s agricultural sector. Impacts of El Nino:- Disruptions in the food chain Disruptions in the overall ecosystem Warm waters also carry tropical species towards colder areas, disrupting multiple ecosystems. Alterations in wind and weather patterns MUST READ: India-Africa: Challenges & Way Ahead SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (2022) Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Q.2) With reference to the ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting the Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct (2017) The IOD phenomenon is characterized by a difference in sea surface temperature between the tropical Western Indian Ocean and the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) Chairperson Justice Arun Mishra addressed the 14th International Conference of the National Human Rights Institutions (NHRIs). About the 14th International Conference of the National Human Rights Institutions (NHRIs):- Date: 6-8 November 2023. Venue: Copenhagen, Denmark. Theme:‘Torture and other ill-treatment, The role of NHRIs’. Justice Mishra stressed Cooperation to make societies more humane and civil to eradicate the menace of torture where often victims are poor and hapless individuals. He added that to effectively address the practice of torture, prosecution of perpetrators and disciplinary action is non-negotiable with transparency in police actions and places of detention. Justice Mishra also said that Public Interest Litigation in courts and suo motu cognizance by the NHRC are unique instruments to ensure justice for the victims. He added that NHRIs owe not only to present but also future generations to take effective steps to prevent torture. About the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):- Established: 1993. HQ: New Delhi. NHRC is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993. The Act also provides for the creation of the State Human Rights Commission (SHRC) as well. State Human Rights Commission: It is charged with the protection of Human Rights or investigating any violations that occur within their respective state. Historical Background:- NHRC was established in conformity with the Paris Principles. Paris Principles: adopted for the promotion and protection of human rights in Paris in 1991. It was endorsed by the General Assembly of the United Nations in 1993. Composition of NHRC:- It is a multi-member body. It consists of a chairperson, five full-time Members, and seven deemed Members. Chairperson: a retired chief justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court. Appointments:- The chairman and members are appointed by the President on the recommendations of a six-member committee consisting of:- Prime Minister (head) Speaker of the Lok Sabha Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha Leaders of the Opposition in both Houses of Parliament Union Home Minister. Term: three years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. Removal: The president can remove them from office under specific circumstances. They can be removed only on the charges of proven misbehaviour or incapacity if proved by an inquiry conducted by a Supreme Court Judge. Functions of NHRC:- To investigate the violation of human rights. To prevent a human rights violation. To conduct research about human rights. To create awareness campaigns through various mediums, and encourage the work of non-governmental organizations (NGOs). NGO: a group that functions independently of any government. It is the watchdog of human rights in the country. MUST READ: New Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) appointed SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2)  In India, Judicial Review implies:- (2017) The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders. The power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures. The power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before the President assents to them. The power of the Judiciary to review its own judgments given earlier in similar or different cases. G-7 Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently held G-7 meeting appealed for humanitarian pauses in Gaza. Background:- Foreign Ministers who met in Tokyo seek the release of hostages and a return to a ‘broader peace process’, and offer to draw up long-term solutions. About G-7:- IMAGE SOURCE: WorldAtlas G7 stands for “Group of Seven” industrialized nations. This intergovernmental organization was formed in 1997. Headquarters: The G-7 does not have a formal constitution or a fixed headquarters. Membership: United States, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan and the United Kingdom. Origin:- The G7 draws its roots from a meeting between the current G7 members, excluding Canada that took place in At the time, the global economy was in a state of recession due to the OPEC oil embargo. As the energy crisis was escalating, the US decided that it would be beneficial for the large players on the world stage to coordinate with each other on macroeconomic initiatives. The bloc meets annually to discuss issues of common interest like global economic governance, international security and energy policy. The decisions taken by leaders during annual summits are non-binding. Members share common values like democracy, respect for human rights and fundamental freedoms, free markets, and respect for international law. The G7 is an intergovernmental association made up of countries that have the world’s biggest, most developed economies. The G7 was previously called the G8 until Russia was expelled from the group. The G7 does not include some of the world’s biggest economies, such as China, Brazil, and India. Significance:- Economic Significance: The G7 nations account for close to 60 per cent of global net wealth. MUST READ: G-7 and India SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1.) In which one of the following groups are all four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand. Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam. Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea. Q2.) Which of the following is NOT a member of the Gulf Cooperation Council? (2016) Iran Saudi Arabia Oman Kuwait Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation Day Syllabus Prelims – IMPORTANT DAYS Context: Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation Day was celebrated recently. Key highlights of the event:- Date: 07 November, 2023 Venue: Dhaka, Bangladesh. Organized by: High Commission of India in Dhaka in collaboration with the ITEC Alumni Association of Bangladesh (IAAB). The High Commission of India in Dhaka organized a function in collaboration with the ITEC Alumni Association of Bangladesh (IAAB), to celebrate ITEC Day. September 15 has been designated as ITEC Day. Bangladesh’s Agriculture Minister Dr. Muhammad Abdur Razzaque graced the occasion as the Chief Guest. Around 180 ITEC alumni from all walks of life, besides distinguished guests, attended the event. Some of the distinguished ITEC alumni also shared their training experiences with the audience. A small cultural event culminated in the programme. About Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation Day:- Institution: 1964. ITEC is a flagship programme of the Government of India. It was instituted in 1964 as part of India’s Development Assistance Programme. The Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC) Programme was instituted by a decision of the Indian Cabinet on 15 September 1964 as a bilateral programme of assistance of the Government of India. Features:- The ITEC Programme is essentially bilateral in nature. However, in recent years, ITEC resources have also been used for cooperation programmes conceived in regional and inter-regional contexts such as the Economic Commission for Africa, Commonwealth Secretariat, UNIDO, Group of 77 and G-15. It has been offering the benefit of India’s development experience and technological progress to more than 160 countries across the globe. Every year, more than 10,000 training slots are offered to ITEC partner countries for training courses in premier Indian Institutes in various areas like Agriculture, Accounts, Audit, Good Governance Practices, Management, Small and Medium Enterprises, Rural Development, Public Health, Parliamentary Affairs, Judiciary, Election Management, IT, Data Analytics, Remote Sensing, Renewable Energy etc. To date, more than 5,000 young Bangladeshi professionals have undergone such courses in India under the ITEC programmes. Components of the ITEC/SCAAP Programme:- Training (civilian and defence) in India of nominees from ITEC partner countries Projects and project-related activities such as feasibility studies and consultancy services (India’s cyber infrastructure) Deputation of Indian experts abroad Study Tours Gifts/Donations of equipment at the request of ITEC partner countries and Aid for Disaster Relief. Significance:- The decision regarding setting up the ITEC programme was predicated on the underlying belief that “it was necessary to establish relations of mutual concern and inter-dependence based not only on commonly held ideals and aspirations but also on solid economic foundations. Technical and economic cooperation was considered to be one of the essential functions of an integrated and imaginative foreign policy.” MUST READ: International Solar Alliance SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) Which of the following gives the ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world? (2017) World Economic Forum UN Human Rights Council UN Women World Health Organization Importance of Loss and Damage Funds Syllabus Mains – GS III: Environment As the climate crisis intensifies, two possibilities exist. Adaptation – Adaptation is the proactive response to climate change, the art of survival by which communities and countries make deliberate choices to prepare for and cope with climate related challenges. ‘Loss And Damage’ (L&D)- L&D represents the irreversible consequences of climate change, impacts that can’t be avoided or mitigated through adaptation efforts. They encompass the real losses that extend beyond monetary value and cut to the core of human rights and well-being. L&D includes economic losses, human casualties, and the degradation of ecosystems and cultural heritage. What Is Loss and Damage Fund? L&D fund was created to provide financial and technical assistance to economically developing nations that were incurring L&D due to climate change. This is call for affluent nations to acknowledge their accountability for historic pollution, which elevated the world’s average surface temperature by more than 1 degree Celsius and is currently inflicting damage worldwide, but especially in the poorest nations. At the 19th Conference of the Parties (COP 19) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in Warsaw, Poland, in 2013, representatives of member countries formally agreed to establish the L&D fund. However, during the 2021 COP26 climate summit in Glasgow, a 3-year task force was established to consider a funding arrangement for loss and damage. Significance Of Loss and Damage Fund Equity and justice: A loss and damage fund helps address the ethical and moral imperative of aiding those who are least responsible for causing climate change but are suffering its most severe consequences. Climate adaptation limitations: While efforts are made to mitigate climate change through emissions reductions, adaptation measures to cope with its effects, particularly for extreme events like hurricanes, droughts, and floods, have limitations. A loss and damage fund provides a safety net for communities that cannot fully adapt to these impacts, ensuring that they receive support when adaptation alone is insufficient. Climate justice in international agreements: The concept of a loss and damage fund has gained prominence in international climate negotiations, such as the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). It underscores the principles of common but differentiated responsibilities, recognizing that historically high emitters have a responsibility to assist those disproportionately affected by climate change. This is an important element in ensuring equitable global climate agreements. Risk reduction and resilience building: A loss and damage fund can support risk reduction and resilience-building efforts in vulnerable regions. This includes investments in infrastructure, early warning systems, disaster preparedness, and community-based adaptation projects that can help reduce future losses and damages. Concerns Regarding the Fund The unwillingness of wealthy nations to fulfil intended commitments undermines faith in global climate negotiations and hampers the cooperative spirit necessary to address climate change. As far as future COP negotiations are concerned, it only commits to creating a fund and leaves it up to discussion how it will be set up and, most importantly, who will contribute to it. Beyond the immediate diplomatic and trust-related repercussions, the watering down of the L&D fund has wide-reaching implications. It threatens climate justice and exacerbates the suffering of vulnerable communities in developing nations. While there have been nominal commitments by certain countries to donate to such a fund, the estimated L&D is already over USD 500 billion. There is no agreement yet on what counts as “loss and damage” caused by climate change which could include infrastructure damage, property damage, and cultural assets whose value is hard to quantify. Climate funding so far has focused mostly on cutting carbon dioxide emissions in an effort to curb global warming, while about a third of it has gone toward projects to help communities adapt to future impacts. India’s Related Initiatives National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) It was established in 2015 to meet the cost of adaptation to climate change for the State and Union Territories of India that are particularly vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change. National Clean Energy Fund The Fund was created to promote clean energy, and funded through an initial carbon tax on the use of coal by industries. It is governed by an Inter-Ministerial Group with the Finance Secretary as the Chairman. Its mandate is to fund research and development of innovative clean energy technology in the fossil and non-fossil fuel-based sectors. National Adaptation Fund The fund was established in 2014 with a corpus of Rs. 100 crores with the aim of bridging the gap between the need and the available funds. The fund is operated under the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). Conclusion Addressing these issues in the implementation of loss and damage funds requires international cooperation, careful negotiation, transparency, and a commitment to equity and justice. It’s an ongoing process as the international community grapples with the evolving challenges posed by climate change and its consequences. Connect the Dots: How essential is climate funding to fight the climate change effects immediately? CAG of India Syllabus Mains – GS II: Governance and Social Issues India’s CAG: Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India plays a crucial role in the democratic framework by ensuring transparency, accountability, and financial integrity in government’s functioning. CAG helps to maintain the separation of powers between legislature and executive by ensuring that the government’s financial activities align with legislative intentions. Through its audit findings and recommendations, the CAG’s promotes good governance practices and helps government streamline their operations, reduce inefficiencies, and adhere financial discipline. Functions, Duties and Powers of Comptroller and Auditor General of India The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is a constitutional functionary, independent of Parliament/legislature and executives. The CAG is responsible for Audit of Ministries and departments of Government of India and the State Governments. Audit of Central and State Government Public Sector Undertakings and other autonomous bodies and authorities which are financed from Government funds. Audit of receipts of Union or of States. Audit of accounts stores and stock. Audit of companies and corporations. The Comptroller and Auditor General is also responsible of compilation of accounts of the State Government, authorization of pensioners benefits of selected categories of employees, maintenance of provident funds accounts of State Government employees of most State Governments. These audit and accounting functions are carried out by the Indian Audit and Accounts Department (IA & AD) which functions under the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Limitations: The Power of CAG Report is post-facto: i.e. after the expenditure is incurred and has only prospective value in improving systems and procedures. Secret service expenditure: such expenditure is outside the purview of the CAG and he cannot call for particulars of expenditure incurred by the executive agencies, but has to accept a certificate from the competent administrative authority that the expenditure has been so incurred. Rising PPP investments: Since the legislation, the government has increased its participation with the private sector through the PPT (public-private-transfer) and BOT (build-own-transfer) models. However, the rules have not undergone a significant change and CAG does not have the power to audit PPP (Public Private Partnership) investments. NGO’s, PRI and ULB’s out of audit ambit: There is no provision for auditing of funds that are given to an NGO and elected local bodies. Also, CAG presently does not have the full authority to audit the PRIs and ULBs. In most states, the Examiners functioning under the Finance Department audit the accounts of local bodies. DRDAs also not auditable: (District Rural Development Authority) today are managing large sums of money for rural development yet they also are outside the purview of CAG audits. Denial of documents: the path to obtain the relevant documents to carry out their tasks and make a report on its basis has never been easy for audit department. It has also been involved in several cases where the necessary documents were denied to the CAG and the powers of the CAG had to be reinstated by the Judiciary. In the past, almost 30% of the documents demanded by CAG officials have been denied to them. Mode of Appointment: The present selection process for the CAG is entirely internal to the Government machinery; no one outside has any knowledge of what criteria are applied, how names are shortlisted and how a final selection is made. There is a lack of clarity on the criterion, the definition of the field of choice, and the procedures for the selection of this high constitutional functionary. Word audit not defined: The word ‘audit’ has not been defined in either the Constitution or in the CAG Act, 1971. We have so far been going by 150 years of history, tradition, existing provisions and international practice. The CAG has not formulated its own policy in the above reports and has only gone by policy prescriptions recommended internally at various levels within the government. Constitutional provisions related to CAG Art. 148: broadly speaks of the CAG, his appointment, oath and conditions of service Art. 149: broadly speaks of the Duties and Powers of the CAG Art. 150: The accounts of the Union and the States shall be kept in such form as the President may, on the advice of the CAG, prescribe. Art. 151: Audit Reports: The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the president, who shall cause them to be laid before each House of Parliament. Broad Objectives of Audit The broad objectives of audit are to ensure legality, regularity, economy, efficiency and effectiveness of financial management and public administration mainly through assessment as to: whether the financial statements are properly prepared, are complete in all respects and are presented with adequate disclosures (financial audit); whether the provisions of the Constitution, the applicable laws, rules and regulations made thereunder, and various orders and instructions issued by competent authority are being complied with (compliance audit); and The extent to which an activity, programme or Organisation operates economically, efficiently and effectively (performance audit). Types of Audit Performed by CAG Regulatory Audit: It is an audit to ascertain whether the money spent was authorized for the purpose for which they were spent and also that the expenditure incurred was in conformity with the laws, rules and regulations. Supplementary Audit: CAG takes up supplementary audits in PSUs, even after the commercial audits are done by the auditors appointed by the CAG, for the detection of leakages. Propriety Audit: It focuses on whether the expenditure made is in the public interest or not i.e. it moves beyond mere scrutiny of expenditure to question its wisdom and economy to identify cases of improper expenditure and waste of public money. Efficiency Audit: Efficiency audit as the name suggests answers the question of whether the money invested yields optimum results. The main purpose of the efficiency audit is to ensure that the investment is prioritized and channeled into its most profitable utilization. Performance Audit: Performance audit answers whether the government programs such as NREGA have achieved the desired objectives at the lowest cost and given the intended benefits. It generally does not get into the merits-demerits of a particular policy/scheme but rather looks into the effectiveness with which the scheme is implemented and any deficiencies thereof. Environmental Audit: This is a relatively new area of concern for the CAG keeping in mind the challenges facing India with respect to the conservation and management of the environment. More than 100 audits on environmental issues like bio-diversity, pollution of rivers, waste management have been conducted by the CAG to identify critical issues and suggest possible solutions by involving all stakeholders. Conclusion The Comptroller and Auditor General plays a crucial role in maintaining the financial integrity of government operations, promoting transparency and accountability, and safeguarding public funds. It contributes to better governance and ensures that public resources are used efficiently and effectively for the benefit of citizens.  Connect the Dots CAG catalysis good governance, transparency and accountability, the responsibility to nurture and protect democratic principles. Critically analyze. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Organization Headquarters World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) Rome, Italy Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) Geneva, Switzerland United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) Vienna, Austria How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The Directorate of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is responsible for the Licensing of air traffic controllers. Statement-II : It promotes the indigenous design and manufacture of aircraft. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), consider the following statements: It was established in 1990. It has headquarters in Mumbai. It is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  9th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 8th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 9th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 8th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Tuberculosis Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent reports suggest that India, Indonesia and the Philippines account for over 60% drop in tuberculosis reporting in 2020 and 2021. Background:- TB remained the world’s second leading cause of death from a single infectious agent in 2022, after COVID-19 and caused almost twice as many deaths as human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) / acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), being the leading cause of death among people with HIV. About Tuberculosis:- Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease that most often affects the lungs. TB is caused by bacteria (Mycobacterium tuberculosis) that most often affect the lungs but may also affect other parts. Tuberculosis is preventable and curable. About a quarter of the global population is estimated to have been infected with TB bacteria. About 5–10% of people infected with TB will eventually get symptoms and develop TB disease. Risk factors: The most common risk factor associated with TB is HIV and other conditions that impair the immune system. Symptoms:- prolonged cough (sometimes with blood) chest pain weakness fatigue weight loss fever night sweats Transmission:- Bacteria are spread through the air, just like a cold or the flu. It spreads through the air when infected people cough, sneeze or spit. Those who are infected but not (yet) ill with the disease cannot transmit it. Treatment:- TB disease is usually treated with antibiotics and can be fatal without treatment. In certain countries, the Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine is given to babies or small children to prevent TB. The vaccine prevents TB outside of the lungs but not in the lungs. Prevention:- Seeking medical attention if you have symptoms like prolonged cough, fever and unexplained weight loss as early treatment for TB can help stop the spread of the disease and improve your chances of recovery. Getting tested for TB infection if you are at increased risk, such as if you have HIV or are in contact with people who have TB in your household or your workplace. Practicing good hygiene when coughing, including avoiding contact with other people and wearing a mask, covering your mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing, and disposing of sputum and used tissues properly.  MUST READ: India’s TB Elimination Programme SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following statements is not correct? (2017) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV. Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine. Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses is several times more than those infected with HIV. Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years. Badrinath Dham Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, President Draupadi Murmu visited the Badrinath Dham. Background:- The president is scheduled to address the 11th convocation of Hemvati Nandan Bahuguna Garhwal University in Srinagar. The president will also attend a program organized in Dehradun tomorrow to celebrate Uttarakhand State Foundation Day. About Badrinath Dham:- Location: Uttarakhand, India. Badrinath or Badrinarayan Temple is a Hindu temple. It is situated in the town of Badrinath. It is dedicated to lord Vishnu. It forms one of the four Char Dham and Chota Char Dham pilgrimage sites. (Srisailam Temple) The four char dhams include:- Badrinath Kedarnath Gangotri Yamunotri The temple is located on Garhwal hill tracks in Chamoli district. It is along the banks of the Alaknanda River. The temple has three structures: the Garbhagriha (sanctum), the Darshan Mandap (worship hall), and Sabha Mandap (convention hall). The Tapt Kund, a group of hot sulphur springs just below the temple, are considered to be medicinal. The Badrinath Dham, which symbolizes a synthesis of religious, cultural and spiritual mystic beauty, is undergoing reconstruction and beautification. MUST READ: Khajuraho temples SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) Kalamkari painting refers to (2015) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India. a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in Northeast India. a block-painted woollen cloth in the Western Himalayan region of India. a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India. National Investigation Agency Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT AGENCIES Context: The National Investigation Agency, has carried out coordinated searches at eight locations across Punjab, Uttarakhand, and Uttar Pradesh in a heroin seizure case recently. Background:- The searches relate to the seizure of a substantial quantity of narcotics, specifically heroin, which was intercepted upon its arrival in India through the Integrated Check Post in Attari, Amritsar in April last year. About National Investigation Agency:- NIA is functioning as the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency in India. Establishment: 2008. It was established by the National Investigation Agency Act, enacted on 31-12-08. (NIA) Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs. HQ: New Delhi. It is a central agency to investigate and prosecute offences:- affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India, security of the State, and friendly relations with foreign States. against atomic and nuclear facilities. smuggling in High-Quality Counterfeit Indian Currency. Objectives:- It implements international treaties, agreements, conventions and resolutions of the United Nations, its agencies and other international organizations. Historical Background:- The agency at the Central level was created for the investigation of offences related to terrorism and certain other Acts post-2008 Mumbai terror attacks. Functions of NIA:- In-depth professional investigation of scheduled offences using the latest scientific methods. Ensuring effective and speedy trials. Developing into a thoroughly professional, result-oriented organization. Developing a professional workforce through regular training and exposure to the best practices and procedures. Maintaining professional and cordial relations with the governments of States and Union Territories and other law enforcement agencies in compliance with the legal provisions of the NIA Act. Assist all States and other investigating agencies in the investigation of terrorist cases. (Unlawful Activities and (Prevention) Act (UAPA)) Build a database on all terrorist-related information. Share the database available with the States and other agencies. Study and analyse laws relating to terrorism in other countries. MUST READ: Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India : (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements : (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mann Ki Baat program Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNANCE Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently, called upon people to be vocal for local this festival season in his Mann Ki Baat program. Background:- Prime Minister Narendra Modi has called upon people to be vocal for local by purchasing local goods on the occasion of festivals. The effect of this inspiration of the Prime Minister is also visible in the people shopping for festivals in Punjab. About Mann Ki Baat program:- Mann Ki Baat is an Indian radio program hosted by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. He addresses the people of the nation on All India Radio, DD National and DD News. The first Mann Ki Baat programme was broadcast on the occasion of Vijayadashami on 3 October 2014. The program is India’s first visually enriched radio program. Objective: to establish a dialogue with the citizens on issues of day-to-day governance. (Importance of e-governance in administration) The Radio was chosen as the medium of the program due to its wide reach and an estimated 90% of the total Indian population can be reached through the medium. The Prime Minister, Narendra Modi addresses the nation every month on All India Radio. The 100th episode of Mann Ki Baat was broadcast on April 30, 2023. DG UNESCO became a part of this episode. He thanked Prime Minister Modi on behalf of UNESCO for the opportunity to be part of the 100th episode of the ‘Mann Ki Baat’ Radio broadcast. Guests on the show:- The former President of the United States, Barack Obama, was a part of the fourth episode of Mann Ki Baat, which was aired on 27 January 2015. On 29 September 2019, Lata Mangeshkar was a special guest on the show. The program was recorded originally in (Languages of India ) However, it is translated into various languages like Adi, Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, English, Garo, Gujarati, Kannada, Kashmiri, Khasi, Kokborok, Konkani, Lepcha, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Mizo, Nagamese, Nepali, Odia, Pnar, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu. MUST READ: Asia-Pacific Broadcasting Union SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Project Loon’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to (2016) waste management technology wireless communication technology solar power production technology water conservation technology Q.2) With reference to ‘Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2015) It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a metre from each other NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Venus Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, Astronomers peering at the atmosphere of Venus have detected clear signs of atomic oxygen in daylight. Background:- Atomic oxygen is known to exist in the planet’s atmosphere, according to theoretical models, and has even been directly detected on Venus’ nightside but the dayside detection means we have new insight into the dynamics of the Venusian atmosphere. About Venus:- Surface Temperature: 462 °C Number of Moons: None First Recorded: 17th century BCE by Babylon astronomers It is one of the four inner, terrestrial (or rocky) planets. It is the only planet named after a female. It is named after the Roman goddess of love and beauty. It is the second planet from the Sun. It is the sixth in the solar system in size and mass. It is the brightest planet. It is the hottest planet in the solar system because of the high concentration of carbon dioxide which works to produce an intense greenhouse effect. Unlike the other planets in our solar system, Venus and Uranus spin clockwise on their axis. Venus has been called Earth’s twin because of the similarities in their masses, sizes, and densities and their similar relative locations in the solar system. Venus Missions:- US: Mariner series 1962-1974, Pioneer Venus 1 and Pioneer Venus 2 in 1978, Magellan in 1989. (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR)) Russia: Venera series of space crafts 1967-1983, Vegas 1 and 2 in 1985. Japan: Akatsuki in 2015. Europe: Venus Express in 2005. India: Shukrayaan (to be launched in 2024.) MUST READ: Exoplanets SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct? (2023) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times that received at the poles. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Election Commission Syllabus Prelims – POLITY Context: Recently, the Election Commission provided the facility to voters above 80 years of age & Divyanga to vote from home. Background:- Chief Electoral Officer Anupam Rajan informed that the Election Commission has provided the facility to voters above 80 years of age and those with more than 40 per cent Divyanga to vote from home in the assembly elections in Madhya Pradesh. Similarly, service voters have also the facility to cast their vote before voting. About Election Commission:- The Election Commission is a permanent and independent body established by the Constitution of India. ( Election Commission) Objective: to ensure free and fair elections in the country. Article 324 of the Constitution: provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission. Composition Election Commission of India:- Members: The election commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and a such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. Appointment: The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made by the Head: When any other election commissioner is so appointed the chief election commissioner shall act as the chairman of the election commission. Regional commissioners: The president may also appoint after consultation with the election commission such regional commissioners as he may consider necessary to assist the election commission. Procedure of Removal:- The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge by Parliament. Judges of High Courts and Supreme Court, CEC, Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) may be removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on grounds of ‘Proven misbehaviour or incapacity’. Removal requires a special majority of 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50% of the total strength of the house. Conditions of service: it shall be such as the President may by rule. Tenure of office: The President may by rule determine it. Key Functions of ECI:- ECI superintendents, direct and control the entire process of conducting elections. ( Cohort on Election Integrity) These include elections to Parliament and Legislature of every State and to the offices of President and Vice-President of India. It decides the election schedules for the conduct of periodic and timely elections, whether general or bye-elections. It prepares electoral rolls and issues Electronic Photo Identity Cards (EPIC). It decides on the location of polling stations, assignment of voters to the polling stations, location of counting centres, and other related arrangements to be made. It grants recognition to political parties. It allots election symbols to them along with settling disputes related to it. Advisory jurisdiction: it can advise in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures. It issues the Model Code of Conduct in elections for political parties and candidates. Model Code of Conduct: a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India for the conduct of political parties and candidates during elections. It sets limits of campaign expenditure per candidate to all the political parties and also monitors the same. MUST READ: Finance Commission SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean? (2023) The principle of natural justice The procedure established by law Fair application of law Equality before law Q.2) With reference to the Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements : (2023) When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None MAINS Forced Displacement Syllabus Mains: GS II – Human Resources and GS III – Internal Security Context: The UN defines refugees as those individuals who have fled their own countries because of persecution, war, or violence. A refugee has a well-founded fear of persecution for reasons of race, religion, nationality, political opinion, or membership in a particular social group. Most likely, they cannot return home or are afraid to do so. War and ethnic, tribal, and religious violence are leading causes of refugees fleeing their countries. Statistics about Displacement According to UNHCR’s statistics on forced displacement, the number of people who were forced to flee their homes due to persecution, conflict, violence, human rights violations and events seriously disturbing public order reached a record 108.4 million by the end of 2022, and 30% of them were children. The main driver of displacement in 2022 was the full-scale war in Ukraine, which erupted in February 2022 and created the fastest and one of the largest displacement crises since World War II. By the end of 2022, a total of 11.6 million Ukrainians remained displaced, including 5.9 million within their country and 5.7 million who fled to neighbouring countries and beyond. In addition to conflict and violence, climate change and natural disasters also triggered displacement and exacerbated the vulnerability of displaced populations. Climate disasters caused 32.6 million internal displacements throughout 2022 and 8.7 million of the people did not manage to return home by the end of the year. Disaster related internal displacement accounted for more than half (54%) of all new displacements in 2022. Causes of Displacement Conflict and War: People often flee their homes when violence and warfare break out in their region, as they fear for their safety and the safety of their families. Ukrainian displacement is an example of it. Persecution: Persecution based on factors such as political beliefs, religion, ethnicity, race, nationality, or membership in a particular social group can force people to become refugees. For Example – Rohingya Muslims Human Rights Violations: Gross human rights violations, including torture, discrimination, and denial of basic freedoms, can lead individuals or communities to seek refuge in other countries. For example, Afghanistan people were displaced after the Taliban takeover Environmental Disasters: Natural disasters, such as earthquakes, hurricanes, floods, and droughts, can displace people from their homes. This is often referred to as “environmental displacement” or “climate refugees.” Economic Hardship: Economic instability and extreme poverty can also drive people to become refugees. They may leave their home countries in search of better economic opportunities and living conditions. Political Instability: Political instability, including coups, government oppression, and a lack of democratic governance, can lead to refugee crises as people seek more stable environments. Example Congo refugees. Impact of Forced Displacement on Host Countries Strain on Resources and Services: The sudden influx of refugees can place significant pressure on host communities’ resources and can overburden existing infrastructure, leading to shortages and reduced access for both refugees and host community members. Social Cohesion and Cultural Dynamics: The arrival of refugees may create social tensions and cultural dynamics within host communities. Differences in language, religion, and customs can generate misunderstandings and conflicts. Increased Competition for Jobs: The presence of refugees can lead to competition for employment opportunities in host communities. Some host community members may perceive refugees as taking away jobs or driving down wages, leading to tension and resentment. Current Refugee Situation in India India is home to diverse groups of refugees, ranging from Buddhist Chakmas from the Chittagong Hill Tracts of Bangladesh, to Bhutanese from Nepal, Muslim Rohingyas from Myanmar, and small populations from Somalia, Sudan, and other sub-Saharan African countries. According to the UNHCR, there were 204,600 refugees, asylum seekers, and ‘others of concern’ in India in 2011. They were made up of 13,200 people from Afghanistan, 16,300 from Myanmar, 2,100 from various other countries, and the two older populations of around 100,000 Tibetans and 73,000 Sri Lankan Tamils. The UNHCR financially assisted 31,600 of them. In late 2011, the Rohingya started to arrive in India’s Northeast following stepped-up persecution by the Myanmar’s armed forces. According to the Home Ministry, there are roughly 14,000 Rohingya refugees in Other refugees include Ahmadiyya, Shia, Hazaras from Pakistan and Afghanistan. Conclusion Addressing the root causes of forced displacement requires efforts to resolve conflicts and promote peace. Diplomatic negotiations, mediation, and peace-building initiatives can help prevent further displacement by resolving the underlying issues. Connect the Dots Analyze India’s stance and laws on refugees. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: VENUS MISSIONS COUNTRY Venus Express Europe Vegas USA Magellan Russia How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : NIA builds a database of all terrorist-related information. Statement-II : It is under the Ministry of Defence. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Tuberculosis, consider the following statements: Those who are infected but not (yet) ill with the disease cannot transmit it. Tuberculosis is preventable and curable. It affects only the lungs. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  8th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 7th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 8th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Chile Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS/ GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Chile became the 95th member of the International Solar Alliance. About Chile:- IMAGE SOURCE: maps-chile.com Capital: Santiago Geography: Situated along the western seaboard of South America. Chile’s relief is for the most part mountainous, with the Andes range dominating the landscape. It borders Peru to the north, Bolivia to the northeast, Argentina to the east, and the Drake Passage in the south. The Atacama desert is one of the driest places in the world that touches Chile on its northern side and is a source of sodium nitrate fertilizer. Much of northern Chile is desert; the central part of the country is a temperate region where the bulk of the population lives and where the larger cities, including Santiago, are located. South-central Chile, with a lake and forest region, is temperate, humid, and suitable for grain cultivation; and the southernmost third of the country, cut by deep fjords, is an inhospitable region—cold, wet, windy, and limited in resources. Climate and Natural events: A land of extreme natural events: volcanic eruptions, violent earthquakes, and tsunamis. Fierce winter storms and flash floods alternate with severe summer droughts. Economy: It is based on primary economic activities: agricultural production; copper, iron, and nitrate mining; and the exploitation of sea resources. Chuquicamata is the World’s largest copper town in Chile. Australia, Chile, China and Argentina are the world’s top four lithium-producing countries. MUST READ: Renewable Energy Transition SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2016) The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015. The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Zika Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent genomic studies are opening new windows into understanding the complex interplay of Zika infections. About Zika:- The Zika virus is a mosquito-borne flavivirus. It was first identified in Uganda in 1947 in monkeys. It was later identified in humans in 1952 in Uganda and the United Republic of Tanzania. Most infections in humans are asymptomatic or with mild symptoms, including fever, rash, and joint pain. Transmission:- It is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected Aedes mosquitoes, particularly Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus. It can also spread through sexual contact, blood transfusion, and from an infected mother to her baby during pregnancy or childbirth. The Zika virus became notorious during the 2015-2018 outbreak that swept through the Americas. The outbreak was characterized by an alarming increase in the number of microcephaly cases in newborns, prompting the World Health Organization to declare it a public health emergency of international concern in early 2016. Treatment:- There is no vaccine or medicine for Zika. Instead, the focus is on relieving symptoms and includes rest, rehydration and acetaminophen for fever and pain. MUST READ: Controlling Dengue Using Wolbachia Bacteria SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Apollo 13 Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, Ken Mattingly, an astronaut who helped the Apollo 13 crew return safely home, died at age 87. He is best remembered for his efforts on the ground that helped bring the damaged Apollo 13 spacecraft safely back to Earth. About Apollo 13:- Launched: April 11, 1970 Launched from: Cape Canaveral, Florida. Agency: NASA (India – USA space cooperation) Rocket: Saturn V SA-508 rocket Seventh manned mission in the Apollo Space program (1961-1975). Its crew consisted of astronauts James Lovell Jr, Fred Haise Jr, and John Swigert Jr. Apollo 11 and 12 – the previous two missions had landed on Lunar Maria, the dark patches on the near side of the Moon which provide comparatively easier landing abilities. (Moon’s Wobble Effect) Apollo 13 was supposed to make a more challenging landing near the Fra Mauro, a crater which was formed as ejecta from the impact that formed the Imbrium Basin. While Apollo 13 did not land on the lunar surface, it was able to return with photographs that it took when it looped around the Moon. MUST READ: Luna 25 mission SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6, and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on it. Egyptian Vulture Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, an Egyptian Vulture was rescued and is showing signs of improvement. About Egyptian Vulture:- Scientific name: Neophorn Percnopterus Conservation status:- IUCN – Endangered (Vulture Conservation) It is a native bird of Europe, Central Asia and Africa, and in winter, it travels towards Asian countries, including India. They feed mainly on carrion but are opportunistic and will prey on small mammals, birds, and reptiles. They also feed on the eggs of other birds. It is considerably smaller than the other vultures in Europe. Adult animals have a bald yellow head and throat, and a white collar. The plumage is a creamy white, in sharp contrast with the black wing coverts. Young birds are brown with paler wing coverts and slowly whiten with each mould. These are monogamous, migrating between breeding seasons as a pair. MUST READ: Himalayan Vulture SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Consider the following ‘fauna: (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: (2023) They build nests by making burrows in the ground. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None 54th International Film Festival of India (IFFI) Syllabus Prelims – ART AND CULTURE In News: The British film ‘Catching Dust’ will be opening at the 54th International Film Festival of India (IFFI). The American film ‘The Featherweight’ will be the closing movie The Turkish film ‘About Dry Grasses’ will be the midfest movie. About the 54th International Film Festival of India (IFFI):- An annual event since Venue: Goa Organized by: National Film Development Corporation of India Ltd (NFDC) Ministry: Ministry of Information and Broadcasting Recognized by the International Federation of Film Producers Associations (FIAPF) as a Competitive Feature Film Festival Objectives:- Provide a common platform for filmmakers of the world to project their excellence in film art. Contribute to the understanding and appreciation of film cultures of different nations in the context of their social and cultural ethos Promote friendship and co-operation among people of the world. Awards: Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award for Excellence in Cinema: Instituted in the name of legendry filmmaker Satyajit Ray Indian Film Personality of the Year Award ICFT UNESCO – Gandhi Medal Award: Given to a film reflecting UNESCO’s fundamental mandate of building peace in the minds of men and women, particularly human rights. MUST READ: Kochi-Muziris Biennale: Art exhibition and festival SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 PM Vishwakarma scheme Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNANCE Context: The Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Ministry started the Training of Master Trainers and Assessors Programme under the PM Vishwakarma scheme recently. About PM Vishwakarma scheme:- Launched: 2023 Ministry: Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) It is a Central Sector Scheme. Objectives of PM Vishwakarma scheme:- To strengthen and nurture the Guru-Shishya parampara or family-based practice of traditional skills by artisans and craftspeople working with their hands and tools. To improve the quality, as well as the reach of products and services of artisans and craftspeople. To ensure that the Vishwakarmas are integrated with the domestic and global value chains. IMAGE SOURCE: oneindia.com Salient Features:- The artisans and craftspeople will be provided recognition through a PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card. Credit Support: Credit of up to Rs.1 lakh (First Tranche) and Rs.2 lakh (Second Tranche) will be given with a concessional interest rate of 5%. Skill learning: The Scheme will further provide Skill Upgradation, Toolkit Incentives, Incentives for Digital Transactions, and Marketing Support. Training: Skill development programs encompass both basic and advanced training. Stipend: Participants are entitled to a stipend of Rs 500 per day during their training period. Modern Tools and Equipment: Beneficiaries are eligible for financial support of up to ₹15,000 to procure modern tools, enhancing their efficiency and productivity. Sectors: Eighteen traditional trades will be covered in the first instance under PM Vishwakarma. These trades include (i) Carpenter (Suthar); (ii) Boat Maker; (iii) Armourer; (iv) Blacksmith (Lohar); (v) Hammer and Tool Kit Maker; (vi) Locksmith; (vii) Goldsmith (Sonar); (viii) Potter (Kumhaar); (ix) Sculptor (Moortikar, stone carver), Stone breaker; (x) Cobbler(Charmkar)/ Shoesmith/Footwear artisan; (xi) Mason (Rajmistri); (xii) Basket/Mat/Broom Maker/Coir Weaver; (xiii) Doll & Toy Maker (Traditional); (xiv) Barber (Naai); (xv) Garland maker (Malakaar); (xvi) Washerman (Dhobi); (xvii) Tailor (Darzi); and (xviii) Fishing Net Maker. It caters to both urban and rural areas, facilitating employment. (MSME Sustainable (ZED) Certification Scheme) Eligibility Criteria: – Indian Citizenship: Applicants must be Indian. Artisan or Craftsman: The applicant should be a traditional artisan or craftsman. Age Limit: No Age Limit for applying to the scheme. (Production Linked Incentive Scheme and its Implications) MUST READ: PM SVANidhi scheme SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 MAINS States In Court Against Their Governors Syllabus Mains – GS II – INDIAN CONSTITUTION Context: A battery of non-BJP ruled States have approached the Supreme Court accusing their Governors of using a non-existent discretion to unreasonably delay the passing of crucial Bills into law. The Bills in limbo cover sectors such as public health, higher education, Lokayukta and cooperative societies. Governor’s Power Over State Bills: Article 200 Article 200 of the Indian Constitution outlines the process for a Bill passed by the Legislative Assembly of a State to be presented to the Governor for assent, who may either assent, withhold assent or reserve the Bill for consideration by the President. The Governor may also return the Bill with a message requesting reconsideration by the House or Houses. Article 201 It states that when a Bill is reserved for the consideration of the President, the President may assent to, or withhold assent from the Bill. The President may also direct the Governor to return the Bill to the House or Houses of the Legislature of the State for reconsideration. Options Available with the Governor He may give assent, or he can send it back to the Assembly requesting it to reconsider some provisions of the Bill, or the Bill itself. He may reserve the bill for the consideration of the President. The reservation is obligatory where the bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state’s High Court. However, the Governor can also reserve the bill if it is of the following nature: Against the provisions of the Constitution Opposed to the DPSP Against the larger interest of the country Of grave national importance Deals with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A of the Constitution. Another option is to withhold the assent, this is the accusation being made by various state governments. Example in Kerala Governor withhold his assent for over eight bills passed by its Legislative Assembly not for months, but years. Of the eight, three Bills were waiting for the Governor’s word for over two years. Governors Discretion Power The Supreme Court in the Shamsher Singh case verdict has held that as a formal head of the State a “Governor exercises all his powers and functions conferred on him by or under the Constitution on the aid and advice of his Council of Ministers; save in spheres where the Governor is required by or under the Constitution to exercise his functions in his discretion.”  The assent or return of the Bill does not involve the discretion of individuals occupying the Governor’s post. Constitutional Discretion When they have to reserve the bill for the consideration of the President of India, Governors can decide on their own without the advice of the Council of Ministers When he has to recommend for the President’s rule in the state, he can act at his own discretion When he is given an additional charge as the administrator of the Union Territory, he can take actions at his own discretion When he has to determine the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council as royalty accruing from licenses for mineral exploration When he calls upon the Chief Minister to seek information regarding administrative and legislative affairs Situational Discretion When he has to appoint a Chief Minister after no party has a clear majority in the election or when the incumbent dies in the office When he dismisses the council of ministers on an inability to prove confidence in the state legislative assembly When he dissolves the state legislative assembly on time when it loses its majority Supreme Court’s Stand In 1972 judgment in Durga Pada Ghosh versus State of West Bengal, the Supreme Court had interpreted “as soon as possible” in Article 200 to mean “as early as practicable without avoidable delay.” SC in recent petition filed by the Punjab government accusing the Governor of sitting on seven key Bills related to subjects including fiscal and State-affiliated colleges, has noted that the Governors should not be oblivious of the fact that they are not elected by the people.” The 1988 Sarkaria Commission report on Centre-State relations had suggested consultation with the Governor while drafting the Bill and fixing a deadline for its disposal. Conclusion The framers of the Constitution did not anticipate Governors sitting on Bills indefinitely without taking any action under Article 200. Gubernatorial Procrastination is a new phenomenon that requires a new solution within the framework of the Constitution. Therefore, the Supreme Court should set a reasonable time frame for Governors to make a decision on a Bill passed by the Assembly in the interest of federalism in the country. Connect the dots: Whether the Supreme Court judgement can settle the political tussle between the Governors and elected governments of states? Examine. Net Neutrality In Internet Access Syllabus    Mains –GS III – ECONOMY What Is Net Neutrality? Net neutrality is the principle that Internet access providers must treat all traffic originating from and terminating to the Internet in the same way. The idea has been developed by Columbia Law School professor Tim Wu, he coined the term “net neutrality” in a 2003 paper titled “Network Neutrality, Broadband Discrimination.” Wu proposed the concept of net neutrality to promote an even playing field on the Internet, ensuring that all data is treated equally without discrimination by Internet service providers (ISPs) Why In News? The OTT consultation has renewed the clamor from the telecom companies that content providers such as Netflix, Amazon Prime, and Disney+ Hotstar be asked to share in the costs of bandwidth. They argue that streaming platforms are free riders, benefiting from the infrastructure built and maintained by the telecom companies. However, this argument is fundamentally flawed and sets a dangerous precedent that undermines the principle of net neutrality. Argument Between Telecom And Ott By offering services that consumer’s desire, OTT platforms generate demand for Internet access. They also pay for the content delivery networks (CDNs) to create pathways that substantially augment the capacity of the internet to deliver their content. Telecom companies capitalize on this demand (and the availability of OTT content) by providing connectivity to the Internet and charging subscribers for it. OTT services compete in their own market on the basis of variety and quality of content, the quality of streaming (such as, support for HD or better resolution or 5.1 surround sound), ease in navigation and discovery of content, and its availability on multiple devices. Similarly, in the marketplace for Internet access, the consumers are free to choose the provider that offers them the highest bandwidth, data volume, and reliability at an affordable price. These are distinct markets because services from one are not substitutable for services in the other. Therefore, it is logical to maintain a separation of costs between these two markets. The attempt of telcos to double dip by charging both consumers and content providers is not only avaricious but also undermines net neutrality. TRAI Regulations Net neutrality formed the basis of TRAI’s regulation on prohibition of discriminatory tariffs for data services. The regulator’s action forced the withdrawal of Facebook’s Free Basics platform and some other offerings in India. The Body of European Regulators for Electronic Communications (BEREC) and TRAI agreed through a memorandum of understanding to cooperate in developing technological and policy initiatives for net neutrality. Penetration of Internet in India According to a joint report by industry body IAMAI and market data analytics firm Kantar, more than half of Indians, 759 million citizens, are active internet users and access the internet at least once a month. The active internet base in India is expected to grow to 900 million by 2025 OTT Subscribers In India Each OTT paying audience member in India has 2.4 subscriptions on an average, according to Ormax OTT Audience Sizing Report 2022. The consultancy firm estimates that India has 424 million OTT users. On the other hand, India has an approximate 150 million households with TVs, which translates to 600 million TV viewers. The study also showed that 72 per cent consumers in India would pay for an all-in-one platform for their entertainment services. In addition, five in six (83 per cent) want the ability to share their streaming profiles across platforms to allow for better personalization of content. Connect the Dots  1.Do you think self-regulation of OTT is a appropriate step? Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Disease Caused by Small Pox Variola virus Tetanus Clostridium tetani Whooping Cough Bordetella pertussis How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Apollo 13 was the seventeenth manned mission in the Apollo Space program. Statement-II : It used the Saturn V SA-508 rocket. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the PM Vishwakarma scheme, consider the following statements: It is under the Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME). It is a Centrally sponsored scheme. It caters to only rural areas, facilitating employment. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  7th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) NITI Aayog Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, NITI Aayog organised a workshop on the theme “Inclusive Trade for Prosperity”. Background:- NITI Aayog organized a one-day workshop on the theme “Inclusive Trade for Prosperity”. Date: 6th November 2023. Venue: Hotel Taj Mahal, New Delhi. This workshop is part of a series of 10 feeder thematic workshops being held on varied themes discussed in the G20 New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration (NDLD). About NITI Aayog:- Establishment: 2015. HQ: New Delhi. NITI Aayog was established on 1st Jan 2015. Before NITI Aayog, there was a Planning Commission formed on 15 March 1950. The Planning Commission was non-constitutional. It serves as an advisory Think Tank. It focuses upon a ‘Bottom-Up’ approach to Planning. It does not possess mandate to impose policies. Objectives NITI Aayog:- Shared vision and participation of both central and state governments for the national development of sectors. Cooperative federalism. Credible Planning Focusing on the weaker sections Making Strategies and long-term policies Innovation for creating knowledge. Technology up-gradation Composition of NITI Aayog:- Chairperson: Prime Minister. Vice-Chairperson: To be appointed by the Prime Minister. Governing Council: Chief Ministers of all states and Lt. Governors of Union Territories. Regional Council: To address specific regional issues, Comprising Chief Ministers and Lt. Governors Chaired by the Prime Minister or his nominee. Adhoc Membership: 2 members in ex-officio capacity from leading Research institutions on a rotational basis. Ex-Officio membership: Maximum four from the Union Council of ministers to be nominated by the Prime minister. Chief Executive Officer: Appointed by the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure, in the rank of Secretary to the Government of India. Special Invitees: Experts and specialists with domain knowledge nominated by the Prime-minister. Functions:- Policy Formulation Monitoring and Evaluation Inter-governmental Coordination Promoting Reforms Research and Knowledge Sharing MUST READ: NITI AAYOG -TRIFED join hands for successful implementation SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following infrastructure sectors: (2023) Affordable housing Mass rapid transport Health care Renewable energy On how many of the above does the UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus on its investments? Only one Only two · Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four SURAT Warship Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, the Crest unveiling ceremony of the Indian Navy’s Warship “SURAT”. Background:- The Crest of Indian Navy’s latest, indigenous under-construction, guided missile destroyer, ‘Surat’, is scheduled to be unveiled by Shri Bhupendra Patel, the Chief Minister of Gujarat in the presence of Adm R Hari Kumar, the Chief of the Naval Staff, at a ceremony to be held in the city of Surat on 06 November 2023. About SURAT:- Constructed by: Mazagon Docks Shipbuilders Ltd. Mumbai. Naming: The Destroyer has been named after Gujarat’s commercial capital- Surat, which has a rich maritime and ship-building history. INS Surat is the fourth and the last ship of the Project 15B Indian Navy Destroyers. These are called the Visakhapatnam class after the lead vessel INS Visakhapatnam. The Indian Naval Destroyers are named after Indian cities as per the naval tradition. It began with Project 15, under which three destroyers were built: INS Delhi in 1997, INS Mysore in 1999 and INS Mumbai in 2001. Project 15 was followed by the three-destroyer Project 15A, under which INS Kolkata was commissioned in 2014, INS Kochi in 2015 and INS Chennai in 2016. It was followed by the ‘Project 15B’ programme involves the construction of four next-generation stealth-guided missile destroyers, of which ‘Surat’ is the fourth and the last ship. Under project 15-B:- The first: INS Visakhapatnam. The second: INS Mormugao. The third: INS Imphal. The fourth: INS Surat. While INS Morm­ugao will be commissioned in 2022, INS Imphal will be commissioned in 2023 and INS Surat is likely to be commissioned in 2024, all at one-year intervals. INS Surat has been built using Block construction methodology that involves hull construction in two different locations and then joined together at one hub. It is a Guided-missile destroyer. This is the first capital warship to be named after the city of Gujarat. Significance:- Construction of this warship testifies to the nation’s dedication to indigenous cutting-edge warship-building technology and commitment to strategic military advancements. MUST READ: Dunagiri, a Project 17A Frigate SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Pradhanmantri Sangrahalaya Syllabus Prelims – ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, Shuttle Bus service began from Metro Stations to Pradhanmantri Sangrahalaya. Background:- The visitors were experiencing issues with connectivity between metro stations and Sangrahalaya. About Pradhanmantri Sangrahalaya:- Location: Teen Murti, New Delhi. The Pradhanmantri Sangrahalaya is a tribute to every Prime Minister of India since Independence. It is a narrative record of how each one has contributed to the development of our nation over the last 75 years. It is a history of collective effort and powerful evidence of the creative success of India’s democracy. The Teen Murti Estate, home to India’s first Prime Minister Shri Jawaharlal Nehru for 16 years, was the natural environment for Pradhanmantri Sangrahalaya, because this is a story of continuity. Nehru Memorial Museum & Library (NMML) The Sangrahalaya is a seamless blend which begins at the renovated and refurbished Nehru Museum building, now completely updated and technologically advanced displays on the life and contribution of Shri Jawaharlal Nehru. The new panorama includes a section which exhibits a large number of rare gifts received by him from all over. The saga of modern India starts with the freedom struggle and the making of a great Constitution. The Sangrahalaya goes on to tell the story of how our Prime Ministers navigated the nation through various challenges and ensured the all-round progress of the country. Significance:- Our Prime Ministers came from every class and tier of society, it shows us the gates of democracy were equally open to all. MUST READ: National Council of Science Museums (NCSM) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora River. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal River. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari River. Enforcement Directorate (ED) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, the Government banned some illegal betting platforms on  Enforcement Directorate’s (ED) request. Background:- In an order , the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology blocked 22 illegal betting apps and websites including Mahadev Book and Reddyannaprestopro. About Enforcement Directorate (ED):- Establishment: 1956. Headquarters: New Delhi The Enforcement Directorate is a multi-disciplinary organization founded in 1956. It is a law enforcement organization tasked with enforcing economic laws and combating economic crime in India, such as money laundering and foreign exchange irregularities. It works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. The functions of the Directorate include the enforcement of the following Acts:- The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) ( Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) 2002) The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA): A civil law under which ED conducts an investigation into suspected contraventions of foreign exchange laws and regulations. (Foreign Exchange Management Act) The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act 1973 Sponsoring Organizations under the 1974 Foreign Exchange Conservation and Smuggling Activity Prevention Act The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA): A law whereby the Directorate is mandated to attach the properties of the fugitive economic offenders who have escaped from India warranting arrest and providing for the confiscation of their properties to the Central Government. (Fugitive Economic Offenders) Director of Enforcement:- Appointed by the central government on the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Central Vigilance Commissioner and members comprising of Vigilance Commissioners, Home Secretary, Secretary DOPT and Revenue Secretary. Tenure: up to 5 years. Recruitment of other officers:- Other officers may be recruited directly from other investigative agencies or indirectly. It is made up of representatives from the police, excise, customs, and income tax departments of the Indian Revenue Services (IRS), the Indian Police Services (IPS), and the Indian Administrative Services (IAS). MUST READ:  CBI and ED SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Chief Information Commissioner Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, Information Commissioner Heeralal Samariya was sworn-in as the new Chief Information Commissioner of the Central Information Commission. Background:- President Droupadi Murmu administered the oath of office to him at Rashtrapati Bhavan. Mr. Samariya was currently serving as the Information Commissioner in the Central Information Commission. About Central Information Commission (CIC):- Establishment:2005. The CIC was constituted in 2005 under the Right to Information Act, 2005. The RTI Act 2005 provides for the constitution of a Central Information Commission and State Information Commissions in each state. Jurisdiction: the Commission extends over all Central Public Authorities. The Right to Information (Amendment) Act, of 2019 amended the Right to Information Act, of 2005. The RTI Act, of 2005 specified the tenure, terms of service, and salaries of the Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) and Information Commissioners (ICs) at the central and state levels, in the parent law. Structure:- The Central Information Commission shall consist of: The Chief Information Commissioner (CIC). Members: Such numbers of Central Information Commissioners (ICs), not exceeding ten, as may be deemed necessary. The members shall be persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and Governance. The CIC or IC shall not be an MP or MLA or hold any other office of profit connected with any political party carrying on any business or pursuing any profession. Appointment: The members of the commission are appointed by a committee consisting of the PM (as Chair), the Leader of Opposition (LoP) in Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister appointed by the Prime Minister. Tenure: The CIC and ICs (at the central and state level) will hold office for a term of three years. Resignation: The CIC or an IC may, at any time, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign from his office. Removal: The CIC or an IC may be removed from office only by order of the President on the grounds of proven misbehaviour or incapacity after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, reports that he/she should be removed on the grounds mentioned. The President may also remove them from office if such a person is adjudged insolvent, convicted for certain offences etc. They are not eligible for reappointment. Power and Functions:- To receive and inquire into a complaint from any person regarding information requested under the RTI act. It can order an inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds (suo-moto power). While inquiring, the Commission has the powers of a civil court in respect of summoning, requiring documents, etc. Adjudication in the second appeal for giving information. Direction for record-keeping. Imposition of penalties and Monitoring and Reporting including preparation of an Annual MUST READ: Its time to review the Right To Information (RTI) Act SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India: (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Pancorius sebastiani Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT ANDECOLOGY Context: Recently, a new species of jumping spiders’ Pancorius sebastiani’ has been discovered. Background:- It has been discovered from the Western Ghats. About Pancorius sebastiani:- Naming: It has been named Pancorius sebastiani after the late spider taxonomist P.A. Distribution: southeast Asia. Its distribution was hitherto limited to the east and northeastern regions in India. The new species is the first to be reported from the south. The males and the females exhibit reddish brown carapace. They have yellowish abdomen with black patches and chevron-shaped markings posteromedially. It belongs to the jumping spider genus Pancorius Simon, and Salticidae family. Only two States, West Bengal and Tamil Nadu, have reported high numbers of Salticidae species, while the others including those harbouring biodiversity hotspots like the Western Ghats and northeastern India have relatively few numbers of species. MUST READ: Six spider species discovered SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (2023) Fishing cat Orangutan Otter Sloth bear Q.2) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Falling Farm Export Syllabus Mains – GS III – Agriculture & Economy Context: India’s agriculture exports have fallen 11.6% from April to September, due to various bans/restrictions on the shipments of various commodities from wheat and rice to sugar and global prices easing from their peaks scaled immediately after Russia’s invasion of Ukraine. According to department of commerce data Exports of farm commodities, at $23.6 Billion in April-Sept 2023, were $26.7 for the same period in 2022. Imports fell too, from $19.3 Billion to $16.2 Billion, resulting in a marginal dip in the agricultural trade surplus. The years 2021-22 and 2022-23 also saw record imports of $32.4 Billion and $35.7 Billion respectively. Impact of Global Prices UN Food and Agriculture Organization’s Food Price Index rose from an average of 96.5 points in 2019-20 to 139.5 points in 2022-23. India’s agricultural exports fell from $43.3 Billion in 2013-14 to $35.6 Billion in 2019-20. With world prices coming down, the value of both exports and imports of farm commodities are set to decline 2023-24. FAO has projected global ending cereal stocks from 2023-24 at an all-time high of 881.1 Million tonnes (mt) and the stocks-to-use ratio at 30.7%. Issues with Indian Farm Exports Quality and Standards Compliance: Indian agricultural exports often struggle to meet international quality and safety standards. The lack of uniform and consistently enforced quality control measures can result in rejections and bans of Indian agricultural products in international markets. Infrastructure and Logistics: Inefficient transportation, storage, and distribution systems can lead to post-harvest losses and higher costs. This affects the overall competitiveness of Indian farm exports. Lack of Cold Chain Facilities: A significant portion of perishable agricultural produce is lost due to inadequate cold storage and transportation facilities. This restricts the export potential of items like fruits and vegetables. Pest and Disease Concerns: Some countries place phytosanitary restrictions on Indian agricultural products due to concerns about pests and diseases. Ensuring pest-free produce can be a challenge. Trade Barriers and Tariffs: Non-tariff trade barriers, as well as tariffs and import restrictions, can affect the market access for Indian agricultural exports in various countries. Price Volatility: Fluctuations in commodity prices, both in domestic and international markets, can affect the profitability of Indian farm exports. Small and Marginal Farmers: The average land holding of Indian farmer is 1.8 Acres. Hence it limit their capacity to adopt modern agricultural practices and access export markets. Aggregation and coordination are often needed for effective exports. Conclusion Addressing these issues requires a multi-faceted approach involving government policies, private sector participation, research and development, and investment in infrastructure and technology. Moreover, enhancing the quality and safety of agricultural products, as well as streamlining export procedures, can help improve the competitiveness of Indian farm exports in the global market. Connect the Dots  Analyze different government policies to enhance Indian exports. National Security Strategy Syllabus Mains – GS III – Internal Security What is National Security Strategy (NSS)? A NSS document outlines the country’s security objectives, and the ways to achieve them. It defines traditional and non-traditional threats and opportunities while introducing accountability for agencies tasked with the implementation of various responsibilities. It means NSS would guide the military as well as critical Defence and security reforms, providing a holistic view of the overall National Security, the threats, and the roadmap to address them. Need For NSS The NSS is poised to encompass a broad spectrum of contemporary challenges, including financial and economic security, food and energy security, information warfare, critical information infrastructure vulnerabilities, supply chain concerns, and environmental issues. Complex nature of various traditional and non-traditional threats, especially amid rising geopolitical uncertainties, there is a need for new NSS. National security cannot be confined to the use of the state’s coercive power to overcome domestic and external threats. For example, threats to domestic peace and stability may arise from economic and social grievances. A knee-jerk reaction may leave the grievances unaddressed while the use of coercive power exacerbates rather than ameliorates the situation. For instance, left-wing extremism in India is rooted in the persistent exploitation of tribal populations. Similarly, the vulnerability of our borders is linked to a large-scale smuggling and contraband trade. Such threats cannot be dealt with solely through enhanced military capabilities without addressing the drivers of illegal trade. For a modern state operating in an increasingly globalized world, the line between what is domestic and what is external is becoming increasingly blurred. For example, terrorism is a threat to domestic security but may have external links. Thus, a combination of domestic and external interventions may be necessary. It is only within a comprehensive NSS that such complex inter-relationships between domestic and external dimensions can be analysed and coordinated policy responses formulated. Past Attempts and Hurdles Failed Attempts: India has previously made three attempts to develop a national security strategy, all without fruition. Political Hesitation: Some speculate that hesitation at the political level, driven by concerns about accountability in defence management, may have impeded the strategy’s release. Varied Views: There have been differing views within the strategic community regarding the absence of a national security strategy, ranging from a lack of cohesive government efforts to intentional non-disclosure of national security objectives. Global Precedents Established Nations with NSS: Developed nations with robust military and security infrastructures maintain National Security Strategies, updated periodically. The United States, the United Kingdom, and Russia have published their NSS. China’s Comprehensive National Security: China has a closely integrated Comprehensive National Security strategy, tightly linked to its governance structure. Pakistan’s National Security Policy: Pakistan recently unveiled a National Security Policy for 2022-2026, outlining its national security objectives and priorities. Conclusion National security strategies are critical for guiding a nation’s security apparatus and ensuring that resources are effectively allocated to protect the country’s interests. They serve as a blueprint for government agencies, military forces, and other stakeholders to work together in pursuit of national security goals. Connect the Dots How the technological innovation in Defence sector helping us to combat traditional and non-traditional challenges? Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Navy Warships Type INS Sindhuvijay Frigates INS Mysore Submarines INS Vikran Aircraft Carrier How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Pradhanmantri Sangrahalaya is located in New Delhi. Statement-II : It is a tribute to only the first  Prime Minister of India, Shri Jawaharlal Nehru. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the NITI Aayog, consider the following statements: It possesses a mandate to impose policies. Its Headquarters are in Mumbai. It focuses upon a ‘Bottom-Up’ approach to Planning. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  6th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 4th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 4th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Cuba Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS/GEOGRAPHY Context: The UN General Assembly recently, voted against US’ economic and trade embargo against Cuba. Background:- A total of 187 states voted for the resolution put forward against the embargo with only the US and Israel voting against and Ukraine abstaining. The UN General Assembly voiced concern that despite its resolutions dating back to 1992 the economic, commercial and financial embargo against Cuba is still in place and that the adverse effects of such measures are on the Cuban people and on Cuban nationals living in other countries. The US Representative said the nation recognizes the challenges the Cuban people face, explaining that sanctions include exemptions and authorizations relating to exports of food, medicines, and other humanitarian goods to Cuba. The General Assembly reiterated its call for all states to refrain from promulgating and applying such restrictive laws and measures, in line with their obligations under the UN Charter and international law. The United States embargo against Cuba prevents US businesses, and businesses organized under US law or majority-owned by US citizens, from conducting trade with Cuban interests. The US’ economic and trade embargo against Cuba was first imposed in 1960. (US – Cuba Relations) About Cuba:- IMAGE SOURCE: WorldAtlas Continent: North America. Capital: Havana. Neighboring Countries: Jamaica, Haiti, Bahamas, Dominican Republic. Cuba, a country in the West Indies. It is the largest single island of the archipelago. Spanish is the principal language of Cuba. Cuba is a multicultural, largely urban nation. Groups of mountains and hills cover about one-fourth of the island of Cuba. The plains covering about two-thirds of the main island have been used extensively for sugarcane and tobacco cultivation and livestock raising. Cuban topography and geology have produced at least 13 distinct groups of soils, the majority of which are fertile and cultivated throughout the year. The annual mean temperature is 79 °F (26 °C). Tropical plant life includes thousands of flowering plant species, half of which may be endemic to the archipelago. Animal life is abundant and varied in Cuba, which is the habitat of numerous small mammals and reptiles, more than 7,000 insect species, and 4,000 species of land, river, and sea molluscs. About India-Cuba relations:- India-Cuba relations have been traditionally warm and friendly. India was amongst the first countries to recognize Cuba after the 1959 Revolution. Both countries have maintained close contacts with each other in various international fora, such as the UN, NAM, WTO, etc. India supports resolutions in the UN General Assembly calling for the lifting of US sanctions against Cuba. Cuba supports India’s inclusion as a permanent member in the restructured UN Security Council. India and Cuba have signed agreements on Bilateral Trade, Cultural, S&T, Standardization, Sports, Renewable Energy and Consumer Protection and Cultural Exchange Program. Commercial Relations:- India-Cuba two-way trade which used to be around USD 300 million annually in the 1980s, saw a steep fall following the demise of the former USSR and changes in India’s economic policies in the 1990s. Economic Relations:- India’s major export items to Cuba are pharmaceutical products, organic chemicals, plastic & rubber articles, machinery and mechanical appliances, etc., while major import items from Cuba are pharmaceutical products, tobacco items, raw hides and skins, leather, etc. Cultural Relations:- Yoga and Vipassana meditation are practised and the former forms part of the health curriculum of the Government. MUST READ: Indo-Pacific Relations SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin? (2023) Cameroon Nigeria South Sudan Uganda Q.2) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Earthquake Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, a magnitude-6.4 earthquake was witnessed in Nepal. Background:- In Nepal, at least 128 people were killed and 140 injured when a magnitude-6.4 earthquake shook the northwestern part of the country late last night, officials said. About Earthquake:- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideServe An earthquake is the shaking or trembling of the earth’s surface. It is caused by the seismic waves or earthquake waves that are generated due to a sudden movement (sudden release of energy) in the earth’s crust (shallow-focus earthquakes) or upper mantle (some shallow-focus and all intermediate and deep-focus earthquakes). A seismograph, or seismometer, is an instrument used to detect and record earthquakes. Hypocentre/Focus: The point where the energy is released. Epicentre: The point on the surface directly above the focus. Isoseismic line: A line connecting all points on the surface where the intensity is the same. Causes of Earthquakes:- Fault Zones Plate tectonics Volcanic activity Human-Induced Earthquakes Types of Earthquakes:- Tectonic Earthquakes The most common ones are tectonic earthquakes. The Earth is made of four basic layers (generally three): a solid crust, a hot, nearly solid mantle, a liquid outer core and a solid inner core. Tectonic plates (Lithospheric plates) are constantly shifting as they drift around on the viscous, or slowly flowing, mantle layer below. When tectonic plates move, it also causes movements at the (Anatolian Plate) Thus, the slipping of land along the faultline along convergent, divergent and transform boundaries causes earthquakes. Volcanic Earthquake Earthquakes produced by stress changes in solid rock due to the injection or withdrawal of magma (molten rock) are called volcano earthquakes. Human Induced Earthquakes In areas of intense mining activity, sometimes the roofs of underground mines collapse causing minor tremors. These are called collapse earthquakes. Ground shaking may also occur due to the explosion of chemical or nuclear devices. Such tremors are called explosion earthquakes. MUST READ: (Volcano) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia Turkey Amhara Ethiopia Cabo Delgado Spain Catalonia Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Elephant corridors Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Experts have flagged multiple inconsistencies in the recently published report on elephant corridors of India by the central government. Background:- Elephant corridor report plagued with inconsistencies, could escalate conflict with humans, says expert. About Elephant Corridors:- Elephant corridors are narrow and often linear passageways that enable an elephant to move across suitable and secure natural habitats. Due to the long-ranging nature of Asian elephants, they have an extensive nutritional requirement necessitating connectivity to suitable habitats. Additionally, the population biology and genetics of the species warrant unimpeded gene flow across populations for the long-term viability of the species. In the fragmented landscapes of most elephant habitats in Asia today, corridors play a pivotal role in meeting nutritional, demographic, and genetic needs. These corridors are often surrounded by human settlements, which can lead to human-elephant conflicts when elephants traverse through these areas. Significance:- The significance of these corridors lies in the fact that 3% of them are regularly used by elephants, either throughout the year or seasonally, and 24.7% are used occasionally. Many of these corridors are of high ecological importance, as they facilitate elephant movement and help to sustain a healthy population of these mammals. Methods To Safeguard Elephant Corridors:- To ensure the protection and preservation of elephant corridors, legal safeguards are essential to prevent further habitat fragmentation and an increase in human-elephant conflicts. State governments can take the lead in demarcating and designating these corridors as State Elephant Corridors, thereby subjecting them to legal protection under relevant laws such as the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, and the Environment Protection Act. In addition, it is necessary to engage with local communities and governments to reduce local dependency on corridor land, potentially transforming them into Village Reserve Forests or Community Reserves.  About Elephants:- Elephants are keystone species. They are the Natural Heritage Animal of India. India has the largest number of wild Asian Elephants. Karnataka has the highest elephant population in India. Protection Status:- IUCN Red List of threatened species:- Asian Elephant: Endangered (Elephant Conservation) African Forest Elephant: Critically Endangered African Savanna Elephant: Endangered Convention of the Migratory Species (CMS): Appendix I Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule  MUST READ: (Endangered Asian elephant in Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following organisms ·perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q.2) Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) stated that prolonged exposure to air pollution in Delhi can cause children to suffer from respiratory diseases. Background:- PM10, and PM2.5 levels cross 5 times the normal levels in the national capital. About Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) :- Established: 1974. Ministry: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is a statutory organization established under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974. It was given powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1981. (Air pollution) The CPCB functions as a field formation and offers technical services to the Ministry of Environment and Forests in line with the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 provisions. Its primary roles, as defined in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, include: (Initiatives and Measures for the Prevention of Air Pollution) Promoting the cleanliness of streams and wells in various regions by preventing, controlling, and mitigating water pollution. Enhancing air quality and preventing, controlling, or mitigating air pollution nationwide. Functions of the Central Board at the National Level:- Advise the Central Government on any matter concerning the prevention and control of water and air pollution and improvement of the quality of air. Co-ordinate the activities of the State Board and resolve disputes among them. Provide technical assistance and guidance to the State Boards, carry out and sponsor investigation and research. Plan and organize training of persons engaged in the programme on the prevention, control or abatement of water and air pollution. Organize through mass media, a comprehensive mass awareness programme on the prevention, control or abatement of water and air pollution; Functions of the Central Board as State Board for the Union Territories:- Advise the Governments of Union Territories with respect to the suitability of any premises or location for carrying on any industry which is likely to pollute a stream or well or cause air pollution. Lay down standards for the treatment of sewage and trade effluents and for emissions from automobiles, industrial plants, and any other polluting source. Evolve efficient methods for disposal of sewage and trade effluents on land; develop reliable and economically viable methods of treatment of sewage, trade effluent and air pollution control equipment. Identify any area or areas within Union Territories as air pollution control areas or areas to be notified under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. Assess the quality of ambient water and air, and inspect wastewater treatment installations, air pollution control equipment, industrial plants or manufacturing processes to evaluate their performance and to take steps for the prevention, control and abatement of air and water pollution.  MUST READ: Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the Guidelines, statements: the context of WHO considers the Air Quality following (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and the annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Q.2) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (2020) Automobile exhaust Tobacco smoke Woodburning Using varnished wooden furniture Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Diarrhea Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, severe Diarrhea Cases are surging across the UK. Background:- Infections from a parasite which can cause long-lasting, severe diarrhoea have seen an “unprecedented and ongoing” surge across the UK. This increase in infections has been ongoing since mid-August. About Diarrhea:- Diarrhea, or “the runs,” is when one experience loose, watery stools and feel the urgent need to have a bowel movement multiple times a day. Diarrhea can be acute or chronic. Acute diarrhoea occurs when the condition lasts for 1 to 2 days. Chronic diarrhoea refers to having diarrhoea on most days for longer than 3 to 4 weeks. Causes:- viral infections including rotavirus, norovirus, and viral gastroenteritis (Disease Surveillance System) bacterial infections, including Salmonella and E. coli parasitic infections intestinal diseases a food intolerance, such as lactose intolerance an adverse reaction to a medication gallbladder or stomach surgery Symptoms:- nausea abdominal pain cramping bloating dehydration a frequent urge to evacuate your bowels a large volume of stools dehydration Prevention:- Washing hands frequently drinking bottled water only while on vacation eating cooked food only while on vacation MUST READ: Non communicable and communicable diseases SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. Adaptation Gap Report 2023 Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, Adaptation Gap Report 2023 was released. Key Findings of the Report:- Climate adaptation finance flows from public multilateral (like the World Bank) and bilateral sources (from a developed to a developing nation) declined by 15 per cent to around $21 billion in 2021. (UNEP’s Emission Gap Report 2022) This is despite pledges that were made at the 26th Conference of Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change in Glasgow to double 2019 adaptation finance support to around $40 billion per year by 2025. The adaptation finance gap is widening. Adaptation finance needs are 10–18 times as great as current international public adaptation finance flows. Estimated adaptation costs and needs for developing countries are significantly higher than previous estimates, with a plausible central range of US$215 billion to US$387 billion per year this decade. Five out of six Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) have established at least one national adaptation plan, strategy or policy, and just under half of them have two or more national instruments, that serve to replace or update the initial ones. Adaptation planning and implementation appear to be plateauing. About Adaptation Gap Report 2023:- Published by: It is an annual UNEP flagship publication. It has been published each year since 2014. Objective: to inform the negotiators of the UNFCCC Member States, and the broader UNFCCC constituency, about the status and trends within climate adaptation at global and regional levels. It explores options for ramping up these climate adaptation efforts. The AGR is co-produced by UNEP, the UNEP Copenhagen Climate Centre (UNEP-CCC) and the World Adaptation Science Programme (WASP). Other Major Report of UNEP:- Emissions Gap Report, Global Environment Outlook. MUST READ: National Action Plan for Climate Change SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 How Air Pollution Affects Economy Syllabus Mains – GS III – Environment & Economy Context: Conventional wisdom tends to dismiss air pollution as an unavoidable by-product of economic growth. However, in many researches, it is found that air pollution has a direct impact on GDP growth and per capita income levels by reducing work outputs, lowering consumer footfall in consumption-led services, hampering asset productivity, and triggering a surge in health expenses and welfare allocations, especially in the productive age groups. More than 20 of the world’s 30 cities with the worst air pollution are in India. Delhi has the poorest air quality among cities globally, with PM2.5 concentration levels at nearly 10 times the WHO targets. India’s Carbon Emission The leading Carbon emitters US (26%) China(13%) and UK have more than the average, India is fourth with only 3% Despite accelerating Growth rate India’s annual carbon emission is at 0.5 tonnes per capita, which is below global average of 1.3 tonnes per capita. In terms of cumulative emissions India’s contribution by 2020 is only 4% for 1.3 Billion population whereas European Union with a population of 443 M is responsible for emission of 20% According to UN, while the richest 1% of the global population emits more than 2 times the emission of the bottom 50%. India unlike developed countries cannot substitute its coal energy with oil or natural gas despite wind and solar energy they cannot help to maintain manufacturing industry, they can only substitute domestic consumption The Cost Of Poor Air Quality As per latest report on Currency & Finance 2022-23 by RBI’s Department of Economic and Policy Research (DEPR), up to 4.5% of India’s GDP could be at risk by 2030 due to lost labor hours from climate change issues, including extreme heat and humidity. This is relevant because 50% of India’s GDP comes from sectors that are exposed to heat, which is rough approximation for the share of GDP generated by outdoor activities like agriculture. In a report by Blue sky Analytics in partnership with Clean air fund, It was estimated that air pollution entailed costs of about $95 Billion annually for Indian businesses, which is about 3% of India’s GDP. Health Costs: Air pollution can lead to a range of health problems, including respiratory diseases, cardiovascular diseases, and even premature death. The healthcare costs associated with treating these illnesses can be substantial and can strain healthcare systems, leading to increased government spending and reduced productivity as a result of sick days and reduced work capacity. Productivity Loss: When workers are exposed to polluted air, they may experience health issues and discomfort, which can result in more sick days, reduced work performance, and lower overall productivity. This, in turn, can have a negative impact on economic output. Decreased Tourism: Air pollution can deter tourists from visiting polluted areas. Tourism is a significant source of income for many regions, and when air quality is poor, it can deter visitors, resulting in lower revenue for hotels, restaurants, and other tourism-related businesses. Environmental Damage: Air pollution can lead to damage to ecosystems and natural resources, which can have long-term economic consequences. For example, acid rain caused by air pollution can harm forests, lakes, and agriculture, leading to reduced agricultural yields and increased costs for land and water management. Increased Energy Costs: Polluted air can affect the energy sector by reducing the efficiency of power plants and increasing energy consumption. Inefficient energy production and consumption can lead to higher costs for businesses and households, which, in turn, can reduce disposable income and economic growth. Regulations and Compliance Costs: While the regulations are important for public health and environmental protection, they can also lead to compliance costs for businesses, which may need to invest in cleaner technologies or change their operations to meet pollution standards. Innovation and Investment: Investments in renewable energy, clean transportation, and environmental technologies can stimulate economic growth and create a more sustainable and resilient economy. Conclusion Mitigating air pollution through effective policies and investments in clean technologies can help minimize the economic impacts while also improving public health and environmental quality. Investments in clean technologies is crucial to mitigate the air pollution issue throughout the world. Connect the Dots More than 20 of the world’s 30 cities with the worst air pollution are in India. Analyze the reasons behind this. Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) and Higher education Syllabus Mains – GS II – Education Context: The Indian Institutes of Technology (IIT) are globally recognized as the crown jewels in India’s higher education system. Indeed, they are often the only Indian higher education institutions known internationally at all. They have produced leaders in high-tech and related fields in India and abroad. Status of Indian Higher Education System India has the largest population in the world in the age bracket of 5-24 years with 580 million people, presenting a huge opportunity in the education sector. India is the world’s 2nd largest higher education system, with around 38 million students in 50,000 academic institutions (including 1,057 universities). It has a goal of doubling gross enrolment rates from the current 26.3% to 50% by 2035. India is the 2nd largest source of international students (after China) globally. Issues and Challenges in India’s Higher Education Sector Enrolment: The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) of India in higher education is only 25.2% which is quite low as compared to the developed and other major developing countries. There is no equity in GER among different sections of society. GER for males (26.3%), females (25.4%), SC (21.8%) and ST (15.9%). Lack of Access: A significant portion of India’s population, especially in rural areas, lacks access to quality higher education institutions. This leads to a stark urban-rural divide in educational opportunities. Faculty Shortages: There is a shortage of qualified and experienced faculty members in many higher education institutions. The Pupil-to-teacher ratio in the country has been (30:1), in comparable to USA (12.5:1), China (19.5:1) and Brazil (19:1). Outdated Curriculum: The curriculum in many institutions is often outdated and not aligned with industry requirements, leading to a gap between what students learn and what they need to succeed in the job market. Lack of Research and Innovation: India’s investment in R&D has remained constant at around 0.6% to 0.7% of India’s GDP. This is below the expenditure of countries like the US (2.8), China (2.1), Israel (4.3) and Korea (4.2). While India has made progress in research and innovation, there is still a need for more investment and a greater research focus in higher education institutions to remain competitive on the global stage. Regulatory issues: Management of the Indian education faces challenges of over-centralization, bureaucratic structures and lack of accountability, transparency, and professionalism. As a result of the increase in a number of affiliated colleges and students, the burden of administrative functions of universities has significantly increased and the core focus on academics and research is diluted. Recent Initiatives Taken by the Government Education Quality Upgradation and Inclusion Programme (EQUIP) has been recently launched with a five-year vision plan to improve the quality and accessibility of higher education over the next five years (2019-2024). Revitalising Infrastructure and Systems in Education (RISE) by 2022, is to make India into an education hub by making available high-quality research infrastructure in Indian higher educational institutions. UGC’s Learning Outcome-based Curriculum Framework (LOCF) guidelines, issued in 2018, aims to specify what graduates are expected to know, understand and be able to do at the end of their programme of study. This is to make student active learner and teacher a good facilitator. Global Initiative for Academics Network (GIAN), programme seeks to invite distinguished academicians, entrepreneurs, scientists, experts from premier institutions from across the world, to teach in the higher educational institutions in India. History of IIT’s The concept of IITs was conceived by India’s first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, and the first Chairman of the University Grants Commission, Sir Jogendra Singh. Nehru envisioned a network of institutions that could provide world-class education in engineering and technology to fuel India’s industrial and technological development. The first Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) was established in Kharagpur, West Bengal, in 1951. It was founded with the assistance of the Soviet Union. Kharagpur served as a model for future IITs and started with degree programs in a variety of engineering disciplines. Over the years, IITs have evolved and diversified their academic programs. In addition to undergraduate B.Tech programs, they introduced postgraduate M.Tech, M.Sc, and Ph.D. programs. IITs have also placed a strong emphasis on research and innovation, making significant contributions to various fields of science and engineering. Conclusion Efforts are being made by the Indian government and various stakeholders to address these issues, including initiatives to expand access to education, improve the quality of institutions, and enhance research and innovation. However, addressing these challenges will require sustained commitment, policy reforms, and increased investment in higher education. Connect the Dots Analyze how the New Education system 2020 will help increase enrollment ratio of students in higher educational institutes. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Report Organizations World Air Quality Report IQAir Global Environment Outlook UNCTAD State of World Population UNEP How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Adaptation Gap Report 2023 is published by UNEP. Statement-II : It is a bi-annual publication. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Cuba, consider the following statements: English is the principal language of Cuba. It is located in South America. It is the largest single island of the archipelago. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  4th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 3rd November– Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) India and Portugal Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, External Affairs Minister Dr S Jaishankar addressed the Indian Community in Portugal. Background:- Foreign Minister of Portugal Joao Cravinho also joined Dr Jaishankar. In his address, the External Affairs Minister highlighted Portugal’s contribution to promoting closer India-European Union ties. About India and Portugal:- IMAGE SOURCE: pinterest.ca Portugal is an important country for India in Southern Europe. (Indo-Portuguese Bilateral Relations) The bilateral ties have witnessed steady progress in the last 15 years. Portugal is supportive of India’s bid for a permanent seat at the United Nations Security Council. Both countries participate actively in other multilateral forums and support each other for candidatures. Historical Background:- 1947: The relations between India and Portugal began in 1947 after India’s independence. 1949The diplomatic relations were established. The bilateral relations, however, went through a troubled phase, after Portugal refused to surrender its enclaves of Goa, Daman and Diu and Dadra and Nagar Haveli on India’s west coast. The diplomatic relations had been completely cut off by 1955. Goa was liberated by the Indian military forces in 1961 through Operation Vijay. 1974: India and Portugal signed a treaty recognizing the sovereignty of India over Goa, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli. The signing of the treaty was a watershed moment for bilateral relations between India and Portugal. 1977: The India-Portugal Joint Commission on Economic Matters was instituted and it has met four times so far. 2017-18: bilateral trade reached a total value of USD 937 million. Indian exports stood at USD 747 million and Portuguese exports at USD 190 million. Significance:- India and Portugal have signed seven agreements to boost cooperation in areas including maritime transport, port development, audio-visual co-production, and industrial and intellectual property rights in recent times. The trade balance has consistently been in India’s favour. MUST READ: Russia-Ukraine war SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Enforcement Directorate Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: The Enforcement Directorate is scheduled to question Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal in the excise policy-linked money-laundering case soon. Background:- The investigation agency will record the statement of the Delhi Chief Minister after he deposes before the investigating officer of the case in Delhi. About Enforcement Directorate:- Establishment: 1956. Ministry: Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Headquarters: New Delhi. The Enforcement Directorate is a multi-disciplinary organization It is a law enforcement organization tasked with enforcing economic laws and combating economic crime in India, such as money laundering and foreign exchange irregularities. Functions:- The functions of the Directorate include the enforcement of the following Acts:- The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) (Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) 2002) The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA): A civil law under which ED conducts an investigation into suspected contraventions of foreign exchange laws and regulations. (Foreign Exchange Management Act) The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act 1973 Sponsoring Organizations under the 1974 Foreign Exchange Conservation and Smuggling Activity Prevention Act The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA): A law whereby the Directorate is mandated to attach the properties of fugitive economic offenders who have escaped from India warranting arrest and providing for the confiscation of their properties to the Central Government. (Fugitive Economic Offenders) Structure:- Director of Enforcement:- Appointed by the central government on the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Central Vigilance Commissioner and members comprising of Vigilance Commissioners, Home Secretary, Secretary DOPT and Revenue Secretary. Tenure: up to 5 years. Recruitment of other officers:- Other officers may be recruited directly from other investigative agencies or indirectly. It is made up of representatives from the police, excise, customs, and income tax departments of the Indian Revenue Services (IRS), the Indian Police Services (IPS), and the Indian Administrative Services (IAS). Powers of ED:- Statements recorded before an ED investigation officer (IO) are admissible as evidence in court under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA). All offences under the PMLA, which the ED deals with, are classified as non-bailable. Individuals in ED custody are sent to the nearest police station’s lock-up, irrespective of their status. Once the ED attaches properties belonging to an accused, it can be a lengthy and challenging process to retrieve those assets. Unlike regular criminal law, under the PMLA, the burden of proof lies with the accused rather than the prosecutor. Accused individuals are required to furnish proof in their defence, making it harder to deal with the ED’s investigations. MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, suspected Maoists open fired at forest watchers in Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary. Background:- According to forest officials, a group of five suspected Maoists fired towards the skies upon seeing the watchers who then ran and took cover. No casualties were reported About Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary:- Area: approximately 55 square kilometers. Location: northern part of Kerala. It is situated in the Western Ghats. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site known for its rich biodiversity. The Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary was officially established in 1984. The sanctuary was created with the primary objective of conserving the diverse flora and fauna of the Western Ghats region. The sanctuary is home to a wide variety of plant and animal species, including several endemic and rare species. Vegetation: West Coast tropical evergreen forests, West Coast semi-evergreen forests, South Indian moist deciduous forests, Southern hilltop evergreen forests, and even plantations. Flora: Artocarpus heterophyllus (Jackfruit), Bischofia javanica (Bischofia Tree), Calophyllum elatum (Maramanjal), Canarium strictum (Black Dammar) etc. Fauna: elephants, tigers, leopards, Malabar giant squirrels, barking deer, and various bird species. (Wildlife Protection) The sanctuary is known for its butterfly diversity and the butterfly migration that can be witnessed in December. MUST READ: Mudumalai Tiger Reserve SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following trees: (2023) Jackfruit (Artoca7pus heterophyllus) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)  tightened guidelines for the appointment of State DGPs. Background:- Only police officers with at least six months of service left before retirement will be considered for appointment as the Director General of Police of a State, the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) said in amended guidelines issued recently. In another change, the Empanelment Committee constituted by the UPSC will not assess Indian Police Service (IPS) officers on central deputation for a State DGP’s post if the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) informs the State government that “it will not be possible to relieve the officers.” About Union Public Service Commission (UPSC):- The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India. (Central Vigilance Commission) It is an independent constitutional body. (Equality Commission) The provisions regarding the composition of UPSC, the appointment and removal of its members and the powers and functions of UPSC are provided in Part XIV of the Indian Constitution under Article 315 to Article 323. Parallel to the UPSC at the Centre, there is a State Public Service Commission (SPSC) in the state. The provisions regarding the composition of SPSC, the appointment and removal of its members and the powers and functions of SPSC are provided in Part XIV of the Indian Constitution under Article 315 to Article 323. Constitutional Provisions:- Article 315: Constitution of Public Service Commissions (PSC) for the Union and for the States of India. Article 316: Appointment and term of office of members of UPSC as well as SPSC. Article 317: Removal and suspension of a member of both the UPSC or SPSC. Article 318: Power to make regulations for the conditions of service of members and staff of the Commission. Article 319: Prohibition of holding the office by members of the Commission upon ceasing to be such members. Article 320: States the functions of Public Service Commissions. Article 321: Power to extend the functions of Public Service Commissions. Article 322: Expenses of Public Service Commissions. Article 323: Reports of Public Service Commissions. Composition of Union Public Service Commission:- Appointment of Members: The Chairman and other members of the UPSC are appointed by the President of India. Term of Office: Any member of the UPSC shall hold office for a term of six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Reappointment: Any person who has once held the office as a member of a Public Service Commission is ineligible for reappointment to that office. Resignation: A member of the Union Public Service Commission may resign from his/her office by submitting a written resignation to the President of India. Removal/Suspension of Members: The Chairman or any other member of UPSC shall only be removed from his/her office by order of the President of India. The President can suspend the Chairman or any other member from his/her office in respect of whom a reference has been made to the Supreme Court. Conditions for Removal: The Chairman or any other member of UPSC may be removed if he/she: is adjudged engages during his/her term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his/her office. is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body. Regulating the Conditions of Service: In the case of the UPSC, the President of India shall:- Determine the number of members of the Commission and their conditions of service. Make provisions with respect to the number of members of the staff of the Commission and their conditions of service. Restriction of Power: The conditions of service of a member of UPSC shall not be amended after his/her appointment which may lead to his/her disadvantage. Power to Extend Functions: The Legislature of a State may provide for the exercise of additional functions by the UPSC or the SPSC as respects the services of the Union or the State and also as respects the services of any local authority or other body corporate constituted by law or of any public institution. Expenses of UPSC: The expenses of the UPSC including salaries, allowances and pensions of the members or staff of the Commission are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India. Submission of Reports: The UPSC shall present an annual report to the President of India containing the work done by the Commission. The President shall provide a memorandum explaining the cases where the advice of the Commission was not accepted. The reasons for such non-acceptance are presented before each House of Parliament. MUST READ: Finance Commission SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) . Consider the following statements: (2023) The Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Deep Ocean Mission Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Recent studies suggest that India’s ‘Deep Ocean Mission’ may have to face a challenge harder than going to space. Background:- It is a Central Sector Scheme of the Ministry of Earth Sciences. About Deep Ocean Mission:- Launched: 2021. Ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences. The Deep Ocean Mission (DOM) is India’s ambitious quest to explore and harness the depths of the ocean. As part of this initiative, India will, for the first time, embark on a journey to a depth of 6,000 metres in the ocean using an indigenously developed submersible with a three-member crew. The mission will require technologies to access and transport tonnes of valuable minerals from the ocean bed in an environmentally safe manner. DOM is a mission-mode project to support the Blue Economy Initiatives of the Government of India. Blue Economy: sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth, improved livelihoods and jobs, and ocean ecosystem health. It is India’s ambitious programme and was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2021 at a cost of nearly Rs 4,077 crore over a five-year period in a phased manner. 6 Pillars:- The mission has six pillars:- Development of technologies for deep-sea mining and a manned submersible to carry three people to a depth of 6,000 metres in the ocean. The submersible will be equipped with a suite of scientific sensors, tools and an integrated system for mining polymetallic nodules from the central Indian Ocean. Development of ocean climate change advisory services, involving an array of ocean observations and models to understand and provide future climate projections. Technological innovations for the exploration and conservation of deep-sea biodiversity. Deep-ocean survey and exploration aimed at identifying potential sites of multi-metal hydrothermal sulphides mineralisation along the Indian Ocean mid-oceanic ridges. Harnessing energy and fresh water from the ocean. Establishing an advanced Marine Station for Ocean Biology, as a hub for nurturing talent and driving new opportunities in ocean biology and blue biotechnology. The ‘New India 2030’ document outlines a blue economy as the sixth core objective for India’s growth. The years 2021-2030 have been designated by the United Nations as the ‘Decade of Ocean Science’. DOM is one of nine missions under the Prime Minister’s Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PMSTIAC). It is imperative that DOM supports the blue economy priority area, blue trade, and blue manufacturing in India. Significance:- Leveraging Ocean Resources. The technology and expertise needed in such missions are now available in only five countries – the US, Russia, France, Japan and China. India will now be the sixth country to have it. MUST READ: Deep-Sea Mining SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Diabetes Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent studies show that  Air pollution increases the diabetes risk in Chennai and Delhi. Background:- Two studies published in international journals have reported a worrying link between air pollution levels and the incidence of type 2 diabetes in Chennai and Delhi. The study is notable not because the findings are new, they are not unprecedented but because they have found that the link, which has been indicated in Western countries and more recently in China as well, also holds in urban India. About Diabetes:- Diabetes mellitus refers to a group of diseases that affect how the body uses blood sugar (glucose). Glucose is an important source of energy for the cells that make up the muscles and tissues. It is a condition that happens when the blood sugar (glucose) is too high. It develops when your pancreas doesn’t make enough insulin or any at all, or when the body isn’t responding to the effects of insulin properly. Diabetes affects people of all ages. Types of diabetes:- There are several types of diabetes. The most common forms include:- Type 2 diabetes: With this type, the body doesn’t make enough insulin, and/or the body’s cells don’t respond normally to the insulin (insulin resistance). This is the most common type of diabetes. Prediabetes: The blood glucose levels are higher than normal but not high enough to be officially diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. Type 1 diabetes: This type is an autoimmune disease in which your immune system attacks and destroys insulin-producing cells in your pancreas for unknown reasons. Gestational diabetes: This type develops in some people during pregnancy. Symptoms:- feeling very thirsty needing to urinate more often than usual blurred vision feeling tired losing weight unintentionally Management and Treatment:- Blood sugar monitoring. (Disease Surveillance System) Oral diabetes medications. Insulin injections. Diet management. Exercise. Prevention:- Keeping a healthy body weight. Staying physically active with at least 30 minutes of moderate exercise each day. Eating a healthy diet and avoiding sugar and saturated fat. Avoid smoking tobacco. Avoiding stress. (Mental Health) About Air Pollution:- Air pollution is the presence of substances in the atmosphere that are harmful to the health of humans and other living beings, or cause damage to the climate or materials. (Delhi and Air Pollution) Different types of air pollutants include– Gases: such as ammonia, carbon monoxide, sulphur dioxide, nitrous oxides, methane, carbon dioxide and chlorofluorocarbons. Particulates: both organic and inorganic. Biological molecules. Harmful Impacts of Air Pollution:- It may cause diseases, allergies and even death in humans. It can cause harm to other living organisms such as animals and food crops. Can lead to climate change and may damage the natural environment Ozone depletion or habitat degradation Built hazardous environments (for example, acid rain). MUST READ: National Clean Air Campaign SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for (2021) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit of time James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, NASA’s James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) has captured new views of a stunning nebula, revealing never-before-seen details. Background:- A nebula is a cloud of gas and dust often formed from the debris of dying or exploding stars. These clouds are also cradles of new stars, with the gas and dust providing the building blocks for stellar formation. About James Webb Space Telescope (JWST):- Launched: 2021. Type: Orbiter. Launched by: National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA). Launch Vehicle: Ariane 5 rocket, provided by the European Space Agency (ESA). Launch site: French Guiana. Objective: to find the first galaxies that formed in the early universe and to see stars forming planetary systems. The James Webb Space Telescope is the world’s largest, most powerful, and most complex space science telescope ever built. It is an infrared observatory orbiting the Sun. (International Space Station (ISS)) It is NASA’s largest and most powerful space science telescope. Functions of the telescope:- It will study every phase in the history of our universe, ranging from the first luminous glows after the big bang, to the formation of solar systems capable of supporting life on planets like Earth, to the evolution of our own solar system. It will build on the Hubble Space Telescope’s (ISRO’s hybrid propulsion system) NASA’s Hubble Space Telescope: it is the first astronomical observatory placed into orbit around Earth with the ability to record images in wavelengths of light spanning from ultraviolet to near-infrared. It will look deeper into the cosmos and thus further back in time than is possible with Hubble. It will attempt to detect the light from the very first population of stars in the Universe to switch on more than 13.5 billion years ago. MUST READ: Exoplanets SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)  Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Copyrights Laws Syllabus Mains – GS II – Indian Constitution Context: Copyright refers to the legal right of the owner of intellectual property. In simpler terms, copyright is the right to copy. This means that the original creators of products and anyone they give authorization to are the only ones with the exclusive right to reproduce the work. Copyright law gives creators of original material the exclusive right to further use and duplicate that material for a given amount of time. Once a copyright expires, the copyrighted item becomes public domain. Legal Provision Available Regarding Copyright Infringement Copyright ensures certain minimum safeguards of the rights of authors over their creations, thereby protecting and rewarding creativity. Copyright Act of 1957, protects original literary, dramatic, musical and artistic works and cinematograph films and sound recordings from unauthorized uses. Literary, dramatic, musical or artistic works enjoy protection for the life time of the author plus 60 years beyond i.e. 60 years after his death. In case of joint authorship, the term of copyright is to be construed as a reference to the author who dies at last. It gives broadcasting reproduction right to every broadcaster which is valid for 25 years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in the broadcast has been done. Copyright Board Act provides for the establishment of the Copyright Board and empowers Central Government to constitute the same for settlement of disputes, granting of licenses, etc. The copyright infringement is punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend up to 3 years. Issues With the Act A copyright is created the moment a piece of art or music or literature is fixed on a medium, provided it is original. Unlike trademark law, it is not mandatory under the Copyright Act to register copyrights as a necessary precondition in order to enforce the same. Whether the piece of art or music or literature is original or not is another complicated question of law. There is the question of whether the use of the copyrighted work is permissible under all the provisions in Section 52 of the Copyright Act outlining the exceptions to copyright infringement. For example, if a work is qualified for protection under the Designs Act of 2000, it can no longer claim protection under the Copyright Act once it is reproduced beyond a certain threshold. Determining the copyright infringement would require the court to apply the test of substantial similarity on a case-by-case basis. Supreme Court Judgements In the Knit Pro International v. The State of NCT, the SC held that the offence of copyright infringement under Section 63 of the Copyright Act is a cognizable and non ¬bailable offence. The bench held that if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for three years and onwards but not more than seven years (3-7 years), the offence is a cognizable offence. As a result, it takes away the right of the accused to post a bail bond with the police and shifts the responsibility on to the courts for judicial determination on a case-by-case basis. Cr.P.C. defines cognizable offence as an offence for which the police officer can arrest the convict without a warrant and can start investigation without the due permission of the court.These are the offences that are usually very serious and generally heinous in nature such as rape, murder, kidnapping, dowry death etc. Connect the Dots  Why do we need copyright acts? Analyze the copyright laws in other countries. CART-T CELL THERAPY Syllabus Mains – GS III –Science and Technology Context: CAR-T cell therapy (Chimeric Antigen Receptor T-cell therapy) is a groundbreaking immunotherapy approach used to treat certain types of cancer, primarily hematological malignancies like B-cell lymphomas and leukemia. This therapy involves the genetic engineering of a patient’s own T cells to recognize and attack cancer cells. As per the Globocan estimates, the cancer burden worldwide is expected to be 28.4 million cases in 2040, a 47% rise from 2020, due to demographic changes. How Does it Work? T cells are white blood cells responsible for identifying and fighting illness and infection. Each T cell has a receptor that can recognize antigens (proteins or molecules recognized by the immune system). Cancer cells may have antigens that the immune system does not recognize as abnormal, allowing cancer to evade the immune response. CAR-T cells are genetically engineered in the lab to express a new receptor that can bind to cancer cells and effectively kill them. The process involves several steps, including: Collecting T Cells: Blood is drawn from the patient’s arm, and T cells are separated from the blood using an apheresis machine. Engineering T Cells: In a laboratory, the T cells are modified by adding a manufactured CAR, and they are allowed to multiply and grow. Infusing CAR-T Cells: Once enough CAR-T cells are prepared, they are injected back into the patient’s arm. Chemotherapy may be recommended before CAR-T cell infusion to enhance treatment effectiveness. The process can take place in an outpatient infusion center or a hospital setting. CAR-T cell therapy is effective against certain types of cancer, especially when other treatments are ineffective. It is currently FDA-approved for treating hematological malignancies, including leukemia, lymphoma, and multiple myeloma. Significance CAR T-cell therapies are even more specific than targeted agents and directly stimulate the patient’s immune system to fight cancer, leading to greater clinical efficacy. That’s why they’re referred to as “living drugs.” Challenges Preparation: The difficulty of preparing CAR T-cell therapies has been a major hindrance to their widespread use. The first successful clinical trial was published a decade ago, and the first indigenously developed therapy in India was performed in 2021. Side Effects: In certain kinds of leukaemias and lymphomas, the efficacy is as high as 90%, whereas in other types of cancers it is significantly lower. The potential side-effects are also significant, associated with cytokine release syndrome (a widespread activation of the immune system and collateral damage to the body’s normal cells) and neurological symptoms (severe confusion, seizures, and speech impairment). Affordability: Introduction of CAR T-cell therapy in India can face challenges of cost and value. Critics argue that developing CAR T-cell therapy in India may not be cost-effective as it will still be unaffordable for most people. What Are T Cells? T cells, also known as T lymphocytes, are a type of white blood cell that play a central role in the immune response. T cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity, which means they help the body recognize and respond to foreign substances, such as viruses, bacteria, and abnormal cells, such as cancer cells. There are two major types of T cells, the helper T cell and the cytotoxic T cell. As the names suggest, helper T cells ‘help’ other cells of the immune system, whilst cytotoxic T cells kill virally infected cells and tumors. Government Initiatives Related to Cancer Treatment National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke: Launched with the aim to prevent and control these diseases thorough awareness generation, behaviour and life-style changes, early diagnosis of persons with high levels of risk factors. National Cancer Grid: Formed in 2012, it is a network of major cancer centers, research institutes, patient groups and charitable institutions across India with the mandate of establishing uniform standards of patient care for prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of cancer, providing specialized training and education in oncology and facilitating collaborative basic, translational and clinical research in cancer. National Cancer Awareness Day: 7th November in India every year since 2014 to create public awareness about early detection, prevention, and treatment of cancer. CONCLUSION CAR T-cell therapy is a promising and innovative approach to treating cancer. It involves the genetic modification of a patient’s T cells to create chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) that target specific cancer cells. This treatment has shown great promise in clinical trials and has already been approved for the treatment of certain types of leukaemia and lymphoma. Connect the Dots What are the potential disadvantages of CAR T-Cell therapy? Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Space Telescope Organization Kepler Space Telescope NASA Astrosat ISRO James Webb Space Telescope NASA How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Deep Ocean Mission is a mission-mode project to support the Green Economy Initiatives of the Government of India. Statement-II : Harnessing energy and freshwater from the ocean is one of the pillars of this mission. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary, consider the following statements: It is located in the northern part of Karnataka. It is situated in the Eastern Ghats. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  2nd November  2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 1st November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c