Oct 4, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 4th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Badis limaakumi Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, a new species of fish Badis limaakumi, was discovered in Nagaland. Background:- Scientists have recently discovered a new fish species from the Milak River, Nagaland. About Badis limaakumi:- Family: Badidae. Genus: Badis. Location: Nagaland, Northeast India. It was found in Nagaland’s Malak River. Habitat: It is found in various freshwater habitats, including rivers, ponds, and marshes. Distribution: These fish are primarily found in freshwater bodies across northern India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, and Nepal. Around 25 recognized species, 15 of which are in India. Naming: it has been named after Limaakum, assistant professor and head of the zoology department at Fazl Ali College, Nagaland. Unique feature: This fish can change its colour like a chameleon. It belongs to the often-called Chameleon fish for their ability to rapidly change colors during breeding, camouflage, or stress. (National Surveillance Programme for Aquatic Animal Diseases (NSPAAD)) Local Names: “Tepdang” and “Sempi,”. Physical Features:- It has a large and slender body. It lacks blotches on its sides and fins and possesses a significant number of lateral-line scales. Diet: These fish are predatory by nature and primarily feed on small freshwater invertebrates. (Zebrafish) About Milak River: Milak River is situated in Mokokchung district in Nagaland, India. The nearest town to this river is Naga Town. Main tributary of Milak River is Tsurong. MUST READ: Puffer Fish SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Invasive Species Specialist group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations? (2023) The International Union for Conservation of Nature The United Nations Environment Programme The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development The World Wide Fund for Nature Q.2) Which of the following organisms ·perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Hirakud reservoir Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: High levels of cancer-causing heavy metals such as lead and chromium have been found in eight wetlands in Odisha, including the Hirakud reservoir recently. Background:- The findings were recorded in a new study published in the journal Scientific Reports on September 28, 2023. The selected eight wetlands were: Natural ones such as Chandaneswar, Chilika, Daringbadi, and Koraput as well as constructed ones like Bhadrak, Hirakud, Talcher, and Titlagarh. The highest concentrations of heavy metal pollutants, lead (51.25 micrograms per gram) and chromium (266 micrograms per gram) were recorded in Hirakud. Heavy metal pollutants that commonly accumulate in wetlands as a result of human activity include lead, chromium, cadmium, copper, mercury, nickel, zinc, manganese, and arsenic. These metals can enter crops through the soil, which are then consumed by humans. About Hirakud reservoir:- IMAGE SOURCE: MapsofIndia Location: Odisha. Area: 65,400 ha River: Mahanadi. (Mahanadi Coalfields Ltd (MCL)) The Hirakud reservoir is one of the largest human-made reservoirs in India. It is built across the Mahanadi River by a combination of earth and modern dams with a total length of almost 26 kilometers. The reservoir helps regulate the water level of the river. It thereby moderates the impact of floods in the Mahanadi Delta. It was designated a Ramsar site in 2021 (COP14 of Ramsar Convention on Wetlands) Biodiversity: It provides habitat for over 130 bird species and about 54 fish, with one classified as endangered and six others as near-threatened. Economic significance: 21 fish species are economically important to the region as they provide a total yield of 480 tonnes per year, supporting the livelihoods of over 7,000 fishermen. The reservoir also produces around 350 megawatts of hydropower. It also irrigates 436,000 hectares of land. Tourism: The rich biodiversity and other recreational activities in and around the reservoir make it a popular tourist destination, with over 30,000 tourists visiting annually. MUST READ: National Dam Safety Authority SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) Consider the following Rivers: (2021) Brahmani Nagavali Subarnarekha Vamsadhara Which of the above rises from the Eastern Ghats? 1 and 2 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 3 Sastra Ramanujan Prize Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT PRIZE Context: The 2023 SASTRA Ramanujan Prize was awarded to Ruixiang Zhang of the University of California, Berkeley. Background:- His fundamental work spans analytic number theory, combinatorics, Euclidean harmonic analysis, and geometry. The prize will be awarded at an International Conference in Number Theory on December 20-22 at SASTRA University in Kumbakonam, Ramanujan’s hometown. About Sastra Ramanujan Prize:- Established in 2005. Instituted by: Shanmugha Arts, Science, Technology & Research Academy (SASTRA). Time Period: annual. Objective: to acknowledge and encourage exceptional achievements in mathematics. It is a prestigious Award in the field of mathematics. It promotes mathematical research and honors exceptional achievements. This prize is for outstanding contributions by individuals in areas of mathematics influenced by Indian mathematics great Ramanujan. Decoration: A cash prize of USD 10,000. (Golden Globes Award) Age limit: It is presented to individuals aged 32 and below. The age limit of 32 years is to commemorate the fact that Ramanujan accomplished a phenomenal body of work in this short span. SASTRA Ramanujan Prize 2023 will be awarded to Ruixiang Zhang of the University of California, Berkeley. (Padma awards) His fundamental work spans analytic number theory, combinatorics, Euclidean harmonic analysis, and geometry. Building on his doctoral thesis, he and Shaoming Guo proved a generalization of the main conjecture in Vinogradov’s mean value theorem, which is concerned with the sums of numbers raised to a certain power. MUST READ: Chess Olympiad SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards: (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is/are not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Nobel Prize in Physics 2023 Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT AWARDS Context: The Nobel Prize in Physics 2023 was announced recently. About Nobel Prize in Physics 2023:- Awarded by: Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences. The 2023 Nobel Prize in Physics has been awarded to Pierre Agostini, Ferenc Krausz, and Anne L’Huillier. ( Nobel Prize In Physics 2020) They were awarded for their work in “experimental methods that generate attosecond pulses of light for the study of electron dynamics in matter. Attosecond pulses of light offer an unprecedented capability to study rapid electron movements and energy changes within atoms and molecules. These pulses have revolutionized the field of electrodynamics in matter. They provide a powerful tool for exploring fundamental processes in physics and chemistry. These pulses can be used to provide images of the processes inside atoms and molecules. They have opened new avenues for studying the behavior of electrons within atoms and molecules, revolutionizing the field of electrodynamics in matter. While Ferenc Kraus is a German Physicist, Anne L’Huillier is from Sweden and Pierre Agostini is an American. Anne L’Huillier is the fifth woman to receive the Nobel Prize in Physics. Significance: The laureates’ contributions have enabled the investigation of processes that are so rapid they were previously impossible to follow. Application Potentials:- Blood Sample Analysis: It can revolutionize disease diagnosis, including conditions like lung cancer. Semiconductor Technologies: The technology can serve as a powerful imaging tool. Understanding Nature Processes: This can deepen our understanding of complex natural processes, particularly photosynthesis. MUST READ: Physics Nobel Prize 2021 SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000: (2021) American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award. The award has been received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far. Roger Federer received this award a maximum number of times compared to others. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 2023 Nobel Prize for Medicine Syllabus Prelims – IMPORTANT AWARDS Context: The 2023 Nobel Prize for Medicine has been jointly awarded to United States scientists Katalin Kariko and Drew Weissman. About the 2023 Nobel Prize for Medicine:- Katalin Kariko and Drew Weissman were awarded for work that led to effective mRNA vaccines against COVID-19. The discoveries and findings by Kariko and Weissman fundamentally changed the understanding of how mRNA interacts with the human immune system. (Nobel Prize in Medicine 2022) They eliminated critical obstacles on the way to clinical applications of mRNA, paving the way for the speedy development of mRNA vaccines that saved millions during the pandemic. Genetic information encoded in human DNA is transferred to messenger RNA (mRNA) in the body’s cells and is used as a template for protein production. Using mRNA in vaccine development:- Scientists were able to produce mRNA without cell culture in the 1980s, in a process known as in vitro transcription. This began the research on using mRNA for vaccine and therapeutic purposes. However, in vitro transcribed mRNA was considered unstable and challenging to deliver. It required the development of sophisticated carrier lipid systems to encapsulate the mRNA. Moreover, in vitro-produced mRNA gave rise to inflammatory reactions. Karikó and Weissman performed an experiment to seek a remedy to this problem. Hypothesis: Karikó and Weissman tested whether the absence of altered bases in the in vitro transcribed RNA could explain the unwanted inflammatory reaction. Experiment: They produced different variants of mRNA, each with unique chemical alterations in their bases, and then delivered them to the dendritic cells. Findings: They found that the inflammatory response was almost abolished when base modifications were included in the mRNA. By this, Karikó and Weissman showed that the delivery of mRNA generated with base modifications can markedly increase protein production compared to unmodified mRNA and also reduce the inflammatory responses. Using this approach, two base-modified mRNA vaccines encoding the SARS-CoV-2 surface protein were developed at record speed during the outbreak of the COVID-19 pandemic. Protective effects of around 95 percent were reported, and both vaccines were approved as early as December 2020. Significance: Such vaccines have resulted in saving saved millions of lives and prevented severe disease in many more, allowing societies to open and return to normal conditions.  About DNA:- DNA is a deoxyribonucleic acid and is a hereditary material. It occurs inside the nucleus of the cell and some cell organelles. In plants it is present in mitochondria and plant cells. It is a double-stranded molecule consisting of a long chain of nucleotides. It stores and transfers genetic information to generate new cells and organisms. It has two nucleotide strands consisting of a phosphate group, five-carbon sugar (stable deoxyribose 2), and four nitrogen bases. The four nitrogen bases in RNA include adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine. They for complementary pairs of Adenine links to Thymine (A-T) and Cytosine links to Guanine (C-G). DNA is self-replicating. Quantity of DNA is fixed for cells. About RNA:- RNA contains four bases, abbreviated A, U, G, and C, corresponding to A, T, G, and C in DNA, the letters of the genetic code. RNA, an abbreviation of ribonucleic acid. It is a type of nucleic acid that contributes to protein synthesis. It is synthesized from DNA when needed. It is single consisting of a phosphate group, a five-carbon sugar (less stable ribose), and four nitrogen bases. The four nitrogen bases in RNA include adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil. It replaces DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) as a carrier of genetic codes in some viruses. It consists of ribose nucleotides (nitrogenous bases bound to a ribose sugar) connected by phosphodiester bonds, forming variable-length chains. Uracil is replaced by thymine in DNA. The quantity of RNA in a cell is variable. RNA Types:- tRNA: it is responsible for selecting the correct protein or the amino acids that the body requires to help the ribosomes in turn. rRNA: it is the ribosome portion and is located within a cell’s cytoplasm, where ribosomes are found. It is mainly involved in the synthesis and translation of mRNA into proteins. mRNA – Messenger RNA: this RNA is responsible for bringing the genetic material to the ribosomes and insists on what kind of protein the body needs. It is therefore called messenger RNA. This m-RNA is usually involved in the transcription process, or during the process of protein synthesis. MUST READ: Nobel Peace Prize 2022 SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) What is the cas9 protein that is often mentioned in the news? (2019) molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing. A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients. A gene that makes plants pest-resistant A herbicidal substance synthesized in generally modified crops Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the Centre declared the National Liberation Front of Tripura, All Tripura Tiger Force, and their factions as unlawful associations under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act. Background:- The Home Ministry has banned these organizations for five years. The Ministry said, the government is of the opinion that the activities of NLFT and ATTF are detrimental to the sovereignty and integrity of India and that they are unlawful associations. About the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967:- It is an anti-terror law aimed at the prevention of unlawful activity and associations in India. Objective: to make powers available for dealing with activities directed against the integrity and sovereignty of India. The Act assigns absolute power to the Central Government. It can declare an activity as unlawful, by way of an Official Gazette. (Misuse of UAPA) Applicability: Under the act, both Indian and foreign nationals can be charged. Punishment: The act has the death penalty and life imprisonment as the highest punishments. Duration of punishment: Under section 43D, police are empowered to detain the accused in police custody for 30 days and in judicial custody for a period of 180 days without the charge sheet. This duration can be extended further after information to the court. The Act empowers the Director General of the National Investigation Agency (NIA) to grant approval for the seizure or attachment of property when the case is investigated by the said agency. The Act empowers the officers of the NIA, of the rank of Inspector or above, to investigate cases of terrorism in addition to those conducted by the DSP or ACP or above rank officer in the state. Recent Amendment:- So far the Act has been amended six times and the last one being 2019. The most recent amendment of the law, the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019 (UAPA2019). It has made it possible for the Union Government to designate individuals as terrorists without following any formal judicial process. MUST READ: Terrorism & its financing SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty? (2019) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers Absence of restraint Opportunity to do whatever one likes Opportunity to develop oneself fully Mains: Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Environment) Context: Recently announced the European Union’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanisms likely to hurt India’s economic interests. About Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM): A carbon border adjustment tax is a duty on imports based on the amount of carbon emissions resulting from the production of the product in question. For example tax on production of cement or fertilizers. In 2021, the European Union (EU) proposed the CBAM, which would tax very carbon-intensive items such as cement and steel beginning in 2026. CBAM is part of the “Fit for 55 in 2030 package”, the EU’s plan to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by at least 55% by 2030 compared to 1990 levels. Advantages of implementing CBAM: Promotes decarbonisation globally: The CBAM provides an incentive for countries to reduce their carbon emissions. If a country wants to export steel to the EU, the policy imposes an extra cost if the steel is produced using carbon-intensive processes. This encourages manufacturers to adopt cleaner, less carbon-intensive methods of production. Prevents carbon leakage: CBAM prevents “carbon leakage”, the phenomenon where companies transfer their operations to countries with less stringent emissions regulations. For example, if a cement manufacturer moves from the EU to a country with fewer regulations, it might increase emissions. The CBAM discourages this by imposing a border tax on carbon-intensive imported goods. Level playing field for businesses: The CBAM helps create a level playing field between domestic businesses in the EU and foreign companies. CBAM ensures foreign producers are subject to a carbon cost, ensuring fairness. Revenue generation for climate initiatives: CBAM will generate revenue through border taxes on carbon-intensive goods. This can be used to fund climate initiatives or capacity-building measures in developing countries or Least Developed Countries (LDCs) if the EU decides to allocate it in this manner. Stimulates innovation in clean technologies: CBAM can stimulate innovation in clean technologies. Faced with a potential CBAM charge, industries may be motivated to invest in new technologies to reduce their carbon emissions. Encourages other countries to adopt carbon pricing: CBAM may encourage other countries to implement their own carbon pricing mechanisms. The aim is to avoid CBAM charges, as goods from countries with equivalent carbon pricing mechanisms are exempt. This could potentially lead to the broad adoption of carbon pricing, further facilitating global decarbonisation. Challenges associated with the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM): Complexity: The CBAM is a complex policy proposal that involves assessing the carbon content of imported goods, issuing certificates, and ensuring compliance with reporting and payment requirements. Complexity of calculating carbon content: It could be challenging to calculate the carbon content of certain products, especially if the production process involves multiple stages or takes place in countries with weaker climate policies. Double carbon pricing: There is a risk of double carbon pricing, where companies would be subject to carbon pricing both in the EU and in their home country. This could lead to increased costs for businesses and could undermine the effectiveness of the CBAM. Trade disputes: The CBAM is likely to face opposition from non-EU countries, who may view the policy as a form of protectionism. Concerns before India: Acting as a trade barrier: With the EU’s CBAM in effect soon, India’s exports of carbon-laden products to Europe—mainly aluminium and iron-and-steel—have been burdened with green reporting rules which is a trade barrier in itself. This action by the EU is likely to hurt our economic interests, which explains why the government might protest it as an unfair tariff at the World Trade Organization (WTO). Goal of 5 trillion economy: A prerequisite for India to become a 5 trillion economy is to expand its exports and the EU is India’s third largest trading partner. EU accounted for €88 billion in goods trade in 2021, or 10.8% of total Indian trade. Uncompetitive exports: India’s products have a higher carbon intensity than its European counterparts, the carbon tariffs imposed will be proportionally higher making Indian exports substantially uncompetitive. May push for similar regulations worldwide: International climate policies (including CBAM) will compel other countries to impose similar regulation eventually translating to ‘a significant impact’ on India’s trading relationships and balance of payments. Way Forward: Suggestive measures Minimising Impact: Indian exporters must factor in CBT into their costing and prepare to minimise its impact as it will affect lakhs of small and big firms. Focusing on greener production options: The rate of CBT depends on how much carbon has been emitted during production to make the export product. So, there is a need to explore greener production options for the production of the concerned commodities. Using power generated from renewable energy: This will immediately lower the carbon load, fossil fuels like coal, oil, or natural gas cause 75 per cent of global carbon dioxide emissions. Wind, solar and green hydrogen are current options but switching to new technology is expensive and may only be feasible in some cases. Sharing emission data: Indian exporters of steel, aluminium, cement, fertiliser, hydrogen, and electricity will need to share precise emission data with the counterpart EU importers, who will share the data with the CBT authorities. Scientifically capturing this data will need the help of energy auditors. Source:  THB Law Commission on e-FIR Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The Law Commission has recently recommended allowing the filing of online first information reports (e-FIRs) for cognisable offences to overcome difficulties in filing FIRs and improve police to public ratio. About e-FIR: An e-FIR is the electronic version of a First Information Report. For filing an e-FIR, the complainant does not have to visit the police station instead they can register their complaint through a mobile app or the police’s online network. This initiative is being implemented partially in Delhi, Gujarat, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, and Uttarakhand. It only works in a non-heinous case (theft, reporting lost items and vehicle thefts). Advantages of e-FIRs: Increased Accessibility: In areas with security or infrastructural issues, e-FIRs offer a convenient alternative rather than visiting a police station. Overcoming Reluctance: e-FIRs can mitigate the reluctance of policemen in cases of petty offences. Addressing Police-to-Public Ratio: It would overcome the difficulties resulting from low police to public ratio. Reporting crimes in real time: e-FIR would tackle the long persisting issue of delay in registration of FIRs by reporting crime in real time. Criticisms of e-FIRs: Potential for Exaggeration: There’s a risk of complainants exaggerating claims, which can lead to legal complexities and discomfort for the accused. Thus, it requires checks and balances. Lack of Immediate Investigation: E-FIRs might not be suitable for cases requiring immediate investigation, such as fatal accidents or grievous hurt incidents. Infrastructure Constraints: Not all police stations have the necessary infrastructure to handle e-FIRs efficiently. There are 17,535 police stations in total, of which 628 are operating without a landline, while 285 run without wireless/mobile connection. The total number of computers in 17,535 police stations is 172,168. Recommendations by the Law Commission: To enable the online submission of FIRs for two specific situations: All cognizable offenses, even when the accused is unknown. Cognizable offenses with a maximum punishment of three years, even when the accused is known. It has been partially implemented in some states but the commission has recommended expanding the facility. States are granted additional powers to expand the list of eligible offenses for e-FIR based on the effectiveness of the system. Suggested amendments span various legislations, including the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, Indian Evidence Act, 1872, Information Technology Act, 2000, Indian Penal Code, 1860, and other relevant laws. It referred to the Supreme Court’s landmark verdict in Lalita Kumari v. State of Uttar Pradesh, in which the court held that preliminary enquiry should be conducted in cases pertaining to matrimonial disputes, commercial offences, medical negligence and corruption, among others. Source:  IE Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Dam River 1.Kallanai Dam Kaveri 2.Indira Sagar Dam Tapi 3.Sardar Sarovar Dam Narmada How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The m-RNA is usually involved in the transcription process. Statement-II: Uracil is replaced by thymine in DNA. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Badis Limaakumi, consider the following statements: These fish are ONLY found in freshwater bodies across northeastern India. It has been named after Limaakum, the tribal deity of Nagaland. This fish can change its colour like a chameleon. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Analyse how the European Union’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is likely to hurt India’s economic interests with relevant examples. (250 words) Q.2) what do you mean by e-FIRs? What are the benefits and challenges associated with e-FIRs? Discuss recent law commission recommendations on e-FIRs. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  3rd October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 2nd October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

Oct 4, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 4th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test  Click Here

Oct 3, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 3rd October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Matangini Hazra Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES Context: Matangini Hazra was remembered on the 81st anniversary of her martyrdom. About Matangini Hazra:- Birth: 1869. Birth place Tamluk, West Bengal. Death:1942. Matangini Hazra was 73 when she fell to British bullets, leading a protest march in 1942 in Tamluk, Bengal. Her death made her a martyr for many, inciting revolutionaries to establish their own parallel government in Medinipur, which functioned till 1944. Early Life:- She was married at a young age and became widowed at 18. After her husband’s death, she dedicated herself to social causes. Ideology:- She supported Mahatma Gandhi’s ideals.  (Mahatma Gandhi) People fondly called her Gandhi Buri (Old Lady Gandhi) for her dedication to Gandhian principles. (India and Mahatma Gandhi) Political Participation:– She became an active member of the Indian National Congress and took to spinning her own Khadi. She participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement, the Salt March, and the Quit India Movement. 1933: When Sir John Anderson, Governor of Bengal visited Tamluk to address a public gathering, Matangini craftily managed to avoid the security and reached the dais where she waved a black flag. She was awarded six months of rigorous imprisonment for her bravado. 1942: During the Quit India Movement in 1942, at the age of 73, she led a large procession of around 6,000 protesters, advocating for the takeover of the Tamluk police station. In the ensuing clash with British authorities, she was shot and killed, becoming a martyr for the cause of Indian independence. MUST READ: India’s Women Unsung Heroes of Freedom Struggle SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal, designated as the Governor General of India? (2023) The Regulating Act The Pitt’s India Act The Charter Act of 1793 The Charter Act of 1833 Q.2) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only UN Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: India expressed commitment towards combating organized crimes at the UN Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) recently. About the UN Convention against Transnational Organized Crime( UNTOC):- Adopted by the UN General Assembly: 15 November 2000. Entry into force: 29 September 2003. Signatories: 147. Parties: 191 (as of 20 February 2023) The United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime, is the main international instrument in the fight against transnational organized crime. It is also known as the Palermo Convention. Objective: combatting transnational organized crime, fostering international cooperation, and strengthening legal frameworks. UNTOC enables cooperation between member states for tackling international organized crime. All member parties to the convention must take measures including: Creating domestic criminal offenses. Adopting frameworks for extradition, mutual legal assistance, and law enforcement cooperation. Promoting training and technical assistance for upgrading or building the adequate capacity of national authorities. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is the custodian of the UNTOC. Three protocols of UNTOC:- The UNTOC is supplemented by three Protocols, namely:- Protocol to Prevent, Suppress, and Punish Trafficking in Persons, Especially Women and Children Adopted in 2003, it is the first global legally binding instrument with an agreed definition of trafficking in persons. Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air Adopted in 2004, this protocol deals with the problem of organized criminal groups who smuggle migrants, often at high risk to the migrants and at great profit for the offenders. Protocol against the Illicit Manufacturing of and Trafficking in Firearms, their Parts and Components and Ammunition Adopted in 2001, its objective is to promote, facilitate, and strengthen cooperation among States in order to prevent, combat, and eradicate the illicit manufacturing of and trafficking in firearms, their parts and components, and ammunition. India and UNTOC:- India ratified the UNTOC in 2011 becoming the fourth South Asian country to do so. The nodal agency for all dealings with UNTOC is the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). About UNODC:- Establishment: HQ: Vienna, Austria. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) contributes to global peace and security, sustainable development, and human rights by helping to make the world safer from drugs, crime, corruption, and terrorism. It provides technical assistance, research, and normative support to Member States to help them develop and implement comprehensive, evidence-based solutions to the complex and interconnected threats that they face at the national, regional, and global levels. In today’s challenging times, our work is needed more than ever. Functions:- Tackling the world drug problem Preventing corruption Countering terrorism Counter-Terrorism Strategy Combating organized crime Preventing crime and promoting Funding:- UNODC relies on voluntary contributions, mainly from governments, to carry out the majority of our work. MUST READ: World Drug Report and UNODC SOURCE: BUISNESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Pygmy hogs Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: 18 rare pygmy hogs were reintroduced in their historical home in Assam recently. Background:- Eighteen captive-bred pygmy hogs, the smallest and rarest pigs on earth, were released in western Assam’s Manas National Park and Tiger Reserve on Saturday, September 30. It was the fourth such exercise undertaken under the Pygmy Hog Conservation Programme (PHCP) annually since 2020, helping up the total number of this critically endangered species released at the park to 54. The PHCP target is to reintroduce 60 pygmy hogs in Manas, its historical habitat, by 2025. Backed by the United Kingdom-based Durrell Wildlife Conservation Trust, the PHCP was started near Guwahati in 1996 with two males and two females captured from the Bansbari Range of Manas National Park. The reintroduction of captive-bred hogs to the wild began in 2008. The PHCP has so far successfully bred and reintroduced 170 pygmy hogs that belong to a unique genus without any close relatives. About Pygmy hogs:- Scientific Name: Porcula salvinia. Habitat: Pygmy Hogs prefer undisturbed patches of grassland. Distribution: The species was historically known from only a few locations in northern West Bengal and northwestern Assam in India. Pygmy Hogs measure about 65 cm in length. The pygmy hog is the smallest and rarest wild pig in the world. Females are a little smaller. Pygmy Hogs differ from members of the genus Sus in the extreme reduction in body, ears, and tail size, and relatively short medial false hooves. Their snout disc is perpendicular to the axis of the head. It is one of the very few mammals that build its own home, or nest, complete with a ‘roof’. It is also an indicator species. Indicator species: Its presence reflects the health of its primary habitat, the tall, wet grasslands of the region. Threats: loss and degradation, and illegal hunting. Conservation Status:- IUCN: Critically Endangered. Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I. (Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI)) CITES: Appendix I MUST READ: Kaziranga National Park SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following fauna: (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? (2020) Corbett Ranthambore Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Sunderbans Intelligent Grievance Monitoring System (IGMS) 2.0 Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The Intelligent Grievance Monitoring System (IGMS) 2.0 was launched recently. About Intelligent Grievance Monitoring System (IGMS) 2.0:- Developed by IIT Kanpur. Ministry: Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions. Objectives: Provide instant tabular analysis of Grievances Filed and disposed of. Offer State-wise and district-wise Grievances Filed data. Offer Ministry-wise data. Enhance grievance redressal process with AI capabilities. IGMS 2.0, is an Intelligent Grievance Monitoring System. (Grievance Appellate Committee (GAC) portal) It is for upgrading DARPG Information Systems (CPGRAMS) with Artificial Intelligence capabilities. CPGRAMS, or Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System, serves as an online platform for citizens to lodge grievances with government authorities 24/7, streamlining the process for efficient service delivery. The Dashboard provides instant tabular analysis of Grievances Filed and disposed of, State-wise and district-wise Grievances Filed, and ministry-wise data. It also helps the officials identify the root cause of the grievance. This portal falls under the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG). It offers real-time analysis of grievances filed and resolved, categorizing data by state, district, and ministry. The system leverages artificial intelligence (AI) to identify the root causes of grievances and facilitates drafting letters for scheme or ministry selection, expediting grievance resolution. MUST READ: Grievance Appellate Committees (GACs) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Naganathaswamy Temple Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: The Tamil Nadu Department of Archaeology is embarking on a restoration project for the ancient Naganathaswamy Temple. Background:- The Tamil Nadu Department of Archaeology is set to take up restoration of the 1,000-year-old Naganathaswamy Temple at Manambadi in Thanjavur district in what would be a revival of the Chola-era temple that was dismantled in a botched renovation exercise some years ago. About Naganathaswamy Temple:- Location: Manambadi, Thanjavur district, Tamil Nadu. Constructed by: Rajendra Chola I It was constructed between 1012 and 1044 CE. It is renowned for its remarkable stone sculptures and historical inscriptions. (Hoysala Temples) The temple features an ekatala vimana and a mukha mandapa, both divided into three bays, adorned with sculptures of deities and intricate makara thanas (ceremonial arches). The walls of both structures are divided into three bays. The central bays of the vimana have niches to accommodate Dakshinamurthi in the south, Lingodhbava in the west, and Brahma in the north. The sculptures of Bikshatana, Adavallan, and Ganapathi decorate the south, whereas Gangadarara, Durga, and Ammaiappar are in the north. All the niches have well-carved and distinctive makara thoranas (ceremonial arches) with relief sculptures in the centre. The temple is known for its important inscriptions belonging to the periods of Rajendra Chola I and Kulothunga I (regnal years 1070-1120 CE). Nine interesting and informative inscriptions have been recorded from this temple. The earliest among them belongs to the fourth regnal year of Rajendra Chola I. Beyond its cultural significance, the temple plays a vital role in the local economy. It is a hub for trade and commerce. It was declared as an ancient monument in September 2022. The Arulmigu Naganathaswamy temple at Manambadi village, Tiruvidai Maruthur taluk, has been declared a protected monument under the Tamil Nadu Ancient and Historical Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1966. MUST READ: Shore temple SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q2. With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Bojjannakonda Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, Andhra Pradesh’s Bojjannakonda got a major facelift to draw more tourists. About Bojjannakonda:- Location: Andhra Pradesh. Bojjannakonda is a historic Buddhist site in Andhra Pradesh near Visakhapatnam. It is renowned for its votive stupas, caves, brick structures, early historic pottery, and Satavahana coins. It Dates back to the 3rd century BC. Buddhist monks used to practice on the hill about 2,000 years ago. It was originally known as ‘Buddhuni konda’ (hill of the Buddha), but it came to be known as ‘Bojjannakonda’ in the course of time. Visakhapatnam hosts other Buddhist sites like Thotlakonda, Appikonda, and Bavikonda. Bojjannakonda and Lingalametta are ancient Buddhist monasteries from the 3rd century BC. These are ancient Buddhist monasteries. They feature various rock-carved stupas, Buddha sculptures, and rock-cut monolithic stupas. These sites reflect the evolution of Buddhism through its three phases: Theravada, Mahayana, and Vajrayana. Theravada: Lord Buddha was considered a teacher. Mahayana: Buddhism was more devotional. Vajrayana: Buddhist tradition was more practiced as Tantra and in esoteric form. (Neo-Buddhism) The main stupa at Bojjannakonda is a rock-carved structure covered with bricks and adorned with Buddha sculptures. To the west of Bojjannakonda, another hillock, Lingalakonda or Lingalametta, is present. It boasts rows of rock-cut monolithic stupas. The Buddhist temple at Barabodur in Java has been constructed on the lines of the structures on Lingalametta, according to Buddhist monks. It is also known as ‘Sankaram’, perhaps, a corruption of the Buddhist ‘Sangraha’. MUST READ: The Buddhist Circuit SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora River. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal river. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari river. Q2) With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements: (2020) Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana Buddhism The Lokottaravadin sect was an offshoot of the Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism The deification of Buddha by Mahasanghikas fostered Mahayana Buddhism Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: The concerns of using Aadhaar in welfare schemes Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, credit rating agency Moody’s Investor Service released a report, ‘Decentralised Finance and Digital Assets,’ which advocates for decentralized digital identity systems instead of centralized biometric systems like India’s Aadhaar. Referring to “security and privacy vulnerabilities posed by centralized ID systems like Aadhaar”, the report states “the Aadhaar system faces hurdles, including the burden of establishing authorization and concerns about biometric reliability.” The government stated that it is evident that the authors of the report are unaware that the seeding of Aadhaar in the MGNREGS database has been done without requiring the worker to authenticate. About Aadhaar: The Aadhaar card is a 12-digit unique number issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI). It contains biometric information, such as fingerprints and iris scans, along with demographic information, including individuals’ addresses and date of birth. It serves as proof of identity and is valid anywhere in India for any identification purposes. Having an Aadhaar card is compulsory while applying for a new PAN card or filing Income tax returns. Advantages of using Aadhaar: Transparency in identification of beneficiaries for welfare schemes: Aadhaar has helped to remove fake and duplicate identities of beneficiaries. It has been used to filter the list of beneficiaries and stop the leakage of public money. Targeted delivery of welfare measures: JAM trinity (Jan Dhan Yojana, Aadhaar and Mobile numbers) has been employed for targeted delivery of subsidies. Use of Aadhaar Card for distributing social welfare schemes has led to better targeting of poor which were suffering by leakages. Aadhaar has helped in mapping development parameters: In critical sectors of the country like healthcare and education, Aadhaar has been used to map the development processes and parameters. It has also been used to map skilled manpower, based on the vocational training acquired by the individual with the suitable job vacancies/ skill requirements. Quick and easy Income tax returns: Use of Aadhaar in income tax filing has reduced the number of documents needed for filing income tax. It has made the process more efficient and cost-effective. Phase out of corruption: The use of Aadhaar in financial transactions has reduced the menace of black money in the country thereby reducing the corruption. Concerns associated with Aadhaar: Quantity fraud: In the distribution of rations, the prevalent type of corruption is quantity fraud, where beneficiaries receive less than their entitled share. Aadhaar does not address this issue effectively. Authentication failures: Many individuals in rural areas face authentication failures due to unreliable internet connections, fading fingerprints, or lack of phone connectivity for OTP verification. The extent of these failures remains undisclosed. A report by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) from 2022 states “UIDAI did not have a system to analyze the factors leading to authentication errors.” Privacy at risks: UIDAI has not ensured that the applications or devices used by agencies or companies for authentication “were not capable of storing the personal information of the residents, which put the privacy of residents at risk”. Authentication Errors: Discrepancies between job card information and UID data can lead to authentication errors, causing wage payment delays and complications. Misdirected Payments: Aadhaar payments can be misdirected when an individual’s Aadhaar number gets linked to another person’s bank account, making it challenging to detect and resolve such issues. Aadhaar payments people got redirected to Airtel wallets causing much havoc. Misdirected payments through Aadhaar are difficult to detect and are nearly impossible to resolve. Last-mile delivery in rural areas faces issues of lesser Bank penetration: The last-mile delivery is a significant challenge with the problem of lesser banking infrastructure in rural areas and the failure of the banking correspondent model to take off. Questionable savings claims: Claims of substantial savings through Aadhaar implementation in MGNREGA have been challenged by researchers, citing insufficient funds as the primary reason for wage payment delays. Supreme Court opinion: The government must abide by and enforce Supreme Court directions, including; Restriction of mandatory Aadhaar to permissible purposes, Provision of an alternative whenever Aadhaar authentication fails Unconditional exemption for children. Way Forward: Although the Aadhaars system has undoubtedly brought transparency and efficiency to welfare programs, it is crucial to address the challenges and concerns raised by its implementation. Balancing security, accessibility, and reliability is essential to ensure that Aadhaar continues to benefit those it was intended to serve. Addressing these concerns will help optimize the effectiveness of Aadhaar in government welfare schemes while safeguarding the rights and privacy of citizens. Source:  TH India’s Creative Economic Industries: Opportunities and Challenges Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: The creative industries encompass a diverse range of economic activities rooted in original ideas and artistic expression. About Creative Economy: It is an evolving concept which is building on the interplay between human creativity and ideas and intellectual property, knowledge and technology. The creative industries are a group of economic activities that are based on original ideas. They include businesses that are centred around creativity. These industries include design, music, publishing, architecture, film, crafts, visual arts, fashion, literature, computer games, and more. The Nataraja, a statue of Hindu lord Shiva as the cosmic dancer, installed next to ‘Bharat Mandapam’, at the venue of the G20 Summit is a prime examples of creative economy. Benefits of Creative Economic Industries: Employment generation: Creative industries provide employment opportunities for a significant portion of the population, especially talented individuals. According to Asian Development Bank report 2023, these industries contribute nearly 8% of India’s total employment. Spillover Effects on the Wider Economy: Creative industries drive innovation, fostering creativity, experimentation, and collaboration across various sectors and disciplines. These industries positively impact sectors like tourism, education, and urban development. Tourism Boost: Creative industries attract tourists who engage in cultural experiences, contributing significantly to India’s tourism industry. Education and skills development: Creative industries play a pivotal role in providing learning opportunities, enhancing cultural awareness, and nurturing talent. Urban economic growth: Creative industries revitalize urban areas by creating vibrant cultural hubs, theatre’s, galleries, and entertainment districts. Promotion of India’s Heritage and Resources: Creative industries showcase India’s rich culture, history, and traditions, leveraging abundant natural and human resources. Global branding and soft power: Exporting creative goods and services enhances India’s brand value and soft power, strengthening diplomatic and cultural ties. Challenges associated with creative economy: Common issues: Indian artists and artisans face challenges that are related to economic sustainability, market access, and the preservation of traditional art forms in a rapidly changing society. Need of support and finances: Government support, cultural institutions, and initiatives provide financial assistance, training programmes, and opportunities for artists to exhibit their work. However, more efforts are needed to promote contemporary artists as brands and ensure equal representation and financial assistance. Limited reach of sponsored platforms: There are challenges in the selection of artists for financial assistance in organising cultural events. Lack of transparency in the selection process creates inequality in representation. So, talented artists, particularly those based outside the city, are unable to gain from sponsored platforms. Lack of promoting platforms: Unlike in other countries, there are no serious efforts by private or public institutions to promote contemporary artists as brands. Crime in the art sector: Crime in the art world includes art theft, copyright infringement, forgery, fraud, and illicit trafficking. There is no institutional infrastructure, expertise and technology to verify the original artwork. Govt Initiatives aimed at promoting creative industries: National Film Development Corporation (NFDC): NFDC is a government enterprise under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. It focuses on planning, promoting, and efficiently developing the Indian film industry. National Institute of Design (NID): NID operates autonomously under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It provides education, research, consultancy, and outreach services across various design domains. Scheme for Promotion of Culture of Science (SPoCS): SPoCS, under the Ministry of Culture, encourages a culture of science, technology, and innovation. It achieves this through science festivals, exhibitions, competitions, workshops, and camps, primarily targeting the youth. Scheme for Promotion of Indian Classical Music and Dance (SPIC MACAY): SPIC MACAY is a voluntary movement that arranges programs covering classical music, dance, folk arts, crafts, yoga, meditation, and cinema. India’s Culture Working Group (CWG) is to increase and support the growth of cultural and creative industries and the creative economy It is aimed at promoting job creation, innovation, inclusiveness, and improving the status of cultural practitioners. Way Forward: India’s creative economy holds immense potential for job creation, economic growth, and cultural promotion. However, addressing the challenges faced by creative industries and implementing strategic initiatives are essential to fully unlock this potential and establish India as a global creative powerhouse. Source:    HT Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: IMPORTANT EVENTS YEAR 1.Poona pact 1930 2.Gandhi-Irwin Pact 1922 3.Mountbatten plan 1945 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime is also known as the Palermo Convention. Statement-II: India ratified the UNTOC in 2011. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Naganathaswamy Temple, consider the following statements: The temple is known for its important inscriptions belonging to the periods of Rajendra Chola I and Kulothunga I The temple features an ekatala vimana. It was constructed by Rajendra Chola II. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only and 3 only 3 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What are the concerns and challenges associated with the utilization of Aadhaar in welfare programs, and what steps should be taken to address them while safeguarding citizens’ rights and privacy? (250 Words) Q.2) Analyse the significance of the creative/arts sector in India’s economy. What are the challenges faced by Indian artists and artisans? Suggest ways to address those challenges. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  3rd October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 2nd October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

Oct 3, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 3rd October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test  Click Here

Oct 2, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd October 2023c

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Diabetes Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent studies have found out that India has the 2nd-highest number of diabetes diagnostic centres globally. Background:- In 2021, nearly seven million people died globally as a result of diabetes, while $970 billion was the world’s quantified healthcare expenditure that year, according to a new report titled Diabetes Global Industry Overview 2023. Currently, 537 million adults globally are living with diabetes, with three in four of them living in low- and middle-income countries. After the US, the highest numbers of medical centres for diabetes are located in India (58), Canada (51), the UK (42), Japan (29), and Australia (24). About Diabetes:- IMAGE SOURCE: vecteezy.com Diabetes mellitus refers to a group of diseases that affect how the body uses blood sugar (glucose). Glucose is an important source of energy for the cells that make up the muscles and tissues. It is a condition that happens when the blood sugar (glucose) is too high. It develops when your pancreas doesn’t make enough insulin or any at all, or when the body isn’t responding to the effects of insulin properly. Diabetes affects people of all ages. Types of diabetes:- There are several types of diabetes. The most common forms include:- Type 2 diabetes: With this type, the body doesn’t make enough insulin, and/or the body’s cells don’t respond normally to the insulin (insulin resistance). This is the most common type of diabetes. Prediabetes: The blood glucose levels are higher than normal but not high enough to be officially diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. Type 1 diabetes: This type is an autoimmune disease in which your immune system attacks and destroys insulin-producing cells in your pancreas for unknown reasons. Gestational diabetes: This type develops in some people during pregnancy. Symptoms:- feeling very thirsty needing to urinate more often than usual blurred vision feeling tired losing weight unintentionally Management and Treatment:- Blood sugar monitoring. Oral diabetes medications. Insulin injections. Diet management. Exercise. Prevention:- Keeping a healthy body weight. Staying physically active with at least 30 minutes of moderate exercise each day. Eating a healthy diet and avoiding sugar and saturated fat. Avoiding smoke tobacco. Avoiding stress. (Mental Health) Government initiatives:- India’s National non-communicable disease (NCD) Target aims to prevent the rise in obesity and diabetes prevalence. (Disease Surveillance System) National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancers, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS) in 2010, was launched to provide support for diagnosis and cost-effective treatment at various levels of health care. MUST READ: Non communicable and communicable diseases SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. National Turmeric Board Syllabus Prelims –POLITY-GOVERNANCE Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently, announced the setting up of a National Turmeric Board for Telangana. About National Turmeric Board:- Location: Telangana. Set up: 2023. Objective: to harness the potential of our turmeric farmers and give them the support they rightly deserve. The National Turmeric Board will focus on value addition to the supply chain. The board will extend help to all turmeric farmers on all aspects of Turmeric crops. It would serve various purposes, including enhancing value addition in the turmeric supply chain. It will help in addressing infrastructure-related needs for farmers. It will help the Telangana farmers in having a value chain right from production to export and research in addition to infrastructure. It will boost the country’s position as a key player in the global turmeric market. Significance:- These infrastructure and developmental projects will increase employment opportunities. It improves the lives of people. Turmeric:- Turmeric is a flowering plant. (Lakadong Turmeric) It is used as a condiment, dye, drug, and cosmetic in addition to its use in religious ceremonies. Its color comes mainly from curcumin, a bright yellow phenolic compound. It requires temperatures between 20 and 30 °C (68 and 86 °F). Significance of Turmeric for India:- India holds a prominent position as a major producer, consumer, and exporter. Currently, India contributes to approximately 80 percent of the world’s turmeric production, yielding nearly 1.1 million tonnes of spice annually. The top five turmeric-producing states of India in 2020-21 are Telangana, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh. Awareness of the health benefits of turmeric had grown during the COVID-19 pandemic, leading to increased demand for the spice globally. Turmeric exports have been on the rise, with shipments totaling around 1.5 lakh tonnes, particularly since the onset of the pandemic. Health Benefits of Turmeric:- Depression Type 2 Diabetes Viral Infections Premenstrual Syndrome High Cholesterol MUST READ: Soil-less agriculture SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Q.2) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019) PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: The Law Commission in its recent report on the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act suggested the government keep the consent age 18. Background:- Headed by former Karnataka High Court Chief Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi, the Commission, in its Report No. 283 on ‘Age of Consent under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012’ submitted to Union Law Minister Arjun Ram Meghwal, has accordingly called for certain amendments to the Act “to remedy the situation in cases wherein there is tacit approval in fact though not consent in law on part of the child aged between I6 to l8 years”. Stating that “it is not advisable to tinker with” the existing age of consent — 18 years — under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act to exempt adolescent sexual acts from the purview of the criminal law, the Law Commission of India has instead favoured introducing “guided judicial discretion in the matter of sentencing” in cases involving those in the 16-18 age group. It says “This will ensure that the law is balanced, thus safeguarding the best interests of the child”. About the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act:- Enacted: 2012. (National Commission for Protection of Child Rights) Ministry: Ministry of Women and Child Development. Objectives: to address offenses of sexual exploitation and sexual abuse of children, which were either not specifically defined or adequately penalized. Historic Background:- It was enacted as a consequence of India’s ratification of the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child in 1992. The POCSO Act was enacted in 2012 to provide a robust legal framework for the protection of children from offences of sexual assault, sexual harassment, and pornography while safeguarding the interests of children at every stage of the judicial process. In 2019, the Act was amended to strengthen the penalties for specified offenses in order to deter abusers and promote a dignified upbringing. Salient Features:- The Act defines a child as “any person” under the age of 18. ( Mandatory Minimum Sentencing) The Act recognizes that both girls and boys can be victims of sexual abuse. Any person in charge of an institution (excluding children) who fails to report the commission of a sexual offense involving a subordinate faces punishment. A victim may report an offense at any time, even years after the abuse has occurred. The Act forbids the disclosure of the victim’s identity in any form of media unless authorized by the special courts established by the Act. The new rules include the provision of mandatory police verification of staff in schools and care homes, procedures to report sexual abuse material (pornography), and imparting age-appropriate child rights education among others. For a crackdown on child pornography, any person who has received any pornographic material involving a child or any information regarding such pornographic material shall report the contents to the Special Juvenile Police Unit (SJPU) or police, or the cybercrime portal. Under the rules, the State Governments have been asked to formulate a child protection policy based on the principle of zero-tolerance to violence against children, which shall be adopted by all institutions, organizations, or any other agency working with or coming in contact with children. The Central Government and every State Government shall provide periodic training. The Centre and State Governments have been asked to prepare age-appropriate educational material and curriculum for children, informing them about various aspects of personal safety. According to rules, orientation programme and intensive courses may also be organized for police personnel and forensic experts. Any institution housing children or coming in regular contact with children, including schools, crèches, sports academies, or any other facility for children must ensure a police verification and background check on a periodic basis of every staff. Challenges:- Low Representation of Women in the Police Force. Lapses in the Investigation. No Conditions to Prove Recent Intercourse. MUST READ: Sexual intent is key to POCSO Act: SC SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Global Terrorism Index Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: A recent report discussed the effects of India’s improved ranking in the Global Terrorism Index. Background:- India’s Global Terrorism Index (GTI) score of 7.43 and crime index score of 44.7 indicated a decline in terror and crime incidents since 2016 which can be attributed to strengthened security measures. The report by Ficci Cascade highlighted the need to curb illicit trade, which threatens national security and has negative impacts on manufacturing, government revenue, public health, and consumer trust. About Global Terrorism Index:- Published by: Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP). Publication timing: annually. The Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP), a global think tank. HQ: Sydney, Australia. The index is based primarily on the Global Terrorism Database (GTD) collated by the National Consortium for the Study of Terrorism and Responses to Terrorism (START) at the University of Maryland, besides other sources. The index provides a comprehensive summary of the key global trends and patterns in terrorism since 2000. GTI scores are directly used in the Global Peace Index, the Global Slavery Report. It is also indirectly used in reports of the World Economic Forum’s Travel and Tourism Competitiveness and Global Competitiveness Indices and compilation of the Safe Cities Index by the Economist Intelligence Unit. Key Highlights of the report:- Attacks have become more deadly with the lethality rising by 26%. Islamic State (IS) and its affiliates remained the world’s deadliest terrorist group in 2022 for the eighth consecutive year, with attacks in 21 countries. Ideological terrorism continues to be the most prominent and deadliest form of terrorism in the West. The Sahel is the most impacted region, representing 43% of global terrorism deaths. Pakistan recorded the second-largest surge in terror-related deaths worldwide in 2022, with the toll increasing significantly to 643. South Asia remains the region with the worst average GTI score. India ranks 13th on The Global Terrorism Index (GTI). MUST READ: Terrorism & and its financing SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Gandhi Jayanti Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Gandhi Jayanti will be celebrated on 2nd October 2023. Background: This year (2023) will be the 154th birth anniversary. About Gandhi Jayanti :- October 2 is observed as Gandhi Jayanti to commemorate the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi. He is also known as the ‘Father of the Nation’. He was born on October 2, 1869. He was born in Porbandar, Gujarat. As a mark of respect to the leader, the day is observed as a national holiday. It is celebrated with various events with prayer services and cultural events in educational institutions, and even government institutions. On the day, political leaders pay homage to Raj Ghat, the samadhi of Mahatma Gandhi in New Delhi. His favorite songs, ‘Raghupati Raghava’ and ‘Vaishnav Jan To Tene Kahiye’, are also sung on the occasion in various events as a tribute to the leader. In his honour, the United Nations declared this day as the ‘International Day of Non-Violence’ on June 15, 2007. Gandhi implemented the nonviolent Civil Disobedience Movement against the African officials. Important events in Mahatama Gandhi’s life:- Gandhi completed his graduation from London and went to South Africa to practice law where he saw miserable treatment being meted out to many Indian peasants in South Africa. 1915-1918: As he returned to India in 1915 and saw the state of affairs under the British Government with Indian peasants imposed with excessive taxes, he began protesting it. 1921: Gandhi became the leader of the Indian National Congress. 1922: Soon, he led multiple campaigns for attaining ‘Swaraj’ or self-rule for Indian workers through non-violence or Ahimsa. 1930: He led the 400-km long Dandi Salt March to put an end to the salt tax. 1942: Later, with the Quit India Movement against British rule in 1942, and persistent efforts led to India becoming a sovereign nation with Lord Mountbatten’s declaration of Partition. 1948: He was assassinated on January 30, 1948. MUST READ: Gandhi as Political thinker and a Social reformer SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Who among the following is associated with ‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English? (2022) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Jawaharlal Nehru Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi Sarojini Naidu Bhagat Singh Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES Context: Bhagat Singh’s 116th birth anniversary was celebrated in Lahore, Pakistan recently. About Bhagat Singh:- Birth: September 27, 1907. Birth Place: in Lyallpur, Western Punjab (now in Pakistan). Death: 23rd March 1931. (Shaheed Diwas) It is also known as Martyrs’ Day or Sarvodaya Day. It was on this day that Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, and Rajguru were executed by the British government in 1931. Bhagat Singh was a revolutionary hero of the Indian independence movement. He attended Dayanand Anglo Vedic High School, which was operated by Arya Samaj. He quit education at the age of thirteen and got admitted to the National College in Lahore, where he studied European revolutionary movements. He worked as a writer and editor in Amritsar for Punjabi– and Urdu-language newspapers espousing Marxist theories. Nationalist activities:- He is credited with popularizing the catchphrase “Inquilab zindabad” (“Long live the revolution”) Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA): it was founded in 1928 by Chandrashekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh, and others. John Saunders’ assassination: In 1928, Bhagat Singh and Rajguru shot dead a British police officer, John Saunders, in Lahore, mistaking Saunders, for the British senior police superintendent, James Scott. They held Scott responsible for the death of Lala Lajpat Rai in a lathi charge of Simon Commission. 1929: Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw bombs at the Central Legislative Assembly in Delhi ‘to make the deaf hear’. Trial: In the Lahore conspiracy case, Bhagat Singh along with, Rajguru and Sukhdev were sentenced to death. Bhagat Singh was under one-year imprisonment. He was in the Lahore jail when he was hanged in March 1931. Widespread coverage in Indian-owned newspapers about his courage and spirit—turned him into a household name in India and after his execution into a martyr of Indian Freedom Struggle. Philosophy: He was an avid reader of the teachings of Mikhail Bakunin and also read Karl Marx, Vladimir Lenin, and Leon Trotsky. Books: Why I am an Atheist, Letter to My Father, Jail Notebook.  MUST READ: Maulana Abul Kalam Azad SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct? (2022) Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag here. Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of the Andhra region from here. Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here. Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up the headquarters of the Theosophical Society first here. Q.2) The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a: (2014) revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco nationalist organization operating from Singapore militant organization with headquarters at Berlin communist movement for India’s freedom with headquarters at Tashkent Mains: Regulating Generative Artificial Intelligence Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) and GS 4 (Ethics) Context: The Governments across the world are grappling with the regulation of Artificial Intelligence. In less than a year, chatbots like ChatGPT, Bard, Claude, and Pi have shown what gen AI-powered applications can do. These tools have also revealed their vulnerabilities, which has pushed policymakers and scientists to think deeply about these new systems. About Generative Artificial Intelligence: Generative AI is a type of AI system that can create new content or data that resembles human-made content, such as text, images, music, code, etc. It works by using neural networks to learn from large amounts of data and then generate outputs based on the patterns and rules it has learned. Various significant reasons to regulate AI: Lack of transparency: Many AI algorithms operate as black boxes, making it difficult to understand how they reach their decisions. This lack of transparency raises concerns about accountability and the potential for unfair or biased outcomes. Discrimination and bias outcomes: AI systems can inherit biases from the data they are trained on, leading to discriminatory outcomes. For example, facial recognition algorithms have been shown to have higher error rates for women and people with darker skin tones. Privacy and data protection: AI systems often rely on vast amounts of personal data, raising concerns about privacy and data protection. Improper handling of data can result in unauthorized access, misuse, or breaches of sensitive information. Security risks: AI systems can be vulnerable to cybersecurity threats and attacks. Adversarial attacks can manipulate AI models to produce incorrect or malicious results, posing risks in critical domains such as autonomous vehicles or healthcare. Ethical considerations: AI raises ethical questions related to the impact on jobs, social inequality, and the concentration of power. For example, automated decision-making in hiring processes may perpetuate existing biases and result in unfair outcomes. Lack of regulation and standards: The rapid advancement of AI has outpaced the development of comprehensive regulatory frameworks and industry standards. This creates a regulatory gap and potential risks associated with unchecked AI development and deployment. Advantages of Generative AI: Creative assistance: Generative AI tools can assist and inspire creative professionals in their work. Professionals such as artists, designers, and writers can use generative AI to generate ideas, explore new possibilities, and overcome creative blocks. Real data augmentation: Generative AI can generate synthetic data that closely resembles real data. This is particularly useful in machine learning applications where a large amount of labelled data is required. Creation of multiple content: Generative AI enables the automated creation of various types of content, such as text, images, videos, music, and more. This can significantly speed up the content generation process for industries like advertising, entertainment, and marketing. Healthcare: By generating new medical images and simulations, improving the accuracy and efficiency of medical diagnoses and treatments. Personalization: Generative AI can be used to create personalized experiences for users. By analysing user preferences and behaviour, generative AI systems can generate tailored recommendations, product suggestions, and customized content, enhancing customer satisfaction and engagement. Problem Solving: Generative AI can be applied to problem-solving tasks, such as generating new drug compounds, optimizing supply chain logistics, or creating efficient designs. By exploring vast solution spaces, generative AI algorithms can propose novel solutions and accelerate the discovery process. Simulation and training: Industries like autonomous vehicles or robotics, generative AI can create virtual environments to train algorithms and test systems without the need for physical resources or risking safety. Concerns associated with regulating AI: Rapid technological advancement: Recent advancements in AI posing challenges for regulators to keep up with the latest developments and effectively regulate a technology that is constantly evolving. Deepfakes: These are the synthetic media that generative AI models can create by manipulating or combining existing images, videos, or audio. Deepfakes can be used for malicious purposes such as spreading disinformation, impersonating people, or blackmailing. Increased costs and competition: Compliance with regulations may impose additional costs on businesses, particularly smaller companies and startups, limiting their ability to compete in the AI market. The burden of regulatory compliance could disproportionately affect smaller players. Accountability: Determining responsibility and liability when AI systems cause harm or make erroneous decisions can be challenging. Clarifying the legal frameworks and accountability structures surrounding AI is crucial for effective regulation. Cybersecurity: Generative AI models can be used by hackers to create new and complex types of malwares, phishing schemes, or other cyberattacks that can evade conventional security measures. Such attacks can have serious consequences such as data breaches, financial losses, or reputational damage. International cooperation: AI regulation requires international cooperation and collaboration to address global challenges, harmonize standards, and prevent regulatory arbitrage. Developing consensus among different countries with varying interests and priorities can be a complex task. Artificial Intelligence across the globe: India: The Ministry of Information Technology and Electronics is working on framing the draft Digital India Act, which will replace the existing IT Act. India has established a National AI Programme to promote the efficient and responsible use of AI. Overall generative AI has the potential to enable efficiency and productivity across multiple industries and applications at scale. However, if not designed and developed responsibly with appropriate safeguards, Generative AI can create harm and adversely impact society through misuse, perpetuating biases, exclusion, and discrimination. Source: TH Social Bonds: A march towards sustainability bond framework Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context:  The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) has issued India’s first ‘AAA’ rated Indian Rupee-denominated Social Bonds. About Social bonds: Social bonds, also known as social impact bonds (SIB), are the type of bond where the bond issuer is gathering funds for a project that had some socially beneficial implications. Similar to any other bond, social bonds imply that the bond issuer owes a debt to the bondholder. The Pimpri Chinchwad Municipal Corporation (PCMC) in Maharashtra’s Pune and United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in 2020 co-created India’s first Social Impact Bond (SIB). Sustainability Bond Framework NABARD recently announced a Sustainability Bond Framework which seeks to finance and refinance new or existing eligible green and social projects. Eligible social projects: Includes affordable basic infrastructure, access to essential services, affordable housing, employment generation, food security, socioeconomic advancement, and empowerment. Projects that promise energy efficiency including green buildings, energy storage, and smart grids. Key features of Social Bonds: Designed for social cause: These bonds are raised to improving healthcare access, advancing education, providing affordable housing, alleviating poverty, and promoting environmental sustainability. The defining characteristic of social bonds is their commitment to generating tangible and positive societal outcomes. Broad spectrum of issuers: They are not limited to government entities but can be issued by a diverse array of organizations. This includes governments at various levels. international multilateral organizations, financial institutions and corporations. This diversity of issuers underscores a collective commitment to addressing social issues and leveraging financial markets to do so. Certification and reporting: The certification ensures that the bond’s proceeds are used exclusively for the intended social projects and adhere to predefined social goals. Issuers are obligated to provide regular and transparent reporting on the progress and impact of the projects financed. This reporting helps investors, regulators, and the public assess whether the social bonds are fulfilling their intended purpose. Challenges associated with the social bonds: Complexity of identifying projects: Identifying suitable social projects that can effectively absorb the capital raised through social bonds can be a complex task. This challenge arises from the need to align the projects with the specific criteria and goals of social bonds. Therefore, careful project selection and prioritization are critical to the success of social bond issuances. Measuring Impact: As it generate tangible and positive social outcomes, measuring the social impact of projects can be intricate, as it often involves assessing complex and multifaceted social variables. Robust monitoring and evaluation systems are necessary to track progress and demonstrate the impact of financed projects. Lack of awareness and education: To foster broader adoption of social bonds, there is a need to increase awareness among both investors and issuers about their benefits and mechanisms. Many potential stakeholders may not fully understand the unique attributes of social bonds, including their potential for positive social impact. Education campaigns and targeted outreach efforts can help bridge this knowledge gap and encourage more participation in the market. Way Forward: Therefore, issuance of social bonds is a significant development in the Indian financial market, providing an avenue for financing projects that have a positive impact on society and addressing social issues. The strong investor response reflects growing interest in socially responsible investing and sustainable finance in India. Source: THB Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Indices Organization 1.Child Development Index Save the Children 2.Corruption Perceptions Index Transparency International 3.Education Index UNDP How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act does not recognize boys as the victims of sexual abuse. Statement-II: The Act forbids the disclosure of the victim’s identity. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to diabetes, consider the following statements: Its symptoms include blurred vision and feeling tired. The blood glucose levels are higher than normal but not high enough to be officially diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes in gestational diabetes. Diabetes only affects people of old age (above 60yrs). How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Analyse the potential benefits and challenges of generative AI for India’s development and security. Suggest some measures that India should take to harness the opportunities and mitigate the risks of generative AI. (250 words) Q.2) Discuss the potential benefits and disadvantages of social impact bonds (SIBs). Explains NABARD’s Sustainability Bond Framework with examples. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’   2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 30th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Oct 2, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 2nd October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test  Click Here

Sep 30, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 30th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Gems and Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, the Gems and Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC) recently appealed to diamond industries to stop importing rough diamonds from October 15 to December 15. Background:- The decision has been taken due to the lack of demand for polished natural diamonds and studded jewellery in the international market. In a statement, GJEPC said that the demand for loose polished diamonds and jewellery from large economies like the USA and China has been affected over the last many quarters. About Gems and Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC): – Establishment: 1966. HQ: Mumbai. Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry. VISION: to make India the preferred source for quality gems and jewellery. (India’s Gems & Jewellery sector ) The Gem & Jewellery Export Promotion Council is the apex body which aims to promote the gems and jewellery products and industry. It is considered to be one of the leaders in diamond manufacturing and trading. It is a central administrative and statutory body looking over the gems and jewellery industry in India. It has regional offices in New Delhi, Kolkata, Jaipur and Surat. It drives India’s export-led growth in the gem and jewellery sector. (Export-oriented units) Objectives: – PROMOTING BRAND INDIA: – Organizing India’s biggest and second-biggest trade shows, IIJS Premiere and IIJS Signature. Organizing joint participation in international jewellery shows. CONNECTING GOVERNMENT & TRADE: – Facilitating better interaction on trade-related issues between the industry and the Government of India, Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Ministry of Finance, DGFT, Dept of Commerce, Dept. of Finance. UPHOLDING DIAMOND INTEGRITY: – Executing the Kimberly Process Certification Scheme in the country, as the Nodal Agency appointed by the Government of India. SPREADING EDUCATION: – Running training institutes that impart manufacturing skills, and technical and design excellence in six cities – Mumbai, Delhi, Surat, Jaipur, Varanasi and Udupi. INNOVATION AND INFRASTRUCTURE: – Providing MSMEs with affordable modern machines and tools at Common Facility Centres. Setting up Jewellery Parks across the country. HEALTH AND WELL-BEING:- Providing health insurance for the employees of the Council’s member companies through the group mediclaim scheme called Swasthya Ratna. PAYING BACK TO SOCIETY:- Founded by GJEPC in 2014, Jewellers for Hope has donated Rs.1 crore every year to one or more NGOs/charities doing exceptional work in supporting the underprivileged. MUST READ:  New Foreign Trade Policy SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at (2016) bringing small entrepreneurs into the formal financial system providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating particular crops providing pensions to old and destitute persons funding the voluntary organizations involved in the promotion of skill development and employment generation Q.2) What is/are the purpose/purposes of `District Mineral Foundations in India? (2016) Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich districts Protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations Authorizing State Governments to issue licences for mineral exploration Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: As per recent reports of the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), international Shipping emissions increased by 20% in the last decade. Key highlights of the report: – In 2023, greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions from international shipping were 20 per cent higher than 10 years earlier. (Shipping Industry in India) It advocates for system-wide collaboration, swift regulatory intervention and stronger investments in green technologies and fleets. It states that full decarbonization by 2050 will require massive investments and could lead to higher maritime logistics costs, raising concerns for vulnerable shipping-reliant nations like small island developing states. It emphasizes the need to balance environmental goals with economic needs. It states that beyond cleaner fuels, the industry needs to move faster towards digital solutions like AI and blockchain to improve efficiency as well as sustainability. In its analysis of global maritime trends, the report highlights shipping’s resilience despite major challenges stemming from global crises, such as the war in Ukraine. It states that maritime trade is expected to grow 2.4% in 2023 and more than 2% between 2024 and 2028. It states that balancing environmental sustainability, regulatory compliance and economic demands is vital for a prosperous, equitable and resilient future for maritime transport. About the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD):- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideServe Established: 1964. HQ: Geneva in Switzerland. UNCTAD is the UN’s leading institution dealing with trade and development. It is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly. UNCTAD is part of the UN Secretariat. Membership: it has a membership of 195 countries. The Conference ordinarily meets once in four years. The second UNCTAD Conference took place in New Delhi, India in 1968. Functions of UNCTAD: – It supports developing countries to access the benefits of a globalized economy more fairly and effectively. It provides economic, and trade analysis, and facilitates consensus building. It offers technical assistance to help developing countries use trade, investment, finance and technology for inclusive and sustainable development. Important reports: – Trade and Development Report: Annual World Investment Report: Annual The Least Developed Countries Report: Annual. Commodities and Development Report: Annual. MUST READ: GREEN MARITIME SECTOR SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Rapid Financing Instruments” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 India and Finland Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: India and Finland recently agreed on cooperation between the two countries in several areas of telecom including the development of Human Resources for the dynamic sector. About India and Finland:- IMAGE SOURCE: countryreports.org Finland and India have traditionally enjoyed warm and friendly relations. In recent years, bilateral relations have acquired diversity with collaboration in research, innovation, and investments by both sides. 2019 marked 70 years of diplomatic relations between the two countries. Economic cooperation: – Finland sees India as a market for its products and a favourable investment destination for its high-technology industries. India views Finland as an important member of the European Union and a repository of modern technology. S&T Collaboration: – An agreement for Cooperation in S&T was signed in February 2008 for the development of innovation policies, exchange of information and scientists and R&D collaboration. Both India and Finland are consultative members of the Antarctic Treaty and have active stations in Antarctica. Finland will be hosting the Antarctic Treaty Consultative Meeting (ATCM) in 2023 and India in 2024. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) and the Finnish Meteorological Institute (FMI) have been cooperating in the field of Atmospheric Environment since 2014. Cultural Relations: – Indian culture and yoga are very popular in Finland. Cultural events are organized regularly by Indian Associations and other cultural organizations promoting Indian dance and music. Environment Relations: – There have been successful partnerships since 2004 between the Finnish Meteorological Institute (FMI), the India Meteorological Department (IMD) and The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) in air quality including capacity building. Cooperation in Education: – Finland is a global leader in education scoring consistently on several parameters. There have been tie-ups between private firms for the exchange of best practices in early childhood and K-12 education. There is an MoU between a Consortium of ten Finnish Universities and twenty-three Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) for the period 2020-2025 for cooperation in the higher education sector. MUST READ: Foreign Universities in India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2023) Bulgaria Czech Republic Hungary Latvia Lithuania Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America National Service Scheme Awards 2021-22 Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT AWARDS Context: President Droupadi Murmu conferred the National Service Scheme Awards 2021-22 recently. Background:- The award was given to 52 persons for their contributions to social services. About National Service Scheme Awards 2021-22:- Instituted in 1993-94. It was instituted on the occasion of the Silver Jubilee Year of the National Service Scheme. Instituted by: Youth Affairs and Sports Ministry. Presented by: President of India. Venue: Rashtrapati Bhavan. The NSS Awards, are presented every year to the NSS Volunteers, Programme Officers, NSS Units and the Universities/+2 Councils to recognize their voluntary service. Objectives:- To encourage young NSS student volunteers to develop their personality through community service. To encourage the Programme Officers and the Programme Coordinators of NSS for catering for the needs of NSS through the NSS volunteers. (Gandhi as a Political thinker and a Social reformer) To motivate NSS Volunteers to continue their selfless service towards community work. About NSS:- Launched: 1969. NSS is a central sector scheme. Objective: to develop the personality and character of the student/youth through voluntary community service. The ideological orientation of the NSS is inspired by the ideals of Mahatma Gandhi. The motto of NSS is “NOT ME, BUT YOU” In Hindi it is “स्वयंसेपहलेआप”. NSS volunteers work on issues of social relevance through regular and special camping activities. MUST READ:  (Padma awards) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Pink Bollworm Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Damages due to the Pink Bollworm have been wreaking havoc on cotton fields from Rajasthan to Haryana. Background: – The Pink Bollworm (PBW), a highly destructive cotton pest, has reached unprecedented levels of infestation in the Indian states of Rajasthan and Haryana, severely affecting cotton crops. About Pink Bollworm: – Pink Bollworm is one of the most destructive pests of cotton. It is native to India. It was originally reported in India in 1842. It has now spread to cotton-growing regions worldwide. The adult Pink bollworms are small moths. The larvae are the most damaging stage, identified by distinctive pink bands. The pinkish-coloured larva generally pupates in a cocoon inside a boll or seed, in litter, or underground. They feed on cotton bolls, consuming seeds and damaging fibres. This leads to reduced crop yields and quality. (Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee) The infestation also impacts other plants like hibiscus, okra, and hollyhock. This outbreak threatens the livelihoods of cotton farmers. It calls for urgent pest management measures. (Agristack Project) MUST READ: GM Crops and their regulation SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) India has more arable area than China. The proportion of irrigated areas is higher in India as compared to China. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China: How many of the above statements is/are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which of the following organisms ·perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps World University Rankings 2024 Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: In first, there are a record-breaking number of Indian universities in the recently released, Times Higher Education’s World University Rankings 2024. Key highlights of the report:- The University of Oxford tops the ranking for the eighth year in a row. The US is the most-represented country overall, with 169 institutions, and also the most-represented in the top 200 (56). With 91 institutions, India is now the fourth most-represented nation, overtaking China (86). The top university in India, the Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore. The next highest-ranked universities in India are Anna University, Jamia Millia Islamia, Mahatma Gandhi University, and Shoolini University of Biotechnology and Management Sciences, which are all in the 501-600 band. Indian universities made significant gains this year, including five of the countries’ top universities. IISc moved up from 251-300 bands last year to 201-250. Anna University moved up from 801-1000 band last year to 501-600. Aligarh Muslim University moved up from 801-1000 band last year to 601-80. Bharathiar University moved up from the 801-1000 band last year to 601-800. Malaviya National Institute of Technology entered the ranking for the first time in the 601-800 band. Two IITs, the Indian Institute of Technology Guwahati and the Indian Institute of Technology (Indian School of Mines) Dhanbad, moved up two bands to join the world’s top 800 universities, from 1001-1200 to 601-800. About World University Rankings 2024: – Founded in 2004. Published by: Times Higher Education. The Times Higher Education World University Rankings 2024 include 1,904 universities across 108 countries and regions. These rankings are the most comprehensive, rigorous and balanced global ranking. (QS World University Rankings 2021) It covers their core missions of teaching, research, knowledge transfers and internationalization. It assesses research-intensive universities across 18 carefully calibrated performance indicators that measure an institution’s performance across five areas: teaching, research environment, research quality, industry, and international outlook. It is trusted worldwide by students, teachers, governments and industry experts. MUST READ: Education & Nation Building SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’? (2018) To enable famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2018) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. CALIPSO mission Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY-SPACE Context: Recently, NASA’s CALIPSO mission stopped blasting lasers at Earth after 17 years. Background: – NASA recently announced that its CALIPSO satellite, which takes climate, weather and air quality measurements using LIDAR, has ended its science mission. About CALIPSO mission: – Launch Date: April 28, 2006 Launch Location: Vandenberg Air Force Base, California, USA. Launch Vehicle: Delta II rocket. (Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV)) Spacecraft: PROTEUS Orbit Type: Sun-synchronous. CALIPSO is a joint U.S. (NASA)/French (Centre National d’Etudes Spatiales/CNES) mission. Observations from spaceborne lidar, combined with passive imagery, will lead to an improved understanding of the role aerosols and clouds play in regulating the Earth’s climate, in particular, how aerosols and clouds interact with one another. Mission’s  Objectives:- CALIPSO’s primary objective is to enhance our understanding of clouds and aerosols (tiny solid and liquid particles suspended in the atmosphere) and their roles in Earth’s climate system. CALIPSO aims to provide valuable data for climate change research by monitoring key atmospheric parameters. The mission contributes to improved air quality assessments and weather forecasting by providing real-time atmospheric data. Instruments:- Lidar Technology: CALIPSO is equipped with a lidar (light detection and ranging) instrument, known as the CALIOP (Cloud-Aerosol Lidar with Orthogonal Polarization). It uses laser pulses to measure the altitude and properties of clouds and aerosols with high precision. Passive Sensors: The satellite also carries passive sensors, including the Imaging Infrared Radiometer (IIR). Wide Field Camera (WFC): provides complementary data on clouds and aerosols. MUST READ: India – USA space cooperation SOURCE:  THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Mains: Dr. M. S. Swaminathan: Architect of Agricultural Innovation and Biodiversity Conservation Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy and Environment) Context: MS Swaminathan, the Father of the Green Revolution who transformed India’s image from a begging bowl to a bread basket passed away recently. About Green Revolution in India: The term ‘Green Revolution’ refers to the new agricultural technology developed during the 1950s and 1960s by a team of agricultural experts at the International Centre for Maize and Wheat Improvement in Mexico and at the International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) in the Philippines. The Green Revolution in India began in the mid-1960s marking a transition from traditional agriculture in India and the introduction of high-yielding varieties of seeds and the associated agricultural techniques. India is now the world’s largest sugar-producing country and holds the second position in rice production only after China. India is also the second largest producer of wheat with a share of around 14.14 percent of the world’s total production in 2020. As per the 4th Advance Estimates, the production of food grains in the country is estimated at 315.72 million tonnes which is higher by 4.98 million tonnes than the production of food grains during 2020-21. Positive Impacts of Green Revolution Tremendous Increase in Crop Produce: It resulted in a grain output of 131 million tonnes in the year 1978-79 and established India as one of the world’s biggest agricultural producers. The crop area under high yielding varieties of wheat and rice grew considerably during the Green Revolution. Reduced import: India became self-sufficient in food-grains and had sufficient stock in the central pool, even, at times, India was in a position to export food-grains. Benefits to the farmers: The introduction of the Green Revolution helped the farmers in raising their level of income. Farmers ploughed back their surplus income for improving agricultural productivity. The per capita income of Punjab stands at Rs.1,73,873 in 2022-23 (Advance Estimates) which is higher than Rs. 1,70,620 at National level. Industrial Growth: The Revolution brought about large scale farm mechanization which created demand for large scale establishment of agro based industries. Generation of rural employment: There was an appreciable increase in the demand for labour force due to multiple cropping and use of fertilizers. It created plenty of jobs not only for agricultural workers but also industrial workers by creating related facilities such as factories and hydroelectric power stations. Bullock capitalism: Emergence of a new class of wealthy farmers and their subsequent impact on economic and agricultural policy evident post-Green Revolution especially Green Revolution belt. Negative Impacts of Green Revolution Non-Food Grains Left Out: Although all food-grains including wheat, rice, jowar, bajra and maize have gained from the revolution, other crops such as coarse cereals, pulses and oilseeds were left out of the ambit of the revolution. Limited Coverage of HYVP: High Yielding Variety Programme (HYVP) was restricted to only five crops: Wheat, Rice, Jowar, Bajra and Maize. Therefore, non-food grains were excluded from the ambit of the new strategy. Regional disparities: Green Revolution technology has given birth to growing disparities in economic development at interred and intra-regional levels. It has so far affected only 40 percent of the total cropped area and 60 per cent is still untouched by it. The most affected areas are Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh in the north and Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu in the south. Depletion of groundwater resources: It led to a significant increase in water consumption for irrigation, which has depleted groundwater resources in many areas. As per Ground Water Resources Assessment for 2022, Punjab has 76% groundwater blocks which are overexploited, Rajasthan has 72% and Haryana has 61%. Impacts on soil and crop production: Repeated crop cycle in order to ensure increased crop production depleted the soil’s nutrients. Toxic chemicals in the soil destroyed beneficial pathogens, which further led to the decline in the yield. Unemployment: Except in Punjab, and to some extent in Haryana, farm mechanization under the Green Revolution created widespread unemployment among agricultural labourers in the rural areas. The worst affected were the poor and the landless labourers. Health Hazards: The large-scale use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides resulted in resulted in a number of critical health illnesses including cancer, renal failure, stillborn babies and birth defects. Way Forward: Overall, the Green Revolution was a major achievement for many developing countries, specially India and gave them an unprecedented level of national food security. But there is a need of a more comprehensive policy environment that can protect farmers, human health and the environment from the negative impacts of the green revolution in India. Source:  Indian Express India-Bangladesh relations Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: A planned tripartite power trade agreement between India, Nepal and Bangladesh is in the final stage, though New Delhi and Dhaka may have to augment their transmission capacities to implement the pact, The proposed tripartite power trade pact, the first of its kind in South Asia, was agreed to by the three countries earlier this year and is aimed at meeting a long-standing demand from Nepal and Bangladesh to allow the sale of electricity to the Indian grid. India – Bangladesh relations: Historical ties: India was the first country to recognise Bangladesh as independent state and established diplomatic relations after its independence in December 1971. Bangladesh’s geographical location as India’s eastern neighbour gives it strategic importance. Trade and investment:  Bangladesh is India’s biggest trade partner in South Asia. India’s exports to Bangladesh during 2021 was US$14.09 Billion. Bangladesh may become India’s fourth-largest export destination in FY22, jumping five places in two years. Bangladesh’s major import items like cotton, mineral fuel, machinery, electrical equipment, and cereals are among the top exported commodities by India to the world. 6 Border Haats (4 in Meghalaya and 2 in Tripura), have been approved by the Indian and Bangladesh governments. Connectivity and cooperation: Bandhan Express: starting from Kolkata for Khulna since 2017. It covers the distance via Petrapole and Benapole border route to cater to the demands of the people from both countries. Maitree Express: Starting from Dhaka for Kolkata – since 2008 The tri-weekly service between Kolkata and Dhaka used to run with 90 percent occupancy. Mitali Express: Starting from New Jalpaiguri in North Bengal to Dhaka. Protocol on Inland Water Transit and Trade (PIWTT) was signed for the transportation of goods and keeping their respective waterways navigable while providing infrastructure facilities. Agartala – Akhaura Rail Link: between Agartala (Tripura) and Akhaura (Bangladesh) would be the first train from the northeastern region to Bangladesh. Border management and river waters: The Ganga Waters Treaty signed in 1996 for sharing of waters of river Ganga during lean season. Most recently an MoU has been signed between the Ministry of Jal Shakti and the Bangladesh Ministry of Water Resources on the withdrawal of water from the Kushiyara. The two sides also affirmed that border management is a shared priority and commended the fact that the deaths on the border have greatly reduced. Defence cooperation: High-level exchanges include the edition of India-Bangladesh CORPAT ‘Bangosagar’ exercise, Regional Commanders meeting of Coast Guards and the Annual Defense Dialogues. Various Joint exercises take place between the two countries: Exercise Sampriti (Army) and Exercise Milan (Navy). Multilateral Cooperation: India and Bangladesh are also engaged in regional cooperation through multilateral forums such as SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation), BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) and Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA). Tourism and cultural ties: According to the Ministry of Tourism, Bangladesh accounted for the largest share of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2020, including tens of thousands of people who come to the country for medical treatment. The Indira Gandhi Cultural Centre (IGCC) in Dhaka plays an important role in the celebration of common cultural links between the two countries. Its training programs including Yoga, Kathak, Manipuri dance, Hindi language, Hindustani classical music and the cultural programs of renowned artists of India and Bangladesh contribute to the promotion of people-to-people contacts. Significance of Bangladesh to India: Geopolitical: Bangladesh is India’s neighbour and shares a long land, riverine and maritime boundary. India needs cooperation from Bangladesh to counter the Chinese ‘String of Pearls’. Strategic: Bangladesh is located at the crossroads of South Asia and Southeast Asia and is important for India’s Act East Policy, which aims to build closer ties with the countries of Southeast Asia. Economic: India-Bangladesh have close economic ties, with India being one of Bangladesh’s largest trading partners. Cultural: India and Bangladesh have a shared history, culture, and heritage. The people of the two countries are linked by strong cultural and familial ties, and there is a large population of Indian-origin people living in Bangladesh. Environmental concerns: Bangladesh and India share trans-boundary rivers and ecological systems, making it important for the two countries to cooperate on issues such as water management and flood control. Areas of Concerns: Citizenship Amendment Act: There has been a concern in Bangladesh about the CAA and the proposed National Register of Citizens in India. The concern is as much about laws as the anti-Bangladeshi rhetoric from the highest political echelons in Delhi. China factor: China has been increasing its investments in Bangladesh, particularly in the areas of infrastructure development, energy, and telecommunications. For example, BRI and investment in Chittagong port. Teesta River Water Dispute: The long-pending issue of sharing Teesta waters – a major concern for Dhaka – continues to be unresolved, partly due to the Government of West Bengal. No treaty has been signed yet to resolve the Teesta water-sharing dispute between the two nations. Border disputes: Long-standing disputes over the demarcation of the shared border, particularly in the regions of Assam and Tripura. Illegal immigration: The flow of migrants across the Bangladeshi border as a result of the country’s unrest has further strained the relationship between the two countries. The inhabitants of the Indian states bordering Bangladesh have experienced substantial socio-economic-political challenges as a result of the significant influx of migrants. Way forward: India needs to look at more ways to deepen its ties with Bangladesh, especially keeping in mind the shifting nature of geopolitics and geoeconomics in South Asia. India needs to find a fine balance in respecting Bangladesh’s economic growth while maintaining its economic progress. Source:   HT Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Space Missions Agency 1.DISCOVERY NASA 2.Aditya-L1 ISRO 3.MOM JAXA How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The UNCTAD publishes the Least Developed Countries Report biannually. Statement-II: The second UNCTAD Conference took place in New Delhi, India in 1968. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the CALIPSO mission, consider the following statements: It contributes to improved air quality assessments and weather forecasting. It is a joint NASA-ESA mission. It uses laser pulses to measure the altitude and properties of clouds and aerosols with high precision. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) In times of regional turmoil, India- Bangladesh relations need careful nurturing.” Discuss. (250 words) Q.2) Discuss the role of Dr. M. S. Swaminathan in the green revolution and Its impact on Indian agriculture. How did his initiatives address food security challenges in the country? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  30th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 29th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Sep 30, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 30th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Sep 29, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 29th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Battle of Haifa Syllabus Prelims –HISTORY Context: India and Israel commemorated the Battle of Haifa recently. Background:- Every year on September 23, diplomats from India’s Embassy in Israel and Israeli government officials representing the municipality of the northern port city of Haifa gather at the Haifa War Cemetery to pay respects to the Indian soldiers who were killed and wounded in battle, on foreign soil. About the Battle of Haifa:- IMAGE SOURCE: BRITANNICA The 23rd of September is designated as ‘Haifa Day’. It commemorates the city’s capture following a daring cavalry action by the 15th Imperial Service Cavalry Brigade during World War I. Haifa Day commemorations were initiated in 2010. Teen Murti Chowk in India was renamed Teen Murti Haifa Chowk in honour of the Battle of Haifa’s centenary. Historical background:- The Battle of Haifa was fought during the First World War as a part of the Sinai and Palestine campaigns.( India, Israel, and Palestine) The 5th Cavalry Division comprising the 13, 14, and 15 Cavalry Brigades were tasked with capturing Haifa. The 15 Cavalry Brigade comprised the Jodhpur Lancers and the Mysore and Hyderabad Lancers. The British Empire, the Kingdom of Italy, and the French Third Republic, fought alongside the Arab Revolt, in opposition to the Ottoman Empire, the Austro-Hungarian Empire, and the German Empire. The Indian Cavalry Brigade, played a decisive role, leading to the capture of Haifa and Acre from the Ottoman Empire. Significance:- The Battle of Haifa is a testament to the valour of Indian soldiers, including Sikhs and Rajputs, in global conflicts. It highlights India’s contributions during the First World War. It adds a historic significance in strengthening India-Israel relations.( 15th India-Israel Joint Working Group) MUST READ: India and Israel SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements: (2022) The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by the Gajapati rulers. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagar Empire. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of:(2015) ASEAN BRICS OECD WTO Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Waheeda Rehman will be honoured with the 53rd Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award for the year 2023. About Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award:- Established: 1969. Presented at the National Film Awards ceremony. Presented by: President of India. First awardee: Devika Rani. Naming: This award commemorates Dadasaheb Phalke. Dadasaheb Phalke was the director of India’s inaugural full-length feature film, “Raja Harishchandra,” in 1913. He is known as the “Father of Indian Cinema”. The Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award is India’s highest cinema honour. It is presented annually at the National Film Awards ceremony by the Directorate of Film Festivals. The award is presented by the President of India in the presence of the Union Minister of Information and Broadcasting, the Chairpersons of the juries, the representatives of the Film Federation of India, and the Confederation of All India Cine Employees among senior officials. It is awarded for outstanding contribution to the growth and development of Indian cinema. The Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2020 was accorded to legendary actress Ms Asha Parekh. Decoration:- The prize includes:- Swarna Kamal (Golden Lotus) medallion a shawl a cash prize of 10 lakh. MUST READ: Golden Globes Award SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards: (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY/ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, Punjab submitted the State Action Plan and District-wise Action Plans for tackling the problem of stubble burning to the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM). Background:- The Action Plans commit to an overall reduction of more than 50% in paddy stubble burning incidents this year as compared to 2022. About Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM):- Establishment: 2020. It is a permanent body. (Air pollution) The Commission has been set up for Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas. It aims for better coordination, research, identification, and resolution of problems surrounding the air quality index and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. It is a statutory mechanism to coordinate and oversee diverse efforts to improve air quality in Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and UP, with the underlying remedial approach. CAQM will supersede all existing bodies, including the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), as well as state governments in matters of air pollution mitigation. Significance: The establishment of CAQM has the potential to address the problem of air pollution but an institution by itself is not a solution. Historical Background:- The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) was established under the Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Ordinance in October 2020. The parliament was not in session during this time, and an urgent need for such legislation was felt. The ordinance lapsed on 12th March 2021. Consequently, a new bill for this was promulgated. It was given the assent of both the houses and the President, following which Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act,2021 was passed on 12th August 2021. The CAQM was formed after dissolving the 22-year-old Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA). Objective: Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas. Functions and Power of the Commission:- The Commission will provide the mechanism and the means to implement in the NCR and around, the National Clean Air Programme, the National Air Quality Monitoring Programme, and the National Ambient Air Quality Standards. It is tasked with laying down parameters of air quality. The Commission has the right to prohibit activities that are likely to cause or increase air pollution in the NCR. The Commission can take up matters suo-motu or on the basis of complaints from individuals and organizations. It will submit to the Centre an annual report which will be laid before both houses of the Parliament. Every regulation and order of the Commission will be placed before Parliament. The Commission would specifically monitor measures taken by the states to prevent factors causing air pollution like stubble burning, industrial emissions, road dust, vehicular pollution, construction activities, biomass burning, and other major sources of air pollution. Composition of CAQM:- Chairperson: It will have a full-time chairperson. It will be one “who is or has been Secretary to the Government of India or Chief Secretary to the Government of a state”. The chairperson will hold the post for three years or until s/he attains the age of 70 years. State Representatives: The Commission will also have five ex officio members who are either Chief Secretaries, or Secretaries in charge of the department dealing with environment protection in the States of Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. Experts: Three full-time independent technical members with “specific scientific knowledge and experience in matters relating to air pollution”; a technical member each from the CPCB and nominated by ISRO, ex officio. Civil Society: Three representatives of NGOs with experience in combating air pollution. Others: It will have members from Niti Aayog and several Ministries. MUST READ: National Clean Air Campaign SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the Guidelines, statements: the context of WHO considers the Air Quality following (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and the annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Q.2) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (2020) Automobile exhaust Tobacco smoke Woodburning Using varnished wooden furniture Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 MS Swaminathan Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES Context: MS Swaminathan passed away recently. Background:- Agricultural scientist Dr MS Swaminathan, known as the father of India’s Green Revolution, passed away in Chennai. He was 98 years old. About MS Swaminathan:- Birth date: August 7, 1925. Birth Place: in Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu. Swaminathan brought a social revolution through his policies to rescue India from famine-like circumstances in the 1960s. He was called the ‘Father of the Indian Green Revolution’. Early life and education:- Initially, aiming for a career in civil services he switched to agriculture due to his passion, inspired by the Quit India Movement and the Bengal famine of 1942–43. He enrolled in the Agriculture College in Coimbatore to pursue his interest in agriculture. Swaminathan held various significant positions related to agriculture, both in India and abroad. Contributions to the Green Revolution:- Swaminathan’s contributions to agriculture in the 1960s and ’70s transformed India’s farming landscape, ushering in an era of food security. He worked on enhancing crop varieties, particularly rice and wheat. He pioneered the development of semi-dwarf wheat varieties to boost yields. Collaboration with Norman Borlaug resulted in the introduction of dwarfing genes into wheat varieties. Swaminathan organized hundreds of exhibitions in the northern portion of the country in 1965 to teach small-scale farmers how genetically engineered grains might enable them to grow higher yields in the same land. These demonstrations were game-changing since the crop tripled prior output levels in the first year of the Green Revolution era. Swaminathan trained farmers to use these new approaches, overcoming the illiteracy barrier. Because of his efforts, the average agricultural production increased from 12 million tonnes to 23 million tonnes in just four crop seasons. Roles:- His roles included Independent Chairman of the Food and Agricultural Organization Council (1981–85). President of the International Union for the Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (1984–90) President of the World Wide Fund for Nature (India) from 1989–96. He also served as the Director General of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). He founded the MS Swaminathan Research Foundation. He played a vital role in developing high-yield variety seeds of wheat, which led to the green revolution in India. Awards:- Albert Einstein World Science Award in 1986. He won the first World Food Prize in 1987. Tyler Prize for Environmental Achievement in 1991. Planet and Humanity Medal of the International Geographical Union in 2000. He was conferred with Padma Shri (1967), Padma Bhushan(1972), and Padma Vibhushan(1989). MUST READ: Mahatma Gandhi SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji, and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was (2018) Aurobindo Ghosh Bipin Chandra Pal Lala Lajpat Rai Motilal Nehru Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The Chairman of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), Sanjay Kumar Agarwal recently said that the body plays a crucial role in the fight against illicit trade. About  Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC):- Establishment: 1964. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. HQ: New Delhi. The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs is a part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance. It is a statutory body established under the Central Boards of Revenue Act, of 1963. Historical Background:- It was formed in 1964 when the Central Board of Revenue was split into the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) and the Central Board of Excise and Customs. The Central Board of Excise and Customs was renamed the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs in 2018. Salient Features:- Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs is the nodal national agency responsible for administering:- Customs GST (GST- Five years on ) Central Excise Service Tax Narcotics in India. The Board is the administrative authority for its subordinate organizations, including Custom Houses, Central Excise and Central GST Commissionerate, and the Central Revenues Control Laboratory. (Tax administration in India) Functions:- Formulation of policy concerning levy and collection of Customs, Central Excise duties, Central Goods and Services Tax, and IGST. Prevention of smuggling. Administration of matters relating to Customs, Central Excise, Central Goods & Services Tax, IGST, and Narcotics to the extent under CBIC’s purview. MUST READ:  (Tax-GDP ratio ) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (2017) It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2017) Tax revenue as a percent of the GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Fiscal deficit as a percent of the GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Global Innovation Index 2023 Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The Global Innovation Index 2023 was released recently. Background:- India has retained 40th rank in the Global Innovation Index 2023. About Global Innovation Index 2023 rankings:- Publication: annual. Published by: World Intellectual Property Organization. WIPO is a self-funding agency of the United Nations, with 193 member states. Edition: 16th edition. The Global Innovation Index is a leading reference for measuring an economy’s innovation ecosystem performance. It is also a valuable benchmarking tool used by policymakers, business leaders, and other stakeholders to assess progress in innovation over time. The 2023 edition of the Global Innovation Index (GII) takes the pulse of global innovation trends against the background of an economic environment fraught with uncertainty. Global Innovation Tracker 2023 captures key trends in innovation investments and measures the pace of technological progress and adoption, as well as the resulting socioeconomic impact. The index reveals the ranking of this year’s most innovative economies in the world amongst 132 economies. Key highlights:- Most innovative economies in 2023:- For the 13th year in a row, Switzerland is the most innovative economy in 2023 followed by Sweden, the United States, the United Kingdom, and Singapore. The top Science and Technology innovation clusters in the world in 2023 are: – Tokyo–Yokohama, followed by Shenzhen–Hong Kong–Guangzhou, Seoul, Beijing and Shanghai-Suzhou. China now has the largest number of clusters in the world, overtaking the United States. India’s performance:- India retained the 40th rank out of 132 economies. Over the past few years, India has consistently climbed the ranks in the GII, rising from 81st place in 2015 to its current position. MUST READ: Boosting patent ecosystem SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Tackling Malnutrition in India Syllabus Mains – Governance Context: India, a nation with a rich cultural heritage and diverse population, faces a significant challenge in the form of malnutrition, particularly among its children and women. Under Rashtriya Poshan Maah 2023 diverse activities like Swasth Balak Spardha, Anaemia camps, and Poshan Bhi Padhai Bhi registered a record number of activities just in a day on the Jan Andolan dashboard. About Malnutrition: WHO has defined malnutrition as deficiencies, excesses or imbalances in a person’s intake of energy and/or nutrients. The term malnutrition addresses 3 broad groups of conditions: Undernutrition: which includes wasting (low weight-for-height), stunting (low height-for-age) and underweight (low weight-for-age); Micronutrient-related malnutrition: which includes micronutrient deficiencies (a lack of important vitamins and minerals) or micronutrient excess; and Overweight: It includes obesity and diet-related noncommunicable diseases (such as heart disease, stroke, diabetes and some cancers). Status of malnutrition in India: Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2022: India ranked 107 out of 121 countries in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2022. The GHI is an important indicator of nutrition, particularly among children, as it looks at stunting, wasting and mortality among children, and at calorific deficiency across the population. National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5): India’s National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) from 2019-21 reported that in children below the age of five years, 35.5% were stunted, 19.3% showed wasting, and 32.1% were underweight. The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World 2020 report: According to report nearly 51.4 percent of women of reproductive age in India were suffering from anaemia. Almost 50 percent of women are facing severe undernutrition and Anaemia. Reasons for malnutrition in India: Poverty: It is the main reason behind the lack of adequate nutritional food which results in malnutrition. Sanitation and cleanliness: Most children in rural areas and urban slums still lack sanitation. This makes them vulnerable to the kinds of chronic intestinal diseases that prevent bodies from making good use of nutrients in food, and they become malnourished. Lack of diversified food: With the increase in diversity in food intake malnutrition (stunted/underweight) status declines. Only 12% of children are likely to be stunted and underweight in areas where diversity in food intake is high, while around 50% children are stunted if they consume less than three food items. Lack of food security: The dismal health of Indian women and children is primarily due to lack of food security. Nearly one-third of adults in the country have a Body Mass Index (BMI) below normal just because they do not have enough food to eat. Failure of government approaches: Although India already has following two robust national programmes addressing malnutrition but these are yet to reach enough people: Poor food grains through public distribution system Integrated Child Development Service (ICDS) and The National Health Mission. Government schemes to tackle Malnutrition: Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme: Aims at providing food, preschool education, primary healthcare, immunization, health check-up and referral services to children under 6 years of age and their mothers. Mid-day Meal (MDM) scheme: Aims to improve nutritional levels among school children which also has a direct and positive impact on enrolment, retention and attendance in schools. The National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013: It aims to ensure food and nutrition security for the most vulnerable through its associated schemes and programmes, making access to food a legal right. POSHAN Abhiyaan Anaemia Mukt Bharat Abhiyan: Aims at accelerating the annual rate of decline of anaemia from one to three percentage points. Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY):6,000 is transferred directly to the bank accounts of pregnant women for availing better facilities for their delivery. Way Forward: Although the government has initiated various programs to combat malnutrition the issue is still prevalent in India, especially among vulnerable populations like women and children. A data-driven, context-specific, and integrated approach is essential to address acute and chronic malnutrition effectively. Source: Financial Express Empowering India's Elderly Population Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: UNFPA (United Nations Population Fund) India, in collaboration with the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS), unveiled the highly anticipated “India Ageing Report 2023”. Key highlights of the report: Population growth of elderly: The study anticipates a remarkable 279% increase in the population of individuals aged 80 and above between 2022 and 2050. By 2046, it is projected that the elderly population will likely surpass the population of children aged 0 to 15 years in India. Population share of elderly: By the year 2050, the elderly population in India is set to constitute more than 20% of the total population, marking a significant shift from the present share of approximately 10% in 2021. Poverty among the elderly: Disturbingly, the report reveals that over 40% of elderly individuals in India belong to the poorest wealth quintile, with more than 18% having no source of income. This high level of poverty among the elderly raises concerns about their quality of life and access to essential services. Gender differences in life expectancy: The report highlights gender disparities in life expectancy among the elderly. On average, women tend to have a longer life expectancy than men, although these differences vary across different states within India. Sex ratio among the elderly: The sex ratio among the elderly is on the rise, indicating a trend of longer survival for women compared to men in this demographic group. Gendered poverty in old age: The report underscores that poverty among the elderly is gendered, with older women being more likely to be widowed, living alone, and heavily dependent on family support for their well-being. Challenges in demographic transition: There are significant disparities in the elderly population across states, reflecting variations in the stages and pace of demographic transition within India. Status of Elderly Population in India: According to the Population Census 2011, there are nearly 104 million elderly persons in India. The sex ratio: among elderly people was as high as 1028 in 1951, subsequently dropped and again reached up to 1033 in 2011. The old-age dependency ratio climbed from 10.9% in 1961 to 14.2% in 2011 for India as a whole. In rural areas, 66% of elderly men and 28% of elderly women were working, while in urban areas only 46% of elderly men and about 11% of elderly women were working. The per cent of literates among elderly persons increased from 27% in 1991 to 44% in 2011. Challenges faced by the elderly population in India: Social challenges: Senior citizens are increasingly being neglected by the younger generation due to various reasons like western education, globalisation, nuclear family structure, etc Low funding: India spends only 1% of its gross domestic product on pensions. India’s income support systems in their current form are not even capable of catering to the elderly when their proportion of the population is only 8.6%. Mitigating the fiscal costs: The Indian economy still needs to mitigate the fiscal costs that arise from a rising old-age dependency ratio. Rural Situation: Older women residing in rural areas face unique challenges such as limited access to healthcare facilities, inadequate infrastructure, and the burden of caregiving responsibilities or agricultural work. These challenges are exacerbated by the lack of support and resources in rural communities. Intersectionality: Women from marginalized communities, including those with lower socio-economic backgrounds or belonging to tribal or minority groups, may face compounded challenges in old age. Their intersectional identities can result in increased vulnerabilities and limited access to essential services and support. Ageism and Misogyny: Older women often encounter ageism and misogyny in various aspects of society. Stereotypes, discrimination, and limited opportunities for engagement in social, economic, and political activities can result from these biases. Ageism and misogyny further contribute to the marginalization of older women. Health-related challenges: Increased health-related expenses and the high prevalence of Non-Communicable diseases also create a financial problem for the elderly population. Further, other health-related issues like blindness, deafness, mental illness, etc. are highly prevalent among the elderly population. Government Schemes for Old Age: National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP): Offers non-contributory pensions to support elderly individuals, widowed women, and disabled individuals who need financial assistance. Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY): An exclusive pension scheme designed for senior citizens aged 60 and above, providing financial security for elderly individuals. Integrated Program for Older Persons (IPOP): Focuses on enhancing the quality of life for senior citizens by providing essential amenities such as food, shelter, medical care, and opportunities for entertainment and social engagement. Rashtriya Vayoshree Yojana: This central sector scheme, funded by the Senior Citizens’ Welfare Fund, offers aids and assistive living devices to elderly individuals below the poverty line (BPL) who have age-related disabilities. SAMPANN Project: online pension processing system for pensioners under the Department of Telecommunications. It ensures the direct credit of pensions into the bank accounts of pensioners, streamlining the pension disbursement process. SACRED Portal for Elderly: The Portal provides a platform for citizens aged 60 and above to register for job opportunities, access information and guidance on various issues, and find work opportunities. SAGE (Senior care Ageing Growth Engine) Initiative: SAGE is a platform that facilitates access to elderly care products and services offered by credible start-ups. Way Forward: Policy Recommendations from the ‘2023 India Ageing Report’: Promote In-Situ aging: Encourage and facilitate aging at home (in-situ aging) whenever possible, allowing elderly individuals to remain within their communities and receive care and support from their families. Increase awareness of schemes: Launch awareness campaigns to inform elderly individuals about government schemes and programs designed to meet their needs, thus ensuring they have access to the necessary support. Address gender-specific challenges: Develop policies tailored to address the unique challenges faced by older women, particularly those who are widowed and dependent, to ensure their well-being and support. Focus on multigenerational households: Promote and encourage elderly individuals to live in multigenerational households, fostering better care and support within families and strengthening intergenerational bonds. Regulate old age homes: Implement regulatory measures to oversee Old Age Homes, ensuring that residents’ rights are protected, and their well-being is safeguarded. Inclusion in data collection exercises: Include relevant questions related to older persons in national data collection exercises, such as the National Sample Survey, the National Family Health Survey, and the Census of India, to gather credible data on issues affecting the elderly. Source:  PIB Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Commissions Ministry 1.     Central Board of Direct Taxes Ministry of Finance 2.     National Human Rights Commission India Ministry of Defense 3.     National Commission for Protection of Child Rights Ministry of Education How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) chairperson will hold the post for four years or until s/he attains the age of 65 years. Statement-II : CAQM has penal powers. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award, consider the following statements: It was established in 1969. It is presented by the President of India. It was first awarded to Devika Rani. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What are the various reasons for malnutrition in India? What innovative step do you suggest to reduce malnutrition in India? (250 words) Q.2) Analyse the demographic transition in India with a specific focus on the challenges and opportunities posed by the rising elderly population. How can tailored policies and support systems enhance the quality of life and well-being of the elderly? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  29th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 28th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – c

Sep 29, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 29th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here