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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –24th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Cannabis Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, Union Minister Jitendra Singh expressed satisfaction with the research work conducted on Cannabis Project by CSIR-IIIM. Background:- Union Minister of State for Science and Technology, Dr Jitendra Singh, recently visited the cannabis cultivation field of CSIR-Indian Institute of Integrative Medicine, Jammu at its Chatha Farm. About Cannabis Project:- IMAGE SOURCE: vecteezy.com It is the first-ever cannabis medicine project in India. Location: Jammu. Implementing Agencies: CSIR-Indian Institute of Integrative Medicine. CSIR-Indian Institute of Integrative Medicine International Collaborations: It will be established in collaboration with Canada. This project will be the first major foreign investment in Jammu and Kashmir after it became a Union Territory (UT). Significance: The medicine prepared from Cannabis is used to produce pain-relief medicine. About CSIR-Indian Institute of Integrative Medicine:- Established: 1941 Historical Background:- It was established as a research and production center, known as the Drug Research Laboratory of J&K State. It was later taken over by the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) of Govt. of India in 1957 as Regional Research Laboratory, Jammu. The Mandate of Institute was redefined in 2007 and its name changed to the Indian Institute of Integrative Medicine (IIIM). Mandate: to discover new drugs and therapeutic approaches from Natural Products, both of plant and microbial origin, enabled by biotechnology, to develop technologies, drugs and products of high value for the national and international markets. Function and duties: Discovery of novel pharmacologically active natural products from plants and microbial species and translating them into drug leads and candidates by medicinal chemistry, preclinical pharmacology and clinical development. About Cannabis:- According to the WHO, cannabis is a generic term used to denote the several psychoactive preparations of the plant Cannabis sativa. ( UN Decides Cannabis Not A Dangerous Narcotic) Cannabis, weed, pot, and marijuana all refer to the same group of plants known for their relaxing and calming effects. Cannabis is made up of more than 120 components, which are known as cannabinoids. Medical uses:- The most common uses for medical cannabis are in severe or long-term pain, due to:- Chemotherapy (cancer treatments) Painful muscle spasms. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) Cancer-related pain Glaucoma HIV/AIDS-related weight loss or nausea/vomiting Huntington’s disease Inflammatory bowel disease Multiple sclerosis Muscle spasms Neuropathy Parkinson’s disease Short-term effects of cannabis:- relaxation giddiness experiencing things around you, such as sights and sounds, more intensely increased appetite altered perception of time and events focus and creativity Side effects:- coordination issues delayed reaction time nausea lethargy anxiety increased heart rate decreased blood pressure paranoia Long-term effects of cannabis:- Brain development: According to some research, people who start using cannabis in their teens may have more memory and learning problems than those who don’t use cannabis in their teens. Dependence: Some people can also become dependent on cannabis or even experience withdrawal symptoms when not using cannabis, such as irritability, low appetite, and mood swings. Respiratory problems: Smoking cannabis carries similar risks to smoking tobacco. Legal Regulations in India:- Under India’s Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act 1985, the production, manufacture, possession, sale, purchase, transport, and use of cannabis is a punishable offence. (Status of Cannabis) The Act was enacted in 1985 which succeeded the Dangerous Drugs Act 1930. The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) is vested with the power to charge individuals in cases related to the illegal use and supply of narcotics. The NDPS Act defines:- Ganja: flowering or fruiting tops of the cannabis plant but it clearly excludes the seeds and leaves. Charas: the separated resin extracted from the cannabis plant. The Act illegalizes any mixture with or without any neutral material, of any of the two forms of cannabis, charas and ganja, or any drink prepared from it. The legislature left seeds and leaves of the cannabis plant out of the ambit of the Act because the serrated leaves of the plant have negligible tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) content. ‘Bhang’, which is a paste made out of the leaves of the cannabis plant is hence not outlawed. Similarly, CBD oil, an acronym for cannabidiol derived from the leaves of the cannabis plant, would not come under the NDPS Act. The NDPS Act does not permit the recreational use of cannabis in India. MUST READ: Drug Addiction SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following trees: (2023) Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus.) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) Syllabus Prelims – Defense Context: Recently, Union Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurated the Aviation Security Control Centre (ASCC) of the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) in New Delhi. About ASCC:- It will monitor all threats and social media chatter for the 66 civil airports currently under the CISF’s security cover. It will access 24×7 real-time data monitoring and trend analysis of passengers and air traffic. It is equipped with cutting-edge technologies such as a data center, research and development lab and a war room to deal with emergencies. The center will get real-time feed from each of the security operations control centers (SOCCs) operational at these 66 airports. These include the “extremely busy and hyper-sensitive” civil aviation facilities in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru, Jammu, Srinagar and Amritsar among others. The facility will provide “realistic” inputs about passenger traffic at a given point in time. It will help in mobilizing the resources for “optimum utilization. It will also monitor bomb threat calls, VVIP movements, other major incidents, passenger clearance time, and utilization of security gadgets and queue management systems among others at the 66 airports. About Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) Establishment: 1969. (Ayushmaan CAPF) Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs. CISF is an armed force of the Union established under the “Central Industrial Security Force Act, of 1968 (50 of 1968)”. It is one of the forces under the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF). CAPF: the collective name of central police organizations in India under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). It includes 7 forces: Assam Rifles (AR), Border Security Force (BSF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) and National Security Guard (NSG). Mandate: CISF provides security to the premises staff along with the security of property and establishments. CISF has 74 other formations including 12 reserve battalions and 08 training institutes. CISF is a compensatory cost force. (Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act) Functions of CISF:- Infrastructure protection CISF is providing security to the strategic establishment, including the Department of Space, the Department of Atomic Energy, the Airports, the Delhi Metro, the ports, the historical monuments and the basic areas of the Indian economy such as petroleum and natural gas, electricity, coal, steel and mining. Security to Private establishments The CISF was primarily established to provide security cover to various public sector organizations such as Infosys, Tata, Reliance Industries, Patanjali Food and Herbal Park Private Limited. VIP security Presently, CISF is also providing security to the protected persons classified as Z Plus, Z, X, Y. Disaster management CISF performs a major role in Disaster Management, and its battalions are a part of the National Disaster Response Force. It is the only force with a customized and dedicated fire wing. MUST READ: Balakot Airstrike SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Hydrogen Fuel Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology/Economy Context: G20 energy ministers call for cooperation on low-emission hydrogen fuel in the recently concluded Group of 20 energy ministers’ meeting held in Goa. Key Highlights of the meeting:- The G20 energy ministers met under India’s presidency. Theme: One Earth, One Family, One Future. The meeting endorsed zero- and low-emission hydrogen. It also pledged support to the acceleration of production, and utilization, as well as the development of transparent and resilient global markets for hydrogen produced from zero and low-emission technologies and its derivatives such as ammonia. This is to be done by developing voluntary and mutually agreed harmonizing standards as well as mutually recognized and interoperable certification schemes. Cooperation among G20 members was said to be crucial to accelerate technology development and large-scale deployment of hydrogen and its derivatives such as ammonia while reducing costs. G20 committed to working towards facilitating access to low-cost finance for existing as well as new and emerging clean and sustainable energy technologies for supporting the energy transitions. About Hydrogen Fuel:- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideShare Hydrogen is considered an alternative to fossil and other types of fuels. Hydrogen fuel is a zero-emission fuel burned with oxygen. Generation:- It can be created by splitting water into hydrogen and oxygen. Fuel cells are required to transform Hydrogen into electricity and use it. Fuel Cells: use oxidizing agents through an oxidation-reduction reaction, to convert chemical energy into electrical energy. In the case of Hydrogen, fuel cells combine Hydrogen and Oxygen to generate electricity. A catalyst, usually made from platinum is generally used for this. Uses of Hydrogen Fuel:- It can be used in fuel cells or internal combustion engines. (Hydrogen Fuel Cell for Vehicles) It is also used as a fuel for spacecraft propulsion. Benefits of hydrogen as a fuel:- It is readily available. It is environmentally friendly and non-toxic. It doesn’t produce emissions as other fossil fuels. It is three times as powerful as gasoline and other fossil fuels. It is more efficient than diesel or gas. It is renewable and can be produced again and again. Limitations to Hydrogen production:- It does not occur in deposits or reserves like fossil fuel. It needs to be actually produced using chemical reactions. It is far more expensive to produce. Hydrogen-fueled vehicles are also more expensive than even battery-electric ones. It is highly flammable. It is difficult to store. About Hydrogen:- Hydrogen is the chemical element with the symbol H and atomic number 1. It is the lightest element in the periodic table. It is a non-toxic, nonmetallic, odourless, tasteless, colourless, and highly combustible diatomic gas at standard temperature and pressure. It is the most abundant chemical substance in the universe. Its nature is not available freely. It exists only in combination with other elements. Thus, it has to be extracted from natural compounds, like water. Hydrogen is categorized into:- Grey hydrogen: produced from fossil fuels. Blue hydrogen: produced from fossil fuels with carbon capture and storage. Green Hydrogen: produced entirely from renewable power sources. ( Green Hydrogen) MUST READ: National Green Hydrogen Mission SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter. Statement-II: The specific heat of water is more than that of the land surface. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements: (2023) None of them uses seawater. None of them is set up in a water-stressed district. None of them is privately owned. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, an audit by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) found that there was a delay of 17-50 months in identifying areas and people affected by mining in Chhattisgarh. About Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG):- Incumbent CAG of India: Shri Girish Chandra Murmu. CAG is an independent authority under the Constitution of India. (UPSC CSE: CAG) The Constitution of India provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) in Chapter V under Part V. He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. He is the guardian of the public purse. (UPSC MAINS: Accountability of CAG) Appointment: CAG is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. Tenure: 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier. Removal: CAG can be removed by the President only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution which is the manner same as the removal of a Supreme Court Judge. He is ineligible to hold any office, either under the Government of India or of any state, once he retires/resigns as a CAG. Salary: His salary and other service conditions cannot be varied to his disadvantage after the appointment. Conditions of service: His administrative powers and the conditions of service of persons serving in the Indian Audit and Accounts Department are prescribed by the President only after consulting him. The administrative expenses of the office of CAG, including all salaries, allowances and pensions are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India that is not subject to vote. Functions of CAG:- CAG audits the accounts related to all expenditures from the Consolidated Fund of India, the Consolidated Fund of each state and UT’s having a legislative assembly. He audits all expenditures from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India as well as the Contingency Fund and Public Account of each state. He audits all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts, balance sheets and other subsidiary accounts kept by any department of the Central Government and the state governments. He audits the receipts and expenditures of all bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Central or State revenues; government companies; other corporations and bodies, when so required by related laws. He audits the accounts of any other authority when requested by the President or Governorg. Local bodies. He advises the President with regard to the prescription of the form in which the accounts of the Centre and States shall be kept. He submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Centre to the President, who shall, in turn, place them before both houses of Parliament. He submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of a State to the Governor, who shall, in turn, place them before the state legislature. CAG also acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament. Constitutional Provisions regarding the CAG:- Article 148–151: the appointment, oath and conditions of service, Duties and Powers of CAG. Article 279: The calculation of “net proceeds” is ascertained and certified by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, whose certificate is final. Third Schedule: Section IV of the Third Schedule of the Constitution of India prescribes the form of oath or affirmation to be made by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India at the time of assumption of office. Sixth Schedule: According to this schedule, the District Council or Regional Council should be kept in such form as the CAG prescribes with the approval of the President. In addition, these bodies’ accounts are audited in such manner as CAG may think fit, and the reports relating to such accounts shall be submitted to the Governor who shall cause them to be laid before the Council. MUST READ: UIDAI audit by CAG SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the election to the President of India (2023) The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, the higher the value of the vote of each MLA of that State. The value of the vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. The value of the vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Copper Age Syllabus Prelims –Ancient History Context: Recent genomic data has shed light on the reasons for demise of the Copper Age. Key highlights of the data:- Previous analyses of ancient genomic data have suggested that two major genetic turnover events occurred in Western Eurasia. First event: associated with the spread of farming around 7,000-6,000 BC and Second event: resulting from the expansion of pastoralist groups from the Eurasian steppe starting around 3,300 BC. The period between these two events, the Copper Age, was characterized by a new economy based on metallurgy, wheel and wagon transportation, and horse domestication. What happened between the demise of Copper Age settlements (around 4,250 BC) and the expansion of pastoralists is not well understood. According to the recent data, it is found that while there was genetic continuity between the Neolithic and Copper Age groups, from around 4500 BC groups from the northwestern Black Sea region carried varying amounts of ancestry from Copper Age and steppe-zone populations. This finding shows that the groups had cultural contact and mixed nearly 1,000 years earlier than previously thought. The transfer of technology between farmers and transitional hunters from different geographical zones was integral to the rise, formation and expansion of pastoralist groups around 3300 BC. According to the authors, the early admixture during the neolithic appears to be local to the North West Black Sea region of the fourth millennium BC and did not affect the hinterland in southeastern Europe. About Copper Age:- It is also called the Chalcolithic period. It describes a transitional period in human prehistory between the Neolithic period (New Stone Age) and the Bronze Age. (Bhimbetka cave) The Chalcolithic cultures followed the Bronze Age Harappa culture. Time Period in India: It spanned around 2500 BC to 700 BC. Location: This culture was mainly seen in the Pre-Harappan phase, but in many places, it extended to the Post-Harappan phase too It is characterized by the use of both stone tools and the beginning of metalworking, specifically the utilization of copper. Defining characteristics of this period: the simultaneous use of stone tools and early metal objects, primarily copper. (UPSC CSE: Ratnagiri’s pre-historic rock art) The Chalcolithic culture corresponds to the farming communities, namely Ahar or Banas, Malwa, and Jorwe. Domestication and Agriculture: The people of this age started doing animal husbandry and agriculture. Crops: wheat, rice, millet, lentil, urad and moong etc. Salient Features: The Chalcolithic culture of a region was defined by its ceramics and other cultural equipment like copper artefacts, beads of semi-precious stones, stone tools and terracotta figurines. MUST READ: Stone Age Paintings in Gurugram SOURCE: THE HINDU Mains: Quantum technology & National Security Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: India must develop its quantum technologies soon, not just to solve the domestic issues but also to guard the nation from foreign security threats. About Quantum Technology: It is based on the principles of Quantum mechanics developed in the early 20th century to describe nature at the scale of atoms and elementary particles. Scientists have expanded quantum theory to understand biological phenomena such as smell, consciousness, enzyme catalysis, photosynthesis, avian navigation like that of the Robin, origin of life and effects on coronavirus. The Nobel Prize in Physics 2022 was awarded jointly to Alain Aspect, John F. Clauser and Anton Zeilinger for experiments with entangled photons, establishing the violation of Bell inequalities and pioneering quantum information science. It recognizes the groundbreaking work of these three physicists, who have demonstrated the power of entanglement to revolutionize our understanding of the universe. Significance of Quantum Technologies: Electronics: Many modern electronic devices are designed using quantum mechanics. Examples include the laser, the transistor (and thus the microchip), the electron microscope, and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Cryptography: Researchers are currently seeking robust methods of directly manipulating quantum states. Efforts are being made to develop quantum cryptography, which will theoretically allow guaranteed secure transmission of information. Quantum computing: Another goal is the development of quantum computers, which are expected to perform certain computational tasks exponentially faster than classical computers. Instead of using classical bits, quantum computers use qubits, which can be in superpositions of states. Quantum programmers can manipulate the superposition of qubits in order to solve problems that classical computing cannot do effectively, such as searching unsorted databases or integer factorization. Quantum technology is opening up new frontiers in computing, communications, cyber security with widespread applications. It is expected that many commercial applications would emerge from theoretical constructs, which are developing in this area. Disaster Management: Tsunamis, drought, earthquakes and floods may become more predictable with quantum applications. Research: It can help in solving some of the fundamental questions in physics related to gravity, black hole etc. Similarly, the quantum initiative could give a big boost to the Genome India project, a collaborative effort of 20 institutions to enable new efficiencies in life sciences, agriculture and medicine. National Mission on Quantum Technologies and Applications (NMQTA): The Department of Science and Technology (DST) under the Ministry of Science and Technology will implement it. The mission planned for 2023-2031 aims to seed, nurture, and scale up scientific and industrial R and D and create a vibrant and innovative ecosystem in Quantum Technology (QT). With the launch of this mission, India will be the seventh country to have a dedicated quantum mission after the US, Austria, Finland, France, Canada and China. Four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) will be set up in top academic and National R&D institutes on the domains – Quantum Computing, Quantum Communication, Quantum Sensing and Metrology, and Quantum Materials and Devices. The hubs will focus on the generation of new knowledge through basic and applied research as well as promote R&D in areas that are mandated to them. Salient features of NQM: It will target developing intermediate scale quantum computers with 50-100 physical qubits in 5 years and 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years. Just like bits (1 and 0) are the basic units by which computers process information, ‘qubits’ or ‘quantum bits’ are the units of process by quantum computers. The mission will help develop magnetometers with high sensitivity for precision timing (atomic clocks), communications, and navigation. It will also support design and synthesis of quantum materials such as superconductors, novel semiconductor structures and topological materials for fabrication of quantum devices. Challenges Slow Progress in Legislative Procedures: Although the NM-QTA was announced in the 2020 Budget speech, the mission has still not received any approval and no funds were allocated, disbursed or utilized under NM-QTA during the FY 2020-21. Limited Private Sector Involvement in NM-QTA: The Union Minister of Science & Technology has also claimed that for the NM-QTA, no private sector partners had been identified yet and no one from outside the government had been tapped for consultations for the national mission. The government must recognize the leaps made by these companies. Security related issues: Quantum computing can have a disruptive effect on cryptographic encryption, which secures communications and computers. It might pose a challenge for the government also because if this technology goes into the wrong hands, all the government’s official and confidential data will be at risk of being hacked and misused. Technological Issues: The challenge lies in harnessing the properties of quantum superposition in a highly controlled manner. The qubits tend to be very fragile and lose their “quantumness” if not controlled properly. Way Forward: The National Quantum Mission’s focus on quantum materials and devices marks a significant step towards India’s technological advancements. Through strategic investments, collaborative research, and an efficient R and D ecosystem, India can harness the power of quantum technology, propel innovation, and achieve self-reliance across multiple sectors. Source:  The Hindu Biofortified foods Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: The Global Market wants biofortified foods to be branded separately, just like “organic” products. About Biofortified foods: Biofortification is an agricultural nutrition intervention that boosts the concentration of vitamins and minerals in food crops using conventional breeding, agronomic, and transgenic methods. Biofortification is different from fortification as it involves the selection of crops that have high nutrient content. Fortification normally involves the addition of nutrients during processing. Biofortified foods in India: Scientists at the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) have been developing biofortified crops in India with a view to eradicating malnutrition amongst the poor sections of the society. As per the ICAR website, they had developed 21 varieties of biofortified staples including wheat, rice, maize, millets, mustard, and groundnut by 2019-20. These biofortified crops have 5 to 3 times higher levels of protein, vitamins, minerals and amino acids compared to the traditional varieties. Techniques of Biofortification: Conventional Breeding: The aim is to transfer the desired traits, such as increased vitamin or mineral content, to the new crop varieties. Selective Breeding: Researchers identify and select crop varieties with naturally higher nutrient content, known as donor or parent lines. These lines are then crossbred with local varieties to create new hybrids with improved nutritional profiles. Backcrossing: This technique involves crossing a biofortified crop with a locally adapted variety for several generations while selecting for the desired nutrient content. Marker-Assisted Selection (MAS): To speed up the breeding process, genetic markers associated with the desired nutrient traits are identified and used to select and track the presence of these traits in the offspring. Biotechnology: This approach allows for more precise control over the nutrient content, but it is subject to rigorous regulatory scrutiny. Transgenic Approach: Scientists introduce genes from other organisms into the plant’s genome, which encode enzymes or proteins involved in the synthesis of specific nutrients. This leads to the production of the desired nutrient in the crop itself. Gene Editing (CRISPR-Cas9): This advanced biotechnological tool allows for targeted modifications of specific genes in the crop’s genome to enhance nutrient content. Hybridization: This technique involves crossing two genetically distinct parent lines to produce hybrid seeds with improved nutritional characteristics compared to the original varieties. Mutagenesis: In this approach, plants are exposed to mutagenic agents (e.g., radiation or chemicals) to induce random genetic mutations. These mutations can sometimes lead to beneficial traits, such as increased nutrient content, which are then selected and propagated. Benefits of Biofortification: Reaching the undernourished in rural regions effectively: The biofortification plan aims to incorporate the micronutrient-dense feature in the highest-yielding and most lucrative varieties to benefit farmers and poor people. For Welfare Motto: Under the Mid-Day Meal Scheme, the micronutrient value of the meals can be greatly increased by incorporating biofortified crops. The nutritional status of those living below the poverty line could be impacted by the inclusion of biofortified crops in the PDS. Sustainability of biofortification: Unlike other techniques of supplementation, once the crop is introduced with a nutritionally better trait, its seeds and products will contain the same genotype and the cycle will continue without much more expenditure Cost-effective: By incorporating some nutritionally better features into their seed variety, biofortified seeds improve the variety of crop. Therefore, for the same cost of seed, farmers can obtain nutritionally better seed for the production. Challenges for Biofortified foods in India: Consumer Acceptance: One of the significant challenges is the lack of consumer acceptance, particularly when it comes to changes in the appearance, taste, or texture of biofortified foods. For example, the “golden rice,” which is genetically modified to produce beta-carotene (provitamin A), faced resistance due to its yellowish colour, even though it addresses vitamin A deficiency. Last mile reach and accessibility: Ensuring that biofortified foods reach the most vulnerable and nutritionally deficient populations in remote and rural areas can be a logistical challenge. Farmer adoption and cost: Farmers may be hesitant to switch from their traditional crops to new biofortified varieties due to uncertainties about crop performance, market demand, and potential changes in farming practices. Additionally, the initial costs of acquiring biofortified seeds or materials might be a concern for resource-limited farmers. Time and resources for non-GMO methods: While biofortification using non-genetically-modified methods is generally considered safe and more widely accepted by some consumers, it can be a slower and resource-intensive process compared to genetic modification. Risk of excess iron: The segments of the population, such as men and individuals with certain medical conditions like thalassemia and sickle cell anaemia, excessive iron intake through fortified foods may pose health risks. High iron levels have been associated with an increased risk of chronic diseases like diabetes and hypertension. Initiatives of the Government to promote Biofortified food: ICAR has published several biofortified crop types that are high in micronutrients including iron, zinc, and beta-carotene through its various research. Examples include sweet potatoes strong in vitamin A (Bhu Sona), high-zinc wheat (WB 02), and zinc and iron-rich rice cultivars (DRR Dhan 45, CR Dhan 310). Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs): These KVKs, developed by ICAR, act as information and resource hubs for agricultural innovations in biofortification. Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) program has been crucial in promoting biofortified crops by providing finance for development, research, and marketing initiatives. Source:  The Hindu PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with (2023) archaeological excavations establishment of the English Press in Colonial India establishment of Churches in Princely States construction of railways in Colonial India Q.2) Which one of the following ancient towns is well known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channelizing water into connected reservoirs? (2021). Dholavira Kalibangan Rakhigarhi Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Grey hydrogen :      produced from fossil fuels. Blue hydrogen :      produced entirely from renewable power sources. Green Hydrogen :      produced from fossil fuels with carbon capture and storage. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Chalcolithic culture was only seen in the Pre-Harappan phase. Statement-II: The people of this age started doing animal husbandry and agriculture. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: CISF is under the Ministry of Home Affairs. Statement-II: It provides security to Private establishments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What is the significance of Quantum Technology for India’s defence and security sector? What are the challenges for India’s National Quantum Mission (NQM)? Discuss (250 words) Q.2) Food fortification is the new panacea for nutritional deficiency in the Indian population. Critically analyze (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 24th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 24th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS2 Questions [24th July, 2023] – Day 43

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 43 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –22nd July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Government has set a target to open ten thousand Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Kendras (PMBJKs) under Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP) by March 2024. About Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana(PMBJP):- Launched:2008. (PMBJP) Historical Background:- It was launched by the Department of Pharmaceuticals under the name Jan Aushadhi Campaign in 2008. 2015: It was re-launched as ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Yojana’ (PMJAY). 2016: it was again renamed “Pradhan Mantri Bharatiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana” (PMBJP). Ministry: Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. Implementing Agency: the Pharmaceuticals & Medical Devices Bureau of India (PMBI). Objectives of PMBJP: to provide quality medicines at affordable prices to people through special Kendras known as Pradhan Mantri Bharatiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana Kendra. Funding: Financial Support is provided by the government to eligible NGOs/Trusts/agencies/individuals to establish Jan Aushadhi stores. Benefit of PMBJP: The scheme ensures easy reach to affordable medicine to the people in every nook and corner of the country. Salient Features of PMBJP:- Ensure access to quality medicines. Create awareness about generic medicines through education and publicity so that quality is not synonymous with only high prices. The scheme ensures easy reach to affordable medicine to the people in every nook and corner of the country. Create demand for generic medicines by improving access to better healthcare through low treatment cost and easy availability wherever needed in all therapeutic categories. Janaushadhi Sugam facilitates the public by providing a digital platform at the tip of their fingers. Jan Aushadhi Sugam: a mobile app that helps in locating the nearest Janaushadhi Kendra and the availability of medicines with its price. Pharmaceutical & Medical Devices Bureau of India (PMBI) has been established for co-coordinating procurement, supply and marketing of generic drugs through the Jan Aushadhi Stores. (Pradhan Mantri Janaushadhi Kendra (PMJK)) The quality, safety and efficacy of medicines are ensured to the required standards before the same are supplied to Supers stockists /Jan Aushadhi Stores from the Warehouse. MUST READ: Ayushman Bharat PMJAY SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Advance Authorisation Scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) implemented the Advance Authorisation Scheme. Background:- The Scheme was implemented under the Foreign Trade Policy. It allows duty-free import of inputs for export purposes. About Advance Authorisation Scheme:- Launched: 2015. (Advance Authorization Scheme (AAS)) Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Objective: to make India’s products competitive in the global market. It is a type of duty exemption scheme introduced by the Government of India under the Foreign Trade Policy 2015-2020. (New Foreign Trade Policy) Salient Features of AAS:- Under this scheme, exemption from the payment of import duties is given to raw materials/inputs required for the manufacture of export products. They are not allowed to sell the products in the domestic market. Validity: Advance Authorization is valid for 12 months from the date of issue of such Authorization. Composition fee formula: The revised composition fee formula is based on a specific rate for different levels of the ‘CIF (cost, insurance, freight) value of authorization. The fees levied under these 3 slabs:- ₹5,000 for a cost, insurance, freight (CIF) value of advance authorization license valued at up to ₹2 crores. ₹10,000 for a value between ₹2 crore and 10 crores ₹15,000 for value over ₹10 crores. The simplification of calculations for composition fees helps in automation and faster service delivery by making the process more efficient and easier to understand. The eligibility of inputs is determined by Sector-specific Norms Committees based on input-output norms. The quantity of inputs allowed for a given product is based on specific norms defined for that export product, which considers the waste generated in the manufacturing process. DGFT provides a sector-wise list of Standard Input-Output Norms (SION) under which the exporters may choose to apply. Benefits of Advance Authorization Scheme:- When duties paid on raw materials are saved, it automatically brings down the cost of the final export product. About Directorate General of Foreign Trade:- It is an attached office of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Headed by: Director General of Foreign Trade. HQ: New Delhi. Inception: Keeping in line with liberalization and globalization and the overall objective of increasing exports, DGFT has since been assigned the role of “facilitator”. Objective: implementing the Foreign Trade Policy and promoting India’s exports. Functions of DGFT:- It also issues licenses to exporters. It monitors their corresponding obligations through a network of 25 Regional Offices. All regional offices provide facilitation to exporters in regard to developments in International Trade i.e. WTO agreements, Rules of Origin and anti-dumping issues, etc. It helps exporters in their import and export decisions in an internationally dynamic environment. MUST READ: Conditional Market Authorization SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund (AHIDF) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying (DAHD) has introduced the Credit Guarantee Scheme under the Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund (AHIDF). About the Credit Guarantee Scheme of AHIDF:- The credit guarantee scheme facilitates access to finance for un-served and under-served livestock sector. It aims to strengthen the credit delivery system and ensure smooth access to finance for entrepreneurs engaged in the Livestock sector. ( Dairy Cooperatives) Implementing Agency: Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund (AHIDF). Objective: to support the Livestock sector’s Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) without the need for collateral security. Funding: a credit guarantee fund trust of Rs 750 crore, which will cover up to 25 per cent of credit facilities extended to eligible MSMEs by lending institutions. The trust, formed in partnership with NAB Sanrakshan Trustee Company Private Ltd, a subsidiary of NABARD, ensures credit guarantees for MSMEs under the AHIDF scheme. (Special Livestock Sector Package) Key features of the scheme:- Interest subvention of three per cent. Loan of up to 90 per cent of the total project cost from any Scheduled Bank, National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC). Eligibility under the scheme:- The scheme targets underserved sections of society, including first-generation entrepreneurs and underprivileged individuals, who often lack collateral security for their ventures. Benefits under the scheme:- By providing access to financial assistance, it promotes investments in various areas of the livestock sector. These include sectors such as dairy and meat processing, animal feed plants, breed improvement technology, waste management, and veterinary vaccine and drug manufacturing facilities. About the Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund (AHIDF):- Launched:2021. Ministry: Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying. Implementing Agency: Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying. It is the Nation’s first-ever fund trust under the Credit guarantee scheme of AHIDF in the agriculture and Animal Husbandry sector. Objectives of AHIDF:- To help to increase milk and meat processing capacity and product diversification thereby providing greater access for unorganized rural milk and meat producers to organized milk and meat market. To make available increased price realization for the producer. To make available quality milk and meat products for the domestic consumer. To fulfil the objective of protein-enriched quality food requirement of the growing population of the country and prevent malnutrition in one of the highest malnourished children populations in the world. Develop entrepreneurship and generate employment. To promote exports and increase the export contribution in the milk and meat sector. To make available quality concentrated animals feed to the cattle, buffalo, sheep, goat, pig and poultry to provide balanced ration at affordable prices. ACTIVITIES ELIGIBLE FOR AVAILING BENEFITS UNDER AHIDF:- Dairy processing and value addition. Meat processing and value addition. Animal Feed manufacturing units and strengthening of existing Units/plant. Breed Improvement Technology and Breed Multiplication Farm. Setting up of Veterinary Vaccine and Drugs Production facilities. Animal Waste to Wealth Management (Agri-waste management). MUST READ: Improving Livestock Breeding SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between (‘ 15 crore and 25 crore). All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: India accounts for 3·2% of the global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s Production-linked Incentive’ scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Bacteriophages Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: In recent times, due to rising antibiotic resistance scientists are considering bacteriophages as a cure for bacterial infections. About bacteriophages:- IMAGE SOURCE: Let’s Talk Science Discovered by: they were discovered independently by Frederick W. Twort in Great Britain (1915) and Félix d’Hérelle in France (1917). Naming: D’Hérelle coined the term bacteriophage, meaning “bacteria eater,”. These viruses kill bacteria in our microbiomes. They only attack bacteria and are harmless to people, animals, and plants. Bacteriophages also known as Habitat: They are found in soil, sewage, water, and other places bacteria live. Classification: Phages are classified in a number of virus families some examples include Inoviridae, Microviridae, Rudiviridae, and Tectiviridae. Physical Structure:- Like all viruses, phages are simple organisms that consist of a core of genetic material (nucleic acid) surrounded by a protein capsid. Capsid of a bacteriophage can be icosahedral, filamentous, or head-tail in shape. Head-tail structure seems to be unique to phages and their close relatives. Genetic make-up: Phage genomes can consist of either DNA or RNA. Two different cycles that bacteriophages may use to infect their bacterial hosts:- The lytic cycle: The phage infects a bacterium, hijacks the bacterium to make lots of phages, and then kills the cell by making it explode (lyse). The lysogenic cycle: The phage infects a bacterium and inserts its DNA into the bacterial chromosome, allowing the phage DNA (now called a prophage) to be copied and passed on along with the cell’s own DNA. Phage Therapy:- Phage therapy (PT) is also called bacteriophage therapy. It uses viruses to treat bacterial infections. MUST READ: World Antimicrobial Awareness Week 2022 SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Some microorganisms can grow in environments with· temperatures above the boiling point of water. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperatures below the freezing point of water. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environments with a pH below 3. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture Systems, consider the following statements: (2023) Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate. Biofilters increase phosphorus as a nutrient for fish in water. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Airbus C295 aircraft Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: As per recent announcements, the first C-295 transport aircraft manufactured by Airbus for the Indian Air Force is scheduled to be delivered in September 2023. Background:- 16 aircraft would come in fly-away condition, manufactured at the Airbus facility in Seville, Spain, and 40 would be manufactured in India by Airbus jointly with Tata. About Airbus C-295 aircraft:- Airbus C295 is a new-generation tactical airlifter in the light and medium segment. (U C-295 aircraft deal) It conducts multi-role operations worldwide under all weather conditions. It is fully certified and routinely operates day and night in combat missions in all weather extremes, from desert to maritime environments, from extremely hot to extremely cold temperatures. Missions and operations: The robustness and versatility of the C295 make it the ideal platform for any type of military or civic operations for the benefit of society. Features Airbus C-295 aircraft:- The aircraft, with a flight endurance of up to 11 hours. It can carry out multi-role operations under all weather conditions. ( Induction of C-295MW in Indian Air Force (IAF)) It can routinely operate day as well as night combat missions from desert to maritime environments. It has a rear ramp door for quick reaction and para-dropping of troops and cargo. Short take-off/land from semi-prepared surfaces is another of its features. Replacement:- It will replace the Indian Air Force’s ageing fleet of Avro-748 planes. Avro-748 planes: are a British-origin twin-engine turboprop, military transport and freighter. MUST READ: Hansa aircraft SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following actions: (2023) Detection of car crashes/collisions, which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of the display between portrait and landscape mode. In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None DPT3 Vaccine Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recent reports claimed that India recorded all-time high DPT3 immunisation coverage in 2022. Background:- The coverage rate for DPT3 vaccines (diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus) in India reached an all-time high of 93% in 2022, surpassing the pre-pandemic record of 91% in 2019. This significant increase from the 85% coverage in 2021 was reported by the World Health Organization (WHO).  About DPT3 Vaccine:- DPT3 vaccines refer to a combination vaccine that provides protection against three infectious diseases: diphtheria, pertussis (whooping cough), and tetanus. (‘ZyCov-D’ vaccine) Naming: The “DPT” in DPT3 stands for the initials of these three diseases. Diphtheria: a bacterial infection that primarily affects the respiratory system. Effects: It can cause severe throat and nose congestion, difficulty breathing, and in severe cases, it can lead to heart and nerve damage. Pertussis (Whooping Cough): a highly contagious respiratory infection caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. Symptoms: It is characterized by severe coughing fits, often accompanied by a “whooping” sound when gasping for breath. Pertussis can be particularly dangerous for infants and young children. Tetanus: a bacterial infection caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani. It enters the body through wounds or cuts and produces a toxin that affects the nervous system, leading to muscle stiffness and spasms, particularly in the jaw and neck muscles.(Nation’s first mRNA-based vaccine) Dosage of DPT3 vaccines:– The primary dose of DPT is provided as part of the pentavalent vaccine. Pentavalent vaccine: a combination vaccine with five individual vaccines conjugated into one. Two booster doses are given at 16 -24 months and 5-6 years, respectively. MUST READ: iNCOVACC SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following? (2023) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna. Stimulating ‘stem cells to transform into diverse functional tissues. Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants. Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting a series of drug trials in a population. Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: Marital Rape in India Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Supreme Court would list a batch of petitions pertaining to the matters related to marital rape. About Marital rape: Marital rape (or spousal rape) is an act in which one of the spouses indulges in sexual intercourse without the consent of the other. Rape in India continues with the patriarchal outlook of considering women to be the property of men post marriage, with no autonomy or agency over their bodies. They deny married women equal protection of the laws guaranteed by the Indian constitution. Today, more than 100 countries have criminalized marital rape but, unfortunately, India is one of the only 36 countries where marital rape is still not criminalized. Current Scenario: Marital rape has been impeached in more than 100 countries but, unfortunately, India is one of the only 36 countries where marital rape is still not criminalized. In 2013, the UN Committee on Elimination of Discrimination against Women (CEDAW) recommended that the Indian government should criminalize marital rape. The JS Verma committee set up in the aftermath of nationwide protests over the December 16, 2012 gang rape case had also recommended the same. As per the NCRB report, in India, a woman is raped every 16 minutes, and every four minutes, she experiences cruelty at the hands of her in-laws. National Family Health Survey (NFHS) shows that sexual violence is most often committed by individuals with whom women have an intimate relationship. Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code It defines rape as “sexual intercourse with a woman against her will, without her consent, by coercion, misrepresentation or fraud or at a time when she has been intoxicated or duped, or is of unsound mental health and in any case if she is under 18 years of age. Consent is defined as clear, voluntary communication that the woman gives for a certain sexual act. Exceptions to Section 375: Sexual intercourse by a man with his own wife, who is above the age of 18, is not sexual assault. Punishment: Except in certain aggravated situations, the punishment will be imprisonment of not less than seven years but it may extend to imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine. In aggravated situations, punishment will be rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 10 years but which may extend to imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine. Arguments for criminalizing Marital Rape The doctrine of Coverture: The marital exception to the IPC’s definition of rape was drafted based on Victorian patriarchal norms that did not recognize men and women as equals. It did not allow married women to own property, and merged the identities of husband and wife under the “Doctrine of Coverture.” Article 14: Indian women deserve to be treated equally under article 14 and an individual’s human rights do not deserve to be ignored by anyone, including by their spouse. Further, a married woman has the same right to control her own body, as does an unmarried woman. Bodily Integrity is intrinsic to Article 21: A woman is entitled to refuse sexual relations with her husband as the right to bodily integrity and privacy is an intrinsic part of Article 21 of the Constitution. Supreme Court has included sanctity of women, and freedom to make choices related to sexual activity under the ambit of Article 21. In the State of Karnataka v. Krishnappa, the Supreme Court held that sexual violence apart from being a dehumanizing act is an unlawful intrusion of the right to privacy and sanctity of a female. In the Suchita Srivastava v. Chandigarh Administration, the Supreme Court equated the right to make choices related to sexual activity with rights to personal liberty, privacy, dignity, and bodily integrity under Article 21 of the Constitution. Rape not ground for Divorce: As marital rape is not a ground for a divorce in any personal laws and even the Special Marriage Act, 1954, It cannot be used as a ground for divorce and cruelty against the husband Thus, the women remain helpless and keep suffering in silence. Rape is rape, irrespective of the identity of the perpetrator, and the age of the survivor. A woman who is raped by a stranger lives with a memory of a horrible attack; a woman who is raped by her husband lives with her rapist throughout her life . Criminalizing marital rape: It will ensure that women remains safer from abusive spouses and they can receive the help needed to recover from marital rape and can save themselves from domestic violence and sexual abuse The United Kingdom, whose common law was followed by India, made marital rape a criminal offence in 1991. Arguments against criminalising marital rape: Threat to the institution of marriage: Criminalisation of marital rape is often viewed as a threat to the institution of marriage, in which both the spouses have conjugal rights over each other. Conjugal rights: Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act gives either spouse in a marriage the legal right to “restitution of conjugal rights”. Misuse of the law is a big reason why several individuals, jurists and even men’s rights activists have raised alarm over the criminalisation of marital rape. According to some activists, as huge as 85% of dowry cases turn out to be false and India cannot deal with another failed catastrophic law that will amount to “legal terrorism”. Burden of proof: The burden of proof is a hugely complex issue that has prevented marital rape to be criminalised. In the case of marital rape, one has to consider that intercourse is a part of any marriage. Now, if marital rape itself is criminalised, the question remains who would the burden of proof be on and what would that burden be. Gender Neutrality: Arguments to make the definition of ‘rape’ gender-neutral have been put forward on many occasions, and the same argument is put forward in the case of marital rapes too. Even if the exception of IPC section 375 is removed or criminal provisions are added to the Domestic Violence act, husbands will not be able to use those. Way Forward It is high time that the legislature should take cognisance of this legal infirmity and bring marital rape within the purview of rape laws by eliminating Section 375 (Exception) of IPC. By removing this law, women will be safer from abusive spouses. It is important that legal prohibition on marital rape is accompanied by changes in the attitude of the prosecutors, police officers and those in society generally. The need of the hour is that marriage and divorce must come under secular law and there cannot be any difficulty in having a common code of law for all communities at least for marriage and divorce. Source:  The Hindu National Commission for Women Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) and GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: National Commission for Women (NCW) has condemned the incident of Manipur where women were paraded naked. About NCW: It was set up as statutory body in 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. It aims to review the Constitutional and Legal safeguards for women; recommend remedial legislative measures; facilitate redressal of grievances and advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women. The Commission shall consist of: A Chairperson, nominated by the Central Government. Five Members with expertise in law and issues related to women, nominated by the Central Government. At least one Member each shall be from amongst persons belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes respectively Member Secretary must be a central gazetted officer having management and sociological expertise and nominated by the Central Government. The National Commission for Women submits all its reports to the Central Government, which is laid before the Parliament during sessions. During the investigation of any matter before it, National Commission for Women has all the powers of a civil court. Functions: Inquiry, Investigation and Examination of matters related to safeguards of women. Recommendation: to the Union as well State regarding improving the conditions of the women. Review different laws related to women and suggest amendments to them. Violation Cases: Takes up violation cases pertaining to the provisions of the Constitution and other laws related to women. Suo-Moto Notice on matters pertaining to deprivation of women’s rights, non-implementation of laws, non-compliance policy decisions related to women etc. Research: Undertake promotional and educational research to find ways to represent women in all spheres of life and improve their efficiency. Planning: Participate in the process of planning related to the socio-economic development of women. Progress Evaluation: Evaluate the progress related to the development of women in the State and the Union. Inspection: Inspect the jail, remand homes etc., where women are kept as prisoners. Funding Litigations relating to funds affecting large women body. Major limitations of National Commission for Women making it toothless: Not concrete powers: The NCW is only recommendatory and has no power to enforce its decisions. Often it acts only if the issues are brought to light. Unreported cases of oppression and suppression of women are not attended to. Legal powers: Commission lacks constitutional status, and thus has no legal powers to summon police officers or witnesses. In addition, it has no power to take legal actions against the Internal Complaint Committees that prevent grievance redressal of women facing harassment. Less funding: NCW’s functions are dependent on the grants offered by the central government. Financial assistance provided to the Commission is very less to cater to its needs. Political interference: It does not have the power to choose its own members. The power-selecting members is vested with the Union government leading to political interference at various levels. Government efforts for the protection and welfare of women Constitutional provisions Fundamental rights: It guarantees all Indians the right to equality (Article 14), no discrimination by the State based on gender (Article 15(1)), and special provisions to be made by the State in favour of women (Article 15(3)). Fundamental Duties: It ensures that practices derogatory to the dignity of women are prohibited under Article 51 (A). Legislative Framework: Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act, 2013 The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO), 2012 Way Forward: Suggestive measures Amending NCW Act: Women’s role is continuously expanding in today’s India and the expansion of the role of the NCW is the need of the hour. Further, the State Commissions must also widen their ambit. Increasing Minimum Age for Marriage: The age of marriage of daughters is being attempted to be raised to 21 years so that marriage at an early age does not hinder the education and career of daughters. Addressing Violence against Women (Violence against Women): Women’s violence remains a barrier to attaining equality, development, and peace, as well as the realization of women and girls’ human rights. Overall, the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) goal of “leaving no one behind” cannot be realized without ending violence. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Advance Authorisation Scheme brings down the cost of the final export product. Statement-II: It is under the Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Bacteriophages only attack bacteria and are harmless to people, animals, and plants. Statement-II: Bacteriophages can only multiply and grow inside a bacterium. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following pairs: Vaccine                       Disease Dengvaxia :             Diptheria DPT3             :            Whooping cough Pediarix :            Hepatitis B How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What is the role of the National Commission for Women? Has it been effective in addressing women issues in India? Critically examine (250 words). Q.2) The laws in India related to rape have undergone several changes since pre-independence except marital. Critically examine (250 words). Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 22nd July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 21st July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) -b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 22nd July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS1 Questions [22nd July, 2023] – Day 41

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 41 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –21st July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Prime Minister Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, a review meeting on the Prime Minister Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) scheme was held. Background:- The Secretary, of the Department of Financial Services exhorted the banks to expeditiously clear the sanction and disbursement pendency of applications. He further urged banks to devise a strategy and step up the efforts to increase the digital onboarding of street vendors and scale up their digital payments. About PM SVANidhi scheme:- IMAGE SOURCE: makspay.com Launched in 2020. (UPSC CSE: PM SVANidhi scheme) Ministry: Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs. Implementation agency: Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). Objective: Providing affordable Working Capital loans to street vendors to resume their livelihoods that have been adversely affected due to the Covid-19 lockdown. The scheme intends to facilitate collateral-free working capital loans of up to INR10,000/- of one-year tenure, to approximately 50 lakh street vendors. It is a Central Sector Scheme. Central sector schemes: schemes with 100% funding by the Central government and implemented by the Central Government machinery. Duration of the scheme: The duration of the scheme initially was until March 2022. It has been extended till December 2024.  Features of the scheme:- Loan limit: Vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to Rs. 10,000.This loan is repayable in monthly instalments for the tenure of one year. No collateral is required to avail of the loan. Processing fee: There is no processing fee to apply for the scheme, making it cost-effective for street vendors. Loan repayment period: one year. Interest subsidy: On timely/ early repayment of the loan, an interest subsidy @ 7% per annum. It will be credited to the bank accounts of beneficiaries through Direct Benefit Transfers on a quarterly basis.  Eligibility Criteria:- The eligible vendors are identified as per the following criteria:- Certificate of Vending/Identity Card: Street vendors in possession of a Certificate of Vending/Identity Card issued by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs). The vendors, who have been identified in the survey but have not been issued a Certificate of Vending/Identity Card; Provisional Certificate of Vending would be generated for such vendors through an IT-based Platform. Urban Local Bodies(ULBs) are encouraged to issue such vendors the permanent Certificate of Vending and Identification Card immediately and positively within a period of one month Letter of Recommendation: Street Vendors, left out of the ULB-led identification survey or who have started vending after completion of the survey and have been issued a Letter of Recommendation (LoR) to that effect by the ULB/Town Vending Committee (TVC). Advantages of the scheme:- The scheme promotes digital transactions through cash-back incentives up to an amount of Rs. 100 per month. The scheme encourages entrepreneurship. It also helps to create employment opportunities. (UPSC CSE: Programme of Socio-Economic Profiling of PM SVANidhi launched) MUST READ: SVANidhi se Samriddhi program SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Government set the target for building more than one crore houses by the end of 2024 under Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) About Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U):- Launched in 2015. (UPSC CSE: PMAY-U) Ministry: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). Objective: to improve the affordability of land and property amidst the continuous surge in prices. It is a Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS) and is also known by the name “Housing for All by 2022″. Individuals availing loans to buy residential property or land or to construct homes would be eligible for interest subsidies on the said credit. Eligibility under the scheme:- Economically Weaker Section (EWS): households with annual income up to ₹ 3, 00,000. Low-Income Group (LIG): households with annual income between ₹ 3, 00,001 and ₹ 6, 00,000. Middle Income Group-1 (MIG-1): households with annual income between ₹ 6, 00,001 and ₹ 12, 00,000. Middle Income Group-2 (MIG-2): households with annual income between ₹ 12, 00,001 and ₹ 18, 00,000. The applicant or his/her family members must not own a pucca house in any part of the country. The town/city in which the family resides must be covered under the scheme. The family MUST NOT have previously availed the benefits of any housing-related schemes set up by the Government of India. Benefits under the scheme:- Slum rehabilitation: of eligible Slum Dwellers with the participation of private developers using land as a resource. Promotion of Affordable Housing: through Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS). Affordable Housing in Partnership with Public & Private Sectors: Central Assistance per EWS house in projects where 35% of houses are for EWSs. Subsidy for Beneficiary-Led individual house construction /enhancement: For individuals of the EWS category requiring individual houses (separate project for such beneficiaries) MUST READ: Affordable Rental Housing Complexes (ARHCs) as a sub-scheme of Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019) PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Universal Postal Union Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: As per recent announcements, Universal Postal Union will evaluate the UPI platform for cross-border remittances using the global postal network. Background:- The Director General of Universal Postal Union (DG UPU) Masahiko Metoki, is on a three-day visit to India for the inauguration of UPU Regional Office. He appreciated India’s expansion of physical post offices riding on the waves of digital infrastructure and agreed to evaluate the UPI platform for integrating it with cross-border money remittance through postal channels. About Universal Postal Union:- Establishment: 1874 under the Treaty of Bern of 1874. HQ: Berne, Switzerland. Objective: to coordinate postal policies among member nations, in addition to the worldwide postal system.(UPSC CSE: World Postal Day: 9th of October) Members: It has 192 member countries. Eligibility of membership: Any member country of the United Nations may become a member of the UPU. Any non-member country of the United Nations may become a UPU member provided that its request is approved by at least two-thirds of the member countries of the UPU. India joined the UPU in Structure of UPU:- It consists of four bodies:- The Congress Congress is the supreme authority of the Universal Postal Union (UPU) and meets every four years. The Council of Administration The Council ensures the continuity of the UPU’s work between Congresses supervises its activities and studies regulatory, administrative, legislative and legal issues. The Postal Operations Council The Postal Operations Council (POC) is the technical and operational mind of the UPU and consists of 48 member countries, elected during Congress. The International Bureau Fulfilling a secretariat function, the International Bureau provides logistical and technical support to the UPU’s bodies. Functions of UPU:- It is a United Nations specialized agency and the postal sector’s primary forum for international cooperation. It is the second oldest international organization worldwide. It is the primary forum for cooperation between postal sector players. It helps to ensure a truly universal network of up-to-date products and services. It plays an advisory, mediating and liaison role. It provides technical assistance where needed. It sets the rules for international mail exchanges. It makes recommendations to stimulate growth in mail, parcel and financial services volumes and improve the quality of service for customers. MUST READ: India to take over the leadership of the Asian Pacific Postal Union (APPU) SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: (2023) It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or SWIFT system. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade and Technology Council’. Statement-II: The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct BepiColombo spacecraft Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, during a close Mercury flyby, the BepiColombo spacecraft collected data that showed how electrons raining down on the planet’s surface are triggering X-ray auroras. Background:- According to the Europlanet Society, this is the first time the process of X-ray auroras on the planet has been explained. Auroras: a natural electrical phenomenon characterized by the appearance of streamers of reddish or greenish light in the sky, especially near the northern or southern magnetic pole. The effect is caused by the interaction of charged particles from the sun with atoms in the upper atmosphere. About BepiColombo spacecraft:- Launched in 2018 (UPSC CSE: Mercury’s iron heart) Scheduled to begin orbiting Mercury: 2025. Launch Vehicle: Ariane 5 Launch Site: Guiana Space Centre, Kourou, French Guiana. BepiColombo is an international joint mission by the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA). ESA’s Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) will study the planet’s surface and interior. JAXA’s Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MIO) will study the planet’s magnetic field. These are the first Mercury missions for the ESA and JAXA. Only two other spacecraft have visited Mercury: NASA’s Mariner 10 and MESSENGER.(UPSC CSE: International Space Station (ISS)) Naming: BepiColombo is named after Professor Giuseppe (Bepi) Colombo (1920-1984) from the University of Padua, Italy, a mathematician and engineer. He was the first to determine that an unsuspected resonance is responsible for Mercury’s habit of rotating on its axis three times for every two revolutions it makes around the Sun. BepiColombo made its first flyby of Mercury on Oct. 1, 2021, and sent back several images. Objectives of BepiColombo:- To study the planet’s composition, geophysics, atmosphere, magnetosphere, and history. Investigating Mercury’s surface and composition. Measuring Mercury’s exosphere (a thin atmosphere) and understanding its composition and dynamics. Conducting experiments to test certain principles of general relativity. Improve our understanding of gravity. MUST READ: Space Economy of India SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct? (2023) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times that received at the poles. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Picolinic acid Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: A recent study of IISc reveals that picolinic acid can block viruses causing SARS-CoV-2 and influenza A. About picolinic acid:- It is a natural compound produced by mammalian cells. It is a pyridinemonocarboxylic acid. Pyridinemonocarboxylic acid: in which the carboxy group is located at position 2. It is an intermediate in the metabolism of tryptophan. Tryptophan: an essential amino acid used to make proteins. It has a role as a MALDI matrix material and a human metabolite. MALDI matrix materials: are crystalline compounds with a fairly low molecular weight. It is a conjugate acid of a picolinate. Conjugate acids: the acids that lose or gain protons. It is known to help in the absorption of zinc and other trace elements from our gut. It stays inside the body only for a short duration and is usually excreted out quickly. Key Findings of the study:- The study describes the compound’s remarkable ability to disrupt the entry of enveloped viruses into the host’s cell and prevent infection. Animal testing results:- When the compound was tested in SARS-CoV-2 and influenza animal models, it was found to protect the animals from infection. (UPSC CSE: COVID-19 : Antigen Detection Test) It was also found to reduce viral load in the lungs when given to infected animals. (UPSC CSE: Global Impact of COVID-19) In addition, the researchers found that picolinic acid led to an increase in the number of immune cells in the animals. Inference: It is effective against a variety of enveloped viruses, including flaviviruses like the Zika virus and the Japanese encephalitis virus. MUST READ: COVID-19 & Herd Immunity SOURCE:THE HINDU Mains: Delimitation Commission Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: Recently, Delimitation Commission finalize the Delimitation Order for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. About Delimitation Commission of India: The Delimitation Commission of India, also known as the Boundary Commission of India, is a commission established by the Indian government under the provisions of the Delimitation Commission Act. The commission’s principal responsibility is to redraw the borders of the various assembly and Lok Sabha constituencies based on a recent census. During this practice, the representation from each state remains constant. Delimitation is the process of redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and State Assembly constituencies based on a recent census to ensure that each seat has an almost equal number of voters. The Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India. Composition: Retired Supreme Court judge Chief Election Commissioner Respective State Election Commissioners Delimitation Commissions have been set up four times — 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002 under the Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002. The first delimitation exercise was carried out by the President (with the help of the Election Commission) in 1950-51. History: The last delimitation exercise that changed the state-wise composition of the Lok Sabha was completed in 1976 and done based on the 1971 census. The Constitution of India mandates that the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha should be based on the population of each state so that the ratio of seats to population is as close as possible to being equal across all states. It is intended to ensure that each person’s vote carries roughly the same weight, regardless of which state they live in. However, this provision meant that states that took little interests in population control could end up with a greater number of seats in Parliament. To avoid these consequences, the constitution was amended 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 froze the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the states and the division of each state into territorial constituencies till the year 2000 at the 1971 level. The 84th Amendment Act of 2001 empowered the government to undertake readjustment and rationalization of territorial constituencies in the states based on the population figures of 1991 census. The 87th Amendment Act of 2003 provided for the delimitation of constituencies based on 2001 census and not 1991 census. However, this can be done without altering the number of seats allotted to each state in the Lok Sabha. Constitutional Provisions: Under Article 82, the Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after every Census. Under Article 170, States also are divided into territorial constituencies as per Delimitation Act after every Census. Significance of Delimitation Commission: Independent Body: The Delimitation Commission operates independently of the executive branch and political parties, ensuring its impartiality and non-partisan nature. This independence is crucial for the credibility and integrity of the delimitation process. Finality of Decisions: Once the Delimitation Commission issues its final order, its decisions are considered binding and cannot be challenged in court or overturned through legislative means. This ensures stability and avoids unnecessary disputes regarding constituency boundaries. Equitable Distribution: The commission’s focus on equal population representation in constituencies helps prevent disparities and ensures that every vote has an equal impact. It enhances the democratic fabric of the country by promoting fair representation and preventing concentration of power. Reliance on Census Data: The Delimitation Commission bases its decisions on the most recent census data. By using reliable and accurate demographic information, it ensures that constituency boundaries are redraw Concerns Related to Delimitation: Regional Disparity: Disparity in representation between north and southern part of India in the Lok sabha due to population as a deciding factor. The delimitation based solely on population disregards the progress made by the southern states in population control and may lead to disparities in the federal structure. Despite having only 18% of the country’s population, the southern states contribute 35% to the country’s GDP. The northern states, which did not prioritize population control, are expected to benefit in the delimitation process due to their higher population growth. Inadequate Funding: After the 15th Finance Commission used the 2011 Census as a basis for its recommendation, concerns were raised about southern states losing funding and representation in parliament. Previously, the 1971 Census was used as the base for funding and tax devolution recommendations to states. Affecting the Reservations for SCs/ STs: The scheduled delimitation and reallocation of seats may result in not only a loss of seats for southern states but also an increase in power for political parties with their base of support in the north. This could potentially lead to a shift of power toward the north and away from the south. The exercise will also affect the division of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (SC/ST) in each state (under Articles 330 and 332). Way Forward: The current process of delimitation has been successful in ensuring democratic representation in India though there are certain concerns. To address the concerns and further reform the process an independent committee should be set up to review the process involving all stakeholders and suggest reforms and should ensure fair representation of people in the electoral process and promotion of democracy. Source:   The Hindu Online abuse among students Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) and GS 2 (Governance and Social Justice) Context: Recent research on technology-facilitated sexual violence (TFSV) indicate that, online abuse disproportionately affected young women. About Technology-facilitated sexual violence (TFSV): Technology-facilitated sexual violence can take many forms, such as morphed images, sexualised blackmailing and bullying, digital flashing, rape threats, and explicit comments and messages. It pervades every social media and messaging platform, but Instagram, Facebook and WhatsApp are the ones especially culpable. It is a growing problem, especially affecting college students across India. A private survey on 400 students from 111 Indian higher education institutions found that a staggering 60% of women experienced some form of TFSV compared to only 8% of men. Features of TFSV Morphed Images: Manipulated or altered images where someone’s face is placed onto explicit or inappropriate content without their consent. Photoshopping someone’s face onto a pornographic image and sharing it online. Sexualized Blackmailing: Using explicit material to coerce or manipulate someone into doing something against his or her will. Threatening to distribute intimate photos unless the victim engages in sexual acts or pays a certain amount of money. Bullying: Harassing, intimidating, or humiliating someone based on his or her gender or sexuality using technology. Sending derogatory messages, spreading rumours, or creating hate pages targeting a person for their sexual orientation. Digital Flashing: Sending unsolicited explicit images or videos to someone without their consent. Forwarding explicit photos to someone’s inbox or social media accounts without their permission. Rape Threats: Explicit messages or comments threatening someone with sexual violence or rape. Sending a message stating, “I will find you and rape you.” to intimidate and instill fear in the recipient. Explicit Comments and Messages: Sending sexually suggestive or vulgar content or messages without consent. Sending graphic sexual content or explicit language to someone via direct messages on a social media platform without their invitation or interest. Concerns associated with TFSV: Various Forms: TFSV can take many forms, such as morphed nude images, sexualised blackmailing and bullying, digital flashing, rape threats, and explicit comments and messages. High Penetration: It has its penetration over every social media and messaging platform. Forever Presence: Abuse is linked to an individual’s name and online profile, and can remain on the Internet forever. Mental Illness: Many survivors experience depression, post-traumatic stress disorder, anxiety, and suicidal thoughts. Tangible Consequences: Many survivors experience loss of academic or career prospects, social isolation, and violence and rejection by one’s own family. Meanwhile, abusers hide behind anonymity. Ambiguity in Legislation: India’s IT Act of 2000 criminalizes some forms of TFSV, but ambiguities in the law can deter survivors from reporting. Government initiatives: Specific provisions in IT Act for cybercrime against women: Violation of privacy (section 66E) Obscene material (section 67) Pornography & sexually explicit act (section 67A) Child pornography (section 67B) Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021: Definition of Digital Media: It will cover digitized content that can be transmitted over the internet or computer networks. It also includes intermediaries such as Twitter and Facebook, and publishers of news and current affairs content. It also includes so-called curators of such content. Publishers of news and current affairs content will cover online papers, news portals, news agencies, and news aggregators. Self-regulation: Industry regulatory body headed by a former judge of the Supreme Court and High Court with additional members from an Information and Broadcasting ministry approved panel. Oversight mechanism that includes an inter-ministerial committee with the authority to block access to content. The Inter-ministerial Committee can also take suo motu cognizance of an issue, and any grievance flagged by the ministry. The “Digital Literacy and Online Safety Programme“: It aims to train 60,000 women in universities across major cities of India regarding safe use of internet, social media and email that will enable them to differentiate between the credible and questionable information available online. Suggestive measures: Awareness:  Raising widespread awareness of TFSV and implementing solutions is vital while the problem is still within our control. Grassroots solutions like hosting regular workshops, safety training, facilitated discussions, and designating student organizations to lead education and response efforts. Legal regulations already mandate that IHEs conduct gender sensitization programmes and empower students to engage their community. Discussions: Openly discussing TFSV without shaming or blaming survivors is an essential step to improve India’s levels of sexual violence to remove the barrier of stigmatization. Anonymous Helplines: Schools must provide anonymous helplines and reporting options, mental health services from trained counsellors. Legislation backing: With the upcoming Digital India Act, the government has an opportunity to strengthen its regulations for technology platforms and compel social media companies to take accountability. Adequate funding: The implementation of related measures should be prioritized with adequate allocation of funds. Internal Complaints Committees (ICCs): All IHEs must have Internal Complaints Committees (ICCs) to investigate incidents of sexual harassment with strict implementation, transparency and accountability. The ability to safely access the Internet is crucial to women’s agency, mobility, and economic development. With the government showing regard for the issue of women’s safety online, it is important to look after matters such as the nature of technology-facilitated abuse,  capturing what this means, understanding how cases impact individuals as well as communities, the language needed to capture such offences and the punishment — penalties, jail or even rehabilitation programmes for perpetrators. Source:   The Hindu PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2023) Carbon fibers are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircraft. Carbon fibers once used cannot be recycled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements (2023) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Picolinic acid is an intermediate in the metabolism of tryptophan. Statement-II: It stays inside the body for a long duration. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G) was launched in 2019. Statement-II: Households with non-agricultural enterprises registered with the Government are excluded from this scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following pairs: Spacecraft                                       Agency MESSENGER:                          NASA BepiColombo :                       ESA and JAXA Mariner 10 :                             ESA How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Evaluate the role of the Delimitation Commission in promoting equitable distribution and preventing concentration of political power. Discuss its impact on maintaining the principle of ‘one person, one vote’ in a democratic society. (250 Words) Q.2) Technology-facilitated sexual violence (TFSV) has emerged as a significant issue, disproportionately impacting children and young women in India, especially on social media platforms. Evaluate the consequences of TFSV and the challenges in addressing this problem. Examine the role of government initiatives in combating TFSV and suggest additional measures to create a safer digital space for women. (250 Words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 21st July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 20th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) -d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 21st July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS1 Questions [21st July, 2023] – Day 40

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 40 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) National Co-Operative Consumers Federation of India Limited (NCCF) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Department of Consumer Affairs directed the National CO-Operative Consumers Federation of India Limited (NCCF) and National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd (NAFED) to sell tomatoes at a retail price of 70 rupees per kg. Background:- The tomatoes procured by NCCF and NAFED had been retailed at 90 rupees per kg initially and then reduced to 80 rupees per kg from 16th July. The reduction to 70 rupees per kg will further benefit the consumers. About National Co-Operative Consumers Federation of India Limited (NCCF) Establishment: 1965. Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. HQ: New Delhi. NCCF is the apex body of consumer cooperatives in the country. (UPSC CSE: India’s Cooperative Sector) It is registered under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002. Shareholding: Government of India owns 42%. Objectives of NCCF:- Render technical guidance and assistance to improve and increase their operation and management efficiency. Create and promote the formation of cadres of employees. Hold seminars, conferences, and meetings and undertake publicity, propaganda and similar other activities. Establish trade connections with manufacturers, their authorized distributors and suppliers/dealers including Government agencies and cooperative organizations. Import and export of agricultural commodities. Collect and disseminate necessary marketing intelligence for the benefit of its member institutions. Establish testing laboratories for testing consumer goods. To act as agents of Central/State Government or undertaking/corporation or cooperative institutions or any business enterprises for the purpose of sale, storage and distribution of consumer goods approved by the Board of Directors from time to time entrusted by Central/State Governments. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd (NAFED) Establishment: 1958. (UPSC CSE: NAFED) Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. HQ: New Delhi. It is an apex organization of marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce in India. It is registered under the Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002. Objectives: to promote Cooperative marketing of agricultural produce to benefit the farmers. Agricultural farmers are the main members of NAFED. They have the authority to say in the form of members of the General Body in the working of NAFED. MUST READ: Primary agricultural credit societies (PACS) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) India has more arable area than China. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China: How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? (2020) Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Social Capital Development Free electricity supply to farmers Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system Setting up cold storage facilities by the governments. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 5 only 1, 3, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, and 6 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Black Sea Grain initiative Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, India has voiced support for the UN’s efforts in continuing the Black Sea Grain initiative. Background:- India’s reaction came after Russia announced it was terminating the implementation of the UN-brokered deal that allowed the export of grain and related foodstuffs and fertilizers from Ukrainian ports. About the Black Sea Grain initiative:- IMAGE SOURCE: UN Signed in 2022. (UPSC CSE: Black Sea Grain Initiative) Signed at Istanbul. The deal, brokered by the United Nations (UN) and Turkey. Objective: to limit food price inflation emanating from supply chain disruptions because of Russian actions in the world’s ‘breadbasket’ by ensuring an adequate supply of grains. Time Period: Initially it was stipulated for a period of 120 days. It was to provide a safe maritime humanitarian corridor for the Ukrainian export of food grains. Need for the deal:- Ukraine is one of the world’s largest grain exporters. However, since Russia invaded Ukraine, exports of grain, food and fertilizers from both countries have been significantly hit. (UPSC CSE: Russia-Ukraine War.) The disruption in supplies resulted in rising prices. This added to the burden of an already existing food crisis in some countries. In a bid to address this crisis and ensure the smooth movement of supplies amidst the ongoing war, the United Nations and Turkey brokered the Black Sea Grain Initiative on 22 July 2022. The central idea was to calm markets by ensuring an adequate supply of grains, thereby limiting food price inflation. About the Black Sea:- IMAGE SOURCE: Britannica Location: between Eastern Europe and Western Asia in the Atlantic Ocean. Major rivers: Danube, Dnieper, and Don. Bordering countries: Bulgaria, Georgia, Romania, Russia, Turkey, and Ukraine. Important water bodies around the Black Sea:- The Black Sea ultimately drains into the Mediterranean Sea via the Turkish Straits and the Aegean Sea. Bosporus Strait: connects the Black Sea to the Sea of Marmara. Strait of the Dardanelles: connects the Sea of Marmara to the Aegean Sea. Kerch Strait: connects the Black Sea to the Sea of Azov. MUST READ: Loss of the ‘Moskva’ & Black Sea SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2023) Bulgaria Czech Republic Hungary Latvia Lithuania Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q.2) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores The region along North African shores stretches from Egypt to Morocco The region along the Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa The entire coastal areas of the Mediterranean Sea Index of Industrial Production (IIP) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recent reports show that the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) grew by 5.2 per cent in May 2023 from 4.2 per cent in April this year. Background:- As per the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation data, the manufacturing sector’s output grew 5 per cent and Mining output rose by 5.8 per cent for the reported period. The index of manufacturing of pharmaceuticals, medicinal chemicals, and botanical products gained the most as it climbed 22.6 per cent. In May 2022, IIP was at all time high-growth of 6 per cent. About the Index of Industrial Production (IIP):- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA Publication time: monthly. (UPSC CSE: IIP) Published by: National Statistical Office (NSO). Ministry: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. Base Year: 2011-2012. IIP is an indicator that measures the changes in the volume of production of industrial products during a given period. It is a composite indicator that measures the growth rate of industry groups classified under: Broad sectors: Mining, Manufacturing, and Electricity. The relative weights of these three sectors are 6% (manufacturing), 14.4% (mining) and 8% (electricity). Eight core industries: Electricity, crude oil, coal, cement, steel, refinery products, natural gas, and fertilizers. They comprise about 40 per cent of the weight of items included in the IIP. The eight core sector industries in decreasing order of their weightage: Refinery Products> Electricity> Steel> Coal> Crude Oil> Natural Gas> Cement> Fertilizers. Use-based sectors: Basic Goods, Capital Goods, and Intermediate Goods. Significance of IIP:- The index indicates the relative change over time in the volume of production in the industrial sector. It is an effective tool to measure the trend of current industrial production. It is used by government agencies including the Ministry of Finance, the Reserve Bank of India, etc., for policy-making purposes. (UPSC CSE: Draft New Industrial Policy) MUST READ: Industrial Revolution 4.0 SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises are those with investments in plant and machinery between (15 crore and 25 crore). All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight? (2015) Coal production Electricity generation Fertilizer production Steel production Gharials Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, America’s largest reptile sanctuary wants to import gharials from India. Background:- The Phoenix Herpetological Society has requested a permit to import gharials and crocodiles from Madras Crocodile Bank Trust. About Gharials:- Gharials are a type of Asian crocodilian distinguished by their long, thin snouts. (UPSC CSE: Gharials) They are fish-eating crocodiles. Habitat: Gharials reside exclusively in river habitats with deep, clear, fast-flowing waters and steep, sandy banks. They are sweet water crocodiles. Indicator Species: They are also a crucial indicator of clean river water. Indicator species: living organisms that tell us that something has changed or is going to change in their environment. Distribution of Gharials:- Historical distribution: Gharials were once widely distributed in the large rivers that flow in the northern part of the Indian subcontinent. Current distribution: Today, their major population occur in three tributaries of the Ganga River: the Chambal and the Girwa Rivers in India and the Rapti-Naryani River in Nepal. (UPSC CSE: National Chambal Sanctuary) The Gharial reserves of India are located in three States – Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. Major Threats: Alteration of habitat – Throughout the present range of the Gharial, the rivers have been dammed, and diverted for irrigation and other purposes leading to seasonal drying of once perennial rivers. Depletion of prey base: increased use of gill nets is rapidly killing many adults as well as subadults. Harvesting of eggs and poaching: the use of its body parts as medicines has been traditional and is reported from Nepal and, occasionally, in India. Conservation status of Gharials:- IUCN: Critically Endangered IWPA: Schedule I CITES: Appendix I Crocodiles in India:-  India has three species of Crocodiles, namely:- Gharials IUCN: Critically Endangered Mugger crocodile IUCN Status: Vulnerable Saltwater crocodile IUCN Status: Least Concern.  MUST READ: Thalattosuchian SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following fauna: (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: (2023) They build nests by making burrows in the ground. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Rudragiri hillock Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, a fascinating fusion of rock art was spotted at Rudragiri hillock. Key findings at Rudragiri Hillock:- A combination of prehistoric rock paintings from the Mesolithic period and exquisite artwork from the Kakatiya dynasty were spotted. (UPSC CSE: Ancient rock paintings) Mesolithic period: This period is generally considered to have occurred between approximately 12,000-10,000 years ago During this time human societies were predominantly hunter-gatherer communities. The first cave presents a narrative mural portraying the intense battle between the Vanara brothers, Vali and Sugriva. Both figures stand on the battlefield wielding maces, their faces displaying fierce determination. Rama, positioned behind Sugriva, shoots arrows at Vali. A Ramayana fresco depicting Hanuman lifting the Sanjeevani hill with his right hand painted a conch and fire altars can be seen to his right and another prehistoric painting to the left. In the middle cave, a grand sketch of Hanuman, accompanied by sacred symbols of the conch (Sankha) and the fire altar (Yagna Vedi), are seen. The third cave houses the prehistoric rock paintings from the Mesolithic era. Interestingly, the Kakatiya artist chose the same rock shelter to superimpose the elegant figure of Hanuman, who is portrayed in a unique ‘Anjali’ posture, folding his hands in a divine offering. Ganapati Deva Maharaja (1199-1262 AD) who was the built the Muppavaram temple and a prominent figure of the Kakatiya dynasty is likely to be the patron of the rich ancient mural heritage found at Rudragiri. About Rudragiri hillock:- Location: Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh. It is nestled amidst the Eastern Ghats and features five naturally formed rock shelters at its foothills, facing westward. These shelters served as living quarters for people during the Mesolithic age around 5000 B.C. They bear witness to the luminous rock paintings of that era. (UPSC CSE: Weathering of oldest rock paintings due to climate change) Two natural caves at the southern end of the hillock also exhibit exceptional murals from the renowned Kakatiya kingdom. Kakatiya kingdom: It was a south Indian dynasty that ruled most of the eastern Deccan region comprising present-day Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, and parts of eastern Karnataka and southern Odisha. Time Period: between 12th and 14th centuries. Capital: Orugallu, now known as MUST READ: Ratnagiri’s pre-historic rock art SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with (2023) archaeological excavations establishment of the English Press in Colonial India establishment of Churches in Princely States construction of railways in Colonial India Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2022) Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts                 State Dhauli                                                                  Odisha Erragudi                                                           Andhra Pradesh Jaugada                                                           Madhya Pradesh Kalsi                                                                    Karnataka How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Mains: BIMARU’ Tag: What does this term mean? Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister said the State has risen from its BIMARU tag and is now contributing positively to the process of India’s development. About BIMARU states: Source:  bqprime.com The ‘BIMARU’ acronym has been used to refer to Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh, to imply they have lagged in terms of economic growth, healthcare, and education. BIMARU means “sickly” in Hindi. The term was used to highlight the backwardness, especially with regard to poor performance in demographic indicators and contribution to population explosion. These states had exceptionally high levels of mortality, morbidity, illiteracy, fertility, undernutrition, and social inequality and lagged behind in per capita income. It was coined by Ashish Bose in 1980 to pinpoint India’s demographic malady. Bose mainly argued that from a family planning and population control perspective, these four states, with their high population growth rates were likely to offset the gains made elsewhere in the country. BIMARU States and Population Growth: Population Growth: A report by the Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare revealed that BIMARU States (excluding the three newly carved out States) will contribute to 49.1% of the population increase in India between 2011 and 2036. Implication: Population in Indian States also dictates the delimitation process or the number of seats allotted to them in Parliament. Currently, the seats are proportional to the Indian population as of the 1971 census. It was frozen until 2001 (and has now further been extended to 2026) to give States time to meet family planning goals. The Problem: The Southern States of India have repeatedly stressed that the division of seats and devolution of funds to States based on population are unfair to them, as they have better performed in family planning. Reasons behind backwardness of BIMARU states: Low per capita income: These have traditionally had low per capita income levels compared to other states in India, with Bihar having the lowest per capita income among Indian states. High poverty rates: They have a high percentage of people living in poverty, with Bihar and Uttar Pradesh having some of the highest poverty rates in the country. Low literacy rates: They have lower literacy rates than the national average, with Bihar having the lowest literacy rate among Indian states. Poor healthcare indicators: They have traditionally had poor healthcare indicators, with high infant and maternal mortality rates. Agriculture-based economy: These states are primarily agricultural states, with a significant percentage of the population engaged in agriculture and related activities. Significant population: They are among the most populous states in India, with Uttar Pradesh being the most populous state in the country. Overall, the BIMARU states have traditionally lagged behind other states in India in terms of economic and social development, although in recent years, there has been progress in improving development indicators. Positive developments: In recent years, some of these states, such as Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh, have shown significant improvement. In terms of economic growth, several of these states have experienced high growth rates in recent years, with Madhya Pradesh and Bihar recording growth rates of over 10% in 2019-20. Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan have also recorded growth rates of over 7% in recent years. There has also been progress in improving social indicators such as literacy rates and healthcare infrastructure. For example, Bihar has seen a significant increase in literacy rates, with the state’s literacy rate increasing from 47% in 2001 to 63% in 2011. Madhya Pradesh (MP): Madhya Pradesh ranks first in distributing Ayushman cards and other States are now adapting MP’s Janbhagidari model. MP was the first to start a Public Service Guarantee Act (Lok Sewa Guarantee) to ensure that citizens get the benefit of better facilities. Uttar Pradesh (UP): UP has revised its position in view of GSDP (Gross State Domestic Product) estimates that indicate UP is now the third largest economy after Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. Rajasthan: The Rajasthan Government recently signed 4192 Memoranda of Understanding involving investment commitment worth Rs 10.44 lakh crore ahead of the Investment Rajasthan Summit 2022. Bihar: Improvement in road connectivity, better maintenance of law and order and efforts to raise the literacy levels have boosted the Bihar’s economy. Suggestive measures: way forward Human Resource Development: The two states share poor literacy levels and health status of its residents. Governments at center and state must work in close cooperation with local governments and administration to implement schemes in spheres of education, health and skill development. Tourism: Bihar has a lot of potential for spiritual tourism whereas UP can be developed as a site of eco-tourism. Tourism brings in employment for the local people and additionally forex for nation. Investment: As has the case been in Gujarat, Tripura, and Andhra Pradesh, investment summits on similar lines to encourage private investment in these areas can help generate income, employment and infrastructure. Infrastructure: Public investment is much needed for infrastructural development. There is a lot of untapped potential for roadways, railways and inland waterways. NW-1 on Ganga River has not been used to the optimum. Overall, while the BIMARU states have made progress in recent years, there is still a long way to go in terms of achieving more equitable development across the country. Source:   Indian Express Indus Waters Treaty 1960 (IWT) Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Geography) and GS 2 (International Relations) Context: India announced that it wants to modify the 62-year-old IWT with Pakistan, citing what it called Pakistan’s “intransigence” in resolving disputes over the Kishenganga and Ratle hydropower projects, both in Jammu and Kashmir. About Indus Water Treaty: In 1960, India and Pakistan signed the Indus Waters Treaty with the World Bank as a signatory of the pact. Under the treaty, India got control over the three eastern rivers Beas, Ravi, and Sutlej while Pakistan got control of the western rivers Indus, Jhelum, and the Chenab. According to the treaty, India has the right to generate hydroelectricity through the run-of-the-river (RoR) projects on the western rivers, which, are subject to specific criteria for design and operation. Background of the Indus Water Dispute: In 1947, the line of partition also cut the Indus river system into two parts. Both the sides were dependent on water from the Indus river basin to keep their irrigation infrastructure functional. In May 1948, initially the Inter-dominion accord was adopted. This accord decided that India would supply water to Pakistan in exchange for an annual payment made by Pakistan. This agreement however, soon disintegrated, as both the countries could not agree upon its common interpretations. Due to the water-sharing dispute in 1951, both the countries applied to the World Bank for funding of their respective irrigation projects on the Indus and its tributaries. At this point of time, the World Bank offered to mediate the conflict. Finally, in 1960, after nearly a decade of fact-finding, negotiation, proposals by the World Bank and amendments to them, an agreement was reached between the two countries. The Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) was signed by former Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and then President of Pakistan, Ayub Khan. Key Provisions: Water Sharing: The treaty prescribed how water from the six rivers of the Indus River System would be shared between India and Pakistan. It allocated the three western rivers—Indus, Chenab and Jhelum—to Pakistan for unrestricted use, barring certain non-consumptive, agricultural and domestic uses by India and the three Eastern rivers—Ravi, Beas and Sutlej—were allocated to India for unrestricted usage. This means that 80% of the share of water went to Pakistan, while leaving the rest 20% of water for use by India. Permanent Indus Commission: It also required both the countries to establish a Permanent Indus Commission constituted by permanent commissioners on both sides. According to the provisions of the IWT, the Permanent Indus Commission is required to meet at least once a year. Rights over Rivers: While Pakistan has rights over the waters of Jhelum, Chenab and Indus, Annexure C of the IWT allows India certain agricultural uses, while Annexure D allows it to build ‘run of the river’ hydropower projects, meaning projects not requiring live storage of water. Dispute Resolution Mechanism: The IWT provides a three-step dispute resolution mechanism under Article IX of the Indus Waters Treaty, under which “questions” on both sides can be resolved at the Permanent Commission, or can also be taken up at the inter-government level. In case of unresolved questions or “differences” between the countries on water sharing, such as technical differences, either side can approach the World Bank to appoint a Neutral Expert (NE) to come to a decision. In addition, eventually, if either party is not satisfied with the NE’s decision or in case of “disputes” in the interpretation and extent of the treaty, matters can be referred to a Court of Arbitration. Problem with Hydroelectric Projects: Pakistan has objected to the two hydroelectric power projects (HEPs): The 330 MW Kishenganga HEP on the Kishenganga River, a tributary of the river Jhelum. The 850 MW Ratle HEP on the Chenab River. Both India and Pakistan differed on whether the technical details of the hydel projects conformed with the treaty, given that the Jhelum and Chenab were part of the “western tributaries”. Significance of the treaty Testimonial to peaceful coexistence: It is a treaty that is often cited as an example of the possibilities of peaceful coexistence that exist despite the troubled relationship. The IWT is the only agreement between India and Pakistan that has stood the test of time, through wars and terrorism. Survived many hostilities: It has survived three crucial wars. Most successful bilateral treaty: It is internationally regarded as an example of successful conflict resolution between two countries otherwise locked in a hostile relationship. Way forward In the last six decades, the Indus Waters Treaty has been successful in keeping the water sharing disputes at bay, which signifies its importance. However, in the present times of climate crisis coupled with natural disasters the demands of water sharing of both the countries have changed. Therefore, there is a need to renegotiate the treaty terms, update certain technical specifications and expand the scope of the agreement to address demands of the two countries amid the rising climate crisis. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The Koh-i-Noor Diamond, which is now among the jewels set in the British Crown, was mined and first owned by the Kakatiya Dynasty. Statement-II: Hanamakonda was the first capital of the Kakatiyas. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The Strait of the Dardanelles connects the Sea of Marmara to the Black Sea. Statement-II: Kerch Strait connects the Black Sea to the Sea of Azov. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following pairs: Species                                    IUCN Status Saltwater crocodile:              Vulnerable Mugger crocodile:             Critically Endangered Gharials:                         Least Concern How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Can Government’s “Aspirational Districts Programme” manage to uplift the so-called BIMARU states. Discuss (250 words) Q.2) There is a need to renegotiate the Indus Water Treaty of 1960 with Pakistan in the light of present-day challenges including the climate change and global warming, Critically examine.(250 words). Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 20th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 19th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – b