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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 20th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS1 Questions [20th July, 2023] – Day 39

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 39 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –19th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Veer Savarkar International Airport Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the integrated terminal building of Veer Savarkar International Airport, at Port Blair, Andaman &Nicobar. . About Veer Savarkar International Airport It is located 2 km south of Port Blair. It is the main airport of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands of India. In 2002, Port Blair Airport at Andaman and Nicobar’s Island was renamed after Veer Savarkar International Airport. The Airport’s architecture is inspired by nature. It features a shell-shaped architecture that depicts the sea and islands. The airport design was structured keeping in mind the ecological aspect of the island and some of the sustainability features. These include like a double insulated roofing system to reduce heat gain and skylights to provide maximum inlet of abundant natural sunlight during day time to reduce artificial light usage inside the building. It is a civil airport, and its facilities are shared with the Indian Navy. Administration: The terminal is managed by the Airports Authority of India, while the traffic is handled by the Indian Navy. (UPSC CSE: Reforms In Civil Aviation Industry) About Veer Savarkar He was a freedom fighter and politician. Born May 28, 1883. He was born in Maharashtra’s Nashik. Death: February 26, 1966. Savarkar entered the Hindu Mahasabha and popularized Chandranath Basu’s term Hindutva to establish a collective “Hindu” identity as an essence of Bharat (India). He coined the Hindu nationalist ideology of He founded the organizations Abhinav Bharat Society and Free India Society. Abhinav Bharat Society (Young India Society): it was an Indian Independence secret society founded by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar and his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar in The Free India Society: it was formed by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in London in 1906. He organized a youth group named ‘Mitra Mela’ in 1899. He was the president of Hindu Mahasabha from 1937 to 1943. He was the first to acknowledge the mutiny of 1857 as the first struggle for Independence. He wrote the book ‘The History of the War of Indian Independence’. He championed atheism and rationality and disapproved of orthodox Hindu belief. He even dismissed cow worship as superstitious. He created the Aryan Weekly, a handwritten weekly in which he published illuminating articles on patriotism, literature, history, and science. He was sentenced to 50 years in the cellular jail of Andamans for revolting against the Morley-Minto reforms (Indian Councils Act 1909) in 1911. He was a critic of the Indian National Congress and its acceptance of India’s partition and of Mahatma Gandhi. MUST READ: Kushinagar International Airport SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal, designated as the Governor General of India? (2023) The Regulating Act The Pitt’s India Act The Charter Act of 1793 The Charter Act of 1833 Q.2) Consider the following freedom fighters (2023) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The 19th session of the Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA) was held in Rome, Italy. About Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA):- Established in 1983. The Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA) is the only permanent intergovernmental body focused on conserving all types of biodiversity for food and agriculture. Members: The Commission consists of 179 Member States and the European Union. Membership of the Commission is open to all Members of FAO. (UPSC CSE: 42nd Session of FAO Conference) Objective: to promote international policies for the sustainable use and conservation of genetic resources for food and agriculture, while also ensuring that benefits derived from biodiversity are fairly and equitably shared. The Commission offers a unique platform for its members and other stakeholder to promote a world without hunger by fostering the use and development of the whole portfolio of biodiversity important to food security and rural poverty. The CGRFA meets regularly to address policies on genetic resources for food and agriculture.(UPSC CSE: – GM Crops and their regulation) 19th session of the CGRFA Venue: FAO headquarters in Rome, Italy.(UPSC CSE: Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Animal Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (WG AnGR)) Date: from 17 to 21 July 2023. Organized by: Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO). Focus areas: the state of the world’s forest and plant genetic resources, access and benefit-sharing policies, and biotechnologies for the conservation and sustainable use of genetic resources. The Commission will also discuss:- a Framework for Action on Biodiversity for Food and Agriculture. the role of genetic resources for food and agriculture in mitigation of and adaptation to climate change microorganism and invertebrate genetic resources, including pollinator and biological control agents MUST READ: Food Security in India SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: According to the United. Nations ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’, India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year. Statement-II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of the world’s population living in its territory. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) “The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2, 4 and 5 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Gambusia fish Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The Andhra Pradesh government released 10 million Gambusia fish to the water bodies to combat mosquito-borne diseases like malaria and dengue. About Gambusia fish:- Gambusia affinis is a freshwater fish. (UPSC CSE: Puffer Fish) It belongs to the genus Gambusia. Distribution: Gambusia affinis (G affinis) is native to the waters of the southeastern United States. G affinis has a sister species, Gambusia holbrooki (G holbrooki), also known as the eastern mosquito fish. The fish has a high breeding capacity. A single female may produce between 900 and 1,200 offspring during its lifespan. This fish is described as a very hardy fish and can adapt to wide variations in temperature as well as to the chemical and organic content of the water but does not tolerate very high organic pollution. Mosquito Fish:- It is also known as mosquito fish and has been a part of mosquito-control strategies for over a century in various parts of the world, including India. (UPSC CSE: Malaria Vaccine) A single full-grown fish eats about 100 to 300 mosquito larvae per day. Mosquitofish has been part of various malaria control strategies in India since 1928, including the Urban Malaria Scheme. The International Union for Conservation of Nature(IUCN) declared Gambusia one of the 100 worst invasive alien species in the world. Invasive alien species: animals, plants or other organisms that are introduced by humans, either intentionally or accidentally, into places outside of their natural range, negatively impacting native biodiversity, ecosystem services or human economy and well-being. It is declared an invasive alien species in India as well. In India, mosquitofish affected the ecosystem health of the lake after its introduction into the Nainital Lake in the 1990s to control malaria.  MUST READ: Zebrafish SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Invasive Species Specialist group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations? (2023) The International Union for Conservation of Nature The United Nations Environment Programme The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development The World Wide Fund for Nature Q.2) Which one of the following is a filter feeder? (2021) Catfish Octopus Oyster Pelican External commercial borrowings (ECBs) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recent increase in External commercial borrowings (ECBs) signal the revival of private capital expenditure (Cap Ex) . Background:- Agreements for external commercial borrowings (ECBs) signed by Corporate India jumped to a massive $12 billion in the April-June quarter, three times the level in the year-ago period, and as much as 80% of the inflows during the whole of the last financial year. Nearly two-thirds of the ECBs registered in the quarter were for investment activities. About External commercial borrowings (ECBs) IMAGE SOURCE: efinancemanagement.com External commercial borrowing (ECB) is borrowing made in foreign currency by non-resident lenders to Indian borrowers. It is an instrument used in India to facilitate Indian companies to raise money outside the country in foreign currency. The government of India permits Indian corporates to raise money via ECB for the expansion of existing capacity as well as for fresh investments. Implementing Agencies: The DEA (Department of Economic Affairs), Ministry of Finance, along with Reserve Bank of India, monitors and regulates ECB guidelines and policies. (UPSC CSE: RBI relaxed norms to stem rupee slide and to forex inflows) Benefits of ECB:- ECBs provide an opportunity to borrow large volumes of funds. The funds are available for a relatively long term. The cost of funds is usually cheaper from external sources if borrowed from economies with a lower interest rate. For example Indian companies can usually borrow at lower rates from the U.S. and the Eurozone as interest rates are lower there compared to the home country, India. Availability of a larger market can help companies satisfy larger requirements from global players better than what can be achieved domestically. ECB is just a form of a loan and may not be of an equity nature or convertible to equity. Hence, it does not dilute the stake in the company and can be done without giving away control because debtors do not enjoy voting rights. The borrower can diversify the investor base. It provides access to international markets. (UPSC CSE: Hyper globalisation) The economy also enjoys benefits, as the government can direct inflows into the sector and have the potential to grow. Disadvantages of ECB Availability of funds at a cheaper rate may bring in a lax attitude on the company’s side, resulting in excessive borrowing. This eventually results in higher (than requirement) debt on the balance sheet, which may affect many financial ratios adversely. Higher debt on the company’s balance sheet is usually viewed negatively by the rating agencies, resulting in a possible downgrade by rating agencies which eventually might increase the cost of debt. This may also tarnish the company’s image in the market and the market value of the shares too in eventual times. Since the borrowing is foreign currency-denominated, the repayment of the principal and the interest needs to be made in foreign currency, exposing the company to exchange rate risk. MUST READ: Rupee appreciation and depreciation  SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following markets: (2023) Government Bond Market Call Money Market Treasury Bill Market Stock Market How many of the above are included in capital markets? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) Tight monetary policy of the US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs). Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBS. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Gomti River Syllabus Prelims –Geography/Environment and Ecology Context: A 2020 order declaring Gomti a ‘non-perennial river’ have drawn criticism recently. Background:- A three-year-old government order (GO) issued by the irrigation department of the Uttar Pradesh government declaring the Gomti as a “non-perennial river” has drawn flak from water experts and river rights activists. The GO has surfaced recently but was issued on September 3, 2020. About Gomti River:- IMAGE SOURCE: ResearchGate Gomti is a tributary of the Ganga River. (UPSC CSE: Himalayan River System) Origin: It originates near Mainkot, from Gomat Taala Lake also known as Fulhar Jheel in Madhotanda. This is located around 30 kilometers from Pilibhit town in Uttar Pradesh(UP). Drainage and End: The River flows through Sitapur, Lucknow, Barabanki, Sultanpur and Jaunpur before meeting the Ganga at Kaithi, Ghazipur district. (UPSC CSE: Linking Rivers) Ecological Importance of Gomti River:- The River serves as a lifeline for the ecosystem it nurtures. Its waters support a rich biodiversity, providing habitat for various aquatic species, including fish, turtles, and waterfowl. The river basin is also home to a diverse range of flora, including submerged plants, floating vegetation, and riparian trees. The Gomti River plays a crucial role in maintaining the ecological balance and contributing to the overall health of the region. Cultural Significance of Gomti River:- It has deep cultural and historical roots, being associated with ancient tales and legends. It holds great significance in Hindu mythology, as it is believed to be a sacred river that purifies the souls of those who take a dip in its waters. The banks of the river are dotted with numerous ghats, temples, and shrines, attracting pilgrims and tourists alike. Significance for Agriculture:- The fertile lands along the banks of the Gomti River provide excellent agricultural opportunities for the surrounding communities. The river’s waters are extensively used for irrigation, enabling the cultivation of crops such as rice, wheat, sugarcane, and vegetables. The agricultural practices supported by the Gomti River contribute significantly to the local economy and food security.  MUST READ: Cleaning of River Ganga SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture Systems, consider the following statements: (2023) Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate. Biofilters increase phosphorus as a nutrient for fish in water. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? (2022) Cauvery Manjira Pennar Tungabhadra Advance Authorisation Scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) implemented the Advance Authorisation Scheme. Background:- The DGFT has created a user-friendly and searchable database of Ad-hoc Norms fixed in previous years. These norms can be used by any exporter without requiring a Norms Committee review as outlined in the Foreign Trade Policy 2023. The database is hosted on the DGFT Website. About Advance Authorisation Scheme:- It is a type of duty exemption scheme. (UPSC CSE: AAS) Launched: It was introduced by the Government of India under the Foreign Trade Policy 2015-2020. Objective: to make India’s products competitive in the global market. Under this scheme, exemption from the payment of import duties is given to raw materials/inputs required for the manufacture of export products. The eligibility of inputs is determined by Sector-specific Norms Committees based on input-output norms. The quantity of inputs allowed for a given product is based on specific norms defined for that export product, which considers the waste generated in the manufacturing process. DGFT provides a sector-wise list of Standard Input-Output Norms (SION) under which the exporters may choose to apply. Alternatively, exporters may apply for their own ad-hoc norms in cases where the SION does not suit the exporter. Prerequisites for Applying: To apply for an Advance Authorization scheme, an Import-Export Code (IEC) is required. Other prerequisites are mentioned in Chapter 4 of Foreign Trade Policy and Handbook of Procedures. Exemptions under Advance Authorisation Scheme:- Under the Advance Authorization Scheme, the basic customs duty, education cess, social welfare cess, anti-dumping duty, countervailing duty, and safeguard duties are exempt. IGST and compensation cess are also exempted. Eligibility for Advance Authorisation Scheme:- Benefits of DGFT Advance License can be availed of by the manufacturer exporter or merchant exporter with a link to the supporting manufacturer. It is also available to sub-contractors of projects where the name of the sub-contractor appears in the contract, in case of supply to the UN or other aid programs. Payment for such types of contracts must be received in freely convertible foreign exchange. It is issued for physical exports, including exports to SEZs, intermediate supplies, and supply of stores onboard vessels/aircraft, subject to conditions. About Directorate General of Foreign Trade Establishment: 1991. HQ: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Headed by: Director General of Foreign Trade. Objective: promoting India’s exports. Functions of DGCI:- Licensing of imports and exports. Regulate, restrict or prohibit exports and imports. (UPSC CSE: Free Trade Agreements ) Providing a complete database of all exporters and importers in India. It has the authority to prohibit, restrict, and regulate importers and exporters. It plays an advisory role to the Government on Policy measures pertaining to national and international economic scenarios. It is responsible for formulating and implementing the Foreign Trade Policy. (UPSC CSE: New Foreign Trade Policy) It also issues scrips/authorization to exporters and monitors their corresponding obligations. MUST READ: Conditional Market Authorization SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: (2023) It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or the SWIFT system. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: GM mustard Syllabus     Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: A determined battle by environmentalists in the Supreme Court of India against Delhi University’s genetically modified (GM) herbicide-tolerant (HT) mustard is all that stands between GM food and Indian farmers and consumers. About GM crops: GM food involves the editing of genes of a crop in such a way that it incorporates beneficial traits from another crop or organism. This could mean changing the way the plant grows, or making it resistant to a particular disease. Food produced using the edited crop is called GM food. This is done using the tools of genetic engineering. GM crops in India Bt cotton: Bt cotton, the only GM crop that is allowed in India, has two alien genes from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) that allows the crop to develop a protein toxic to the common pest pink bollworm. On the other hand, Bt cotton is derived with the insertion of an additional gene, from another soil bacterium, which allows the plant to resist the common herbicide glyphosate. Bt Brinjal: In Bt brinjal, a gene allows the plant to resist attacks of fruit and shoot borer. In Bt brinjal, a gene permits the plant to resist attacks of fruit and shoot borers. Previously, the government has put on hold the commercial release of genetically modified (GM) mustard due to stiff opposition from anti-GMO activists and NGOs. DMH 11 Mustard: In DMH-11 mustard, developed by Deepak Pental and colleagues in the South Campus of the University of Delhi, genetic modification allows cross-pollination in a crop that self-pollinates in nature. Advantages of GMO crops Potential benefits for agricultural productivity: Better resistance to stress: If crops can be made more resistant to pest outbreaks, weather conditions such as frost, extreme heat or drought, it would reduce the danger of crop failure. More nutritious staple foods: By inserting genes into crops such as rice and wheat, we can increase their food value. For example, genes responsible for producing the precursor of vitamin A have been inserted into rice plants, which have higher levels of vitamin A in their grain. This is called Golden Rice. Potential benefits for the environment: More food from less land: Improved productivity from GMOs might mean that farmers will not have to bring more land into cultivation. Rehabilitation of damaged or less-fertile land: Large areas of cropland in the developing world have become saline due to unsustainable irrigation practices. Genetic modification could produce salt-tolerant varieties. Bioremediation: Rehabilitation of damaged land may also become possible through organisms bred to restore nutrients and soil structure. Longer shelf lives: The genetic modification of fruits and vegetables can make them less likely to spoil in storage or on the way to market. Concerns related to Transgenic Crops: Lack Nutritional Value: GM foods can sometimes lack nutritional value despite their increased production and pest resistance focus. This is because the emphasis is often placed on enhancing certain traits rather than nutritional content. Risks to Ecosystems: GM production can also pose risks to ecosystems and biodiversity. It may disrupt gene flow and harm indigenous varieties, leading to a loss of diversity in the long run. Trigger Allergic Reactions: Genetically modified foods have the potential to trigger allergic reactions since they are biologically altered. This can be problematic for individual’s accustomed to conventional varieties. Endangered Animals: Wildlife is also at risk due to GM crops. For instance, genetically modified plants used for producing plastic or pharmaceuticals can endanger animals like mice or deer that consume crop debris left in fields after harvest. Legal position of genetically modified crops in India In India, the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body that allows for the commercial release of GM crops. In 2002, the GEAC had allowed the commercial release of Bt cotton. Use of the unapproved GM variant can attract a jail term of 5 years and a fine of Rs 1 lakh under the Environmental Protection Act,1986. The Central government had for the first time exempted certain types of genome-edited crops from the stringent regulations applicable on genetically modified or GM crops, paving the way for further R&D on them. The Ministry of Environment and Forests had, in the order, exempted SDN1 and SDN2 genome edited plants from Rules 7-11 of the Environment Protect Act (EPA) for manufacture, use or import or export and storage of hazardous microorganisms or genetically engineered organisms or cells rules-1989. Recently ,the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) issued guidelines easing norms for research into Genetically Modified (GM) crops and circumventing challenges of using foreign genes to change crops profile. Misleading the court In recent hearings in the Supreme Court, to get around the growing evidence of long-term ecological and health risks of HT crops, the government has argued that GM mustard should not be considered HT at all — since the objective for developing it was to improve yields. In fact, a crop that can withstand herbicides is an HT crop. As far as the science of biotechnology and ecology go, there is no doubt that GM mustard is an HT crop. Way Forward: Genetically modified foods can potentially solve many hunger and malnutrition problems in the world, as well as help protect and preserve the environment by increasing yields and reducing reliance upon chemical pesticides and herbicides. However, it is important to proceed with caution to avoid unfavourable consequences for the surroundings and our health, considering that genetic engineering technology is very powerful. Source:   The Hindu India-UAE Relations Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: During Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s recent visit to the UAE, the RBI and its counterpart the Central Bank of the UAE signed two memoranda of understanding (MoUs). While the first established a framework to promote the use of local currencies for cross-border transactions, the other was for interlinking payment systems. India-UAE Bilateral Relations Political and Diplomatic Relations: India and the UAE have established a comprehensive strategic partnership, leading to high-level visits and engagements. This includes the historic visit of the Indian Prime Minister to the UAE in 2015, which marked the beginning of a new strategic partnership. The UAE’s Crown Prince also visited India in 2017. The two countries have institutionalized their political and diplomatic engagements through mechanisms like the UAE-India Strategic Dialogue. India was invited as the Guest of Honour for the sixth World Government Summit. For this, Prime Minister of India paid a State visit to the UAE in February 2018 further enriching the rapport established at the highest political levels between India and the UAE. Modi’s last visit to the UAE was in August 2019, when he received the UAE’s highest award, ‘Order of Zayed’. Trade and Investment: The UAE is India’s third-largest trade partner and second-largest export destination. Bilateral trade reached approximately USD 72 billion in the fiscal year 2021-22. The UAE has made substantial investments in India, with sectors such as construction development, power, air transport, tourism, and metallurgical industries receiving significant investment. The first meeting of the Joint Committee of the India-UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) that took place recently, in which the target of achieving USD 100 billion in bilateral trade by 2030 was set. The CEPA, which was implemented in May 2022, aims to promote economic cooperation and enhance trade relations between India and the UAE. It focuses on expanding non-oil sectors of trade, indicating that the target of USD 100 billion will not include oil trade. To facilitate the implementation of the agreement and address various trade-related issues, several sub-committees and councils will be established. One such sub-committee will specifically handle matters pertaining to services trade. India’s major export items to the UAE are Precious Metals, Stones, Gems & Jewellery, Minerals & Refined Petroleum Products, Food Items (Cereals, Sugar, Fruits & Vegetables, Tea, Meat, and Seafood), Textiles (Garments, Apparel, Synthetic fiber, Cotton, Yarn) and Engineering & Machinery Products and Chemicals. India’s major import items from the UAE are Petroleum and Petroleum Products, Precious Metals, Stones, Gems & Jewellery, Minerals, Chemicals, Wood & Wood Products. Defence and Security Cooperation: Bilateral Defence Interaction between India and UAE has been steadily growing in accordance with other aspects of the bilateral relationship. There have been regular high level and functional level exchanges between the two countries. The ships of the Navies of both countries have regularly made port calls enhancing bilateral defence co-operation. India and UAE signed a comprehensive strategic partnership in 2017, and hold annual defence dialogues. More recently, UAE is a key part of the Indian Ocean Region dialogue. Both sides take part in military exercises with each other and there have been several military chiefs’ visits. The maiden bilateral naval exercise ‘Gulf Star 1′ took place in March 2018. ‘Desert Eagle II’, a ten-day air combat exercise, was held between the air forces of India and UAE. Space Cooperation Space is a new arena in which India and the UAE have collaborated through the work of the UAE Space Agency (UAESA) and the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). Space cooperation between India and the UAE gained quick momentum during Prime Minister Modi’s visit to the Emirates in 2015. Together, the two space agencies have developed the nano-satellite, Nayif-1, which was launched from the Satish Dhavan Space Centre, Sriharikota in India. The two countries are likely to work together on Emirates’ ‘Red planet Mission’. Indian Community: The Indian expatriate community of approximately 4 million is the largest ethnic community in UAE constituting roughly about 35% of the country’s population. Challenges in India-UAE Relations: Slow implementation of investments: The establishment of a $75 billion investment fund by the UAE for infrastructure projects in India, announced in 2015, has faced delays in finalizing the modalities and governance structure. This slow implementation hampers the realization of investment commitments. Lack of clarity and transparency: Indian companies operating in the UAE often face challenges due to a lack of clarity in commercial regulations and labor laws. Additionally, a lack of transparency on the part of Emirati businesses adds to the difficulties faced by Indian companies. Issues concerning the Indian diaspora: Indian migrants in the UAE face cumbersome and strict regulations, particularly in relation to Emirati employers. Problems such as favouritism towards workers of other nationalities and a slight drop in remittances inflow from the UAE to India have been observed. Influence of the Pakistan factor: Historical and civilizational ties between India and the Gulf region are strained due to the influence of the Pakistan factor. Political relations are affected by tensions between India and Pakistan, which impact India’s relations with countries in the region. Balancing geopolitics: India’s relations with Iran and the UAE’s relations with China create a dynamic where geopolitical considerations can sometimes challenge the bilateral relationship between India and the UAE. Energy pricing disagreements: As an OPEC country, the UAE has a different perspective on energy pricing compared to India, a major oil consumer. Disagreements over energy pricing, including India’s call for a cap on prices, have led to heated exchanges between oil ministers in the past. Way Forward: The UAE today is India’s closest partner in the Arab world and fortunately, there is enough resilience in bilateral ties to withstand the recent convulsions. It continue to forge closer partnership in these areas, building on their close and friendly relations and historical people-to-people connect. India-UAE has a strong energy partnership, which is now acquiring a new focus on renewable energy. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: India is a party to the Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture’s (CGRFA). Statement-II: Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture’s (CGRFA) membership is open to all Members of FAO. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: External commercial borrowings (ECB) provide an opportunity to borrow large volumes of funds. Statement-II: The funds are available for a relatively long term. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following pairs:                    River                                              Origin Son:                                            Amarkantak Hills, Madhya Pradesh Gomti:                                       Gomat Taal, Uttarakhand Ghaggar:                                   Shivalik Hills, Himachal Pradesh How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What are the current issues related to GM crops in India? What are your views on adoption of GM technologies? Substantiate. (250 words) Q.2) India and UAE are entering a golden era of economic and trade cooperation with the recent agreements signed by both the sides. Discuss (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 19th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 18th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 19th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS1 Questions [19th July, 2023] – Day 38

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 38 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Export Preparedness Index 2022 report Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, NITI Aayog released the Export Preparedness Index 2022 report. About Export Preparedness Index 2022 report:- Released by: Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog. This is the third edition of the Export Preparedness Index (EPI). EPI is a comprehensive tool which measures the export preparedness of the States and UTs in India. (UPSC CSE: Export Preparedness Index 2021) Objectives of the report:– To present a comprehensive picture of a state’s and UT’s export preparedness. To highlight the achievements of states/UTs and encourage peer learning among the states/UTs. To uphold the spirit of competitive federalism. Assessment Process:- EPI assess the performance of the States and UTs across four pillars – Policy, Business Ecosystem, Export Ecosystem, and Export Performance. Each pillar is composed of sub-pillars, which in turn capture a state’s performance using relevant indicators. Policy Pillar It evaluates states’ and UTs’ performance based on its adoption of export-related policy ecosystem at a state and district level as well as the institutional framework surrounding the ecosystem. Significance of the report:- It gives an overview of the country’s sector-specific export performance. It highlights the need to develop our districts as export hubs in the country and undertakes a district-level analysis of merchandise exports in the country. The index undertakes a comprehensive analysis of States and UTs across export-related parameters in order to identify their strengths and weaknesses. Key Highlights of Export Preparedness Index 2022 report:- The report discusses India’s export performance amid the prevailing global trade context in FY22. (UPSC CSE: Export Preparedness Index 2020) The coastal states have performed well. Top performers: Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Gujarat. The higher average of coastal states represents their better preparedness and higher contribution to national export. 73 per cent of districts in the country have an export action plan, and over 99 per cent are covered under the One District One Product scheme. One District One Product scheme: The initiative aims to select, brand, and promote at least One Product from each District (One District – One Product) of the country for enabling holistic socioeconomic growth across all regions. (UPSC CSE: One District One Product(ODOP)) It was launched by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries. 100 districts in the country are responsible for nearly 87 per cent of the country’s export. Lack of adequate transport connectivity: the report mentions that the absence of air connectivity hampers the movement of goods across regions especially in the landlocked states. Recommendations of the report:- For the states which are lagging in terms of export commission, the central government should extend support to enable them to build the necessary ecosystem to facilitate their export. Indian states need to invest in research and development for developing market-specific products and improving product quality. MUST READ: India’s Agricultural and processed food products exports SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: India accounts for 3·2% of the global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to (2023) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms · an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market. Employees’ State Insurance Scheme (ESIC) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: As per the recent data of the Employees’ State Insurance Scheme (ESIC), more than 20 lakh new employees enrolled in ESI Scheme in May. About Employees’ State Insurance Scheme (ESIC):- The Employees’ State Insurance Scheme (ESI)is an integrated measure of social Insurance embodied in the Employees’ State Insurance Act, of 1948. (UPSC CSE: ESIC) Implementing Agency: Employees’ State Insurance Corporation. Applicability of ESI Scheme:- It applies to factories and other establishments Road Transport, Hotels, Restaurants, Cinemas, Newspaper, Shops, and Educational/Medical Institutions wherein 10 or more persons are employed. However, in some States threshold limit for coverage of establishments is still Beneficiary Selection:- Employees of the aforesaid categories of factories and establishments, drawing wages up to Rs.15,000/- a month, are entitled to social security cover under the ESI Act. ESI Corporation has also decided to enhance the wage ceiling for coverage of employees under the ESI Act from Rs.15,000/- to Rs.21,000. Coverage of the ESI Scheme:- 1952: In the beginning, the ESI Scheme was implemented at just two industrial centers in the country, namely Kanpur and Delhi Funding of ESI Scheme:- The Employees’ State Insurance Scheme (ESI Scheme) is financed by contributions from employers and employees. The rate of contribution by employer is 3.25% of the wages payable to employees. The employees’ contribution is at the rate of 75% of the wages payable to an employee. Employees’ State Insurance Corporation Establishment: 1952. It is a state-run organization set up under the Employee State Insurance Act of 1948. Objective: It is responsible for overseeing the ESI plan. Ministry: The Ministry of Labour & Employment. HQ: New Delhi. Function: It provides socio-economic protection to the worker population and immediate dependent or family covered under the ESI scheme. MUST READ: Finding Unemployment Benefits SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments, and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (2022) Central Statistics Office Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade Labour Bureau National Technical Manpower Information System Q.2)  Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, ‘medium enterprises are those with investments in plant and machinery between (‘ 15 crores and ’25 crore). All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Foreign Minister S. Jaishanker recently attended the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) retreat in Bangkok. About the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC):- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA Establishment:1997. (UPSC CSE: BIMSTEC) HQ: Dhaka, Bangladesh. It is a regional organization that was established with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration. Initially known as BIST-EC (Bangladesh-India-Sri Lanka-Thailand Economic Cooperation). 1997: It was renamed ‘BIMST-EC’, following the inclusion of 2004: Bhutan and Nepal were admitted. Members: India, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Thailand, Nepal and Sri Lanka. The BIMSTEC Charter was signed and adopted during the ‘Fifth BIMSTEC Summit’ held in the virtual format in Colombo, Sri Lanka, in 2022. Chairmanship-the Chairmanship of BIMSTEC rotates according to the alphabetical order of the English names of the Member States. India hosted the first meeting of Governing Board of BIMSTEC Energy Centre in Bengaluru in 2023. Objectives of BIMSTEC:- To revive the Connectivity of the Bay of Bengal region. To revive the focus on Blue Economy. Bridge between two sub-regions: BIMSTEC not only connects South and South-East Asia but also the ecologies of the Great Himalayas and the Bay of Bengal.  Significance of BIMSTEC:- Major Shipping route: A fourth of the world’s traded goods cross the Bay of Bengal every year. (UPSC CSE: BIMSTEC & Maritime Protection) Huge Market: BIMSTEC grouping is home to around 1.5 billion people which constitute around 22% of the global population. High Growth Potential: With a combined gross domestic product (GDP) of 3.8 trillion economy, BIMSTEC member States have been able to sustain an average 6.5% economic growth trajectory in the recent past. MUST READ: SAARC SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union makes the countries of the European Union share their infrastructure facilities enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mekong Ganga Cooperation (MGC) Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently, Foreign minister of India co-chaired the 12th Mekong Ganga Cooperation (MGC) meeting in Bangkok along with Foreign Minister of Laos. Background:- In his opening remarks at the 12th Mekong Ganga Cooperation (MGC) Mechanism meeting, the Foreign Minister said the lower Mekong region holds immense significance for India both in a historic sense and a contemporary one. About Mekong Ganga Cooperation (MGC):- IMAGE SOURCE: buddyconcept.in Launched: 2000. HQ: New Delhi. Naming: The organization takes its name from the Ganga and the Mekong, two large rivers in the region. The grouping was initially called Ganga Suvarnabhumi Programme (GMSP). Objective: Both the Ganga and the Mekong are civilizational rivers, and the MGC initiative aims to facilitate closer contact among the people inhabiting these two major river basins. Members: India and five ASEAN countries, namely, Cambodia, Lao PDR, Myanmar, Thailand, and Vietnam Chairmanship: The MGC meetings are co-chaired alternatively every year between India and one of the 5 Mekong countries. Areas of Cooperation:- Four foundational areas of cooperation: tourism, culture, education, and transport & communication. It has further expanded to include new areas like health and traditional medicine, agriculture and allied sectors, small and medium enterprises, water resources management, science and technology, skill development, and capacity building. Ministerial meeting:- 1st MGC Ministerial meeting: Vientiane,2000. 12th MGC Ministerial meeting: Thailand, 2023. (UPSC CSE: BRICS – 14th Summit) MUST READ: India-Vietnam relations SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/ participants? (2015) Bangladesh Cambodia China Myanmar Thailand Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 3 1, 2 and 5 Ramgarh Visdhari Reserve Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a Tigress was spotted with three cubs in Ramgarh Visdhari Reserve (RVTR). About Ramgarh Visdhari Reserve:- IMAGE SOURCE: firstpost.com Location: Bundi, Rajasthan. 1982: The area was declared a sanctuary 2022: Became a tiger reserve. It is Rajasthan’s fourth tiger reserve after Ranthambore, Sariska and Mukundra. (UPSC CSE: Indravati Tiger Reserve) Vegetation: It comprises hilly dry deciduous forests on Vindhyan formations. Flora: Mango, Dhok, Khair and Salar. Fauna: It is home to a large number of wild animals such as the Indian Wolf, leopard, striped hyena, sloth bear, golden jackal, chinkara, nilgai and fox. Important Historical and cultural sites: Bhimlat, Ramgarh Palace, etc. Significance of the creation of Ramgarh Vishdhari tiger reserve:- While Ramgarh doesn’t have a high tiger population, it plays a critical role in the movement of tigers. The newly created tiger reserve will connect the Ranthambore Tiger Reserve in Sawai Madhopur district in the northeast with the Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve in the Kota district on the southern side. (UPSC CSE: Valmiki Tiger Reserve) This reserve will also help control overpopulation and the consequent effect of overcrowding in Ranthambore. MUST READ: Cheetahs and Others: know the 7 big cats SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In which one of the following states is Pakhui wildlife sanctuary located? (2018) Arunachal Pradesh Manipur Meghalaya Nagaland Hwasong-18 Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, North Korea tested its latest intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) named Hwasong-18. About Hwasong-18:- Developed by: Democratic People’s Republic of Korea (DPRK) or North Korea. Tested in It is a type of solid-fuel intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) ICBM: a long-range (greater than 5,500 km or 3,500 miles) ballistic missile typically designed for nuclear weapons delivery, that is, delivering one or more nuclear warheads. It is North Korea’s first ICBM to use solid fuel. Solid propellants can fire faster and accelerate more quickly at liftoff. It allows for faster launches. It is part of North Korea’s missile program and is believed to have a range capable of reaching targets beyond the Korean Peninsula. Significance of the launch:- The development and potential deployment of the Hwasong-18 missile by North Korea raises concerns among the international community due to its long-range capability and the potential threat it poses to regional and global security. North Korea’s state media claimed that the latest test fire was conducted according to the “strategic judgement of the Central Military Commission of the Workers’ Party of Korea, at a grave period when the military security situation on the Korean peninsula. (UPSC CSE: Tension in Korean Peninsula) It also showed suspicion about the Washington Declaration, an agreement that was signed recently between US President Biden and South Korea’s President Yoon Suk-yeol during a bilateral meeting to mark 70 years of the US-South Korea alliance to be a cause of future nuclear engagement against it. North Korea. The country’s media thus claims that the test was conducted as part of the efforts to bolster the legitimate right to self-defense to reliably defend the security of the state and regional peace. MUST READ: North and South Korea found guilty of violating armistice agreements SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2023) Bulgaria Czech Republic Hungary Latvia Lithuania Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Mains: Lightning as a ‘Natural Disaster’ Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Disaster Management) Context: The Union government is not in favour of declaring lightning a natural disaster as deaths caused by it can be prevented by making people aware of safety steps. About Lightning: It is the natural process of “an electrical discharge of very little duration and high voltage between a cloud and the ground or within a cloud,” accompanied by a bright flash, a loud sound, and occasionally thunderstorms. Cloud-to-ground (CG) lightning is dangerous because it can electrocute people due to its high electric voltage and current. Inter- or intra-cloud lightning is visible and safe. Process of Lightning: Lightning is caused by a difference in electrical charge between the top and bottom of a cloud, which generates a huge current of electricity. Water vapor in the cloud condenses and rises, generating heat and pushing water molecules further up until they become ice crystals. Collisions between the ice crystals trigger the release of electrons, leading to a chain reaction that results in a positively charged top layer and negatively charged middle layer in the cloud. When the difference in charge becomes large enough, a huge current of electricity flows between the layers, producing heat that causes the air column to expand and produce shock waves that create thunder sounds. Lightening cases in India: India is among only five countries in the world that has an early warning system for lightning. The forecast is available from five days to up to three hours. However, lightning strikes are not currently covered under the State Disaster Response Fund, which means that states have to use their own resources to respond to lightning-related disasters. National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) data show that 2,880 people died in lightning strikes in 2021. The deaths made up 40% of all accidental deaths caused by forces of nature. The frequency of lightning was the highest in northeastern States and in West Bengal, Sikkim, Jharkhand, Odisha and Bihar. However, the number of deaths is higher in the central Indian States of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh and Odisha. Demands for covering it as natural disaster: The States such as Bihar and West Bengal have been demanding that lightning deaths be covered as a natural disaster. Significance: Once this is notified, the victims will be entitled to compensation from the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF). Cyclone, drought, earthquake, fire, flood, tsunami, hailstorm, landslip, avalanche, cloudburst, pest attack, frost and cold wave are now considered disasters under the SDRF. Major Causes of lightning: Lightning is an electrical discharge caused by imbalances between storm clouds and the ground, or within the clouds themselves. During a storm, colliding particles of rain, ice, or snow inside storm clouds increase the imbalance between storm clouds and the ground, and often negatively charge the lower reaches of storm clouds. Objects on the ground, like steeples, trees, and the Earth itself, become positively charged creating an imbalance that nature seeks to remedy by passing current between the two charges. This heat causes surrounding air to rapidly expand and vibrate, which creates the pealing thunder heard a short time after seeing a lightning flash. When the positive and negative charges grow large enough, a giant spark – lightning – occurs between the two charges within the cloud. Most lightning happens inside a cloud, but sometimes it happens between the cloud and the ground. A build-up of positive charge builds up on the ground beneath the cloud, attracted to the negative charge in the bottom of the cloud and the ground’s positive charge concentrates around anything that sticks up – trees, lightning conductors and even people. The positive charge from the ground connects with the negative charge from the clouds and a spark of lightning strikes. Impacts of lightning: Impact on rural areas: Mainly, rural and forest areas are the most vulnerable due to lighting because of the presence of water bodies and tall trees and almost 96 percent of deaths occurred in rural areas due to lightning compared to the urban area. Regarding deaths due to lightning, the population in rural areas is more vulnerable than in urban areas. Impact on farmers: Frequent lightning strikes adversely affect small and marginal farmers. Around 77 percent of farmers are killed due to lightning as they work in agricultural fields during the Kharif cropping season in the monsoon period. Impact on tribal population: The Annual Lightning Report 2020-2021 has confirmed that 60-70 percent of deaths occurred in tribal populations due to lightning in Jharkhand, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, West Bengal, and other states. Way Forward Early Warning Systems: To warn people of impending thunderstorms and lightning strikes, India should invest in early warning systems. Weather radar, lightning detection networks, and smartphone applications are a few examples of these systems. Lightning Safety Measures: It is important to inform India’s rural communities about quick and easy lightning safety precautions. This can involve putting lightning rods on homes, staying indoors during thunderstorms, and taking cover in secure structures. Research and Development: To better understand lightning and discover creative ways to lower the risk, the Indian government should support research and development projects. Source: Indian Express Synthetic Biology Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: A new field of science has been emerging called synthetic biology. About Synthetic Biology: Source:    cell.com Synthetic biology refers to the science of using genetic sequencing, editing, and modification to create unnatural organisms or organic molecules that can function in living systems. Synthetic biology enables scientists to design and synthesize new sequences of DNA from scratch. The term ‘synthetic biology’ was first used by Barbara Hobomin in 1980, to describe bacteria that had been genetically engineered using recombinant DNA technology. Synthetic biology was initially synonymous with ‘bioengineering’. In 2000, the term ‘synthetic biology’ was again introduced by Eric Kool and other speakers at the annual meeting of the American Chemical Society in San Francisco. Applications of Synthetic Biology: Standardised Biological Parts: identify and categorize standardized genomic parts that can be used (and synthesized quickly) to build new biological systems. Applied Protein Design: Redesign existing biological parts and expand the set of natural protein functions for new processes. For e.g., Modified rice to produce beta-carotene (a nutrient usually associated with carrots), that prevents Vitamin A deficiency. Natural Product Synthesis: Engineer microbes to produce all of the necessary enzymes and biological functions to perform complex multistep production of natural products. For e.g., Microorganisms harnessed for bioremediation (use of living microorganisms to degrade environmental contaminants into less toxic forms) to clean pollutants from water, soil and air. Synthetic Genomics: Design and construct a ‘simple’ genome for a natural bacterium. For e.g., Yeast engineered to produce rose oil as an eco-friendly and sustainable substitute for real roses that perfumers use to make luxury scents. Concerns related to the synthetic biology Economic concerns: It can create a huge surge in the economy causing a shift towards biotechnology-based economies. This will mostly affect the rural economy and low-income tropical countries. Natural products are usually grown and harvested in low-income countries and this could be displaced by advancements in synthetic biology. Environmental concerns: When a new species is created or when a species is intensely modified, the activity of species and their coexistence with other organisms is mostly unpredictable. Ethical Concerns: The scientists would go in and edit the genes of human embryos, removing genetic material that codes for harmful or fatal diseases, creating genetically modified humans, and genetically engineering humans could accidentally give rise to new social inequalities. Regulation: Robust and independent regulation is key; the public did not trust a voluntary or self-regulation system. International co-ordination and regulation to control technology development in global markets is a major challenge. Indian regulatory system related to synthetic biology: Drugs and Cosmetics Rules – 1988, Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act, 2001, Biological Diversity Act, 2002 Food Safety and Standards Act 2006 Way Forward: Synthetic Biology offers innovative approaches for engineering new biological systems or re-designing existing ones for useful purposes. To achieve the UN Sustainable Development Goals, there is a need to think innovatively and synthetic biology could full fill the SDG target. The need of the hour is to ecological balance and cut down pollution and plastic waste from our industrial processes and day-to-day activities. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Employees’ State Insurance Scheme (ESI) covers maternity and disability benefits. Statement-II: The scheme is financed by contributions from employers and employees. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Ramgarh Visdhari Reserve (RVTR) is the third Tiger reserve in Rajasthan. Statement-II: Its vegetation comprises hilly dry deciduous forests on Vindhyan formations. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following pairs: Declaration                           International Grouping Fortaleza Declaration:             BRICS Vientiane Declaration:            BIMSTEC Bangkok Declaration:              ASEAN How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Synthetic biology had been emerging as an advanced technology at the heart of the bio economy, capable of delivering new solutions to global healthcare, agriculture, manufacturing, and environment. In this context, critically evaluate the potential benefits associated challenges.  (250 Words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 18th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 17th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS1 Questions [18th July, 2023] – Day 37

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 37 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) PM-MITRA Syllabus Prelims –Government Schemes Context: In a recent tweet, Prime Minister Narendra Modi said that the PM-MITRA mega textile parks will bolster productivity, foster innovation and generate many employment opportunities. About PM-MITRA:- IMAGE SOURCE: yojanapandit.com Launched: 2021. The setting up of 7 PM MITRA Parks was announced in the Union Budget for 2021-22 and later approved by the Central Government. (UPSC CSE: PM MITRA) Ministry: Ministry of Textiles Objective: It aspires to fulfil the vision of building an Aatmanirbhar Bharat and to position India strongly on the Global textiles map. Key Features of PM MITRA:- The PM MITRA scheme is inspired by the 5F vision – Farm to Fibre to Factory to Fashion to Foreign. PM MITRA Parks will be developed by a Special Purpose Vehicle which will be owned by the State Government and Government of India in a Public Private Partnership (PPP) Mode. (UPSC CSE: PM MITRA Parks) The Park will have:- Core Infrastructure: Incubation Centre & Plug & Play facility, Developed Factory Sites, Roads, Power, Water and Waste Water system, Common Processing House & CETP and other related facilities e.g. Design Centre, Testing Centers etc. Support Infrastructure: Workers’ hostels & housing, Logistics Park, warehousing, medical, training & skill development facilities. Competitiveness Incentive Support (CIS) of ₹300 Crore will also be provided to each PM MITRA park for the early establishment of textiles manufacturing units in PM MITRA Park. Advantages of PM MITRA:- PM MITRA Parks aim to have world-class industrial infrastructure. They will attract cutting-edge technology and boost FDI and local investment in the textiles sector. The Parks offer an opportunity to create an integrated textiles value chain right from spinning, weaving, processing/dyeing and printing to garment manufacturing at 1 location. Integrated Textile Value chain at 1 location will reduce the logistics cost of the Industry. Intended to generate 1 lakh direct and 2 lakh indirect employment per park. 7 Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel (PM MITRA) Parks are aimed at helping India to achieve the United Nations Sustainable Development Goal 9: “Build resilient infrastructure, promote sustainable industrialization and foster innovation”. MUST READ: Textile Industry in India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (2022) Central Statistics Office Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade Labour Bureau National Technical Manpower Information System Bhoomi Samman 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: As per recent announcements, President Droupadi Murmu will present Bhoomi Samman awards in New Delhi. Background:- Rural Development and Panchayati Raj Minister stated this event is extremely significant for Revenue and Registration functionaries of the State, who would receive the “Bhoomi Samman” for the first time in the last 75 years for their outstanding performance. He further said that the “Bhoomi Samman” Scheme is a fine example of Centre-State cooperative federalism based on trust and partnership. About Bhoomi Samman 2023:- Launched: 2023. Presented by: President of India. Presented at: Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Rural Development. Selection Process:- The grading has been done on the basis of the performance of Districts as reflected in the Management Information System (MIS) of the Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP) and as reported by the State/UT Governments. (UPSC CSE: SVAMITVA Scheme) Platinum Grading is given to the Districts which have completed saturation i.e. 100% targets in the respective core components of DILRMP. (UPSC CSE: Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) scheme) Nine State Secretaries and 68 District Collectors of the various Districts will be presented with “Bhoomi Samman” recognizing their efforts in achieving outstanding performances.  MUST READ: Revised Rural Area Development Plan Formulation and Implementation (RADPFI) Guidelines SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: India accounts for 3·2% of the global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Local Currency Settlement (LCS) system Syllabus Prelims –International Relations/Economy Context: Recently, India and UAE signed a historic Memorandum of Understanding on Local Currency Settlement (LCS) system. Background:- The agreement was signed between the Reserve Bank of India and the Central Bank of the UAE. Objective: to revolutionize cross-border transactions between the two nations. About Local Currency Settlement (LCS) system:- IMAGE SOURCE: blogspot.com The Local Currency Settlement (LCS) system enables exporters and importers to invoice and pay in their respective domestic currencies. The LCS system between India and UAE allows for the use of the Indian Rupee and UAE Dirham in bilateral trade. It is India’s first-ever LCS arrangement. This innovative system is expected to have a transformative impact on transaction costs and processing time. It is anticipated to have a ripple effect on global economic engagements, encouraging the use of local currencies and fostering greater financial independence. It will increase the reliance on local currencies. The LCS system, will provide a seamless and efficient mechanism for cross-border transactions. (UPSC CSE: India-UAE and FTA) It will reduce dependence on international currencies and further strengthen economic cooperation. It will enable the use of surplus balances in local currencies for investment in various local currency assets, such as corporate bonds, government securities, and equity markets, creating new avenues for growth and collaboration. It will amplify the preferential terms already established by the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA), bringing new opportunities for trade and investment. CEPA: a free trade agreement between two countries which covers negotiation on the trade in services and investment, and provides for an institutional mechanism to encourage and improve trade between the two countries. (UPSC CSE: CEPA between India and the UAE) This arrangement would also promote investments and remittances. MUST READ: India-UAE relations SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union makes the countries of the European Union share their infrastructure facilities enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only· two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one· of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Measles Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recent reports suggest that London is at risk of a major measles outbreak. Background:- Data revealed that there has been a steady rise in measles cases this year which indicates a resurgence of the illness in London. About Measles:- IMAGE SOURCE: KVAL News It is a highly contagious airborne disease. (UPSC CSE: Measles) Caused by: a virus in the paramyxovirus family. Transmission: it is normally passed through direct contact and the air. The virus infects the respiratory tract, and then spreads throughout the body, causing severe disease, complications and even death. Measles is a human disease and is not known to occur in animals. Measles vaccine introduction: 1963. Symptoms of measles:- Measles signs and symptoms appear around 10 to 14 days after exposure to the virus. These include:- Fever Dry cough Runny nose Sore throat Inflamed eyes (conjunctivitis) Tiny white spots with bluish-white centers on a red background found inside the mouth on the inner lining of the cheek — also called Koplik’s spots Risk factors for measles:- Being unvaccinated. Traveling internationally. Having a vitamin A deficiency. Treatment for measles:- No specific antiviral treatment exists for measles. Prevention for measles:- Vaccine: The vaccine for the diseases is provided in the form of measles-rubella (MR), measles-mumps-rubella (MMR), or measles-mumps-rubella-varicella (MMRV) combination. Routine measles vaccination for children, combined with mass immunization campaigns in countries with low routine coverage, are key public health strategies to reduce global measles deaths. (UPSC CSE: India’s plan to eradicate measles, rubella) WHO recommends immunization for all susceptible children and adults for whom measles vaccination is not contraindicated. MUST READ: Ni-kshay Mitra SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care. Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes. Common cold is sometimes caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Sudan conflicts Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recent conflicts in Blue Nile or Darfur regions of Sudan has led to nationwide displacement. Background:- Some 2,231,523 internal displacements have been recorded in Sudan (as of June 28, 2023), since conflict erupted in one of Africa’s biggest countries on April 15, 2023. About Sudan conflicts:- IMAGE SOURCE: countryreports.org The conflict in April 2023 is a power struggle between the two major factions of Sudan, which has led to the outbreak of violence. The ongoing struggle is between the paramilitaries of the Rapid Support Forces (RSF) and the Sudanese military forces. Reason for conflict:– 2019: The conflict in Sudan has its roots in the overthrowing of long-serving President Omar al-Bashir by military generals in April 2019, following widespread protests. 2021: The military overthrew the transitional government led by Abdalla Hamdok in October 2021, with Burhan becoming the de-facto leader of the country and Dagalo his second-in-command. The current fight is due to the RSF supporting the former warlord Gen Mohamed Hamdan Dagalo, also known as Hemedti, while the Sudanese military forces supporting Gen Abdel Fattah al-Burhan, who is the de facto ruler of the nation. Current Impact of Conflict:- It has resulted in millions of internal and cross-border displacements. Fighting initially took place in cities across Northern and Khartoum states, later spreading across the Darfur and Kordofan states. (UPSC CSE: Sudan’s Darfur region) Khartoum state has been experiencing the highest levels of internal displacement. India and Sudan conflict:- There are about 2,800 Indian nationals in Sudan, and there is also a settled Indian community of about 1,200 in the country. India began Operation Kaveri in 2023. (UPSC CSE: Indian Naval Ship Airavat enters Port Sudan under Mission Sagar – II) Operation Kaveri: a codename for India’s evacuation effort to bring back its citizens stranded in Sudan amid intense fighting between the army and a rival paramilitary force there. The operation involves the deployment of the Indian Navy’s INS Sumedha, a stealth offshore patrol vessel, and two Indian Air Force C-130J special operations aircraft on standby in Jeddah. MUST READ: Sudan and Israel Agree to Normalise Relations SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries have been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in the news in the recent past for its very severe famine? (2023) Angola Costa Rica Ecuador Somalia Q.2) Consider the following countries: (2023) Bulgaria Czech Republic Hungary Latvia Lithuania Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? Only two Only three Only four Only five Mains: Vector-borne Diseases Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Union health ministry has sounded the alarm on a vector-borne disease outbreak with record rainfall in North India. About Vectors: Vectors are living organisms that can transmit infectious pathogens between humans, or from animals to humans. Many of these vectors are bloodsucking insects, which ingest disease-producing microorganisms during a blood meal from an infected host (human or animal) and later transmit it into a new host, after the pathogen has replicated. About Vector-borne diseases: They are human illnesses caused by parasites, viruses and bacteria that are transmitted by vectors. They are of six types (Malaria, Dengue, Chikungunya, Japanese Encephalitis, Lymphatic Filariasis, Kala-Azar). They are seasonal and spreads mainly during monsoon and post-monsoon period generally. Vector-borne diseases in India: Vector-borne diseases are human illnesses caused by parasites, viruses and bacteria that are transmitted by vectors. The burden of these diseases is highest in tropical and subtropical areas, and they disproportionately affect the poorest populations. Since 2014, major outbreaks of dengue, malaria, chikungunya, yellow fever and Zika have afflicted populations, claimed lives, and overwhelmed health systems in many countries. Other diseases such as Chikungunya, leishmaniasis and lymphatic filariasis cause chronic suffering, life-long morbidity, disability and occasional stigmatisation. Challenges: Changing climatic conditions, particularly temperature and moisture variations following events such as extreme rainfall in some places and drought in others, will lead to a surge in the spread of vector-borne and infectious diseases across India, say scientists. As concerns mount over the recent increase in respiratory viral infections, including H2N3, adenoviruses and swine flu, in many parts of India. The prospect of climate change leading to an increased burden with the spread of diseases such as dengue, chikungunya and malaria looms large. Global Vector Control Response (GVCR) 2017–2030 by WHO: The “Global Vector Control Response (GVCR) 2017–2030” was approved by the World Health Assembly in 2017. It provides strategic guidance to countries and development partners for urgent strengthening of vector control as a fundamental approach to preventing disease and responding to outbreaks. To achieve this a re-alignment of vector control programmes is required, supported by increased technical capacity, improved infrastructure, strengthened monitoring and surveillance systems, and greater community mobilization. India’s Efforts: National Anti – Malaria Programme (NAMP) At the time of independence malaria was contributing 75 million cases with 0.8 million deaths every year prior to the launching of National Malaria Control Programme in 1953. A countrywide comprehensive programme to control malaria was recommended in 1946 by the Bhore committee report that was endorsed by the Planning Commission in 1951. The national programme against malaria has a long history since that time. In April 1953, Govt. of India launched a National Malaria Control Programme (NMCP). Kala -Azar Control Programme Kala-azar or visceral leishmaniasis (VL) is a chronic disease caused by an intracellular protozoan (Leishmania species) and transmitted to man by bite of female phlebotomus sand fly. Currently, it is a main problem in Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal and some parts of Uttar Pradesh. In view of the growing problem, planned control measures were initiated to control kala-azar. National Filaria Control Programme Bancroftian filariasis caused by Wuchereria bancrofti, which is transmitted to man by the bites of infected mosquitoes – Culex, Anopheles, Mansonia and Aedes. Lymphatia filaria is prevalent in 18 states and union territories. Bancroftian filariasis is widely distributed while brugian filariasis caused by Brugia malayi is restricted to seven states – UP, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Orissa, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Gujarat. The National Filaria Control Programme was launched in 1955. The activities were mainly confined to urban areas. However, the programme has been extended to rural areas since 1994. Japanese Encephalitis Control Programme Japanese encephalitis (JE) is a zoonotic disease and caused by an arbovirus, group B (Flavivirus) and transmitted by Culex mosquitoes. This disease has been reported from 26 states and UTs since 1978, only 15 states are reporting JE regularly. The case fatality in India is 35%, which can be reduced by early detection, immediate referral to hospital and proper medical and nursing care. The total population at risk is estimated 160 million. The most disturbing feature of JE has been the regular occurrence of outbreak in different parts of the country. of India has constituted a Task Force at National Level, which is in operation and reviews the JE situations and its control strategies from time to time. However, Directorate of National Anti-Malaria Programme is monitoring JE situation in the country. Dengue and Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever Dengue Fever and Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever (DHF) are acute fevers caused by four antigenically related but distinct dengue virus serotypes (DEN 1,2,3 and 4) transmitted by the infected mosquitoes, Aedes aegypti. Dengue outbreaks have been reported from urban areas from all states. All the four serotypes of dengue virus (1, 2, 3 and 4) exist in India. The Vector Aedes Aegypti breed in peridomestic fresh water collections and is found in both urban and rural areas. Way Forward: As Vector Borne disease is becoming a public health threat, it becomes necessary for a country to reduce its GHG Emissions as Climate change proves to be a major driver behind the expansion of such vectors. Modelling future scenarios using state-of-the-art techniques that allow predictive future disease patterns or hotspots can be a useful tool to aid decision-makers in planning suitable and timely interventions. Source:    Indian Express Roiling resurgence Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: The latest Consumer Price Index data showing a resurgence in retail inflation proves exactly why the RBI’s monetary authorities have reiterated the need to keep the policy approach firmly tilted towards ensuring price stability. Consumer Price Index (CPI): The Consumer Price Index (CPI) in India measures the average change in prices of a fixed basket of goods and services consumed by households over time. It measures the Inflation rate in India and is commonly used by policymakers, economists, and market analysts to monitor price changes and evaluate the effectiveness of Monetary Policy. The Inflation figures With food prices becoming unmoored and spiraling up, June’s CPI-based provisional inflation reading accelerated by half a percentage point to a three-month high of 4.81%. Inflation in the food and beverages group, the single-largest constituent of the CPI that contributes almost 46% of its weight, led the resurgence, quickening from May’s level to 4.63%. The food price inflation was broad-based with 10 of the 12 sub-groups witnessing year-on-year increases: cereals registered 12.7% price gains, eggs logged 7%, dairy experienced 8.56% inflation, pulses posted 10.5% and spices saw gains exceed 19%. Of the non-food items, clothing and footwear, as well as health and personal care saw price gains that exceeded 6% in June. Education prices too continued to keep rising steadily. Reasons for the rising inflation: Rising food prices are a major cause of inflation, with the food and beverages group’s inflation reaching 4.63%. Specific food items like cereals and spices saw significant price increases, at 12.7% and 19% respectively. Even vegetable prices, despite being in the disinflation zone, witnessed a sharp rise in June. Core inflation (excluding food and fuel) remains steady but high at 5.16%. Impact of agricultural trends on inflation: Impact of monsoon trends on inflation: Erratic monsoon trends are causing uncertainties in the agricultural sector. These uncertainties may disrupt crop outputs, leading to price increases and thus influencing inflation rates. Impact of sowing trends on inflation: As of July 7, overall kharif sowing was 8.7% lower than the previous year. This shortfall, especially a 24% drop in rice sowing and a 26% drop in pulses, could reduce crop availability, pushing prices and consequently inflation upwards. Impact of oilseeds deficiency on inflation: With oilseeds reflecting a 14% deficiency compared to 2022 levels, there is a potential risk for inflation. Tackling Inflation  Monetary Policy Measures Using contractionary monetary policy, the money supply in the economy can be decreased. This leads to decrease in aggregate demand in the market and thereby reduces inflation. Decrease in supply of money → rate of interest increases → Investment decreases → Aggregate demand decreases → prices decline → rate of inflation is lower The RBI to control inflation increases rates like CRR, SLR, Repo Rate and Reverse Repo Rate to affect the money supply in the economy. Fiscal Policy Measures Fiscal Policy refers to the revenue and expenditure policy of the government. Contractionary Fiscal Policy can be useful to tackle high inflation rates. The process is as follows: Increased taxes (keeping government spending constant) → disposable personal income decreases→ consumption decreases → aggregate demand decreases → prices decline → rate of inflation is lowered. Similar process follows if the government cuts down on its expenditures without raising taxes (or reduces its deficit/ increases surplus). Some of the fiscal policy measures are – reducing import duties, banning exports or imposing minimum export prices, suspending the futures trading of commodities, raising the stock limit for commodities, etc. Supply Measurement Measures It aims to increase the competitiveness and efficiency of the supply chain, putting downward pressure on long-term costs. Some of the supply management measures taken are- Restricting exports of commodities in short supply and increasing their imports. Effective implementation of the Essential Commodities Act, 1952 to prevent hoarding and speculation. Incentivizing the increase in production of commodities through tax concessions, subsidies, institutional support etc. Higher MSP has been announced to incentivize production and thereby enhance the availability of food items, which may help moderate prices. Fixing the ceiling prices of the commodities and taking measures to control the black marketing of those goods. Reforming the supply chain through infrastructure development, foreign investments etc. Constraints in Controlling Inflation India imports more than 80 percent of its oil requirements. Oil prices are volatile owing to the various Political and Economic events in the international arena. Long overdue supply-side reforms. Inefficiencies in the monetary policy transmission. Limited control of Government and RBI in controlling rupee depreciation. Political compulsion in reducing expenditure and fiscal deficit. Populist measures of the government. Way Forward: Thus, the policies can target inflation levels. A low level of inflation is considered to be healthy for the economy. If inflation is high, a contractionary policy can address this issue. Policymakers must tighten their grip over prices to prevent the broader economic recovery from floundering. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Exercise “Nomadic Elephant – 2023” will commence in Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia. Statement-II: The last edition of the exercise was held at, Bakloh, Himachal Pradesh in October 2019. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Having a vitamin A deficiency is a risk factor for Measles. Statement-II: There is no vaccine available for Measles. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following pairs:     Rescue Operation                              Countries Vande Bharat Mission:                             Yemen Operation Raahat:                                     Kuwait Operation Maitri:                                      Nepal How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What do you understand by inflation targeting? Has the adoption of an inflation-targeting regime served the interests of the Indian economy well? Critically examine (250 words) Q.2) How should India address the rising challenge of vector-borne diseases? Discuss (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 17th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 15th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here