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[ADMISSIONS OPEN] IASbaba’s MPPSC Prelims Test Series – The Most Comprehensive Test Series for MPPSC PRELIMS 2023

Dear Students, Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission (MPPSC) conducts a competitive examination for the recruitment of various civil services in the state. One of the crucial stages of the recruitment process is the preliminary examination, also known as the MPPSC Prelims. The preliminary examination serves as a screening test to shortlist eligible candidates for the main examination. For aspirants looking to clear MPPSC Prelims, it is important to understand the examination pattern, syllabus, and marking scheme. A well-structured test series can help candidates get a grip on the exam pattern and boost their preparation. Are you preparing for the MPPSC Prelims examination? Want to boost your preparation and increase your chances of success? Look no further! Our MPPSC Prelims Test Series is designed to help you achieve your goal. What is a Baba’s MPPSC Prelims Test Series? It is a comprehensive evaluation of a candidate’s preparation level. It provides an opportunity to practice and revise the syllabus, understand the examination pattern, and improve upon weaknesses. Benefits of IASbaba’s MPPSC Prelims Test Series: Familiarization with the Exam Pattern: The MPPSC Prelims test series will help candidates understand the exam pattern and the types of questions that are asked in the examination.Improving Speed and Accuracy: Regular practice through test series will improve the speed and accuracy of candidates, helping them manage time effectively during the actual examination.Assessment of Preparation Level: Test series provide an opportunity for candidates to assess their preparation level and identify areas where they need to improve.Boosting Confidence: By taking regular mock tests, candidates will develop a sense of confidence and familiarity with the examination pattern, reducing exam-related stress and anxiety.Performance Analysis: Test series provide detailed performance analysis, including the number of correct answers, incorrect answers, and time taken to complete the test. This analysis helps candidates understand their strengths and weaknesses, and focus their preparation accordingly. IASbaba’s MPPSC Prelims Test Series is a valuable tool for candidates preparing for the examination. It provides an opportunity to practice, revise, and improve upon their preparation, giving them the best chance of success on the day of the exam. So what are you waiting for? Invest in your future today and enroll in our MPPSC Prelims Test Series. With regular practice, performance analysis, and expert guidance, you’ll be well on your way to achieving your goal. Enroll now and give yourself the best chance of success! IASbaba’s Prelims Test Series is available in both OFFLINE (BHOPAL CENTRE) & ONLINE Mode. PAYMENT DETAILS MPPSC Test Series - ONLINE ₹3500 ₹2,000 Including Taxes  Comprehensive Tests MAKE PAYMENT MPPSC Test Series - OFFLINE ₹4000 ₹2,500 Including Taxes  Comprehensive Tests MAKE PAYMENT DOWNLOADS Schedule STILL HAVE QUERIES? Email us on: bhopal@iasbaba.com Call us on: +91 74896 41321 BHOPAL CENTRE: IASbaba Bhopal Centre: 136, Near Vikramaditya College Zone -2, MP Nagar Bhopal, 462011, Madhya Pradesh Landmark: Near Vikramaditya College

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 27th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Counter Terrorism Field Training Exercise (FTX) 2023 Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, the Indian Army Contingent departed for the ASEAN Defence Ministers Meeting (ADMM) Plus Expert Working Group (EWG) on Counter Terrorism Field Training Exercise (FTX) 2023. About Counter Terrorism Field Training Exercise (FTX) 2023:- Date: 25th to 30th September 2023. Venue: Russia. It is a multinational joint military exercise being hosted by Russia as a co-chair of the EWG along with Myanmar. (Exercise IBSAMAR) It was preceded by the Table Top Exercise of the ADMM Plus EWG on Counter-Terrorism at Nay Pyi Taw, Myanmar from 2nd to 4th August 2023. Historical Background:- Since 2017, the ADMM Plus has met annually to allow dialogue and cooperation among the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and Plus countries. The inaugural ADMM Plus was convened in Ha Noi, Vietnam on 12th October 2010. This year ASEAN member states along with Plus Group will be participating in the exercise. Objective of the exercise: strengthening and promoting regional cooperation in the field of counter-terrorism. The exercise will comprise a number of counter-terrorism drills including destroying of terrorist groups in a fortified area. ADMM Plus EWG on Counter-terrorism 2023 will provide the Indian Army with a platform to share their expertise and best practices in counter-terrorism operations. It will increase the cooperation between the other 12 participating countries. (Military Exercises) The Indian Army looks forward to an enriching professional experience from the exercise. MUST READ: 26th Exercise Malabar SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Spike in global crude oil prices Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The recent spike in global crude oil prices above the $80-per-barrel mark has contributed to petrol and diesel prices hitting all-time highs in India. Background:- Since hitting a low of $16 per barrel on 22 April 2022, the price of Brent crude oil has been rising steadily. Since the beginning of the year (2023), it has risen nearly 58% from about $51.8 per barrel to about $81 in September. The rise has been sharp over the last six weeks, from $65 per barrel on 20 August 2023. According to analysts, prices are nearing their intermediate top level of $86 per barrel, around which some cooling off is expected even though the broader trend remains rising. ( Oil Price Rise) Reasons for price rise:- Crude Oil prices have risen sharply in 2021 on the back of a recovery in global demand as the world economy recovered from the COVID-19 pandemic. Supply restrictions maintained by the OPEC+ grouping, have kept international oil prices high. These oil-producing economies have signaled slow production increases, which has led to a rise in gas prices as well. A shortage of gas in Europe and Asia has further boosted the demand for oil for power generation. Impact on India:- The rise in crude prices has contributed to petrol and diesel prices hitting all-time highs in India. Prices of petrol and diesel in India are pegged to a 15-day rolling average of the international prices of these fuels. High taxes by the central and state governments have contributed to retail prices being far higher. Analysts point out that increasing oil prices reflect growing demand in the economy, and equities often deliver more than the expected inflation that the oil surge may lead to. In line with oil, prices of other commodities including coal have been rising Impact stocks and bonds:- The BSE Basic Materials Index has risen more than three times from a low of 1,761 on April 3, 2020, to 5,725 at Wednesday’s close. This reflects the general view that economic recovery will strengthen going forward. For bonds: central bank policies will play a far greater role than the direct impact of rising oil prices. For equity investors: they can increase their exposure to upstream oil companies, which benefit from rising prices. In sectors where oil is a major cost component, a negative reaction on returns can be expected. Impact currency and the economy:- Rising crude prices tend to depress the rupee, as India being a major importer of oil needs more dollars to buy the same amount of crude. A surge in crude prices tends to increase India’s expenditure and adversely affects the fiscal deficit. MUST READ: Rising Oil Prices and Stagflation SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The term ‘West Taxes Intermediate’, sometimes found in news to a grade of (2020) Crude oil Bullion Rare earth elements Uranium Q.2) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (2018) Civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of the IAEA The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG. Nilgiri tahr Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Tamil Nadu and Kerala may soon join hands to perform a synchronized census of the Nilgiri tahr. About Nilgiri tahr:- The Nilgiri tahr is the only mountain ungulate in southern India amongst the 12 species present in India. It is also the state animal of Tamil Nadu. (Project Nilgiri Tahr) Habitat: open montane grassland habitat of the South Western Ghats montane rain forests eco-region. Distribution: It is endemic to the Nilgiri Hills and the southern portion of the Western Ghats in the states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Eravikulam National Park is home to the largest population of this Tahr. It has become locally extinct in around 14% of its traditional shola forest-grassland habitat. Unique feature: The Adult males of Nilgiri Tahr species develop a light grey area or “saddle” on their backs and are hence called “Saddlebacks” Cultural significance:- The species is locally known as Varaiaadu. There are multiple references to the Nilgiri Tahr in Tamil Sangam literature dating back to 2,000 years. The late Mesolithic (10,000-4,000 BC) paintings highlight the significance of the Tahr in folklore, culture, and life. Population decrease:- The Nilgiri tahr, which used to be found along the entire stretch of the Western Ghats. It is presently found only in small fragmented pockets. A large part of its population has been wiped out from its historical range. Threats:- Habitat loss Hunting Poaching Climate Change Invasive plants such as wattles, pines, and eucalyptus. Conservation Status:- IUCN: Endangered Wildlife (Protection) Act of India, 1972: Schedule I MUST READ: Endangered Asian elephant in Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Mewar-style painting Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, a Mewar-style Mahabharata painted by a Muslim was discovered in Udaipur, Rajasthan. Background:- A trunk in a dingy room in Udaipur’s City Palace had been sheltering thousands of miniature paintings of the Mahabharata, painted by Allah Baksh between 1680 and 1698. In The Mahabharata by Baksh, they highlight how literature undergoes constant reinterpretation through centuries and millennia. A 300-year-old text, in this Baksh’s illustrations is not a Sanskrit Mahabharata but a Rajasthani one. It is not painted by a Muslim but by a proponent of the Mewari school of thought, in such a manner that when one sees the paintings, and visualizes Mewari culture in its entirety. About Mewar-style painting:- Timeline: 17th and 18th centuries. Mewar painting is one of the most important schools of Indian miniature painting. It is a school in the Rajasthani style. It developed in the Hindu principality of Mewar (Udaipur). Salient features:- It is characterized by simple bright colour and direct emotional appeal. The earliest dated manuscript associated with the Mewar school of Rajput painting is the Chawand Ragamala series (1605), painted by the artist Nasiruddin. Most of the paintings of this series are in the collection of Shri Gopi Krishna Kanoria. The expressive and vigorous style continued with some variations through 1680 in the region, after which time Mughal influence became more apparent. An increasing number of paintings were concerned with portraiture and the life of the ruler though religious themes were popular. The Mewar school of miniature painting, is renowned for vibrant colors and intricate narratives within a single frame. These paintings provide historical insights, including details like sword storage, turban styles, and the occasions celebrated during the depicted times. (Mural Art) Famous artists of Mewari school of painting:- Allah Baksh: Allah Baksh, a notable Mewari painter during Maharana Jai Singh’s reign (1653-98), is renowned for creating comprehensive depictions of the entire Mahabharata and including every shloka of the Gita. Sahibdin: In the later half of the seventeenth century, during the reigns of Raj Singh and Jai Singh, portraiture gained prominence in Mewar. MUST READ: (Ancient rock paintings) SOURCE: THE PRINT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts: (2022) Nettipakarana Parishishtaparvan Avadanashataka Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina’s texts 1,2 and 3 2 and 4 only 1,3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Kalamkari painting refers to (2015) A hand-painted cotton textile in South India. A handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in Northeast India. A block-painted woolen cloth in the Western Himalayan region of India. A hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India. Kaobal Gali-Mushkoh Valley Syllabus Prelims – POLITY Context: The Kaobal Gali-Mushkoh Valley, the battlefield of the Kargil war, was recently, opened up for tourists. Background:- Mushkoh Valley which resounded with artillery gunfire in 1999 is on the tourist map this year. This became possible due to the 43-month-long ceasefire agreement between India and Pakistan. About Kaobal Gali-Mushkoh Valley:- Location: in Kargil’s Drass Sector, Jammu and Kashmir. It was a battlefield during the 1999 Kargil War between India and Pakistan. (Kargil Vijay Diwas) The region includes the Gurez Valley in north Kashmir, which was previously inaccessible to civilians due to shelling from Pakistan but now connects with the Mushkoh Valley in Kargil’s Drass Sector. Gurez Valley:- Kaobal Gali is the highest pass at a height of 4,167 meters in Gurez. It connects Gurez to Mushkoh Valley. River: Kishanganga River flows through the valley. The Gurez Valley is close to the Line of Control (LoC). Inhabitants: Being situated very close to the Burzil Pass, which leads into Astore, the inhabitants are ethnic Dards/Shins. They speak the Shina language and have the same styles of dress and culture as their kinsmen in Pakistani-administered Gilgit-Baltistan. The Gurez Valley, with about 38,000 residents, is already setting a record by hosting 50,000 tourists this year so far. Fauna: ibex, musk deer, and marmots, Himalayan brown bear, and snow leopard. Zumba yak (smaller than other yaks) is found in the Buduaab village, Gurez valley. Mushkoh valley:- Location: Dras (Ladakh). (Operation Sadbhavana) It is also known as the valley of wild tulips. The meadows of Mushkoh offer boisterous wild tulip flowers. The valley is also home to the endangered Himalayan yew. MUST READ: Judicial remedies for the Jammu and Kashmir net restrictions SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? (2022) To ratify the declaration of Emergency To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. India Post Payments Bank Limited (IPPB) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: India Post Payments Bank Limited (IPPB) has released admit cards for the IPPB Executive Exam 2023 recently. About India Post Payments Bank Limited (IPPB):- Launched: 2018. Governed by: Reserve Bank of India (RBI). It was launched with 100% equity owned by the Government of India. It is a payments bank of the Indian postal department. It works through a network of post offices and nearly 4 lakh postmen. Objective: to build the most accessible, affordable, and trusted bank for the common man in India. Focus group: While its services are available to all citizens, the IPPB is primarily focusing on serving social sector beneficiaries, migrant laborers, un-organized sector, Micro Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), Panchayats, low-income households, in rural areas and the unbanked and under-banked segments in both the rural and urban areas. IPPB offers services through a mix of physical and digital platforms. Functions of IPPB:- It accepts deposits and offers remittance services, mobile banking, and third-party fund transfers. It offers 3 types of saving accounts: Regular Account – Safal, Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA) – Sugam and BSBDA Small – Saral The maximum limit on deposits for current and savings accounts is Rs 1 lakh. The bank offers a 4% interest rate on savings accounts. They can issue debit cards and ATM cards. It cannot issue credit cards. It cannot loan money. It provides social security payments like MNREGA wages, and direct benefit transfer and gives access to third-party services insurance, and mutual funds. IPPB account holders will be issued a QR code-based biometric card with a unique QR code. Significance:- IPPB is committed to providing a fillip to a less cash economy and contributing to the vision of Digital India. MUST READ: India Post Payments Bank SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centers. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Regarding DigiLocker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under the Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 OSIRIS-REx Syllabus Prelims –SPACE Context: NASA’s asteroid-hunting spacecraft OSIRIS-REx brought back asteroid fragments on the Earth recently. About OSIRIS-Rex:- Launched on: Sept. 8, 2016. Launched y: NASA. OSIRIS-REx – short for Origins-Spectral Interpretation-Resource Identification-Security-Regolith Explorer. It was the first U.S. mission to collect a sample from an asteroid. The OSIRIS-REx mission is essentially a seven-year-long voyage. It was meant to explore asteroid Bennu. The spacecraft contains five instruments including cameras, a spectrometer, and a laser altimeter. The spacecraft arrived at Bennu in December 2018. It surveyed the asteroid for more than two years. Bennu is an ancient asteroid, currently more than 200 million miles from Earth. The asteroid was discovered by a team from the NASA-funded Lincoln Near-Earth Asteroid Research team in 1999. It offers scientists a window into the early solar system as it was first taking shape billions of years ago and tossing ingredients that could have helped seed life on Earth. On 20, 2020, the spacecraft collected a sample from the asteroid and stowed it in its sample return capsule. The pristine material from Bennu – rocks and dust collected from the asteroid’s surface will offer generations of scientists a window into the time when the Sun and planets were forming about 4.5 billion years ago. MUST READ: Exoplanets SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Mains: Production-Linked Incentives (PLI) Schemes and its Implications Syllabus Mains – Governance Context: According to the recent study conducted by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI), despite the production-linked incentive scheme, manufacturing telecom hardware in India is 12-13% costlier than China. Indian Networking and Telecom Equipment Manufacturing (NATEM) companies face relative cost disability up to 13.32% in comparison to the companies operating in China and up to 22% in comparison to the companies operating in Vietnam. In case PLI benefits are not considered, the relative cost disability goes further up by at least 4%. TRAI observed that China offers programmes like “High- and New-Technology Enterprise (HNTE)” and “Made in China 2025” that provide multiple benefits to companies engaged in technological fields, including electronics production. But In India, subsidy schemes focus on providing incentives on the number of finished goods produced. The regulatory authority has recommended the Union government to move beyond the PLI schemes. About Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI): The PLI scheme was conceived to scale up domestic manufacturing capability, accompanied by higher import substitution and employment generation. Launched: March 2020 Initially targeted three industries but later it was extended to 14 sectors: Mobile and allied Component Manufacturing Electrical Component Manufacturing and Medical Devices. Targeted Sectors: The 14 sectors are mobile manufacturing, manufacturing of medical devices, automobiles and auto components, pharmaceuticals, drugs, specialty steel, telecom & networking products, electronic products, white goods (ACs and LEDs), food products, textile products, solar PV modules, advanced chemistry cell (ACC) battery, and drones and drone components. Salient features of the scheme: Output-oriented: The schemes are output-oriented rather than input-based. They reward manufacturers for increasing their production and sales rather than for investing in capital or infrastructure. Time-bound: The schemes are time-bound and have a sunset clause. They are valid for a period of five to six years depending on the sector. Performance-based: The schemes are performance-based and have a graded incentive structure. The incentive rate varies according to the category of the manufacturer (domestic or foreign), the level of value addition, the type of product and the year of operation. Flexible: The schemes are flexible and allow manufacturers to choose their own base year, investment plan and production targets within the prescribed guidelines. Aligned with the national priorities: The schemes are aligned with the national priorities and strategic sectors. They aim to reduce import dependence, promote innovation and R&D, create employment opportunities and enhance India’s share in the global value chain. Significance achievements of the PLI Scheme: Increased export growth: Under the PLI scheme, sectors such as electronics, automobiles, pharmaceuticals, white goods, and textiles have witnessed significant growth in exports. For example, exports of electronic goods increased by 57.36 percent during March 2023 at USD 2.86 Billion as compared to USD 1.82 Billion in March 2022. Employment creation: The PLI scheme has played a crucial role in generating employment opportunities across sectors. For example, the drone manufacturing sector alone is expected to create more than 10,000 direct jobs, while the textile sector is estimated to create over 7.5 lakh additional jobs Incremental production and investments: The PLI scheme has stimulated incremental production and investments in targeted sectors. It is expected to bring in incremental investment of Rs 7,920 crore and incremental production worth Rs 1,68,000 crore. Attracting investments: The PLI scheme has successfully attracted both domestic and foreign investments in various sectors. Companies have shown interest in setting up manufacturing facilities in India to leverage the incentives provided by the scheme. For instance, The 20 automobile companies have proposed a total investment of around Rs. 45,000 crores (US$ 5.95 billion). Improving India’s Global Manufacturing Rankings: India’s efforts towards manufacturing growth, including the PLI scheme, have been recognized globally. India secured second position after China in the Global Manufacturing Risk Index 2021, reflecting the progress made in the manufacturing sector. Contribution to GDP: The PLI scheme is expected to have a positive impact on India’s GDP. It is estimated to add 1.7% to the country’s GDP by 2027, generating significant economic growth and contributing to overall prosperity. Challenges associated with the schemes: Lack of a Centralized Database: The lack of a centralized database that captures information like increase in production or exports, number of new jobs created etc. make the evaluation process an administrative complexities. This information ambiguity impacts transparency and can lead to malfeasance, further widening the fault lines and weakening the policy structure. Coordinated approach: The schemes require a coordinated approach among various ministries, departments, agencies and stakeholders to avoid duplication, overlap or conflict of policies and regulations. The government needs to harmonize the PLI schemes with other existing or proposed schemes such as Make in India, Digital India, Startup India, etc. Supportive ecosystem: The schemes require a supportive ecosystem of infrastructure, logistics, finance, skilling and market access to enable the manufacturers to scale up their production and exports. The government needs to address the bottlenecks and gaps in these areas through reforms and investments. Dynamic and responsive design: The schemes require a dynamic and responsive design to adapt to the changing market conditions and consumer preferences. The government needs to review and revise the PLI schemes periodically based on feedback from the manufacturers and other stakeholders. WTO Constraints: WTO rules prevent India from tying PLI subsidies to domestic value addition. Although India’s aspiration to make chips is sound, chips are complex components. The absence of significant domestic value addition likely stems from these constraints. Way Forward: The PLI schemes are a bold and ambitious step by the Govt to revitalize the manufacturing sector and make India a global hub for production and innovation thereby promoting employment generation, increase exports and decrease imports. Therefore the success of these schemes depends on their effective implementation and coordination among various actors. If done well, these schemes can transform India’s economic landscape and create a new wave of growth and development. Source:   The Wire Role of Sports in the Soft Power Race Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International relations) Context: The day before the opening of 19th Asian Games, Union Sports Minister Anurag Thakur cancelled his visit to China as a mark of protest to the last-minute denial of entry to three Indian Wushu players from Arunachal Pradesh. The three athletes — Nyeman Wangsu, Onilu Tega and Mepung Lamgu — were given the accreditation needed to travel along with the rest of the Indian team for the Games. About soft power: Joseph Nye Jr., a political scientist coined the term soft power in 1980s. Unlike in case of military hard power, it is the power of attraction through culture, political ideas, and policies rather than coercion. Over the years, India has been wielding its soft power in the form of Yoga, Bollywood, Sufi music and the shared heritage in art, cuisine, architecture and even democratic values. In the recent years, countries, including India, have been investing more in elite sports as success in international sporting events is boosting their soft power. Significance of sports in the soft power race: The survey of French citizens’ perception of Chinese performance in the Olympics, by Professor Dongfeng Liu, showed that the country’s sporting achievements had a positive effect on Chinese soft power in 2020. Despite this, countries like China, Russia and North Korea aren’t able to garner a completely positive perception as a consequence of their human rights record. Hence, brand building is a very difficult task for such countries. Large sports events generate massive viewership, providing a platform for the countries to showcase their tradition, culture and values. For instance, the Tokyo Olympic Games was watched by more than 3.05 billion people– a 74% increase in digital viewers compared to Rio Games 2016. This shows that there is a great opportunity in using such events as a platform to boost soft power. Sports as brand for soft power: A strong nation brand and positive soft power perceptions allow a nation to promote itself as a place for people to visit, invest in, and build a reputation for their quality of goods and services. Scope for domestic sector: The soft power can encourage domestic tourism, consumption of domestic goods and services (rather than imports). China’s soft power through sports: China uses its superiority in elite sports to build “people-to-people” relations with other countries. For example, athletes from African countries such as Madagascar are trained in swimming, badminton, table tennis, etc. in China, which helps Beijing create a positive impact on a wider population and results in better formal relations as well. China’s memorandum of understanding with countries such as Kenya so that Chinese runners can train with Kenyan athletes, as they are among the best in the world when it comes to long-distance running. India’s tortoise-like walk due to various reasons: Poor population-to-medal Talley: India’s medal tally in the Tokyo Olympics Games seven was its most decorated Olympic Games in Indian history. India has won 35 medals at the Olympics since the 1900 edition. But as of 2022, China has finished first in the Summer Olympics once, second three times, third twice and third once in the Winter Olympics. Low exposure at the school level: Professional engagement in sports is hampered by the relatively low and scant exposure of Indians to sports at the elementary school level. Need for a favourable atmosphere: In 2016, a NITI Aayog report came up with a 20-point plan to improve India’s Olympics performance. The report said India still lacks a favourable atmosphere for sports to polish the skills of early-stage athletes. It recommended efforts to be made at the family, community school, regional academies, and State and national levels to improve things. Funding: Ensuring competent coaches, and having adequate funding and more sports academics remain major issues even decades later. A reply in Parliament (2018) said that India spends only three paise per day per capita on sports. In contrast, China spends ₹6.1 per day per capita. Government Initiatives for the development sports in the country: Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) was launched by the Ministry of Sports in 2014. It seeks to improve Indian athletes’ performance at the Olympic and Paralympics Games. NITI Aayog recommendations: The Government should work on a public-private partnership (PPP) model to create basic sporting infrastructure at the district level so that talent can be captured at an early stage. Way Forward: The soft power is a means to an end, not the end itself. It would help cement India’s standing in the global arena. It is always important to remember that sports are primarily intended to be a universal language of communication, uniting continents, and different peoples of the world. This means that it is necessary to realize the powerful potential of “sports diplomacy”. The Government should work on a public-private partnership (PPP) model to create basic sporting infrastructure at the district level to capture young talents at an early stage. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: EXERCISE Countries 1.JIMEX Japan-India 2.Sampriti India & Sri Lanka 3.Yudh Abhyas India & Indonesia How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: India Post Payment Bank (IPPB) cannot loan money. Statement-II: It can issue credit cards. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Nilgiri tahr, consider the following statements: It is listed as Endangered under the IUCN red list. It is the state animal of Karnataka. It is endemic to the Himalayas. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Critically analyse the Production Linked Incentive Schemes which was launched to boost domestic manufacturing and attract foreign investments in various sectors. (250 words) Q.2) How can sport be used as a tool of soft power in modern international relations? Suggest some measures to increase India’s sporting performance and soft power. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  27th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 26th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – d

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, ‘Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve’ became Madhya Pradesh’s 7th protected habitat for big cats. About Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve:- Location: Damoh and Narsinghpur districts of Madhya Pradesh. Area: 2,339 square kilometers. Naming: It is named after Rani Durgavati, a queen of the Gondi people. Rivers: Some areas of the reserve are situated in the Narmada and Yamuna River basins. Culture: The Singorgarh Fort can be found inside the reserve. Vegetation: Dry deciduous type. Flora: The chief floral elements include Teak, Saja, Dhaora, Ber, Amla, etc. Fauna:- The sanctuary provides a habitat for a wide variety of mammals, totaling 18 different species. (Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS)) These include notable creatures such as leopard, wolf, the elusive jackal, the swift Indian fox, the fascinating striped hyena, and the adorable sloth bear. In addition to these captivating mammals, the sanctuary also serves as a residence for many species of birds, fish, reptiles, and amphibians. Significance: – It is the seventh tiger reserve in Madhya Pradesh. (Importance of Tiger Conservation) It will encompass areas within the Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary and Durgavati Wildlife Sanctuary. A green corridor linking Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR) with Durgavati will be developed for the natural movement of the tiger to the new reserve. MUST READ: Buddhist caves, temples in Madhya Pradesh’s Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements? (2018) The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act 2006. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given habitat rights. The Union Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The term M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of (2017) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna Maintenance of Tiger Reservoirs Indigenous Satellite Navigation System Security of National Highways JPM GBI-EM Global Diversified Index Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: India will be included in the JPM GBI-EM Global Diversified Index as of  June 2024. Background:- JP Morgan Chase & Co has announced that it will include Indian government bonds in its emerging markets bond index from 28 June 2024. The move can potentially attract about $25 billion into the country, as per analyst estimates. Its ultimate weight will likely reach the 10% cap, which will be scaled in at 1% per month. The inclusion will be phased over 10 months till March 31, 2025. Implications of the move:- Currently, foreign investors own two percent of Indian debt, a number which could more than double after the next inclusion. Indian bonds are expected to account for ten percent of the index once included. The inclusion would result in index tracking managers allocating money to India, which is expected to be in tens of billions of dollars. This could be a push factor to prompt foreign inflows into India and foreign investors are likely to be more active in the Indian fixed-income market. Experts believe the move is likely to bring down the cost of borrowing for the government. It will support the Indian rupee and bond markets, and improve the country’s credit rating. About JPM GBI-EM Global Diversified Index:- The Government Bond Index-Emerging Markets (GBI-EM) is a widely tracked index in the global financial market. It comprises government bonds issued by emerging market countries. (Government bonds for NRIs) These countries can differ significantly in terms of their economic development, creditworthiness, and the size of their bond markets. Investment decisions and portfolio allocations in the emerging market debt space are often guided by this index. The index is maintained by prominent financial institutions, including JPMorgan. The J.P. Morgan ESG EMBI Global Diversified Investment Grade Index (JESG EMBI IG) tracks liquid, US Dollar emerging market fixed and floating-rate debt instruments issued by sovereign and quasi-sovereign entities. The index applies an ESG scoring and screening methodology to tilt toward issuers ranked higher on ESG criteria and green bond issues, and to underweight and remove issuers that rank lower. The JESG EMBI IG is based on the established flagship J.P. Morgan EMBI. Global Diversified Index tracks instruments that are classified as investment grade (IG). The GBI-EM index is not static, it undergoes periodic updates. These updates ensure that the index remains relevant and up-to-date. Significance:- It plays a crucial role in shaping international capital flows. It serves as a benchmark for global investors to assess the performance of these bonds. Benefits:- Access to Global Capital. Boost to International Capital Markets. Increased Investor Confidence. (Bond Yields) Diversification of Funding Sources. Challenges:- Outflows from Other Countries. Currency Risk Management. Taxation Policies. MUST READ: Green Bonds SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements (2022) As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Unified Registration Portal for GOBARdhan Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNANCE Context: The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation has introduced a Unified Registration Portal for GOBARdhan recently. About Unified Registration Portal for GOBARdhan:- IMAGE SOURCE: nic.in Launched: 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Objective: to streamline the registration of Compressed Bio-Gas and biogas plants nationwide. The portal is gobardhan.co.in This portal acts as a data repository for different activities of Gobardhan. It enables monitoring of the progress of the Programme. It provides real-time tracking, ensuring transparency & and social accountability of the scheme. According to the guidelines, Market Development Assistance of 1500 rupees per metric tonne will be granted for the sale of Fermented Organic Manure or Liquid Fermented Organic Manure, or phosphate-rich organic Manure produced at biogas and compressed biogas plants under the GOBARdhan initiative. Eligibility:- Anyone who operates or intends to set up a biogas/ CBG/ Bio CNG plant in India can obtain a registration number by registering in this unified registration portal. The registration number is required to avail of benefits/ support from other Ministries/ Departments. Significance: The GOBARdhan initiative will get a boost as these new guidelines will turbocharge the uptake of organic fertilizer produced from the plants.  About GOBAR-Dhan Scheme: Launched: 2018. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Objective: to augment the income of farmers by converting biodegradable waste into compressed biogas (CBG). Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources (GOBAR)-Dhan was launched by the Government of India as a part of the biodegradable waste management component under the Swachh Bharat Mission-Gramin. It covers the entire gamut of schemes/programmes/policies promoting the conversion of organic waste like cattle dung/ agri-residue etc. to biogas/ CBG/ Bio CNG. The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Ministry of Jal Shakti is the coordinating department for GOBARdhan. Focus areas of GOBAR-Dhan: to keep villages clean, increase the income of rural households, and generate energy and organic manure from cattle waste. MUST READ: One District One Product(ODOP) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements (2018) The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Borlaug Award Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT AWARDS Context: Indian agriculture scientist Swati Nayak won the Borlaug Award recently. Background:- Fondly called “Bihana Didi” (Seed Lady) by local communities in Odisha, Indian agriculture scientist Swati Nayak became the third Indian agriculture scientist to win the prestigious Norman E. Borlaug Award for 2023. She received the award for introducing drought-tolerant rice in Odisha. Contribution of Swati Nayak’s work:- She is the South Asia head for Seed System and Product Management at the International Rice Research Institute (IRRI). Her work has been on “technology scaling” or closing the gap between scientific knowledge and its practical application among farmers. She is credited with the successful dissemination and adoption of more than 20 climate-resilient and bio-fortified rice varieties. Among these are ‘Sahbhagi Dhan’, a drought-tolerant variety suitable for hilly uplands, and ‘BINA Dhan-11’, which is flood-tolerant. She introduced ‘Sahbhagi Dhan’ in the tribal belt of Odisha’s Mayurbhanj district with the help of women farmers. ‘Sahbhagi Dhan’ has become a much in-demand variety throughout Odisha. ‘BINA-Dhan-11’, which contains a submergence-tolerant Sub1 gene identified from an indigenous land race of Odisha, was a similar success. The Sub1 gene has been incorporated into many existing popular high-yielding varieties such as ‘Samba Mahsuri’, ‘Swarna’, and ‘Ranjit’. About Borlaug Award:- Duration: It is presented every year in October. Venue: Des Moines, Iowa, USA. Presented by: World Food Prize Foundation. It is endowed by the Rockefeller Foundation. The award is given to exceptional scientists under 40 working in the field of food and nutrition security, and hunger eradication. It is given in memory of the Nobel awardee and Green Revolution’s chief architect Dr. Norman Borlaug. Norman Ernest Borlaug: an American agronomist who led initiatives worldwide that contributed to the extensive increases in agricultural production termed the Green Revolution. Borlaug was often called “the father of the Green Revolution”. Decoration:- The award diploma incorporates the image of Dr. Borlaug at work in the fields of Mexico. Cash prize of $10,000. Other Indian recipients:- Aditi Mukherji (2012) and Mahalingam Govindaraj (2022). MUST READ: Gandhi Mandela Award SOURCE: BUSINESSLINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 World Rhino Day 2023 Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: The World Rhino Day 2023 was celebrated recently. Background:- The World Rhino Day is observed on 22nd September every year. About World Rhino Day 2023:- Date: 22th September. Objective: to spread awareness for all five species of rhino and the work being done to save them. Historical Background: It was first announced by WWF-South Africa in 2010. This special day provides the opportunity for cause-related organizations, NGOs, zoos, and members of the public to celebrate rhinos in their own unique ways. The scientific name and conservation status of the five species are: – Javan Rhinos (Rhinoceros sondaicus): Critically Endangered Sumatran rhinos (Dicerorhinus sumatrensis): Critically Endangered Black rhinos (Diceros bicornis): Critically Endangered White rhinos (Ceratotherium simum): Near Threatened (Southern white rhino) Greater One-Horned Rhinos (Rhinoceros unicornis): Vulnerable About Indian One-Horned Rhino:- The greater one-horned rhino (or “Indian rhino”) is the largest of the rhino species. Distribution: Nepal, Bhutan, Pakistan, and Assam, India. The greater one-horned rhino is identified by a single black horn about 8-25 inches long and a grey-brown hide with skin folds, which gives it an armour-plated appearance. The species is solitary, except when adult males or rhinos nearing adulthood gather at wallows or to graze. Food: They primarily graze, with a diet consisting almost entirely of grasses as well as leaves, branches of shrubs and trees, fruit, and aquatic plants. Conservation Status:- IUCN Red List: Vulnerable. CITES: Appendix-I. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I. Threats:- Poaching for the horns Habitat loss Population density Decreasing Genetic diversity Conservation Efforts by India:- New Delhi Declaration on Asian Rhinos 2019: India, Bhutan, Nepal, Indonesia, and Malaysia have signed a declaration for the conservation and protection of the species. DNA profiles of all rhinos. National Rhino Conservation Strategy: It was launched in 2019 to conserve the greater one-horned rhinoceros. Indian Rhino Vision 2020: It was an ambitious effort to attain a wild population of at least 3,000 greater one-horned rhinos spread over seven protected areas in the Indian state of Assam by the year 2020. MUST READ: Rhino population up by 200 in Kaziranga SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Hirakud dam Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: The Odisha government recently, announced a plan to rehabilitate those displaced by the construction of the Hirakud dam. Background:- In a resolution to a seven decade–long land displacement issue, 1,749 families of 19 villages of Jharsuguda district will be given rights on 3,231 acres of land . About Hirakud Dam:- IMAGE SOURCE: MapsofIndia Inaugurated: 1957. Location: 15 Kms from Sambalpur, Odisha. River: Mahanadi. Type: It is a composite structure of earth, concrete, and masonry. (Central Water Commission (CWC)) Installed capacity: 287.8 MW. Height of Dam: 80.96 meters. Historical Background:- After the high floods of 1937, M. Visveswaraya gave a proposal for a detailed investigation of storage reservoirs in the Mahanadi basin to tackle the problem of flood in Mahanadi delta. The multi-purpose Hirakud Dam project is the first stage of the plan of Dr. Ajodhya Nath Khosla, the then Governor of Odisha. The commissioning of Unit III of Burla Power House was completed in 1956. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru laid the foundation stone in 1948. The project was formally inaugurated by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 January 1957. Objectives:- Irrigation. Power Generation. Flood Control. (National Dam Safety Authority) Salient features:- The Hirakud Dam Project is a multipurpose scheme intended for flood control, irrigation, and power generation. This is one of the oldest hydel projects in India. It was the first post-independence major multi-purpose river valley project in the country. It is the longest dam in India. The Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary is located near Hirakud Dam. It is bounded on the east and north by the huge Hirakud reservoir. MUST READ: Sunni Dam Hydro Electric Project SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) Consider the following Rivers: (2021) Brahmani Nagavali Subarnarekha Vamsadhara Which of the above rises from the Eastern Ghats? 1 and 2 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 3 Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS) Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent studies establish a clear link between academic stress and Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS). Background:- Amid PCOS awareness month, in September, a concerning reality emerges that academic pressure may unknowingly contribute to a silent health crisis among young girls. About Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS):- IMAGE SOURCE: blog.well-woman clinic.in Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a hormonal imbalance that occurs when ovaries create excess hormones. Ovaries: the organ that produces and releases eggs. PCOS is a “syndrome,” or group of symptoms that affects the ovaries and ovulation. Its three main features are: cysts in the ovaries high levels of male hormones irregular or skipped periods PCOS affects women during their childbearing years (ages 15 to 44). Between 2 and 26.7 percent of women in this age group have PCOS. PCOS interrupts the normal menstrual cycle and makes it harder to get pregnant. Between 70 and 80 percent of women with PCOS have fertility problems. (In vitro fertilization (IVF) procedure) Causes:- The exact reasons of what causes PCOS is not known yet. It is believed that high levels of male hormones prevent the ovaries from producing hormones and making eggs normally. Genes, insulin resistance, and inflammation have all been linked to excess androgen formation. Common symptoms of PCOS:- Irregular periods: A lack of ovulation prevents the uterine lining from shedding every month. Heavy bleeding: The uterine lining builds up for a longer period of time, so the periods you do get can be heavier than normal. Hair growth: More than 70 percent of women with this condition grow hair on their face and body — including on their back, belly, and chest. Acne: Male hormones can make the skin oilier than usual and cause breakouts in areas like the face, chest, and upper back. Weight gain. Up to 80 percent of women with PCOS are overweight or have obesity. Male pattern baldness. Hair on the scalp gets thinner and may fall out. Darkening of the skin. Dark patches of skin can form in body creases like those on the neck, in the groin, and under the breasts. Headaches: Hormone changes can trigger headaches in some women. Common medical treatments:- Birth control pills and other medications can help regulate the menstrual cycle and treat PCOS symptoms like hair growth and acne. MUST READ: Control of Anaemia among Children in the Country SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: Role and Scope of Parliamentary Committees in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The Government of India recently established an eight-member committee to examine the concept of ‘One nation, One election,’ highlighting the significance of parliamentary committees in the country. About Committees of Parliament: A Parliamentary Committee is a panel of MPs that is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker/Chairman. The committee works under the direction of the Speaker/chairman and it presents its report to the House or to the Speaker/chairman. Parliamentary Committees have their origins in the British Parliament. They draw their authority from Article 105 and Article 118. Article 105 deals with the privileges of MPs. Article 118 gives Parliament authority to make rules to regulate its procedure and conduct of business. Types of Parliamentary Committees: Parliamentary committees in India serve diverse purposes and can be broadly categorized into four types: subject, financial, accountability, and administrative. Subject Committees: These committees oversee the functions and activities of each ministry, with ministers themselves ineligible for membership. There are a total of 24 subject committees, comprising 31 members each, with proportional representation from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. Bills can be referred to subject committees for detailed examination, ensuring thorough scrutiny before passage. Financial Committees: These are the Estimates Committee, the Committee on Public Undertakings (CoPU), and the Public Accounts Committee (PAC). Notably, these committees do not include ministers as members. The Estimates Committee examines pre-budget estimates of various ministries. Ad hoc Committees: These are formed on a temporary basis for specific purposes, such as reviewing particular bills. They disband once they complete their assigned tasks and submit reports. Significance of the Parliamentary committees: Expertise and specialization: Parliamentary Committees are made up of members of Parliament who have specific expertise and knowledge in a particular area, such as finance, foreign affairs, or health. Checks and balances: These committees act as a check on the power of the executive branch by scrutinizing government policies and holding the government accountable for its actions. Strengthen the laws: Over the years, the committees have immensely contributed to strengthening the laws passed by Parliament. The committee on Food and Consumer Affairs suggested several amendments, such as increasing penalties for misleading advertisements and making certain definitions clearer in Consumer Protection Act 2019. Budgetary oversight: The Departmental related standing committees (DRSCs) also examine the budget. Detailed estimates of the expenditure of all ministries are sent for examination to the DRCSs. Forum for building consensus: Committees provide a forum for building consensus across political parties. Committees have closed-door meetings, which allows them to discuss issues freely and arrive at a consensus. Public Engagement: Committees provide an opportunity for members of the public and organizations to engage directly with Parliament and contribute to the legislative process. Issues associated with the Parliamentary Committees Lack of adequate resources: Parliamentary Committees lack adequate staff, research support, infrastructure, and funds to carry out their functions effectively. They also face difficulties in accessing relevant information and data from the government. Lack of adequate time: Parliamentary Committees often have to deal with a large number of matters within a short period. This affects their ability to conduct thorough scrutiny and analysis of various issues. Limited participation: Some committees struggle to attract sufficient participation from MPs, which can limit their effectiveness. During 2009–14, only 49% of members were present for meetings of the departmental-related standing committees. Lack of detailed scrutiny: Parliamentary committees lack detailed scrutiny, face challenges in conducting thorough and effective scrutiny. Only a limited proportion of the budget is usually discussed on the floor of the House. In the 16th Lok Sabha, only 17% of the budget was discussed in the House. Lack of enforceability: Parliamentary Committees do not have any binding authority over the government or the House. Their recommendations are only advisory in nature and can be accepted or rejected by the government or the House. This reduces their impact and influence on policymaking. Lack of transparency: Parliamentary Committees usually conduct their meetings in private and do not allow media or public access. Their reports are also not made public until they are tabled in the House. This reduces their accountability and visibility to the public. Way Forward: Suggestive measures Increase resources and time: To examine and review the policies and actions of the government, committees should be provided more time and resources. The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2002) recommended that funds should be allotted to assist these Committees in conducting inquiries, holding public hearings, and collecting data Enhance independence: Committees should be independent and not subject to pressure from the government or other influential groups. Increase public visibility: Make the work of committees more transparent and accessible to the public, such as by holding public hearings or publishing reports. Increase participation: Encouraging greater participation from MPs in committee work, through measures such as providing additional incentives or resources. Source:   AIR Gandhi-Ambedkar Debate on caste-based separate electorates Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (History) Context: In the month of September 1932, at the Yerawada Central Jail in Pune, Gandhi began fasting unto death against the award of separate electorates to harijans. About Poona Pact of 1932: In 1932, Gandhi began a fast unto death in the Yerawada Jail against the British decision to create separate electorates based on caste. With pressure from Gandhi, Ambedkar signed the historic Poona Pact in 1932. According to this pact, Hindu joint electorate was retained and gave reserved seats to the depressed classes. It was signed by Ambedkar on behalf of the depressed classes and Madan Mohan Malviya on behalf of the Upper Caste Hindus. The reservations for lower castes under the pact: Gandhi’s Action: Gandhi began a fast unto death against the British decision to create separate electorates based on caste. Ambedkar’s Dilemma: Ambedkar disagreed with Gandhi’s political reservations and he knew Gandhi was the nation’s most loved political leader, and if something were to happen to him, the fledgling Dalit movement might bear heavy consequences. Inking of Poona Pact: With a heavy heart, Ambedkar agreed to Gandhi’s pressure, inking what would be known as the Poona Pact, which secured reservations for lower castes. Evolving views on Caste: Gandhi views: Earlier Orthodox Views: Initially, Gandhi supported traditional caste norms, advocating for inter-dining and inter-marriage prohibitions, considering caste fundamental to Hinduism. Evolution amid national movement: Gandhi’s views evolved as he assumed a pivotal role in India’s national movement, influenced by the emerging Dalit movement. He began preaching unity and condemned untouchability, coining the term “harijans” for untouchables, emphasizing their status as children of God. Critique of untouchability: Gandhi openly criticized untouchability, recognizing its harmful impact on both spiritual and national well-being in 1936. Ambedkar views: View of Rejection: Any revolt against the caste system would only be possible after the oppressed themselves rejected their condition and oppression as being divinely ordained. Rejection of Shastras: Bringing an end to the caste system would only be possible if the divine authority of the holy scriptures was rejected first. Views on Separate Electorates: Ambedkar’s Belief: Affirmative Action: He suggested separate electorates as a form of affirmative action to empower lower castes. Favor to Double Vote: He favoured separate electorates with double vote – one for SCs to vote for an SC candidate and the other for SCs to vote for in the general electorate. Against Joint Electorates: For him, joint electorates enabled the majority to influence the election of the representatives of the Dalits community, and thus disabled them for defending the interests of their oppression against the ‘tyranny of the majority’. Gandhi’s Opposition: Restriction to Rule the World: Gandhi argued that rather than being restricted to just this measly share of seats, lower castes should aspire to rule “the kingdom of the whole world”. Exploitative Step: Gandhi rightly understood British intentions of exploiting internal divisions in Indian society for their own purposes. Separate electorates would only help the British ‘divide and rule’. This was also a time when antagonism between Hindus and Muslims was rising. If separate electorates were announced, this would significantly reduce the Indians’ power. Present system of reservation: The system of caste-based reservation sets aside a certain number of seats for people belonging to castes that historically experienced social and economic discrimination. These reservations are applicable on higher education, government jobs, and even political office. There are a certain number of seats reserved for scheduled castes (SCs) and (STs) in all legislative bodies, including Parliament. Constitutional Provisions Governing Reservation in India Part XVI deals with reservation of SC and ST in Central and State legislatures. Article 15(4) and 16(4) of the Constitution enabled the State and Central Governments to reserve seats in government services for the members of the SC and ST. The Constitution was amended by the Constitution (77th Amendment) Act, 1995 and a new clause (4A) was inserted in Article 16 to enable the government to provide reservation in promotion. Later, clause (4A) was modified by the Constitution (85th Amendment) Act, 2001 to provide consequential seniority to SC and ST candidates promoted by giving reservation. Constitutional 81st Amendment Act, 2000 inserted Article 16 (4 B) which enables the state to fill the unfilled vacancies of a year which are reserved for SCs/STs in the succeeding year, thereby nullifying the ceiling of fifty percent reservation on total number of vacancies of that year. Article 330 and 332 provides for specific representation through reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Parliament and in the State Legislative Assemblies respectively. Article 243D provides reservation of seats for SCs and STs in every Panchayat. Article 233T provides reservation of seats for SCs and STs in every Municipality. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Tiger Reserves Location 1.Melghat Maharashtra 2.Sanjay Dhubri Chattisgarh 3.Ranipur Tiger Reserve Uttar Pradesh How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: ‘Sahbhagi Dhan’ is a drought-tolerant variety of rice. Statement-II: ‘BINA Dhan-11’, which is flood-tolerant. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Indian One-Horned Rhino, consider the following statements: Its status is Least Concern on the IUCN Red List. It is the smallest of all the rhino species. It is in Appendix II of CITES. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Do Department -related Parliamentary Standing Committees keep the administration on its toes and inspire reverence for parliamentary control? Evaluate the working of such Committees with suitable examples. (250 words) Q.2) What are the ideological similarities and differences between Gandhi and Ambedkar? Explain (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  26th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 25th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 26th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Fatehpur Sikri Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently A 61-year-old French tourist died inside the Fatehpur Sikri fort after she fell from a nine-feet-high platform following the collapse of a wooden railing. About Fatehpur Sikri: Location: It is a city predominantly in red sandstone, situated at a distance of 37 km from Agra, Uttar Pradesh. Founder: Mughal emperor Akbar in 1569. Designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1986. The structures has combined elements of Persian, Indian, and Central Asian styles. It served as the Mughal Empire’s capital from 1571 to 1585. When Akbar returned from his Gujarat campaign victorious in 1573, the city was renamed Fatehpur Sikri, or the City of Victory, to commemorate the victory. The Fatehpur Sikri complex include: Jama Masjid: It is home to the Jama Masjid, one of the largest mosques in India. It is known for its imposing structure, graceful arches, and intricately designed prayer hall. Buland Darwaza: This colossal gateway, also known as the “Gate of Magnificence,” is an iconic monument of Fatehpur Sikri. It was built to commemorate Akbar’s victorious campaign in Gujarat and is a grand example of Mughal architecture. Diwan-i-Khas and Diwan-i-Aam: These are two prominent buildings within the complex. The Diwan-i-Khas (Hall of Private Audience) was where Akbar held private meetings, while the Diwan-i-Aam (Hall of Public Audience) was for conducting public affairs. Panch Mahal: This five-storied palace is a unique structure with open pavilions on each level. It served as a place for relaxation and entertainment. Source:   Hindustan Times Basel-III capital framework Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The RBI recently introduced norms on the Basel III capital framework for All India Financial Institutions (AIFIs), which will come into effect from 2024. About Basel III: Basel III is an internationally agreed set of measures developed by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision in response to the financial crisis of 2007-09 in order to strengthen the regulation, supervision and risk management of banks. Basel III standards are minimum requirements which apply to internationally active banks. Objective: The guidelines aim to promote a more resilient banking system by focusing on four vital banking parameters viz. capital, leverage, funding and liquidity. Capital: The capital adequacy ratio is to be maintained at 12.9%. The minimum Tier 1 capital ratio and the minimum Tier 2 capital ratio have to be maintained at 10.5% and 2% of risk-weighted assets respectively. Leverage: The leverage rate has to be at least 3 %. The leverage rate is the ratio of a bank’s tier-1 capital to average total consolidated assets. Funding and Liquidity: Basel-III created two liquidity ratios: LCR and NSFR. The liquidity coverage ratio (LCR) will require banks to hold a buffer of high-quality liquid assets sufficient to deal with the cash outflows encountered in an acute short term stress scenario as specified by supervisors. This is to prevent situations like “Bank Run”. The goal is to ensure that banks have enough liquidity for a 30-days stress scenario if it were to happen. The Net Stable Funds Rate (NSFR) requires banks to maintain a stable funding profile in relation to their off-balance-sheet assets and activities. NSFR requires banks to fund their activities with stable sources of finance (reliable over the one-year horizon). The minimum NSFR requirement is 100%. Therefore, LCR measures short-term (30 days) resilience, and NSFR measures medium-term (1 year) resilience. Deadline for India to adopt: March 2019 but it was postponed to March 2020 in light of the coronavirus pandemic. About AIFIs: AIFI is a group composed of financial regulatory bodies that play a pivotal role in the financial markets by assisting the proper allocation of resources, sourcing from businesses that have a surplus and distributing to others who have deficits. They act as an intermediary between borrowers and final lenders, providing safety and liquidity. India has five AIFIs regulated by the central bank: National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) National Housing Bank (NHB) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) Source:  The Hindu Dudhwa Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: The endangered Indian Skimmer was recently spotted near Zalim Nagar Bridge along the Ghaghra River at Dudhwa Tiger Reserve, Uttar Pradesh (UP). About the Indian Skimmer: It is an unusual-looking bird with a striking red, orange beak where the lower bill is longer than the upper bill. Distribution: Globally found in the coastal estuaries of western and eastern India, and Bangladesh. Food: fish, larvae, insects, and shrimps. Habitat: It favours slow-moving rivers with sandbar habitats formed seasonally during summers, around lakes and adjacent marshes, estuaries, and coasts. Breeding: Between February to June and raise one to three chicks per clutch. Conservation Status: IUCN: Endangered (EN) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 : Schedule I About Dudhwa Tiger Reserve: Location: Spread across the Lakhimpur Kheri and Bahraich districts of Uttar Pradesh. Rivers: The Sharda River flows by the Kishanpur WL Sanctuary, the Geruwa River flows through the Katerniaghat WL Sanctuary and the Suheli and Mohana streams flow in the Dudhwa National Park, all of which are tributaries of the mighty Ghagra River. It was considered as a tiger reserve in 1987. Vegetation: The vegetation is of the North Indian Moist Deciduous type, containing some of the finest examples of Sal forests (Shorea robusta) in India. Flora: The flora is predominantly Sal forest along with its associate tree species like Terminalia alata (Asna), Lagerstroemia parviflora (Asidha), Adina cordifolia (Haldu), Mitragyna parviflora (Faldu), Gmelina arborea (Gahmhar), Holoptelea intgrifolia (Kanju) etc. Fauna: Guldar, Tiger, Fishing cat, Monkey, Langur, Mongoose, Small Indian Mongoose, small Indian civet, Jackal etc. Birds include Dabchick, spotbilled pelican, Large cornorant, Little cormorant, Grey Heron, White stork, Black storck, White Ibis etc. Reptiles include Mugger, Ghariyal, Python, Sandboa, Banded krait, Russel’s viper, Rat snake etc. Source:  India Times Five Eyes Alliance Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently US ambassador to Canada has claimed that “shared intelligence among Five Eyes partners” had informed Prime Minister of the possible involvement of Indian agents in the killing of Khalistan separatist. About Five Eyes Alliance: Est: Post-World War II Members states: Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom, and the United States. The term “Five Eyes” refers to the five countries’ collective efforts to gather and share signals intelligence (SIGINT) to address common security threats and challenges. Objectives: Intelligence Sharing: The alliance members collaborate to share signals intelligence, which includes intercepted communications and electronic data, to enhance their collective understanding of global security threats. Counterterrorism and National Security: The Five Eyes network focuses on countering terrorism and addressing other national security concerns by exchanging vital intelligence and cooperating on joint operations. Cybersecurity and Cyber Threats: Given the growing significance of cyber threats, the alliance works together to monitor and address cyber activities from adversarial nations and non-state actors. Information and Technology Sharing: The Five Eyes partners share expertise and technological advancements in the field of intelligence gathering, analysis, and cryptography. Source:   Indian Express Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The Department of Fisheries is installing artificial reef units for coastal states as a sub-activity under ‘Integrated Modern Coastal Fishing Villages’ of Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY). About Artificial Reefs: An artificial reef is a human-made underwater structure that substitutes as a natural reef to form a habitat for marine life. They are placed in areas where there is little bottom topography or near coral reefs to attract marine populations. They serve to protect coral reefs from human-induced damages as well as supporting biodiversity and healthy ecosystems. About Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY): It is a flagship scheme for focused and sustainable development of the fisheries sector to be implemented from 2020-21 to 2024-25 Ministry: Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying Objectives: To bring about a blue revolution through sustainable and responsible development of the fisheries sector in India. To double the incomes of fishers and fish farmers, reducing post-harvest losses from 20-25% to about 10% and the generation of employment opportunities in the sector. Implementation: It is implemented as an umbrella scheme with two separate components Central Sector Scheme and Centrally Sponsored Scheme. North Eastern & Himalayan States: 90% Central share and 10% State share. Other States: 60% Central share and 40% State share. Achievements: As of 2023, under PMMSY, projects worth Rs 14,654.67 crore have been approved from 2020-21 to 2022-23. The fish production reached an all-time high of 25 MMT during FY 2021-22 with marine exports touching Rs. 57,586 Crores. Source:  PIB International Day of Sign Languages Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Every year Sign Language Day is being celebrated by the Indian Sign Language Research and Training Centre (ISLRTC) on 23rd September. About International Day of Sign Languages: The UN General Assembly proclaimed 23 September as the International Day of Sign Languages. The choice commemorates the date that the World Federation of the Deaf (WFD) was established in 1951. WFD is an international non-profit and non-governmental organization of deaf associations from 133 countries. Established: 23 September,1951 HQ: Helsinki, Finland Objective: It promotes the human rights of deaf people in accordance with the principles and objectives of the United Nations Charter, Universal Declaration of Human Rights, UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (CRPD), 2030 Agenda and Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), and other Human Rights Treaties. Theme for 2023: A World where Deaf People Everywhere can Sign Anywhere! Source:   PIB India’s Dairy Sector Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Economy) Context: Researchers with the National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI), under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), describe how COVID-19 put the brakes on India’s artificial insemination programme. State of the Dairy sector in India: India is the largest producer of milk. India’s success story in milk production was scripted by Dr Verghese Kurien, known as the “Father of the White Revolution” in India. Small and marginal farmers own 33 percent of land and about 60 percent of female cattle and buffaloes. Some 75 percent of rural households own, on average, two to four animals. The top 5 milk-producing states are: Uttar Pradesh (16.3%, 30.52 MMT), Rajasthan (12.6%, 23.69 MMT), Madhya Pradesh (8.5%, 15.91 MMT), Andhra Pradesh (8%, 15.04 MMT) and Gujarat (7.7%, 14.49 MMT). UAE remains the biggest market for Indian dairy products, accounting for US$ 35.43 million worth of dairy products followed by Bangladesh, the US , Bhutan, and Singapore. Stakeholders in the sector: Notably, 228 dairy cooperatives reach out to 17 million farmers, many of whom are likely to be assured of their milk being procured at the right time and at a fair price. Significance of Dairy Sector: Reduces Imports: Operation Flood (also called as White Revolution) converted India from a milk importer to the world’s largest producer. Secure Livelihood: It is a source of income to small and landless agri houses. 70 per cent of those earning their livelihood from milk are women. Dairying provides a source of regular income, whereas income from agriculture is seasonal. This regular source of income has a huge impact on minimizing risks to income. Women Empowerment: 69 per cent are female workers. They are dependent on the sector for their livelihood. Labour-Intensive Sector: Dairy and livestock workers account for 70 million of the farm-dependent population, which includes cultivators and agricultural laborers. Helping Farmers During Natural Calamities: Milk production increases during crop failures caused by natural disasters because farmers place a greater emphasis on animal husbandry at that time. Challenges Faced by the Sector Productivity: Indian cattle and buffaloes have among the lowest productivity. Improving productivity of farm animals is one of the major challenges. Crossbreeding of indigenous species with exotic stocks to enhance genetic potential of different species has been successful only to a limited extent. The sector also witnesses adulteration practices and overuse of antibiotics to boost production. Need of Investment: There is a shortage of organized dairy farms and there is a need for a high degree of investment to take the dairy industry to global standards. Fragmented Supply Chain: The fundamental challenge in dairy is maintaining quality and quantity within a diversified supply base. Due to its perishable nature, dairy requires more complex supply chain operations and logistics to ensure freshness and safety. Lumpy skin disease: Lumpy skin disease has, by all accounts, wreaked havoc. The official death count of 1.9 lakh cattle could be an underestimate. Price Sensitivity: Milk producers are highly susceptible to even minor shocks. For instance, small changes in the employment and income of consumers can leave a significant impact on milk demand. Lack of Budgetary Allocation: Despite the importance of the dairy sector in overall GDP, it receives less government budgeting than the agriculture sector. Impact of Emerging Market: The sector will also come under significant adjustment pressure to the emerging market forces. Though globalization will create avenues for increased participation in international trade, stringent food safety and quality norms would be required. Informal Dairy Economy: The majority of cattle raisers are unorganised unlike sugarcane, wheat, and rice-producing farmers. This nature further inhibits the creation of political clout to advocate for their rights. Only 18-20% is channelized via the organized sector. Need of Modern Technology: Lack of access to markets may act as a disincentive to farmers to adopt improved technologies and quality inputs. Government’s Initiatives Related to the Dairy Sector Dairy Sahakar scheme: Union Minister of Home Affairs and Corporation launched the Dairy Sahakar scheme which will be implemented by NCDC under the Ministry of Cooperation to realize the vision, “from cooperation to prosperity”. Lumpi-ProVacInd: It is jointly developed by ICAR’s National Research Centre on Equines (NRCE) and the Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI). It is a live attenuated vaccine, similar to those used against tuberculosis, measles, mumps and rubella. Rashtriya Gokul Mission: Launched in 2014, this scheme aims to promote indigenous breeds of cattle and enhance their productivity through breed improvement, nutrition, and health management. National Animal Disease Control Programme (NADCP): It is a flagship scheme launched in September 2019 for control of Foot and Mouth Disease and Brucellosis by vaccinating 100%. Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme (DEDS): The department of Animal Husbandry, dairying and fisheries is implementing DEDS for generating self-employment opportunities in the dairy sector. e-GOPALA: The web version of the e-GOPALA application developed by the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) has been launched to aid dairy farmers. Launching of Dairy mark: The NDDB and Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) together developed a dedicated ‘Dairy Mark’ logo as a unified quality mark across India to boost the confidence of consumers in milk and milk products. A unified Conformity Assessment Scheme has been chalked out by BIS with the help of NDDB after extensive stakeholder consultations. Way Forward: Though India emerged as the largest milk-producing nation in the world, and if it has to capture overseas markets for its surplus milk, then the country must be export-competitive. Government should take robust steps in order to make dairy farming more lucrative for the small and marginalized farmers. It is the responsibility of all of us to develop the dairy industry by adopting environment-friendly and climate-smart technologies, keeping animal welfare in mind. Source:    DTE Climate finance must get beyond greenwishing and greenwashing Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment) Context: As we move from UN Climate Week to CoP-28, we need to stop ‘greenwishing’ and ‘greenwashing’ and start thinking about the instruments that will enable the private sector to channel more capital toward climate resilience and sustainable development. About “The Three Greens”: Greenwashing, Greenwishing, and Greenhushing Greenwashing: Greenwashing refers to the deceptive practice of making false or exaggerated claims about the environmental friendliness of a company’s products, services, or practices. Example: Starbucks introduces straw-less lid citing it will help reduce environmental footprint. However, it contained more plastic than the old lid and straw combined together. Greenwishing: It refers to organisations expressing a desire to be more environmentally responsible without taking concrete actions to achieve those goals. It’s like making a wish for sustainability without any tangible actions directed in the required direction. Greenhushing: It implies a situation where an organisation intentionally downplays their positive environmental achievements. It might involve not publicising sustainable practices for various reasons, such as modesty, fear of criticism, or reducing external communication. About Climate Finance and its significance: Climate finance refers to local, national or transnational financing—drawn from public, private and alternative sources of financing—that seeks to support mitigation and adaptation actions that will address climate change. The Convention, the Kyoto Protocol and the Paris Agreement call for financial assistance from Parties with more financial resources to those that are less endowed and more vulnerable. It is critical to addressing climate change because large-scale investments are required to significantly reduce emissions, notably in sectors that emit large quantities of greenhouse gases. Need for practical and accessible investment solutions to fight climate change: Climate change affects all living beings: It is impacting both poor and rich countries, creating an urgent need for broad-based resilience and adaptation strategies. Potential of private sector resources: Scalable solutions require substantial commitments from the private sector, with many current climate-centric investments being illiquid and tightly wound up in private-equity funds. Inclusion of ordinary investors: Many current climate investments are inaccessible to ordinary investors and savers who are the most exposed to climate-driven food, water, and energy insecurity. Requirement of diversified solutions: Diversified, liquid, and profitable investment solutions like ETFs in climate-resilient sectors can mobilize capital effectively and are essential for inclusivity, including the unbanked global population. Challenges associated with the climate finance: Unachieved goals: The UNFCCC Standing Committee on Finance (SCF) released a report on the progress made by developed countries towards achieving the goal of mobilising $100 billion per year. According to the report, it is widely accepted that: The $100 billion goal has not been achieved in 2020, and an earlier effort to mobilise private finance by the developed countries has met with comprehensive failure. Demands of developing countries: Developing countries have for a long time insisted that a significant portion of climate finance should come from public funds as private finance will not address their needs and priorities especially related to adaptation. Climate finance already remains skewed towards mitigation and flows towards bankable projects with clear revenue streams. Private climate finance: The OECD 2020 data shows that the mobilisation of private climate finance has underperformed against the expectations of developed countries. Many investors associate climate-centric investments with ‘social impact’ and reduced profitability. Contradictory claims: Many developed countries and multilateral development banks have emphasised the importance of private finance mobilised in their climate finance strategies, including by de-risking and creating enabling environments. According to the reports, these efforts have not yielded results at the scale required to tap into the significant potential for investments by the private sector and deliver on developed countries’ climate ambition. Way Forward: Suggestive measures Need of significant private-sector resources: While the public sector has an important role to play in climate financing, scalable solutions require significant commitments of private-sector resources. CoP-28 offers an opportunity to rethink how we deliver such market solutions, and how we can harness digital innovation to scale up promising models. Mobilising capital: The solution is to create climate investments that are profitable, liquid and accessible to all. To mobilize capital at scale, we must draw on the global savings of individual investors as well as institutions such as pension funds, insurers, and sovereign funds. Seeking for reliable returns: Carefully selected Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) and exposure to greenfield developments through ETFs are two ways to secure reliable returns from climate-adaptation efforts. Green commodities: An orderly transition to a more resilient future requires massive investments not only in energy, food and water assets, but also in the metals and critical minerals used in renewable energy and electric vehicles (EVs). These include commodities such as soy, wheat, copper, rare-earth elements, cobalt, lithium, and so forth. Climate-aligned portfolio: A climate-aligned portfolio should include assets that provide a hedge against inflation and geo-economic risks, such as short-term and inflation-indexed sovereign bonds and gold. Greater investments in inflation-proof sovereign assets will allow governments to do more to finance the green transition. Source:  LM Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) The Dudhwa Tiger Reserve is located in which of the following states? Uttar Pradesh Madhya Pradesh Karnataka Rajasthan Q.2) Consider the following countries: Australia Canada, New China the United States How many of the countries given above are part of Five Eyes Alliance group? One only Two only Three only All the four Q.3) Consider the following paragraph and identify the historical monument: It is a city predominantly in red sandstone, situated at a distance of 37 km from Agra, Uttar Pradesh. It was founded by the Mughal emperor Akbar in 1569. It is designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1986. When Akbar returned from his Gujarat campaign victorious in 1573, it was renamed to commemorate the victory. The structures has combined elements of Persian, Indian, and Central Asian styles. Select the correct answer using the code given below: Fatehpur Sikri Qutb Minar complex I’timād-ud-Daulah None of the above Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Over the past few years, the Dairy sector has emerged as the most important sector of the rural economy in India. However, it has become one of the most vulnerable sectors of the rural economy too. Critically examine. (250 Words) Q.2) Define the concepts related to climate change: Greenwashing, Greenwishing, and Greenhushing along with relevant examples (150 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  25th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 23rd September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Adi Shankaracharya statue Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister unveiled the 108-foot-tall ‘Statue of Oneness’ of Adi Shankaracharya at Omkareshwar in Madhya Pradesh. About Adi Shankaracharya: Birth: 11th May 788 AD, at Kaladi, Kerala. Samadhi: at Kedar Tirth. Philosophy: Propounded the Doctrine of Advaita (Monism) and He was opposed to Buddhist philosophers. Established four Mathas in the four corners of India at Sringeri, Puri, Dwaraka and Badrinath– for propagation of Sanathana Dharma. Major books: Brahmasutrabhasya (Bhashya or commentary on the Brahma Sutra), Bhajagovinda Stotra, Nirvana Shatakam and Prakaran Granths Advocation of Advaita Vedanta: It articulates a philosophical position of radical nondualism, a revisionary worldview which it derives from the ancient Upanishadic texts. According to Advaita Vedantins, the Upanishads reveal a fundamental principle of nonduality termed ‘brahman’, which is the reality of all things. Advaitins understand brahman as transcending individuality and empirical plurality. They seek to establish that the essential core of one’s self (atman) is brahman. The fundamental thrust of Advaita Vedanta is that the atman is pure non-intentional consciousness. It is one without a second, nondual, infinite existence, and numerically identical with brahman. Source:  Indian Express National Higher Education Qualifications Framework (NHEQF) Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The University Grants Commission (UGC) recently finalised the National Higher Educational Qualification Framework (NHEQF), a regulatory reform proposed by National Education Policy 2020. About National Higher Education Qualifications Framework (NHEQF): Development: The Ministry of Labour and Employment developed the National Vocational Qualifications Framework (NVQF) and the Ministry of Education developed the Vocational Education Qualifications Framework (NVEQF). The NHEQF has divided parameters into levels 5 to 10. Levels 1 to 4 cover the school education. The NHEQF level 5 represents learning outcomes appropriate to the first year (first two semesters) of the undergraduate programme of study; While Level 10 represents learning outcomes appropriate to the doctoral-level programme of study. According to the NHEQF, students must possess and display the desired graduate profile/attributes after completing a programme of study. It also establishes the amount of credits required to complete the four-year undergraduate programme, postgraduate degrees, and doctoral degrees at various levels. About University Grants Commission (UGC): EST: 28th December, 1953 It is a statutory organization by the UGC Act, 1956 Ministry: Ministry of Education. The UGC’s mandate includes: Promoting and coordinating university education. Determining and maintaining standards of teaching, examination and research in universities. Framing regulations on minimum standards of education. Monitoring developments in the field of collegiate and university education; disbursing grants to the universities and colleges etc Source: The Hindu G4 countries Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently the G4 countries have reiterated that expansion of UN Security Council in both permanent and non-permanent categories is essential to make the body more representative, legitimate, effective and efficient. About G4 countries: The G4 is a grouping of Brazil, Germany, India and Japan which are aspiring to become permanent members of the UNSC. They are supporting each other’s bids for permanent membership of the UNSC. The G4 nations traditionally meet on the sidelines of the annual high-level UN General Assembly session. Opposition to G4: the Coffee Club The Uniting for Consensus (UfC), or the Coffee Club, emerged in the 1990s in opposition to the potential extension of permanent seats on the UN Security Council. Italy along with Pakistan, Mexico and Egypt founded the Coffee Club in 1995 to reject the proposal to increase the number of permanent seats in the UNSC. About UN Security Council: EST: United Nations charter in 1945 HQ: New York City, USA. Members: 15 members Permanent members with veto power (P5 members): the United States, the Russian Federation, France, China and the United Kingdom. Non-permanent members: The non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected for a term of two years. The 10 non-permanent seats are distributed on a regional basis as follows: Five for African and Asian States. One for the Eastern European States. Two for the Latin American and Caribbean States; Two for Western European and other States Source:  AIR National Medical Commission (NMC) Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The National Medical Commission (NMC) of India has been awarded the coveted World Federation for Medical Education (WFME) Recognition Status for a tenure of 10 years. About NMC: Statutory body under National Medical Commission Act, 2019. HQ: New Delhi It has replaced the Medical Council of India (MCI) constituted under the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956. Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Functions: NMC regulates medical education and medical professionals. The Commission grants recognition of medical qualifications gives accreditation to medical schools, grants registration to medical practitioners, monitors medical practice and assesses the medical infrastructure in India. Members: It consists of 33 members including Chairman (medical professionals only), 10 ex-officio members and 22 parttime members. Four autonomous boards under NMC: Under-Graduate Medical Education Board (sets norms for undergraduate (UG) courses), Post-Graduate Medical Education Board (sets norms for post-graduate courses), Medical Assessment and Rating Board (inspects and rates the medical education institutes), and Ethics and Medical Registration Board (regulates professional conduct of the doctors and registers them). About World Federation for Medical Education (WFME): EST: In 1972 HQ: Ferney-Voltaire, France. Aim: WFME is a global organisation concerned with the education and training of medical doctors. Objective: It is the organisation that officially and globally represents medical teachers and medical teaching institutions before the World Health Organization(WHO). WFME’s accreditation program plays a pivotal role in ensuring that medical institutes meet and uphold the highest international standards of education and training Source:   AIR State of Working India Report 2023 Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently the ‘State of Working India 2023’ report, released by Azim Premji University’s Centre for Sustainable Employment. Major Findings of the ‘State of Working India 2023’ Report: Faster structural change: Between 2004 and 2017, around 3 million regular wage jobs were created annually. Between 2017 and 2019 this jumped to 5 million per year. Since 2019, the pace of regular wage job creation has decreased due to the growth slowdown and the pandemic. Upward mobility has increased: In 2004 over 80% of sons of casual wage workers were themselves in casual employment. This was the case for both SC/ST workers and other castes. For non-SC/ST castes, this fell from 83% to 53% by 2018 and incidence of better quality work such as regular salaried jobs increased. It fell for SC/ST castes as well, but to a lesser extent (86% to 76%). Caste-based segregation has reduced: Between 1983 and 2021, the proportion of regular wage workers belonging to the SC category has increased. In 2021, 32% of general caste workers were in regular wage employment as compared to 22% of SC workers. The report also looks at firm ownership data to conclude that general castes are over-represented to a greater degree in larger enterprises. Gender-based earnings disparities have reduced: In 2004, salaried women workers earned 70% of what men earned. By 2017 the gap had reduced and women earned 76% of what men did. Since then, the gap has remained constant till 2021-22. Women in job: Between 1983 and 2021, the degree of women’s representation in industries like tobacco, education, health and social work, and textiles has increased whereas in waste management and sewerage, it has decreased. Still, in all these sectors, women are over-represented in comparison to men. Unemployment is falling but remains high: Post-Covid the unemployment rate is lower than it was pre-Covid, for all education levels. But it remains above 15% for graduates and more worryingly it touches a huge 42% for graduates under 25 years. The connection between growth and good jobs remains weak: Since the 1990s year-on-year non-farm GDP growth and non-farm employment growth are uncorrelated with each other suggesting that policies promoting faster growth need not promote faster job creation. However, between 2004 and 2019, on average growth translated to decent employment. Male Breadwinner Norm: Due to the “male breadwinner” norm, as the husband’s income increases the probability of the wife being employed also reduces. In rural areas, the fall in probability slows down as the husband’s income increases. Source: Indian Express SIMBEX 23 Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology (Defence) Context: Indian Navy recently participated in the 30th edition of Singapore India Maritime Bilateral Exercise (SIMBEX), 2023 held in Singapore. About SIMBEX 23: An annual bilateral Naval exercise between the Indian Navy and Republic of Singapore Navy (RSN) is being conducted since 1994. It is the longest continuous naval exercise that Indian Navy conducts with any other country. It would enhance war-fighting skills and capability to undertake multi-discipline operations jointly in maritime domain. Phases of SIMBEX 2023: Harbour Phase: Professional interactions, cross-deck visits, Subject Matter Expert Exchanges (SMEE) and sports fixtures to enhance interoperability and mutual understanding between the two navies. Sea Phase: Complex and advanced air defence exercises, gunnery firings, tactical manoeuvres, anti-submarine exercises and other maritime operations. Source: PIB The Mediation Act, 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, the Parliament has passed the Mediation Bill 2023. About Mediation: Mediation is a voluntary process in which parties try to settle disputes with the assistance of an independent third person (the mediator). A mediator does not impose a solution on the parties but creates a conducive environment in which they can resolve their dispute. The mediation process depends on the choice of parties, and there are no strict or binding rules of procedure. Types of Mediation: Court Referred Mediation: Salem Advocate Bar Association, Tamil Nadu v. Union of India: In the case, Supreme Court held in reference to the matter of mediation that conciliation and arbitration are mandatory for court matters. This judgment has granted legal and social recognition to mediation as a dispute resolution in India. Private Mediation : In private mediation, a qualified mediator is appointed by the parties on a fixed-fee basis. Both the parties come together to resolve the issue amicably. The decision of the mediator is not ultimate and hence not binding on the parties. Key Features of the Bill Pre-litigation mediation: Parties must attempt to settle civil or commercial disputes by mediation before approaching any court or certain tribunals. Even if they fail to reach a settlement through pre-litigation mediation, the court or tribunal may at any stage refer the parties to mediation if they request for the same. Disputes not fit for mediation: The Bill contains a list of disputes which are not fit for mediation. These include disputes relating to claims against minors or persons of unsound mind, involving criminal prosecution, and affecting the rights of third parties. The central government may amend this list. Applicability: The Bill will apply to mediations conducted in India: involving only domestic parties involving at least one foreign party and relating to a commercial dispute (i.e., international mediation) if the mediation agreement states that mediation will be as per this Bill. If the central or state government is a party, the Bill will apply to commercial disputes, and other disputes as notified. Mediation process: Mediation proceedings will be confidential, and must be completed within 180 days (may be extended by 180 days by the parties). A party may withdraw from mediation after two sessions. Court annexed mediation must be conducted as per the rules framed by the Supreme Court or High Courts. Mediators: Mediators may be appointed by the parties by agreement, a mediation service provider (an institution administering mediation). They must disclose any conflict of interest that may raise doubts on their independence. Parties may then choose to replace the mediator. Significance of Bill: India as a centre of Mediation: This legislation will help ensure that institutional mediation becomes mainstream in resolving commercial (and other) disputes between the parties, putting India on the global map as a dispute friendly jurisdiction. There exists a strong correlation between Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) and the promotion of mediation, and Singapore serves as a prime example of how a robust mediation ecosystem can attract greater foreign investments. Reduce pendency of Cases: According to the Minister for Law and Justice, there are 4.43 lakh cases pending in district subordinate courts, 60.63 lakh cases in high courts and around 70,000 cases in the Supreme Court. Mandating participation in pre-litigation mediation may help reduce pendency and the slow disposal rate in courts. Cost-effective: Mediation is a cost-effective dispute resolution process that also helps reduce the burden on courts by enabling out-of-court settlements. Greater Control: Mediation increases the control the parties have over the resolution. Each party is directly involved in negotiating their own agreement and no settlement can be imposed upon. Confidential: Unlike the potential publicity of court proceedings, everything said at the mediation is entirely confidential to the parties (unless specifically agreed otherwise). Faster outcomes: Because mediation can be used early in a dispute, an agreement can usually be reached quicker than if pursued through the courts. Challenges of Mediation in India: Absence of Uniform Legislation: In 2020, the Supreme Court highlighted the pressing need for a unified mediation legislation in India, emphasizing the lack of a standardized legal framework for mediation. Infrastructural and Quality Control Issues: An increased focus on mediation can strain existing mediation centers, which may lack the necessary administrative capacity to handle higher caseloads efficiently. Societal Stigma: Concerns about public perception sometimes deter parties from choosing mediation, as they fear it might be viewed as a sign of weakness or compromise. Resistance from Legal Professionals: Traditional legal practitioners may exhibit resistance to adopting mediation, viewing it as a potential threat to their practice or income. Institutional Support: While legislative reforms have been made to promote mediation in India, the infrastructure for supporting mediation at the grassroots level, including the establishment of mediation centers and training programs, is still in the developmental stage. Lack of Mediation Education: The absence of mediation education within law school curricula poses a significant obstacle to the widespread adoption of mediation as a dispute resolution method. Shortage of Professional Mediators: India currently has a limited pool of trained and experienced mediators, which presents challenges in offering mediation services across all regions and for various types of disputes. Way Forward: Suggestive measures Legal Reforms: Continuously updating laws and regulations to support and encourage mediation, while also ensuring the enforceability of mediated settlements, is crucial. Online Mediation: Leveraging technology for online mediation platforms can make the process more accessible, especially for those in remote areas, and provide a convenient alternative to in-person sessions. Institutional Support: Establishing well-equipped and accessible mediation centers at various levels, from local communities to national levels, can provide people with convenient access to mediation services. More Opening of Mediation and Arbitration Centre: Government should facilitate opening of mediation centers. Recently, Uttar Pradesh got its first mediation and arbitration centre in the form of ‘Centre for Excellence in Mediation and Arbitration or CEMA. Training and Certification: Developing comprehensive training programs for mediators, lawyers, and judges can ensure that there is a pool of skilled professionals proficient in mediation techniques, ethical considerations, and cultural sensitivity. Integration with Legal Curriculum: Incorporating mediation education within law school curricula can prepare future legal professionals to consider mediation as a primary or complementary method for dispute resolution. Source:  The Hindu The India’s Urbanization Paradox: Opportunities and Obstacles Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Geography) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: According to the recent report of Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, about 74% of Smart City Mission projects completed, but urban challenges stay unaddressed. About Urbanization: It refers to the process by which a growing proportion of a population comes to live in cities and other urban areas and the ways in which this affects society and the environment. It is a global phenomenon that has been driven by a variety of factors, including economic development, technological change, and population growth. Different types of urban settlements in India: Census Town: Population of at least 5,000, a population density of at least 400 per sq km, where at least 75% of the male working population is engaged in non-agricultural pursuits. Statutory Town: A town officially designated as such by the relevant state government. These towns typically have a corporation or municipality in charge of local government. Satellite Town: A town that is located in close proximity to a larger urban centre and is dependent on it for economic and social activities. Urban Agglomeration: A continuous urban area of the city/town and also the suburban fringe/rural areas lying within the administrative boundaries of a nearby town/city. Suburbanization: refers to the process of urbanization where the urban areas are growing outwards, and the rural areas are becoming urbanized. Counter urbanization: refers to the movement of people and businesses from urban to rural areas. Status of Urbanisation in India: According to the 2011 Census, India’s urbanization rate stood at 31.2%, a significant increase from 8% in 2001. Projections indicate that around 590 million people will reside in cities by 2030, underscoring the urgency of comprehending the growth patterns and their impact on the population. Causes of Rapid Urbanization: Natural Population Growth: Urbanization is driven by the high rate of natural population increase, where cities experience a greater growth rate compared to rural areas. This can be attributed to improved healthcare services, better access to medical facilities, safe drinking water, and enhanced sanitation infrastructure, which contribute to higher survival rates in urban settings. Industrial and Agricultural Development: The substantial public investments in industries, mining, and sustainable agricultural practices have fueled urbanization. The growth of industries, including their associated ancillary units, contributes to the development of urban centers. Likewise, the expansion of business and trade, accompanied by the establishment of vibrant markets, fosters urbanization in regions closely linked to industrial and trade growth. Rural-Urban Migration: Rural-to-urban migration is a significant driver of rapid urbanization in India. The emergence of manufacturing and trade activities due to industrial development creates job opportunities and the promise of higher incomes, attracting rural residents to urban areas. This migration is often motivated by the prospects of employment and economic advancement. Push and Pull Factors: Rural-to-urban migration is influenced by both pull and push factors. Pull factors include the allure of urban opportunities, while push factors encompass economic constraints, lack of essential facilities, and even political unrest in rural areas, prompting individuals to seek better prospects in urban settings. Consequences of Rapid Urbanization: Positive Aspects: Driver of rapid economic growth: Rapid industrialization leads to the establishment of numerous industrial cities. These urban areas witness the growth of manufacturing units, ancillary industries, and the service sector, contributing to economic development. Increased employment opportunities: Urbanization creates new job opportunities in expanding sectors like manufacturing and services. This results in rural-urban migration as people seek employment in these urban centers, further promoting industrialization and urbanization. Modernization and attitudinal changes: Urbanization brings about changes in the mindset and behaviors of urban residents, fostering modernization and a progressive outlook. This shift indirectly contributes to accelerated economic development. Negative Aspects: Congestion: Rapid urbanization leads to increased congestion in urban areas, causing problems such as traffic jams and high population density. Managing these issues becomes challenging and costly. Poor Quality of Life: The surge in urban population can result in various urban problems, including housing shortages, inadequate access to education and healthcare, the growth of slums, unemployment, violence, and overcrowding. These factors collectively lead to a decline in the overall quality of life in urban areas. Loss of Rural Productivity: Large-scale rural-to-urban migration diminishes productivity in rural regions. This trend negatively impacts the rural economy, contributing to unfavourable conditions in villages. Over time, excessive urbanization can have detrimental consequences. Issues associated with Urbanization: Population Pressure: Rapid rural-to-urban migration leads to an overwhelming increase in urban population, straining existing public infrastructure. This surge in population contributes to challenges like slums, crime, unemployment, urban poverty, pollution, congestion, and public health problems. Proliferation of Slums: Across the country, there are approximately 13.7 million slum households, accommodating about 65.49 million people. Approximately 65% of Indian cities have adjacent slums where people live in cramped and substandard housing conditions. Housing Shortages: One of the most distressing issues associated with urbanization is inadequate housing. In India, more than half of urban households live in single rooms, with an average of 4.4 persons per room. Unplanned development: Urbanization often leads to unplanned development, exacerbating the socio-economic divide between the affluent and the underprivileged. The lack of proper planning perpetuates inequality within urban areas. Pandemic-Induced problems: The COVID-19 pandemic has exacerbated the challenges faced by the urban poor and slum dwellers. Lockdown measures severely affected their livelihoods, highlighting their vulnerability. Government initiatives related to urban development in India: Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM): Aims to reduce poverty and vulnerability of urban poor households by providing them with opportunities for skill development and self-employment. Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana (HRIDAY): Aims to conserve and revitalize the cultural heritage and tourism potential of 12 identified cities in India. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan: Aims to improve sanitation and cleanliness in urban areas, including the construction of toilets and solid waste management. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY): Aims to provide affordable housing to urban residents, particularly for low-income groups and economically weaker sections. Smart Cities Mission: Aims to promote the development of 100 smart cities in India, focusing on sustainable and inclusive urban development. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT): Aims to improve basic services and infrastructure in urban areas, including water supply and sewerage systems. Aspirational District Programme: Aims to transform the overall development landscape in 112 of India’s most backward districts. It includes urban development components and seeks to improve various aspects of life in these districts, including urban areas. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the University Grants Commission (UGC): It is a statutory organization by the UGC Act, 1956 It works under the Ministry of Science and Technology Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following countries is not a part of the G4 group of countries which are aspiring to become permanent members of the UNSC? India Germany South Africa Japan Q.3) SIMBEX 23 is an annual bilateral Naval exercise held between which of the following countries? India and Srilanka India and Indonesia India and Myanmar India and Singapore Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Explain the significance of the Mediation Act, 2023, in India’s legal framework and its role in reducing court congestion. Highlight the potential advantages and challenges associated with mandatory pre-litigation mediation. Suggest measures to overcome these challenges. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  23rd September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 22nd September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23d September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here