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IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS1 Questions [17th July, 2023] – Day 36

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 36 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –15th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Avian Influenza Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Ongoing avian influenza outbreaks in animals are raising concerns about the potential risks to humans, according to a joint statement issued by the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO), the World Health Organization (WHO), and the World Organization for Animal Health (WOAH). About Avian Influenza:- IMAGE SOURCE: The Conversation Avian influenza or bird flu refers to the disease caused by infection with avian (bird) influenza (flu) Influenza A viruses. (UPSC CSE: Bird flu) Influenza viruses There are four types of influenza viruses: types A, B, C and D. Influenza A viruses: infect humans and many different animals. Influenza B viruses: circulate among humans and cause seasonal epidemics. Influenza C viruses: can infect both humans and pigs but infections are generally mild and are rarely reported. Influenza D viruses: primarily affect cattle and are not known to infect or cause illness in people. Influenza A viruses are the only influenza viruses known to cause flu pandemics. These are divided into subtypes based on two proteins on the surface of the virus: hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N). These subtypes include: A(H5N1), A(H7N9), and A(H9N2). H5N1 virus occurs mainly in birds and is highly contagious among them. HPAI Asian H5N1 is especially deadly for poultry. Avian influenza is a highly contagious viral disease. It can infect domestic poultry and other bird and animal species. Avian influenza viruses do not normally infect humans. However, sporadic human infections with bird flu viruses have occurred. Risk: The primary risk factor for humans is exposure to infected live or dead poultry or contaminated environments, such as live bird markets. Prevention:- Controlling the disease in the animal source is critical to decreasing the risk to humans. Travelers to countries and people living in countries with known outbreaks should avoid poultry farms, entering areas where poultry may be slaughtered, and contaminated with faeces from poultry or other animals. Quality surveillance in both animal and human populations, thorough investigation of every human infection and risk-based pandemic planning is essential. Treatment:- Antiviral drugs: Neuraminidase inhibitors like oseltamivir, and zanamivir, can reduce the duration of viral replication and improve prospects of survival. Treatment period: recommended for a minimum of 5 days but can be extended until there is satisfactory clinical improvement. Vaccination:- No vaccine for the prevention of avian influenza infections in humans is commercially available. (UPSC CSE: Vaccine Development for COVID-19) MUST READ: AB-PMJAY and COVID treatment SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four India Government Mint Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the 120th anniversary of the Indian Government Mint was celebrated in Hyderabad with commemorative souvenir coins. Background:- These souvenir coins were crafted of silver, copper, and serve as a tribute to the rich legacy and contributions of the Indian Government Mint in the field of coinage and minting. Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Ltd (SPMCIL) Chairman and Managing Director SK Sinha released the commemorative coins.  About Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Ltd (SPMCIL) It is a wholly owned Schedule ‘A’ Miniratna Category-I company of t Government of India. Establishment: 2006. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. Objectives To be a leader in the manufacturing of currency, coins and security products through process excellence and innovation. Functions::- Conducting printing and minting activities of the Government of India. Developing state-of-art currency, coins and diversified security products in a transparent, cost-effective and efficient manner. Constantly focusing on benchmarking, process automation, applied R & D, indigenization and the triple bottom line people, planet and profit. Ensuring Employees, Customers and Stakeholders’ delight. Production of Currency and Bank Notes, Security Paper, Non-Judicial Stamp Papers, Postal Stamps & Stationery. It also includes producing Travel Documents viz. Passport and Visa, Security certificates, Cheques, Bonds, Warrants, Special Certificates with security features, Security Inks, Circulation & Commemorative Coins, Medallions, Refining of Gold & Silver, and Assay of Precious Metals. About India Government Mint:- IMAGE SOURCE: https://www.spmcil.com/en/about-us/#history India Government Mints (IGM) the units of Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Ltd (SPMCIL). There are four such units:- India Government Mints (IGM) Mumbai: it was established in 1829, and is one of the oldest mints in India. India Government Mints (IGM) Hyderabad: The present mint started in 1997 at Cherlapally. India Government Mints (IGM) Kolkata: The new mint was established in 1952 and became a unit of SPMCIL during corporatization in 2006. India Government Mints (IGM) Noida: it is the only Mint established in the post-independence era.(UPSC CSE: Kushans and Coins in India) IGMs offer a comprehensive range of services covering every stage of the minting process – from planning to the finished products. They utilize advanced technology, innovation, quality and reliable delivery methods. They strictly follow global laboratory standards. (UPSC CSE: India’s Digital rupee: CBDC) MUST READ: Binance SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to (2023) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms · an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible A numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market. Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second-largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Maputo Protocol Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: As per recent reports, the Maputo Protocol contributed towards Africa’s progress in gender equality. Key findings of the report:- There has been some progress on gender equality in African countries due to the Maputo Protocol, but it has been uneven, according to a new report. The Protocol has a target of universal ratification in Africa by 2028. However, with just five years until the target year, there are still 12 countries that are yet to ratify this important legal instrument. There is an urgent need for Botswana, Burundi, Central African Republic, Chad, Egypt, Eritrea, Madagascar, Morocco, Niger, Somalia and Sudan to renew their commitments and ratify the Maputo Protocol in order to deliver on their promises to the women and girls in their countries. Significant efforts have been made to promote gender equality under all the provisions of the Maputo Protocol, which include advancing reproductive health and rights, facilitating equal access to and participation in political processes, promoting economic empowerment and ending violence against women. In the past two decades (2003-2022), in nearly all countries, women’s labour force participation rate (LFPR) as compared to that of men has remained low. In 24 countries, the share of women in the labour force has decreased. (UPSC CSE: Women Employment) Women’s economic rights and opportunities and access to social welfare and protection are significantly affected by external factors such as conflict, COVID-19, the pandemic and climate change. The ripple effects of the COVID-19 pandemic have undone the progress towards ending child marriage. The pandemic had also strained and pressured the existing public health systems. There has been an improvement in women’s participation in the political and decision-making processes. About Maputo Protocol:- It is an International human rights document for the protection of women and girls in Africa. Adopted: July 2003. Adopted in Mozambique. Adopted by: African Union (AU). Ratification: Of the 55 member states, 44 have ratified or acceded to the Protocol. Objective: The Protocol requires the African States to eliminate all forms of discrimination and violence against women in Africa and to promote equality between men and women. Significance:- It is a comprehensive legal framework that holds the African government to account in the event of a violation of women’s rights. It also gives women the right to take part in political processes, social and political equality with men, improved autonomy in their reproductive health decisions, and an end to female genital mutilation. The Protocol is considered one of the world’s most progressive legal frameworks for women’s rights. It is one of the most ratified instruments in the AU. (UPSC CSE: India-Africa: Challenges & Way Ahead) MUST READ: Global Gender Gap Report 2021 SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries have been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in the news in the recent past for its very severe famine? (2023) Angola Costa Rica Ecuador Somalia Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that Limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union. makes the countries of the European Union share their infrastructure facilities enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only· two All three None Shelf cloud Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Massive ‘shelf cloud’ formation was spotted in Haridwar, Uttarakhand recently. Background:- Video featuring clouds that resemble a majestic snow-covered mountain has sparked curiosity about this extraordinary weather phenomenon. About Shelf Cloud:-  IMAGE SOURCE: mprnews.org Shelf clouds are a type of Arcus cloud characterized by a low-lying, horizontal formation. Arcus cloud: a low, horizontal cloud formation, usually appearing as an accessory cloud to a cumulonimbus. They appear as a wedge-shaped structure beneath the main cloud base and typically form on the leading edge of a storm. (UPSC CSE: Cloudbursts) They resemble a shelf hanging from the sky. It is a wide, low cloud that appears before a big storm. They are usually dark and ominous-looking due to the condensation and the presence of rain or hail within the storm. Shelf clouds produced by thunderstorms are always preceded by a rush of dry and cold air ahead of the cloud, with rain arriving after the shelf cloud has passed overhead. Formation of shelf clouds:- Shelf clouds are formed when a mass of cold, dense air forcefully interacts with a warmer air mass. When warm, moist air is lifted rapidly by an advancing thunderstorm or cold front Shelf clouds are formed. Safety concerns:- Shelf clouds are typically found in conjunction with thunderstorms, which can bring strong winds, heavy rainfall, and lightning. (UPSC CSE: Lightning) Their presence often suggests the potential for severe weather conditions, prompting the need for caution and preparedness.  MUST READ: Cloud Wars SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct? (2023) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times that received at the poles. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 UN Human Rights Council (UNHRC) Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, India voted in favour of a draft resolution tabled in the UN Human Rights Council (UNHRC) condemning “public and premeditated” acts of desecration of the Holy Quran. Background:- UN Human Rights Council adopted the draft resolution ‘Countering religious hatred constituting incitement to discrimination, hostility or violence’, with 28 members voting in favour, seven abstentions and 12 nations voting against. The resolution was strongly opposed by the United States and the European Union, who say it conflicts with their view on human rights and freedom of expression. About UN Human Rights Council (UNHRC):- It is an inter-governmental body within the United Nations system. (UPSC CSE: United Nations Human Rights Council) Objective: it is responsible for strengthening the promotion and protection of human rights around the world. Establishment: 2006. The Council was created by the United Nations General Assembly in 2006. It replaced the former United Nations Commission on Human Rights. HQ: Geneva, Switzerland. Membership:- Current members: 47 Member States. These are elected by the majority of members of the General Assembly of the United Nations through direct and secret ballots. The Council’s Membership is based on equitable geographical distribution. Seats are distributed as follows: African States: 13 seats Asia-Pacific States: 13 seats Latin American and Caribbean States: 8 seats Western European and other States: 7 seats Eastern European States: 6 seats The term of each seat is three years. No member may occupy a seat for more than two consecutive terms. India and UN Human Rights Council:- 2019: India was elected to the Council for a period of three years. 2020: India’s National Human Rights Commission submitted its mid-term report to the Council as a part of the third round of the Universal Periodic Review (UPR) process. 2021: India was re-elected to the United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) for the 2022-24 term. It vowed to continue to work for the promotion and protection of human rights through “Samman, Samvad and Sahyog”. (UPSC CSE: Pakistan gets re-elected to the UNHRC) MUST READ: Moscow’s Suspension from U.N. Human Rights Council SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Bastille Day Parade Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently visited the Bastille Day Parade. Background:- Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s Bastille Day visit adds to the significance of the India-France relationship. It is expected that this meeting will set the tone for the next 25 years. About Bastille Day Parade:- Location: Paris, France. Began in 1880. It is an annual event. It has been held on the morning of 14 July each year. It is a French military parade. It is also known as the 14 July military parade. It is also one of the oldest regular military parades in the world. Historical Background:- July 14 is one of the most important days in the history of France, it marks the fall of the Bastille, a military fortress and political prison, then considered a symbol of the monarchy and armoury. This day is marked as the National Day of France. Significance:- Honouring Unity and Freedom: A national holiday in France, Bastille Day honours the independence and unification brought forth by the French Revolution. Celebrating French Identity with Cultural Pride: The French people experience a high sense of national pride during the Bastille Day festivities. Promoting Global Solidarity: Celebrations of Bastille Day take place all around the world and offer an opportunity for nations to unite and build global solidarity. (UPSC CSE: India-EU ties) Indo-French strategic partnership Defence Collaborations:- Purchase of Rafale aircraft: India and France inked a ₹59000-crore deal for 36 Rafale jets in 2016. Construction of Scorpene class submarines by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited in collaboration with Naval Group, France. (UPSC CSE: India and France relations) Adoption of the Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism (CCIT) in the UN. Following the Pulwama attack in 2019, France nationally listed the Pakistan-based Hafiz Saeed as a ‘global terrorist’. France has also supported India’s requests to block attempts by Pakistan to enlist innocent Indian citizens under the UNSC 1267 sanctions Committee based on fabricated charges. UNSC 1267: a list of terrorists is a global list, with a United Nations Security Council’s (UNSC) stamp. Bilateral military exercises:- Navy: Exercise Varuna Army: Exercise Shakti Air Force: Exercise Garuda MUST READ: EU’s Sustainability Push on India SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught international attention for which one of the following reasons is common to all of them? (2023) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements Establishment of Chinese military bases. Southward expansion of Sahara Desert Successful coups Q.2) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (2018) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG. Mains: India-France Ties Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: The recent visit of Prime Minister Narendra Modi to France on Bastille Day celebrations in Paris as the guest of honour coincides with 25 years of the oldest among India’s almost 30 strategic partnerships around the world. About India-France Relations: The two countries commenced their strategic partnership, India’s first, immediately after India’s nuclear tests. France was the first country to recognise the strategic importance of India after the nuclear tests in 1998. The signing of an agreement for the supply of 36 Rafale aircraft in September 2016, and an industrial agreement in March 2018 to build six European pressurized water reactors (EPR) at the Jaitapur site are directly linked to this partnership. Climate agreements: Recently, India and France signed a Road Map on Green Hydrogen, which aims to bring the French and Indian hydrogen ecosystems together to establish a reliable and sustainable value chain for a global supply of decarbonised hydrogen. In 2022, they signed a Road Map on the Blue Economy and Ocean Governance. Economic Cooperation France has emerged as a major source of FDI for India with more than 1,000 French establishments already present in India. France is the 11th largest foreign investor in India with a cumulative FDI stock of USD 9.83 billion from April 2000 to March 2021, which represents 2 % of the total FDI inflows into India. There are more than 150 Indian companies operating in France (including sub-subsidiaries). India’s exports to France were valued at USD 5.6 billion, down by 22.9%. French exports to India decreased by 20.95% during the same period to USD 5.1 billion. Trade with France constitutes only 1.41% of India’s total international trade. A joint announcement was also signed for setting up of a FAST-TRACK system for French companies in India and Indian companies in France. Defence: France has emerged as a key defence partner for India, becoming the second largest defence supplier in 2017- 2021. France has emerged as a major strategic partner for India with crucial defence deals and increased military to military engagement. Induction of the French Scorpene conventional submarines, being built in India under technology transfer agreement of 2005, and the Indian Air Force having received 36 Rafale fighter jets. The Tata group has also tied up with Airbus to manufacture C-295 tactical transport aircraft in Vadodara, Gujarat. Military Dialogues and Regularly held Joint Exercises: Varuna (navy), Garuda (air force), and Shakti (army). Road Map on Green Hydrogen: The two sides also cooperate closely on climate change initiatives. Recently they signed a Road Map on Green Hydrogen, which aims “to bring the French and Indian hydrogen ecosystems together” to establish a reliable and sustainable value chain for a global supply of decarbonised hydrogen. Indo-Pacific: “Joint Strategic Vision of India-France Cooperation in the Indian Ocean Region” presents a blueprint for a strengthening of ties like Franco-Indian joint patrolling in the Indian Ocean. India and France agreed to set up an Indo-Pacific Trilateral Development Cooperation Fund that will support innovative solutions for countries in the region. The two partners have formed a trilateral grouping with the United Arab Emirates to ensure security from the east coast of Africa to the far Pacific. Significance of the India France relationship: Securing the Indo-Pacific: India will require the support of France for maintaining the stability and security of the Indo-Pacific region and countering the growing Chinese aggression. The Indian Ocean holds importance for France as it controls the Reunion Islands. Both countries have concluded a Joint Strategic Vision for cooperation in the Indian Ocean Region in 2018. High Degree of Trust: France has stood by India through thick and thin, beginning with 1998 when India conducted nuclear tests. Both nations share a high degree of mutual trust that allows them to cooperate on bilateral and multilateral issues. Entry to Key Organizations: France’s support will be crucial to India’s entry into the UNSC and the Tackling Climate Change: The cooperation between them can be helpful to achieve the goals of the Paris Agreement and in implementing the Glasgow Climate Pact. Global Stability: Cooperation between the two can help in checking Russia’s assertiveness in Europe and China’s assertiveness in Asia, thereby ensuring global stability and world order. Challenges: Stalled Projects: Many projects that have been negotiated between the countries have not been operationalized. For instance, the Jaitapur nuclear project has been stalled and is facing a lot of domestic impediments. Free Trade with EU: Despite having good relations, France and India don’t have a free trade agreement between them. Further, no progress is being made on the India-EU Broad based Trade and Investment agreement (BTIA) as well. Stand on Russia Ukraine conflict: France has openly criticized the Russian invasion. India has a more restrained stance on the conflict. The difference in the response hasn’t impacted their bilateral relationship till now. However if the conflict gets prolonged, then it might impact the India France relationship as well. Way Forward: India’s partnership with France is built on common values and goals. Both have underlined the importance of maintaining strategic autonomy with a shared understanding of global risks in many domains. There is a high-level India-France political dialogue that is ongoing in defence, maritime, counterterrorism and the Indo-Pacific. In the marking of a long strategic partnership, a common interest in enhancing strategic autonomy and improving resilience, there is much ground ahead for further collaboration. Source: Indian Express Enforcement Directorate (ED) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, the Supreme Court has asked the Enforcement Directorate (ED) Director to resign four months before his third extension ends in November 2023. About ED: The Directorate of Enforcement is a multi-disciplinary organization mandated with investigation of offence of money laundering and violations of foreign exchange laws. History of ED: 1956: The Enforcement Unit was founded within the Department of Economic Affairs of the Ministry of Finance. 1957: The Enforcement Unit was renamed as the Enforcement Directorate. 1960: The administrative control of the Enforcement Directorate was transferred to the Department of Revenue. Post-Liberalization Era: The nature of the Enforcement Directorate changed as India underwent economic liberalization. FERA 1973 was repealed, and the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA), came into operation on June 1, 2000. The Present Mandate of ED: Presently, the ED deals with four laws The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA) Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act, 1974 (COFEPOSA) Powers of ED: Admissibility of Statements: Statements recorded before an ED investigation officer (IO) are admissible as evidence in court under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA). Non-Bailable Offences: All offences under the PMLA, which the ED deals with, are classified as non-bailable. Custody Procedures: Individuals in ED custody are sent to the nearest police station’s lock-up, irrespective of its status. Challenges in Property Attachment: Once the ED attaches properties belonging to an accused, it can be a lengthy and challenging process to retrieve those assets. Burden of Proof on the Accused: Unlike regular criminal law, under the PMLA, the burden of proof lies with the accused rather than the prosecutor. Accused individuals are required to furnish proof in their defense, making it harder to deal with the ED’s investigations. The High-Level Committees for Extensions of Service: For the ED Director: The panel consisted of a five-member committee comprising the Central Vigilance Commissioner and Vigilance Commissioners. They were responsible for recommending whether an ED Director should receive an extension in service. The committees were required to provide written reasons supporting their recommendations. For the CBI Director: The High-Level Committee for the CBI Director included the Prime Minister, Opposition Leader, and the Chief Justice of India. This committee was responsible for recommending whether a CBI Director should be granted an extension in service. Like the ED Director committee, this committee also had to provide written reasons to support their recommendations. Recent Developments: 2018: SK Mishra is appointed as the Enforcement Directorate (ED) Director for a two-year term. 2020: The original appointment of the ED Director is retrospectively amended to extend the tenure to three years. 2021: The Supreme Court (SC) directs the government to stop granting extensions to the ED Director. 2021: Amendments are enacted to the Central Vigilance Commission Act and the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act. These amendments allow a maximum of three annual extensions (totalling a term of five years) to the Directors of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) and ED, based on the recommendation of High-Level Committees. Criticism of the ED: Being Used for Ordinary Crimes: PMLA is pulled into the investigation of even “ordinary” crimes and assets of genuine victims have been attached. Lack of Transparency and Clarity: The Enforcement Case Information Report (ECIR) – an equivalent of the FIR – is considered an “internal document” and not given to the accused. The ED treats itself as an exception to the principles and practices and chooses to register an ECIR on its own whims and fancies on its own file. Recent Supreme Court Ruling: On Tenure Extension: The Supreme Court declared the consecutive service extensions granted to ED Director in 2021 and 2022 as illegal. As a result, the court ordered the present ED Chief to resign by July 31, facilitating a smooth transition to a new chief. On 2021 Amendments: Regarding the amendments made to the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, and the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946, the Supreme Court upheld their constitutionality. Way Forward: At a time when there is a cloud of suspicion over the misuse of government agencies against political opponents, the Court’s endorsement of a tenure extension system designed to undermine their independence is not conducive to the rule of law. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Shelf clouds are characterized by a low-lying, horizontal formation. Statement-II: They are formed when a mass of cold, dense air forcefully interacts with a warmer air mass. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Bastille Day Parade is held twice a year in France. Statement-II: This day is marked as the National Day of France. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following pairs: Exercise                                                                Countries Exercise SAMPRITI                                    India and Maldives Exercise Garuda                                          India Malaysia Exercise SAMUDRA SHAKTI                  India and Indonesia How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Mains Practice Questions: Q.1) India’s partnership with France is built on common values and goals. In recent times, France has emerged as a key defence-trading partner of India. Discuss (250 words). Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 15th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 14th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) -b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – Essay Questions [14th July, 2023] – Day 33

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 33 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – Essay Questions [15th July, 2023] – Day 34

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 34 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –14th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Directorate General of foreign trade (DGFT) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the directorate general of foreign trade (DGFT) has imposed restrictions on imports of certain gold jewellery and articles. Background:- Restrictions mean that a license will be required from the government to import these goods. Although, no such permission is required for imports under the India-UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) tariff rate quota ((TRQ). CEPA: It is a kind of free trade pact, which covers negotiation on the trade in services and investment, and other areas of economic partnership. TRQ: It allows a lower tariff rate on imports of a given product up to a specified quantity. About Directorate General of foreign trade (DGFT):- Establishment: 1991. HQ: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Headed by: Director General of Foreign Trade. Objective: promoting India’s exports. Functions of DGCI:- Licensing of imports and exports. Regulate, restrict or prohibit exports and imports. (UPSC CSE: Free Trade Agreements regime) Providing a complete database of all exporters and importers in India. It has the authority to prohibit, restrict, and regulate importers and exporters. It plays an advisory role to the Government on Policy measures pertaining to national and international economic scenarios. It is responsible for formulating and implementing the Foreign Trade Policy. (UPSC CSE: New Foreign Trade Policy) It also issues scrips/authorization to exporters and monitors their corresponding obligations. MUST READ: Moratorium on e-commerce trade SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-! : Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second-largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Third G20 Sherpas Meet Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: The third Sherpas meeting under India’s G20 Presidency began in Hampi, Karnataka recently. About G20 Sherpas: A Sherpa is a personal representative of the leader of a member country at an international Summit meeting such as the G20. The Sherpa engages in planning, negotiation and implementation tasks through the Summit. They coordinate the agenda, seek consensus at the highest political levels, and participate in a series of pre-Summit consultations to help negotiate their leaders’ positions. Sherpas are career diplomats or senior government officials appointed by the leaders of their countries. There is only one Sherpa per Summit for each member country; he/she is assisted by several sous Sherpas. G20 Sherpa Meeting under India’s G20 Presidency: The former CEO of NITI Aayog, Amitabh Kant is the G20 Sherpa from India. The 1st Sherpa Meeting of India’s G20 Presidency was held on 04 December 2022, in Udaipur Rajasthan. The Second G20 Sherpas meeting under India’s G20 Presidency, chaired by India’s G20 Sherpa Shri Amitabh Kant took place in the picturesque village of Kumarakom, Kerala, from March 30 to April 2, 2023. G20:- Establishment: 1999. (UPSC CSE: G20) Members: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the U.K., the U.S. and the European Union. Presidency of the G20: it rotates every year among members. The country holding the presidency, together with the previous and next presidency-holder, forms the ‘Troika’. India assumed the presidency of the G20 grouping from Indonesia, in 2022 and will hold the post for a year. During India’s presidency, India, Indonesia and Brazil will form the troika. The G20 does not have a permanent secretariat or Headquarters. About Hampi:- IMAGE SOURCE: Condé Nast Traveller India Hampi comprises mainly the remnants of the capital city of the Vijayanagara Empire. Vijayanagara Empire: the last great Hindu Kingdom dating 14th-16th century CE. Hampi was the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire in the 14th century. Discovery: The ruins at Hampi were brought to light in 1800 by an engineer and antiquarian named Colonel Colin Mackenzie. (UPSC CSE: Hampi Stone Chariot) Hampi was the capital city during the four different dynasties:- Sangama (1336 to 1485 CE): Founded by Harihara I. Saluva (1485 to 1503 CE): Founded by Saluva Narasimha. Tuluva (1491 to 1570 CE): Founded by Tuluva Narasa Nayaka and the most famous king was Krishnadeva Raya. Aravidu (1542 to 1646 CE): Founded by It is located in the Tungabhadra basin in Bellary District, Central Karnataka. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is called the “World’s Largest Open-air Museum”. (UPSC CSE: Hampi World Heritage site) It is also known as Pampa Kshetra, Kishkindha Kshetra and even Bhaskara Kshetra. Characteristic features of temples at Hampi: wide chariot streets flanked by a row of pillared mandapas. Famous places: Krishna temple complex, Narasimha, Ganesa, Hemakuta group of temples, Achyutaraya temple complex, Vitthala temple complex, Pattabhirama temple complex, Lotus Mahal complex, etc. MUST READ: Kingdom of Vijayanagara SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well-known (2023) capital cities ports centres of iron-and-steel making shrines of Jain Tirthankaras SAGAR SAMPARK Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology/Governance Context: Recently, the indigenous Differential Global Navigation Satellite System (DGNSS) ‘SAGAR SAMPARK’ was inaugurated. About SAGAR SAMPARK:- IMAGE SOURCE: chantiernavalborg.com Ministry: Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. SAGAR SAMPARK is India’s indigenous Differential Global Navigation Satellite System (DGNSS). (UPSC CSE: NavIC) DGNSS: is a terrestrial-based enhancement system which corrects the errors and inaccuracies in the Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) allowing for more accurate positioning information. Sagar Sampark is able to transmit corrections for both GPS and Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS). GPS: satellite-based radio navigation system owned by the United States government and operated by the United States Space Force. GLONASS: a Russian satellite navigation system operating as part of a radio navigation-satellite service. It improves the accuracy of GPS positioning by reducing errors caused by atmospheric inferences, satellite clock drift and other factors. The error correction accuracy has been improved from 5 to 10 meters to less than 5 meters. Significance of Sagar Sampark:- It will help mariners in safe navigation. (UPSC CSE: GAGAN (GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation)) It will reduce the risk of collisions, groundings, and accidents in the port and harbour areas. It will lead to the safe & efficient movement of vessels. Sagar Sampark at six locations will assist the Director General of Lighthouses and Lightships (DGLL) to provide radio aids to ships for marine navigation. MUST READ: Geotagging of payment system touchpoints SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements : (2018) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. IRNSS covers the entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2018) 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only None Sariska Tiger Reserve (STR) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a Tigress was spotted with her two cubs, in Sariska Tiger Reserve (STR). Background:- Now, the number of tigers in Sariska Tiger Reserve has increased to 30. The government is committed to the conservation of tigers which are important for the environment About Sariska Tiger Reserve (STR):- IMAGE SOURCE: researchgate.net Location: Alwar, Rajasthan. (UPSC CSE: Sariska Tiger Reserve) Sariska Tiger Reserve is nestled in the Aravali hills. It has mountains, grasslands, dry deciduous forests and cliffs. 1955: It was declared a wildlife sanctuary. 1978: It was declared the tiger reserve, making it a part of India’s Project Tiger. (UPSC CSE: Saving the Tiger) Vegetation: – the Reserve has a beautiful blending of tropical dry deciduous and tropical thorn forests. Fauna: The Reserve is famous for Royal Bengal Tiger. Other Animals: jungle cats, rhesus macaque, sambhar, chital, wild boar, etc., are found here. Bird species: sand grouse, harbour quails, crested serpent eagles, etc. Important sites:– Kankarwadi Fort: located in the center of the Reserve. It is said that Mughal emperor Aurangzeb had imprisoned his brother Dara Shikoh at this fort in the struggle for succession to the throne. The Reserve also houses a famous temple of lord Hanuman at Pandupole related to Pandavas. It houses the Neelkanth temple built in the 6th century. MUST READ: Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS) SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? (2020) Corbett Ranthambore Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Sunderbans Perseverance rover Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s (NASA) Perseverance rover has found organic matter on Mars recently. Background:- NASA’s Perseverance rover has discovered evidence of organic compounds in a Martian crater, offering clues on the potential habitability of the planet. Organic compounds: carbon-based molecules. The results reveal that Mars has a more complex organic geochemical cycle than previously thought, implying the existence of multiple reservoirs of potential organic molecules on the About Perseverance rover:- IMAGE SOURCE: readsector.com Mission Name: Mars 2020 (UPSC CSE: NASA’s Perseverance and China’s Tianwen-1 set to land on Mars) Rover Name: Perseverance Launch: July 30, 2020. Landing: Feb. 18, 2021 . Landing site: Jezero Crater, Mars. (UPSC CSE: NASA’s InSight Mars Mission) Power Source: A Multi-Mission Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generator (MMRTG). MMRTG: it converts heat from the natural radioactive decay of plutonium (Plutonium Dioxide) into electricity. Objectives:- Perseverance’s primary objective is looking for signs of ancient microbial life. The rover is studying and analyzing the Red Planet’s regolith, rock and dust, and is the first rover to collect and cache samples. Regolith: broken rock and soil. Perseverance is the most advanced, most expensive and most sophisticated mobile laboratory sent to Mars. It is capable of drilling and collecting core samples of the most promising rocks and soils and setting them aside in a “cache” on the surface of Mars. It carries a unique instrument, MOXIE or Mars Oxygen ISRU Experiment. MOXIE: it will manufacture molecular oxygen on Mars using carbon dioxide from the carbon-dioxide-rich atmosphere. It carries Ingenuity, the first-ever helicopter to fly on Mars. This is the first time NASA will fly a helicopter on another planet or satellite. MUST READ: 7th Anniversary of India’s Mars Mission SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct? (2023) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about ·10 times of that received at the poles. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. Q.2) Consider the following pairs : (2023) Objects in space                                        Description Cepheids: Giant clouds of dust and gas in space Nebulae:                                            Stars which brighten and dim periodically Pulsars:                                              Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None International Biology Olympiad Syllabus Prelims – Important Awards Context: Recently, a boy from Bengaluru won gold at International Biology Olympiad (IBO). Background:- Dhruv Advani, won the gold at the 34th International Biology Olympiad, held at Al Ain, UAE, from July 3 to 11,2023. India topped the medals tally at the event by virtue of all four of its students winning the gold medal. The event saw the participation of 293 students from 76 countries in this year’s IBO. This is the first time that India has turned in an all-gold performance and topped the medals tally in IBO. About International Biology Olympiad:- The International Biology Olympiad (IBO) is the association that organizes the world’s premier biology competition for secondary school students. (UPSC CSE: Chess Olympiad) Mission: to identify, inspire, empower and support the next generation of leaders in the life sciences and to develop their international network. The International Biology Olympiad competition is organized for pre-university students under the age of 20. First IBO: Czechoslovakia in 1990. It has since been held annually. Every year it is organized by different countries. 34th IBO: Al Ain, United Arab Emirates in 2023. India organized this Olympiad in  MUST READ: Target Olympic Podium Scheme SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Mains: Section 144 of Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Delhi Police imposed prohibitory measures under CrPC section 144 in flood-prone areas of the city. About Section 144: Section 144 CrPC is a law retained from the colonial era. It empowers a district magistrate, a sub-divisional magistrate or any other executive magistrate specially empowered by the state government in this behalf to issue orders to prevent and address urgent cases of apprehended danger or nuisance. The magistrate has to pass a written order which may be directed against: a particular individual, or to persons residing in a particular place or area, or to the public generally when frequenting or visiting a particular place or area. In emergency cases, the magistrate can pass these orders without prior notice to the individual against whom the order is directed. Features of Section 144: It places restrictions on handling or transporting any kind of weapon in the given jurisdiction. The maximum punishment for such an act is three years. According to the order under this section, there shall be no movement of public and all educational institutions shall remain closed. Further, there will be a complete bar on holding any kind of public meeting or rallies during the period of operation of this order. It is deemed a punishable offence to obstruct law enforcement agencies from disbanding an unlawful assembly. It also empowers the authorities to block internet access in the region. The ultimate purpose of section 144 is to maintain peace and order in the areas where trouble could erupt to disrupt the regular life. Duration of Section 144 Order: No order under this section can remain in force for a period of more than 2 months. Under the state government’s discretion, it can choose to extend the validity for two more months with the maximum validity extendable to six months. Once the situation becomes normal, section 144 levied can be withdrawn. Criticism of Section 144: Too much power given to magistrate: The section is sweeping, and allows the magistrate to exercise absolute power unjustifiably. Rare remedies in case of violation of rights: Under the law, the first remedy against the order is a revision application that must be filed to the same officer who issued the order in the first place. An aggrieved individual can file a writ petition in the High Court if their fundamental rights are affected by the order. However, in many cases those rights would have already been violated by the state even before the High Court has intervened. Unjustifiable imposition: It has also been argued that imposing prohibitory orders over a very large area is not justified because the security situation differs from place to place and cannot be dealt with in the same manner. It was done in all of Uttar Pradesh during the protests against the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill. Rulings of Courts in this regard: In Dr.Ram Manohar Lohiya case 1967, the Supreme Court held that “no democracy can exist if ‘public order’ is freely allowed to be disturbed by a section of the citizens”. ‘Madhu Limaye vs Sub-Divisional Magistrate’: SC said the power of a magistrate under Section 144 “is not an ordinary power flowing from administration but a power used in a judicial manner and which can stand further judicial scrutiny”. In 2012, the Supreme Court criticised the government for using Section 144 against a sleeping crowd in Ramlila Maidan. Such a provision can be used only in grave circumstances for maintenance of public peace. The efficacy of the provision is to prevent some harmful occurrence immediately. Way Forward: Section 144 is a useful tool to help deal with emergencies. However, absence of any narrow tailoring of wide executive powers with specific objectives, coupled with very limited judicial oversight over the executive branch, makes it ripe for abuse and misuse. In order to deal with urgent crises, the legislature must strike a balance between the necessity to protect individuals’ personal freedoms and other liberties under the constitution’s fundamental rights. Source:  Indian Express Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2023 has been released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI). About the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI): Source:               The Hindu It has been jointly published by the Human Development Report Office (HDRO) of the United Nations Development Programme and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) at the University of Oxford since 2010. It tells about how prevalent poverty is in the world and provides insights into the lives of poor people, their deprivations and how intense their poverty is—to inform and accelerate efforts to end poverty in all its forms. It compiles data from 110 developing countries covering 6.1 billion people, accounting for 92 percent of the population in developing countries. It offers a key perspective on SDG 1 i.e. to overcome the greatest global challenge: ending poverty in all its forms. Key highlights of the Index: Global Outlook: Globally, 1.1 billion people (18% of the total population) out of 6.1 billion people are acutely multidimensionally poor and live in acute multidimensional poverty across 110 countries. Sub-Saharan Africa has 534 million poor and South Asia has 389 million. These two regions are home to approximately five out of every six poor people. Children under 18 year’s old account for half of MPI-poor people (566 million). The poverty rate among children is 27.7%, while among adults it is 13.4 %. Outlook for India: Poverty in India: India still has more than 230 million people who are poor. The UNDP defines, “Vulnerability — the share of people who are not poor but have deprivations in 20 – 33.3% of all weighted indicators — can be much higher. India has some 18.7% population under this category. India’s Progress in Poverty Reduction: India is among 25 countries, including Cambodia, China, Congo, Honduras, Indonesia, Morocco, Serbia, and Vietnam, that successfully halved their global MPI values within 15 years. Some 415 million Indians escaped poverty between 2005-06 and 2019-21. The incidence of poverty in India declined significantly, from 55.1% in 2005/2006 to 16.4% in 2019/2021. In 2005/2006, approximately 645 million people in India experienced multidimensional poverty, a number that decreased to about 370 million in 2015/2016 and further to 230 million in 2019/2021. Improvement in Deprivation Indicators: India progressed significantly in all the three deprivation indicators: Health, Education, Standard of living. Decline in poverty has been equal as well, cutting across regions and socio-economic groups. The poorest states and groups, including children and people in disadvantaged caste groups, had the fastest absolute progress. The percentage of people who were multidimensionally poor and deprived of nutrition decreased from 44.3% in 2005/2006 to 11.8% in 2019/2021, and child mortality fell from 4.5% to 1.5%. Significance: Contribution to establishing public policy instrument: The creation of the Index is a crucial step in the establishment of a public policy instrument that tracks multidimensional poverty and directs evidence-based and focused initiatives, ensuring that no one is left behind. Provides an Overview of Poverty: This provides a broad picture of poverty in the nation while also allowing for more in-depth assessments of areas of interest such regions, states, or districts, and particular sectors, and it enhances current data on monetary poverty. Help measure progress towards Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) target 1.2, which aims to “at least halve the proportion of men, women, and children of all ages living in poverty in all its dimensions,” which contributes to the achievement of the SDGs. Initiatives by Government of India for Poverty Alleviation: NITI Aayog is in the last stage for preparation of Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) parameter dashboard and a State Reform Action Plan (SRAP). In this regard, the Niti Aayog will leverage the monitoring mechanism of the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index. NITI Aayog is the nodal agency for the MPI. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS), Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM), Deen Dayal Upadhyay – Gramin Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY), Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana – Gramin (PMAY-G), Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), Shyama Prasad Mukherjee National RuRBAN Mission (SPMRM) and National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP), and programmes of Department of Land Resources, viz., Watershed Development Component of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana (WDC-PMKSY). To support recovery from COVID induced poverty, Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package was introduced in 2020 and extended in 2021. Way Forward: This year’s Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) reminds us of the need for a complete picture of how people are being affected by poverty, who they are and where they live. There is a need to design effective responses that leave no one behind. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: NASA’s Perseverance Rover was launched in 2002. Statement-II: Its landing site was Jezero Crater, Mars. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The first International Biology Olympiad (IBO) was held in Czechoslovakia. Statement-II: India organized this Olympiad in 2008. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following pairs: Navigation systems                                                                        Countries GLONASS (Global Orbiting Navigation Satellite System)             Russia Galileo                                                                                                         Italy NAVIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation)                                India Bei-Dou                                                                                                     Japan How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Mains Practice Questions Q.) Despite Consistent experience of high growth, India still has low indicators of human development. Examine the issues that make balanced and inclusive development elusive. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 14th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 13th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) -b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –13th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2023 Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: As per recent announcements, India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2023 will be held from the 27th of October this year in New Delhi. About India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2023:- India Mobile Congress (IMC) is the largest telecom, media, and technology forum in Asia. Organized by: It is jointly organized by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) and the Cellular Operators Association of India (COAI). Mission: to catapult India into the limelight, becoming a beacon of the all-encompassing digital transformation shaping the future. Significance: It is a leading forum for bringing together industry, government, academia, and other ecosystem players. Venue: Pragati Maidan, New Delhi. (UPSC CSE: IMC 2021) Ministry: Minister of Information Technology. This is the seventh edition of Asia’s premier digital technology exhibition. (UPSC CSE: IMC 2021) Aim of IMC 2023: The event will harness India’s potent expertise in cutting-edge technologies such as 5G, 6G, broadcasting, satellite, and semiconductors and sculpt an electric atmosphere where ideas ignite, alliances shape, and digital boundaries are incessantly expanded. Theme of the India Mobile Congress-2023: Global Digital Innovation. Sub Themes of the India Mobile Congress-2023: Engage, Learn, Innovate. The event plays a pivotal role in driving meaningful conversations, facilitating enriching connections, and sparking ingenuity across industries. This year IMC is introducing Aspire, the grand Start-Up event. It will lay emphasis on igniting the future of entrepreneurship growth among young innovators and industry delegates in the telecom and other digital domains. MUST READ: Telecom industry in India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: (2022) Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. In the Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain-based social networks. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than by a corporation Which of the following given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, Union Cooperation Minister Amit Shah addressed the 42nd Foundation Day of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) in New Delhi. Background:- Union Cooperation Minister Amit Shah has said that NABARD is ensuring development and prosperity in rural areas by making rural banking accessible. For the last four decades, NABARD has proved to be the backbone of this country’s rural economy, infrastructure, agriculture, and cooperative institutions. NABARD has a huge role in making every person in the village self-reliant especially the women, through self-help groups and establishing them in society with self-respect. About National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD):- Established: 1982. It is a statutory body under the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act, of 1981. NABARD came into existence in 1982 by transferring the agricultural credit functions of RBI and refinance functions of the then Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC). NABARD today is fully owned by the Government of India. HQ: Mumbai Role of NABARD:- It is an apex institution, which has the power to deal with all matters concerning policy, planning. It deals with the operations in giving credit for agriculture and other economic activities in rural areas. (UPSC CSE: Revised Rural Area Development Plan) It is a refinancing agency for those institutions that provide investment and production credit for promoting several developmental programs for rural development. It is improving the credit delivery system in India. It coordinates the rural credit financing activities while maintaining liaison with the Government of India, State Governments, and also RBI. Functions of NABARD:- It provides refinance for IRDP accounts in order to give the highest share for the support for poverty allevia­tion programs run by IRDP. It also makes the service area plan, to provide backward and for­ward linkages and infrastructural support. NABARD also prepares guidelines for the promotion of group activities under its programs and provides 100% refinance support for them. It is making efforts to establish linkages between the Self-help Group(SHG). It refinances projects that are taken under the ‘National Watershed Development Programme ‘ and the ‘National Mission of Wasteland Development. It also has a system of District Oriented Monitor­ing Studies. (UPSC CSE: Start-Up Village Entrepreneurship Programme) It also supports Vikas volunteer Vahini programs which offer credit and development activities to poor farmers. It also inspects and supervises the cooperative banks and RRBs to periodically ensure the development of rural financing and farmers’ welfare. It recommends licensing for RRBs and Cooperative banks to RBI. It provides assistance and support for the training and development of the staff of various other credit insti­tutions, that are engaged in credit distributions. It also runs programs for agriculture and rural development. MUST READ: Cooperative Sector Reforms SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Muslim World League Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently, President Droupadi Murmu had a meeting with the Secretary General of the Muslim World League, at Rashtrapati Bhavan in New Delhi. Background:- President Droupadi Murmu today said that India appreciates the role and objectives of the Muslim World League in promoting tolerant values, moderation of consciousness and inter-faith dialogue. India is the country with the second-largest population of Muslims in the world. About Muslim World League:- Muslim World League (MWL) is an international Non-governmental organization (NGO). Established: 1962. Historical Background: It was founded in accordance with a resolution adopted during the meeting of the General Islamic Conference, which was held in Holy Makkah on the 14th to the 18th May 1962. HQ: Makkah, Saudi Arabia. (UPSC CSE: Arab Spring) Objectives of the MWL:- Introduce Islam and its tolerant values as presented in the Holy Quran and the Sunnah. Consolidate the concepts of centrism and moderation in the consciousness of the Muslim Ummah. Ummah: a community of believers bound together with a common purpose, to worship God and with a common goal to advance the cause of Islam. Strive to tackle and resolve issues facing the Muslim Ummah, and ward off factors causing conflict and discord. Give emphasis to civilizational rapprochement and spread the culture of dialogue. Give importance to Muslim minorities and their issues and solve them within the constitutions and regulations of the countries in which they are based. Benefit from the Hajj season by facilitating meetings among scholars, intellectuals and heads of organizations to provide scientific solutions to raise the standards of Muslims around the world. (UPSC CSE: GCC Trade pact) Hajj: an annual Islamic pilgrimage to Mecca, Saudi Arabia, the holiest city for Muslims Preserve the Islamic identity of the Ummah, strengthen its status in the world and make it more united. Status of the MWL in international organizations:- The United Nations Organization: Observer in consultative status with the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). Organization of the Islamic Cooperation: Observe the status of attendance at all meetings and conferences. UNESCO: Member UNICEF: Member MUST READ: Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements 🙁 2023) Statement-I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States. Statement-II: The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2023) Regions often mentioned in news            Reason for being in the news North Kivu and Ituri: War between Armenia and Azerbaijan Nagorno-Karabakh: Insurgency in Mozambique Kherson and Zaporizhzhia: Dispute between Israel and Lebanon How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Scheme for Capacity Building in Textiles Sector (SAMARTH) scheme Syllabus Prelims –Government Schemes Context: Recently, 43 new implementing partners were empanelled under the Scheme for Capacity Building in Textiles Sector (SAMARTH) scheme. Background:- The panel of implementing partners has been broadened with the empanelment of 43 new implementing partners and an additional target of training around 75,000 beneficiaries has been allocated to the training partners to enable imparting of skills to the workforce. The Funding pattern has also been revised with an increment of 5% in cost norms, which will give much-needed additional financial support to industries imparting skills under this Scheme. About Scheme for Capacity Building in Textiles Sector (SAMARTH) scheme:- It is a demand-driven and placement-oriented umbrella skilling programme. (UPSC CSE: Samarth Scheme) Launched: 2017. Implementation period: up to March 2024. Ministry: Ministry of Textiles. The Scheme aims to incentivize and supplement the efforts of the industry in creating jobs in the organized textile and related sectors. In addition to the entry-level skilling, a special provision for upskilling/ re-skilling programme has also been operationalized under the scheme towards improving the productivity of the existing workers in the Apparel & Garmenting segments. It also caters to the upskilling/ re-skilling requirement of traditional textile sectors such as handloom, handicraft, silk and jute. (UPSC CSE: PLI plan for India’s textile sector) It seeks to provide demand-driven, placement-oriented National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF) compliant skilling programmes. The scheme has penetrated 28 States and 6 Union territories of the country. It caters to all sections of society including SC, ST, and other marginalized categories. Out of the skilling target of 4.72 lakh beneficiaries allocated so far, 1.88 lakh beneficiaries have been provided training. More than 85% of the beneficiaries trained so far under the scheme are women. More than 70% of the beneficiaries trained in organized sector courses have been provided placement. Objectives:- To ensure a steady supply of skilled manpower in the labour-intensive textile sector. Provide demand-driven, placement-oriented skills which shall be compliant with National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF). To cover the entire value chain of textiles, excluding Spinning and Weaving. Promote skilling and skill upgradation in the traditional sectors of handlooms, handicrafts, sericulture and jute. Enable provision of sustainable livelihood either by wage or self-employment. Key features of the SAMARTH Scheme:- Training of Trainers (ToT). Aadhar Enabled Biometric Attendance System (AEBAS). CCTV recording of the training programme. Dedicated call centre with helpline number. Implementing Agencies:- Textile Industry. Institutions/Organizations of the Ministry of Textiles/State Governments having training infrastructure and placement tie-ups with the textile industry. Reputed training institutions/ NGOs/ Societies/ Trusts/ Organizations/ Companies /Start-Ups / Entrepreneurs active in the textile sector having placement tie-ups with the textile industry. MUST READ: Textile Industry in India SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Solomon Islands Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, the Prime Minister of the Solomon Islands met Chinese leader Xi Jinping in Beijing. Background:- Prime Minister Manasseh Sogavare met Chinese leader Xi Jinping and Premier Li Qiang. Sogavare and Mr Li presided over the signing of agreements on police, economic and technical cooperation. About Solomon Islands:- IMAGE SOURCE: macbio-pacific.info Solomon Islands is a sovereign country consisting of six major islands and over 900 smaller islands in Oceania. (UPSC CSE: Solomon Islands) Location: southwestern Pacific Ocean. The Solomon Islands is part of the ethnically Melanesian group of islands in the Pacific. It lies between Papua New Guinea and Vanuatu. Historical Background: The islands, which were initially controlled by the British Empire during the colonial era, went through the hands of Germany and Japan and then back to the U.K. after the Americans took over the islands from the Japanese during World War II. The islands became independent in 1978 to become a constitutional monarchy under the British Crown, with a parliamentary system of government. Capital: Honiara, located on the largest island, Population: less than 700,000. U.S.-China Rivalry in South Pacific:- Recently, China and the Solomon Islands have signed an inter-governmental framework agreement on security cooperation. (UPSC CSE: Solomon Islands and China Security Pact) The text of the pact has not been released publicly. However, the leaked document enables China to send its “police, armed police, military personnel and other law enforcement and armed forces” to the islands at the Solomon Island government’s request, or if China sees that the safety of its projects and personnel in the islands are at risk. It also provides for China’s naval vessels to utilize the islands for logistics support. There have been speculations that China might be building its next overseas naval base in the Solomon Islands after Djibouti. Australia, which has had a security agreement with Solomon since 2017, has been the most vocal critic of the agreement. It claimed it was concerned about the lack of transparency with which this agreement has been developed, noting its potential to undermine stability in our region. Other countries including the US and New Zealand, have also voiced concern. The US has already announced its plans to reopen its embassy in Honiara (Solomon Capital), which has been closed since 1993. The US State Department pointed out that the agreement could stir up instability in the Solomon Islands. US President Joe Biden convened a summit of Pacific Island leaders in September 2022 to unveil a strategy that included cooperation in climate change, maritime security and preventing overfishing. Biden also promised $810 million in new aid for Pacific Island nations over the next decade, including $130 million to address the effects of climate change. The Agreements signed by Solomon Islands and Chinese officials recently during the visit of Solomon Prime Minister Manasseh Sogavare include an implementation plan for police cooperation through 2025. MUST READ: China’s Security Pact with Solomon Islands SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries : (2023) Bulgaria Czech Republic Hungary Latvia Lithuania Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q.2) Which one of the following countries have been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in the news in the recent past for its very severe famine? (2023) Angola Costa Rica Ecuador Somalia Senior Citizen Savings Scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: As per recent reports, the Senior Citizen Savings Scheme has seen a big rise in popularity in 2023. Background:- More than six and a half-lakh accounts being added in the last three months. About Senior Citizen Savings Scheme:- Launched: 2004. Objective: Provide senior citizens in India a regular income after they attain the age of 60 years old. Eligibility:- Indian citizens above the age of 60 years. Retirees in the age bracket of 55-60 years who have opted for a Voluntary Retirement Scheme (VRS) or Superannuation. Retired defence personnel above 50 years and below 60 years of age. Exclusions:- Hindu Undivided Family (HUFs) and Non-resident Indians (NRIs) are not eligible to invest in Senior Citizen Savings Scheme. Maturity:- It has a maturity period of five years. But, a depositor can extend one’s maturity period for another three years. (UPSC CSE: Small savings schemes) Number of accounts:- Individuals are allowed to operate more than one account by themselves or open a joint account with their spouse. Deposit Limits: Eligible investors can make a lump sum deposit of:- Minimum Deposit: Rs. 1,000 (and in multiples thereof) Maximum Deposit: 30 Lakh. Interest Payment: the interest amount is paid to the account holders Premature withdrawal: After one year of opening the account, premature withdrawal is Deposits in the scheme qualify for deduction under section 80-C of the Income Tax Act. Section 80C of the Income Tax Act: allows them to reduce taxable income by making tax-saving investments or incurring eligible expenses. MUST READ: Senior Care Ageing Growth Engine (SAGE) SOURCE: BUSINESS TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following are the objectives of the ‘National Nutrition Mission’? (2017) To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only Q.2) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2017) Resident Indian citizens only Persons of age from 21 to 55 only All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004 Mains: Does India really need state Governors? Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The recent action taken by Tamil Nadu Governor R N Ravi to terminate the appointment of state minister, who was arrested recently, has once again brought attention to the tussle between state governments and the Governor’s office. About Governor: Constitutional provisions related to Governor Article 153 says that there shall be a Governor for each State. One person can be appointed as Governor for two or more States. A Governor is appointed by the President and is a nominee of the Central Government. It is stated that the Governor has a dual role. He is the constitutional head of the state, bound by the advice of his council of ministers (CoM). Articles 157 and 158 specify eligibility requirements for the post of governor. Governor has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, etc. (Article 161). There is a CoM with the CM at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except some conditions for discretion. (Article 163) Governor appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers (Article 164). Governor assents, withholds assent, or reserves the bill for the consideration of the President passed by the Legislative Assembly (Article 200). Governor may promulgate the Ordinances under certain circumstances (Article 213). Powers of Governor Executive Powers: These powers are exercised by the council of ministers in the name of Governor. Governor is only nominal head and council of ministers is the real executive. He is the constitutional head of the state who appoints the leader of majority party as chief minister. He can seek any information from the chief minister. He appoints the advocate general, chairman and members of the respective state public commission. He can recommend the imposition of constitutional emergency in a state to the President. During the period of President’s rule in a state, the governor enjoys extensive executive powers as an agent of the President. Legislative Powers: He is part of state legislative assembly. No bill can become a law until the governor signs it. He can withhold a bill and send it to the President for consideration. He can dissolve the State Assembly before the expiry of its term on the advice of the Chief Minister or as directed by the President. Judicial Powers: The governor appoints the district judges. He is consulted in the appointment of the judges of the High Court by the President He can, pardon, remit and commute the sentence of a person convicted by a state court. Financial Powers: He causes the annual budget to be laid before the Vidhan Sabha; No money bill can be introduced without his prior approval. Discretionary Powers: If no party gets an absolute majority, the Governor can use his discretion in the selection of the Chief Minister; During an emergency he can override the advice of the council of ministers. At such times, he acts as an agent of the President and becomes the real ruler of the state; He uses his discretion in submitting a report to the President regarding the affairs of the state; and He can withhold his assent to a bill and send it to the President for his approval. Controversies Related to Governor’s post: Central Interference: There have been numerous instances of the Governor’s position being abused, usually at the request of the Centre’s ruling party. The procedure of appointment has been the root of the problem. Acting as Puppet Rulers: The Governor of Rajasthan has recently been charged for breaking the model code of conduct. His support for the ruling party goes against the ethos of non-partisanship. Favouring a Particular Political Party: The governor’s discretionary powers to ask the leader of the largest party/alliance to form the government after an election have frequently been abused to favour one political party over another. Misuse of Power: A Governor’s request for President’s Rule in a state has not always been based on ‘objective material,’ but rather on political whim or fancy. Controversies Related to Governor’s Role: Abuse of Power by the Centre: There are numerous examples of the Governor’s position being abused, usually at the behest of the ruling party at the Centre. The process of appointment has generally been the cause behind it. Biased Ideology: In several cases, politicians and former bureaucrats identifying with a particular political ideology have been appointed as the Governors by the central government. This goes against the constitutionally mandated neutral seat and has resulted in bias, as appears to have happened in Karnataka and Goa. Puppet Rulers: Recently, the Governor of Rajasthan has been charged with the violation of the model code of conduct. His support of the central ruling party is against the spirit of non-partisanship that is expected from the person sitting on constitutional posts. Due to such incidents, negative terms like an agent of the Centre, Puppet and rubber stamps are used to describe a governor of the state. Favouring a Particular Political Party: Governor’s discretionary powers to invite the leader of the largest party/alliance, post-election, to form the government has often been misused to favour a particular political party. Misuse of Power: A Governor’s recommendation for President’s Rule (Article 356) in a state has not always been based on ‘objective material’, but on political whim or fancy. The Supreme Court’s stand on office of Governor According to the Supreme Court, the Governor cannot exercise any power that has not been granted to them by the Constitution or a law enacted in accordance with it. The Supreme Court also established the limits of gubernatorial overreach through a series of significant rulings, including the notable cases of: R. Bommai (1994), Rameshwar Prasad (Bihar Assembly Dissolution Case of 2006), and Nabam Rebia (Arunachal Assembly Case of 2016). These decisions effectively eliminate or minimise the potential for excessive abuse of power, subject to the duration required for judicial review. Way Forward: The governor has to see that a stable government is formed in the state and also look into the legal validity of the law passed by state legislature and recommend president rule in the state if there is a breakdown of constitutional machinery. Thus the post of governor is essential for the healthy functioning of democracy though it is true that this post has been reduced to becoming a retirement package for politicians. Source:  Indian Express Human Trafficking in India Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Ministry of Women and Child Development has approved a scheme to provide financial assistance to states and Union Territories to set up protection and rehabilitation homes for victims of trafficking in states having international borders. About Human trafficking: It is trading humans mostly for the purpose of bonded labour, forced labour, sexual slavery, commercial sexual exploitation or extraction of organs. Trafficking of humans is considered one of the fastest growing crimes of trans national criminal organizations. It is a crime which involves violation of human rights by means of exploitation and coercion. It is a heinous crime which is occurring not only within a country but also trans nationally. Trafficking in India: In 2022, 6,622 trafficking victims were reported to have been identified; in addition, 694 were identified as potential victims. In 2021 Police filed charge sheets in 84.7 percent of the 2,189 cases registered under the Anti-Human Trafficking Units (AHTUs) across the country in 2021. Issues and challenges of Human Trafficking In India Commercial demand for Sex: The nature of sex trafficking is seen as an economic supply by the traffickers. Males request female prostitutes under this demand model, which creates a market for sex workers and ultimately encourages sex trafficking, illegal trade, and the coercion of people into the sex industry. Poverty and unemployment: Women may migrate voluntarily due to a lack of economic, educational, and social opportunities before becoming involuntarily trafficked for sex work. Globalization: As globalization has opened the national borders for smooth exchange of goods and services, its economic impact has also pushed peoples especially women and children to migrate and be vulnerable to trafficking. Gender based discrimination: Sons are traditionally regarded as more valuable, superior, and useful in a family than daughters in our patriarchal society. As a result, girls in this society have little to no access to education, which causes a gender gap in both literacy rates and potential income for boys and girls. Legal Instrument to Combat human trafficking: The main international legal instrument is the UN Protocol to Prevent, Suppress and Punish Trafficking in Persons, especially Women and Children, which was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 2000. The Trafficking Protocol, which supplements the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime, is the only international legal instrument addressing human trafficking as a crime. Related Constitutional and Legislative Provisions in India: Article 23(1): It prohibits the trafficking of persons. Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 (ITPA): It aims to stop immoral trafficking and prostitution in India and is divided into 25 sections and one schedule. Sections 366(A) of Indian Penal Code: It prohibits kidnapping and Section 372 of IPC prohibits selling minors into prostitution. Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act 1976, Child Labour (Prohibition and Abolition) Act 1986 and Juvenile Justice Act: All of these prohibit bonded and forced labour. Protection of Children from Sexual offences (POCSO) Act, 2012: It is a special law to protect children from sexual abuse and exploitation. Other Specific Legislations: Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976 Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994 Specific Sections in the IPC, like Sections 372 and 373 dealing with selling and buying of girls for the purpose of prostitution. Steps by State Governments: States have also enacted specific legislations to deal with the issue, like the Punjab Prevention of Human Smuggling Act, 2012. Way forward: Human Trafficking is an organized crime and operated across domestic and international borders, the nature of the crime needs strong cooperation and intelligence sharing between different investigating agencies. There is need to ensure a minimum standard of living for all people, strict border control through proper fencing and regular patrolling, prevent corruption in bureaucracy, etc., to curb the menace of trafficking. Steps should be taken to set up Protection Homes across the country, to provide shelter, food, counselling, and medical services to victims. Our development goals must include both economic development and social inclusion. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The Muslim World League was established in 1992. Statement-II: It is an Observer in the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Consider the following pairs:       Schemes                                                                  Launched in Senior Citizen Savings Scheme:                             2004 SAMARTH scheme:                                                  2023 National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP): 1995 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: SAMARTH scheme ensures a steady supply of skilled manpower in the labour-intensive textile sector. Statement-II: The scheme covers the entire value chain of textiles, excluding Spinning and Weaving. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What is human trafficking? Enumerate the steps taken by India to address human trafficking and suggest measures to deal with the crisis. (250 words) Q.2) The discretion of the Governor cannot be arbitrary or fanciful”. In the context of any such application, more attention is needed. Comment on it with recent examples. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 13th  July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 12th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – Essay Questions [13th July, 2023] – Day 32

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 32 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best