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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –12th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, IN SPACe, the commercial arm of the Indian Space Research Organisation, ISRO has called for an Expression of Interest from Indian private Industries to manufacture a Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV). Background:- The Chairman of INSPACe, Dr. Pawan Goenka has outlined the objective of involving private players in the manufacturing of Small launchers by saying that this will pave the way for India to become a global hub for small satellite launches. About Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV):- IMAGE SOURCE: Bharat Rakshak SSLV is an indigenously developed mini rocket launcher. (UPSC CSE: ISRO to undertake maiden flight of SSLV) It is the smallest vehicle at ISRO with a 110-ton mass. It is specially designed to carry smaller commercial satellites into the low-earth orbit (LEO) from 200-2,000 km above the Earth’s surface. Low-earth orbit (LEO): an orbit that is relatively close to Earth’s surface. It is normally at an altitude of less than 1000 km but could be as low as 160 km above Earth. It is a three-stage Launch Vehicle configured with three Solid Propulsion Stages and a liquid propulsion-based Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) as a terminal stage. Payload capacity: up to 500 kg. It has the capacity to deliver:- 600 kg to Low Earth Orbit (500 km) or 300 kg to Sun-synchronous Orbit (500 km) Advantages of SSLV:- It is a low-cost launch vehicle. It has a Low turn-around time. It is flexible in accommodating multiple satellites. It has minimal launch infrastructure requirements, etc. It is intended to cater to a market for the launch of small satellites into low earth orbits with a quick turn-around time. It will take only 72 hours to integrate, unlike the 70 days taken now for a launch vehicle. Only six people will be required to do the job, instead of 60 people. It will shift the burden of commercial launches from PSLV. PSLV: is the third generation launch vehicle of India and the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages. The SSLV is likely to cost a fourth of the current PSLV. (UPSC CSE: PSLV-C54 launch) IN-SPACe : Establishment: 2020. HQ: Ahmedabad, Gujrat. Objective: promotion, encouragement and regulation of space activities of both government and private entities. It is an autonomous agency in the Department of Space. (UPSC CSE: IN-SPACe) It also facilitates the usage of ISRO facilities by private entities. Composition: It comprises technical experts for space activities along with safety experts, academic experts and legal and strategic experts from other departments. It also comprises members from the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) and the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) of the Government of India. Functions of IN-SPACe:- To develop a space start-up ecosystem in India. To boost the participation of students in the Indian space sector and develop future space force frontiers. To create international opportunities for Indian space companies. To make India the spaceport and ground station hub for selected countries/regions. To develop space tourism and to spread awareness to the public about space technology and its benefits and role in the everyday life of individuals To develop IN-SPACe talent and knowledgebase. MUST READ: Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Home Minister Amit Shah will address two days G20 Conference on Crime and Security in the Age of Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) and Artificial Intelligence (AI). Background:- Two days G20 Conference on Crime and Security in the Age of NFTs, AI, and Metaverse will be organized in Gurugram, Haryana on the 13th and 14th of July. (UPSC CSE: India and G20 Presidency) The conference will bring together over 900 participants from G20 countries, 9 special invitee countries, international bodies, technology leaders, and domain experts from the country and across the world. About Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs):- IMAGE SOURCE: datasciencecentral.com NFTs are assets in the digital world that can be bought and sold like any other piece of property, but which have no tangible form of their own. (UPSC CSE: Non Fungible Tokens (NFTs)) Anything that can be converted into a digital form can be a Non-Fungible Token (NFT). It includes drawings, photos, videos, GIFs, music, in-game items, selfies etc. Even a tweet can be turned into an NFT, which can then be traded online using cryptocurrency. NFT transactions are recorded on blockchains. Historical Background of NFTs: 2015: Terra Nulius was the first NFT on Ethereum Blockchain. 2017: Then came Curio Cards, CryptoPunks and CryptoCats . 2021: NFTS slowly moved into public awareness, expanding into mainstream adoption in early 2021. Characteristic Features of NFTs:- Blockchain backed: NFTs are different from other digital forms in that they are backed by Blockchain technology. (UPSC CSE: Blockchain Technology and Voting) Exclusive ownership: NFTs can have only one owner at a time. Digital Storage: NFT owners can also digitally sign their artwork and store specific information in their NFTs metadata. Confidentiality: This will be only viewable to the individual who bought the NFT. Conditions to buy NFTs:- Anyone who holds a cryptocurrency wallet can buy an NFT. (UPSC CSE: Cryptocurrency) That is the only prerequisite to purchasing an NFT. One does not need any KYC documents to purchase an art. Risks associated with NFTs:- Risk of Fraud: In the recent past, several incidents of NFT Frauds have been reported. This includes the emergence of fake marketplaces, unverified sellers often impersonating real artists and selling copies of their artworks for half price. Environmental Risks: In order to validate transactions, crypto mining is done, which requires high-powered computers that run at a very high capacity, affecting the environment ultimately. Artificial Intelligence (AI) It describes the action of machines accomplishing tasks that have historically required human intelligence. (UPSC CSE: A new global standard for AI ethics) It includes technologies like machine learning, pattern recognition, big data, neural networks, self-algorithms etc. India and AI According to a Canada-based company’s report, Global AI Report 2019, India stood at the ninth position in terms of the number of AI specialists working in the field. The US, China and the UK topped the list. Benefits of AI:- In Policing: With the help of AI, one can predict the pattern of crime, and analyze a lot of CCTV footage, which is available across the country to identify suspects. In Agriculture: It can help sense one how much water the crop needs among many other works. Solving complex issues like efficient utilization of available resources. Analyzing the Data: AI technology helps in analyzing data Disadvantages of AI:- Security:  if somebody compromises a smart system, for instance, an autonomous car, the consequences can be disastrous, particularly given the ever-increasing cyber security threat. Lethal Autonomous Weapons: In the military, the autonomy in decision-making can be dangerous. Technological unemployment: by the introduction of new technologies  the jobs will be replaced by intelligent machines or systems. MUST READ: Binance SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements : (2023) It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or SWIFT system. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: (2022) They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium transactions. of commercial Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 E-auction of rice Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Food Cooperation of India (FCI) started an e-auction of rice to control retail prices. Background:- Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution Ministry have said that the decision to sell rice through e-auction under the Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS) from the buffer stock to bulk consumers has been taken in the public interest. About the Open Market Scheme: It refers to the selling of food grains by the Government at predetermined prices in the open market from time to time. Objective: to enhance the supply of grains, especially during the lean season and thereby to moderate the general open market prices, especially in the deficit regions. Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. Mechanism:- Under the OMSS, the FCI from time to time sells surplus food grains from the central pool, especially wheat and rice in the open market to traders, bulk consumers, retail chains, etc., at pre­determined prices. The FCI does this through e-­auctions where open market bidders can buy specified quantities. The FCI conducts this weekly auction using NCDEX (National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange Limited). NCDEX: a commodity exchange platform in India that provides a platform for trading in various agricultural and other commodities. The State Governments/ Union Territory Administrations are also allowed to participate in the e-auction if they require wheat and rice outside Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS ). The present form of OMSS comprises three schemes as under- Sale of wheat to bulk consumers/private traders through e-auction. Sale of wheat to bulk consumers/private traders through e-auction by dedicated movement. Sale of Raw Rice Grade ‘A’ to bulk consumers/private traders through e-auction. About Food Cooperation of India (FCI):- Established: 1965. FCI is a statutory body under the Food Corporations Act of 1964. Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. HQ: New Delhi. It has five Zonal Offices, twenty-five Regional Offices and 170 District Offices under its control. Objectives of FCI:- Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interests of the farmers. Distribution of food grains throughout the country for the public distribution system. Maintaining satisfactory levels of operational and buffer stocks of food grains to ensure National Food Security. Functions of FCI:- It has the primary duty to undertake the purchase, store, transport, distribute and sell food grains and other foodstuffs. (UPSC CSE: Procurement Reforms) To provide farmers with remunerative prices. To make food grains available at reasonable prices, particularly to vulnerable sections of society. To maintain buffer stocks as a measure of Food Security. To intervene in the market for price stabilization. MUST READ: The Basis of MSP SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger( Guizotia aoyssinica) seeds. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following countries have been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in the news in the recent past for its very severe famine? (2023) Angola Costa Rica Ecuador Somalia Brucellosis Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, a seven-year-old student from Kollam, Kerala tested positive for Brucellosis. About Brucellosis:- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideShare It is a bacterial infection that spreads from animals to people. (UPSC CSE: New Brucellosis Vaccine by ICAR) Brucellosis is a Zoonotic Disease. Zoonotic Diseases: It is a disease that passes into the human population from an animal source directly or through an intermediary species. It is also known as Malta fever or Mediterranean fever. Caused by: various Brucella species, which mainly infect cattle, swine, goats, sheep and dogs. Brucella melitensis is the most prevalent species causing human brucellosis. Spread: Brucellosis is found globally and is a reportable disease in most countries. Vulnerability: It affects people of all ages and both sexes. However, Person-to-person transmission is rare. Transmission: People are infected by eating raw or unpasteurized dairy products. Air transmission: the bacteria that cause brucellosis can spread through the air or through direct contact with infected animals. Symptoms:- Fever, weakness, malaise and weight loss. Treatment:- The infection can usually be treated with antibiotics. However, treatment takes several weeks to months, and the infection can recur. Preventions:- Avoiding unpasteurized dairy products. Taking safety precautions such as wearing rubber gloves, gowns or aprons, when handling animals or working in a laboratory. Other preventive measures include cooking meat properly, vaccinating domestic animals, etc. MUST READ: Monkeypox/mpox SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following? (2023). Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes. Converting crop residues into packing material. Producing biodegradable plastics. Producing biochar from thermochemical conversion of biomass. Q.2) ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations? (2023) Collecting DNA samples from the air in a habitat in one go. Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat. Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals. Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies. Mukurthi National Park Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Tamil Nadu Forest Department stepped up vigil around Mukurthi National Park in Nilgiris to curb poaching. Background:- Following the arrest of a gang of poachers from North India in the Nilgiris forest division a few months ago, the T.N. Forest Department has initiated a number of steps to bridge the lapses in surveillance in densely forested regions of the district. About Mukurthi National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: Team-BHP.com Location: South East of the Nilgiri plateau, Tamil Nadu. It is located on the high altitudes of the Nilgiris, consisting of temperate shola forests. It has been created to protect the Nilgiri Tahr which was the state animal of Tamil Nadu, with the Mukurthi peak and its surroundings being the pivotal point. Rivers:- The Mukurthi National Park hillsides are the source of the Pykara River. The other important rivers originating from surrounding areas are Kabini, Chaliyar and Bhavani. (UPSC CSE: Manas National Park) Mukurthi National Park peaks act as the main source of water for not only the Nilgiris but other regions in the plains. The Mukurthi National Park area is a Hotspot and a core area in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve Reserve. (UPSC CSE: Anamalai Tiger Reserve) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve: the first Biosphere Reserve created in India the in the year 1986. Vegetation: Sholas and grasslands. The area is primarily grasslands interspersed with numerous isolated, compact, sharply defined montane wet temperate mixed forests locally termed as ‘Sholas’. Fauna: Nilgiri Tahr (state animal of Tamilnadu), sambar, barking deer, Nilgiri marten, otter, jungle Cat, jackal etc. MUST READ: Kaziranga National Park SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Candida auris Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, live cultures of Candida auris have been found in hospitalised stray dogs in Delhi. About Candida auris:- It is a multi-drug resistant fungus that is capable of causing invasive infections in the human body. (UPSC CSE: White fungus) First identified: in Japan, in 2009 Global Spread: The fungus has been reported in more than 40 countries, including the United States, United Kingdom, South Africa, and Australia. Candida auris has been tagged as an “urgent” and “critical” threat by WHO. Transmission:- It can spread indirectly from patient to patient in healthcare settings such as hospitals or nursing homes. It remains on people’s skin and objects such as hospital furniture and equipment like glucometers, temperature probes, blood pressure cuffs, ultrasound machines and nursing carts etc. for quite a long time. Vulnerability:- Candida Auris mainly affects patients who already have many medical problems or have had frequent hospital stays or live in nursing homes. It is more likely to affect patients who suffer from conditions such as blood cancer or diabetes, have received a lot of antibiotics or have devices like tubes going into their bodies. Symptoms:- Its symptoms include fever and chills that do not go away after treatment with antibiotics. Treatment:- Antifungal drugs called echinocandins are used to treat this infection. It is resistant to multiple classes of antifungal drugs.(UPSC CSE: Shortage of anti-fungal injection, Amphotericin B) This makes treatment challenging and often requires the use of combination therapies. MUST READ: Mucormycosis SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens. Mains: Electric Vehicle Future Syllabus Mains –GS 3 (Environment) Context: India’s electric mobility plan is largely focussed on battery electric vehicles (BEVs) replacing internal combustion engine (ICE) vehicles, with Li-ion seen as the most viable battery option for now. About BEVs: The Electric Vehicles (EVs) that qualify for a clear upfront tax incentive are the ones referred to as BEVs. Battery Electric Vehicles or EVs are fully electric vehicles with rechargeable batteries and no gasoline engine. All energy to run the vehicle comes from the battery pack, which is recharged from the grid. BEVs are zero emissions vehicles, as they do not generate any harmful tailpipe emissions or air pollution hazards caused by traditional gasoline-powered vehicles. India and Electric Vehicle: India is the fourth highest emitter of carbon dioxide globally and at the recently concluded COP26, it has pledged to reduce its carbon emissions to net-zero by the year 2070. India aims to achieve EV sales accounting for 30% of private cars, 70% of commercial vehicles, and 80% of 2 and three-wheelers by the year 2030. For this reason, India is aggressively promoting the adoption of EVs in the country by offering various incentives at both Central and State level, to buyers and manufacturers. India is among a handful of countries that support the global EV30@30 campaign, which aims for at least 30% new vehicle sales to be electric by 2030. India’s advocacy of five elements for climate change — “Panchamrit” — at the COP26 in Glasgow is a commitment to the same. Various ideas were espoused by India at the Glasgow summit, such as, renewable energy catering to 50% of India’s energy needs, reducing carbon emission by 1 billion tonnes by 2030 and achieving net zero by 2070. The government of India remodeled Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles (FAME II) scheme. The recently launched Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) for the supplier side. The recently launched PLI scheme for Auto and Automotive Components for manufacturers of electric vehicles. Advantages of Electric Vehicles in India: Low cost of ownership: It is a proven fact by many researches that EVs offer way lower cost of ownership in their lifecycle compared to fossil fuel powered vehicles. At times, the cost of ownership for an EV is as lower as 27% than a fossil fuel vehicle. The incessant rise of petrol and diesel costs are increasing the cost of ownership further for the conventional vehicles. Easier to maintenance: An internal combustion engine usually contains more than 2,000 moving parts. An electric motor onboard an EV on the other hand contain around 20 moving parts. The only major components in an EV are the battery and the electric motor. This makes the EVs much easier for maintenance, reducing the cost of ownership significantly. State EV policies: Several state governments across India have already announced their respective EV policies. Some of them promote the supply side, while some promote the demand side. There are EV policies that promote both the supply and demand side through incentives, discounts and other benefits. Cleaner environment: The direct and obvious advantage of adopting electric mobility is the cleaner environment. Electric vehicles do not emit pollutants into the air like their ICE counterparts. The EVs are silent as well unlike their ICE counterparts. This means EVs ensure a cleaner and quieter environment. Challenges associated with electric vehicles in India: High initial cost: The upfront cost of EVs is still higher than traditional gasoline-powered vehicles, making it difficult for many consumers to afford them. Limited charging infrastructure: The lack of charging infrastructure makes it difficult for EV owners to travel long distances. Battery technology: The current battery technology still has some limitations, such as limited driving range and long charging time. Limited domestic manufacturing capabilities: India currently lacks the domestic manufacturing capabilities for electric vehicle components and batteries, making it dependent on imports. Lack of awareness: There is still a lack of awareness about the benefits of EVs among the public in India. Limited Government initiatives: The Indian Government has set ambitious goals for the adoption of electric vehicles, but the lack of concrete action plans and initiatives has been a hindrance. Lack of standardization: The lack of standardization in charging infrastructure and lack of uniformity in regulations across states and union territories is a challenge. Power Grid infrastructure: India’s power grid infrastructure is not fully developed and is not capable of handling the high-power demand of EV charging stations. Government initiatives to promote EV adoption: The Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles (FAME)scheme II, which provides incentives for EV manufacturers and buyers. These incentives include subsidies, tax rebates, preferential financing, and exemptions from road tax and registration fees. The National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP), which sets out the target to achieve 6-7 million sales of hybrid and electric vehicles year on year from 2020 onwards by providing fiscal incentives. The National Mission on Transformative Mobility and Battery Storage, which seeks to create a comprehensive ecosystem for the adoption of EVs and support the establishment of giga-scale battery manufacturing plants in India. The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme, which provides incentives for the manufacturing of electric vehicles and components. The Vehicle Scrappage Policy, which provides incentives for the scrapping of old vehicles and the purchase of new electric vehicles. The Go Electric campaign aims to create awareness on the benefits of EVs and EV charging infrastructure. India is among a handful of countries that support the global EV30@30 campaign, which aims for at least 30% new vehicle sales to be electric by 2030. For the good or bad, India is establishing itself as a global leader in EV manufacturing. Electric vehicles are expected to accommodate higher renewable energy penetration while strengthening and stabilizing grid operation. Source:   Indian Express Indian Space Policy 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: Hailing its ambitious space programme, India is currently home to about 140-registered space-tech start-ups, “stands to transform the planet’s connection to the final frontier” and can emerge as a “counterweight” to China. India’s Space Economy Today, while ISRO’s budget is approximately $1.6 billion, India’s space economy is over $9.6 billion. Broadband, OTT and 5G promise a double-digit annual growth in satellite-based services. With an enabling environment, the Indian space industry could grow to $60 billion by 2030, directly creating more than two lakh jobs. About Indian Space Policy: In April 2023, the Union Cabinet approved the Indian Space Policy 2023. The Policy seeks to institutionalize the private sector participation in the space sector and give a larger participation to research, academia, startups, and industry. It also delineated the roles and responsibilities of ISRO, space sector PSU NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) and Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe). Major highlights of the policy: The policy creates four distinct, but related entities, that will facilitate greater private sector participation in activities that have usually been the traditional domain of the ISRO. Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (InSPACe): It will be a single window clearance and authorisation agency for space launches, establishing launch pads, buying and selling satellites, and disseminating high-resolution data among other things. It will also share technologies, products, processes and best practices with NGEs (non-government entities and this will include private companies) and government companies. New Space India Limited (NSIL): It will be responsible for commercializing space technologies and platforms created through public expenditure, as well as, manufacturing, leasing, or procuring space components, technologies, platforms and other assets from the private or public sector. Department of Space: It will provide overall policy guidelines and be the nodal department for implementing space technologies and, among other things, co-ordinate international cooperation and coordination in the area of global space governance and programmes in consultation with the Ministry of External Affairs. It will also create an appropriate mechanism to resolve disputes arising out of space activity. Advantages of the Indian Space Policy 2023: Provides clarity: The Indian Space Policy 2023 establishes a single regulatory body, IN-SPACe, to streamline the process and provide clarity to all involved parties. Fostering innovation: The Indian Space Policy 2023 encourages private sector participation, which brings new ideas, innovation, and competition into the Indian space sector. This could lead to the development of more advanced technologies and efficient processes, driving the overall growth of the sector. Economic growth and job creation: As the private sector and startups gain more share in the space sector, it is expected to lead to economic growth and job creation. The policy could spur investments, create high-tech jobs, and contribute significantly to the Indian economy. Accessible and affordable space technology: With increased competition, space technology and services could become more accessible and affordable, benefiting various sectors like communication, navigation, earth observation, and more. Encouraging entrepreneurship: The policy creates an encouraging environment for space startups, fostering entrepreneurship and innovation in the country. It provides a clear path for entrepreneurs to enter the space sector, contributing to the startup ecosystem’s growth. Streamlining regulations: By creating a single-window clearance system, the policy streamlines the regulatory process for space activities. This makes it easier for businesses to navigate the regulatory landscape and encourages more entities to participate in space activities. Challenges associated with the Indian Space Policy 2023: Lack of Timeframe: The policy lacks a specific timeframe for implementation and the transition of ISRO’s practices, as well as the establishment of the regulatory framework by IN-SPACe. This makes it difficult to assess the progress and implementation of the policy. Absence of Clear Rules and Regulations: The policy framework requires clear and detailed rules and regulations in several areas, including foreign direct investment (FDI) and licensing, government procurement to support new space start-ups, liability provisions in case of violations, and an appellate framework for dispute settlement. Ambiguity in IN-SPACe’s Position and Authority: Currently, IN-SPACe’s position is ambiguous as it functions under the purview of the Department of Space. The Secretary (Space) is also Chairman of ISRO, the government entity to be regulated by IN-SPACe. Legislative Authority: The establishment of a regulatory body like IN-SPACe requires legislative authority to ensure its effectiveness and legitimacy. The absence of a dedicated legislation could hinder its ability to enforce regulations and provide a robust regulatory framework for the space industry. Way Forward: The introduction of India’s new space policy is a significant milestone in fostering a commercial space ecosystem, but there are still important questions to be addressed to fully realize the potential benefits of private sector participation. Source:  India Today Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Brucellosis is a Zoonotic Disease. Statement-II: The infection can be treated with antibiotics. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Consider the following pairs: Organizations                                              Headquarters Indian Space Research Organisation:      Hyderabad Food Corporation of India:                        New Delhi IN-SPACe:                                                 Bhubneshwar How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Candida auris has been tagged as an “urgent” and “critical” threat by WHO. Statement-II: It is resistant to multiple classes of antifungal drugs. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains practice questions Q.1) Discuss the salient features of the Indian Space Policy-2023 and its implications for the development of the Indian space sector. (250 words) Q.2) To ensure a positive growth rate towards achieving India’s Net Zero Emissions by 2070, a transportation revolution is required in India which will lead to better “walkability”, public transportation. In this regard, discuss the significance and challenges associated with electric vehicle in India? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 12th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 11th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 12th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – Essay Questions [12th July, 2023] – Day 31

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 31 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

[CURRENT AFFAIRS] IAS UPSC REVAMPED Current Affairs Magazine June 2023

Archives Hello Friends,This is June 2023 of IASbaba’s REVAMPED Current Affairs Monthly Magazine. Current Affairs for UPSC Civil Services Examination is an important factor in this preparation.An effort towards making your Current Affairs for IAS UPSC Preparation qualitative. We hope you make the best use of it!This edition covers all Important current affairs issues that were in the news for the month of June 2023.Kindly leave your feedback in the comment section below on the new design and presentation of the magazine. We would love to hear from you! Download The Magazine - June 2023 Important Topics Covered In The Magazine Includes: Drug Abuse in India 22nd Law Commission and Uniform Civil Code India – US Relations Financial Inclusion in India Flash Floods in India Transgenic Crops in India And Much More.... Download The Magazine - June 2023 To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow-TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccountYOUTUBE – https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQFACEBOOK – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/Also, SUBSCRIBE to the WEBSITE Below, so that you don’t miss out on important posts!Thank YouIASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –11th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: Recently, the last date of submission for the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar was extended. Background:- The Ministry of Women and Child Development has extended the last date of submission for the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar till the 31st of August,2023. About Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar:- IMAGE SOURCE: noticebard.com The Awards are announced on December 26 on ‘Veer Bal Diwas’. Veer Baal Diwas: marks a tribute to the martyrdom of Guru Gobind Singh’s sons. (UPSC CSE: Parkash Purab of Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji) The awards are conferred by the President of India at New Delhi at a special ceremony/function to be held in January every year. Historical Background: It was instituted in 1979 as the National Child Welfare Awards, renamed in 2018 as Bal Kalyan Puraskar. (UPSC CSE: Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA)) Objective: It is organized to celebrate the energy, determination, ability, zeal and enthusiasm of our children. Field: This national-level award is given in the fields of Bravery, Sports, Social Service, Science and Technology, Environment, Arts and Culture, and Innovation. Awarded by: Ministry of Women and Child Development. Eligibility:- A child who is an Indian Citizen and residing in India and is not exceeding 18 years (as of the last date of receipt of application/nomination). The act/incident/achievement should have been within 2 years of the last date of receipt of application/nomination for the year of consideration. The applicant should not be a previous recipient of the same award earlier in any category (including National Child Awards for Exceptional Achievement, as were awarded by the Ministry earlier) Nomination can be done by:- State Governments, Union Territory Administrations, District Collectors/District Magistrates, and Panchayati Raj Institutions. All Central and State School Boards, Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan, Navodaya Vidyalaya Sangathan, National Commission for Protection of Child Rights, State Commissions for Protection of Child Rights and National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child Development. Ministry of Social Justice, Department of Disabilities, Department of School Education in Ministry of Education, all state Departments of School Education, Ministry of Youth Affairs, Department of Sports, Sports Authority of India, Ministry of Culture, Ministry of Science and Technology, Ministry of Environment & Forests, Ministry of Defence, Ministry of Home Affairs, and Press Information Bureau. National Selection Committee. Selection Process The applications received are first scrutinized by the Screening Committee. The final selection is done by the National Selection Committee. Decoration:- Medal Cash prize of Rs. 1,00,000 Certificate and citation The Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar is given under two categories:- Bal Shakti Puraskar It is given by the Government of India every year to recognize exceptional achievements of children in various fieldse., innovation, scholastic achievements, social service, arts & culture, sports and bravery. Eligibility: A child who is an Indian Citizen residing in India and is between 5-18 years of age. Decoration: A medal, a cash prize of Rs. 1,00,000, book vouchers worth Rs.10,000, a certificate and a citation. Bal Kalyan Puraskar It is given as recognition to Individuals and Institutions, who have made an outstanding contribution towards service for children in the field of child development, child protection and child welfare. Eligibility: An individual who is an Indian Citizen residing in India and should have attained the age of 18 years or above (as of 31st August of the respective year). S/he should have worked for the cause of children for not less than 7 years. The institution should not be entirely funded by the government and should have been in the field of child welfare for 10 years and performing consistently in the field. MUST READ: Padma awards SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four INS Utkrosh Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: The Chief of Defense Staff, CDS, General Anil Chauhan inaugurated LRMR Hangar & Dispersal at Naval Air Station, INS Utkrosh in Port Blair. The twin hangar spread over 6000 sq. mt. can accommodate a combination of P8I aircraft with Dronier & Advanced Light Helicopters. It will help in strengthening the security of the Indian Oceans Region. About INS Utkrosh:- It is an Indian naval air station under the joint-services Andaman and Nicobar Command of the Indian Armed Forces. (UPSC CSE: SLBM launch by INS Arihant) Location: Port Blair, Andaman & Nicobar Islands. Commissioning: It was commissioned in This station operates the Do-228 maritime patrol aircraft and a SAR (Search & Rescue) flight of HAL Chetak helicopters. Maritime patrol aircraft (MPA): a fixed-wing aircraft designed to operate for long durations over water in maritime patrol roles. Search and rescue (SAR) service: provided to the survivors of aircraft accidents as well as aircraft in distress (and their occupants) regardless of their nationality. Significance:- The station handles courier flights from the mainland and civil flights to and from Port Blair. It shares airside facilities with Veer Savarkar International Airport which handles civilian traffic. The facilities at INS Utkrosh have been significantly upgraded. The runway has been lengthened to almost 11,000 feet (3,400 m). Except for the civilian terminal operated by the Airports Authority of India, all other air traffic operations over Port Blair are undertaken by INS Utkrosh. MUST READ: Kalvari-Class Submarine INS Vagir SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (2016) Amphibious warfare ship Nuclear-powered submarine Torpedo launch and recovery vessel Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier Directorate of Revenue Intelligence Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence seized over 48 kg of gold paste estimated to be worth 25 crore rupees at Surat international airport. Background:- DRI said that it has busted a smuggling syndicate by arresting the four persons. It said that based on specific intelligence, DRI officers intercepted three passengers arriving from Sharjah by an Air India Express Flight suspected to be carrying gold in paste form. About Directorate of Revenue Intelligence:- It is the apex anti-smuggling agency of India. (UPSC CSE: DRI) Implementing Agency: Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs, Ministry of Finance. The Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC) was renamed as the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) in 2018 after the rollout of Goods and Services Tax (GST). (UPSC CSE: GST) Established: 1957. Objective: It is tasked with detecting and curbing the smuggling of contraband, including drug trafficking and illicit international trade in wildlife and environmentally sensitive items, as well as combating commercial frauds related to international trade and evasion of Customs duty. HQ: New Delhi. The DRI has also been designated as the lead agency for Anti-Smuggling National Coordination Centre (SCord). (UPSC CSE: Problem of cross border smuggling in India) Functions of DRI:- Collection of intelligence about the smuggling of contraband goods, narcotics, under-invoicing etc. Analysis and dissemination of such intelligence to the field formations for action and working on such intelligence, where necessary. Keeping watch over important seizures and investigation cases. Associating or taking over the investigations which warrant specialized handling by the Directorate. Guiding important investigation/prosecution cases. Keeping liaison with foreign countries, Indian Missions and Enforcement agencies abroad on anti-smuggling matters. To keep liaison with C.B.I. and through them with the INTERPOL. To refer cases registered under the Customs Act to the Income Tax Department for action under the Income Tax Act. To keep statistics of seizures and prices/rates etc. To study and suggest remedies for loopholes in law and procedures to combat smuggling. MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Kharif crops Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Kharif crops took a severe hit by intense and unprecedented rainfall across India. Background:- Record-breaking, heavy to extremely heavy rainfall in different regions, especially in the northwestern states of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh, has now dealt a crushing blow by inundating the fields of already sown crops. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has advised farmers to drain out excess water from their fields so that standing crops are saved from rotting. About India Meteorological Department Established:1875. Ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences. HQ: New Delhi. It is the principal agency responsible for meteorological observations, weather forecasting and seismology. IMD is also one of the six Regional Specialized Meteorological Centres of the World Meteorological Organization. Regional Specialized Meteorological Centre (RSMC) of Tropical Cyclones in New Delhi is responsible for naming the cyclones in the northern Indian Ocean region. About Kharif crops:- IMAGE SOURCE: blogspot.com India is a peninsular country where the climate is mostly driven by monsoon. (UPSC CSE: North East Monsoon) Due to this reason, India is endowed with a variety of seasons. These seasons, in turn, provide different weather conditions to crops, which eventually lead to different cropping patterns. Based on seasons, crops are classified into the following: Kharif crops Rabi crops Zaid crops Kharif crops, are cultivated and harvested in the monsoon season. Naming: The word “Kharif” is Arabic for autumn since the season coincides with the beginning of autumn or winter. Sowing and Harvesting: These are sown at the beginning of a monsoon season and farmers harvest them at the end of the season. Time Period: The Kharif season differs in every state of the country but is generally from June to September. One of the important features of Kharif crops is that they need a lot of water and hot weather for proper growth. Kharif crops examples: Rice, Cotton, Maize etc. (UPSC CSE: Government announces hike in MSP for Kharif season) India is the second-largest producer of rice in the world after China. India accounts for approximately 20% of the world’s rice production. MUST READ: Agriculture Insurance Company of India (AIC) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following trees: (2023) Jackfruit (Artoca7pus heterophyllus) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger( Guizotia aoyssinica) seeds. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Yamuna Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: As per recent reports, evacuation of people from low-lying areas around the river Yamuna is to start soon. Background:- Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal announced that evacuation of people from low-lying areas around Yamuna will start once the river touches the 206-metre mark. About Yamuna:- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideShare Origin: It originates from the Yamunotri Glacier. Yamunotri Glacier: it lies on the southwestern slopes or Banderpoonch Peak, in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. Yamuna joins the Ganges (Ganga) River near Prayagraj (Allahabad). Drainage Basin: it flows along the states of Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and Haryana and enters Delhi and Uttar Pradesh. It is the largest tributary of the Ganga in the northern plains. (UPSC CSE: Cleaning of River Ganga) Total length: from its origin till Allahabad is 1,376 km. It creates the highly fertile alluvial, Yamuna-Ganges Doab region between itself and the Ganges in the Indo-Gangetic plain. Important Cities: The cities of Bhagpat, Delhi, Noida, Mathura, Agra, Firozabad, Etawah, Hamirpur, and Allahabad lie on its banks. (UPSC CSE: Sutlej-Yamuna Link Canal Project) Tributaries of Yamuna:- Yamuna is joined by its biggest tributary, the Tons River near Dehradun, Uttarakhand. Right bank tributaries: Chambal, Hindon, Sarda and Giri rivers. Chambal River is Yamuna’s biggest tributary right bank tributary. (UPSC CSE: National Chambal Sanctuary) Left bank tributaries: Betwa and Sindh. MUST READ: Yamuna Pollution SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake. Meandering of the Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? (2022) Cauvery Manjira Pennar Tungabhadra Mains: Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) Mechanisms Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Union government is set to launch an initiative under which women-only courts will be set up at the village-level. Alternative Dispute Resolution: ADR refers to the methods of resolving a dispute, which are alternatives for litigation in Courts. Generally, it uses a neutral third party who helps the parties to communicate, discuss the differences and resolve the dispute. It offers to resolve all types of matters related to civil disputes, as explicitly provided by the law. Important Provisions Related To ADR Section 89 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908: Provides that opportunity to the people, if it appears to court there exist elements of settlement outside the court then the court formulate the terms of the possible settlement and refer the same for ADRs. Legal Services Authority Act, 1987 (established Lok Adalat System) Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 Types of ADR Source:    https://viamediationcentre.org/readnews/NjI4/Modes-of-ADR Status of ADR in India Statutory Backing: The Legal Services Authorities Act was passed in 1987 to encourage out-of-court settlements, and the new Arbitration and Conciliation Act was enacted in 1996. Inclusion of Plea Bargaining: Procedure for plea-bargaining was included in the Code of Criminal Procedure in 2005. Plea-bargaining is best described as a “pre-trial negotiation between the accused and the prosecution during which the accused agrees to plead guilty in exchange for certain concessions by the prosecution.” Lok Adalats: Lok Adalat or “people’s court” comprises an informal setting which facilitates negotiations in the presence of a judicial officer wherein cases are dispensed without undue emphasis on legal technicalities. The order of the Lok-Adalat is final and binding on the parties, and is not appealable in a court of law. Online Dispute Resolution (ODR): The NITI Aayog in its recently released report – The Future of Dispute Resolution discusses the concept of Online Dispute Resolution (ODR) – its evolution, significance and present status in India. ODR refers to the usage of ICT tools to enable parties to resolve their disputes. In its first phase, ODR shares its fundamentals with ADR Mechanisms of negotiation, mediation and arbitration. Advantages of ADR: Amicable solution: It is a party-driven process, allowing litigants to reach an amicable settlement. Thus ADR mechanisms mainly focus on simplicity and convenience of the litigants. Speed of settlement: When compared to litigation, alternative dispute resolution devices, such as arbitration and mediation can clear a dispute within days if not months. Lok Adalats offer parties speed of settlement, as cases are often disposed of in a single day; Procedural flexibility: As there is no strict application of procedural laws such as the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, and the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 there is procedural flexibility for the parties; Economic affordability: Cases in courts can go on for years increasing the costs exponentially. ADR mechanism is much more cost effective as there are no court fees and significantly less lawyer fees. Finality of awards: No further appeal is allowed on the agreement reached between two parties. This prevents delays in settlement of disputes. Extra security of awards: The award issued by a Lok Adalat, after the filing of a joint compromise petition. It has the status of a civil court decree. Limitations No Appeals: There is less or no scope of appeal in awards. Whenever there is a problem with the award, there would be no scope of appeal or correction. Varied Guidelines: It is difficult to choose among various guidelines and multiple institutions providing the facility of arbitration. Different Statutes: Due to different statutes for domestic and international arbitration, it is difficult to ascertain the applicability of the laws relating to international arbitration. Cross-cultural Language Barrier: Due to discrepancy in the language and culture of the two regions, it becomes difficult to bridge the gap and come to a unified solution. Unfamiliarity and lack of awareness: Most people still prefer the conventional method of going to courts and are also not informed about these options and the methodology. Way Forward: The material and social situation of the litigants forces them to approach ADR mechanism, which is cost effective. However, such mechanism might not always be fair to all parties and may favour the mighty. when dealing with equal parties and in major economic matters, ADR mechanisms can lead to significant cost reductions and reduction of burden on the judiciary. Source:The Hindu Forest (Conservation) Amendment Bill, 2023 Syllabus Mains –GS 3 (Environment) Context: A parliamentary committee, set up to examine the controversial proposed amendments to the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, has endorsed the amendment Bill in its entirety. About Forest cover in India: Forest cover’, in India, refers to land greater than one hectare in size where the tree canopy density is greater than 10%. India’s total forest cover rose to 38,251 sq. km from 2001 to 2021. This increase was mainly in terms of open forest cover, where tree canopy density ranges from 10% to 40%. Forest cover in regions classified as ‘dense forest’ actually decreased during that period. The amendments which encourage plantation cultivation may increase tree cover, but will be unable to stem the loss of dense forests. Key Features of the Forest (Conservation) Amendment Bill, 2023: Land under the Purview of the Act : The Bill provides that two types of land will be under the purview of the Act: land declared/notified as a forest under the Indian Forest Act, 1927 or under any other law, or land not covered in the first category but notified as a forest on or after October 25, 1980 in a government record. Exempted Categories of Land; The Bill exempts certain types of land from the provisions of the Act, such as forest land along a rail line or a public road maintained by the government. Assignment/Leasing of Foreign Land Under the Act, a state government requires prior approval of the central government to assign forest land to any entity not owned or controlled by government. In the Bill, this condition is extended to all entities, including those owned and controlled by government. It also requires that prior approval be subject to terms and conditions prescribed by the central government. Permitted Activities in Forest Land: The Act restricts the de-reservation of forests or use of forest land for non-forest purposes. Such restrictions may be lifted with the prior approval of the central government. Non-forest purposes include use of land for cultivating horticultural crops or for any purpose other than reafforestation. The Act specifies certain activities that will be excluded from non-forest purposes, meaning that restrictions on the use of forest land for non-forest purposes will not apply. The Bill adds more activities to this list such as: zoos and safaris under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 owned by the government or any authority, in forest areas other than protected areas, ecotourism facilities, silvicultural operations (enhancing forest growth), and any other purpose specified by the central government. Power to Issue Directions: The Bill adds that the central government may issue directions for the implementation of the Act to any authority/organisation under or recognized by the centre, state, or union territory (UT). Controversial parts of the Amendment Dilution Concerns: Some critics argue that the amendments dilute the Supreme Court’s 1996 Godavarman case judgment, which extended protection to forests not officially classified as such. Geographically Sensitive Areas: Projects within 100 km of international borders or the Line of Control would no longer require forest clearance, which raises concerns about the environment and security. Deemed Forests and Tourism: Central protection for deemed forests and restrictions on activities like tourism could be compromised, affecting biodiversity conservation and forest integrity. Impact on Forest Cover: Exempting land near border areas for national security projects may adversely affect forest cover and wildlife in northeastern states, which have high forest cover and are biodiversity hotspots. Potential Adverse Effects: Blanket exemptions for projects like zoos, eco-tourism facilities, and reconnaissance surveys may have negative consequences for forest land and wildlife. Way Forward: The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Bill, despite attracting objections and controversies, has received the endorsement of the parliamentary committee. The proposed amendments aim to bring clarity to the Act’s applicability and promote tree cover, national security infrastructure, and livelihood opportunities. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Directorate of Revenue Intelligence suggest remedies for loopholes in law and procedures to combat smuggling. Statement-II: It collects intelligence about the smuggling of narcotics. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar can be given to a child who is an Indian Citizen not exceeding 20 years. Statement-II: It includes a medal, a cash prize of Rs. 1,00,000, a certificate and a citation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following pairs: River                                                                Origin Hindon                                                         Vindhya Range Yamuna                                                        Yamunotri Glacier Teesta                                                           Shivalik Hills How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Mains practice questions Q.1) Explain the various types of Alternative Dispute Resolution mechanisms available in India. What advantages do they offer over the traditional methods of settling disputes? (250 words) Q.2) The forest conservation Bill’s focus on raising ‘tradeable vertical repositories of carbon’ can jeopardise the very purpose of the Act, which is to protect and conserve India’s forests. Critically analyse. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 11th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 10th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) -d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – Essay Questions [11th July, 2023] – Day 30

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 30 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 10th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Performance Grading Index for Districts (PGI-D) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The Performance Grading Index for Districts (PGI-D) combined reports for 2020-21 and 2021-22 were released recently. About Performance Grading Index for Districts (PGI-D):- Released first: 2017-18. (UPSC CSE: Performance Grading Index) By: Department of School Education and Literacy (DoSE&L), Ministry of Education. Objective: to help the Districts to prioritize areas for intervention in school education and thus improve to reach the highest grade. The report the performance of the school education system at the District level by creating an index for comprehensive analysis. 83-indicator-based PGI-D has been designed to grade the performance of all districts in school education. Significance: The PGI-D is expected to help the state education departments to identify gaps at the district level and improve their performance in a decentralized manner. The indicator-wise PGI score shows the areas where a district needs to improve. Methodology The PGI-D structure comprises of total weightage of 600 points across 83 indicators. These are grouped under 6 categories viz., Outcomes, Effective Classroom Transaction, Infrastructure Facilities & Student’s Entitlements, School Safety & Child Protection, Digital Learning and Governance Process. These categories are further divided into 12 domains. PGI-D grades the districts into ten grades viz., Daksh and Akanshi-3. Daksh: it is the Highest achievable Grade for Districts scoring more than 90% of the total points in that category or Akanshi-3: The lowest grade in PGI-D, which is for scores up to 10% of the total points. PGI for districts report – 2020-21 & 2021-22 The Covid Pandemic has affected the performance of districts during 2020-21 to 2021-22 as compared to 2019-20. None of the districts attained the top two grades. 79 districts made consistent improvement in PGI-D scores in the last 4 years. In spite of the Covid pandemic at its peak in 2021-22, 290 districts have made a notable improvement in their performance when compared to 2019-20 (pre-pandemic) with 2021-22. Overall, 194 districts have made grade level improvement in 2021-22 as compared to 2018-19. MUST READ: Education & Aspiring India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. 3 . It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. 4 . Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’?(2017) To enable famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Syllabus Prelims –Governance and Economy Context: Recently, Delhi High Court dismissed PepsiCo’s plea against a revocation order on its Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) certificate for potato variety. Background:- The Delhi High Court on July 5, 2023, dismissed an appeal filed by PepsiCo India Holdings (PIH) against a 2021 order that had revoked the PVP (plant varietal protection) certificate granted to the company for a potato variety (FL-2027). (UPSC CSE: RSTV IAS UPSC – Pepsico v/s Potato Farmers) The FL-2027 variety of potatoes, used in Lays potato chips, came to the limelight in April 2019, when it became the centerpiece for a fight in the potato belt of northern Gujarat. Alleging that farmers who were not part of its “collaborative farming programme” were also growing and selling this variety in Gujarat, PepsiCo had filed rights infringement cases against farmers. About FL2027:- It is a for a potato variety. Its commercial name is FC-5. It has a 5 per cent lower moisture content than other varieties. With 80 per cent moisture content, as compared to the usual 85 per cent, this variety is considered more suitable for processing and therefore, for making snacks such as potato chips. The variety was first cultivated by Dr Robert W. Hoopes, who holds the most potato patents and potato variety protections in the whole world. FL2027 came to be registered in the US in 2005 and was put to commercial use in India in 2009. PepsiCo had then granted licenses to some farmers in Punjab to grow the variety on a buyback system. Buyback system allows the company to buy all the produce from these farmers at pre-decided rates. PepsiCo applied for registration of the potato variety in India in 2011. It was granted registration in Pepsi’s North America subsidiary Frito-Lay has the patent for the potato plant variety FL-2027 until October 2023. For India, Pepsi Co has patented FC-5 until January 2031 under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FR) Act, 2001. PPVFR Act, 2001 has been enacted in India for giving effect to the TRIPS Agreement:- The PPVFR Act retained the main spirit of TRIPS. The Act also had strong provisions to protect farmers’ rights. The act allows farmers to plant, grow exchange & sell patent-protected crops, including seeds, & only bars them from selling it as “branded seed”. It recognized three roles for the farmer: cultivator, breeder & conserver. As cultivators, farmers were entitled to plant-back rights. As breeders, farmers were held equivalent to plant breeders. As conservers, farmers were entitled to rewards from a National Gene Fund. The patent dispute Issue:- In 2019, PepsiCo sued nine Gujarat farmers for cultivating the same potato variety, accusing them of infringing its intellectual property rights (IPR). It sought over Rs. 1 crore each from the farmers for alleged patent infringement under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act, 2001. However, PepsiCo soon withdrew the suit after discussions with the government. Arguments by Farmers: The farmers stated that as per the agreement, PepsiCo would collect potatoes of diameter greater than 45 mm and those farmers had been storing smaller potatoes for sowing next year. They got registered seeds from known groups and farmer communities and had been sowing these for the last four years or so, and had no contractual agreement with anyone. According to Section 39(1)(iv) of the PPV&FR Act, a farmer is entitled to save, use, share or sell his farm produce including seed of a variety protected under this Act, provided that he is not entitled to sell branded seed of a variety protected under this Act. Hence, there was no violation. Arguments by breeder: – In the US, if someone has patented a seed, no other farmer can grow it However, the same does not apply in India. The court’s take on the matter:- The court observed that PepsiCo India Holdings (PIH) had ticked the variety as ‘New variety’ instead of ‘extant variety’, which is a crop variety that exists in a country. The judgment was upheld on the grounds of an ineligible registrant and failure to provide necessary documents under various provisions of the Act. Based on these, an order that revoked the PVP (plant varietal protection) certificate granted to the company for a potato variety (FL-2027) was made in 2021. Hence, the suing of farmers by PepsiCo was not seen in the public interest. About Intellectual Property Rights (IPR):- Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) are the rights acquired by an owner of intellectual property. It refers to creations of the mind, such as:- inventions literary & artistic works designs & symbols, Names & images used in commerce. IPRs have been outlined in Article 27 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. Objectives of IPR:- To encourage the creation of a wide variety of intellectual goods & strike the right balance between the interests of innovators & wider public interest. These rights are outlined in Article 27 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, which provides for the right to benefit from the protection of moral and material interests resulting from authorship of scientific, literary, or artistic productions. (UPSC MAINS: India’s IPR regime)  MUST READ: Boosting patent ecosystem SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the investments in the following assets: (2023) Brand recognition Inventory Intellectual property Mailing list of clients How many of the above are considered intangible investments? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to (2017) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes. Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings. Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme. Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent reports suggest that Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) exposure can lead to premature death and respiratory & circulatory illness. Background:- The review commissioned by Health and Environment Alliance (HEAL), suggested that Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) can lead to premature death from respiratory and circulatory illness. HEAL a European non-profit organization. The review, also observed that the knowledge about the health effects of NO2 has increased significantly over the last 10-15 years. In addition, studies are now able to distinguish between health impacts caused by NO2 and that by other pollutants, including particulate matter or PM2.5. 5: it refers to atmospheric particulate matter (PM) that has a diameter of less than 2.5 micrometers About Nitrogen dioxide (NO2):- IMAGE SOURCE: clarity.io Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2) is a highly reactive gas. Other nitrogen oxides include nitrous acid and nitric acid. It is an odourless, acidic, and extremely corrosive gas. It can harm our health and the environment. (UPSC CSE: Delhi and Air Pollution) Sources:- NO2 primarily gets in the air from the burning of fuel. It forms from emissions from cars, trucks and buses, power plants, and off-road equipment. It is also created by natural sources that include volcanoes and microbes. It is also formed during the creation of nitric acid, welding and the usage of explosives, the refining of fuel and metals, commercial manufacturing, and food processing. Uses of Nitrogen Dioxide Nitrogen dioxide is used as an intermediary in the production of nitric acid. It is used to make oxidised cellulose molecules. It is used as a catalyst in many reactions. It is used in the production of sulphuric acid. Rocket fuels use it as an As a nitrating agent. As an oxidising agent. It is used to make explosives. Health effects of Nitrogen dioxide (NO2):- NO2 can aggravate respiratory diseases, particularly asthma. It increases airway inflammation. It decreases lung capacity. It increases allergic response. It increases the probability of respiratory problems. It can cause a burning sensation in the eyes and skin. NO2 along with other NOx reacts with other chemicals in the air to form both PM and ozone. Environmental effects Acid Rain: NO2 and other NOx interact with water, oxygen and other chemicals in the atmosphere to form acid rain. Acid rain harms ecosystems such as lakes and forests. Air Pollution: The nitrate particles that result from NOx make the air hazy and difficult to see through. (UPSC CSE: Air pollution) Water Pollution: NOx in the atmosphere contributes to nutrient pollution in coastal waters. MUST READ: India’s uphill battle to bring down air pollution SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements: (2023) It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) In the Guidelines, statements: the context of WHO consider the Air Quality following (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and the annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Indian Grey Hornbill Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Indian Grey Hornbill was  sighted in Puducherry for the first time.  Background:- A bird enthusiast, M.S. Lara, photographed the hornbill in Koodapakkam, near the Sankarabarani River recently. It had been previously sighted in the Jawadhu Hills in Tiruvannamalai district, the Kalvarayan Hills in Dharmapuri district, the Western Ghats, and at the Adyar Estuary in Chennai in the recent past, but this is the first sighting of the bird from Puducherry. About Indian Grey Hornbill:- The Indian grey hornbill (Ocyceros birostris) is the smallest in the Hornbill family. (UPSC CSE: Hornbills) Habitat: Foothills of Southern Himalayas. It is one of the few hornbill species found in urban areas in many cities where they are able to make use of large trees in avenues. Distribution: Indian subcontinent; found from north-east Pakistan and south Nepal east to north-west Bangladesh and south throughout most of India except in Assam. It is a common hornbill found on the Indian subcontinent. It is commonly sighted in pairs. These birds are known to be Arboreal: spend most of their time on tall trees. They may descend for food and to collect mud pellets for nesting. Appearance:- It has grey feathers all over the body with a light grey or dull white belly. , Unlike a lot of other birds, the male and female look similar. They play an essential role in the ecosystem as prime dispersers of seeds. Conservation status:- IUCN: Least Concern. (UPSC CSE: IUCN updates the Red list of species) Sankaraparani River: The Sankaraparani River is a river in Tamil Nadu state. It originates on the western slope of the Gingee Hills in Viluppuram District, and flows southeastwards to empty into the Bay of Bengal south of Pondicherry. The Sankaraparani is also known as Varahanadi or Gingee River. MUST READ: Hornbill Festival SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (2023) Fishing cat Orangutan Otter Sloth bear Q.2) Which of the following organisms ·perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps SEBI’s Complaints Redress System (SCORES ) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: As per recent reports, Sebi’s SCORES platform disposed of 3,079 complaints in June. Background:- At the beginning of June, as many as 3,141 complaints were pending, and 3,967 fresh complaints were received, according to SEBI. About SEBI’s Complaints Redress System (SCORES )platform:- Launched: 2011. Launched by: SEBI. SEBI’s Complaints Redress System (SCORES) is a grievance redressal system. Objective: It enables investors to lodge and follow up on their complaints and track the status of redressal of such complaints online. These complaints are related to investment advisers, research analysts, corporate governance/listing conditions, minimum public shareholding, venture capital funds and takeover/restructuring. SCORES does not deal with complaints against companies. Laws covered: Complaints arising out of issues that are covered under the SEBI Act, Securities Contract Regulation Act, Depositories Act and rules and regulations made there under relevant provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. Time limit: The complaint shall be lodged on SCORES within one year from the date of the cause of action. Average resolution time for a complaint: 31 days. About SEBI (The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Establishment: (UPSC CSE: SEBI) The Securities and Exchange Board of India was established as a statutory body in the year 1992. HQ: Mumbai, Maharashtra. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. Function: It monitors and regulates the Indian capital and securities market while ensuring to protect the interests of the investors, formulating regulations and guidelines. (UPSC CSE: Open Offer) Chairperson: The chairperson is nominated by the Union Government of India. MUST READ: Sweat Equity Rules: SEBI SOURCE: BUISINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements. (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the government has brought the Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) under the Prevention of Money-laundering Act (PMLA). Background:- The government has brought the Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) under the Prevention of Money-laundering Act (PMLA), as per a notification dated July 7. The changes have been made for provisions under Section 66 of the PMLA, which provides for the disclosure of information. Under Section 66 of the Act, the 15 entities are bound to disclose case information to the ED if the probe falls under its jurisdiction. Based on the information, the ED can file a case under the PMLA, if it deems fit. The notification by Finance Ministry has amended an earlier 2006 notification that will facilitate sharing of information between the GSTN, Enforcement Directorate and other investigative agencies. About Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN):- Establishment: 2013. (UPSC CSE: GST) HQ: New Delhi. It is a not for profit, non-Government, private limited company incorporated in 2013. Objective: The Company has been set up primarily to provide IT infrastructure and services to the Central and State Governments, taxpayers and other stakeholders for implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST). Shareholding: The Government of India holds 5%equity in GSTN. All States including NCT of Delhi and Puducherry, and the Empowered Committee of State Finance Ministers (EC), together hold another 5%. Balance 51% equity is with non-Government financial institutions. GST Council has approved a proposal to convert GST Network (GSTN) into a government entity from its current private entity status by taking over stakes held by private entities. GSTN provides a strong IT Infrastructure and Service backbone which enables the capture, processing and exchange of information amongst the stakeholders (including taxpayers, States and Central Governments, Accounting Offices, Banks and RBI.  Mission of GSTN:- Provide common and shared IT infrastructure and services to the Central and State Governments, Tax Payers and other stakeholders for implementation of the Goods & Services Tax (GST). Provide common Registration, Return and Payment services to the Taxpayers. Partner with other agencies for creating an efficient and user-friendly GST Eco-system. Encourage and collaborate with GST Suvidha Providers (GSPs) to roll out GST Applications for providing simplified services to the stakeholders. Carry out research, study best practices and provide Training and Consultancy to the Tax authorities and other stakeholders. Provide efficient Backend Services to the Tax Departments of the Central and State Governments on request. Develop Tax Payer Profiling Utility (TPU) for Central and State Tax Administration. Assist Tax authorities in improving Tax compliance and transparency of the Tax Administration system. Deliver any other services of relevance to the Central and State Governments and other stakeholders on request.  Prevention of Money-laundering Act (PMLA), 2002 It was enacted in It came into force with effect from 1st July 2005. The Parliament enacted the PMLA as a result of international commitment to sternly deal with the menace of money laundering. Money Laundering: conversion or misrepresentation of money which has been illegally obtained by unlawful sources and methods. (UPSC MAINS: money laundering in India) Applicability: The PMLA is applicable to all persons which include individuals, companies, firms, partnership firms, associations of persons or incorporations and any agency, office or branch owned or controlled by any of the above-mentioned persons. Objectives of PMLA:- To prevent and control money laundering. To confiscate and seize the property obtained from the laundered money. To deal with any other issue connected with money laundering in India.  Provisions of PMLA,2002:- Definition of money laundering: 3 of PMLA defines the offence of money laundering Prescribed obligation: PMLA prescribes the obligation of banking companies, financial institutions and intermediaries to verification and maintenance of records of the identity of all its clients and also of all transactions and for furnishing information of such transactions in a prescribed form to the Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND). Empowerment of officers: PMLA empowers certain officers of the Directorate of Enforcement to carry out investigations in cases involving the offence of money laundering and also to attach the property involved in money laundering. It empowers the Director of FIU-IND to impose fines on banking companies, financial institutions or intermediaries if they or any of its officers fail to comply with the provisions of the Act as indicated above. Setting up of Authority: PMLA envisages the setting up of an Adjudicating Authority to exercise jurisdiction, power and authority conferred by it essentially to confirm attachment or order confiscation of attached properties. It also envisages the setting up of an Appellate Tribunal to hear appeals against the order of the Adjudicating Authority and the authorities like Director FIU-IND. Special Courts:- It envisages the designation of one or more courts of sessions as Special Courts or Special Courts to try the offences punishable under PMLA and offences with which the accused may, under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, be charged at the same trial. (UPSC CSE: Supreme Court verdict on PMLA) MUST READ: GST- Critical analysis of its working SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following markets : (2023) Government Bond Market Call Money Market Treasury Bill Market Stock Market How many of the above are included in capital markets? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (2017) It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: National Green Hydrogen Mission Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment and Ecology). Context: As part of its quest towards energy transition, the government has brought together stakeholders in order to explore how we can establish a Green Hydrogen ecosystem. Hydrogen Fuel: Hydrogen fuel is a zero-emission fuel burned with oxygen. It can be used in fuel cells or internal combustion engines. It can be manufactured by Electrolysis of water by using direct current. Natural Gas Reforming/Gasification: Natural Gas on reaction with steam produces Synthesis gas. Synthetic gas is a mixture of hydrogen, carbon monoxide, and a small amount of carbon dioxide. Fermentation: Biomass is converted into sugar-rich feedstocks that can be fermented to produce hydrogen. Types of Hydrogen Fuel Source: https://enerdatics.com/blog/types-of-hydrogen/ About National Green Hydrogen Mission? It is a program to incentivise the commercial production of green hydrogen and make India a net exporter of the fuel. The Mission will facilitate demand creation, production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen. Sub Schemes: Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition Programme (SIGHT): It will fund the domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and produce green hydrogen. Green Hydrogen Hubs: States and regions capable of supporting large scale production and/or utilization of hydrogen will be identified and developed as Green Hydrogen Hubs. Objective: Developing green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonne) per annum, alongside adding renewable energy capacity of about 125 GW (gigawatt) in India by 2030. It aims to entail over Rs 8 lakh crore of total investments and is expected to generate six lakh jobs. It will also lead to a cumulative reduction in fossil fuel imports by over Rs 1 lakh crore and an abatement of nearly 50 MT of annual greenhouse gas emissions. Nodal Ministry: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy Significance: It will help entail the decarbonisation of the industrial, mobility and energy sectors; reducing dependence on imported fossil fuels and feedstock; developing indigenous manufacturing capabilities; creating employment opportunities; and developing new technologies such as efficient fuel cells. Significance/Intended outcomes of the NGHM Renewable Energy Capacity Enhancement: Development of green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonne) per annum. An associated renewable energy capacity addition of about 125 GW in the country Investment boost Employment generation Cumulative reduction in fossil fuel imports. Green House Gases Emission Reduction: Abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions and help government in achievement the commitments made at COP 26 Under the Paris Agreement of 2015, India is committed to reducing its greenhouse gas emissions by 33-35% from the 2005 levels. It is a legally binding international treaty on climate change with the goal of limiting global warming to below 2°C compared to pre-industrial levels. Possible Challenges in harnessing Green Hydrogen Lack of fuel station infrastructure: India will need to compete with around 500 operational hydrogen stations in the world today which are mostly in Europe, followed by Japan and South Korea. Energy-intensive nature of Hydrogen generation process: The technology is in an infant stage and the energy requirement for splitting water or Methane is high. Besides, the whole process is costly at present. High R and D requirement for the newer technology for making the process cheap and operational and scalable. Multiplicity of regulatory authorities: Involvement of multiple Ministries and Departments causes red tape in government functioning. Risks associated with the transportation of hydrogen: Hydrogen in gaseous form is highly inflammable and difficult to transport, thereby making safety a primary concern. Indian Initiatives for Promoting Clean Fuel Transition The India-led International Solar Alliance (ISA) is a coalition of solar-rich countries aiming at promoting solar energy globally. India aims to reach net zero emissions by 2070 and to meet fifty percent of its electricity requirements from renewable energy sources by 2030. Initiatives such as Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid) Electric Vehicles (FAME) India Scheme and Atal Jyoti Yojana promote the adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles and solar-powered lighting to rural areas, a move which reduces emission footprint. The ‘National Policy on Biofuels’ notified by the Government in 2018 envisaged an indicative target of 20% ethanol blending in petrol by year 2030. A “Roadmap for Ethanol Blending in India 2020-25” which lays out a detailed pathway for achieving 20% ethanol blending. Way Forward: There is a need to announce incentives to convince enough users of industrial hydrogen to adopt green hydrogen. India needs to develop supply chains in the form of pipelines, tankers, intermediate storage and last leg distribution networks as well as put in place an effective skill development programme to ensure that lakhs of workers can be suitably trained to adapt to a viable green hydrogen economy. Source:   PIB Internationalisation of rupee: Why and what are the benefits? Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) inter-departmental group (IDG) recently said that India remaining one of the fastest-growing countries and showing remarkable resilience in the face of major headwinds and the rupee has the potential to become an internationalised currency. The Internationalisation of the Rupee: Internationalisation is a process that involves increasing the use of the rupee in cross-border transactions. These are all transactions between residents in India and non-residents. It involves – Promoting the rupee for import and export trade and then other current account transactions (measures imports and exports of goods and services, etc), Followed by its use in capital account transactions – measures cross-border investments in financial instruments, etc. Currently, the US dollar, the Euro, the Japanese yen and the pound sterling are the leading reserve currencies in the world. China’s efforts to make its currency renminbi has met with only limited success so far. India has allowed only full convertibility on the current account as of now. Current Status for the Rupee’s Internationalization: Limited Progress in Internationalisation: The rupee is far from being internationalized, the daily average share for the rupee in the global foreign exchange market hovers around 1.6%, while India’s share of global goods trade is mere 2%. Steps Taken to Promote Internationalisation: India has taken some steps to promote the internationalisation of the rupee (e.g., enable external commercial borrowings in rupees), with a push to Indian banks to open Rupee Vostro accounts for banks from Russia, the UAE, Sri Lanka and Mauritius and measures to trade with about 18 countries in rupees instituted. However, such transactions have been limited, with India still buying oil from Russia in dollars. Benefits of Internationalization of rupee Increased global acceptance: Internationalization of the rupee can increase its global acceptance, which can lead to more international transactions being conducted in the rupee, thereby reducing the demand for foreign currencies and reducing exchange rate risks. Reduced transaction costs: Internationalization of the rupee can reduce transaction costs for Indian businesses as they will not have to incur exchange rate fees for converting rupees into foreign currencies for international transactions. Boost to trade and investment: Internationalization of the rupee can promote trade and investment by making it easier for foreign businesses to invest in India and for Indian businesses to invest abroad. Enhanced competitiveness: A more freely traded rupee can enhance India’s competitiveness in global markets by allowing the currency to reflect the country’s economic fundamentals and reducing the need for the Reserve Bank of India to intervene in currency markets. Diversification of reserves: Internationalization of the rupee can diversify India’s foreign exchange reserves away from a concentration in US dollars, reducing the risks associated with holding a single currency. Challenges associated with Internationalizing the Rupee: Exchange Rate Volatility: Internationalising the rupee exposes it to greater exchange rate volatility. Fluctuations in the value of the rupee can impact trade competitiveness, foreign investment flows, and financial market stability. Managing exchange rate risks becomes crucial in order to mitigate potential adverse effects. Capital Flight and Financial Stability: Opening up the rupee to international markets may lead to capital flight if investors lose confidence in the currency or anticipate unfavourable economic conditions. This can strain the country’s foreign exchange reserves, impact financial stability, and create challenges for monetary policy management. Capital Controls: India still has capital controls in place that limit the ability of foreigners to invest and trade in Indian markets. These restrictions make it difficult for the rupee to be used widely as an international currency. Competing Currencies: The rupee faces competition from established international currencies like the US dollar, euro, and yen, which enjoy widespread acceptance and liquidity. Gaining market share and displacing these dominant currencies can be a significant challenge. Confidence and Perception: The credibility and stability of India’s economic and monetary policies play a crucial role in building confidence in the rupee. Any perception of policy uncertainty, lack of transparency, or geopolitical risks can impede the internationalisation process. Adoption by Market Participants: Convincing market participants, including businesses, individuals, and financial institutions, to adopt the rupee for international transactions requires trust, familiarity, and confidence in the currency. Building awareness and promoting the benefits of using the rupee globally is a significant challenge. Way Forward: The RBI’s Recommendations: For the short term: Adoption of a standardised approach for examining the proposals on bilateral and multilateral trade arrangements. Encouraging the opening of the rupee accounts for non-residents both in India and outside India and integrating Indian payment systems with other countries for cross-border transactions. Strengthening the financial market by fostering a global 24×5 rupee market and recalibration of the FPI (foreign portfolio investor) regime. A review of taxes on masala (rupee-denominated bonds issued outside India by Indian entities) bonds, international use of Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) for cross-border trade transactions, etc. For the long term: Efforts should be made for the inclusion of the rupee in International Monetary Fund’s (IMF) special drawing rights (SDR). The SDR is an international reserve asset created by the IMF to supplement the official reserves of its member countries. The value of the SDR is based on a basket of five currencies [the U.S. dollar, the euro, the Chinese renminbi, the Japanese yen, and the British pound sterling]. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Nitrogen Dioxide causes water pollution Statement-II: Volcanoes and microbes create Nitrogen Dioxide. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Q2) Consider the following pairs: Horbill species                        IUCN Status Great Hornbill:                          Near threatened. Narcondam Hornbill:               Endangered Indian Grey Hornbill:               Near Threatened How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None  Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: GSTN was established in 2015. Statement-II: GSTN Provide common Registration, Return and Payment services to Taxpayers. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 10th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st Mains practice questions Q.1) Hydrogen is being dubbed as the alternative fuel. However, there are many problems associated with the leveraging of hydrogen technology. Discuss (250 words) Q.2) Discuss the potential benefits and challenges associated with the Internationalisation of Rupee for India’s economy. (250 words) ANSWERS FOR 8th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – a Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 10th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – Essay Questions [10th July, 2023] – Day 29

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 29 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best