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IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – Essay Questions [10th July, 2023] – Day 29

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 29 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 8th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) International Maritime Organization Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the summit of the United Nations International Maritime Organization (IMO) concluded in London. Background:- Maritime countries upgraded their Greenhouse House Gas (GHG) emissions strategy to reach net zero “by or around” 2050 without specifying a definite year agreed to upgrade their Greenhouse House Gas (GHG) emissions strategy to reach net zero “by or around” 2050. About International Maritime Organization:- IMAGE SOURCE: south-star-ltd.com IMO is the United Nations specialized agency. Establishment: HQ: London, United Kingdom. Objective: to create a regulatory framework for the shipping industry that is fair and effective, universally adopted and universally implemented. Membership: IMO currently has 175 Member States and three Associate Members. India joined the IMO in (UPSC CSE: International Maritime Organization (IMO) & India) Functions:- Its role is to create a level playing field so that ship operators cannot address their financial issues by simply cutting corners and compromising on safety, security and environmental performance. IMO’s work supports the UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). The IMO is not responsible for enforcing its policies. It has the responsibility for the safety and security of shipping and the prevention of marine and atmospheric pollution by ships. (UPSC CSE: Maritime Security) Key Conventions of IMO: International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification, and Watchkeeping for Seafarers (STCW) International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) MUST READ: Green Ports & Green Shipping in India SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q.2) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Water Positive India Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Bureau of Water Use Efficiency (BWUE) and the Indian Plumbing Association (IPA) have signed a MoU with the aim of achieving a Water Positive India. Background:- The MoU focuses on creating awareness and promoting rainwater harvesting structures, low-flow fixtures and sanitary ware, treatment of grey and black water, and water audit of the built environment. About the Bureau of Water Use Efficiency (BWUE):- Establishment: 2022. HQ: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. The Bureau of Water Use Efficiency (BWUE) has been set up under the scheme of the National Water Mission. Functions of said Bureau:- To plan and execute a nationwide program for the promotion of efficient use of water in irrigation, domestic water supply, and municipal and/or industrial uses in the country. To make necessary regulatory directions to promote Water Use Efficiency. Prescribing guidelines for water conservation codes, standardizing and developing codes and facilitating their notification from concerned authorities. Developing standards for water-efficient fixtures, appliances, sanitary wares and other equipment using water in both urban/rural areas. Evolving a system of efficiency labelling. Evolve a system for incentivizing promotional efforts to increase water use efficiency. Create a Resource Centre and Data Bank related to various aspects of Water Use Efficiency. Promote research and development including research in the field of water conservation. Indian Plumbing Association (IPA) Establishment: 1993 It is the apex body of plumbing professionals in the country. Objectives of IPA:- To uplift the dignity of the profession by encouraging members to: Adopt correct professional practices. (UPSC CSE: Catch The Rain Awareness Generation Campaign) Adhere to ethical codes of conduct. Aim for the highest standards of workmanship. Promote and foster healthy relationships within the fraternity. To promote the advancement of plumbing services in the country by: Organizing seminars, exhibitions, and symposiums to educate members of the trade and the general public. Providing a platform for the dissemination of information and exchange of ideas on matters related to the plumbing profession. Establishing harmonious means of communication to facilitate better interface between the plumbing community, government/quasi-government agencies, statutory bodies, NGOs and private agencies. Establishing training and education programmes to create plumbing professionals. Mission of IPA:- Redefining Plumbing Standards in India. Striving for an overall improvement of the plumbing profession in India at par with international standards. Active participation with the global body in the plumbing profession. National Water Mission: It is one of the eight missions launched under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) for combating the threats of global warming. (UPSC CSE: Jal Jeevan Mission) NAPCC: it is a Government of India’s programme launched in 2008 to mitigate and adapt to the adverse impact of climate change. Launched: 2008. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Objective of the National Water Mission:- To conserve water. To minimise the wastage of the water. To ensure equitable distribution across the country and within States through integrated water resources management. Goals of the National Water Mission:- Comprehensive water database in the public domain and assessment of the impact of climate change on water resources. Promotion of citizen and state actions for water conservation, augmentation and preservation. Focused attention to vulnerable areas including over-exploited areas. Increasing water use efficiency by 20%. Promotion of basin-level integrated water resources management. MUST READ: National Water Policy SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Salvage and Explosive Ordnance Disposal Exercise (SALVEX) Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: The Seventh edition of the Indian Navy – US Navy (IN – USN) Salvage and Explosive Ordnance Disposal exercise, SALVEX was conducted recently. About SALVEX:- It was conducted from 26 Jun – 06 Jul 23 at Kochi. Started : Background: Indian Navy(IN) and US Navy(USN) have been participating in joint Salvage and EOD exercises since (UPSC CSE: 26th Exercise Malabar) EOD: it is a specialized technical area in military and law enforcement. The exercise saw participation from both the navies which included the ships – INS Nireekshak and USNS Salvor in addition to Specialist Diving and EOD teams. Duration: it spans over 10 days. (UPSC CSE: Exercise TARKASH) Key engagements and outcomes:- Shared Learning on Maritime Salvage: The Diving teams from both countries engaged in the exchange of experiences, lessons, and best practices in maritime salvage operations. Training Synergies on EOD Operations: The exercise provided an ideal platform for joint training exercises, allowing divers and EOD teams to enhance their interoperability and refine their skills. Mastery of Mine Detection and Neutralization: The participating divers received comprehensive training in the detection and neutralization of mines, enabling them to mitigate potential threats in underwater environments. Efficient Wreck Location and Salvage Techniques: The exercise focused on honing the teams’ abilities to locate and salvage wrecks, a critical skill for ensuring safe navigation and effective disaster response. MUST READ: India-US relations SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following actions : (2023) Detection of car crash/ collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. B Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of the display between portrait and landscape mode In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Dinutuximab (Qarziba) Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: GST Council will discuss the exemption for cancer medicine Dinutuximab (Qarziba) in its upcoming meeting. Background:- The Council, chaired by the Union finance minister and comprising state ministers, will also decide on GST exemption for satellite launch services provided by private players. (UPSC CSE: GST) The tax rate for online gaming, on multiplex food and drinks is also on the agenda for the meeting. About Dinutuximab (Qarziba):- Qarziba is a cancer medicine used to treat neuroblastoma, a cancer of nerve cells, in patients over 1 year of age. Neuroblastoma: Cancer of immature nerve cells arising from the adrenal gland, nerve ganglia or the neck. It is used in 2 groups of patients who have high-risk neuroblastoma (which has a high chance of coming back): patients who have had some improvement with previous treatments, which included blood stem-cell transplantation (a transplant of blood-producing cells) Patients whose neuroblastoma has not improved with other cancer treatments or has come back. Working Mechanism:- Qarziba is a monoclonal antibody (a type of protein) that has been designed to recognise and attach to a structure called GD2. Monoclonal antibody: an antibody produced from a cell lineage made by cloning a unique white blood cell. GD2: present in high amounts on the surface of neuroblastoma cells, but not normal cells. When Qarziba attaches to the neuroblastoma cells, it makes them a target for the body’s immune system which then kills the cancer cells. Immune system: a network of biological processes that protects an organism from diseases. About GST Council The GST Council is a constitutional body. (UPSC CSE: GST Council) It was established under Article 279A of the Indian Constitution. (UPSC CSE: GST Appellate Tribunal) Article 279-A: gives the President the authority to appoint a GST Council by executive order. The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 (122nd Amendment Bill), paved the way for the implementation of GST. Functions:– As per Article 279, it is meant to “make recommendations to the Union and the states on important issues related to GST, like the goods and services that may be subjected or exempted from GST, model GST Laws”. It also decides on various rate slabs of GST. Chairman: The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister. Other members: these include the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States. MUST READ: Platinum drugs SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following? (2023) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna. Stimulating ‘stem cells to transform into diverse functional tissues. Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants. Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting a series of drug trials in a population. Q.2) ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations? (2023) Collecting DNA samples from the air in a habitat in one go. Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat. Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals. Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies. High Seas Treaty Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the UN adopted the Marine Biodiversity of Areas beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) or the High Seas Treaty. Background:- About High Seas Treaty:- IMAGE SOURCE: ResearchGate It is an international agreement on the conservation and sustainable use of marine biological diversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction. (UPSC CSE: UN High Seas Treaty) The UN adopted the Marine Biodiversity of Areas beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) or the High Seas Treaty in 2023. Objective: to achieve a more holistic management of high seas activities, which should better balance the conservation and sustainable use of marine resources. Jurisdiction: It encompasses the high seas, beyond the exclusive economic zones or national waters of countries. This new instrument is being developed within the framework of the UNCLOS ( United Nations Convention for the Law of the Sea). (UPSC CSE: BBNJ Treaty) The agreement has five aspects: Environmental impact assessments for activities taken up on high seas. Conservation of marine genetic resources. Capacity building. Technology transfer. Cross-cutting issues such as institutional structure and financial support.  UNCLOS( United Nations Convention for the Law of the Sea) It is an international agreement that establishes the legal framework for marine and maritime activities. Historical Background: The Convention which concluded in the year 1982 replaced the quad-treaty of 1958. Establishment: It came into effect in the year It is the only international convention which stipulates a framework for state jurisdiction in maritime spaces. It provides a different legal status to different maritime zones. It divides marine areas into 5 zones : Internal-waters Territorial seas Contiguous Zone Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) Continental shelf or High seas India has been a party to the convention since 1995. MUST READ: Deep-Sea Mining SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’? (2022) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters. It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region. It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies at the North Pole and the South Pole. It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council. Q.2) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or landlocked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Ubinas volcano Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, Peru declared a state of emergency for 60 days in areas around Ubinas volcano. Background:- According to the Geophysical Institute of Peru, the volcano has been spewing ash and gas since earlier this week. The smoke cloud has travelled over towns that are 10 kilometers away from the volcano, according to the institute. Some 2,000 people live in the affected areas. About Ubinas volcano:- IMAGE SOURCE: researchgate.net Ubinas is an active stratovolcano. (UPSC CSE: Volcano) Stratovolcano: it is a conical volcano built up by many layers (strata) of hardened lava. It is located in the Moquegua Region of southern Peru, approximately 60 kilometers east of the city of Arequipa. It is part of the Central Volcanic Zone of the Andes and stands at an elevation of 5,672 meters above sea level. The volcano’s summit contains a 1.4-kilometer-wide and 150-meter-deep caldera, within which lies a smaller crater. This distinct feature adds to the volcano’s geological significance. Caldera: it is a large cauldron-like hollow that forms shortly after the emptying of a magma chamber in a volcano eruption. Ubinas I and Ubinas II: The volcano exhibits an upwards-steepening cone shape, with a notable notch on its southern side. The lower part is referred to as Ubinas I while the steeper upper section is known as Ubinas II. This represents different stages in the volcano’s geological history. The region where Ubinas is situated falls within the Ring of Fire. Ring of Fire: an area around the Pacific Ocean known for its high volcanic and seismic activity. History of Volcanic activity:- Ubinas is recognized as the most active volcano in Peru. (UPSC CSE: Volcanic eruption at Mount Semeru) It has a history of small to moderate explosive eruptions and persistent degassing. Notable Eruptions: The volcano has experienced notable eruptions throughout history, including the 2006–2007 event that resulted in eruption columns, ash fall, health concerns, and evacuations in the region. Recent Activity: From 2013 to 2017, Ubinas exhibited lava flow within the crater, accompanied by ash falls, leading to further evacuations in nearby towns. MUST READ: Mt. Mauna Loa SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia Turkey Amhara Ethiopia Cabo Delgado Spain Catalonia Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Mains: How India can leverage its biggest strength Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: The next 25 years could be the golden years for the country, provided it makes the best use of its favourable demographic composition. About Demographic dividend: Demographic dividend, as defined by the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA), is “the economic growth potential that can result from shifts in a population’s age structure, mainly when the share of the working-age population (15 to 64) is larger than the non-working-age share of the population (14 and younger, and 65 and older)”. India’s demographic dividend: India’s average age is 29 years, whereas the average age in US, China, France, Germany and Japan is 38, 38, 42, 45 and 48 years, respectively. Therefore, India is the youngest among the most populous countries in the world. Advantages of India’s demographic dividend: Higher Economic Growth: A large and young working-age population can increase the labour supply, productivity, savings, and investment in the economy, leading to higher GDP growth and per capita income. Greater Competitiveness: A skilled workforce can enhance India’s competitiveness in the global market, especially in labour-intensive sectors such as manufacturing, services, and agriculture. India can also benefit from the rising demand for its exports in the ageing markets of developed countries. Social Development: It can contribute to social development by improving health, education, gender equality, and social cohesion. An empowered population can also participate more actively in democratic processes and civic engagement. Innovation and Entrepreneurship: A creative population can foster innovation and entrepreneurship in various fields, such as science, technology, arts, and culture. An aspirational population can also create new markets and opportunities for economic diversification. Challenges associated with Demographic dividend: Asymmetric demography: The growth in the working-age ratio is likely to be concentrated in some of India’s poorest states and the demographic dividend will be fully realized only if India is able to create gainful employment opportunities for this working-age population. Lack of skills: Most of the new jobs that will be created in the future will be highly skilled and lack of skill in Indian workforce is a major challenge. India may not be able to take advantage of the opportunities, due to a low human capital base and lack of skills. Low human development parameters: India ranks 130 out of 189 countries in UNDP’s Human Development Index, which is alarming. Therefore, health and education parameters need to be improved substantially to make the Indian workforce efficient and skilled. Informal nature of economy in India is another hurdle in reaping the benefits of demographic transition in India. Jobless growth: There is mounting concern that future growth could turn out to be jobless due to de-industrialization, de-globalization, the fourth industrial revolution and technological progress. As per the NSSO Periodic Labour Force Survey 2017-18, India’s labour force participation rate for the age-group 15-59 years is around 53%, that is, around half of the working age population is jobless. Indian government’s initiatives to reap the demographic dividend in India: The government has launched programmes like Jan Shikshan Sansthan, Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, and National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme to improve employability through skilling, re-skilling, and up-skilling. These initiatives aim to make the Indian labour force more productive and efficient. The MSDE Vision 2025 further aims to improve the linkage between education and skill. The Ayushman Bharat and Swachh Bharat Mission seek to improve health equity in India. The Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana aims to make drug prices affordable and accessible, enhancing overall public health. The National Education Policy 2020, alongside the Samagra Shiksha programme, is focused on providing inclusive, equitable, and quality education at all school levels, ensuring a productive labour force in the future. Recognizing MSMEs as the backbone of Indian manufacturing, the government has endeavoured to support them in improving competitiveness, achieving scale, digital infrastructure, technology upgrades, and branding. The government has introduced flagship programmes like Skill India, Make in India, and Start-up India to enhance the productivity of the labour force and to foster innovation and entrepreneurship. Way Forward: If India has to reap the benefits of ‘demographic dividend’ in the years ahead, it is imperative that investments in social infrastructure by way of education, skill development, training and provision of health care facilities are made to enhance productivity of workforce and welfare of the population. Source:    Indian Express Data Protection Bill 2022 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: The Union Cabinet cleared the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Bill 2022, paving the way for it to be introduced in Parliament. History of Digital Personal Data Protection: In 2017 the S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India judgement declared that right to privacy a fundamental right as part of right to life and liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution. To protect the personal data the data protection Bill has been in the works since 2018 when a panel led by Justice B N Srikrishna had prepared a draft version of the Bill. It is India’s first attempt to domestically legislate on the issue of data protection. The government has made several revisions to this draft and introduced it as the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2022. Provisions of the Bill: The Bill will apply to the processing of digital personal data in India, whether it is collected online or offline and then digitized. It will also apply to the processing of digital personal data outside of India if it involves offering goods or services or profiling individuals in India. Personal data may be processed only for a lawful purpose for which an individual has given consent. Consent may be deemed in certain cases. Data fiduciaries will be obligated to maintain the accuracy of data, keep data secure, and delete data once its purpose has been met. The Bill grants certain rights to individuals including the right to obtain information, seek correction and erasure, and grievance redressal. The central government may exempt government agencies from the application of provisions of the Bill in the interest of specified grounds such as security of the state, public order, and prevention of offences. The central government will establish the Data Protection Board of India to adjudicate non-compliance with the provisions of the Bill. Significance of personal data protection in India:  Privacy protection: It guarantees that an individual’s privacy is not breached, as was the case with the Aadhaar data leak in 2018. It helps to avoid identity theft and other types of fraud. For example, consider the 2018 Cambridge Analytica controversy. Data accuracy is ensured through personal data protection, which guarantees that the data is correct and up to date. Personal data protection avoids data abuse and unlawful access, as shown in the WhatsApp data-sharing scandal in 2021. Personal data protection guarantees that data is safe and protected from cyberattacks. Personal data protection secures sensitive data, such as the health and financial data of persons, as well as sensitive health data. Individual empowerment: As previously said in 2018 Justice Srikrishna Committee Report Recommendations, personal data protection empowers people by giving them control over their personal data. Compliance with worldwide standards: Compliance with global data protection standards, such as GDPR compliance, requires personal data protection. Concerns associated with the Bill: Government Control: The Bill is learnt to have prescribed that the central government can exempt “any instrumentality of the state” from adhering to the provisions on account of national security, relations with foreign governments, and maintenance of public order among other things. The control of the central government in appointing members of the data protection board — an adjudicatory body that will deal with privacy-related grievances and disputes between two parties — is learnt to have been retained as well. Dilutes the Right to Information (RTI) Act as personal data of government functionaries is likely to be protected under it, making it difficult to be shared with an RTI applicant. No Criminal Liability: The Bill only prescribes monetary penalties (under Schedule 1 of the DPDP Bill) for breaches and non-compliances and limits such penalties to breaches/non-compliances that the Data Protection Board determines to be ‘significant’. The DPD Bill has done away with criminal liabilities, as well as penalties that are directly linked to the turn-over or revenue of an erring Data Fiduciary. Penalties vary from INR 50 crore to INR 250 crore. Section 25 stipulates maximum penalty to be limited to INR 500 crore. Data of Children: The Bill requires parental consent for age less than 18 years. Parental consent would be required every time they want to access the internet. Global Scenario: EU model: The GDPR focuses on a comprehensive data protection law for processing of personal data. It has been criticised for being excessively stringent, and imposing many obligations on organisations processing data, but it is still the template for most of the legislation drafted around the world. US model: Privacy protection is largely defined as “liberty protection” focused on the protection of the individual’s personal space from the government. It is viewed as being somewhat narrow in focus, because it enables collection of personal information as long as the individual is informed of such collection and use. China model: New Chinese laws on data privacy and security issued over the last 12 months include the Personal Information Protection Law (PIPL), which came into effect in November 2021. It gives Chinese data principals new rights as it seeks to prevent the misuse of personal data. Way Forward: While protecting the rights of the data principal, data protection laws need to ensure that the compliances for data fiduciaries are not so onerous as to make even legitimate processing impractical. The challenge lies in finding an adequate balance between the right to privacy of data principles and reasonable exceptions, especially where government processing of personal data is concerned. Source:   Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Exercise SALVEX was conducted between Indian Navy and the Japanese Navy. Statement-II: The seventh edition of the exercise was conducted in Kochi, India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Consider the following pairs: Stratovolcano: it is a conical volcano built up by much hardened lava. Ring of Fire: it is a large cauldron-like hollow that forms shortly after the emptying of a magma chamber in a volcano eruption. Caldera: an area around the Pacific Ocean known for its high volcanic and seismic activity. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The Bureau of Water Use Efficiency makes necessary regulatory directions to promote Water Use Efficiency. Statement-II: It has been set up under the scheme of the National Water Mission. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Mains practice question: Q.1) India is on the right side of demographic transition that provides golden opportunity for its rapid socio-economic development. What are the challenges associated with this transition? What measures needs to be taken to overcome those challenges? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 8th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 7th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – a Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 8th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS4 Questions [8th July, 2023] – Day 27

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 27 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –7th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Dalai Lama Syllabus Prelims –Important Personalities Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi has greeted, Dalai Lama on his 88th birthday recently. Background:- In a tweet, the Prime Minister informed that he has also spoken to Dalai Lama on the phone and wished him a long and healthy life. About Dalai Lama:- IMAGE SOURCE: pinterest.com The Dalai Lama is the spiritual leader who belongs to the Gelugpa tradition of Tibetan Buddhism. Gelugpa tradition: it is the largest and most influential tradition in Tibet. The Dalai Lamas are believed to be manifestations of Avalokiteshvara or Chenrezig. Avalokiteshvara: the Bodhisattva of Compassion and the patron saint of Tibet. There have been only 14 Dalai Lamas in the history of Tibetan Buddhism. The first and second Dalai Lamas were given the title posthumously. Tenzin Gyatso: the 14th and current Dalai Lama. In 1989, he was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for his non-violent struggle for the liberation of Tibet. Historical Background:- Until China’s annexation of Tibet in the 1950s, the Dalai Lamas were the head of the Tibetan government. Later, plans were made to bring Tibet officially under Chinese control. 1959: Tibetans took to the streets demanding an end to Chinese rule. The current Dalai Lama fled to India during this Tibetan uprising. Former Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru granted him permission to form the ‘Tibetan government in exile’ in Dharamsala (Himachal Pradesh). (UPSC CSE: India-China Trade) The Process to Choose Dalai Lama: Following the Buddhist belief in the principle of reincarnation, the current Dalai Lama is believed by Buddhists to be able to choose the body into which he is reincarnated. That person, when found, will then become the next Dalai Lama. According to Buddhist scholars, it is the responsibility of the High Lamas of the Gelugpa tradition and the Tibetan government to seek out and find the next Dalai Lama following the death of the incumbent. If more than one candidate is identified, the true successor is found by officials and monks drawing lots in a public ceremony. Once identified, the successful candidate and his family are taken to Lhasa (or Dharamsala) where the child studies the Buddhist scriptures in order to prepare for spiritual leadership. Tibetan Buddhism Tibetan Buddhism is the combination of the teachings of Mahayana Buddhism with Tantric and Shamanic, and the teachings of Bon, an ancient Tibetan religion. (UPSC CSE: Bamiyan Buddhas) Impact of Tibet and the Dalai Lama on India and China Relations:- Background: Tibet was India’s actual neighbour for centuries. 1914: Tibetan representatives, along with Chinese representatives, signed the Shimla convention with British India, delineating boundaries. However, following China’s full accession of Tibet in 1950, the convention and the McMahon line that separated the two countries were rejected. 1954: India and China signed an agreement in which they agreed to recognize Tibet as the “Tibet region of China.” Current Situation: One of the major irritants in India-China relations is the Dalai Lama and Tibet. China regards the Dalai Lama as a separatist with considerable clout among Tibetans. In the face of rising tensions between India and China, India’s Tibet policy has shifted. This policy shift indicates that the Indian government is actively negotiating with the Dalai Lama in public forums. The shift in India’s Tibet policy is increasing tensions between India and China. (UPSC CSE: India-China: Concerns) MUST READ: India-China Relations, a Year after Galwan SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located? (2023) Andhra Gandhara Kalinga Magadha Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2022) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora River. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal River. Pandu – Lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari River. National Green Tribunal (NGT) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the National Green Tribunal (NGT) imposed a fine of about 80,000 crore on states for not disposing of sewage and garbage. Background:- The NGT observed that there is a huge gap in the treatment of sewage and disposal of solid waste by states and UTs. The highest penalty has been imposed on Tamil Nadu at Rs 15,419.71 crore followed by Maharashtra at Rs 12,000 crore, Madhya Pradesh at Rs 9,688 crore and Uttar Pradesh at Rs 5,000 crore. About National Green Tribunal (NGT):- IMAGE SOURCE: universalinstitutions.com Establishment: 2010. (UPSC CSE: NGT) The National Green Tribunal is a statutory body under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010. Objective: for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. HQ: New Delhi. Regional Offices: Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai. Language: It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes involving multi-disciplinary issues. (UPSC MAINS: What are tribunals) The Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. It is rather guided by principles of natural justice. Timeline for case disposal: The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavor for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same. Tribunal’s orders are binding and it has the power to grant relief in the form of compensation and damages to affected persons. (UPSC MAINS: Discuss the mandate of the National Green Tribunal (NGT)) Benefits: The Tribunal’s dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters shall provide speedy environmental justice and help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts. India became the third country in the world to set up a specialized environmental tribunal, only after Australia and New Zealand. Composition of NGT Sanctioned strength: The act allows for up to 40 members (20 expert members and 20 judicial members). Chairman: The administrative head of the tribunal. He also serves as a judicial member. He is required to be a serving or retired Chief Justice of a High Court or a judge of the Supreme Court of India. Selection process:- Members are chosen by a selection committee that reviews their applications and conducts interviews. The committee is headed by a sitting judge of the Supreme Court of India. Judicial members: chosen from applicants who are serving or retired judges of High Courts. Expert members: chosen from applicants who are either serving or retired bureaucrats not below the rank of an Additional Secretary to the Government of India and not below the rank of Principal Secretary if serving under a state government. They are required to have a minimum administrative experience of five years in dealing with environmental matters. Alternatively, they must have a doctorate in a related field. MUST READ: Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement? The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation. Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive. 58 15 Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization. Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients. Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organisation. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in the Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Solar flare Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, an X-class solar flare led to a radio blackout in parts of the US, Pacific Ocean. Background:- According to media reports, the Sun emitted an X-class solar flare on July 2, 2023, disrupting radio communications over parts of the United States and the Pacific Ocean. The flare, classified as an X1.0 flare, peaked at 7:14 pm ET, confirmed US National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA). X-class denotes the most intense flares, while the number provides more information about its strength. About Solar flares:- IMAGE SOURCE: blogspot.com Solar flares are a sudden explosion of energy caused by tangling, crossing or reorganizing of magnetic field lines near sunspots.(UPSC CSE: Solar Storms) Sunspots: areas that appear dark on the surface of the Sun. They appear dark because they are cooler than other parts of the Sun’s surface. The most powerful solar flares have the energy equivalent of a billion hydrogen bombs, enough energy to power the whole world for 20,000 years. Time period: Solar flares can last from minutes to hours. Sometimes the same active region on the Sun can give rise to several flares in succession, erupting over the course of days or even weeks. Classes of solar flares:- Solar flares can be divided into various categories based on their brightness in X-ray wavelengths. There are five different classes of solar flares: A, B, C, M, and X. Each class is at least ten times more potent than the one before it. A-class flares: the smallest ones are near background levels. C-class flares: slight and have little effect on the Earth. B-class flares: smallest after the A-class flare. M-class flares: they are medium-sized and typically result in brief radio blackouts that affect the Earth’s Polar Regions. Sometimes an M-class flare is followed by small radiation storms. X-class flares: large, significant events that have the power to cause global radio blackouts and persistent radiation storms in the upper atmosphere. Effects of solar flares on Earth:- They can affect radio communications, power grids and navigation signals and endanger astronauts and spacecraft. (UPSC MAINS: effects of solar activity) They can heat a substance to several millions of degrees in a matter of minutes, producing a burst of radiation that spans the electromagnetic spectrum, from radio waves to x-rays and gamma rays. Auroras: When charged particles reach areas near Earth, they can trigger intense lights in the sky, called auroras. Electricity shortages and power outages: When particularly strong, a CME can also interfere in power utility grids, causing electricity shortages and power outages. MUST READ: International Solar Alliance SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which of the following statements is correct? (2023) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about ·10 times that received at the poles. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. Q.2) With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements : (2023) It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation. It can be used in the hydrogen fud cell to run vehicles. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Gramodyog Vikas Yojna Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi distributed Honey Bee-Boxes and Toolkits to 130 beneficiaries under the Gramodyog Vikas Yojna. Background:- The program was organized under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC), Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, State Office Delhi, Government of India. Addressing the occasion, Shri Vinai Kumar Saxena emphasized the vital role played by the Khadi and Village Industries Commission in generating employment opportunities in rural India. About Gramodyog Vikas Yojna:- Launched: Objective: assisting and developing of agarbatti industry and its artisans thereby. Ministry: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) The programme aims to enhance the production of ‘Agarbatti’ in the country and create sustainable employment for the traditional Artisans, by providing them with regular employment and an increase in their wages. Components of the Yojana:- Research & Development and Product Innovation: R&D support would be given to the institutions that intend to carry out product development, new innovations, design development, product diversification processes etc. Capacity Building: exclusive capacity building of staff, as well as the artisans, would be adequately addressed through the existing Multidisciplinary Training Centers (MDTCs) and institutions of excellence. Marketing & Publicity: The institutions will be provided market support. It will be done by way of preparation of a product catalogue, Industry directory, market research, new marketing techniques, buyer-seller meet, arranging exhibitions etc. (UPSC MAINS: Effects of globalisation on the rural population of India) Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) Establishment: It is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act, of 1956. Objectives of KVIC:- To boost employment in the country. (UPSC CSE: Project Re-Hab) To promote the promotion and sale of Khadi articles. To cater to the self-reliance doctrine of the country by empowering underprivileged and rural sections of society. Function: The KVIC is charged with the planning, promotion, organization and implementation of programmes for the development of Khadi and other village industries in the rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary. Ministry: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises MUST READ: Rural Manufacturing SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between (‘ 15 crores and ’25 crore.) All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2020) Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only World Investment Report 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the World Investment Report 2023 was released. About the World Investment Report 2023:- Published by: United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD). Objectives: it focuses on trends in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) worldwide, at the regional and country levels and emerging measures to improve its contribution to development. (UPSC CSE: FDI Inflow) Key Findings:- India and ASEAN registered foreign direct investment (FDI) increases of 10 % and 5%, respectively.(UPSC CSE: FDI Policy Change and Government Initiatives). FDI inflows were higher in developing countries. China, the second largest FDI host country in the world, saw a 5% increase. Gulf region: FDI declined, but the number of project announcements increased by two-thirds. Inflows in many smaller developing countries were stagnant, and FDI to the least developed countries (LDCs) declined. LDC: developing countries listed by the United Nations that exhibit the lowest indicators of socioeconomic development. Much of the growth in international investment in renewable energy has been concentrated in developed countries. The investment gap across all sectors of the Sustainable Development Goals has increased to more than $4 trillion per year from $2.5 trillion in 2015. The largest gaps are in energy, water and transport infrastructure. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) Established: 1964. UNCTAD is the UN’s leading institution dealing with trade and development. It is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the United Nations General Assembly. UNCTAD is part of the UN Secretariat. HQ: Geneva in Switzerland. Membership: it has a membership of 195 countries. It is one of the largest in the UN system. Functions of UNCTAD: – It supports developing countries to access the benefits of a globalized economy more fairly and effectively. It provides economic, trade analysis, and facilitates consensus building. It offers technical assistance to help developing countries use trade, investment, finance and technology for inclusive and sustainable development. Some of the reports published by it are- Trade and Development Report World Investment Report The Least Developed Countries Report Information and Economy Report Technology and Innovation Report Commodities and Development Report MUST READ: Foreign Direct Investment equity flows into India SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Rapid Financing Instruments” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Japan-India Maritime Exercise 2023 (JIMEX 23) Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, the seventh edition of the bilateral Japan-India Maritime Exercise 2023 (JIMEX 23) took place. Background:- The event was hosted by the Indian Navy and is being conducted at/ off Visakhapatnam from 05 -10 July 2023. This edition marks the 11th anniversary of JIMEX, since its inception in 2012. About Japan-India Maritime Exercise 2023 (JIMEX 23):- Background: JIMEX, is a series of maritime exercises conducted by the Indian Navy and the Japan Maritime Self-Defence Force (JMSDF). It was first commenced in 2012. JIMEX 23 will witness the participation of:- From Indian Navy:- INS Delhi: India’s first indigenously built Guided Missile Destroyer. INS Kamorta: an indigenously designed and built Anti-Submarine Warfare Corvette. INS Kamorta is a Kamorta-class anti-submarine warfare corvette. The Kamorta-class corvettes are designed to perform a range of naval operations, including anti-submarine warfare, anti-surface warfare, and surveillance missions. Others: a fleet tanker INS Shakti, a submarine, maritime patrol aircraft P8I and Dornier, ship-borne helicopters and fighter aircraft. From JMSDF:- It will be represented by the guided missile destroyer JS Samidare and its integral helicopters. It will take place in two phases:- Harbour Phase: at Visakhapatnam comprising professional, sports and social interactions. After the Harbour Phase: the two navies will jointly hone their warfighting skills at sea and enhance their interoperability through complex multi-discipline operations in the surface, sub-surface and air domains. Other Exercises between India and Japan:- Malabar: India and Japan with the United States and Australia participate in the naval war-gaming exercise named Malabar. (UPSC CSE: 26th Exercise Malabar) SHINYUU Maitri :Air Force Dharma Guardian: Military Exercise(UPSC CSE: Exercise IBSAMAR) MUST READ: International Maritime Exercise/ Cutlass Express 2023 (IMX/CE-23)  and INS Trikand SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Mains: Uniform Civil Code Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) and GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: Recently, Prime Minister of India emphasised the crucial need for the implementation of a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in India. About Uniform Civil Code (UCC): The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) calls for the formulation of one law for India, which would be applicable to all religious communities in matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption. History of Uniform Civil Code: It dates back to colonial India when the British government submitted its report in 1835 stressing the need for uniformity in the codification of Indian law relating to crimes, evidence, and contracts, specifically recommending that personal laws of Hindus and Muslims be kept outside such codification. An increase in legislation dealing with personal issues at the far end of British rule forced the government to form the B N Rau Committee to codify Hindu law in 1941. Personal Laws in India: Currently, not only Muslims but also Hindus, Jains, Buddhists, Sikhs, Parsis, and Jews are governed by their own personal laws. Personal laws are determined based on religious identity. The reformed Hindu Personal Law still incorporates certain traditional practices. Differences arise when Hindus and Muslims marry under the Special Marriage Act, where Hindus continue to be governed by Hindu Personal Law, but Muslims are not. Constitutional Provisions: Article 37: The “state shall endeavour by suitable legislation”, while the phrase “by suitable legislation” is absent in Article 44. Article 44: The “State shall endeavour to provide for its citizens a uniform civil code (UCC) throughout the territory of India.” Arguments For Uniform Civil Code: It will promote integration of India: It will promote the integration of India by establishing a shared platform for diverse communities. Personal laws rooted in religion are a challenge to the unity of the nation. The implementation will promote the integration of India by establishing a shared platform for diverse communities. Ease for Supreme Court of India: The Supreme Court will find it easy to deal with cases involving marriage, divorce, property rights etc because presently it faces conflict situation due to different laws for the above subjects. It will fulfill constitutional objective: The implementation of a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is a constitutional objective aimed at ensuring equitable justice for all communities. It would be ideal for India to establish a codified family law that aligns with progressive interpretations of religious texts and upholds constitutional principles of justice and equality. Reforming the Shariat law: The Shariat Application Act of 1937 lacks provisions pertaining to significant elements including the minimum age for marriage, consent, meher (dowry), divorce proceedings, polygamy, child custody and guardianship, as well as women’s entitlement to property. As a result, the practice of child marriages continues to endure. These practises are deemed justified based on the principles of sharia law, which stipulates that a girl becomes eligible for marriage upon reaching the age of puberty. Arguments against the uniform civil code: Violation of religious freedom: Critics argue that the UCC may infringe upon the freedom to practice the religion of one’s choice, which allows religious communities to follow their own personal laws. For example, Article 25 of the Indian constitution gives every religious group the right to manage its own affairs, and Article 29 allows them to conserve their distinct culture. Threat to cultural diversity: Another argument against the UCC is the threat it could pose to India’s rich cultural diversity. Critics argue that individual personal laws reflect the distinct customs and traditions of different religious communities, and a uniform code could undermine this diversity. They contend that the UCC could lead to a homogenization of laws, which would not be in keeping with India’s multicultural ethos. Existing secular laws: Critics also question the need for a UCC, pointing out that there are already secular laws applicable to all citizens, irrespective of religion, in many matters, such as Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code, which provides for maintenance, and laws relating to domestic violence. Imposition of ‘Hinduised’ Code: Some critics suggest that the UCC might impose a ‘Hinduised’ code on all communities. For example, a UCC could include provisions for family disputes on property inheritance, which may be in line with Hindu customs and will legally force other communities to follow the same. Diversity in personal laws: The opposition argues that even codified civil laws and criminal laws like the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) and the Indian Penal Code (IPC) don’t follow ‘one nation, one law’. For example, the law of anticipatory bail differs from one state to another. Personal laws placed in concurrent list: Some constitutional law experts argue that perhaps the framers did not intend total uniformity, which is why personal laws were placed in Entry 5 of the Concurrent List, with the power to legislate being given to the Parliament as well as the State Assemblies. Important Cases Related to UCC: Shah Bano Begum v. Mohammad Ahmed Khan (1985): The Supreme Court upheld the right of a Muslim woman to claim maintenance from her husband under Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code, even after the expiry of the Iddat period. It also observed that a UCC would help in removing contradictions based on ideologies. Shayara Bano v. Union of India (2017): The Supreme Court declared the practice of triple talaq as unconstitutional and violative of the dignity and equality of Muslim women. It also recommended that the Parliament should enact a law to regulate Muslim marriages and divorces. Way Forward: UCC is a complex issue that requires careful consideration of religious, cultural, and societal perspectives. Balancing the unity and diversity of India is crucial, as the implementation of a UCC should aim to provide equal rights and opportunities while respecting the distinct identities of different communities. Source: The Hindu India’s Creative Economy Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: The creative economy is one of the youngest and fastest-growing sectors in India. About Creative Economy: It is an evolving concept which is building on the interplay between human creativity and ideas and intellectual property, knowledge and technology. It includes advertising, architecture, arts and crafts, design, fashion, film, video, photography, music, etc. Status of India’s creative economy: Growing recognition: There is now growing recognition of the economic importance of the arts sector as it helps in the creation of jobs, economic growth, tourism, exports, and overall societal development. Digital platforms and technology have enabled Indian artists and artisans to reach wider audiences. Online platforms, social media, and digital content creation enable artists, writers, film-makers, musicians, and other creatives to engage with audiences, and monetise their talents. Indian artists and artisans play a vital role in preserving traditional art forms and creating contemporary artworks. UNESCO MONDIACULT 2022: Recognising the economic importance of culture, the UNESCO World Conference on Cultural Policies and Sustainable Development (MONDIACULT 2022) was held to address contemporary issues in multicultural societies. The goal was to share a vision for the future of cultural policies and to reaffirm the international community’s commitment to leveraging culture’s transformative power for sustainable development. Challenges faced by Indian artistes: Economic and market challenges: Indian artists struggle with issues related to economic sustainability and gaining adequate market access to monetize their work. Preservation of traditional art forms: In the face of rapidly changing societal trends, preserving and promoting traditional art forms presents significant challenges. Inequalities in representation and support: Artists often face a lack of transparency in the selection process for financial assistance and event organization. Those based outside cities are particularly disadvantaged. Crime in the art world: Artists must contend with art-related crimes such as theft, forgery, and illicit trafficking. These crimes undermine cultural heritage, financial security, and public trust. To address these challenges, the article suggests several solutions: Government Support and Cultural Institutions: Continued financial assistance, training programs, and opportunities provided by the government and cultural institutions can help artists sustain themselves and gain exposure. Transparent Selection Processes: Implementing transparent and fair selection processes for financial assistance and cultural events can ensure equal representation and opportunities for artists. Promotion of Artists as Brands: Private and public institutions should take initiatives to promote contemporary artists as brands, providing market support, research, business facilitation, and platforms to showcase their work. Enhanced Security Measures and Technology: Strengthening security measures, promoting international cooperation, raising public awareness, and utilising advanced technology for authentication and tracking can help combat crime in the art world. Preservation of Cultural Heritage: Regular audits, verified identification marks, and institutional records can contribute to preserving the integrity and trust of cultural collections. Way Forward: The economic and cultural significance of art, culture, and the creative economy in India, while addressing challenges and proposing solutions, should support the growth and development of artists and artisans as a whole. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Solar flares have the energy equivalent of a billion hydrogen bombs. Statement-II: X-class solar flares are the smallest and least significant events to have any impact on Earth. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Consider the following pairs: Malabar: Air Force exercise between India and Japan. SHINYUU Maitri: Naval exercise between India, Japan with the United States. Dharma Guardian: Military Exercise between India and Japan. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: NGT is mandated to disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing. Statement-II: NGT’s principal Place of Sitting is New Delhi but it has four zonal benches in Bhopal, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions: Q.1) What do you understand by Uniform Civil Code? Examine its relevance for a secular country like India and challenges in its implementation? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 7th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – a Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS4 Questions [7th July, 2023] – Day 26

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 26 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Chandrayaan III Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Chandrayaan III spacecraft was integrated with the GSLV Mark III launch vehicle recently. The launch is planned between 12-19th July 2023. About Chandrayaan III:- IMAGE SOURCE: indiandefensenews.in Chandrayaan-3 is the successor to the Chandrayaan-2 mission. (UPSC CSE:CHANDRAYAAN-2) Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LVM3). Launched from: Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC), Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. It consists of an indigenous Lander module (LM), a Propulsion module (PM) and a Rover. Lander: a spacecraft that descends towards and comes to rest on, the surface of an astronomical body. Propulsion module: a box-like structure, mounted with a large solar panel on one side and a large cylinder on top. Rover: a small vehicle that can move over rough ground, often used on the surface of other planets, sometimes controlled from the earth. The Lander and the Rover have scientific payloads to carry out experiments on the lunar surface. There will not be any orbiters like Chandrayaan 2 in it. (UPSC CSE: CHANDRAYAAN-2) Objectives of Chandrayaan-3 mission:- To demonstrate a Safe and Soft Landing on Lunar Surface To demonstrate Rover roving on the moon and To conduct in-situ scientific experiments. Lander payloads:– Chandra’s Surface Thermophysical Experiment (ChaSTE): to measure the thermal conductivity and temperature Instrument for Lunar Seismic Activity (ILSA) for measuring the seismicity around the landing site Langmuir Probe (LP): to estimate the plasma density and its variations. A passive Laser Retroreflector Array from NASA is accommodated for lunar laser ranging studies. Rover payloads:- Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer (APXS) and Laser Induced Breakdown Spectroscope (LIBS) for deriving the elemental composition near the landing site. Propulsion Module Payload:- Spectro-polarimetry of Habitable Planet Earth (SHAPE): Future discoveries of smaller planets in reflected light would allow us to probe into a variety of Exo-planets which would qualify for habitability or for the presence of life. GSLV-Mk III It is also known as the Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3). It is a three-stage vehicle with two solid motor strap-ons, a liquid propellant core stage and a cryogenic stage. It is the heaviest and the shortest among India’s operational launch vehicles. Weighs: 641 tonnes, which is equal to the weight of five fully loaded passenger planes. Capacity: GSLV can take 10,000-kg satellites to lower earth orbits. MUST READ: Gaganyaan SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Unmanned Aircraft Systems and Innovative Air Mobility Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) of India has recently signed a memorandum of understanding with the European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA). Background:- The MoU is for cooperation in Unmanned Aircraft Systems and Innovative Air Mobility. This MoU will facilitate collaboration on unmanned aircraft and innovative air mobility between the two civil aviation authorities. About the Collaboration on Unmanned Aircraft Systems and Innovative Air Mobility:- This memorandum of understanding (MoU) will facilitate collaboration on unmanned aircraft and innovative air mobility between the two civil aviation Unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV): it is commonly known, as a drone. It is an aircraft without any human pilot, crew, or passengers on board. Innovative air mobility (IAM): The concept of innovative air mobility (IAM) accommodates commercial and non-commercial operations with novel aircraft designs that do not automatically fall under one of the known categories of aero planes or helicopters. They may have the capability to vertically takeoff and land, have specific (distributed) propulsion features, may be operated in unmanned configuration, etc. This collaboration would include cooperation between DGCA and EASA in the areas of development of certification standards and environmental standards and related requirements for the certification and use of unmanned aircraft systems and innovative air mobility operations which includes licensing of personnel, training, air traffic management and infrastructure, including Unmanned Aircraft System Traffic Management (UTM) standards and services. The MoU will also ensure regular information sharing between the two authorities on the technological developments and research in this area and their respective strategies for outreach to relevant stakeholders. Further, the MoU will result in collaboration in conducting conferences, workshops, and training programs by DGCA and EASA in this area. About Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA):- IMAGE SOURCE: DGCA The Directorate General of Civil Aviation is the regulatory body in the field of Civil Aviation primarily dealing with safety issues. (UPSC CSE: DGCA) It is a statutory body of the Indian Central Government under the Aircraft (Amendment) Bill, 2020. Objectives: to regulate civil aviation in India. Ministry: Ministry for Civil Aviation. HQ: New Delhi. It has regional offices in various parts of India. Functions of DGCA:- It investigates aviation accidents and incidents. It maintains all regulations related to aviation. It is responsible for the issuance of licenses. It is responsible for the regulation of air transport services to/from/within India. It is responsible for the enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety and airworthiness standards. It also coordinates all regulatory functions with International Civil Aviation Organization. European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) EASA is an Agency of the European Union (EU). (UPSC CSE: India-EU) EU: international organization comprising 27 European countries. It develops common safety and environmental rules at the European level. Objective: to promote the highest common standards of safety and environmental protection in civil aviation. Established: 4 July 2018. HQ: Cologne, Germany. It is headed by an Executive Director. The work of the Agency is overseen by a Management Board, which represents EU Member States and the European Commission. It is a body governed by European public law. It is distinct from the Community Institutions (Council, Parliament, Commission, etc.) and has its own legal personality. Exclusion: EASA’s remit does not encompass questions related to civil aviation security e.g. airport security measures, counter-terrorism. MUST READ: Dornier aircraft SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following actions: (2023) Detection of car crash/ collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode. In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022) Cloud Services Quantum Computing Visible Light Communication Technologies Wireless Communication Technologies Similipal National Park Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the forest staff in Similipal National Park, Odisha went on strike. Background:- The Odisha government deployed armed police personnel at the Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR) recently to protect the 2,700 square kilometers reserve area that is home to unique melanistic tigers. About Similipal National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: Wikimapia Location: it is located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha. (UPSC CSE: Similipal National Park) Nomenclature: Similipal derives its name from the abundance of ‘Simul’ (red silk cotton trees) that bloom here. It is part of the Similipal-Kuldiha-Hadgarh Elephant Reserve popularly known as Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve. Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve: it includes three protected areas i.e. Similipal Tiger Reserve, Hadagarh Wildlife Sanctuary and Kuldiha wildlife sanctuary. It is a national park and a Tiger Reserve. 1956: It was formally designated a tiger reserve. (UPSC CSE: Importance of Tiger Conservation) 1973: It was brought under Project Tiger. Government of India declared it as a biosphere reserve. 2009: It is a part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves. The tiger reserve is spread over 2750 sq. km and has some beautiful waterfalls like Joranda and Barehipani. The park is surrounded by high plateaus and hills, the highest peak being the twin peaks of Khairiburu and Meghashini. At least twelve rivers cut across the plain area, all of which drain into the Bay of Bengal. These include: Burhabalanga, Palpala Bandan, Salandi, Kahairi and Deo. Prominent tribes: Kolha, Santhala, Bhumija, Bhatudi, Gondas, Khadia, Mankadia and Sahara. Vegetation: it is a mix of deciduous with some semi-evergreen forests. Sal is the dominant tree species Fauna: it is famous for gaurs (Indian bison), causing as well as an orchidarium. The STR is the only tiger habitat in the world with melanistic tigers, which have broad black stripes running across their bodies and thicker than those seen on normal tigers. Tribes: Two tribes, the Erenga Kharias and the Mankirdias, inhabit the reserve’s forests and practice traditional agricultural activities. SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’ the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest hunting is not allowed in such area people in such areas are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce people of such areas are allowed traditional agricultural practices How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Carbon molecule in the Orion Nebula Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the James Webb Space Telescope detected a carbon molecule in the Orion Nebula. Background:- The James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) has detected the CH3+ molecule, which is also known as methyl cation, in space for the first time. Orion Nebula IMAGE SOURCE: NASA It lies in the constellation Orion. Discovery: it was discovered in 1610 by the French scholar Nicolas-Claude Fabri de Peiresc and independently in 1618 by the Swiss astronomer Johann Cysat. The Orion nebula lies about 1,350 light-years from Earth. Nebula: any of the various tenuous clouds of gas and dust that occur in interstellar space. They are often star-forming regions. It contains hundreds of very hot (O-type) young stars clustered about a nexus of four massive stars known as the Trapezium. Radiation from these stars makes the nebula to glow. It was the first nebula to be photographed (1880), by Henry Draper of the United States. About James Webb Space Telescope:- IMAGE SOURCE: jpl.nasa.gov It is an infrared observatory orbiting the Sun. (UPSC CSE: International Space Station (ISS)) Launched: 2021. Type: Orbiter. Launched by: National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA). Launch Vehicle: Ariane 5 rocket, provided by the European Space Agency (ESA). Launch site: French Guiana. Objective: to find the first galaxies that formed in the early universe and to see stars forming planetary systems. It is NASA’s largest and most powerful space science telescope. Functions of the telescope:- It will study every phase in the history of our universe, ranging from the first luminous glows after the big bang, to the formation of solar systems capable of supporting life on planets like Earth, to the evolution of our own solar system. It will build on the Hubble Space Telescope’s (UPSC CSE: ISRO’s hybrid propulsion system) NASA’s Hubble Space Telescope: it is the first astronomical observatory placed into orbit around Earth with the ability to record images in wavelengths of light spanning from ultraviolet to near infrared. It will look deeper into the cosmos and thus further back in time than is possible with Hubble. It will attempt to detect the light from the very first population of stars in the Universe to switch on more than 13.5 billion years ago. MUST READ: IN-SPACe SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface speed. Q.2) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Special Window for Funding Stalled Affordable and Middle-Income Housing Projects (SWAMIH ) Fund Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi congratulated new homeowners in Bengaluru’s first project under Special Window for Funding Stalled Affordable and Middle-Income Housing Projects (SWAMIH) Fund. Background:- The SWAMIH Fund has helped more than 3000 families in owning their dream homes.  About SWAMIH Fund:- Launched: 2019. It is a social impact fund specifically formed for completing stressed and stalled residential projects. (UPSC CSE: Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban (PMAY-U)) Sponsored by: Ministry of Finance, Government of India. Managed by: SBICAP Ventures Ltd., a State Bank Group company. Objective:-to provide priority debt financing for the completion of stalled housing projects falling under the affordable and middle-income housing categories. (UPSC CSE: Urban Housing) Implementation of the scheme: The fund was set up as a Category-II AIF (Alternate Investment Fund) debt fund registered with SEBI. AIFs: they are defined under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012. AIFs created/funded under the Special Window would solicit investment into the fund from the Government and other private investors including cash-rich financial institutions, sovereign wealth funds, public and private banks, domestic pension and provident funds, global pension funds and other institutional investors. Eligibility criteria for funding:- Real estate projects must be registered under the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act (RERA) 2016. Project must be classified as a non-performing asset (NPA) or be under insolvency proceedings. The project should have been declared as a “stalled” or “delayed” project by a competent authority. The fund is available only for projects that fall under the affordable and mid-income housing categories. MUST READ: Social Stock Exchange SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only Q.2) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Nirbhaya Fund Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The Union Minister for Women and Child Development Smriti Irani recently launched a scheme for shelter, and aid to pregnant minor rape victims under the Nirbhaya Fund. Background:- The proposal for “critical care and support for accessing justice to rape/gang rape survivors and minor girls who get pregnant” has been approved by the WCD Ministry. It has been approved with an outlay of Rs. 74.10 crore and will be applicable across the country in a week’s time. The scheme aims to provide shelter, food, daily needs, safe transportation for attending court hearings and legal aid to minor girls who have been abandoned by their family due to forced pregnancy, either due to rape or gang rape, or due to any other reason, and have no other means to support themselves. The administrative structure has been additionally leveraged with Mission Vatsalya, in collaboration with state governments and childcare institutions, to actualise this support to minor victims on the ground. About Nirbhaya Fund:- Historical Background:- The fund was created by the Ministry of Finance in 2013 with a corpus of Rs 1000 crore. The Government of India established the Nirbhaya Fund in response to the Nirbhaya Case in 2013. Objective: It is aimed specifically at projects for improving women’s safety and security. (UPSC CSE: Protection of Women from Sexual Harassment (POSH) Act) Managed by: Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD). Administered by: Department of Economic Affairs of the finance ministry. It is a non-lapsable corpus fund. Major projects under the fund: Central Victim Compensation Fund (CVCF), One Stop Centers (OSCs), Universalization of Women Helpline (WHL), Mahila Police Volunteer (MPV), etc. Mission Vatsalya Scheme Launched in 2021. (UPSC CSE: Mission Vatsalya Scheme) Ministry: Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD). Objective: to strengthen the juvenile justice care and protection system with the motto to ‘leave no child behind’. The scheme provides a roadmap to achieve development and child protection priorities aligned with the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). It lays emphasis on child rights, advocacy and awareness. Framework: The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act 2015 [JJ Act] provisions and the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act 2012 [POCSO Act] form the basic framework for the implementation of the Mission. Implementation and Funding: The Scheme is implemented as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme in partnership with State Governments and UT Administrations to support them in universalizing access and improving the quality of services across the country. MUST READ: Mission Shakti SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: American Freedom Struggle Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (World History) Context: Recently, America celebrated their hard won victory from the oppressive tax system of the British Empire and their freedom from the British Empire. About the American War of Independence: The American Revolution was an ideological and political revolution that occurred in British America between 1765 and 1783. In the American Revolutionary War, which lasted from 1775 to 1783, the colonies secured their independence from the British Crown and established the United States as the first sovereign nation-state founded on Enlightenment principles of constitutionalism and liberal democracy. The American struggle for independence was very different from nationalist uprisings in other colonies of the British in the East. In America it was the British settlers who entered into a bitter scuffle with British government authorities. In colonies like India or the West Indies on the other hand, the natives rose unanimously against the tyranny of the rulers from the West. Circumstances leading up to the American War of Independence: Seven Years War: End of the Seven Years War in 1763 and the transfer of Canada from France to England removed the fear of French attack from the minds of the Americans. They could now fully focus on countering the British adversities. Granville Measures: British PM Granville passed a series of Acts which affected the interests of the American colonies such as The Sugar Act of 1764, The Stamp Act of 1765, The Quartering Act etc. These measures were severely opposed by the colonists. They raised the slogan “No Taxation without Representation” thus insisting for the American representation in the English Parliament. Townshend Laws: British minister Townshend imposed new taxes on glass, paper, tea, paints, etc in 1767. The Americans protested these measures and boycotted British goods. The protest led to the killing of five Americans by British soldiers which came to be known as the Boston Massacre. Boston Tea Party: In 1773, a new Tea Act was passed imposing a tax on import of tea which was protested by Americans. A group of Americans dressed as Red Indians climbed on the ships and threw away the tea bundles into the sea at the Boston harbour. This event was known as the Boston Tea Party. Philadelphia Congress: In 1774 and 1775 representatives of American colonies met twice at Philadelphia. They appealed to the British King to remove restrictions on industries and trade and not to impose any taxes without their consent which was rejected by the British monarch. As a last attempt, an Olive Branch Petition was sent to the British King George III, who rejected it. Thus American colonists decided to unite in their fight against the British. Declaration of Independence: A pamphlet named “Common Sense” began to be circulated in the colonies which attacked the idea of hereditary monarchy and advocated democratic government. The pamphlet inculcated the fighting spirit among the Americans. Ultimately On 4th July 1776, the American Declaration of Independence was adopted by the Continental Congress. The declaration included the ideals of human freedom in it and laid emphasis on the unalienable rights of men namely, “Life, Liberty and Pursuit of Happiness”. The Mahatma Gandhi Link: In his call to Indians to resist British domination, Mahatma Gandhi often referred to and drew inspiration from the American revolution. In March 1930, when Gandhi had embarked upon the famous Dandi march to protest against the draconian salt tax imposed by the British authorities, his movement had resonances with the historic Boston Tea Party. The significance of the American Revolution: The revolution led to the establishment of a republic based on the first written constitution in the world. This was a marked contrast to the other states were Monarchies were still in power. This inspired people across the world to struggle for democratic and republican forms of government. It established a federal state with powers divided between the federal government and states. This provided a nice template for power-sharing in diverse countries that needed complex polities. Besides, there was a separation of powers between various organs of the state. Certain inalienable rights were given to the people – this limited the government against the authority of people and reduced government interference in their lives. Democracy was established, but it was far from perfect. Sections like Negroes and women were denied voting rights. But the journey to democracy had begun. It led to many uprisings in Europe, with the French revolution being the biggest. Many generals who participated in the war was instrumental in the French revolution. Thinkers like Thomas Paine also participated in the revolution. This led to a spread of modern ideas in Europe. Way Forward: The American revolution had a profound impact on the history of the modern world. It provided a template through which modern ideas could defeat oppressive regimes. The subsequent success of the USA in world arena is a testimony to how powerful is the idea of liberal democracy and emancipation of the populace. This model was successfully emulated by many countries (especially in Europe) post World War II. India also has learned a lot from the American experience and adopted many of these democratic principles, adding to our own democratic socialist principles. Source:   Indian Express The Fiscal health of States Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: It has been observed that States’ fiscal health improved after Covid-19 pandemic stress. About Fiscal Condition of Various States: Stress tests show that the fiscal conditions of the most indebted State governments are expected to deteriorate further, with their debt-GSDP ratio likely to remain above 35 per cent in 2026-27. Based on the debt-GSDP ratio in 2020-21, Punjab, Rajasthan, Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Haryana turn out to be the states with the highest debt burden. These 10 States account for around half of the total expenditure by all State governments in India. Other vulnerability indicators also capture these 10 States in their cross hairs. Their GFD-GSDP ratios were equal to or more than 3 per cent in 2021-22, besides deficits in their revenue accounts (except Uttar Pradesh and Jharkhand). Moreover, the Interest Payment to Revenue Receipts (IP-RR) ratio, a measure of debt servicing burden on States’ revenues, in 8 of these States was more than 10 per cent. Among the 10 States, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan and Punjab exceeded both debt and fiscal deficit targets for 2020-21 set by the 15th Finance Commission (FC-XV). Kerala, Jharkhand and West Bengal exceeded the debt target, while Madhya Pradesh overshot the fiscal deficit target. Haryana and Uttar Pradesh were exceptions as they met both criteria. Rajasthan, Kerala and West Bengal are projected to surpass the FC-XV targets for debt and fiscal deficit in 2022-23 (Budget Estimate/BE). Basic terminologies: Revenue expenditure refers to the expenditure that neither creates an asset nor reduces the liability of the government. They are regular and recurring; Short-term; Example-Payment of salaries, maintenance of roads, street lights, etc. Capital expenditure refers to the expenditure that either creates an asset or reduces the liability of the government. They are irregular and non-recurring; Long-term; Example- Construction of metros, dams etc., repayment of loans to IMF etc., purchase of machinery, etc. Monetary policy is concerned with the management of interest rates and the total supply of money in circulation. It is generally carried out by the RBI. Fiscal policy estimates taxation and government spending. It should ideally be in line with the monetary policy, but since it is created by lawmakers, people’s interest often takes precedence over growth. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act was enacted in 2003. The objective of the Act is to ensure inter-generational equity in fiscal management; long-run macroeconomic stability; better coordination between fiscal and monetary policy and transparency in the fiscal operations of the Government. Fiscal Challenges Faced by Indian States: Revenue Related Challenges: The impact of the Covid-19 pandemic on the economic activity and tax collection. The uncertainty and volatility of GST revenue and compensation. The dependence on tax devolution from the Union and its formula-based allocation. The erosion of fiscal autonomy due to the subsumption of various taxes under GST. The limited scope for raising non-tax revenues such as user charges, fees, etc. The compliance and administrative issues in collecting own taxes such as property tax, stamp duty, etc. Out of 17 major States, 13 States have revenue deficits, and seven States have revenue deficits as the main driver of their fiscal deficits. These States are Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, Kerala, Punjab, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, and West Bengal. Expenditure Related Challenges: The rising demand for public health and education services due to the pandemic and demographic factors. The need to invest in infrastructure and urban development to support growth and employment. The fiscal implications of various welfare schemes and subsidies for the poor and vulnerable sections. The burden of pension and salary liabilities for the public sector employees. The contingent liabilities arising from guarantees, loans, etc. given to public sector enterprises and other entities. The sustainability and servicing of the debt stock accumulated over the years. Framework of Revenue Deficit Consolidation: Data from the last 20 years suggests that revenue deficit had almost disappeared from State Budgets before COVID-19. States, in aggregate, were generating revenue surpluses almost all the years during this period. However, the re-emergence of revenue deficit in recent years should take the focus back on the management of revenue deficit by creating an incentive compatible framework. Benefits of Reducing Revenue Deficits for Indian States? Improving the fiscal health and sustainability of State finances and reducing their debt burden. Enhancing the quality of expenditure and increasing the share of capital expenditure in total expenditure. Boosting public investment in infrastructure and human capital, which can foster economic growth and development. Strengthening the credibility and confidence of investors and creditors in State finances. Ensuring macroeconomic stability and coordination with the Union Government. Measures to Manage Revenue Deficit Effectively Interest Free Loans Interest-free loans to the States by the Union Government may be linked to a reduction in revenue deficit. This will help eliminate the possibility of a substitution of States’ own capital spending and also prevent the diversion of borrowed resources to finance revenue expenditure. Defined Time Path: For revenue deficit reduction with a credible fiscal adjustment plan would help restore fiscal balance and improve quality of expenditure. Incentive Grants A forward-looking performance incentive grants could also be considered for a reduction of revenue deficit. In this context, different approaches provided by earlier Finance Commissions can be considered to decide the framework of the incentive structure. Way Forward: There has to be a differentiated approach for different States. The policy, for example, for Gujarat cannot be the same as for West Bengal because the starting conditions are different and their political economy is different. So different states cannot shrink their debt-to-GSDP ratio at the same speed. There is a need for some kind of fiscal council or interstate mechanism that can ensure that FRBM limits on spending are strictly adhered to, along with ensuring the quality of expenditure of the States. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: James Webb Space Telescope is launched by the European Space Agency. Statement-II: James Webb Space Telescope was launched in Ariane 5 rocket. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Consider the following pairs: Mission Vatsalya Scheme: Ministry of Women and Child Development. SWAMIH Fund:             Ministry of Finance. Nirbhaya Fund: Ministry of Agriculture. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) headquarters is in Kolkata. Statement-II: DGCA is a statutory body. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 6th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 5th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) -b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here