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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 8th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Africa Climate Summit 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The Africa Climate Summit 2023 ended recently. Background:- The inaugural Africa Climate Summit (ACS23) in Nairobi culminated in the ‘Nairobi Declaration’, giving the continent a common voice ahead of upcoming key global engagements. The declaration has a raft of recommendations, pledges, and demands believed to have boosted Africa’s bargaining power on international platforms. The Nairobi summit largely focused on calls to unlock investment in clean energy. About Africa Climate Summit 2023:- IMAGE SOURCE: sgss8.com Date: 4th to 6th September 2023. Venue: Nairobi, Kenya (Africa) Objective: to address the increasing exposure to climate change and its associated costs, both globally and particularly in Africa. (African Union) At the Africa Climate Summit, leaders made ambitious pledges and commitments. A comprehensive “Pledging and Commitment Framework” was developed to guide these actions. Significance of Africa Climate Summit 2023:- Despite having a small carbon footprint, Africa disproportionately bears the human toll of climate change The Summit will highlight the urgent need for regional and global action. The outcomes of the summit are critical for the African continent to arrive at a consensus and mobilize action in the upcoming 28th Conference of Parties (COP28). COP28 of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change: is to be hosted in Dubai, United Arab Emirates. Theme and Focus Areas of Africa Climate Summit 2023:- Climate Action Financing. Green Growth Agenda for Africa. (Horn of Africa) Climate Action and Economic Development. Global Capital optimization.  MUST READ: India-Africa Relationship SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) About three-fourths of the world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by (2023) Argentina Botswana Democratic Republic. of the Congo Kazakhstan Q.2) Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin? (2023) Cameroon Nigeria South Sudan Uganda Electric vehicles (EVs) Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology/ Science and Technology Context: The preparations for the upcoming World Electric Vehicles (EVs) Day were seen in full swing recently. Background:- Every year, on September 9, the World Electrical Vehicle (EV) Day is celebrated. It is an initiative created by the sustainability media Co. GreenTV. 2020: the inauguration of the World EV Day. The day is designated as World EV Day to honour electric vehicles. It is an international movement that unites people in pursuing change. Science shows that replacing internal combustion engines (ICE) that power our diesel and petrol cars can eliminate toxic tailpipe emissions in our polluted cities, along with significantly lowering heat-trapping carbon emissions from fuel combustion. Global trends show that this shift from ICE to electric vehicles (EV) is inevitable in the next few decades. About Electric vehicles (EVs):- IMAGE SOURCE: evolveetfs.com An electric vehicle, uses one or more electric motors or traction motors for propulsion. They may be powered through self-contained batteries, solar panels or an electric generator to convert fuel to electricity. They run on electricity instead of gasoline. (Hybrid Electric Vehicles (HEV)) They emit no tailpipe pollution or greenhouse gas emissions. They tend to be quieter and smoother than other vehicles. Most electric cars have batteries that have to be recharged from an outside source of electricity. Advantages of electric vehicles (EVs):- EVs are eco-friendly. They have low maintenance costs. They protect the environment from noise pollution. They are an alternative to combustion engines powered by fossil fuels, which discharge harmful greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. The adoption of electric vehicles is consistent with India’s pledge to lower carbon emissions and provide renewable energy sources more support. They are unaffected by geopolitical tensions or rising oil prices. They can lessen India’s reliance on the Gulf countries for fuel imports. It provides a catalyst for future innovation in mobility- and hybrid-based technologies. EV production will benefit regional industries and expand India’s homegrown manufacturing sector. Setting up new production and charging systems infrastructure will improve skill-building programs and create more jobs. Thus providing Challenges of Electric Vehicles:- Lack of Associated Infrastructural Lack of a Stable Policy for EV Production. Long time for Charging Batteries. Battery manufacturing process and supply chain. Lack of Skilled Workers. Important Government Initiatives:- FAME India: Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric and Hybrid Vehicles in India. It is an incentive scheme that encourages the adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles. Manufacturers and infrastructure providers of electric vehicles receive this incentive in the form of subsidies. National Electric Mobility Mission Plan 2020:– It aims to deploy 5 to 7 million electric vehicles nationwide by 2020. It aims to promote the adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles in the country. The plan includes the following measures: providing incentives for manufacturers, promoting charging infrastructure, and encouraging research and development in the sector. Concessions on the GST: – The government promotes the use of electric vehicles by levying a 5% GST on electric vehicles as compared to a GST of 28% on internal combustion automobiles. Go Electric Campaign: The objective of this campaign is to create awareness and promote the use of electric vehicles and kitchen appliances and to ensure the nation’s energy security.  MUST READ: Electric Vehicles and Battery Fires SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2023) Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircraft. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following actions: (2023) Detection of car crash/ collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of the display between portrait and landscape mode In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) Syllabus Prelims – Important Organizations Context: Secretary General of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) Mathias Cormann arrived in New Delhi to attend the G20 Summit recently. Background:- European Council President Charles Michel also arrived to attend the G20 Summit. About the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD):- Establishment: 1960. HQ: Paris, France. Objective: to shape policies that foster prosperity, equality, opportunity and well-being for all. Historical Background:- The forerunner of the OECD was the Organization for European Economic Co-operation (OEEC). OEEC was formed to administer American and Canadian aid under the Marshall Plan for the reconstruction of Europe after World War II. The Convention transforming the OEEC into the OECD was signed in Paris in 1960 and entered into force in Members of OECD:- OECD currently has 38 member nations and the Member Countries are each represented by a delegation led by their ambassadors. The 38 Member Countries consist of: Australia, Austria, Belgium, Canada, Chile, Colombia, Costa Rica, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, South Korea, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Mexico, Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Turkey, the United Kingdom, and the United States. India is a non-member economy with working relationships with the OECD. Functions of OECD:- It is responsible for publishing economic reports, statistical databases, analyses, and forecasts on the outlook for economic growth worldwide. (OECD/G20 Inclusive Framework tax deal) The group analyzes the impact of social issues on economic growth and makes recommendations. It endeavours to eliminate bribery and other forms of financial crimes worldwide. It seeks to eliminate bribery and other financial crimes It also maintains a “blacklist” of nations that are considered uncooperative tax havens. Reports:- OECD Economic Outlook OECD Communication Outlook OECD Internet Economy Outlook  MUST READ: Digital taxation & OECD: On a weak pillar SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union makes the countries of the European Union share their infrastructure facilities enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only· two All three None Q.2) Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Malaviya Mission - Teachers Training Programme Syllabus Prelims – Government Initiatives Context: The Malaviya Mission – Teachers Training Programme was launched recently. Background:- Union Minister for Education and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship Shri Dharmendra Pradhan launched the Malaviya Mission – Teachers Training Programme by the University Grants Commission at Kaushal Bhawan, New Delhi. He also inaugurated the Portal of the Programme and released its information brochure. About Malaviya Mission – Teachers Training Programme:- Organized: September,2023. Organized by: University Grants Commission and Ministry of Education. Duration: 2 weeks. (NIPUN bharat mission) Objective: to provide tailored training programmes for teachers. This programme will work for the capacity building of faculty members in higher educational institutions. It will improve the quality of teachers’ training, build leadership skills in teachers and help realize the goals of NEP. (One year of NEP reform: new initiatives) Themes: 8 themes are identified for course curriculum/content for capacity building of faculty members at higher educational institutions. These include Holistic and Multidisciplinary Education, Indian Knowledge Systems (IKS), Academic Leadership, Governance and Management, Higher Education and Society, Research and Development, Skill Development, Student Diversity and Inclusive Education and Information and Communication Technology. Online Portal: To facilitate this transformative journey, the UGC has also established a dedicated portal for faculty members to register for the capacity-building programmes. (NISHTHA) Significance:- The programme will ensure continuous professional development. It will help in building capacities of 15 lakh teachers of HEIs through 111 Malaviya Mission centres across India in a time-bound manner. It will help to make educators future-ready with a deeper understanding of Indian values. MUST READ: Savitribai Phule: India’s first woman teacher SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Cauvery wildlife sanctuary Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Researchers discovered a ‘white’ sambar in the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary recently. Background:- A white sambar was photographed in the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary during a research study. This is the first recorded photographic record of a white form of sambar from this landscape. About Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary:- Location: Near Malemadeshwara Hills, Mandya, Karnataka. Area: It covers an approximate area of about 1027.53 square kilometres (396 square miles). Naming: The river Cauvery forms the boundary of the sanctuary and gives it its name. 1987: It was constituted under the Wildlife Protection Act, of 1973 for the purpose of Protecting, Propagating or developing Wildlife and its environment. It consists of reserve forests in Chamarajnagar, Ramanagar and Mandya Districts of Karnataka State. Vegetation: dry deciduous forests, scrublands, grasslands, and riverine ecosystems. Fauna: elephants, tigers, leopards, wild boars, deer, various species of birds, reptiles, etc. Among aquatic fauna, the predominant species are Crocodiles (listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act), Otters and Hump-backed Mahseer Fish. Significance: It provides a safe habitat for several endangered and vulnerable species. Sambar deer:- The Sambar (Rusa unicolour) is a large deer native to the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia. Habitats: dry deciduous forests, rainforests and mixed forests. Distribution: Their range is distributed from the foothills of the Himalayan Mountains across southern Asia and reaching the islands of Taiwan, Sumatra and Borneo. Significance: These deer play an important role in the ecosystem they live in by dispersing seeds throughout their native range. Threats:- Hunting by humans: Sambar has developed more of a nocturnal activity pattern as a response to hunting by humans, who hunt them for trade and food. Habitat encroachment. (Wildlife Protection) Habitat encroachment: refers to the intrusion of human activities, such as agriculture, infrastructure development, or urbanization, into natural habitats, often resulting in habitat loss and degradation. Conservation status:- IUCN: Vulnerable. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule-III.  MUST READ: (Blackbuck) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous? (2020) Kanha National Park Manas National Park Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Tal Chhaper Wildlife Sanctuary Q.2) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Satkosia Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, two sub-adult tuskers were found dead in Satkosia Tiger Reserve. Background:- In the latest incident of elephant deaths in the state, two sub-adults, including a 15-year-old tusker, were found dead in Satkosia Tiger Reserve. About Satkosia Tiger Reserve:- Establishment: 2007. Satkosia Tiger Reserve, comprises two adjoining sanctuaries of central Odisha named Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary and Baisipalli Sanctuary. These two sanctuaries together covering an area of 963.87 sq km were notified as Tiger Reserve in December 2007. Location: It is located in the Angul district of Odisha. River: This reserve spans four districts and is characterized by the Mahanadi River flowing through its valleys. Biodiversity: Satkosia is the meeting place of India’s two bio-geographic zones, the Eastern Ghats and the Deccan Peninsula, both of which provide enormous biodiversity. Flora:- The area supports moist deciduous forests, dry deciduous forests and moist peninsular Sal forest. Fauna:- Tiger, Leopard, Elephant, Gaur, Chousingha, Sloth bear, Wild dog, varieties of resident and migratory birds, reptilian species, etc. MUST READ: Wildlife Institute of India (WII) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’ the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest Hunting is not allowed in such areas. People in such areas are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce. People of such areas are allowed traditional agricultural practices. How many of the above statements are correct.? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? (2020) Askot Wildlife Sanctuary Gangotri National Park Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary Manas National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only Mains: Measuring unemployment in India Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), India’s unemployment rate was 6.1% in 2017 (the highest ever recorded) and the PLFS of 2021-22 showed unemployment reducing to 4.1%. About Unemployment: According to the International Labour Organisation (ILO), an unemployed person is a person aged 15 or over who simultaneously meets three conditions Unemployment is being out of a job. Being available to take a job. Actively engaged in searching for a job. Trends in unemployment rates in India: Measuring unemployment in India: Usual Principal and Subsidiary Status (UPSS): This method focuses on an individual’s primary economic activity over the course of a year. It considers an individual employed if they spent a relatively long time in economic activity during the previous year, even if they were unemployed for a significant portion of the year. This approach may lead to lower unemployment rates because it considers longer-term work patterns. Current Weekly Status (CWS): CWS, on the other hand, adopts a shorter reference period of one week. An individual is considered employed if they worked for at least one hour on at least one day during the seven days preceding the survey. This method is more sensitive to short-term employment fluctuations and may result in higher unemployment rates. Informal Economy: The definitions used in India are often tailored to capture the informal economy, where employment is characterized by irregular and casual work. This informal sector is a significant part of the Indian labour market, and traditional unemployment measures used in developed economies may not accurately reflect the employment dynamics in this context. Reasons for unemployment in India: Large population: The number of job seekers often exceeds the available job opportunities. Inadequate economic growth: Slow economic growth relative to the population growth rate means that the economy cannot create enough jobs to absorb the increasing workforce. Lack of vocational skills and education: Many job seekers in India lack the necessary vocational skills or have low educational qualifications, making them less competitive in the job market. Nearly 93% of the population in India did not receive any vocational or technical training, according to Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2017-18. Lack of employability: According to India Skills Report (ISR), less than half of the Indian graduates are employable. In 2021, as many as 45.9 per cent of graduates are employable, a decline from 46.21 per cent in 2020 and 47.38 per cent in 2010. Inadequate attention to small and medium enterprises (SMEs): SMEs are more labor intensive than that of large firms. However, big companies remain the main beneficiaries of the fiscal policy of the government. Agriculture as a seasonal occupation: Agriculture, which still employs a significant portion of the workforce, provides seasonal employment. Farmers and agricultural laborers often face unemployment during non-harvest seasons. Ineffective economic planning: A lack of comprehensive economic planning and policy measures to address the gap between labor supply and demand can result in unemployment. Impacts of unemployment in India: Poverty: Unemployment can indeed push individuals and families into poverty. This not only affects their living standards but can also have intergenerational consequences as children growing up in impoverished households may face limited opportunities. Social unrest: High levels of unemployment can lead to social unrest and protests. When a large segment of the population is without jobs and opportunities, frustration and discontent can build up, potentially resulting in civil unrest and protests. This can disrupt the social fabric and stability of a nation. Mental health issues: Prolonged unemployment can take a toll on individuals’ mental health. The stress and anxiety of not being able to find work, coupled with the social stigma often associated with unemployment, can lead to mental health problems such as depression, anxiety, and a loss of self-esteem. Economic loss: Unemployment results in an economic loss for a country. When people are not employed, they are not contributing to the country’s production and GDP. This can lead to lower economic growth and reduced overall prosperity. Reduced consumer spending: Unemployed individuals have less disposable income, which in turn leads to reduced consumer spending. This decrease in consumer demand can negatively affect businesses, leading to lower sales, layoffs, and potentially a vicious cycle of economic downturn. Steps taken to address unemployment by the government: Atma Nirbhar Bharat Package: The government announced the Aatmanirbhar Bharat package to stimulate business and mitigate the impact of COVID-19. It includes various long-term schemes and policies for self-reliance and employment opportunities. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS): Statutory guaranteed 100 days employment for an unskilled worker in rural areas. Startup India: The Startup India initiative is designed to encourage entrepreneurship and support the growth of startups. By fostering innovation and providing financial incentives, regulatory support, and mentorship, this program aims to create jobs and stimulate economic growth through the startup ecosystem. Make in India: The Make in India campaign promotes manufacturing and aims to transform India into a global manufacturing hub. By attracting both domestic and foreign investments in manufacturing, it seeks to create job opportunities in the industrial sector and boost economic growth. National Skill Development Mission: It was set up in November 2014 to drive the ‘Skill India’ agenda in a ‘Mission Mode’ in order to converge the existing skill training initiatives and combine scale and quality of skilling efforts, with speed. Source:  The Hindu End of Old Multilateralism – and the Beginning of a New Order Syllabus     Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: Post-Cold War, the multilateralism is past its peak — at both the global and regional levels. Recent East Asia Summit in Jakarta and the G20 summit in Delhi highlight the deep and arguably irreversible crises in the old multilateral order. About Multilateralism: The relationship between three or more groups of states is known as multilateralism. It consists of some qualitative principles that construct the character of an institution or arrangement. The principles are a commitment to the diffusion of reciprocity, indivisibility among participants on interest, and a system to settle disputes. The new multilateral world order is a term that refers to the emergence of new forms of cooperation and dialogue among different countries and regions in the 21st century. It is a response to the challenges and opportunities posed by globalization, climate change, pandemics, terrorism, and other issues that require collective action and shared solutions. Post-Cold War Multilateralism: The end of the Cold War at the turn of the 1990s created favourable conditions for an intensive phase of multilateralism. Europe moved towards rapid regional economic integration and expansion under the banner of the European Union. In Asia, the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) provided the framework for intensifying regional economic and political cooperation. Regionalism in Europe and Asia was facilitated by the end of the great power rivalry in both continents. Russia was drawn into the Group of Seven (G7) led by Western countries, making it the G8. Moscow was also engaged in consultations with the NATO. In Asia, China became a close partner for the US on economic and political fronts. This, in turn, translated into new possibilities for cooperation among major powers on global issues — such as the proliferation of weapons of mass destruction, climate change, and pandemics. Reasons behind Decline of Existing Multilateralism: Contradictions within the multilateral system: The multilateral system itself has faced internal contradictions and challenges. These internal disagreements and conflicting interests among member states have weakened the effectiveness of multilateral organizations and impeded consensus-building. Rise of alternative security forums: In response to China’s expansionism, alternative security forums like the Quad, AUKUS, and trilateral compacts have emerged. These forums reflect a shift away from traditional multilateral institutions, raising questions about the continuing relevance and centrality of existing regional organizations like ASEAN. Changing perspectives of key players: The changing perspectives of key players, such as India, have also contributed to the decline of existing multilateralism. India’s evolving view of the international order, shifting from concerns about a “unipolar Asia” dominated by China to a more proactive engagement with the United States and its allies, has altered the dynamics of multilateralism in the Indo-Pacific region. Rise of china and its expansionism: One of the primary reasons behind the decline of existing multilateralism is the rise of China as a global economic and military power. China’s expansionist policies, both in Asia and globally, challenge the existing multilateral order. Its unilateral efforts to alter borders with neighbours and its assertive territorial expansionism have created tensions and destabilized regional and global institutions. Impacts of Russian actions: The Russian occupation and annexation of Ukraine’s Crimea in 2014 (and ongoing war) marked a significant challenge to the post-Cold War security order, particularly in Europe. This event disrupted multilateralism by causing rifts and conflicts in the international community. Salient features of India’s new multilateral approach? Quad collaboration: At the Jakarta summit, Indian’s PM emphasizes that the Quad complements ASEAN’s efforts and promotes regional stability. The expansion and diversification of the existing multilateral institutions, such as the UN, the IMF, and the World Bank, to include more voices and perspectives from the developing world and the Global South. Focus on Re-globalisation: External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar advocates for a diversified, democratic globalisation, moving away from a China-centric production model. Collective responsibility: Despite challenges in multilateralism, India continues to seek collective solutions, focusing on diverse issues like modernising the global tax regime. Concerns of Global South: India prioritizes the concerns of the Global South in the G-20 agenda, aiming to enhance cooperation between developed and developing nations, rather than reviving old confrontational politics. Role of India: Acting as central player: India is emerging as a pivotal figure in shaping both regional and global dynamics, highlighted by its active participation in forums like the Indo-Pacific Quadrilateral Forum. Evolution of G20 grouping: India is pushing for the G20 to address the concerns of the Global South, signalling its desire to play a more substantial role in global economic discussions. Shifting alliances: Historically aligned with Moscow and Beijing for a multipolar world, India’s focus has shifted due to China’s increasing assertiveness, leading it closer to nations like Australia, Japan, and the US. Embracing the Indo-Pacific: India has adopted the Indo-Pacific concept and rejuvenated the Quad alliance to counterbalance China’s influence in the region. Way Forward: As a hosting country for G20 presidency, India can use G20 summit as an opportunity to showcase its vision and achievements as a global leader, as well as to forge consensus on important issues such as climate change, sustainable development, health security, and digital transformation. It offers the perfect platform for India to infuse partner nations with foundational ideas and pave the way for the beginning of a new world order. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: International Organization HQ 1.Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries Vienna, Austria 2.Food and Agriculture Organization Rome, Italy 3.WHO New York City, USA How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Malaviya Mission-Teachers Training Programme is organized by the University Grants Commission only. Statement-II: It aligns with the goals of the National Education Policy (NEP). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Africa Climate Summit 2023, consider the following statements: It will be hosted by Egypt. Global Capital optimization is one of the focus areas. It will address the increasing exposure to climate change and its associated costs, only in Africa. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Elucidate on the social and economic impacts of unemployment problems in India. What innovative strategies do you suggest to unemployment rate in India? (250 words) Q.2) Discuss the reasons behind the decline of the old World Order and emergence of new multilateral world order. What is the significance for India in this context? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  8th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 7th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Build Operate Transfer (BOT) model Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Minister of Road Transport and Highways Nitin Gadkari recently suggested the revival of the Build Operate Transfer (BOT) model via smaller highway projects. Background:- Minister of Road Transport and Highways said that the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) and other road-building agencies should look at reviving the Build Operate Transfer (BOT) model by putting up projects costing less than Rs 1,000 crore for award through this route. The minister’s comments came amid a prolonged dearth of private investments in the sector caused much strain on the exchequer. About Build Operate Transfer (BOT) model:- IMAGE SOURCE: apollobt.com A build-operate-transfer (BOT) contract is a model used to finance large projects, typically infrastructure projects developed through public-private partnerships. They are normally large-scale, greenfield infrastructure projects that would otherwise be financed, built, and operated solely by the government. Under a build-operate-transfer (BOT) contract, an entity—usually a government—grants a concession to a private company to finance, build, and operate a project for a period of 20 to 30 years, hoping to earn a profit. After that period, the project is returned to the public entity that originally granted the concession. Other commonly used PPP investment models in India:- Build ,Operate ,Least ,Transfer (BOLT):– In this approach, the government gives a concession to a private entity to build a facility (and possibly design it as well), own the facility, and lease the facility to the public sector. At the end of the lease period transfer the ownership of the facility to the government. Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM):- The central government bears 40% of the project cost. The remaining amount is arranged by the developer. Engineering, Procurement and Construction Model (EPC) The EPC Model partnership requires the government to undertake the total funding of the project. The Private sector partner provides the engineering and construction requirements. About the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI):- Establishment: Ministry: Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. NHAI is an autonomous agency of the Union Government, responsible for the management of a network of over 70,000 km of national highways in India. It is a statutory body. It was established through the National Highways Authority of India Act, 1988. 1995: It was formally made an autonomous body. It is responsible for the development, management, operation, and maintenance of National Highways. MUST READ: Forum for Decarbonizing Transport SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following infrastructure sectors: (2023) Affordable housing Mass rapid transport Healthcare Renewable energy On how many of the above do UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiatives focus on investments? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) About three-fourths of the world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by (2023) Argentina Botswana Democratic Republic. of the Congo Kazakhstan Adopt a Heritage 2.0 programme Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) recently, launched the revamped ‘Adopt a Heritage 2.0’ programme. Background:- Apart from the programme an Indian Heritage app was also launched. The app, provides a comprehensive guide to monuments under ASI’s ambit. It lists historical structures along with pictures, public facilities available on site and geo-tagged locations. About Adopt a Heritage 2.0 programme:- Launched: 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Culture. Implementing Agency: Archaeological Survey of India Salient Features:- Under this programme, the Archeological Survey of India (ASI) invites corporate stakeholders to enhance the amenities at the monuments by utilizing their CSR funds. The programme is a revamped version of the earlier scheme launched in 2017. (Need for heritage conservation) It clearly defines the amenities sought for different monuments as per the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act or AMASR Act 1958. The stakeholders can apply for adopting a monument or specific amenity/ amenities at a monument through a URL indianheritage.gov.in. The portal contains the details of monuments sought for adoption dedicated web portal along with gap analysis and financial estimation of amenities. Selection:- The process for selection will be carried out after due diligence and discussions with various stakeholders and assessing the economic and developmental opportunities at each monument. The selected stakeholders will develop, provide, and/or maintain amenities in hygiene, accessibility, safety, and knowledge categories. (Indian Institute of Heritage) Significance:- The programme seeks to foster collaboration with corporate stakeholders through which they can contribute to preserving these monuments. MUST READ: World Heritage Sites Under Threat SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with (2023) archaeological excavations establishment of the English Press in colonial India establishment of Churches in Princely States construction of railways in colonial India Article 371 D Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: The students of Andhra Pradesh stare at the prospect of losing ‘local quota’ in educational institutions as Article 371 D may not come to their rescue when the validity of the A.P. Reorganisation Act ceases after the 10-year period in May 2024. Background:- The teaching fraternity and the student community fear the prospect of losing the ‘local quota’ in educational institutions in the near future. Their fear stems from the fact that the Andhra Pradesh Reorganization Act, which came into force in May 2014, is valid only for 10 years. This means that the rules and regulations formulated prior to the bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh will not hold good after May 2024. About Article 371 D:- Article 371 of the Indian Constitution deals with special provisions for eleven states of the Indian Union. It is a part of XXI of the Constitution of India, Article 371. Beneficiary states:- This Article ranges from Article 371-A to Article 371-J. It gives special provisions for the states of Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Goa and Karnataka. The main objectives behind Article 371 granting special provisions to some states are:- To meet the unique needs of the backward regions of these states. Protect the economic and cultural interests of these regions. Combat the local challenges and protect the customary laws in these regions. Article 371D, gives special provisions for the state of Andhra Pradesh. It was added to the Constitution in 1974 by the 32nd Amendment Act, 1973. It states that: the president must ensure “equitable opportunities and facilities” in “public employment and education to people from different parts of the state”. He may require the state government to organize “any class or classes of posts in the civil service of, or any class or classes of civil posts under, the State into different local cadres for different parts of the State”. He has similar powers vis-à-vis admissions in educational institutions. Benefits:- It provides equitable opportunities and facilities for the people of the state. It safeguards their rights in matters of employment and education. (Domicile-based job quota) The state government may organize civil posts or direct recruitment to posts in the local cadre as required. MUST READ: Asymmetrical federalism SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider · the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: (2023) Statement-I: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26 November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India· set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) Syllabus Prelims – Economy/ Science and Technology Context: Recently, the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) launched a slew of new payment options on payment platforms UPI. Background:- Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor Shaktikanta Das announced the launch of the products by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) at the ongoing Global Fintech Festival in Mumbai. The latest offerings are aimed at creating an inclusive, resilient, and sustainable digital payments ecosystem and will help UPI achieve the target of 100 billion transactions per month. About National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):- Establishment:2008. HQ: It was established under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. Objective: to create a robust Payment and settlement Infrastructure in India. It is an umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India. It is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA). It has been incorporated as a “Not for Profit” Company under the provisions of Section 25 of the Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013), with an intention to provide infrastructure to the entire Banking system in India for physical as well as electronic payment and settlement systems. Important Services Offered by NPCI:- Bharat Bill Payment Interface (BBPI): It was developed by the NPCI to help the retail payments sector. National Automated Clearing House (NACH): an offline web-based system for bulk push and pull transactions which provides an electronic mandate platform to register mandates facilitating paper paperless collection processes for corporates and banks. Immediate Payment Service (IMPS): It gives the option to transfer funds immediately and is available at any given time. Aadhaar-enabled Payment System (AePS): It has been introduced to access funds at the doorstep & and drive financial inclusion in India. RuPay: It is an affordable card and can be issued as credit cards, debit cards, and prepaid cards. (RuPay Debit Cards and BHIM UPI) USSD Services: It was introduced by the NPCI to allow individuals to make banking solutions without the need for the internet or smartphones. BHIM: It uses UPI to complete payment transfers. No smartphone is required to transfer funds via BHIM. United Payments Interface (UPI): It allows you to transfer funds from your smartphone. Money is transferred directly from one bank to another. (India’s UPI Push) MUST READ: UPI and NPCI Regulation SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: (2022) They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Vijayawada Railway Station was certified with a Platinum rating by the Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) recently. Background:- In the recertification process this year, Vijayawada railway station outperformed and immensely improvised its amenities in almost all aspects compared to the 2019 Gold Standard Rating and clinched the Platinum standard IGBC Rating. About Indian Green Building Council (IGBC):- Establishment:2001. HQ: The Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) is a part of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII). Vision: To enable a sustainable built environment for all and facilitate India to be one of the global leaders in the sustainable built environment by 2025. IGBC is India’s Premier certification body. It is also among the 5 countries that are on the board of the World Green Building Council, discussing global issues at COP and similar global platforms. (Green Buildings Need & Benefits) Green building movement: It is a Pan India movement with over 10,930 projects with a green footprint of over 10.26 billion sq. ft. IGBC is working closely with the Government of India on green building projects for more than 1000 projects across the country. Today, more than 90% of green buildings in the country are being facilitated by IGBC and more than 3,480 projects are certified & and fully operational. IGBC-rated green projects are encouraged by Central and State government incentives in 12 Indian states. IGBC is National by Choice and Global in Performance. All the stakeholders of the construction industry comprising architects, developers, product manufacturers, corporate, Government, academia and nodal agencies participate in the council activities. The council also closely works with several State Governments, the Central Governmethe nt, the World Green Building Council, and bilateral multi-lateral agencies in promoting green building concepts in the country. Services offered:- Developing new green building rating programmes Certification services and green building training programmes. Organizing Green Building Congress which is an annual flagship event on green buildings. MUST READ: 12th GRIHA (Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment) Summit SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2  Q.2) Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Comet Nishimura Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recent reports suggest, that Comet Nishimura could be visible in September. Background:- As per NASA ‘It seems like a good bet’ that Comet Nishimura could become visible to the naked eye this September (2023). Its orbit could bring it on a close approach to Earth on 12, September 2023, when it could be as close as 125 million kilometers away. About Comet Nishimura:- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideServe Discovered on: August 11, 2023. Discovered by: Hideo Nishimura. (Bernardinelli-Bernstein comet) It was discovered during 30-second exposures with a standard digital camera. Comet Nishimura was imaged from June Lake, California, USA. Comets: Comets are celestial objects composed of frozen gases, dust, and rocks that orbit the Sun. They originate from the early solar system and develop tails when they approach the Sun due to the release of gas and dust. These tails make them visible from Earth. It was pictured sporting a green coma and a thin tail. It’s expected to brighten to a magnitude of 1.8. Its closest approach to us will be on Sep 12 and its perihelion on Sep 17/18. The comet is currently located in the constellation Leo. Constellation Leo: A prominent constellation in the night sky, represented by the shape of a lion. It is one of the zodiac constellations and contains various stars and celestial objects. The constellation is visible toward the east-northeastern horizon about 90 minutes before sunrise. As the comet approaches the sun, the visitor is also getting closer to the horizon, thus making it more difficult to observe it after this week. Since its discovery, C/2023 P1 Nishimura has increased in brightness and its path across the inner Solar System determined. As the comet dives toward the Sun, it will surely continue to intensify and possibly become a naked-eye object in early September. The comet will also be angularly near the Sun, so it will only be possible to see it near sunset or sunrise.  MUST READ: Exoplanets SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface speed. Mains: One Nation One Election' system (ONOE) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The ‘one nation one election’ proposal was mooted yet again by the government. About ‘One Nation One Election’ system: Current system: The country holds separate polls for the Lok Sabha and state Assemblies in a gap of five years, i.e. When the tenure of the Lower House or the state government concludes, or either of them is dissolved prematurely. The term of state assemblies may not necessarily be in sync with one another or that of the Lok Sabha. As a result, the mammoth task of conducting elections goes all round the year. One Nation One Election proposes that simultaneous elections be held in all states and the Lok Sabha in a gap of five years. This would mean that the voters will cast their vote for electing members of the LS and the state assemblies on a single day, at the same time (or in a phased manner as the case may be). Background of ONOE: Simultaneous elections have previously been conducted in India in 1952, 1957, 1962 and 1967. Soon after, this norm was discontinued following the dissolution of some Legislative Assemblies between 1968 -69. Since then, the Indian Electoral system holds polls to Centre and states separately. Important articles to be amended to conduct ONOE: Article 172 and Article 83 deal with the duration of the Houses of Parliament, and guarantee a five-year term to both the elected Lok Sabha and state assemblies, unless they are dissolved sooner. Article 85 of the Indian Constitution deals with the powers of the President to summon Parliamentary sessions, not exceeding a gap of more than six months. The President also carries the power to adjourn either House of the Parliament and the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Article 356 of the Indian Constitution, comes into action in case of governance and constitutional failure in a state and deals with the President’ Rule. Amendments in the People’s Representation Act, 1951(RPA Act 1951) and the Anti Defection Law must be made for organised conduct and stability in both Lok Sabha and state assemblies. Arguments in favour of ONOE: Reduction of Financial burden on state exchequer: Continuous election cycles are a financial burden on the state exchequer. ONOE will reduce the overall expenditure on political process by ECI. Focus on governance instead of being in ‘election mode’: One nation one election” will ensure continuity of policies and programmes of the central and state governments. It will reduce disruption of normal public life as political rallies will be kept to a minimum. It will improve the delivery of essential services to public. Better utilisation of financial resources by political parties: Simultaneous elections will reduce the campaign expenditure of political parties and the candidates. This will help smaller regional parties in better management of financial resources. Reduced duration of ‘model code of conduct: Frequent imposition of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) during polls stalls all development work for months at a time. It will reduce ‘policy paralysis’ that results from the imposition of the Model Code of Conduct during election time. Increase of administrative efficiency: During elections the entire state machinery focuses on conducting a free and fair electoral process which impacts the everyday administration because officials are engaged in polling duties. ONOE will increase efficiency of administrative system. Increase of voter turnout-: According to the Law Commission, ONOE will increase voter turnout because it will be easier for people to cast many votes all at once. Reduced use of black money: Elections involve considerable expenditure by prospective candidates most of which is black money. ONOE will reduce the circulation of black money in economy. Improvement in social harmony: Frequent elections perpetuate caste, religion, and communal issues across the country as elections are polarising events that have accentuated casteism, communalism, and corruption. ONOE would reduce the fault lines between communities created due to multiple elections. Arguments against ONOE: Only states are contesting: ‘India’ does not have an election every year, one of India’s States does. So, when there are elections in a few States, ‘India’ is not in an election mode; some of India’s States are. All of India’s major political parties are not in an election mode, only some are. Against India’s federalism: Each of India’s States has different political cultures and parties. An elected Chief Minister of a State has the powers to recommend dissolution of their State legislatures and call for early elections. Under a ‘one election’ framework, state parties will not have the right to do this. These powers will be taken away from the States and only the Union government will have the powers to dictate the election schedule for every State. Increase in cost: In the short term, simultaneous elections will increase the costs for deploying far larger numbers of electronic voting machines and control units. Political parties and candidates may spend a lot more money on elections than the government but that is not the tax-payers’ money. On the contrary, there is economic research to suggest that such election spending by parties and candidates actually benefits the economy and the government’s tax revenues by boosting private consumption and serving as a stimulus. Works for presidential system: A single election calendar may work in a presidential system where the survival of the executive is not dependent upon a legislative majority. Unworkable and unfeasible: ‘One nation one election’ is a politically unfeasible, administratively unworkable and constitutionally unviable proposition. Way Forward: The concept of ‘One India One Election’ holds promise as a positive change, provided it is executed with meticulous attention to policies and regulations. Addressing the growing demand for skilled administrative staff and heightened security is crucial. Forming a dedicated group consisting of constitutional experts, think tanks, government officials, and political party representatives is essential to working out the intricate details of implementation. Source: Indian Express Criminalising Ecocide Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment) Context: Recently Mexico’s ‘Maya train’ project has been criticised as a “megaproject of death” causing an ecological disaster in the region. The Tribunal for the Rights of Nature said the project caused “crimes of ecocide and ethnocide”. About Ecocide: It is defined as “as unlawful or wanton acts committed with knowledge that there is a substantial likelihood of severe and either widespread or long-term damage to the environment being caused by those acts”. Commonly cited examples include: Deforestation during the Vietnam War, The destruction of the environment during the Russian invasion of Ukraine, deforestation in Indonesia and the Amazon rainforest, Oil pollution in the Niger Delta and the Chernobyl disaster. The term was popularised by Olof Palme when he accused the United States of ecocide at the 1972 UN Conference on the Human Environment. There is no international law against ecocide that applies in peacetime, but the Rome Statute makes it a crime. The Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court (ICC) deals with four atrocities: genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and the crime of aggression. The provision on war crimes is the only statute that can hold a perpetrator responsible for environmental damage, but only if it is intentional and in wartime. Ecocide – a crime: Ecocide is a crime in 11 countries, with 27 others considering laws to criminalise environmental damage that is wilfully caused and harms humans, animals, and plants. The European Parliament voted unanimously this year to enshrine ecocide in law. Most national definitions penalise “mass destruction of flora and fauna”, “poisoning the atmosphere or water resources” or “deliberate actions capable of causing an ecological disaster.” The ICC and Ukraine’s public prosecutor are also investigating Russia’s role in the collapse of the Nova Kakhovka dam, which unleashed a flood that drowned 40 regions, and released oils and toxic fluids into the Black Sea. Significant evidences to consider ecocide as a crime: Over a third of the earth’s animal and plant species could be extinct by 2050. Unprecedented heat waves have broken records worldwide. Changing rainfall schemes have disrupted flood and drought patterns. Deforestation of the Amazon, deep-sea trawling or even the catastrophic 1984 Bhopal gas disaster could have been avoided with ecocide laws in place. Ecocide laws could also double up as calls for justice for low- and middle-income countries disproportionately affected by climate change. Limitations in defining ecocide as a crime: Varied arguments: Regarding the need for a separate law and the definition of ‘ecocide’. Ambiguous definition: Words like “long-term” or “widespread damage” are abstract and leave room for misinterpretation. Complexity: This constructs a development-versus-environment narrative, with the implication that it is okay to destroy the environment as long as it benefits humans. Great Nicobar Project is criticised for endangering indigenous communities and biodiversity. But the government claims the Project is in service of holistic development. Threshold– In 1940 genocide requires proof on two accounts Mens rea (an intention to kill) and Actus reus (a guilty act) — to prove a crime was committed. It creates confusion as some argue that environmental disasters are not caused intentionally or deliberately. Limited power to ICC: ICC has a low track record when it comes to converting prosecutions into convictions. The court’s power is limited to “natural persons,” and without any changes, ICC would be unable to hold corporate entities criminally liable. India and Ecocide: Chandra CFS and Terminal Operators Pvt. Ltd. v. The Commissioner of Customs and Ors (2015) case: The Madras High Court noted “the prohibitory activities of ecocide has been continuing unbridled by certain sections of people by removing the valuable and precious timbers”. N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs Union of India & Ors: The Supreme Court called attention to an “anthropogenic bias” and argued that “environmental justice could be achieved only if we drift away from the principle of anthropocentric to ecocentric”. India’s legislative framework vis-à-vis environmental and ecological governance includes: The Environmental (Protection) Act 1986, The Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, and The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (CAMPA) 2016, as well as separate Rules to prevent air and water pollution. The National Green Tribunal, India’s apex environmental statutory body, does not have the jurisdiction to hear matters related to The Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, The Indian Forest Act 1927, and Other State-enacted laws. Indian laws are themselves in a state of conflict: The Parliament passed the controversial Forest Conservation (Amendment) Bill 2023 and Biodiversity (Amendment) Bill 2023, which experts have said will dilute current legal protections and will lead to the loss of 20-25% of forest area in the country and the attendant biodiversity and ecosystem issues. Way Forward: Therefore an ecocide law should be a part of the broader process of changing public consciousness, recognising that we are in a relationship with our environment, we are dependent for our well-being on the wellbeing of the environment. India needs to first bring its environmental laws in tune with ecocide idea before the ecocide laws come up internationally. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Investment Model Description 1.Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM) Both the government and a private entity own and develop the facility simultaneously bearing 50% of the project cost each. 2.BOLT The central government bears 40% of the project cost and the remaining amount is arranged by the developer. 3.EPC The government undertakes the total funding of the project while the Private sector partner provides the engineering and construction requirements. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) was established in 2009. Statement-II: It is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Article 371D, consider the following statements: It was added to the Constitution in 1974 by the 22nd Amendment Act, of 1973. It safeguards rights in matters of employment and education. It gives special provisions for the state of Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None  Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Analyse the historical background of the “One Nation One Election” concept in India. Highlight the key advantages it offers and the legal challenges associated with its implementation. Suggest measures to address these challenges? (250 words) Q.2) What do you mean by ecocide? Elucidate the implications of making it a crime on environmental protection and corporate accountability. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  7th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 8th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) LIGO-India Project Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: As per recent reports, the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory project (LIGO)-India, is the next focus of Indian scientists after the Chandrayaan and Aditya missions. Background:- Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory project (LIGO) observatory. About Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory project (LIGO)-India:- IMAGE SOURCE: LIGO-INDIA Location: Hingoli district of Maharashtra, India. Built by: the Department of Atomic Energy and the Department of Science and Technology with an MoU with the U.S. National Science Foundation. The LIGO-India Project aims to detect gravitational waves from the universe. Gravitational waves: They were first postulated (1916) in Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity. These waves are produced by the movement of massive celestial bodies, such as black holes or neutron stars They are the ripples in spacetime that propagate outward. Four comparable detectors will be operating simultaneously around the globe to localize a source of gravitational waves anywhere in the sky. (International Space Station (ISS)) LIGO-India will be the third of its kind in the world. (Space Economy of India) It is made to the exact specifications of the twin LIGO, in Louisiana (first) and Washington (second) in the U.S. The fourth detector will be in Kagra, Japan. LIGO: an international network of laboratories that detect gravitational waves. The LIGO in the US first detected gravitational waves in 2015, which led to a Nobel Prize in Physics in 2017. Significance:- It will bring India into a prestigious international scientific experiment. It will bring advances in astronomy, astrophysics, and cutting-edge technology. MUST READ: SpaceTech Innovation Network (SpIN) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘black holes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation? (2019) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected. ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected. Possibility of intergalactic space travel through a ‘wormhole’ was confirmed. It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’. Classical dances of Kerala Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Various classical dances of Kerala were performed during Onam celebrations held recently. Background:- This year, Onam festivities began on 20th August 2023 and Thiruvonam fell on August 31 as the 10-day harvest festival was observed across the South Indian state of Kerala. It marks the beginning of the Malayalam year, called Kolla Varsham, and commemorates the return of the mythical King Mahabali with great enthusiasm and cultural fervor. About Classical dances of Kerala:- Kerala is known for its rich cultural heritage. (Karakattam dance) It includes various classical dance forms, some of these performed during Onam 2023 celebrations include:- Kathakali:- It originated in Kerala over 300 years ago. (Kathakali dance) It is one of the most famous classical dance forms of the state. It is One of the eight classical dances of India. It is a highly stylized and dramatic art form combining the elements of dance, music, acting, devotion, drama, costumes, and make-up. Kathakali performances retell the great stories of the past, mostly from Indian epics, or depict episodes from the Mahabali legend or other mythological stories associated with the festival, using hand and facial gestures and expressions. Mohiniyattam:– It is a graceful and lyrical dance form. (Mohiniyattam) It is performed in honor of the Hindu god Vishnu in his incarnation as the enchantress Mohini. It is One of the eight classical dances of India. It is performed exclusively by women. It is characterized by gentle, flowing movements and expressive storytelling, narrating the stories related to King Mahabali during the Onam festival. Koodiyattam:- It is recognized as a UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage. It is one of the oldest classical theater forms in the world. It involves elaborate and ritualistic performances with traditional costumes and makeup. It depicts stories from Hindu epics and Puranas that are sometimes staged during Onam. Thiruvathirakali:- It is a traditional group dance. It involves graceful circular movements by the women and clapping of their hands to the rhythm of the music. This group dance is often performed by women. It is considered a celebration of womanhood. It is mostly performed in the evening under the moonlight. Chakyar Koothu:- It is a traditional solo performance. It has the artist narrating episodes from epics like the Ramayana and the Mahabharata in a humorous and dramatic manner on Onam. It is not a dance form per se. It is an integral part of Kerala’s performing arts tradition. Ottamthullal:- The dance form was created by the renowned Malayalam poet Kunchan Nambiar. It involves a single performer narrating stories with dance and song in a satirical and humorous style. The performance is accompanied by a mridangam (barrel-shaped drum). MUST READ: National Tribal Dance Festival 2022 SOURCE: HIDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Gramodyog Vikas Yojna Syllabus Prelims – Government Initiatives Context: The Lieutenant Governor of Delhi, Shri Vinai Kumar Saxena, distributed Honey Bee-Boxes and Toolkits under the ‘Gramodyog Vikas Yojna’ recently. Background:- The Lieutenant Governor of Delhi, Shri Vinai Kumar Saxena, distributed Honey Bee-Boxes and Toolkits to 130 beneficiaries. The program was organized under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC), Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, State Office Delhi, Government of India. Addressing the occasion, Shri Vinai Kumar Saxena emphasized the vital role played by the Khadi and Village Industries Commission in generating employment opportunities in rural India. About Gramodyog Vikas Yojna:- Launched: March 2020. Ministry: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) Objective: assisting and developing of agarbatti industry and its artisans. The programme aims to enhance the production of ‘Agarbatti’ in the country. It aims to create sustainable employment for the traditional Artisans, by providing them with regular employment and an increase in their wages. Components of the Yojana:- Research & Development and Product Innovation: R&D; support would be given to the institutions that intend to carry out product development, new innovations, design development, product diversification processes, etc. Capacity Building: exclusive capacity building of staff, as well as the artisans, would be adequately addressed through the existing Multidisciplinary Training Centers (MDTCs) and institutions of excellence. Marketing & Publicity: The institutions will be provided market support. (Effects of globalization on the rural population of India) About Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC):- Establishment: 1957. Ministry: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises It is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act, of 1956. Objectives of KVIC:- To boost employment in the country. (Project Re-Hab) To promote the promotion and sale of Khadi articles. Function:- It is charged with the planning, promotion, organization, and implementation of programmes for the development of Khadi and other village industries in rural areas. It coordinates with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary. MUST READ: Rural Manufacturing SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following organisms perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Commission for Schedule Tribes (NCST) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Kalahandi Gram Sabhas wrote to the National Commission for Schedule Tribes (NCST), invoking an atrocities act against the Jharkhand Divisional Forest Officer (DFO), recently. Background of the issue:- DFO illegally seized a consignment of kendu leaves being transported from Odisha to West Bengal, a federation of Gram Sabhas alleges. The Kasturapadar and Khasiguda Gram Sabhas of the federation had issued transit permits to a company, Green India, for carrying kendu leaves (also known as tendu), which are used to roll beedi, from Kalahandi to Dhulian in West Bengal in May this year. On May 31, the company’s truck, along with 400 sacks of kendu, was seized during transit by the DFO of Simdega forest division in Jharkhand. The Mahasangh has alleged that the seizure is in violation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 (FRA) and the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989: It is an Act to prevent the commission of offenses of atrocities against the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. It provides for Special Courts for the trial of such offenses for the relief and rehabilitation of the victims of such offenses and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. The letter dated June 19, 2023, appealed NSCT to take legal action against the Simdega DFO for “illegal interference with the enjoyment of forest rights of Schedule Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers”. About the National Commission for Schedule Tribes (NCST):- Establishment: Ministry: Ministry of Tribal Affairs. HQ: New Delhi. It was established by amending Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A. It was done through the Constitution through the Constitution (89th Amendment) Act, 2003. By this amendment, the erstwhile National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was replaced by two separate Commissions namely:- National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC), and National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) The commission submits its report to the President annually. It gives data on the working of safeguards and measures required for the effective implementation of Programmers/ Schemes relating to the welfare and socio-economic development of STs. Structure:- Term of office of Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and each member: three years from the date of assumption of charge. Chairperson has been given the rank of Union Cabinet Minister. Vice-Chairperson that of a Minister of State Other Members have the ranks of a Secretary to the Government of India. Powers:- NCST is empowered to investigate and monitor matters relating to safeguards provided for STs under the Constitution under other laws or under Govt. order. It is also authorized to inquire into specific complaints relating to the rights and safeguards of STs and to participate. It can advise in the Planning Process relating to the socio-economic development of STs and evaluate the progress of their development under the Union and States.  MUST READ: Addition of Tribes in ST List SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Q.2) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho, and Kui’ pertain to  (2021) dance forms of Northwest India musical instruments pre-historic cave paintings tribal languages Africa Climate Summit 2023 Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently, Africa Climate Summit 2023 was inaugurated. Background:- Despite having a small carbon footprint, Africa disproportionately bears the human toll of climate change. Thus, highlighting the urgent need for regional and global action, President William Ruto reminded us while inaugurating the Africa Climate Summit, 2023 (ACW23) on September 4, 2023, in Nairobi, Kenya. About Africa Climate Summit 2023:- Date: 4th to 6th September 2023. Venue: Nairobi, Kenya. (Africa) The summit aims to address the increasing exposure to climate change and its associated costs, both globally and particularly in Africa. At the Africa Climate Summit, leaders will be called upon to make ambitious pledges and commitments. A comprehensive “Pledging and Commitment Framework” will be developed to guide these actions. The outcomes of the summit are critical for the African continent to arrive at a consensus and mobilize action in the lead-up to the upcoming 28th Conference of Parties (COP28) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change to be hosted in Dubai, United Arab Emirates. Theme & Focus Areas:- Climate Action Financing. Green Growth Agenda for Africa. Climate Action and Economic Development. Global Capital optimization. MUST READ: 27th COP of UNFCCC SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Thal Sena Bhawan Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: As per recent reports, the Indian Army’s new Thal Sena Bhawan will conform with GRIHA-IV (Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment) norms. Background:- The Indian Army’s new Thal Sena Bhawan (TSB), coming up on a sprawling 39-acre site with a built-up area of 143,450 sq. m. The building will be ready by May-June 2025. About Thal Sena Bhawan:- Area:143,450 sq. m. It has been designed to be earthquake-resistant. The complex is designed to cater to the needs of 5,600 personnel. It will bring together the Indian Army Headquarters currently split into eight pockets across Delhi, including South Block, Sena Bhawan, Hutments Area, R. K. Puram, and Shankar Vihar. Thal Sena Bhawan adheres to GRIHA-IV specifications and criteria. For instance, the topsoil of the entire site will be preserved, and its fertility will be maintained during the construction phase. This preserved soil will then be used for landscaping the area after construction. GRIHA: It is the national rating system that evaluates the environmental performance of a building holistically over its entire life cycle. It evaluates the environmental performance of a building holistically over its entire life cycle, thereby providing a definitive standard for what constitutes a ‘green building’. These buildings consume resources from municipal wastes or indirectly from emissions of electricity generation. The rating system, based on accepted energy and environmental principles, will seek to strike a balance between the established practices and emerging concepts, both national and international. It is under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. The ‘Thal Sena Bhawan’ is conceptualized as a multi-story green building. ( Green Buildings Need & Benefits) It will house offices, a residential area for security personnel, and basic amenities. Significance:- The new structure will bring together various pockets of the Army headquarters spread across Delhi under one roof. It will improve working efficiency while reducing the carbon footprint and logistics requirements. It would also allow more family time for all personnel at peace posting in Delhi. The newly created Department of Military Affairs (DMA) headed by the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) will work from here. This will help in jointness. MUST READ: 12th GRIHA (Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment) Summit SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 AG-365S Drone Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: Recently, AG-365S of Marut Drones became the first DGCA-certified drone for dual usage. Background:- Marut Drones has secured type certification approvals from the Director General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) for its AG-365S kisan drone for use in agriculture and also for drone pilot training given by the remote pilot training organization (RPTO). This certification allows the drone to be used in agriculture as well as for drone pilot training. About AG-365S Drone:- Developed by: Marut Drones. Marut Drones: an Indian drone technology company based in Hyderabad. It is the first multi-utility agriculture small-category drone in India to receive the DGCA-approved type certificate. DGCA (Director General of Civil Aviation): The regulatory body responsible for overseeing civil aviation operations in India, including the certification and regulation of drones. It is a ‘Made-in-India’ kisan drone. It has been developed to help farmers reduce crop losses, lower the use of agrochemicals, and improve yields as well as profits. It aims to enhance crop yields, reduce agrochemical usage, and minimize crop losses. It is a multi-utility agricultural drone in the small category (less than 25kg). It has a flight endurance of 22 minutes. It is equipped with high-end sensors for smooth operations. It has undergone extensive testing to ensure the highest quality. It is a small-category drone developed by the Hyderabad-based Indian company. It has advanced features, including obstacle and terrain sensors. It has the capacity for multiple agricultural tasks. It is equipped with multiple payloads. One AG-365S can be used for spraying pesticides, and granular spreaders. MUST READ: MQ-9B Predator Drone SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Q.2) The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to (2020) Voyager-2 New Horizons LISA Pathfinder Evolved LISA Mains: Should Agriculture Income be Taxed? Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: Recently, the debates were floated around exemptions and non-taxation of agricultural income in India. Agriculture employs about 50% of the population contributing approximately 17% to the GDP of the country. According to Indian Constitution, agriculture and the taxation of agricultural incomes has been a state subject. Accordingly, section 10(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, exempts agricultural income from taxation by the central government. This has led to rich farmers and landlords immune from the tax net. History of Taxing Agriculture income: The issue of taxing agricultural income (and wealth) goes back to the 1960s. Seventh Schedule, entry 82 in the Union List mentions taxes other than agricultural income, while Entry 46 in the State List mentions taxes on agricultural income. Therefore, arguing that this is in the State List is valid. Income Tax Act of 1860 (which introduced income tax in India) it taxed agricultural income till 1886. Income tax act 1961 had provisions for taxing agricultural income. Agricultural Income Tax Acts are present in Bihar, Assam, Bengal, Orissa, Uttar Pradesh, Hyderabad, Travancore and Cochin and Madras and Old Mysore State. Therefore, states tax some kinds of agricultural income, such as plantations. Significance of not taxing agricultural income: No revenue potential: Around 95% of the total assets are owned by small and marginal farmers which means only 5% of the farmers will be liable to pay the tax. Therefore, it will not have major revenue potential. So, the tax income would be very limited and it is not worth consideration. Burden on the poor: The income of small and marginal farmers is very low; they can hardly earn a living and thus are left with either no savings or a very small amount. The average per month income of a farm household in India in 2012-13 as per the National Sample Survey Office was just Rs. 6,491. The income-expenditure gap for a majority of farmers is in the negative. Lack of documentation and records: The small farmers are usually illiterate and uninformed and thus they are unaware of the procedure to make proper documentation of their land. Reduction in credits: If agricultural tax is imposed on farmers, it will reduce their chances of getting significant credits and it will lead to credit flowing only to rich farmers, as they’ll have a higher income to show. May lead to suicides: With so many farmers committing suicide because of pending debts, low productivity and small income, imposing agriculture tax may even increase the suicide rate. Fluctuating incomes and profit margins: There is a large fluctuation in the annual income of farmers. Harvests are unpredictable as they are affected by weather, disease and pests. Various challenges: Political will: Many states may have been reluctant to tax agriculture incomes as they do not wish to lose vote bank of farmers. Moreover, India’s state legislatures have typically been populated by land owners who have been blocking efforts to impose a tax on themselves. Cash transactions: In India in particular, agriculture is harder to tax as it is based largely on cash transactions which are hard to track and trace. Cash transactions not routed through the banking system are difficult to verify and be used for assessment of agricultural incomes. Burden small farmers: In a country where 83% of the farming community comprises small and marginal farmers. Many farmers do not hold land and work on contract. Rich farmers would pass on the burden of tax on these farmers. Fraud “farmer” certificates: There is also a significant lack of credibility about the way states issue “farmer” certificates. Way Forward A bold and dynamic approach is needed in India whereby all the stakeholders to organize a conclave to debate and discuss the issues concerning taxation of agricultural income in India. Agricultural income taxation must be integrated with non-agricultural income taxation. Land revenue tax hasn’t quite worked and must be replaced. If implemented this would be an indirect tax on commodities, like an excise or sales tax, which will get subsumed under GST. The income of the farmer will still be outside the ambit of income tax. The underlying argument in the current discussion is to bring more people under the tax net to expand the tax base and also curb tax evasion. Source:LM Maritime Infrastructure Perspective Plan (MIPP) 2023-37 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS3 (Security) Context: The Minister of State for Defence recently released the Maritime Infrastructure Perspective Plan (MIPP), 2023-37 at the second edition of the biennial Naval Commanders Conference. About Maritime Infrastructure Perspective Plan (MIPP): It aims to synchronise and enmesh the infrastructure requirements of the Navy, over the next 15 years, through a comprehensive perspective plan model. It is aligned with the government’s vision on creation of sustainable infrastructure, and encompasses salient for compliance with broader policy directives on PM Gati Shakti project, disaster resilience, transition to net zero, among others. The Navy received a revised set of “IRS Rules and Regulations Handbook for Construction and Classification of Naval Combatants” to accommodate technological advancements and promote self-reliance in naval shipbuilding. This rule book represents the self-reliance of the naval shipbuilding industry and aims to keep pace with modern technology. Two new initiatives: the “Family Logbook for Defence Civilian Personnel of the Indian Navy” for personal records and the “Electronic Service Document Project” to enhance HR records within the Navy. Significance of Maritime security for India: India as a maritime nation: With 12 major and 200+ non-major ports situated along its 7500 km long coastline and a vast network of navigable waterways. Trade: The country’s maritime sector plays a crucial role in its overall trade and growth, with 95% of the country’s trade volume and 65% of the trade value being undertaken through maritime transport. Blue economy: Marine fisheries sector is one major contributor to the economy and livelihood of the fishing community. There are almost three lakh fishing vessels. India’s foreign relations: Maritime security is a prominent feature of India’s relations with Indian Ocean littoral states. The Indian Ocean, which has been an “ocean of peace”, is now witness to rivalries and competitions. Challenges associated  maritime sector in India: Inadequate infrastructure: India’s maritime infrastructure, including ports and inland waterways, is inadequate and requires significant investment and development. Poor connectivity: The lack of connectivity between ports, as well as ports and hinterland, leads to inefficiencies and increased costs. Skill gaps: There is a shortage of skilled manpower in the maritime sector, including seafarers, engineers, and other professionals. Environmental concerns: The maritime sector can have a significant impact on the environment, and there are concerns around issues such as oil spills, pollution, and the impact of climate change. Security challenges: Terrorism(26/11 attack), arms smuggling, piracy, drug trafficking, illegal migration and natural disasters became the major challenges in the maritime domain. China factor: With the growing Chinese belligerence, efforts to further strengthen maritime security and surveillance of India’s coastline needs to be undertaken. India’s Initiatives for Maritime Security: Security and Growth for All (SAGAR) Policy: India’s SAGAR policy is an integrated regional framework, unveiled by the Indian Prime Minister during a visit to Mauritius in March 2015. SAGAR is a maritime initiative which gives priority to the Indian Ocean region (IOR) for ensuring peace, stability and prosperity of India in the Indian Ocean region. Abiding by the International Law: India has time and again reiterated its commitment to respecting the rights of all nations as per the UN Convention on Law of Sea (UNCLOS) UNCLOS 1982, also known as Law of the Sea divides marine areas into five main zones namely: Internal Waters, Territorial Sea, Contiguous Zone, Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), and the High Seas. Data Sharing: Sharing data on threats to commercial shipping is an important component of enhancing maritime security. India established an International Fusion Centre (IFC) for the Indian Ocean region in Gurugram in 2018. Source:    The Hindu MUST READ:  India’s blue economy Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Classical Dance State 1.Sattriya Mizoram 2.Kuchipudi Andhra Pradesh 3.Bharatnatyam Kerala How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: AG-365S Drone is a ‘Made-in-India’ Kisan drone. Statement-II: It does not have the capacity to operate multiple agricultural tasks at a time Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the National Commission for Schedule Tribes (NCST), consider the following statements: It is a statutory body. It was established in 1988. It submits its report to the President annually. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None  Main Practice Questions Q.1) Analyse the significance of exempting agriculture from taxation in India? What are the constitutional provisions directing exemption? Discuss the challenges of exempting agriculture from taxation. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  6th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 5th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 5th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) BS 6 Stage II Electrified Flex fuel vehicle Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The World’s first prototype of the BS 6 Stage II ‘Electrified Flex fuel vehicle’ was launched recently. Background:- These vehicle technologies will provide the opportunity for greater substitution of petrol by Ethanol as it is capable of using any of the higher blends of ethanol mix beyond 20%. About Electrified Flex fuel vehicle:- IMAGE SOURCE: U.S. Department of Energy Flex-fuel vehicles (FFV) are capable of running on 100% petrol,100% bio-ethanol, or a combination of both. These vehicles are equipped with engines that can adjust their fuel mixture based on the available fuel blend. Electrified Flex Fuel Vehicles are an advanced version of FFVs. They are able to operate on both ethanol-based fuels and electricity. ( The technology powering hybrid electric vehicles) They provide increased fuel efficiency. They reduce emissions compared to traditional gasoline-only vehicles. An Electrified Flex Fuel Vehicle has both a Flexi Fuel engine and an electric powertrain. This gives it the ability to provide the dual benefit of higher ethanol use and much higher fuel efficiency. A Strong Hybrid Electric Vehicle (SHEV), can provide 30-50% higher Fuel Efficiency as it can run 40-60% in EV mode with engine shut off. The world’s 1st BS-6 Stage-II, Electrified Flex fuel vehicle, has been developed by Toyota Kirloskar Motor. It has both a flex-fuel engine as well as an electric powertrain, thereby offering higher use of ethanol combined with better fuel efficiencies. About Bharat Stage VI (BS VI): It is a set of emission standards established to regulate the level of air pollutants emitted from internal combustion and spark-ignition engine equipment. BS-VI contains enhanced fuel quality, and reduced the permissible Sulphur content by 80%, from 50 Parts Per Million (ppm) to a maximum of 10 ppm. India has made it mandatory to follow BS-VI emission (from previously BS-IV) norms in two phases:- Phase 1: Effective from April 1, 2020. It witnessed substantial reductions in permissible pollutant limits, setting new standards for emissions. Phase 2: Initiated on April 1, 2023. It focuses on Real Driving Emission (RDE) testing which measures emissions emitted by a vehicle while in real-world driving conditions. MUST READ: (Flex Fuel Technology) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for (2021) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world. Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading. Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries. Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit of time. Q.2) “R2 Code of Practices” constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2021) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry. Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention. Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands. ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources. Personalized Adaptive Learning (PAL) Syllabus Prelims – Government initiatives Context: The National e-Governance Division (NeGD) recently announced plans to integrate Personalised Adaptive Learning (PAL) into its existing Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA) platform. Background:- PAL’s software-based approach will allow each student to have an individualized learning experience over the course of the curriculum based on their unique needs and abilities. The Ministry of Education intends to begin PAL implementation for challenging subjects like Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics for Classes 9 to 12. By focusing on these subjects, the initiative aims to improve learning outcomes and school retention rates, addressing the issue of dropouts after Class 10. About Personalised Adaptive Learning (PAL):- It is an educational approach that uses technology, particularly artificial intelligence (AI), to customize the learning experience for individual students. (A new global standard for AI ethics) It is based to cater individual student’s unique needs, abilities, and progress. It employs AI to monitor student progress and identify areas of difficulty. For instance, if a student makes a mistake in a calculation, the system detects it and redirects the student to relevant foundational content, ensuring a better understanding of the concept. PAL adapts to the unique progress and challenges faced by each student, offering a more effective and engaging learning experience. Benefits of PAL:- Personalized Study Plans. Support for Special Needs. Flexibility in Learning. Challenges faced by states in implementing PAL:- States like Assam and Haryana have faced budget constraints when implementing PAL. While Assam discontinued the project due to funding issues. Haryana found the streaming costs for content to be prohibitively high, leading to a standstill in the adoption process. About DIKSHA:- Launched: 2017. Ministry: Ministry of Education. DIKSHA is the platform for providing quality e-content for school education in States/UTs and QR-coded Energized Textbooks for all grades. It aids teachers in learning and training themselves for which assessment resources will be available. It houses digitized National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) textbooks, teaching videos, and practice questions. It also has assistive technologies for learners with disabilities, but it’s a static content repository. MUST READ: Regulating Artificial Intelligence SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? (2020) Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units Create meaningful short stories and songs Disease diagnosis Text-to-speech conversion Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2, 4, and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 CSIR PRIMA ET11 Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, CSIR-CMERI developed a Compact Electric Tractor- CSIR PRIMA ET11. About CSIR PRIMA ET11:- Developed by: CSIR-CMERI. CSIR PRIMA ET11 is an indigenously designed, compact, 100% Pure Electric Tractor. ( First-ever Electric Tractor) Capacity: It can tow a 8-ton capacity trolley with a max speed of 25 mph. (Tractor industry) Objective: to cater to small and marginal farmers of India. Application: It caters to the demands of agriculture field applications. Design: Its dynamics, weight distribution, transmission engagements, then lever and pedal position everything has been well designed. Special characteristic: It has been made women-friendly with all the levers, switches, etc. being placed for an easy approach to the women. Many mechanical systems are also being replaced with electronic switches for easy operations. Battery: It has a state-of-the-art Lithium-ion battery with Prismatic cell confirmation. When the tractor is not in operation, its battery power can be utilized for other secondary applications like pump and irrigation, etc. The farmers can charge the tractor using a conventional home charging socket in 7 to 8 hours and operate the tractor for more than 4 hours at the field. ( Lithium reserves in India) Benefit: The tractor design helps to achieve the desired efficiency at a minimum cost. MUST READ: India’s First CNG Tractor to be launched SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following actions: (2023) Detection of car crash/ collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of the display between portrait and landscape mode. In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan is a national campaign to (2016) Rehabilitate the homeless and destitute persons and provide them with suitable sources of livelihood Release the sex workers from their practice and provide them with alternative sources of livelihood Eradicate the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitate the manual scavengers Release the bonded laborers from their bondage and rehabilitate them Saint Narayana Guru Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Saint Narayana Guru’s birth anniversary was celebrated recently. Background:- Social reformer and saint Narayana Guru’s birth anniversary was celebrated in Yadgir on 31, August 2023. About Saint Narayana Guru:- Narayana Guru was a saint & and social reformer of India. (Bhakti Movement) He has been credited with transforming the social fabric of He fought the caste system and for equality among people from all communities. He was a great thinker of that era. He raised his voice for the people of downtrodden communities and for their rights. He guided people against superstition, which was deep-rooted in society. He built a temple for Dalits who were denied entry into temples for worship. He preached the ‘oneness’ of humanity He preached the ‘oneness’ of humanity, crossing the boundaries of caste and creed. In 1888, he installed an idol of Siva at Aravippuram in Kerala in his effort to show that the consecration of god’s image was not a monopoly of the Brahmins. This is popularly known as the Aravippuram movement. He contributed many important literary works, the most influential being Atmopadesa Satakam which he composed in 1897. MUST READ: Sant Kabir SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts: (2022) Nettipakarana Parishishtaparvan Avadanashataka Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina’s texts 1,2 and 3 2 and 4 only 1,3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements: (2018) Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna. Tyagaraja created several new ragas. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries. Annamacharya kirtans are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 Rayagada shawls Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: As per recent reports, Rayagada shawls, and Koraput’s kala jeera rice are most likely to get GI tags. About Rayagada shawls:- From Rayagada district in Odisha. It is also called Kapdaganda. It is the handwoven shawls weaved by the Dongria Kondhs of Odisha. Dongria Kondhs: Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) community in Odisha. The shawl is weaved and embroidered with their tribal motifs. It has been an age-old practice in the Dongria Kondh tribal community. It has become an important source of income for 1,800 tribal women in Rayagada district. These traditional shawls are being sold far and wide. (Pashmina Shawls) Koraput’s kala jeera rice:- From Koraput district in Odisha. The rice is grown in Koraput district’s Tolla, Patraput, Pujariput, Baliguda, and Mohuli areas. The farmers of Koraput district have domesticated Kalajeera rice over generations. It is called the ‘Prince of Rice’. It is an aromatic variety of rice. (Basmati Rice) It is popular for its black colour, good aroma, taste, and texture. The ancient text explains that Kalajeera rice improves memory and controls diabetes. It is believed to increase hemoglobin levels and the body’s metabolism. This fragrant grain has antispasmodic, stomachic, carminative, antibacterial, astringent, and sedative MUST READ: GI tag for Narasinghapettai nagaswaram SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in: (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: According to recent reports, released by the United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF), children in 48 African countries are at high risk of climate change impacts. Background:- The report of the United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) was released on September 1, 2023. Children in 48 out of 49 African countries assessed were categorized as at ‘high’ or ‘extremely high’ risk of climate change, the report said. (Horn of Africa) About United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF):- Establishment: 1946. HQ: New York, USA. Historical Background: It was created in 1946 as the International Children’s Emergency Fund (ICEF) by the UN Relief Rehabilitation Administration to help children affected by World War II. Objective: to save children’s lives, defend their rights, and help them fulfill their potential, from early childhood through adolescence. It works to reach the most disadvantaged children and adolescents and to protect the rights of every child, everywhere. Its Executive Board is the governing body of UNICEF. It works in over 190 countries and territories with 7 regional offices It became a permanent part of the United Nations in 1953. It is mandated by the United Nations General Assembly. It is guided by the Convention on the Rights of the Child, 1989. 1965: It was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace for the “promotion of brotherhood among the nations”. MUST READ: India-Africa: Challenges & Way Ahead SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) Region often mentioned in the news:       Country Anatolia                                                  Turkey Amhara                                                   Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                        Spain Catalonia                                                Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 National Teachers Award 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi interacted with the winners of the National Teachers Award 2023. Background:- Prime Minister Narendra Modi interacted with the winners at his official residence in New Delhi on the eve of Teachers’ Day. Seventy-five award winners participated in the interaction. The Prime Minister appreciated the efforts of teachers in nurturing the young minds of the country. About National Teachers Award 2023:- Objective: to recognize the distinctive contributions of some of the finest faculty members in the country and honor them. The Award seeks to recognize and honour the unique and path-breaking achievements of faculty members in teaching, research, institutional service, community outreach, and novelty of work in the field of higher education. The ceremony is held on 5th September every year. Eligibility:- The award is open to all the faculty members of colleges/universities/higher educational institutions in India, satisfying the following conditions:- Should be a regular faculty member. Should have at least five years of full-time teaching experience at the Undergraduate and/or Post-graduate level. Should not be above 55 years of age as of the last date of receiving application for the awards. Vice-Chancellor/ Director/Principal (regular or officiating) are NOT eligible to apply. Decoration:- Each awardee shall be presented with the following. A medal A certificate Cash Prize of Rs 50,000/- No. of Awardees:- A total of Fifty Awards (25 in Category II and 25 in Category III) shall be conferred every year. Nominations:- Nominations for the award can be made by any of the following: Vice-Chancellor/Director/Principal of the same University/Institute/College, a colleague, or any other faculty member, including former faculty member/ Head/Dean of the same institution. Exclusions:- Self-nomination is NOT allowed. One person can make only one nomination at a time. A nomination is eligible for re-nomination. Former Vice-Chancellor/Director/Principal may apply subject to full-time current teaching assignment. Members of the Search cum Screening Committees may also take suo-moto cognizance of an outstanding faculty member and may nominate. Award Jury are NOT eligible to make a nomination for this award. The nominator may please ensure that the nomination form is duly completed and information, as required by the Committee, is included. Nominations received after the due date shall not be considered. Vigilance clearance and Integrity certificate are to be mandatorily provided by the HEI as per Annexure -1 stated in the scheme document. MUST READ: Gandhi Mandela Award SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: Assam to Draft Anti-polygamy Law Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) Context: Recently the Assam government has constituted a three-member panel to draft the proposed law to end polygamy in the State. About Polygamy: Polygamy comes from two words: “poly,” which means “many,” and “gamos,” which means “marriage.” As a result, polygamy relates to marriages that are several. Thus, polygamy is marriage in which a spouse of either sex may have more than one mate at the same time. Traditionally, polygamy mainly the situation of a man having more than one wife — was practiced widely in India. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 outlawed the practice. The Special Marriage Act (SMA), 1954 allows individuals to perform inter-religious marriages, but it forbids polygamy. The Act has been used by many Muslim women to help them stop practicing polygamy. Types of polygamy: Polygyny: It is the matrimonial structure in which a male individual has numerous wives. Polygamy in this form is more common or widespread. Monarchs and emperors in the Indus Valley Civilisation were believed to have several wives. Polyandry: It is a type of marriage in which a female has several husbands. Nevertheless, this can be an extremely uncommon occurrence. Bigamy: When one is already married additionally, the marriage continues to be valid, then married with someone else is known as bigamy plus the person committing this will be called bigamist. It is considered a criminal offense in many countries, including India. Status of Polygamy in India: The government data shows that polygamy cases in the country had come down to 4 per cent in 2019-20 as against 1.9 per cent in 2005-06. This rate has been higher in the northeastern states. According to reports, in Meghalaya, it is 6.1 per cent and in Tripura, it is 2 per cent. Polygamy is prevalent in Assam’s three districts of the Barak Valley and the areas of Hojai and Jamunamukh. This practice continues in Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha as well among some castes. Meanwhile, in Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, this practice is more prevalent among Muslims than Hindus. Major reasons for polygamy in India: Religion: Some religions allow or encourage polygamy as a part of their doctrine or tradition. For example, Islam permits a man to have up to four wives if he can treat them fairly and provide for them adequately. Culture: Some cultures accept or promote polygamy as a part of their social norms or values. For example, some tribal and rural communities practice polygamy as a way of increasing their population or maintaining their lineage. Economics: Some people practice polygamy as a way of securing their economic interests or improving their social status. For example, some men practice polygamy because they want to have more children who can work or earn for them. Some women practice polygamy because they want to have more resources or security from their husbands. Politics: Some people practice polygamy as a way of asserting their political rights or challenging the state authority. For example, some separatist groups in India practice polygamy as a way of expressing their resistance or rebellion against the Indian government. Social pressures: Some people practice polygamy because they face social pressures or expectations from their peers or elders. For example, some men practice polygamy because they want to prove their masculinity or virility. Personal preferences: Some people practice polygamy because they prefer it over monogamy or celibacy. For example, some men practice polygamy because they want to have variety or satisfaction in their life. Consequences of Polygamy in India For Women: polygamy often means a lack of autonomy, dignity and security. They have to share their husband’s attention, resources and affection with other wives, which can lead to jealousy, conflict and violence. They also face a higher risk of domestic abuse, sexual exploitation, reproductive health problems and mental stress. For Children: polygamy can result in neglect, deprivation and discrimination. They may not receive adequate care, nutrition and education from their parents, especially if they belong to a less favoured wife. For Society: polygamy can cause social instability, inequality and disharmony. It can also create gender imbalance and reduce the availability of marriageable partners for single men and women. lead to social problems such as domestic violence, child abuse, divorce, adultery and prostitution. Economic impact: Polygyny can increase the financial burden on the husband and his family. The husband may have to provide for multiple households, wives and children, which may affect his savings, investments and standard of living. The wives may have to compete for limited resources and may not have enough income or assets of their own. Views of judiciary on Polygamy: Parayankandiyal v. K. Devi & Others (1996): The Supreme Court (SC) concluded that monogamous relationships were the standard and ideology of Hindu society, which scorned and condemned a second marriage. Polygamy was not allowed to become a part of Hindu culture due to the influence of religion. Javed & Others v. State of Haryana & Others (2003): The SC decided that under Article 25 freedom is subjected to social harmony, dignity, and wellness. Muslim law allows for the marriage of four women, but it is not compulsory. This will not be violating religious practice to not marry four women. Legality of polygamy: Polygamy is permissible and legal exclusively for Muslims in nations such as India, Singapore, as well as Malaysia. Polygamy is still recognised and practiced in nations such as Algeria, Egypt, and Cameroon. These are the only areas in the world where polygamy is still legal. Way Forward: As per the United Nations Human Rights Committee, polygamy should be abolished in regions where it exists because it violates women’s dignity and restricts their free will. Laws such as polygamy, triple talaq and nikah halala are not only archaic, but they are also debilitating for Muslim women. The legality of such laws needs to be challenged and subsequently discarded. Source:    The Hindu Status of the Right to Information Act Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 4 (Ethics) Context: Recently many activists observed that  the Right to Information act has been weakened over the years. About Right to Information (RTI) Act: It was enacted by Parliament in 2005 . It empowers Indian citizens to seek accessible information from a Public Authority and makes the Government and its functionaries more accountable and responsible. It mandates timely response within 30 days to citizen requests for government information. Section 4 of the Right to Information Act deals with the obligations of public authorities. The right to information has been upheld by the Supreme Court as a fundamental right flowing from Article 19 of the Constitution, which guarantees every citizen the right to free speech and expression Section 24 of the RTI Act provides that the Act does not apply to the security and intelligence organisations specified in the Second Schedule of the Act. Amendments to the RTI Act: The RTI Act has seen significant amendments over the years. One notable change is the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, of 2023, which transformed the prohibition on personal data disclosure into a total ban, potentially hindering social audits in vital areas like ration distribution. Additionally, the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, of 2019, granted the Union Government unilateral powers over the appointment and compensation of information commissioners, raising concerns about their independence. Significance of the RTI Act: Anti-corruption tool: In the past 17 years, it has been instrumental in uncovering a list of major scams. Scams like Adarsh Society Scam, 2G scam, Commonwealth Games Scam, Indian Red Cross Society Scam are some noticeable achievements under RTI. Empowered people’s voice: It has given ordinary citizens the confidence and the right to ask questions of Government authorities. The RTI Act has empowered people in containing corruption and bringing transparency and accountability in the working of the Government. Strengthened Democracy: Every citizen has the right to claim information from public authorities under the Act. On the other hand, public authorities have an obligation to provide the sought information to the applicants (with certain exceptions). This has strengthened democracy through active participation of the public. Transparency and Accountability: A large amount of information has to be placed in the public domain by ways of manuals prescribed under the Act. All the Government departments along with a number of bodies which receive substantial funding from the Government have been brought under the RTI. This has ushered in an era of transparency and accountability. Concerns with the act: Bureaucratic attitude: Frequently cited as a reason for the dismissive approach towards RTI queries is the prevalence of frivolous or malicious inquiries. However, it’s important to note that such queries account for only approximately 4 percent of all appeals and can be easily addressed. Issues in State Information Commissions: Several problems plague State Information Commissions, including Vacancies Remain Unfilled. Some Commissions Operate Without Appointed Chiefs. Unwillingness to Disclose “Uncomfortable” Information. Problems with Public Information Officers (PIOs): PIOs in some cases exhibit audacious behavior. For instance, an information commissioner in Madhya Pradesh had to issue an arrest warrant for a PIO who repeatedly ignored 38 summons to appear at commission hearings and failed to comply with SIC orders. Lack of Preparedness Among PIOs: Serious RTI inquiries, especially those involving multiple government departments, often necessitate involvement from higher-ranking officials. However, it’s typically junior-level PIOs who attend hearings and frequently lack the necessary knowledge. These junior officers often bear the brunt of commission scrutiny and may face penalties. Government negligence: Government departments often display negligence in taking disciplinary action against errant PIOs. Such a cavalier attitude poses a significant challenge to the RTI regime. Code of conduct: Some commissioners openly expressing their political affiliations is a matter of concern, as it can raise questions about their impartiality and objectivity. Legal entanglements: Numerous RTI cases become entangled in lengthy judicial procedures. High courts frequently issue stay orders on decisions made by Information Commissions, even though the RTI Act clearly designates the information commissions as the final appellate authority. Appeals are sometimes disguised as writ petitions to seek relief from high courts. View of the Supreme Court: It has directed the Central Information Commission and the State Information Commissions to ensure proper implementation of provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005 including on proactive disclosure of information by public authorities. Way Forward: Though the Right to Information Act, 2005, has been a milestone in promoting transparency, its effectiveness is under threat due to legislative amendments, bureaucratic challenges, and issues with online portals. To ensure its continued success in empowering citizens and holding public officials accountable, addressing these concerns and enhancing the Act’s implementation is crucial. Source:    The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: GI Tags State 1.Navara Rice Karnataka 2.Kani Shawl Jammu & Kashmir 3.Palakkadan Matta Rice Kerala How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Electrified Flex Fuel Vehicles provide increased fuel efficiency. Statement-II: The world’s 1st BS-6 Stage-II, Electrified Flex fuel vehicle, has been developed by Tata Motors. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the CSIR PRIMA ET11, consider the following statements: It is a 100% Pure Electric Tractor. It has a state-of-the-art Lithium-ion battery with Prismatic cell confirmation. The farmers can charge the tractor using a conventional home charging socket. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Polygyny poses several challenges for society, women and legal aspects. How can India address these challenges and ensure the rights and dignity of all women in polygynous marriages? Suggest ways to reduce or eliminate polygyny in India? (250 words) Q.2) Critically analyze the significance and limitations of the Right To Information Act. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  5th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 4th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 5th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 4th September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) issued an order against M/s IQRA IAS Institute, to discontinue the false testimonials and misleading claims from their website with immediate effect recently. Background:- The issue came to the notice of CCPA through the website of IQRA IAS Institute established in 2018 deliberately and falsely claimed through the testimonials of top-rank holders of UPSC CSE in 2015 & 2017 as their students which is factually deceiving. Therefore, CCPA took Suo-moto cognizance and found that along with the aforesaid false claim the institute claimed itself as the only coaching academy to have the best faculty from all around India for providing the best UPSC online prelims test series 2020, thus making it the top UPSC coaching within a year in Pune. Accordingly, the notice was issued to IQRA IAS Institute in view of the violation of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. Consumer Protection Act, 2019:- Definition of consumer: The act defines a consumer as a person who buys any good or avails a service for consideration. Exclusion: It does not include a person who obtains a good for resale or a good or service for commercial purposes. It covers transactions through all modes including offline, and online through electronic means, teleshopping, multi-level marketing, or direct selling. Definition of misleading advertisement: The Act defines “misleading advertisement” in relation to any product or service as “an advertisement, which:- Falsely describes such product or service. Gives, a false guarantee to, or is likely to mislead the consumers as to the nature, substance, quantity, or quality of such product or service. Conveys an express or implied representation which, if made by the manufacturer or seller or service provider thereof, would constitute an unfair trade practice. Deliberately conceals important information. Rights of consumers:- Six consumer rights have been defined in the Act, including:- Right to safety, right to be Informed, right to choose, right to be heard, right to seek redressal, and right to consumer education. About Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA):- Establishment: 2020. Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs. HQ: Delhi. Objective: To protect the rights of the consumer by cracking down on unfair trade practices, and false and misleading advertisements that are detrimental to the interests of the public and consumers. The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) is an authority constituted under Section 10(1) of The Consumer Protection Act, 2019. Composition:- Head: Chief Commissioner Members: two other commissioners as members. One of these will deal with matters relating to goods while the other will look into cases relating to services. Investigation Wing: The CCPA will have an Investigation Wing, headed by a Director General. District Collectors: They too, will have the power to investigate complaints of violations of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and false or misleading advertisements. Powers and Functions of CCPA:- Inquire or investigate matters relating to violations of consumer rights or unfair trade practices Suo moto, or on a complaint received, or on a direction from the central government. Recall goods or withdrawal of services that are “dangerous, hazardous, or unsafe. Pass an order for a refund of the prices of goods or services so recalled to purchasers of such goods or services. Impose a penalty of up to Rs 10 lakh, with imprisonment of up to two years, on the manufacturer or endorser of false and misleading advertisements. The penalty may go up to Rs 50 lakh, with imprisonment up to five years, for every subsequent offense committed by the same manufacturer or endorser. Ban the endorser of a false or misleading advertisement from making an endorsement of any products or services in the future. File complaints of violation of consumer rights or unfair trade practices before the District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, and the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission. MUST READ: New consumer rights law SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? (2022) Farmers harvesting their crops Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics A commercial bank lending money to a trading company A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Spamouflage Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Meta recently, claimed that it is fighting a Chinese ‘Spamouflage‘ operation. About Spamouflage:- It is an online Chinese spam operation. (Cyberattacks) It pushes positive narratives about China and negative commentary about the United States, Western foreign policies, and critics of the Chinese government. Origin: China. Targets: Taiwan, the United States, Australia, Britain, Japan, and global Chinese-speaking audiences. It mimicked websites of mainstream news outlets in Europe and posted stories about Russia’s war on Ukraine and then spread it online. (Cybercrime) The accounts in the campaign have a tendency to intersperse political posts. It has been active on over 50 platforms and forums, including Facebook, Instagram, TikTok, YouTube, and X (formerly Twitter). Companies involved in the campaign were recently sanctioned by the European Union. MUST READ: Global Cybersecurity SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The terms ‘Wanna Cry, Petya, and Eternal Blue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to (2023) Exo-planets Crypto-currency Cyber attacks Mini satellites Q.2) With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? (2023) Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units Create meaningful short stories and songs Disease diagnosis Text-to-speech conversion Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2, 4, and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Stem cell therapy Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: The Delhi High Court Recently permitted two children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) to undergo stem cell therapy for treatment of their condition.(AUTISM SPECTRUM DISEASE) About Stem cell therapy:- IMAGE SOURCE: jointpainclinic.co.uk Stem cell therapy is a novel therapeutic approach. It utilizes the unique properties of stem cells, to regenerate damaged cells and tissues in the human body or replace these cells with new, healthy, and fully functional cells. Stem cells: cells that have the natural ability to generate new cell types. Apart from stem cells, no other cell in the body has the natural ability to generate new cell types. Types of stem cells:- Embryonic stem cells: These stem cells come from embryos that are 3 to 5 days old. These are pluripotent stem cells, meaning they can divide into more stem cells or can become any type of cell in the body. Adult stem cells: These stem cells are found in small numbers in most adult tissues, such as bone marrow or fat. Compared with embryonic stem cells, adult stem cells have a more limited ability to give rise to various cells of the body. Induced pluripotent stem cells: These are stem cells that scientists make in the laboratory. They are pluripotent and can develop into any cell type just like embryonic stem cells. Mechanism:- Under the right conditions in the body or a laboratory, stem cells divide to form more cells called daughter cells. These daughter cells become either new stem cells or specialized cells (differentiation) with a more specific function, such as blood cells, brain cells, heart muscle cells, or bone cells. Uses:- To treat many human diseases and to repair tissue damage resulting from injury or ageing. In Organs transplantation Damaged organs can be replaced by obtaining healthy organs from a donor. However, donated organs may be rejected by the immune system. Induced pluripotent stem cells generated from the patient could be used here to grow new organs that would have a lower risk of being rejected. Regulations in India:- In March 2019, the Union Health Ministry notified the ‘New Drugs and Clinical Trial Rules, 2019’ which state that stem-cell-derived products are to be used as “new drugs”. This meant that any doctor who uses stem-cell therapy needs to get permission from the government. In India as well as globally, only blood stem cells from bone marrow to treat blood cancers and different blood disorders are permitted. (Base Editing) The clinical use in any other disease or use of any stem cells other than these is still in the research stage. MUST READ: CRISPR bio-technology SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: India’s public sector healthcare System largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care. Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements: (2021) Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of the egg. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from the mother and not from the father. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Pulikkali Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: The Pulikkali show was presented during the Onam celebrations, in Thrissur city (Kerala) recently. Background:- Thrissur city turned into a sea of stripes and spots as more than 250 ‘human tigers and leopards’ pranced about the streets in a rollicking show of Pulikkali to lend a carnivalesque finish to Onam celebrations. About Pulikkali:- Place: Kerala. Venue: The Swaraj Ground in Thrissur district, Kerala Introduced by: Maharaja Rama Varma Sakthan Thampuran(the erstwhile ruler of Cochin) Naming: Puli means Leopard/Tiger and Kali means Play in Malayalam. Main theme: tiger hunting. It is also called the Tiger Dance. It is a recreational street folk art. It is performed on the fourth day of Onam celebrations. Artists paint their bodies like tigers with stripes of yellow, red, and black and dance to the rhythm of traditional percussion instruments such as thakil, udukku, and chenda. The participants play the role of tiger and hunter. Onam: It is the biggest and the most important festival in the state of Kerala. It is a harvest festival. It is celebrated at the beginning of the month of Chingam, the first month of the Malayalam Calendar (Kollavarsham). MUST READ: Kathakali dance SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Men’s Hockey5s Asia Cup 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Sports Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi congratulated the Indian Men’s Hockey team on winning the Men’s Hockey 5s Asia Cup. Background:- In a social media post, Mr. Modi said, their victory is a testament to the unwavering dedication of the country’s players. About Men’s Hockey5s Asia Cup 2023:- Date: 29 August to 2 September 2023. Venue: Salalah, Oman. Host nation: Oman. It was the first-ever Men’s Hockey5s Asia Cup 2023. (Grand Slam) It was a historic event in the world of field hockey. (Sports Code) Elite group: India, Malaysia, Pakistan, Japan, Oman, and Bangladesh competed in the Challenger group: Hong Kong China, Indonesia, Afghanistan, Kazakhstan, and Iran. Significance: This tournament was the qualifier for the FIH Hockey5s World Cup 2024. Three teams got to earn their tickets to the global stage. MUST READ: Social change through sports SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 20th ASEAN-India Summit Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi will be on a two-day visit to Indonesia to attend the ASEAN-India Summit and East Asia Summit. About 20th ASEAN-India Summit:- Host: Indonesia. Venue: Jakarta, Indonesia Significance: It will be the first Summit since the elevation of India-ASEAN relations to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership last year. (India-ASEAN relations) It will review the progress of India-ASEAN relations and chart the future direction of cooperation. About East Asia Summit:- Etablished :2005.( East Asia Summit) First summit: Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia. Date: 14 December 2005. 18th summit: Jakarta, Indonesia. It is a forum of 18 regional leaders for strategic dialogue and cooperation on the key political, security, and economic challenges facing the Indo-Pacific region. This forum has an important role to play in advancing closer regional cooperation. The 18th East Asia Summit will provide an opportunity for leaders of ASEAN countries and its eight dialogue partners, including India, to exchange views on issues of regional and global significance. MUST READ: India-ASEAN conclave SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Q.2) Consider the following countries: (2018) Australia Canada China India Japan USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4, 5 and 6 1, 3, 4 and 5 2, 3, 4 and 6 Mains: National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Environment) Context: In the seven years, since the government unveiled its ambitious NMCG, it has installed treatment plants capable of treating just 20% of the sewage. These plants are capable of treating 20% of the sewage to be generated in the five major States that lie along the river– Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal. This is expected to increase to about 33% by 2024; and 60% by December 2026. About National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) Source:  DTE It was registered as a society in 2011 under the Societies Registration Act 1860. It acted as the implementation arm of National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) which was constituted under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act (EPA),1986. NGRBA has since been dissolved with effect from 2016 consequent to the constitution of National Council for Rejuvenation, Protection and Management of River Ganga which is referred as National Ganga Council. National Ganga Council under the chairmanship of Prime Minister of India. NMCG has a two-tier management structure and comprises of: Governing Council Executive Committee Both are headed by Director General, NMCG. Significance of Namami Gange programme: Creating sewage treatment capacity: 48 sewage management projects are under implementation and 98 sewage projects have been completed in the basin states. Biodiversity conservation: One of NMCG’s long-term visions for Ganga rejuvenation is to restore viable populations of all endemic and endangered biodiversity of the river, so that they occupy their full historical range and fulfil their role in maintaining the integrity of the Ganga River ecosystems. Creating river-front development: 68 Ghats/Crematoria projects for construction, modernization, and renovation of 267 Ghats/Crematoria and Kunds/Ponds have been initiated. River surface cleaning: River Surface cleaning for collection of floating solid waste from the surface of the ghats and river and its disposal are afoot and pushed into service at 11 locations. Afforestation: The process involves enhancement of productivity and diversity of the forests in head water areas and all along the river and its tributaries. Ganga gram: Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation identified 1674 Gram Panchayats situated on the bank of River Ganga in 5 States (Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal). Challenges of the mission: Sludge control: While the containment of human waste has be largely achieved by Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) through construction of toilet in Ganga grams, its safe disposal still poses a huge challenge. Faecal sludge is a bigger pollutant than sewerage. Sewage treatment: Despite initiatives, there are challenges like delay in new projects because of land acquisition and other procedural requirements, poor performance of Sewage treatment plants (STPs) and lack of sewerage network in cities. Industries find it easy to dispose their entire waste in the common drain which carries both domestic as well as industrial waste into the river. Restoring the flow: With enough flow, a river acts as self-purifying system. However, the Ganga fails this basic test except during monsoons. Due to restrictions and decrease in flow, the velocity of water decreases and siltation increases and the self-purification capacity decreases. Cost overruns: The costs of the programme have increased as a result of delays in multiple projects, and ineffective financial management. Governance Issues: The Ganga Action Plans lacked the coordination of various Ministries. Lack of coordination results in faulty execution, delays and cost overruns. Way Forward: Therefore, monetization of sludge and treated water is one of the focus areas of Namami Gange Programme under the banner of ‘Arth Ganga’, which means linking people with Ganga through a ‘Bridge of Economics’. A targeted dissemination of information must be done to bring about the desired change. There is a need to create a “generation with cleanliness conscious’ and everything else will automatically fall into place. Source:  The Hindu Stem Cell Therapy Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: The Delhi High Court recently permitted two children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) to undergo stem cell therapy. About stem cell therapy: Stem cells are undifferentiated biological cells that can differentiate into specialized cells and can divide to produce more stem cells. Treatments or therapies are used stem cells to prevent or treat any disease are known as stem cell therapy. Stem cells are grown in the labs, these stem cells are manipulated to specialize into specific types of cells, such as heart muscle cells, blood cells or nerve cells etc. Stem cell therapy promotes the reparative treatment of diseased, dead or injured tissue. Potential applications of Stem cell therapy: The therapy can be used to treat: Orthopedic injuries and musculoskeletal problems Spinal cord injuries, brain trauma and spinal stenosis Cardiovascular diseases, including hypertension, coronary heart disease, stroke and congestive heart failure Hair loss and vision impairment Diabetes and other pancreatic dysfunctions Neurodegenerative diseases such as Parkinson’s, multiple sclerosis and Alzheimer’s Significance of stem cell therapy: medical benefits: It offers a lot of medical benefits in the therapeutic cloning and regenerative medicine. It shows great potential in the treatment of a number of conditions like Parkinson’s disease, spinal cord injuries, Alzheimer’s disease, schizophrenia, cancer, diabetes and many others. A better knowledge of human growth: It helps the researchers know more about the growth of human cells and their development. The stem cell research can allow the scientists to test a number of potential medicines and drugs without carrying out any test on animals and humans. The drug can be tested on a population of cells directly. Early care and treatment: The stem cell therapy also allows researchers to study the developmental stages that cannot be known directly through the human embryo and can be used in the treatment of a number of birth defects, infertility problems and also pregnancy loss. A higher understanding will allow the treatment of the abnormal development in the human body. Reduced risk of rejection: The stem cell therapy puts into use the cells of the patient’s own body and hence the risk of rejection can be reduced because the cells belong to the same human body. Disadvantages: Destruction of blastocysts: The use of the stem cells for research involves the destruction of the blastocysts that are formed from the laboratory fertilization of the human egg. Unknown side-effects: Like any other new technology, it is completely unknown what the long-term effects of such an interference with nature could be Limitations of adult cells: The disadvantage of adult stem cells is that the cells of a particular origin would generate cells only of that type, like brain cells would generate only brain cells and so on. Potential rejection: If the cells used in the therapy are embryonic, then the cells will not be from the same human body and there are chances of rejection. Potential use in negative activities: It can be used to create bio-weapons or weapons of mass destruction Way Forward: Stem cell therapy is gaining popularity in India to treat a wide variety of medical conditions. considering the fact that therapy is frequently and worldwide offered as a universal human remedy, studies should be focused on continuous monitoring and long-term follow-up of animal research models in order to determine possible pro-tumorigenic and other detrimental effects of therapy. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Harvest Festival State 1.Nuakhai Orissa 2.Pongal Kerala 3.Bohag Bihu Arunachal Pradesh How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) can recall goods or withdrawal services that are “dangerous, hazardous, or unsafe. Statement-II: It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce And Industry. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements about ‘Pulikkali’:- It is performed on the fourth day of Onam celebrations. It was introduced by Maharaja Rama Varma Sakthan Thampuran. It is a recreational street folk art of Karnataka. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 1 and 2 only 1 only 1,2 and 3 2 and 3 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What are the main components and objectives of the National Mission to Clean Ganga? What are the challenges and opportunities for its successful implementation? Discuss (250 words) Q.2) Stem cell therapy is gaining popularity in India to treat a wide variety of medical conditions. Describe briefly what stem cell therapy is and what advantages it has over other treatments? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  4th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 2nd September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 4th September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here