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Feb 10, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 10th February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Dr.M S Swaminathan conferred Bharat Ratna Syllabus Prelims – current events of national importance Context: Conferring of Bharat Ratna, the highest civilian honour of the country on late agricultural scientist, Dr M S Swaminathan. Background:- This year’s tally of five Bharat Ratna awards is the highest that has ever been announced in a single year, one more than the four announced in 1999. The winners of the award are L.K Advani, Karpoori Thakur, M S Swaminathan, Narasimha Rao, Chaudhary Charan Singh. About M.S.Swaminathan:- Born on August 7, 1925 in Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu, Dr Mankombu Sambasivan Swaminathan is hailed as the father of India’s green revolution. Witnessing the Bengal famine of 1942-43 deeply impacted Dr Swaminathan. He served as an Independent Chairman of the Food and Agricultural Organisation Council (1981-85) He was the President of the International Union for the Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (1984-90) He was also the President of the World Wide Fund for Nature (India) from 1989-96 He served as the Director General of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), among others. Contribution to green revolution: The Basic strategic vision underpinning the Green Revolution in India — introducing a new genetic strain or ‘plant type’ responsive to increased fertiliser and water application — came from Swaminathan. The problem with the traditional wheat and rice varieties was that they were tall and slender. These ‘lodged’ – fell flat on the ground — when they grew and their earheads were heavy with well-filled grains produced in response to high fertiliser doses Swaminathan approached Norman Borlaug, who had incorporated dwarfing genes into wheat varieties in Mexico. India started working seriously on dwarf wheat breeding programme in 1963. His efforts transformed India from a food deficient nation to one with increased wheat production – from 6 million tonnes a year in 1947 to 17 million tonnes a year between 1964 and 1968. MUST READ: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/bharat-ratna-ms-swaminathan-significance-profile-9152692/ SOURCE: Indian Express Sovereign gold bond scheme Syllabus Prelims-Economy Context: Sovereign gold bone scheme, 2023-24 will open for subscription from 12 to 16 February 2024 Background: Floated by the Indian Government in 2015, Sovereign Gold Bonds or SGBs emerged as an innovative investment strategy involving gold for interested investors. About SGBs: SGBs are provided as a substitute for physical gold to investors. The main objective of the scheme is to reduce the demand for physical gold and shift a part of the money spent for gold, which usually amounts to huge import bill into financial savings through Gold Bonds. SGBs are issued by RBI on behalf of the Government of India on payment of the required amount in rupees and are denominated in grams of gold. The Bonds are restricted for sale to resident Indian entities including individuals, HUFs, trusts, Universities, charitable institutions. Investors ineligible to participate in the SGB scheme include – Non-Resident Indians:Direct investment in SGB is not permitted for them, Foreign institutional investors (FII): investing in SGB is restricted for FIIs, minors: investment in SGB is only permissible through their guardians. The bonds are available in both in Demat and paper form. The rate for the Bonds is fixed on the basis of simple average of closing price for gold of 999 purity of the previous week published by the India Bullion and Jewellers Association (IBJA). The tenor of the Bond is for a period of 8 years with exit option from 5th year onwards to be exercised on the interest payment dates. Participants in the SGB scheme are entitled to a stable interest rate of 2.50 per cent per annum, disbursed semi-annually based on the nominal value of their investment. On maturity, the investor will get the equivalent rupee value of the quantum of gold invested at the then prevailing price of gold as calculated using the simple average of the closing price of 999 purity gold over the three preceding working days. SOURCE: Livemint Previous Year Questions Q.1) What is/are the purpose/purposes of the Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and ‘Gold Monetization Scheme’? (2016) To bring the idle gold lying with Indian households into the economy To promote FDI in the gold and jewellery sector To reduce India’s dependence on gold imports Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 KYASANUR FOREST DISEASE (KFD) Syllabus Prelims – General Science Context: Since January 1 this year, two people have died due to Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD), a viral infection, in Karnataka. Background: According to the health department, the first fatality due to monkey fever was reported in Shivamogga district on 8 January wherein an 18-year-old succumbed to the virus. The second fatality was reported at Manipal in Udupi district when a 79-year-old man died in a private hospital. About Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD) Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD), also known as monkey fever, is a tick-borne viral haemorrhagic fever endemic to the southwestern part of India. KFD is caused by the Kyasanur Forest disease virus (KFDV), a member of the Flaviviridae virus family. Reservoir: Hard ticks (Haemaphysalis spinigera) serve as the reservoir for KFDV. Once infected, ticks remain carriers for life. Hosts: Rodents, shrews, and monkeys become common hosts for KFDV after being bitten by an infected tick. Human Transmission: Humans can contract KFD through tick bites or contact with infected animals. Historically, KFD has been limited to the western and central districts of Karnataka State, India. According to the US Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the disease was first identified in 1957 when it was isolated from a sick monkey from the Kyasanur Forest in Karnataka (formerly Mysore). There is no specific treatment for KFD, but early hospitalization and supportive therapy is important. A vaccine exists for KFD and is used in endemic areas of India MUST READ: https://www.cdc.gov/vhf/kyasanur/pdf/factsheet.pdf SOURCE: Center for Disease Control and Prevention High-altitude pseudo satellite vehicle (HAPS) Syllabus Prelim – Science Context: THE NATIONAL Aerospace Laboratories (NAL) in Bengaluru has successfully completed the first test of a solar-powered “pseudo satellite”, a new age unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) Background: HAPS is a still-developing technology, and the successful test flight last week puts India among a very small group of countries currently experimenting with this technology. About HAPS: The high-altitude pseudo satellite vehicle, or HAPS, can fly at altitudes of 18-20 km from the ground, almost double the heights attained by commercial airplanes. Due to its ability to generate solar power, it can remain in air for months, evenyears, offering it advantages of a satellite. It does not require a rocket to get into space, the cost of operating HAPS is several times lower than that of a satellite that is usually placed at least 200 km from the earth. Need of HAPS Need for development of high-endurance, high-altitude flying instruments arose from the desire to have continuous surveillance of border areas, particularly in the wake of the Doklam standoff. Satellites placed in low-earth orbits and meant to observe the Earth usually move in their orbits and are not watching constantly. Solar-powered unmanned aircraft is considered a better solution. Current State of Indias HAPS The test flight saw the scaled-down 23-kg prototype with a wing-span of about 12 metres, remain in air for about eight and a half hours, achieving an altitude of about 3 km. The next step is to make this vehicle fly for at least 24 hours. NAL will only develop the technology and a prototype. The manufacturing of the actual thing would happen with industry linkages. Source: Indian Express Inheritance Tax Syllabus Mains-GS 3 Context: Oxfam report says that 70% of countries dont have any form of inheritance tax on wealth. Background: The report comes on the backdrop of increased inequalities in income, wealth and possession of resources. About Inheritance tax: It was a tax that was levied against a particular asset during the time of its inheritance. It comes under direct tax and a person can receive inheritance either under a will or under the personal law of the deceased. Status of inheritance tax in India: The Inheritance or Estate Tax was abolished with effect from 1985. In India, the concept of levying tax on inheritance does not exist now. In the event of the death of an individual, properties belonging to the deceased would pass on to his legal heirs, a transfer without any consideration in return. Hence, it could qualify as a gift for income tax. The Income Tax Act, of 1961, specifically excludes the transfer of assets under will or inheritance from the purview of gift tax. When should the person receiving the inheritance pay tax ? The person receiving the inheritance has to pay tax on the income earned (rent, interest, etc.) in respect of the assets inherited by him once he becomes the owner of the same. The person has to pay capital gains tax when he sells the inherited asset. Need for an inheritance tax in India It will allow for a more efficient dispersion of wealth. It will create a meritocratic society by chipping away the advantages the children of the wealthiest families enjoy by an accident of birth. Most of India’s tax revenues accrue from indirect taxes, intensifying the hardship of economically weaker Inheritance tax can raise a significant quantum of revenue for the exchequer. Countries such as England, France, Germany, the USA, and Greece have been taxing inherited wealth at as high as 40%. Source: The Hindu Decline of America's leadership Syllabus Mains– GS 3 Context: A divided American polity combined with a perception of its declining power is creating ripples among diplomatic circles. Background: Post the collapse of USSR, American hegemony was firmly established. But with recent geopolitical and geoeconomic changes, global order is undergoing major changes shifting power balance from the west. US as a superpower and its decline The traditional strength of US are its values platform, emphasising democracy and human rights, its military power, position in the global financial system and possessing formidable economic resource and technology. After Second World War, US shaped the rule based international system. In reality, it was a power based system, where US considered itself exempt from the common standards of international conduct. America’s refusal to honour its own international obligations has dented its credibility. Domestic polarisation combined with sharp ideological divide has rendered cooperation in its two party system non-existent questioning its democratic soft power. The legitimacy of US dominated institutions has been continuously questioned. Potential negative repercussions for India: India will have to carefully craft its relationship with US and Russia, keeping in mind the declining role of US. A decline in American power might create a power vacuum. Other major powers, such as China or Russia, may seek to fill this vacuum, potentially impacting India’s strategic position. A weakened US presence in Asia could embolden China to assert its dominance more aggressively in the region. This could lead to increased tensions and the possibility of conflict Weekend US economy combined with loss of leadership in technology space could lead to declining trade and technology access for India. India has benefited from its strategic partnership with the US on issues like counter-terrorism and maritime security. A decline in US power could weaken these partnerships, leaving India to face these challenges alone or seek new partners. Potential positive repercussions: Greater strategic autonomy: A less dominant US could provide India with more space to pursue its own interests and forge new partnerships, diversifying its foreign policy. Opportunity for leadership: As the US steps back, India could emerge as a leading power in Asia, playing a more significant role in regional affairs and shaping the global order. Increased self-reliance: A decline in US dependence could motivate India to accelerate its own economic and military development, fostering greater self-reliance. Source:The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements: Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD), is a tick-borne haemorrhagic fever endemic to the southwestern part of Africa. KFD is caused by the Kyasanur Forest disease virus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2) consider the following individuals: K.Advani Sachin Tendulkar N.R.Rao Lata Mangeshkar Amartya Sen Who among the above are recipients of Bharat Ratna? 1 and 2 2,3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 All of the above Q3) consider the following statements about high altitude pseudo satellite vehicles (HAPS) India is the only country to have a full fledged working model of HAPS. HAPS relay on solar energy. The cost of operating HAPS is several times lower than that of a satellite. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 10th February 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 9th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Feb 10, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 10th February 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

Feb 10, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 9th February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) CURATIVE PETITION Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Supreme Court closes curative petition against its 2013 judgement on section 377 Background:- A 5-judge bench of the Supreme Court on Thursday held that the curative petition filed against the 2013 judgment, which upheld Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code (which criminalised homosexuality), has become infructuous in the light of the 2018 judgment which decriminalised homosexuality. About Curative Petition:- The Curative Petition is the last chance available in the court after the review petition is dismissed or has been exhausted. It is a concept evolved by the Supreme Court of India in the matter of Rupa Ashok Hurra vs. Ashok Hurra and Anr. in which the question was whether an aggrieved person is entitled to any relief against the final judgement or order of the Supreme Court after the dismissal of a review petition. It’s objectives are twofolds- avoid miscarriage of justice and to prevent abuse of process. The concept of the curative petition is supported by Article 137 of the Indian Constitution. Conditions laid by SC for curative petition: The petitioner must establish that the principles of natural justice were violated, and he has been adversely affected by the judgment. The petition shall state specifically that the grounds mentioned had been taken in the review petition and that it was dismissed by circulation. A curative petition must be first circulated to a bench of the three senior-most judges of the Supreme Court and the judges who had passed the concerned judgment, if available. If the majority of the judges conclude that the matter needs hearing, then it is listed before the same Bench. The Bench at any stage of the curative petition can ask a senior counsel to assist it as amicus curiae (friend of the court). A curative petition is usually decided by judges in the chamber unless a specific request for an open-court hearing is allowed. MUST READ: https://www.scobserver.in/journal/court-in-review-curative-petitions/ SOURCE: Indian Express FREE MOVEMENT REGIME Syllabus Prelims-Current event of national importance Context: Home Ministry recommends immediate suspension of free movement regime which allows people residing close to India and Myanmar border to venture 16 km into each other’s territory. Background: The main reasons for this decision are to limit the spill-over effects of the conflict in Myanmar since the military coup in February 2021, and to reduce the risk of illegal migration, human and drug trafficking and ensure internal security. About free movement regime: The Free Movement Regime (FMR) is a pact between India and Myanmar that allows tribes living along the border on either side to travel up to 16 km inside the other country without a visa. The FMR was implemented in 2018 as part of the government’s Act East policy at a time when diplomatic relations between India and Myanmar were on the upswing. However, the FMR has been suspended by India since September 2022 due to the conflict in Myanmar following the military coup in February 2021. The India-Myanmar border extends for approximately 1,643 kilometers (1,021 miles), running from the tripoint with China in the north to the tripoint with Bangladesh in the south. The India-Myanmar border passes through the States of Arunachal Pradesh (520 km), Nagaland (215 km), Manipur (398 km), and Mizoram (510 km). UNIFORM CIVIL CODE Syllabus Prelim and Mains-Polity Context: Recently the Uttarakhand Assembly passed the State’s Uniform Civil Code. Background: With the passing of UCC bill Uttarakhand Assembly had become the first legislature in independent India to pass a Bill that imposes common rules for all communities — except Scheduled Tribes — on marriage, divorce, inheritances, and live-in relationships. About UCC: Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is a proposal in India to formulate and implement personal laws of citizens which apply on all citizens equally regardless of their religion, gender and sexual orientation. They cover areas like- Marriage, divorce, maintenance, inheritance, adoption and succession of the property. In India, currently personal laws of various communities are governed by their religious scriptures. UCC is mentioned in Article 44 of the Indian Constitution, which is one of the Directive Principles of State Policy. It says, “The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. Uttarakhand is the first state to implement a law on Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in India. The UCC Bill encompasses various facets of personal law, but it excludes Scheduled Tribes from its purview. This exemption recognizes the unique customary practices and traditions of tribal communities. Goa Uniform Civil Code Goa Uniform Civil Code is the common name for the Goa Civil Code, which is a set of laws that govern personal matters such as marriage, divorce, succession, and property for all residents of Goa, irrespective of their religion. However, Goa UCC does not cover all aspects of personal law, such as adoption and succession, which are still governed by different laws for different communities. Goa UCC also has some special provisions for certain communities, such as allowing bigamy to Hindu men under certain conditions. Therefore, Goa UCC is not truly uniform, as it has some exceptions and variations based on religion and custom. Goa’s civil code was introduced during the Portuguese rule. Monetary Policy Committee Syllabus Prelims-Economy Context: The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Thursday, February 8, 2024 after a detailed assessment decided to keep the policy repo rate under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) unchanged at 6.50 per cent. Background: The repo rate increase cycle was paused in April last year after six consecutive rate hikes aggregating to 250 basis points since May 2022. About MPC: Monetary policy is a set of tools used by a nation’s central bank to control the overall money supply and promote economic growth. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a committee constituted by the Central Government and led by the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was constituted under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, which was amended by the Finance Act, 2016. This amendment provided a statutory and institutionalized framework for the MPC. The MPC is required to meet at least four times a year and it publishes its decisions after each meeting. The factors constituting failure to meet inflation target under the MPC Framework have also been notified in the Gazette. Purpose of MPC: The MPC was formed with the mission of fixing the benchmark policy interest rate (repo rate) to restrain inflation within a specific target level. Repo rate is the rate at which the central bank lends money to commercial banks. The current mandate of the committee is to maintain 4% annual inflation until 31 March 2026 with an upper tolerance of 6% and a lower tolerance of 2%. Composition: The MPC comprises six members – three officials of the RBI and three external members nominated by the Government of India. The members appointed by the Central Government hold office for a period of four years. Decisions are taken by majority with the governor having the casting vote in case of a tie. Previous Year Question Q1.)Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)? It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only Solution (a) KALADAN MULTI-MODAL TRANSIT TRANSPORT PROJECT (KMMTTP) Syllabus Prelims-Current event of national and international importance Context: Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project, one of India’s flagship connectivity projects has faced a setback after an important town in Myanmar was captured recently by a rebel group. Background: The Kaladan project was aimed at addressing the geo-economic and geo-political challenges of northeast India. The $484 million project is being constructed by India, under the Grant in Aid Scheme. About KMMTTP The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project (KMTTP) is a significant initiative jointly identified by India and Myanmar. Its primary aim is to create a multi-modal mode of transport for the shipment of cargo from the eastern ports of India to Myanmar, as well as to the North-Eastern part of India through Myanmar. The Kaladan Project aims to reduce the distance from Kolkata to Sittwe by approximately 1,328 kilometers (825 miles). It provides an alternative route that bypasses the narrow Siliguri corridor, also known as the “Chicken’s Neck.” It strengthens connectivity between India’s northeastern states and the mainland. Route and Components: The project connects the eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with the Sittwe seaport in Rakhine State, Myanmar via sea. In Myanmar, it further links the Sittwe seaport to Paletwa in Chin State through the Kaladan river boat route. From Paletwa, the project extends by road to Mizoram state in Northeast India. All components of the project, including Sittwe port, power, river dredging, and Paletwa jetty, have been completed except for the under-construction Zorinpui-Paletwa road. The project has faced challenges due to conflicts in the region and the construction of hydro-electric projects on the tributaries of the Kaladan River. India Canada relationship Syllabus Mains– GS 3 Significance of India-Canada Relations: Bilateral trade in goods was approximately $ 9.9 billion and in services, it was 6.5 billion in 2022. Canada hosts one of the largest Indian Diasporas in the world, accounting for more than 3% of the total Canadian population. The science and technology collaboration mainly promotes industrial R&D with a focus on creating new IPs, processes, prototypes, and products. Since the 1990s, India and Canada have cooperated in space science. ANTRIX, the Commercial arm of ISRO, has launched several nanosatellites from Canada. The Civil Nuclear Agreement of 2010 facilitated Canada to provide uranium for Indian nuclear reactors as part of the agreement. Canada’s Indo-Pacific Policy acknowledges China as a “disruptive global power” and underscores India as a “critical partner” for collaboration in shared interests. Issues/Challenges in India-Canada Relations: During the Cold War, Canada was a founding member of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO), while India pursued a policy of non-alignment. Canada endorsed a plebiscite in Kashmir, which ran counter to India’s interests. After India’s nuclear tests in 1998, Canada temporarily halted potential nuclear cooperation with India. Canada’s immigration system enables individuals with a contentious past to acquire citizenship and utilize that position to engage in activities against other nations. This presents a substantial obstacle to upholding robust bilateral relations in today’s interconnected global landscape. The current coalition government in Canada is with the alliance of Pro-Khalistan parties enabling the particular stand. A Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) between these countries is pending since 2010. CEPA between them could boost bilateral trade by as much as $6.5 billion, yielding a GDP gain of $3.8 billion to $5.9 billion for Canada by 2035. Canada is meddling in India’s domestic affairs. For example, during the farmers’ protests in India, the Canadian PM expressed his support for the farmers, stating that the situation was a cause for concern. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements about Curative petition: It is explicitly mentioned in the constitution of India. Supreme Court has to mandatorily accept curative petition as it is the right of aggrieved person. It cannot be filed in the case of a death sentence. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 only 2 only 2 and 3 only None of the above Q2) With reference to Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), which of the statements given below is correct? Monetary Policy Committee is a constitutional body. Union Finance Minister is the chairperson of the Monetary Policy Committee. The current mandate of the committee is to maintain 4% annual inflation until 31 March 2026. The MPC is required to meet at least two times a year and it publishes its decisions after each meeting. Q3) With reference to Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in India, consider the following statements: Uttarakhand is the first state to implement a law on Uniform Civil Code in India. All the people in Uttarakhand comes under the scope of Uniform Civil Code. UCC is mentioned in Article 44 of the Indian Constitution. How many statements given above is/are not correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 9th February 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 8th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Feb 9, 2024 UPSC Interview Discussion-TRP

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 21] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 20 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Reflect on a time when doing something good for someone else also resulted in a positive outcome for you. What happened, and how did it make you feel? How do you define “doing good” in your life? Is it through acts of kindness, contributing to society, or something else? Discuss the importance of altruism in today’s world. Can individual acts of goodness collectively lead to significant social change? Share your thoughts. Set 2: Analyse the following issue: The Indian government has launched various beneficiary programs aimed at social welfare, financial inclusion, and healthcare accessibility, among others, to uplift and support different segments of the population. How effective do you think these beneficiary programs are in addressing the needs of the intended populations? What are the key factors that determine their success or failure? We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

Feb 9, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 9th February 2024

Feb 8, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 8th February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) MERA GAON MERI DHAROHAR Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the Government of India decided to map and document all villages under the Mera Gaon, Meri Dharohar (MGMD) Programme. Background:- A web portal on MGMD has also been launched on 27.07.2023. About Mera Gaon, Meri Dharohar (MGMD) Programme:- Launched: 27th July 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Culture. Objective: The main objective of the project is to culturally map India’s 6.5 lakh villages, spanning 29 States and 7 Union Territories, on a comprehensive virtual platform. Salient Features:- It is a pan-India initiative under the National Mission on Cultural Mapping. Under the MGMD, information is collected under seven broad categories as given below- Arts and Crafts Village Ecologically Oriented Village Scholastic Village linked with Textual and Scriptural Traditions of India Epic Village linked with Ramayana, Mahabharata, and/or Puranic legends and oral epics Historical Village linked with Local and National History Architectural Heritage Village Any other characteristic that may need highlighting such as a fishing village, horticulture village, shepherding village, etc. The Ministry of Culture is implementing a Scheme of Financial Assistance for the Promotion of Art and Culture consisting of 08 components through which cultural organizations are given financial assistance for the promotion of art and culture. The MGMD seeks to compile comprehensive information detailing the life, history, and ethos of Indian villages and to make the same available to virtual and real-time visitors. (Vibrant Villages Programme) This comprehensive portal showcases essential information about each village, including its geographical location, demographic aspects, and description of traditional dresses, ornaments, arts and crafts, temples, fairs, festivals, and much more. Benefits:- It serves as a one-stop destination for discovering, exploring, researching, and virtually visiting every village in the country. MUST READ: ‘Mera Gaon Mera Gaurav’ drive SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between (‘ 15 crores and ’25 crore.) All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2020) Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only International Energy Agency (IEA) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The International Energy Agency (IEA)’s Renewables 2023 report was released recently. Background:- It paints a complex picture of the renewable energy sector, highlighting both progress and challenges. About the International Energy Agency (IEA):- It is an intergovernmental organization established in 1974. Headquarters: Paris The IEA is made up of 31 member countries. Objective: to promote reliable, affordable, and clean energy for its member countries and the rest of the world. The Agreement on an International Energy Program (IEP Agreement) established the mandates and structure of the IEA under the umbrella of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). Eligibility Criteria for membership: A candidate country to the IEA must have crude oil and/or product reserves (Strategic Oil Reserves) equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports, to which the government has immediate access (even if it does not own them directly) and could be used to address disruptions to global oil supply. India became an Associate member of IEA in 2017. India inked a Strategic Partnership Agreement with the IEA to strengthen cooperation in global energy security, stability, and sustainability in 2021. India’s current strategic oil reserves equal 9.5 days of its requirement. India is not a member of the OECD but a key economic partner. IEA invited India to deepen its cooperation with IEA by becoming a full Member. Key publications of IEA : World Energy Outlook (WEO) Net Zero by 2050: a roadmap for the global energy sector Energy Technology Perspectives (ETP) Global EV Outlook (GEVO) Oil Market Report World Energy Investment Clean Energy Transitions Programme MUST READ: Methane Global Tracker report SOURCE: IEA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) The term ‘West Taxes Intermediate’, sometimes found in news to a grade of (2020) Crude oil Bullion Rare earth elements Uranium Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR) Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the Odisha Government announced to establishment of a first of its kind in the world melanistic tiger safari near the Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR). Background:- The Similipal Tiger Reserve became the only home for melanistic tigers in the wild in the world, says the State Forest and Environment department. About Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR):- Location: Odisha. Similipal, which derives its name from the ‘Simul’(Silk Cotton) tree, is a national park and a Tiger Reserve situated in the northern part of Orissa’s Mayurbhanj district. Area: 2750 sq km. It has some beautiful waterfalls like Joranda and Barehipani. Prominent tribes: Kolha, Santhala, Bhumija, Bhatudi, Gondas, Khadia, Mankadia and Sahara. It was declared a ‘Tiger Reserve’ in 1956. It has been included in the national conservation programme ‘Project Tiger’ since 1973. The STR, along with a ‘transitional area’ of 2250 sq. km, has been included as a part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves by UNESCO in 2009. Flora: A mix of different forest types and habitats dominate, with Northern tropical moist deciduous dominating some semi-evergreen patches. Sal is the dominant tree species here. Fauna: Royal Bengal Tiger, Leopard, Gaur, Elephant, Langur, Barking and Spotted Deer, Sloth Bear, Mongoose, Flying Squirrel,etc. MUST READ: Tiger Estimation SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1) With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements is correct? (2020) It is spread over two districts. There is no human habitation inside the Park. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The term M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in news in the context of (2017) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna Maintenance of Tiger Reservoirs Indigenous Satellite Navigation System Security of National Highways e-NAM Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, Farm-gate, inter-mandi e-NAM sales show surge in FY2024. Background:- The total traded value of commodities on the digital platform using the farmgate model during April – January, 2023-24 has been Rs 79 crore compared to a very small amount traded last fiscal. About e-NAM:- eNAM platform is an online trading platform for agricultural commodities in India. It was launched in 2016 as a pan-India electronic trade portal linking agricultural produce market committees (APMCs) across all states. It was launched with the objective of integrating the existing Mandis into a “One Nation One Market” for agricultural commodities in India. It facilitates farmers, traders, and buyers with online trading in commodities. It provides for contactless remote bidding and mobile-based anytime payment for which traders do not need to either visit mandis or banks for the same. Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing e-NAM. It functions under the aegis of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare. Benefits:- e-NAM has been able to bring competence in APMC mandi operations via technology interventions like:- accuracy in weighing via digital weighbridge and weighing scale. accuracy in assaying via advanced assaying equipment. real-time online information on commodity prices. access to more buyers/sellers and transparency in trade. transparency in payment via multiple online payment modes. better efficiency in overall mandi operations via digitalization. Challenges:- Lack of internet connectivity. Farmers feel more comfortable with physical trading rather than going online as they face issues with transportation for their produce. A very small percentage of the total mandis are connected through the e-NAM platform. MUST READ: Integration of E-MANDIS into E-NAM Platform SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past? (2020) Minimum Support Price Government’s trading Government’s stockpiling Consumer subsidies Green Propulsion System Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, a Green Propulsion System, developed under the Technology Development Fund (TDF) scheme of DRDO, has successfully demonstrated in-orbit functionality on a payload launched by the PSLV C-58 mission. Background:- ISRO’s PSLV-C58 launched an X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPOSAT) into an Eastward low inclination orbit on 1st January 2024. About Green Propulsion System:- This project – 1N Class Green Monopropellant thruster for altitude control and orbit keeping of microsatellites was sanctioned to a Bengaluru-based start-up Bellatrix Aerospace Pvt Ltd (Development Agency). The complete project has been carried out by the Development Agency under the guidance of Project Monitoring & Mentoring Group of DRDO. A propulsion system is a machine that produces thrust to push an object forward. This project uses a 1N Class Green Monopropellant for altitude control and orbit keeping of microsatellites. The system consists of indigenously developed propellant, fill and drain valves, latch valve, solenoid valve, catalyst bed, drive electronics, etc. It has demonstrated pulsed mode and steady-state firing in a vacuum, passivation of residual propellant in outer space, propellant realization, and establishing of filling procedure under the TDF. The TDF is a flagship programme of Ministry of Defence executed by DRDO under the ‘Make in India’ initiative for funding innovation in defence and aerospace, especially to start-ups and MSMEs MUST READ: PSLV-C52 Mission SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Indian Gray Wolf Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the Indian grey wolf was sighted in the confines of the National Chambal Sanctuary (NCS). Background:- The National Chambal Sanctuary (NCS) is in Uttar Pradesh. About Indian Gray Wolf:- Scientific Name: Canis lupus pallipes It has a wide distribution range that extends from the Indian subcontinent to Israel. There are about 3,000 animals in India, some in captivity. It is a subspecies of grey wolf found from Southwest Asia to the Indian Subcontinent. Its size is in the middle between the Himalayan and Arabian wolves, but because it inhabits warmer climates, it lacks the latter’s plush winter coat. It is intermediate in size between the Tibetan and Arabian wolf. They are nocturnal and hunt from dusk to dawn. The Indian wolf inhabits areas dominated by scrub, grasslands and semi-arid pastoral agro-ecosystems. (Blackbuck) Conservation Status:- IUCN: Least Concern Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972: Schedule I CITES: Appendix 1 MUST READ: Endangered Species in news: Hornbills SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following trees: (2023) Jackfruit (Artoca7pus heterophyllus) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements (2023) Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mekong River Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Dam project across Mekong River in Laos raised fears. Background:- Once completed, the project is expected to displace more than 500 families and impact 20 villages. About Mekong River:- IMAGE SOURCE: Britannica Mekong River is a transboundary river in East Asia and Southeast Asia. It is the world’s twelfth-longest river. It is the third-longest in Asia. From the Tibetan Plateau the river runs through China, Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia, and Vietnam. The extreme seasonal variations in flow and the presence of rapids and waterfalls in the Mekong make navigation difficult. The lower Mekong region holds a rich historical and cultural heritage that has connections with India’s ancient river civilizations. The river is a major trade route between western China and Southeast Asia. The Mekong region offers opportunities for tourism, educational exchanges, and cooperation in sectors like science and technology. MUST READ: Lancang-Mekong Cooperation SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union makes the countries of the European Union share their infrastructure facilities enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/ participants? (2015) Bangladesh Cambodia China Myanmar Thailand Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 3 1, 2 and 5 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: RIVER ORIGIN Yamuna Gangotri Narmada Amarkantak Hills Vaigai Chotanagpur plateau How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : International Energy Agency (IEA) was established in 1974. Statement-II : Its Headquarters are in New York. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Indian Gray Wolf, consider the following statements: It is a subspecies of grey wolf found from Southwest Asia to the Indian Subcontinent. They are nocturnal It is under the Appendix II of CITES. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 5th February 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 3rd February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

Feb 8, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 8th February 2024

Feb 7, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Uniform Civil Code (UCC) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) draft report was approved by the Uttarakhand Cabinet. Background:- It was tabled in the state assembly as a bill for enactment. About Uniform Civil Code (UCC):- UCC is a generic set of governing laws for every citizen without taking into consideration religion. The Constitution in Article 44 requires the State to strive to secure for its citizens a Uniform Civil Code(UCC) throughout India. (Uniform Civil Code) Article 44:According to this article, “The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India”. Historical Background:- The Supreme Court for the first time directed the Parliament to frame a UCC in the case of Mohammad Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum in the year 1985. In this case, Shah Bano claimed maintenance from her husband under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure after she was given triple talaq by him. However, the government overturned the Shah Bano case decision by way of the Muslim Women (Right to Protection on Divorce) Act, 1986 which curtailed the right of a Muslim woman to maintenance under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure. Need of UCC:- Gender Justice:– It is commonly observed that personal laws of almost all religions are discriminatory towards women. Men are usually granted upper preferential status in matters of succession and inheritance. Muslim men are allowed to marry multiple wives, but women are forbidden from having multiple husbands. Even after the 2005 amendment to the Hindu Succession Act, women are still considered part of their husband’s families after marriage. So, in case a Hindu widow dies without any heirs or will, her property will automatically go to her husband’s family. Men (fathers) are also treated as ‘natural guardians’ and are given preference under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act. A uniform civil code will establish gender justice by bringing both men and women to par. Promote national unity: A unified personal law irrespective of gender, caste, creed, etc. will boost national unity and solidarity. Simplification of laws: It will eliminate the overlapping of laws. Different personal laws (Codified and Uncodified) practised in India:- Hindu Personal Law Hindu personal law is codified in four bills: the Hindu Marriage Act, Hindu Succession Act, Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, and Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act. The term ‘Hindu’ also includes Sikhs, Jains and Buddhists for the purpose of these laws. It was codified by the Parliament in 1956. Muslim personal laws A 1939 Act enacted by the British said that their personal Law (ie, the Shariat) would govern Muslims. The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Act, 1937 is a short statute with five provisions. It covers provisions of marriage, divorce, children’s custody or inheritance Intestate succession, dissolution of marriage etc. Secular’ laws:- These laws disregard religion altogether. These include: Special Marriage Act: for Inter-religion marriages and Guardians and Wards Act: establishes the rights and duties of guardians. Other laws:- In the Northeast, there are more than 200 tribes with their own varied customary laws. Apart from it, different personal laws also govern Christians and Jews. Thus, a UCC will simplify these laws into one standard. MUST READ: Debate over Uniform Civil Code SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean? (2023) The principle of natural justice The procedure established by law Fair application of law Equality before law Q.2) In India, which one of the following (2023) Constitutional Amendments were widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights. 1st Amendment 42nd Amendment 44th Amendment 86th Amendment Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage (IEDSS) scheme Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the Karnataka government suspended five officers for dereliction of duty in the implementation of the Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage (IEDSS) scheme. Background:- An FIR has been registered against 56 officials of the department and 22 NGOs. About Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage (IEDSS) scheme:- Launched: Ministry: Ministry of Education. Objective: To enable all students with disabilities, to pursue further four years of secondary schooling after completing eight years of elementary schooling in an inclusive and enabling environment. Historical Background:- The Scheme of Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage (IEDSS) replaces the earlier scheme of Integrated Education for Disabled Children (IEDC) and provides assistance for the inclusive education of disabled children in classes IX-XII. This scheme is now subsumed under Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) from 2013. The States/UTs are also in the process of subsuming under RMSA as RMSA subsumed Scheme. Salient Features:- The scheme covers all children studying at the secondary stage in Government, local body and Government-aided schools, with one or more disabilities as defined under the Persons with Disabilities Act (1995) and the National Trust Act (1999) in class IX to XII, namely blindness, low vision, leprosy cured, hearing impairment, locomotory disabilities, mental retardation, mental illness, autism, and cerebral palsy and may eventually cover speech impairment, learning disabilities, etc. Girls with disabilities receive special focus to help them gain access to secondary schools, as well as to information and guidance for developing their potential. Setting up of Model inclusive schools in every State is envisaged under the scheme. Components:- Student-oriented components, such as medical and educational assessment, books and stationery, uniforms, transport allowance, reader allowance, stipend for girls, support services, assistive devices, boarding the lodging facility, therapeutic services, teaching-learning materials, etc. Other components include the appointment of special education teachers, allowances for general teachers for teaching such children, teacher training, the orientation of school administrators, establishment of resource room, providing barrier-free environment, etc. Implementing Agency:- The School Education Department of the State Governments/Union Territory (UT) Administrations are the implementing agencies. They may involve NGOs having experience in the field of education of the disabled in the implementation of the scheme. Financial Assistance:- Central assistance for all items covered in the scheme is on a 100 per cent basis. The State governments are only required to make provisions for scholarships of Rs. 600/- per disabled child per annum. MUST READ: SVANidhi se Samriddhi program SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four National Terrorism Data Fusion & Analysis Centre (NTDFAC) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, the National Investigation Agency (NIA) developed the National Terrorism Data Fusion & Analysis Centre (NTDFAC). Background:- It made the government collect and compile information on terrorists and their associates from various sources. About National Terrorism Data Fusion & Analysis Centre (NTDFAC):- Inaugurated: January 2024. The National Terrorism Data Fusion & Analysis Centre (NTDFAC) will collect data from a variety of sources, including the NIA’s National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS), and the National Integrated Database on Arrested Narco-Offenders, which compiles narcotics offenders’ source of funding, available pictures and info cribbed from the internet. Combined, the various databases will allow Indian intelligence to access subjects’ histories, fingerprints, videos, pictures, social media profiles and information on affiliated terror groups. NAFIS holds 9.2 million biometric records, and data from more than 22,000 terrorism cases is being added from the Integrated Monitoring of Terrorism system. It also includes a facial recognition system to scan CCTV footage for the faces of suspects. It has been modelled along the lines of the Global Terrorism Database (GTD) of the US. Significance:- It will serve as a centralized database and analysis centre for information related to terrorism and terrorists operating in the country. MUST READ: Terrorism & its financing SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America GHAR - GO Home and Re-Unite Portal Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, GHAR – GO Home and Re-Unite Portal have been launched . Background:- National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR), has developed and launched a portal namely GHAR – GO Home and Re-Unite (Portal for Restoration and Repatriation of Child). About GHAR – GO Home and Re-Unite Portal:- It is a portal to digitally monitorand track the restoration and repatriation of children according to the protocols under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, and Rules thereof.( The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment Bill, 2021) Objective: to digitally monitor and track the restoration and repatriation of children according to the protocol. Ministry: Ministry of Women and Child Development. Important Features:- Digital tracking and monitoring of children who are in the Juvenile Justice system and have to be repatriated to another Country/State/District. Digital transfer of cases of children to the concerned Juvenile Justice Board/Child Welfare Committee of the State. It will help in speedy repatriation of children. Where there is a requirement for a translator/interpreter/expert, a request will be made to the concerned State Government. Child Welfare Committees and District Child Protection Officers can ensure proper restoration and rehabilitation of children by digitally monitoring the progress of the case of the child. A checklist format will be provided in the forms so that the children who are being hard to repatriate or children who are not getting their entitled compensation or other monetary benefits can be identified. A list of government-implemented schemes will be provided so that at the time of restoration the Child Welfare Committees can link the child with the schemes to strengthen the family and ensure that the child remains with his/her family. MUST READ: Changes in Juvenile Justice Act SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of (2020) Digital security infrastructure Food security infrastructure Health care and education infrastructure Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure Q.2) Recognition of the Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to (2017) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. (b)Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes. (c)Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings. (d)Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme. Soda Lake Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Scientists have discovered that a shallow “soda lake” in western Canada. Background:- It could be a good match for Darwin’s “warm little ponds” where life got started on the primordial Earth. About Soda Lake:- It is a lake with a pH value usually between 9 and 11. A soda lake or alkaline lake is a lake on the strongly alkaline side of neutrality, typically with a pH value between 9 and 12. High carbonate concentration, especially sodium carbonate, is responsible for the alkalinity of the water. Geological, climatic, and geographic requirements are required for a lake to become. A topography that limits the outflow of water from the lake is needed. These are the most productive aquatic environments on Earth because of the availability of dissolved carbon dioxide. They occur naturally in both arid and semi-arid areas. These are dominated by prokaryotes like bacteria and archaea, especially in lakes with higher levels of alkalinity. MUST READ: Chilka lake SOURCE: SCIENCE DAILY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Q.2) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea of areas Exercise Vayu Shakti-24 Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, Exercise Vayu Shakti-24 took place. Background:- The Indian Air Force will be conducting it. About Exercise Vayu Shakti-24:- Date: 17 February 2024. Venue: Pokhran Air to Ground Range, near Jaisalmer. The exercise will also showcase joint operations with the Indian Army. This year, the exercise will see participation by 121 aircraft, including the indigenous Tejas, Prachand and Dhruv. Other participating aircrafts: Rafale, Mirage-2000, Sukhoi-30 MKI, Jaguar, Hawk, C-130J, Chinook, Apache and Mi-17. Indigenous Surface to Air Weapon systems Akash and Samar will demonstrate their capability to track and shoot down an intruding aircraft. Exercise Vayu Shakti will be a demonstration of the IAF’s capability to deliver weapons with long range, precision capability as well as conventional weapon accurately, on time and with devastating effect, while operating from multiple air bases. The Indian Air Force is slated to carry out three large-scale war games namely, Vayu Shakti, Gagan Shakti and Tarang Shakti. Special operations by the IAF transport and helicopter fleets, involving the Garuds and Indian Army elements will also be on display. MUST READ: Exercise ‘Varuna’ 2023 SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: EXERCISE COUNTRIES Samudra Shakti India & Indonesia Garuda Exercise India & France Surya Kiran India & Nepal How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : GHAR – GO Home and Re-Unite Portal have been launched by National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR). Statement-II : It will help in speedy repatriation of children. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Soda Lake, consider the following statements: These are the most productive aquatic environments on Earth because of the availability of dissolved carbon dioxide. They occur naturally in both arid and semi-arid areas. These are dominated by prokaryotes like bacteria and archaea, especially in lakes with higher levels of alkalinity. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 7th February 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Feb 7, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th February 2024

Feb 6, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Digi Yatra Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, Digi Yatra Guidelines have been issued by DGCA (Directorate General of Civil Aviation). Background:- These Digi Yatra guidelines provide for a decentralized mobile wallet-based identity management platform. The personal information of the passenger is stored in the mobile wallet of the traveller. About Digi Yatra:- Ministry: Ministry of Civil Aviation. It is a project conceived to achieve contactless, seamless processing of passengers at Airports, based on Facial Recognition Technology (FRT). It will provide a paperless entry at airports using facial recognition software. It provides a decentralized mobile wallet-based identity management platform which is cost-effective and addresses privacy/data protection issues in the implementation of Digi Yatra. The Digi Yatra platform is built on 4 key pillars, like Connected Passengers, Connected Airports, Connected Flying and Connected Systems. Objectives of DIGI YATRA:- Enhance passenger experience and provide a simple and easy experience to all air travellers. Achieve better throughput through existing infrastructure using a “Digital Framework”. Lower-cost operations. Digitize current manual processes and bring better efficiencies Enhance security standards and improve current system performance. Implementation:- The project is being implemented by the DigiYatra Foundation — a joint-venture company whose shareholders are the Airports Authority of India (26% stake) and Bengaluru Airport, Delhi Airport, Hyderabad Airport, Mumbai Airport and Cochin International Airport. These five shareholders equally hold the remaining 74% of the shares. In the first phase, Digi Yatra was rolled out at two Airports namely Varanasi and Bengaluru in August 2022 and at five Airports namely Pune, Vijayawada, Kolkata, Delhi and Hyderabad by March of 2023. Significance:- Facial recognition technology is beneficial as it makes flying more convenient and reduces congestion at airports. MUST READ: Facial Recognition Tech in Indian airports SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following (2022) Aarogya Setu CoWIN Digi Locker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Regarding Digi Locker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under the Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, SC remitted a 20-year sentence of a Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act convict to save marriage with his victim in Tamil Nadu. Background:- A three-judge Bench headed by Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud on Monday remitted the 20-year sentence of a man found guilty of the aggravated sexual assault of a 14-year-old girl whom he later married and had children within Tamil Nadu. About Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act:- Enacted: 2012. (National Commission for Protection of Child Rights) Ministry: Ministry of Women and Child Development. Objectives: to address offences of sexual exploitation and sexual abuse of children, which were either not specifically defined or adequately penalized. Historic Background:- It was enacted as a consequence of India’s ratification of the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child in 1992. The POCSO Act was enacted in 2012 to provide a robust legal framework for the protection of children from offences of sexual assault, sexual harassment, and pornography while safeguarding the interests of children at every stage of the judicial process. In 2019, the Act was amended to strengthen the penalties for specified offences in order to deter abusers and promote a dignified upbringing. Salient Features:- The Act defines a child as “any person” under the age of 18. ( Mandatory Minimum Sentencing) The Act recognizes that both girls and boys can be victims of sexual abuse. Any person in charge of an institution (excluding children) who fails to report the commission of a sexual offense involving a subordinate faces punishment. A victim may report an offense at any time, even years after the abuse has occurred. The Act forbids the disclosure of the victim’s identity in any form of media unless authorized by the special courts established by the Act. The new rules include the provision of mandatory police verification of staff in schools and care homes, procedures to report sexual abuse material (pornography), and imparting age-appropriate child rights education among others. For a crackdown on child pornography, any person who has received any pornographic material involving a child or any information regarding such pornographic material shall report the contents to the Special Juvenile Police Unit (SJPU) or police, or the cybercrime portal. Under the rules, the State Governments have been asked to formulate a child protection policy based on the principle of zero-tolerance to violence against children, which shall be adopted by all institutions, organizations, or any other agency working with or coming in contact with children. The Central Government and every State Government shall provide periodic training. The Centre and State Governments have been asked to prepare age-appropriate educational material and curriculum for children, informing them about various aspects of personal safety. According to rules, orientation programmes and intensive courses may also be organized for police personnel and forensic experts.( Age of consent in India) Any institution housing children or coming in regular contact with children, including schools, crèches, sports academies, or any other facility for children must ensure a police verification and background check on a periodic basis of every staff. Challenges:- Low Representation of Women in the Police Force. Lapses in the Investigation. No Conditions to Prove Recent Intercourse. MUST READ: Sexual intent is key to POCSO Act SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Seaweed Cultivation Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, the first National Conference on the Promotion of Seaweed Cultivation took place at Koteshwar, Kutch in Gujarat. Background:- It was chaired by Union Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying, Shri Parshottam Rupala . Objective: implementing seaweed cultivation on a pan-India basis, emphasizing the promotion of seaweed cultivation to diversify marine production and enhance fish farmer income. Water Hyacinth About of Seaweed Cultivation:- Seaweed is the name given to the many species of marine algae and plants. These species grow in water bodies such as rivers, seas and oceans. They generally grow in the shallow waters in the tidal zone. Some seaweeds are microscopic, such as the phytoplankton that live suspended in the water column. Seaweed is full of vitamins, minerals, & fibre. Many seaweeds contain anti-inflammatory & anti-microbial agents. They are known to process significant medicinal effects. Certain seaweeds possess powerful cancer-fighting agents. They are used in organic cosmetics & skin-care products. Seaweed Farming:- It is the practice of cultivating and harvesting seaweed. Seaweeds are abundant along the Tamil Nadu and Gujarat coasts and around Lakshadweep and Andaman & Nicobar Islands. Government Initiatives:- Seaweed Mission: aims to commercialize seaweed farming and processing for value addition. It also aims to increase cultivation along India’s 7,500-kilometer coastline. The Indian Council of Agricultural Research(ICAR)- Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI) has successfully commercialized two seaweed-based nutraceutical products, CadalminTM Immunalgin extract (CadalminTM IMe) and CadalminTM Antihypercholesterolemic extract (CadalminTM ACe). Multi-Purpose Seaweed Park in Tamil Nadu. MUST READ: Seaweeds Mission launched for commercial farming of seaweeds SOURCE: ICAR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Invasive Species Specialist ·group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations? (2023) The International Union for Conservation of Nature The United Nations Environment Programme The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development The World Wide Fund for Nature Q.2) Consider the following statements (2023) Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Fiscal Consolidation Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, Fiscal Consolidation was emphasized in the budget. Background:- Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced during her Budget speech that the Centre would reduce its fiscal deficit to 5.1% of gross domestic product (GDP) in 2024-25. About Fiscal Consolidation:- Fiscal consolidation is a process where government’s fiscal health is getting improved and is indicated by reduced fiscal deficit. As the fiscal deficit falls below a tolerable level, improved tax revenue realization and better directed expenditure are key components of fiscal consolidation. In India, the fiscal deficit is the most important indicator of the government’s financial health. In India, fiscal consolidation or the fiscal roadmap for the centre is expressed in terms of the budgetary targets (fiscal deficit and revenue deficit) to be realized in successive budgets The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act gives the targets for fiscal consolidation in India. According to FRBM, the government should eliminate the revenue deficit and reduce the fiscal deficit to 3% (medium term) of the GDP. Measures from the expenditure side and revenue side are envisaged by the government to achieve fiscal consolidation:- Improved tax revenue realization: For this, increasing efficiency of tax administration by reducing tax avoidance, eliminating tax evasion, enhancing tax compliance etc. are to be made. Enhancing tax GDP ratio by widening the tax base and minimizing tax concessions and exemptions also improves tax revenues. Better targeting of government subsidies and extending the Direct Benefit Transfer scheme for more subsidies. MUST READ: Growth & fiscal consolidation SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation? (2022) Department of Consumer Affairs Expenditure Management Commission Financial Stability and Development Council Reserve Bank of India Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Grammy Awards Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE/AWARDS Context: Recently, the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi, congratulated musicians Ustad Zakir Hussain, Rakesh Chaurasia, Shankar Mahadevan, Selvaganesh V and Ganesh Rajagopalan for winning the Grammy award. Background:- He said that their exceptional talent and dedication to music have won hearts worldwide, making India proud. About Grammy Awards:- The Grammy Awards are presented by the Recording Academy of the US. The awards are presented to recognize the works of the music industry. The first Grammy Awards ceremony was held on May 4, 1959, to honour the musical accomplishments of performers for the year 1958.( Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar) Categories:- The “General Field” are four awards that are not restricted by genre: Album of the Year Record of the Year Song of the Year Best New Artiste Winners are selected from more than 25 fields, which cover such genres as pop, rock, rap, R&B, country, reggae, classical, gospel, and jazz, as well as production and postproduction work, including packaging and album notes. The honorees receive a golden statuette of a gramophone. MUST READ: Golden Globes Award SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards: Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements are not correct? (2021) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000: American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others. Which of the above statements are correct? (2021) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Sphaerotheca varshaabh Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY/ GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, a new species of burrowing frog, Sphaerotheca varshaabhu, has been discovered in Bengaluru. Background:- Researchers from various national and international organizations have identified and documented a previously unknown species of frog which has been thriving amidst the urban landscape of Bengaluru. About Sphaerotheca varshaabh:- It is a new frog Sphaerotheca Varshaabhu, meaning a genus of frog which welcomes rain. Sphaerotheca varshaabhu exhibits distinctive characteristics that set it apart from known frog species. It is named after its behaviour of coming out of burrows during early showers, indicating its adaptation to urban surroundings. It has adapted to its urban surroundings displaying behaviours and physical attributes that help it navigate challenges posed by urbanization. Amphibians, like frogs, toads and salamanders, are known as indicator species. MUST READ: Invasive Species SOURCE: DECCAN HERALD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Organoid neural network Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, researchers connected a brain organoid to microelectrodes to create an ‘organoid neural network’. Background:- Their invention extends neuromorphic computing – the practice of modelling computers after the human brain to a new level by directly including brain tissue in a computer. About Organoid neural network:- It is an innovative computing system that melds brain-like tissue with electronics. It is also called Brainoware integrates brain organoids with microelectrodes, forming an ‘organoid neural network (ONN)’ that directly incorporates living brain tissue into the computing process. Brain organoids are similar to the brain’s cell composition and structure, and can reflect the brain’s developmental process. Advantages:- It has ability to predict complex mathematical functions like the Henon map. The system could identify Japanese vowels pronounced by individuals with a 78% accuracy rate. It achieved comparable accuracy to artificial neural networks with minimal training requirements. Challenges:- It necessitates technical expertise and infrastructure. The fusion of organoids and AI raises ethical questions about consciousness and dignity. Applications:- To learn faster and be more energy-efficient than traditional silicon-based machines. To address current limitations in Artificial intelligence To enable advances in fields such as medical science and treatment. MUST READ: Deep Brain Stimulation SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) What is the cas9 protein that is often mentioned in the news? (2019) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing. A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients. A gene that makes plants pest-resistant A herbicidal substance synthesized in generally modified crops Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: SPECIES IUCN STATUS Malabar Civet Vulnerable Forest Owlet Extinct Pondicherry Shark Critically Endangered How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The Grammy Awards are presented by the Recording Academy of the US. Statement-II : The first Grammy Awards ceremony was held on May 4, 1959. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Sphaerotheca varshaabh, consider the following statements: It has adapted to its rural surroundings. Sphaerotheca Varshaabhu, meaning a genus of frog which welcomes rain. It is named after its behaviour of coming out of burrows during early showers. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 6th February 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 5th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

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