Verify it's really you

Please re-enter your password to continue with this action.

Posts

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – Essay Questions [14th July, 2023] – Day 33

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 33 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – Essay Questions [15th July, 2023] – Day 34

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 34 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –14th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Directorate General of foreign trade (DGFT) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the directorate general of foreign trade (DGFT) has imposed restrictions on imports of certain gold jewellery and articles. Background:- Restrictions mean that a license will be required from the government to import these goods. Although, no such permission is required for imports under the India-UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) tariff rate quota ((TRQ). CEPA: It is a kind of free trade pact, which covers negotiation on the trade in services and investment, and other areas of economic partnership. TRQ: It allows a lower tariff rate on imports of a given product up to a specified quantity. About Directorate General of foreign trade (DGFT):- Establishment: 1991. HQ: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Headed by: Director General of Foreign Trade. Objective: promoting India’s exports. Functions of DGCI:- Licensing of imports and exports. Regulate, restrict or prohibit exports and imports. (UPSC CSE: Free Trade Agreements regime) Providing a complete database of all exporters and importers in India. It has the authority to prohibit, restrict, and regulate importers and exporters. It plays an advisory role to the Government on Policy measures pertaining to national and international economic scenarios. It is responsible for formulating and implementing the Foreign Trade Policy. (UPSC CSE: New Foreign Trade Policy) It also issues scrips/authorization to exporters and monitors their corresponding obligations. MUST READ: Moratorium on e-commerce trade SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-! : Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second-largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Third G20 Sherpas Meet Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: The third Sherpas meeting under India’s G20 Presidency began in Hampi, Karnataka recently. About G20 Sherpas: A Sherpa is a personal representative of the leader of a member country at an international Summit meeting such as the G20. The Sherpa engages in planning, negotiation and implementation tasks through the Summit. They coordinate the agenda, seek consensus at the highest political levels, and participate in a series of pre-Summit consultations to help negotiate their leaders’ positions. Sherpas are career diplomats or senior government officials appointed by the leaders of their countries. There is only one Sherpa per Summit for each member country; he/she is assisted by several sous Sherpas. G20 Sherpa Meeting under India’s G20 Presidency: The former CEO of NITI Aayog, Amitabh Kant is the G20 Sherpa from India. The 1st Sherpa Meeting of India’s G20 Presidency was held on 04 December 2022, in Udaipur Rajasthan. The Second G20 Sherpas meeting under India’s G20 Presidency, chaired by India’s G20 Sherpa Shri Amitabh Kant took place in the picturesque village of Kumarakom, Kerala, from March 30 to April 2, 2023. G20:- Establishment: 1999. (UPSC CSE: G20) Members: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the U.K., the U.S. and the European Union. Presidency of the G20: it rotates every year among members. The country holding the presidency, together with the previous and next presidency-holder, forms the ‘Troika’. India assumed the presidency of the G20 grouping from Indonesia, in 2022 and will hold the post for a year. During India’s presidency, India, Indonesia and Brazil will form the troika. The G20 does not have a permanent secretariat or Headquarters. About Hampi:- IMAGE SOURCE: Condé Nast Traveller India Hampi comprises mainly the remnants of the capital city of the Vijayanagara Empire. Vijayanagara Empire: the last great Hindu Kingdom dating 14th-16th century CE. Hampi was the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire in the 14th century. Discovery: The ruins at Hampi were brought to light in 1800 by an engineer and antiquarian named Colonel Colin Mackenzie. (UPSC CSE: Hampi Stone Chariot) Hampi was the capital city during the four different dynasties:- Sangama (1336 to 1485 CE): Founded by Harihara I. Saluva (1485 to 1503 CE): Founded by Saluva Narasimha. Tuluva (1491 to 1570 CE): Founded by Tuluva Narasa Nayaka and the most famous king was Krishnadeva Raya. Aravidu (1542 to 1646 CE): Founded by It is located in the Tungabhadra basin in Bellary District, Central Karnataka. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is called the “World’s Largest Open-air Museum”. (UPSC CSE: Hampi World Heritage site) It is also known as Pampa Kshetra, Kishkindha Kshetra and even Bhaskara Kshetra. Characteristic features of temples at Hampi: wide chariot streets flanked by a row of pillared mandapas. Famous places: Krishna temple complex, Narasimha, Ganesa, Hemakuta group of temples, Achyutaraya temple complex, Vitthala temple complex, Pattabhirama temple complex, Lotus Mahal complex, etc. MUST READ: Kingdom of Vijayanagara SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well-known (2023) capital cities ports centres of iron-and-steel making shrines of Jain Tirthankaras SAGAR SAMPARK Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology/Governance Context: Recently, the indigenous Differential Global Navigation Satellite System (DGNSS) ‘SAGAR SAMPARK’ was inaugurated. About SAGAR SAMPARK:- IMAGE SOURCE: chantiernavalborg.com Ministry: Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. SAGAR SAMPARK is India’s indigenous Differential Global Navigation Satellite System (DGNSS). (UPSC CSE: NavIC) DGNSS: is a terrestrial-based enhancement system which corrects the errors and inaccuracies in the Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) allowing for more accurate positioning information. Sagar Sampark is able to transmit corrections for both GPS and Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS). GPS: satellite-based radio navigation system owned by the United States government and operated by the United States Space Force. GLONASS: a Russian satellite navigation system operating as part of a radio navigation-satellite service. It improves the accuracy of GPS positioning by reducing errors caused by atmospheric inferences, satellite clock drift and other factors. The error correction accuracy has been improved from 5 to 10 meters to less than 5 meters. Significance of Sagar Sampark:- It will help mariners in safe navigation. (UPSC CSE: GAGAN (GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation)) It will reduce the risk of collisions, groundings, and accidents in the port and harbour areas. It will lead to the safe & efficient movement of vessels. Sagar Sampark at six locations will assist the Director General of Lighthouses and Lightships (DGLL) to provide radio aids to ships for marine navigation. MUST READ: Geotagging of payment system touchpoints SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements : (2018) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. IRNSS covers the entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2018) 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only None Sariska Tiger Reserve (STR) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a Tigress was spotted with her two cubs, in Sariska Tiger Reserve (STR). Background:- Now, the number of tigers in Sariska Tiger Reserve has increased to 30. The government is committed to the conservation of tigers which are important for the environment About Sariska Tiger Reserve (STR):- IMAGE SOURCE: researchgate.net Location: Alwar, Rajasthan. (UPSC CSE: Sariska Tiger Reserve) Sariska Tiger Reserve is nestled in the Aravali hills. It has mountains, grasslands, dry deciduous forests and cliffs. 1955: It was declared a wildlife sanctuary. 1978: It was declared the tiger reserve, making it a part of India’s Project Tiger. (UPSC CSE: Saving the Tiger) Vegetation: – the Reserve has a beautiful blending of tropical dry deciduous and tropical thorn forests. Fauna: The Reserve is famous for Royal Bengal Tiger. Other Animals: jungle cats, rhesus macaque, sambhar, chital, wild boar, etc., are found here. Bird species: sand grouse, harbour quails, crested serpent eagles, etc. Important sites:– Kankarwadi Fort: located in the center of the Reserve. It is said that Mughal emperor Aurangzeb had imprisoned his brother Dara Shikoh at this fort in the struggle for succession to the throne. The Reserve also houses a famous temple of lord Hanuman at Pandupole related to Pandavas. It houses the Neelkanth temple built in the 6th century. MUST READ: Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS) SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? (2020) Corbett Ranthambore Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Sunderbans Perseverance rover Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s (NASA) Perseverance rover has found organic matter on Mars recently. Background:- NASA’s Perseverance rover has discovered evidence of organic compounds in a Martian crater, offering clues on the potential habitability of the planet. Organic compounds: carbon-based molecules. The results reveal that Mars has a more complex organic geochemical cycle than previously thought, implying the existence of multiple reservoirs of potential organic molecules on the About Perseverance rover:- IMAGE SOURCE: readsector.com Mission Name: Mars 2020 (UPSC CSE: NASA’s Perseverance and China’s Tianwen-1 set to land on Mars) Rover Name: Perseverance Launch: July 30, 2020. Landing: Feb. 18, 2021 . Landing site: Jezero Crater, Mars. (UPSC CSE: NASA’s InSight Mars Mission) Power Source: A Multi-Mission Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generator (MMRTG). MMRTG: it converts heat from the natural radioactive decay of plutonium (Plutonium Dioxide) into electricity. Objectives:- Perseverance’s primary objective is looking for signs of ancient microbial life. The rover is studying and analyzing the Red Planet’s regolith, rock and dust, and is the first rover to collect and cache samples. Regolith: broken rock and soil. Perseverance is the most advanced, most expensive and most sophisticated mobile laboratory sent to Mars. It is capable of drilling and collecting core samples of the most promising rocks and soils and setting them aside in a “cache” on the surface of Mars. It carries a unique instrument, MOXIE or Mars Oxygen ISRU Experiment. MOXIE: it will manufacture molecular oxygen on Mars using carbon dioxide from the carbon-dioxide-rich atmosphere. It carries Ingenuity, the first-ever helicopter to fly on Mars. This is the first time NASA will fly a helicopter on another planet or satellite. MUST READ: 7th Anniversary of India’s Mars Mission SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct? (2023) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about ·10 times of that received at the poles. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. Q.2) Consider the following pairs : (2023) Objects in space                                        Description Cepheids: Giant clouds of dust and gas in space Nebulae:                                            Stars which brighten and dim periodically Pulsars:                                              Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None International Biology Olympiad Syllabus Prelims – Important Awards Context: Recently, a boy from Bengaluru won gold at International Biology Olympiad (IBO). Background:- Dhruv Advani, won the gold at the 34th International Biology Olympiad, held at Al Ain, UAE, from July 3 to 11,2023. India topped the medals tally at the event by virtue of all four of its students winning the gold medal. The event saw the participation of 293 students from 76 countries in this year’s IBO. This is the first time that India has turned in an all-gold performance and topped the medals tally in IBO. About International Biology Olympiad:- The International Biology Olympiad (IBO) is the association that organizes the world’s premier biology competition for secondary school students. (UPSC CSE: Chess Olympiad) Mission: to identify, inspire, empower and support the next generation of leaders in the life sciences and to develop their international network. The International Biology Olympiad competition is organized for pre-university students under the age of 20. First IBO: Czechoslovakia in 1990. It has since been held annually. Every year it is organized by different countries. 34th IBO: Al Ain, United Arab Emirates in 2023. India organized this Olympiad in  MUST READ: Target Olympic Podium Scheme SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Mains: Section 144 of Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Delhi Police imposed prohibitory measures under CrPC section 144 in flood-prone areas of the city. About Section 144: Section 144 CrPC is a law retained from the colonial era. It empowers a district magistrate, a sub-divisional magistrate or any other executive magistrate specially empowered by the state government in this behalf to issue orders to prevent and address urgent cases of apprehended danger or nuisance. The magistrate has to pass a written order which may be directed against: a particular individual, or to persons residing in a particular place or area, or to the public generally when frequenting or visiting a particular place or area. In emergency cases, the magistrate can pass these orders without prior notice to the individual against whom the order is directed. Features of Section 144: It places restrictions on handling or transporting any kind of weapon in the given jurisdiction. The maximum punishment for such an act is three years. According to the order under this section, there shall be no movement of public and all educational institutions shall remain closed. Further, there will be a complete bar on holding any kind of public meeting or rallies during the period of operation of this order. It is deemed a punishable offence to obstruct law enforcement agencies from disbanding an unlawful assembly. It also empowers the authorities to block internet access in the region. The ultimate purpose of section 144 is to maintain peace and order in the areas where trouble could erupt to disrupt the regular life. Duration of Section 144 Order: No order under this section can remain in force for a period of more than 2 months. Under the state government’s discretion, it can choose to extend the validity for two more months with the maximum validity extendable to six months. Once the situation becomes normal, section 144 levied can be withdrawn. Criticism of Section 144: Too much power given to magistrate: The section is sweeping, and allows the magistrate to exercise absolute power unjustifiably. Rare remedies in case of violation of rights: Under the law, the first remedy against the order is a revision application that must be filed to the same officer who issued the order in the first place. An aggrieved individual can file a writ petition in the High Court if their fundamental rights are affected by the order. However, in many cases those rights would have already been violated by the state even before the High Court has intervened. Unjustifiable imposition: It has also been argued that imposing prohibitory orders over a very large area is not justified because the security situation differs from place to place and cannot be dealt with in the same manner. It was done in all of Uttar Pradesh during the protests against the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill. Rulings of Courts in this regard: In Dr.Ram Manohar Lohiya case 1967, the Supreme Court held that “no democracy can exist if ‘public order’ is freely allowed to be disturbed by a section of the citizens”. ‘Madhu Limaye vs Sub-Divisional Magistrate’: SC said the power of a magistrate under Section 144 “is not an ordinary power flowing from administration but a power used in a judicial manner and which can stand further judicial scrutiny”. In 2012, the Supreme Court criticised the government for using Section 144 against a sleeping crowd in Ramlila Maidan. Such a provision can be used only in grave circumstances for maintenance of public peace. The efficacy of the provision is to prevent some harmful occurrence immediately. Way Forward: Section 144 is a useful tool to help deal with emergencies. However, absence of any narrow tailoring of wide executive powers with specific objectives, coupled with very limited judicial oversight over the executive branch, makes it ripe for abuse and misuse. In order to deal with urgent crises, the legislature must strike a balance between the necessity to protect individuals’ personal freedoms and other liberties under the constitution’s fundamental rights. Source:  Indian Express Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2023 has been released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI). About the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI): Source:               The Hindu It has been jointly published by the Human Development Report Office (HDRO) of the United Nations Development Programme and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) at the University of Oxford since 2010. It tells about how prevalent poverty is in the world and provides insights into the lives of poor people, their deprivations and how intense their poverty is—to inform and accelerate efforts to end poverty in all its forms. It compiles data from 110 developing countries covering 6.1 billion people, accounting for 92 percent of the population in developing countries. It offers a key perspective on SDG 1 i.e. to overcome the greatest global challenge: ending poverty in all its forms. Key highlights of the Index: Global Outlook: Globally, 1.1 billion people (18% of the total population) out of 6.1 billion people are acutely multidimensionally poor and live in acute multidimensional poverty across 110 countries. Sub-Saharan Africa has 534 million poor and South Asia has 389 million. These two regions are home to approximately five out of every six poor people. Children under 18 year’s old account for half of MPI-poor people (566 million). The poverty rate among children is 27.7%, while among adults it is 13.4 %. Outlook for India: Poverty in India: India still has more than 230 million people who are poor. The UNDP defines, “Vulnerability — the share of people who are not poor but have deprivations in 20 – 33.3% of all weighted indicators — can be much higher. India has some 18.7% population under this category. India’s Progress in Poverty Reduction: India is among 25 countries, including Cambodia, China, Congo, Honduras, Indonesia, Morocco, Serbia, and Vietnam, that successfully halved their global MPI values within 15 years. Some 415 million Indians escaped poverty between 2005-06 and 2019-21. The incidence of poverty in India declined significantly, from 55.1% in 2005/2006 to 16.4% in 2019/2021. In 2005/2006, approximately 645 million people in India experienced multidimensional poverty, a number that decreased to about 370 million in 2015/2016 and further to 230 million in 2019/2021. Improvement in Deprivation Indicators: India progressed significantly in all the three deprivation indicators: Health, Education, Standard of living. Decline in poverty has been equal as well, cutting across regions and socio-economic groups. The poorest states and groups, including children and people in disadvantaged caste groups, had the fastest absolute progress. The percentage of people who were multidimensionally poor and deprived of nutrition decreased from 44.3% in 2005/2006 to 11.8% in 2019/2021, and child mortality fell from 4.5% to 1.5%. Significance: Contribution to establishing public policy instrument: The creation of the Index is a crucial step in the establishment of a public policy instrument that tracks multidimensional poverty and directs evidence-based and focused initiatives, ensuring that no one is left behind. Provides an Overview of Poverty: This provides a broad picture of poverty in the nation while also allowing for more in-depth assessments of areas of interest such regions, states, or districts, and particular sectors, and it enhances current data on monetary poverty. Help measure progress towards Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) target 1.2, which aims to “at least halve the proportion of men, women, and children of all ages living in poverty in all its dimensions,” which contributes to the achievement of the SDGs. Initiatives by Government of India for Poverty Alleviation: NITI Aayog is in the last stage for preparation of Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) parameter dashboard and a State Reform Action Plan (SRAP). In this regard, the Niti Aayog will leverage the monitoring mechanism of the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index. NITI Aayog is the nodal agency for the MPI. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS), Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM), Deen Dayal Upadhyay – Gramin Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY), Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana – Gramin (PMAY-G), Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), Shyama Prasad Mukherjee National RuRBAN Mission (SPMRM) and National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP), and programmes of Department of Land Resources, viz., Watershed Development Component of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana (WDC-PMKSY). To support recovery from COVID induced poverty, Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package was introduced in 2020 and extended in 2021. Way Forward: This year’s Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) reminds us of the need for a complete picture of how people are being affected by poverty, who they are and where they live. There is a need to design effective responses that leave no one behind. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: NASA’s Perseverance Rover was launched in 2002. Statement-II: Its landing site was Jezero Crater, Mars. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The first International Biology Olympiad (IBO) was held in Czechoslovakia. Statement-II: India organized this Olympiad in 2008. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following pairs: Navigation systems                                                                        Countries GLONASS (Global Orbiting Navigation Satellite System)             Russia Galileo                                                                                                         Italy NAVIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation)                                India Bei-Dou                                                                                                     Japan How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Mains Practice Questions Q.) Despite Consistent experience of high growth, India still has low indicators of human development. Examine the issues that make balanced and inclusive development elusive. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 14th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 13th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) -b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –13th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2023 Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: As per recent announcements, India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2023 will be held from the 27th of October this year in New Delhi. About India Mobile Congress (IMC) 2023:- India Mobile Congress (IMC) is the largest telecom, media, and technology forum in Asia. Organized by: It is jointly organized by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) and the Cellular Operators Association of India (COAI). Mission: to catapult India into the limelight, becoming a beacon of the all-encompassing digital transformation shaping the future. Significance: It is a leading forum for bringing together industry, government, academia, and other ecosystem players. Venue: Pragati Maidan, New Delhi. (UPSC CSE: IMC 2021) Ministry: Minister of Information Technology. This is the seventh edition of Asia’s premier digital technology exhibition. (UPSC CSE: IMC 2021) Aim of IMC 2023: The event will harness India’s potent expertise in cutting-edge technologies such as 5G, 6G, broadcasting, satellite, and semiconductors and sculpt an electric atmosphere where ideas ignite, alliances shape, and digital boundaries are incessantly expanded. Theme of the India Mobile Congress-2023: Global Digital Innovation. Sub Themes of the India Mobile Congress-2023: Engage, Learn, Innovate. The event plays a pivotal role in driving meaningful conversations, facilitating enriching connections, and sparking ingenuity across industries. This year IMC is introducing Aspire, the grand Start-Up event. It will lay emphasis on igniting the future of entrepreneurship growth among young innovators and industry delegates in the telecom and other digital domains. MUST READ: Telecom industry in India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: (2022) Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. In the Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain-based social networks. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than by a corporation Which of the following given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, Union Cooperation Minister Amit Shah addressed the 42nd Foundation Day of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) in New Delhi. Background:- Union Cooperation Minister Amit Shah has said that NABARD is ensuring development and prosperity in rural areas by making rural banking accessible. For the last four decades, NABARD has proved to be the backbone of this country’s rural economy, infrastructure, agriculture, and cooperative institutions. NABARD has a huge role in making every person in the village self-reliant especially the women, through self-help groups and establishing them in society with self-respect. About National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD):- Established: 1982. It is a statutory body under the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act, of 1981. NABARD came into existence in 1982 by transferring the agricultural credit functions of RBI and refinance functions of the then Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC). NABARD today is fully owned by the Government of India. HQ: Mumbai Role of NABARD:- It is an apex institution, which has the power to deal with all matters concerning policy, planning. It deals with the operations in giving credit for agriculture and other economic activities in rural areas. (UPSC CSE: Revised Rural Area Development Plan) It is a refinancing agency for those institutions that provide investment and production credit for promoting several developmental programs for rural development. It is improving the credit delivery system in India. It coordinates the rural credit financing activities while maintaining liaison with the Government of India, State Governments, and also RBI. Functions of NABARD:- It provides refinance for IRDP accounts in order to give the highest share for the support for poverty allevia­tion programs run by IRDP. It also makes the service area plan, to provide backward and for­ward linkages and infrastructural support. NABARD also prepares guidelines for the promotion of group activities under its programs and provides 100% refinance support for them. It is making efforts to establish linkages between the Self-help Group(SHG). It refinances projects that are taken under the ‘National Watershed Development Programme ‘ and the ‘National Mission of Wasteland Development. It also has a system of District Oriented Monitor­ing Studies. (UPSC CSE: Start-Up Village Entrepreneurship Programme) It also supports Vikas volunteer Vahini programs which offer credit and development activities to poor farmers. It also inspects and supervises the cooperative banks and RRBs to periodically ensure the development of rural financing and farmers’ welfare. It recommends licensing for RRBs and Cooperative banks to RBI. It provides assistance and support for the training and development of the staff of various other credit insti­tutions, that are engaged in credit distributions. It also runs programs for agriculture and rural development. MUST READ: Cooperative Sector Reforms SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Muslim World League Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently, President Droupadi Murmu had a meeting with the Secretary General of the Muslim World League, at Rashtrapati Bhavan in New Delhi. Background:- President Droupadi Murmu today said that India appreciates the role and objectives of the Muslim World League in promoting tolerant values, moderation of consciousness and inter-faith dialogue. India is the country with the second-largest population of Muslims in the world. About Muslim World League:- Muslim World League (MWL) is an international Non-governmental organization (NGO). Established: 1962. Historical Background: It was founded in accordance with a resolution adopted during the meeting of the General Islamic Conference, which was held in Holy Makkah on the 14th to the 18th May 1962. HQ: Makkah, Saudi Arabia. (UPSC CSE: Arab Spring) Objectives of the MWL:- Introduce Islam and its tolerant values as presented in the Holy Quran and the Sunnah. Consolidate the concepts of centrism and moderation in the consciousness of the Muslim Ummah. Ummah: a community of believers bound together with a common purpose, to worship God and with a common goal to advance the cause of Islam. Strive to tackle and resolve issues facing the Muslim Ummah, and ward off factors causing conflict and discord. Give emphasis to civilizational rapprochement and spread the culture of dialogue. Give importance to Muslim minorities and their issues and solve them within the constitutions and regulations of the countries in which they are based. Benefit from the Hajj season by facilitating meetings among scholars, intellectuals and heads of organizations to provide scientific solutions to raise the standards of Muslims around the world. (UPSC CSE: GCC Trade pact) Hajj: an annual Islamic pilgrimage to Mecca, Saudi Arabia, the holiest city for Muslims Preserve the Islamic identity of the Ummah, strengthen its status in the world and make it more united. Status of the MWL in international organizations:- The United Nations Organization: Observer in consultative status with the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). Organization of the Islamic Cooperation: Observe the status of attendance at all meetings and conferences. UNESCO: Member UNICEF: Member MUST READ: Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements 🙁 2023) Statement-I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States. Statement-II: The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2023) Regions often mentioned in news            Reason for being in the news North Kivu and Ituri: War between Armenia and Azerbaijan Nagorno-Karabakh: Insurgency in Mozambique Kherson and Zaporizhzhia: Dispute between Israel and Lebanon How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Scheme for Capacity Building in Textiles Sector (SAMARTH) scheme Syllabus Prelims –Government Schemes Context: Recently, 43 new implementing partners were empanelled under the Scheme for Capacity Building in Textiles Sector (SAMARTH) scheme. Background:- The panel of implementing partners has been broadened with the empanelment of 43 new implementing partners and an additional target of training around 75,000 beneficiaries has been allocated to the training partners to enable imparting of skills to the workforce. The Funding pattern has also been revised with an increment of 5% in cost norms, which will give much-needed additional financial support to industries imparting skills under this Scheme. About Scheme for Capacity Building in Textiles Sector (SAMARTH) scheme:- It is a demand-driven and placement-oriented umbrella skilling programme. (UPSC CSE: Samarth Scheme) Launched: 2017. Implementation period: up to March 2024. Ministry: Ministry of Textiles. The Scheme aims to incentivize and supplement the efforts of the industry in creating jobs in the organized textile and related sectors. In addition to the entry-level skilling, a special provision for upskilling/ re-skilling programme has also been operationalized under the scheme towards improving the productivity of the existing workers in the Apparel & Garmenting segments. It also caters to the upskilling/ re-skilling requirement of traditional textile sectors such as handloom, handicraft, silk and jute. (UPSC CSE: PLI plan for India’s textile sector) It seeks to provide demand-driven, placement-oriented National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF) compliant skilling programmes. The scheme has penetrated 28 States and 6 Union territories of the country. It caters to all sections of society including SC, ST, and other marginalized categories. Out of the skilling target of 4.72 lakh beneficiaries allocated so far, 1.88 lakh beneficiaries have been provided training. More than 85% of the beneficiaries trained so far under the scheme are women. More than 70% of the beneficiaries trained in organized sector courses have been provided placement. Objectives:- To ensure a steady supply of skilled manpower in the labour-intensive textile sector. Provide demand-driven, placement-oriented skills which shall be compliant with National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF). To cover the entire value chain of textiles, excluding Spinning and Weaving. Promote skilling and skill upgradation in the traditional sectors of handlooms, handicrafts, sericulture and jute. Enable provision of sustainable livelihood either by wage or self-employment. Key features of the SAMARTH Scheme:- Training of Trainers (ToT). Aadhar Enabled Biometric Attendance System (AEBAS). CCTV recording of the training programme. Dedicated call centre with helpline number. Implementing Agencies:- Textile Industry. Institutions/Organizations of the Ministry of Textiles/State Governments having training infrastructure and placement tie-ups with the textile industry. Reputed training institutions/ NGOs/ Societies/ Trusts/ Organizations/ Companies /Start-Ups / Entrepreneurs active in the textile sector having placement tie-ups with the textile industry. MUST READ: Textile Industry in India SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Solomon Islands Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, the Prime Minister of the Solomon Islands met Chinese leader Xi Jinping in Beijing. Background:- Prime Minister Manasseh Sogavare met Chinese leader Xi Jinping and Premier Li Qiang. Sogavare and Mr Li presided over the signing of agreements on police, economic and technical cooperation. About Solomon Islands:- IMAGE SOURCE: macbio-pacific.info Solomon Islands is a sovereign country consisting of six major islands and over 900 smaller islands in Oceania. (UPSC CSE: Solomon Islands) Location: southwestern Pacific Ocean. The Solomon Islands is part of the ethnically Melanesian group of islands in the Pacific. It lies between Papua New Guinea and Vanuatu. Historical Background: The islands, which were initially controlled by the British Empire during the colonial era, went through the hands of Germany and Japan and then back to the U.K. after the Americans took over the islands from the Japanese during World War II. The islands became independent in 1978 to become a constitutional monarchy under the British Crown, with a parliamentary system of government. Capital: Honiara, located on the largest island, Population: less than 700,000. U.S.-China Rivalry in South Pacific:- Recently, China and the Solomon Islands have signed an inter-governmental framework agreement on security cooperation. (UPSC CSE: Solomon Islands and China Security Pact) The text of the pact has not been released publicly. However, the leaked document enables China to send its “police, armed police, military personnel and other law enforcement and armed forces” to the islands at the Solomon Island government’s request, or if China sees that the safety of its projects and personnel in the islands are at risk. It also provides for China’s naval vessels to utilize the islands for logistics support. There have been speculations that China might be building its next overseas naval base in the Solomon Islands after Djibouti. Australia, which has had a security agreement with Solomon since 2017, has been the most vocal critic of the agreement. It claimed it was concerned about the lack of transparency with which this agreement has been developed, noting its potential to undermine stability in our region. Other countries including the US and New Zealand, have also voiced concern. The US has already announced its plans to reopen its embassy in Honiara (Solomon Capital), which has been closed since 1993. The US State Department pointed out that the agreement could stir up instability in the Solomon Islands. US President Joe Biden convened a summit of Pacific Island leaders in September 2022 to unveil a strategy that included cooperation in climate change, maritime security and preventing overfishing. Biden also promised $810 million in new aid for Pacific Island nations over the next decade, including $130 million to address the effects of climate change. The Agreements signed by Solomon Islands and Chinese officials recently during the visit of Solomon Prime Minister Manasseh Sogavare include an implementation plan for police cooperation through 2025. MUST READ: China’s Security Pact with Solomon Islands SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries : (2023) Bulgaria Czech Republic Hungary Latvia Lithuania Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q.2) Which one of the following countries have been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in the news in the recent past for its very severe famine? (2023) Angola Costa Rica Ecuador Somalia Senior Citizen Savings Scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: As per recent reports, the Senior Citizen Savings Scheme has seen a big rise in popularity in 2023. Background:- More than six and a half-lakh accounts being added in the last three months. About Senior Citizen Savings Scheme:- Launched: 2004. Objective: Provide senior citizens in India a regular income after they attain the age of 60 years old. Eligibility:- Indian citizens above the age of 60 years. Retirees in the age bracket of 55-60 years who have opted for a Voluntary Retirement Scheme (VRS) or Superannuation. Retired defence personnel above 50 years and below 60 years of age. Exclusions:- Hindu Undivided Family (HUFs) and Non-resident Indians (NRIs) are not eligible to invest in Senior Citizen Savings Scheme. Maturity:- It has a maturity period of five years. But, a depositor can extend one’s maturity period for another three years. (UPSC CSE: Small savings schemes) Number of accounts:- Individuals are allowed to operate more than one account by themselves or open a joint account with their spouse. Deposit Limits: Eligible investors can make a lump sum deposit of:- Minimum Deposit: Rs. 1,000 (and in multiples thereof) Maximum Deposit: 30 Lakh. Interest Payment: the interest amount is paid to the account holders Premature withdrawal: After one year of opening the account, premature withdrawal is Deposits in the scheme qualify for deduction under section 80-C of the Income Tax Act. Section 80C of the Income Tax Act: allows them to reduce taxable income by making tax-saving investments or incurring eligible expenses. MUST READ: Senior Care Ageing Growth Engine (SAGE) SOURCE: BUSINESS TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following are the objectives of the ‘National Nutrition Mission’? (2017) To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only Q.2) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2017) Resident Indian citizens only Persons of age from 21 to 55 only All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004 Mains: Does India really need state Governors? Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The recent action taken by Tamil Nadu Governor R N Ravi to terminate the appointment of state minister, who was arrested recently, has once again brought attention to the tussle between state governments and the Governor’s office. About Governor: Constitutional provisions related to Governor Article 153 says that there shall be a Governor for each State. One person can be appointed as Governor for two or more States. A Governor is appointed by the President and is a nominee of the Central Government. It is stated that the Governor has a dual role. He is the constitutional head of the state, bound by the advice of his council of ministers (CoM). Articles 157 and 158 specify eligibility requirements for the post of governor. Governor has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, etc. (Article 161). There is a CoM with the CM at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except some conditions for discretion. (Article 163) Governor appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers (Article 164). Governor assents, withholds assent, or reserves the bill for the consideration of the President passed by the Legislative Assembly (Article 200). Governor may promulgate the Ordinances under certain circumstances (Article 213). Powers of Governor Executive Powers: These powers are exercised by the council of ministers in the name of Governor. Governor is only nominal head and council of ministers is the real executive. He is the constitutional head of the state who appoints the leader of majority party as chief minister. He can seek any information from the chief minister. He appoints the advocate general, chairman and members of the respective state public commission. He can recommend the imposition of constitutional emergency in a state to the President. During the period of President’s rule in a state, the governor enjoys extensive executive powers as an agent of the President. Legislative Powers: He is part of state legislative assembly. No bill can become a law until the governor signs it. He can withhold a bill and send it to the President for consideration. He can dissolve the State Assembly before the expiry of its term on the advice of the Chief Minister or as directed by the President. Judicial Powers: The governor appoints the district judges. He is consulted in the appointment of the judges of the High Court by the President He can, pardon, remit and commute the sentence of a person convicted by a state court. Financial Powers: He causes the annual budget to be laid before the Vidhan Sabha; No money bill can be introduced without his prior approval. Discretionary Powers: If no party gets an absolute majority, the Governor can use his discretion in the selection of the Chief Minister; During an emergency he can override the advice of the council of ministers. At such times, he acts as an agent of the President and becomes the real ruler of the state; He uses his discretion in submitting a report to the President regarding the affairs of the state; and He can withhold his assent to a bill and send it to the President for his approval. Controversies Related to Governor’s post: Central Interference: There have been numerous instances of the Governor’s position being abused, usually at the request of the Centre’s ruling party. The procedure of appointment has been the root of the problem. Acting as Puppet Rulers: The Governor of Rajasthan has recently been charged for breaking the model code of conduct. His support for the ruling party goes against the ethos of non-partisanship. Favouring a Particular Political Party: The governor’s discretionary powers to ask the leader of the largest party/alliance to form the government after an election have frequently been abused to favour one political party over another. Misuse of Power: A Governor’s request for President’s Rule in a state has not always been based on ‘objective material,’ but rather on political whim or fancy. Controversies Related to Governor’s Role: Abuse of Power by the Centre: There are numerous examples of the Governor’s position being abused, usually at the behest of the ruling party at the Centre. The process of appointment has generally been the cause behind it. Biased Ideology: In several cases, politicians and former bureaucrats identifying with a particular political ideology have been appointed as the Governors by the central government. This goes against the constitutionally mandated neutral seat and has resulted in bias, as appears to have happened in Karnataka and Goa. Puppet Rulers: Recently, the Governor of Rajasthan has been charged with the violation of the model code of conduct. His support of the central ruling party is against the spirit of non-partisanship that is expected from the person sitting on constitutional posts. Due to such incidents, negative terms like an agent of the Centre, Puppet and rubber stamps are used to describe a governor of the state. Favouring a Particular Political Party: Governor’s discretionary powers to invite the leader of the largest party/alliance, post-election, to form the government has often been misused to favour a particular political party. Misuse of Power: A Governor’s recommendation for President’s Rule (Article 356) in a state has not always been based on ‘objective material’, but on political whim or fancy. The Supreme Court’s stand on office of Governor According to the Supreme Court, the Governor cannot exercise any power that has not been granted to them by the Constitution or a law enacted in accordance with it. The Supreme Court also established the limits of gubernatorial overreach through a series of significant rulings, including the notable cases of: R. Bommai (1994), Rameshwar Prasad (Bihar Assembly Dissolution Case of 2006), and Nabam Rebia (Arunachal Assembly Case of 2016). These decisions effectively eliminate or minimise the potential for excessive abuse of power, subject to the duration required for judicial review. Way Forward: The governor has to see that a stable government is formed in the state and also look into the legal validity of the law passed by state legislature and recommend president rule in the state if there is a breakdown of constitutional machinery. Thus the post of governor is essential for the healthy functioning of democracy though it is true that this post has been reduced to becoming a retirement package for politicians. Source:  Indian Express Human Trafficking in India Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Ministry of Women and Child Development has approved a scheme to provide financial assistance to states and Union Territories to set up protection and rehabilitation homes for victims of trafficking in states having international borders. About Human trafficking: It is trading humans mostly for the purpose of bonded labour, forced labour, sexual slavery, commercial sexual exploitation or extraction of organs. Trafficking of humans is considered one of the fastest growing crimes of trans national criminal organizations. It is a crime which involves violation of human rights by means of exploitation and coercion. It is a heinous crime which is occurring not only within a country but also trans nationally. Trafficking in India: In 2022, 6,622 trafficking victims were reported to have been identified; in addition, 694 were identified as potential victims. In 2021 Police filed charge sheets in 84.7 percent of the 2,189 cases registered under the Anti-Human Trafficking Units (AHTUs) across the country in 2021. Issues and challenges of Human Trafficking In India Commercial demand for Sex: The nature of sex trafficking is seen as an economic supply by the traffickers. Males request female prostitutes under this demand model, which creates a market for sex workers and ultimately encourages sex trafficking, illegal trade, and the coercion of people into the sex industry. Poverty and unemployment: Women may migrate voluntarily due to a lack of economic, educational, and social opportunities before becoming involuntarily trafficked for sex work. Globalization: As globalization has opened the national borders for smooth exchange of goods and services, its economic impact has also pushed peoples especially women and children to migrate and be vulnerable to trafficking. Gender based discrimination: Sons are traditionally regarded as more valuable, superior, and useful in a family than daughters in our patriarchal society. As a result, girls in this society have little to no access to education, which causes a gender gap in both literacy rates and potential income for boys and girls. Legal Instrument to Combat human trafficking: The main international legal instrument is the UN Protocol to Prevent, Suppress and Punish Trafficking in Persons, especially Women and Children, which was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 2000. The Trafficking Protocol, which supplements the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime, is the only international legal instrument addressing human trafficking as a crime. Related Constitutional and Legislative Provisions in India: Article 23(1): It prohibits the trafficking of persons. Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 (ITPA): It aims to stop immoral trafficking and prostitution in India and is divided into 25 sections and one schedule. Sections 366(A) of Indian Penal Code: It prohibits kidnapping and Section 372 of IPC prohibits selling minors into prostitution. Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act 1976, Child Labour (Prohibition and Abolition) Act 1986 and Juvenile Justice Act: All of these prohibit bonded and forced labour. Protection of Children from Sexual offences (POCSO) Act, 2012: It is a special law to protect children from sexual abuse and exploitation. Other Specific Legislations: Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976 Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994 Specific Sections in the IPC, like Sections 372 and 373 dealing with selling and buying of girls for the purpose of prostitution. Steps by State Governments: States have also enacted specific legislations to deal with the issue, like the Punjab Prevention of Human Smuggling Act, 2012. Way forward: Human Trafficking is an organized crime and operated across domestic and international borders, the nature of the crime needs strong cooperation and intelligence sharing between different investigating agencies. There is need to ensure a minimum standard of living for all people, strict border control through proper fencing and regular patrolling, prevent corruption in bureaucracy, etc., to curb the menace of trafficking. Steps should be taken to set up Protection Homes across the country, to provide shelter, food, counselling, and medical services to victims. Our development goals must include both economic development and social inclusion. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The Muslim World League was established in 1992. Statement-II: It is an Observer in the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Consider the following pairs:       Schemes                                                                  Launched in Senior Citizen Savings Scheme:                             2004 SAMARTH scheme:                                                  2023 National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP): 1995 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: SAMARTH scheme ensures a steady supply of skilled manpower in the labour-intensive textile sector. Statement-II: The scheme covers the entire value chain of textiles, excluding Spinning and Weaving. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What is human trafficking? Enumerate the steps taken by India to address human trafficking and suggest measures to deal with the crisis. (250 words) Q.2) The discretion of the Governor cannot be arbitrary or fanciful”. In the context of any such application, more attention is needed. Comment on it with recent examples. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 13th  July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 12th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – Essay Questions [13th July, 2023] – Day 32

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 32 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –12th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, IN SPACe, the commercial arm of the Indian Space Research Organisation, ISRO has called for an Expression of Interest from Indian private Industries to manufacture a Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV). Background:- The Chairman of INSPACe, Dr. Pawan Goenka has outlined the objective of involving private players in the manufacturing of Small launchers by saying that this will pave the way for India to become a global hub for small satellite launches. About Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV):- IMAGE SOURCE: Bharat Rakshak SSLV is an indigenously developed mini rocket launcher. (UPSC CSE: ISRO to undertake maiden flight of SSLV) It is the smallest vehicle at ISRO with a 110-ton mass. It is specially designed to carry smaller commercial satellites into the low-earth orbit (LEO) from 200-2,000 km above the Earth’s surface. Low-earth orbit (LEO): an orbit that is relatively close to Earth’s surface. It is normally at an altitude of less than 1000 km but could be as low as 160 km above Earth. It is a three-stage Launch Vehicle configured with three Solid Propulsion Stages and a liquid propulsion-based Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) as a terminal stage. Payload capacity: up to 500 kg. It has the capacity to deliver:- 600 kg to Low Earth Orbit (500 km) or 300 kg to Sun-synchronous Orbit (500 km) Advantages of SSLV:- It is a low-cost launch vehicle. It has a Low turn-around time. It is flexible in accommodating multiple satellites. It has minimal launch infrastructure requirements, etc. It is intended to cater to a market for the launch of small satellites into low earth orbits with a quick turn-around time. It will take only 72 hours to integrate, unlike the 70 days taken now for a launch vehicle. Only six people will be required to do the job, instead of 60 people. It will shift the burden of commercial launches from PSLV. PSLV: is the third generation launch vehicle of India and the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages. The SSLV is likely to cost a fourth of the current PSLV. (UPSC CSE: PSLV-C54 launch) IN-SPACe : Establishment: 2020. HQ: Ahmedabad, Gujrat. Objective: promotion, encouragement and regulation of space activities of both government and private entities. It is an autonomous agency in the Department of Space. (UPSC CSE: IN-SPACe) It also facilitates the usage of ISRO facilities by private entities. Composition: It comprises technical experts for space activities along with safety experts, academic experts and legal and strategic experts from other departments. It also comprises members from the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) and the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) of the Government of India. Functions of IN-SPACe:- To develop a space start-up ecosystem in India. To boost the participation of students in the Indian space sector and develop future space force frontiers. To create international opportunities for Indian space companies. To make India the spaceport and ground station hub for selected countries/regions. To develop space tourism and to spread awareness to the public about space technology and its benefits and role in the everyday life of individuals To develop IN-SPACe talent and knowledgebase. MUST READ: Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Home Minister Amit Shah will address two days G20 Conference on Crime and Security in the Age of Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) and Artificial Intelligence (AI). Background:- Two days G20 Conference on Crime and Security in the Age of NFTs, AI, and Metaverse will be organized in Gurugram, Haryana on the 13th and 14th of July. (UPSC CSE: India and G20 Presidency) The conference will bring together over 900 participants from G20 countries, 9 special invitee countries, international bodies, technology leaders, and domain experts from the country and across the world. About Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs):- IMAGE SOURCE: datasciencecentral.com NFTs are assets in the digital world that can be bought and sold like any other piece of property, but which have no tangible form of their own. (UPSC CSE: Non Fungible Tokens (NFTs)) Anything that can be converted into a digital form can be a Non-Fungible Token (NFT). It includes drawings, photos, videos, GIFs, music, in-game items, selfies etc. Even a tweet can be turned into an NFT, which can then be traded online using cryptocurrency. NFT transactions are recorded on blockchains. Historical Background of NFTs: 2015: Terra Nulius was the first NFT on Ethereum Blockchain. 2017: Then came Curio Cards, CryptoPunks and CryptoCats . 2021: NFTS slowly moved into public awareness, expanding into mainstream adoption in early 2021. Characteristic Features of NFTs:- Blockchain backed: NFTs are different from other digital forms in that they are backed by Blockchain technology. (UPSC CSE: Blockchain Technology and Voting) Exclusive ownership: NFTs can have only one owner at a time. Digital Storage: NFT owners can also digitally sign their artwork and store specific information in their NFTs metadata. Confidentiality: This will be only viewable to the individual who bought the NFT. Conditions to buy NFTs:- Anyone who holds a cryptocurrency wallet can buy an NFT. (UPSC CSE: Cryptocurrency) That is the only prerequisite to purchasing an NFT. One does not need any KYC documents to purchase an art. Risks associated with NFTs:- Risk of Fraud: In the recent past, several incidents of NFT Frauds have been reported. This includes the emergence of fake marketplaces, unverified sellers often impersonating real artists and selling copies of their artworks for half price. Environmental Risks: In order to validate transactions, crypto mining is done, which requires high-powered computers that run at a very high capacity, affecting the environment ultimately. Artificial Intelligence (AI) It describes the action of machines accomplishing tasks that have historically required human intelligence. (UPSC CSE: A new global standard for AI ethics) It includes technologies like machine learning, pattern recognition, big data, neural networks, self-algorithms etc. India and AI According to a Canada-based company’s report, Global AI Report 2019, India stood at the ninth position in terms of the number of AI specialists working in the field. The US, China and the UK topped the list. Benefits of AI:- In Policing: With the help of AI, one can predict the pattern of crime, and analyze a lot of CCTV footage, which is available across the country to identify suspects. In Agriculture: It can help sense one how much water the crop needs among many other works. Solving complex issues like efficient utilization of available resources. Analyzing the Data: AI technology helps in analyzing data Disadvantages of AI:- Security:  if somebody compromises a smart system, for instance, an autonomous car, the consequences can be disastrous, particularly given the ever-increasing cyber security threat. Lethal Autonomous Weapons: In the military, the autonomy in decision-making can be dangerous. Technological unemployment: by the introduction of new technologies  the jobs will be replaced by intelligent machines or systems. MUST READ: Binance SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements : (2023) It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or SWIFT system. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: (2022) They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium transactions. of commercial Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 E-auction of rice Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Food Cooperation of India (FCI) started an e-auction of rice to control retail prices. Background:- Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution Ministry have said that the decision to sell rice through e-auction under the Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS) from the buffer stock to bulk consumers has been taken in the public interest. About the Open Market Scheme: It refers to the selling of food grains by the Government at predetermined prices in the open market from time to time. Objective: to enhance the supply of grains, especially during the lean season and thereby to moderate the general open market prices, especially in the deficit regions. Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. Mechanism:- Under the OMSS, the FCI from time to time sells surplus food grains from the central pool, especially wheat and rice in the open market to traders, bulk consumers, retail chains, etc., at pre­determined prices. The FCI does this through e-­auctions where open market bidders can buy specified quantities. The FCI conducts this weekly auction using NCDEX (National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange Limited). NCDEX: a commodity exchange platform in India that provides a platform for trading in various agricultural and other commodities. The State Governments/ Union Territory Administrations are also allowed to participate in the e-auction if they require wheat and rice outside Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS ). The present form of OMSS comprises three schemes as under- Sale of wheat to bulk consumers/private traders through e-auction. Sale of wheat to bulk consumers/private traders through e-auction by dedicated movement. Sale of Raw Rice Grade ‘A’ to bulk consumers/private traders through e-auction. About Food Cooperation of India (FCI):- Established: 1965. FCI is a statutory body under the Food Corporations Act of 1964. Ministry: Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. HQ: New Delhi. It has five Zonal Offices, twenty-five Regional Offices and 170 District Offices under its control. Objectives of FCI:- Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interests of the farmers. Distribution of food grains throughout the country for the public distribution system. Maintaining satisfactory levels of operational and buffer stocks of food grains to ensure National Food Security. Functions of FCI:- It has the primary duty to undertake the purchase, store, transport, distribute and sell food grains and other foodstuffs. (UPSC CSE: Procurement Reforms) To provide farmers with remunerative prices. To make food grains available at reasonable prices, particularly to vulnerable sections of society. To maintain buffer stocks as a measure of Food Security. To intervene in the market for price stabilization. MUST READ: The Basis of MSP SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger( Guizotia aoyssinica) seeds. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following countries have been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in the news in the recent past for its very severe famine? (2023) Angola Costa Rica Ecuador Somalia Brucellosis Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, a seven-year-old student from Kollam, Kerala tested positive for Brucellosis. About Brucellosis:- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideShare It is a bacterial infection that spreads from animals to people. (UPSC CSE: New Brucellosis Vaccine by ICAR) Brucellosis is a Zoonotic Disease. Zoonotic Diseases: It is a disease that passes into the human population from an animal source directly or through an intermediary species. It is also known as Malta fever or Mediterranean fever. Caused by: various Brucella species, which mainly infect cattle, swine, goats, sheep and dogs. Brucella melitensis is the most prevalent species causing human brucellosis. Spread: Brucellosis is found globally and is a reportable disease in most countries. Vulnerability: It affects people of all ages and both sexes. However, Person-to-person transmission is rare. Transmission: People are infected by eating raw or unpasteurized dairy products. Air transmission: the bacteria that cause brucellosis can spread through the air or through direct contact with infected animals. Symptoms:- Fever, weakness, malaise and weight loss. Treatment:- The infection can usually be treated with antibiotics. However, treatment takes several weeks to months, and the infection can recur. Preventions:- Avoiding unpasteurized dairy products. Taking safety precautions such as wearing rubber gloves, gowns or aprons, when handling animals or working in a laboratory. Other preventive measures include cooking meat properly, vaccinating domestic animals, etc. MUST READ: Monkeypox/mpox SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following? (2023). Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes. Converting crop residues into packing material. Producing biodegradable plastics. Producing biochar from thermochemical conversion of biomass. Q.2) ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations? (2023) Collecting DNA samples from the air in a habitat in one go. Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat. Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals. Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies. Mukurthi National Park Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Tamil Nadu Forest Department stepped up vigil around Mukurthi National Park in Nilgiris to curb poaching. Background:- Following the arrest of a gang of poachers from North India in the Nilgiris forest division a few months ago, the T.N. Forest Department has initiated a number of steps to bridge the lapses in surveillance in densely forested regions of the district. About Mukurthi National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: Team-BHP.com Location: South East of the Nilgiri plateau, Tamil Nadu. It is located on the high altitudes of the Nilgiris, consisting of temperate shola forests. It has been created to protect the Nilgiri Tahr which was the state animal of Tamil Nadu, with the Mukurthi peak and its surroundings being the pivotal point. Rivers:- The Mukurthi National Park hillsides are the source of the Pykara River. The other important rivers originating from surrounding areas are Kabini, Chaliyar and Bhavani. (UPSC CSE: Manas National Park) Mukurthi National Park peaks act as the main source of water for not only the Nilgiris but other regions in the plains. The Mukurthi National Park area is a Hotspot and a core area in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve Reserve. (UPSC CSE: Anamalai Tiger Reserve) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve: the first Biosphere Reserve created in India the in the year 1986. Vegetation: Sholas and grasslands. The area is primarily grasslands interspersed with numerous isolated, compact, sharply defined montane wet temperate mixed forests locally termed as ‘Sholas’. Fauna: Nilgiri Tahr (state animal of Tamilnadu), sambar, barking deer, Nilgiri marten, otter, jungle Cat, jackal etc. MUST READ: Kaziranga National Park SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Candida auris Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, live cultures of Candida auris have been found in hospitalised stray dogs in Delhi. About Candida auris:- It is a multi-drug resistant fungus that is capable of causing invasive infections in the human body. (UPSC CSE: White fungus) First identified: in Japan, in 2009 Global Spread: The fungus has been reported in more than 40 countries, including the United States, United Kingdom, South Africa, and Australia. Candida auris has been tagged as an “urgent” and “critical” threat by WHO. Transmission:- It can spread indirectly from patient to patient in healthcare settings such as hospitals or nursing homes. It remains on people’s skin and objects such as hospital furniture and equipment like glucometers, temperature probes, blood pressure cuffs, ultrasound machines and nursing carts etc. for quite a long time. Vulnerability:- Candida Auris mainly affects patients who already have many medical problems or have had frequent hospital stays or live in nursing homes. It is more likely to affect patients who suffer from conditions such as blood cancer or diabetes, have received a lot of antibiotics or have devices like tubes going into their bodies. Symptoms:- Its symptoms include fever and chills that do not go away after treatment with antibiotics. Treatment:- Antifungal drugs called echinocandins are used to treat this infection. It is resistant to multiple classes of antifungal drugs.(UPSC CSE: Shortage of anti-fungal injection, Amphotericin B) This makes treatment challenging and often requires the use of combination therapies. MUST READ: Mucormycosis SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens. Mains: Electric Vehicle Future Syllabus Mains –GS 3 (Environment) Context: India’s electric mobility plan is largely focussed on battery electric vehicles (BEVs) replacing internal combustion engine (ICE) vehicles, with Li-ion seen as the most viable battery option for now. About BEVs: The Electric Vehicles (EVs) that qualify for a clear upfront tax incentive are the ones referred to as BEVs. Battery Electric Vehicles or EVs are fully electric vehicles with rechargeable batteries and no gasoline engine. All energy to run the vehicle comes from the battery pack, which is recharged from the grid. BEVs are zero emissions vehicles, as they do not generate any harmful tailpipe emissions or air pollution hazards caused by traditional gasoline-powered vehicles. India and Electric Vehicle: India is the fourth highest emitter of carbon dioxide globally and at the recently concluded COP26, it has pledged to reduce its carbon emissions to net-zero by the year 2070. India aims to achieve EV sales accounting for 30% of private cars, 70% of commercial vehicles, and 80% of 2 and three-wheelers by the year 2030. For this reason, India is aggressively promoting the adoption of EVs in the country by offering various incentives at both Central and State level, to buyers and manufacturers. India is among a handful of countries that support the global EV30@30 campaign, which aims for at least 30% new vehicle sales to be electric by 2030. India’s advocacy of five elements for climate change — “Panchamrit” — at the COP26 in Glasgow is a commitment to the same. Various ideas were espoused by India at the Glasgow summit, such as, renewable energy catering to 50% of India’s energy needs, reducing carbon emission by 1 billion tonnes by 2030 and achieving net zero by 2070. The government of India remodeled Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles (FAME II) scheme. The recently launched Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC) for the supplier side. The recently launched PLI scheme for Auto and Automotive Components for manufacturers of electric vehicles. Advantages of Electric Vehicles in India: Low cost of ownership: It is a proven fact by many researches that EVs offer way lower cost of ownership in their lifecycle compared to fossil fuel powered vehicles. At times, the cost of ownership for an EV is as lower as 27% than a fossil fuel vehicle. The incessant rise of petrol and diesel costs are increasing the cost of ownership further for the conventional vehicles. Easier to maintenance: An internal combustion engine usually contains more than 2,000 moving parts. An electric motor onboard an EV on the other hand contain around 20 moving parts. The only major components in an EV are the battery and the electric motor. This makes the EVs much easier for maintenance, reducing the cost of ownership significantly. State EV policies: Several state governments across India have already announced their respective EV policies. Some of them promote the supply side, while some promote the demand side. There are EV policies that promote both the supply and demand side through incentives, discounts and other benefits. Cleaner environment: The direct and obvious advantage of adopting electric mobility is the cleaner environment. Electric vehicles do not emit pollutants into the air like their ICE counterparts. The EVs are silent as well unlike their ICE counterparts. This means EVs ensure a cleaner and quieter environment. Challenges associated with electric vehicles in India: High initial cost: The upfront cost of EVs is still higher than traditional gasoline-powered vehicles, making it difficult for many consumers to afford them. Limited charging infrastructure: The lack of charging infrastructure makes it difficult for EV owners to travel long distances. Battery technology: The current battery technology still has some limitations, such as limited driving range and long charging time. Limited domestic manufacturing capabilities: India currently lacks the domestic manufacturing capabilities for electric vehicle components and batteries, making it dependent on imports. Lack of awareness: There is still a lack of awareness about the benefits of EVs among the public in India. Limited Government initiatives: The Indian Government has set ambitious goals for the adoption of electric vehicles, but the lack of concrete action plans and initiatives has been a hindrance. Lack of standardization: The lack of standardization in charging infrastructure and lack of uniformity in regulations across states and union territories is a challenge. Power Grid infrastructure: India’s power grid infrastructure is not fully developed and is not capable of handling the high-power demand of EV charging stations. Government initiatives to promote EV adoption: The Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles (FAME)scheme II, which provides incentives for EV manufacturers and buyers. These incentives include subsidies, tax rebates, preferential financing, and exemptions from road tax and registration fees. The National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP), which sets out the target to achieve 6-7 million sales of hybrid and electric vehicles year on year from 2020 onwards by providing fiscal incentives. The National Mission on Transformative Mobility and Battery Storage, which seeks to create a comprehensive ecosystem for the adoption of EVs and support the establishment of giga-scale battery manufacturing plants in India. The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme, which provides incentives for the manufacturing of electric vehicles and components. The Vehicle Scrappage Policy, which provides incentives for the scrapping of old vehicles and the purchase of new electric vehicles. The Go Electric campaign aims to create awareness on the benefits of EVs and EV charging infrastructure. India is among a handful of countries that support the global EV30@30 campaign, which aims for at least 30% new vehicle sales to be electric by 2030. For the good or bad, India is establishing itself as a global leader in EV manufacturing. Electric vehicles are expected to accommodate higher renewable energy penetration while strengthening and stabilizing grid operation. Source:   Indian Express Indian Space Policy 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: Hailing its ambitious space programme, India is currently home to about 140-registered space-tech start-ups, “stands to transform the planet’s connection to the final frontier” and can emerge as a “counterweight” to China. India’s Space Economy Today, while ISRO’s budget is approximately $1.6 billion, India’s space economy is over $9.6 billion. Broadband, OTT and 5G promise a double-digit annual growth in satellite-based services. With an enabling environment, the Indian space industry could grow to $60 billion by 2030, directly creating more than two lakh jobs. About Indian Space Policy: In April 2023, the Union Cabinet approved the Indian Space Policy 2023. The Policy seeks to institutionalize the private sector participation in the space sector and give a larger participation to research, academia, startups, and industry. It also delineated the roles and responsibilities of ISRO, space sector PSU NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) and Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe). Major highlights of the policy: The policy creates four distinct, but related entities, that will facilitate greater private sector participation in activities that have usually been the traditional domain of the ISRO. Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (InSPACe): It will be a single window clearance and authorisation agency for space launches, establishing launch pads, buying and selling satellites, and disseminating high-resolution data among other things. It will also share technologies, products, processes and best practices with NGEs (non-government entities and this will include private companies) and government companies. New Space India Limited (NSIL): It will be responsible for commercializing space technologies and platforms created through public expenditure, as well as, manufacturing, leasing, or procuring space components, technologies, platforms and other assets from the private or public sector. Department of Space: It will provide overall policy guidelines and be the nodal department for implementing space technologies and, among other things, co-ordinate international cooperation and coordination in the area of global space governance and programmes in consultation with the Ministry of External Affairs. It will also create an appropriate mechanism to resolve disputes arising out of space activity. Advantages of the Indian Space Policy 2023: Provides clarity: The Indian Space Policy 2023 establishes a single regulatory body, IN-SPACe, to streamline the process and provide clarity to all involved parties. Fostering innovation: The Indian Space Policy 2023 encourages private sector participation, which brings new ideas, innovation, and competition into the Indian space sector. This could lead to the development of more advanced technologies and efficient processes, driving the overall growth of the sector. Economic growth and job creation: As the private sector and startups gain more share in the space sector, it is expected to lead to economic growth and job creation. The policy could spur investments, create high-tech jobs, and contribute significantly to the Indian economy. Accessible and affordable space technology: With increased competition, space technology and services could become more accessible and affordable, benefiting various sectors like communication, navigation, earth observation, and more. Encouraging entrepreneurship: The policy creates an encouraging environment for space startups, fostering entrepreneurship and innovation in the country. It provides a clear path for entrepreneurs to enter the space sector, contributing to the startup ecosystem’s growth. Streamlining regulations: By creating a single-window clearance system, the policy streamlines the regulatory process for space activities. This makes it easier for businesses to navigate the regulatory landscape and encourages more entities to participate in space activities. Challenges associated with the Indian Space Policy 2023: Lack of Timeframe: The policy lacks a specific timeframe for implementation and the transition of ISRO’s practices, as well as the establishment of the regulatory framework by IN-SPACe. This makes it difficult to assess the progress and implementation of the policy. Absence of Clear Rules and Regulations: The policy framework requires clear and detailed rules and regulations in several areas, including foreign direct investment (FDI) and licensing, government procurement to support new space start-ups, liability provisions in case of violations, and an appellate framework for dispute settlement. Ambiguity in IN-SPACe’s Position and Authority: Currently, IN-SPACe’s position is ambiguous as it functions under the purview of the Department of Space. The Secretary (Space) is also Chairman of ISRO, the government entity to be regulated by IN-SPACe. Legislative Authority: The establishment of a regulatory body like IN-SPACe requires legislative authority to ensure its effectiveness and legitimacy. The absence of a dedicated legislation could hinder its ability to enforce regulations and provide a robust regulatory framework for the space industry. Way Forward: The introduction of India’s new space policy is a significant milestone in fostering a commercial space ecosystem, but there are still important questions to be addressed to fully realize the potential benefits of private sector participation. Source:  India Today Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Brucellosis is a Zoonotic Disease. Statement-II: The infection can be treated with antibiotics. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Consider the following pairs: Organizations                                              Headquarters Indian Space Research Organisation:      Hyderabad Food Corporation of India:                        New Delhi IN-SPACe:                                                 Bhubneshwar How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Candida auris has been tagged as an “urgent” and “critical” threat by WHO. Statement-II: It is resistant to multiple classes of antifungal drugs. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains practice questions Q.1) Discuss the salient features of the Indian Space Policy-2023 and its implications for the development of the Indian space sector. (250 words) Q.2) To ensure a positive growth rate towards achieving India’s Net Zero Emissions by 2070, a transportation revolution is required in India which will lead to better “walkability”, public transportation. In this regard, discuss the significance and challenges associated with electric vehicle in India? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 12th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 11th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 12th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here