Posts

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) WPI and CPI Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: WPI slips into negative territory for the first time in three years, falls -0.92% in April About the news: The decline in the rate of inflation in the month of April is primarily contributed by the fall in prices of basic metals, food products, mineral oils, textiles, non-food articles, chemical and chemical products, rubber and plastic products, and paper products. The country’s WPI inflation has been easing continuously for the last 11 months. The depreciation in WPI is in line with the decline of retail inflation, based on the Consumer Price Index (CPI), which eased to an 18-month low of 4.7 percent in April. What is WPI? The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is an index necessary for calculating inflation in a country. Released by: The Office of the Economic Adviser, Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry of Commerce & Industry. It measures the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses. But the general public does not buy products at wholesale price. So, it is not useful for calculating market prices of goods for common people. It is the most widely used inflation indicator in India. The base year of All-India WPI has been revised from 2004-05 to 2011-12 in 2017. WPI vs CPI Parameters WPI CPI Indicates average change in prices of commodities at the wholesale level. average change in the prices of commodities at the retail level. Prices paid by Manufacturers and dealers Consumers Goods & Services Only goods are covered Goods and services both are covered Released by Office of Economic Advisor (Ministry of Commerce & Industry) ·       National Statistical Office (NSO) (Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation) calculates CPI (Rural/Urban/Combined) ·       Labour Bureau calculates CPI for Industrial Workers (IW), Agricultural Labour (AL) and Rural Labour (RL). Types of Commodities covered Manufacturing inputs and intermediate goods like minerals, machinery basic metals, etc. Education, transportation, recreation, apparel, foods and beverages, housing and medical care Base year 2011-12 2012 Note: CPI is chosen by RBI as the key indicator of inflation and is more important in policy making. Source:  NewsOnAir Eretmoptera murphyi Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Eretmoptera murphyi, a tiny flightless insect has come to be an invasive species in Antarctica and is now changing the soil composition and ecosystem there. Animals and plants that are unintentionally or purposefully brought into a natural setting where they are not typically present and have severe negative effects on their new ecosystem are referred to as invasive alien species. About Eretmoptera murphyi It is a native of South Georgia, a sub-Antarctic Island. It is a midge i.e., small insects which bite It was accidentally introduced to Signy Island in the 1960s during a botany experiment. It is believed that people might have carried the insects on their shoes accidentally. Given the favorable conditions, it flourished there later. Eretmoptera murphyi feasts on dead organic matter. This has led to faster decomposition of plant materials which led to increase in the soil nitrate levels by three-five times compared to places on the island where it is absent and only native invertebrate species live. High levels of nitrate can: Be toxic for other plant species, contaminate groundwater. lead to excessive algae growth, which can deplete oxygen levels and harm aquatic life. (eutrophication) Concerns: The midge invasion highlights that even harsh conditions can no longer protect Antarctica from the threat of invasive species. The midge can also survive in water, which raises concerns that it could spread to other islands. The activity of the midges, along with climate change, may also create conditions for other invasive species to become established and accelerate the effects of climate change. Source:   DTE Samudra Shakti-23 Syllabus Prelims – Defence Context: The 4th edition of INDIA-INDONESIA BILATERAL EXERCISE SAMUDRA SHAKTI – 23 commenced recently. About Exercise: In pursuance of India’s Act East Policy, Exercise ‘Samudra Shakti’ was conceived in 2018 as a bilateral Indian Navy-Indonesian Navy exercise. The exercise aims to strengthen the bilateral relationship, enhance mutual understanding and interoperability in maritime operations between the two navies. India’s Participation: INS Kavaratti: India’s indigenously designed & built Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) stealth corvette is the main highlight. It is one of the 4 corvettes built under Project 28 (Kamorta class). The other three are INS Kamorta, INS Kadmatt and INS Kiltan. An Indian Navy Dornier Maritime Patrol aircraft and Chetak helicopter is also participating Other Exercises with Indonesia: Garuda Shakti (Military Exercise) IND-INDO CORPAT (Maritime Exercise) Source: PIB Unique Economic Offender Code Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The government plans to introduce a new mechanism whereby companies and individuals accused of economic offences will be assigned a unique code called the ‘Unique Economic Offender Code’. About Unique Economic Offender Code: The code will be alpha-numeric and system-generated. It will be issued once the police or central investigative agency sends the data about an offender to the National Economic Offence Records (NEOR). It will be specific to each offender and will be linked with his/her Aadhaar number in the case of an individual or PAN in the case of a company. Under NEOR, this codification will provide a 360-degree profile of the economic offender and their record. What is the benefit from such a classification? With this mechanism, multi-agency probes will be launched against individuals or companies swiftly. Authorities from different agencies won’t have to wait for chargesheets to be filed by one agency before starting a probe. What is the National Economic Offence Records (NEOR)? NEOR is a central repository of all economic offences. It will share data related to each economic offender with all central and state intelligence and enforcement agencies. The Central Economic Intelligence Bureau has been given the task of coordinating and completing the NEOR project with the help of the National Informatics Centre (NIC). Once completed, all data from central and state agencies will be migrated to the national repository using the API (application programming interface) software, reducing any scope for manual interference. The NEOR will be a showcase project for India to be displayed at its forthcoming Financial Action Task Force (FATF) review. Source:  Times now River Mandovi/Mahadayi Water Dispute Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Goans are worried after the Central Water Commission (CWC) approved the Detailed Project Report (DPR) for Karnataka’s Kalasa Bhandura canal to divert water from the upper reaches of Mahadayi to the Malaprabha basin. About Mahadayi river: Origin: Mahadayi river rises in the Western Ghats, from the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in Belagavi district, Karnataka. The river travels 35 km in Karnataka; 82 km in Goa before joining the Arabian Sea at Panji (North-Goa). Also called Mandovi in Goa, Mahadayi is a rain-fed river that is shared between Karnataka and Goa for their water needs. The Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is located on the island of Chorao in the Mandovi river. Major Tributaries: Kalasa Nala, Banduri Nala, Surla Nala, Haltar Nala, Poti Nala, Mahadayi Nala, Pansheer Nala, Bail Nala, Andher Nala. What is the Kalasa-Banduri project and Mandovi river dispute? The project involves the construction of dams and a canal system to divert water from the Mahadayi River, located in Goa, to the Malaprabha River (a tributary of Krishna River) basin in Karnataka. The main goal of the project is to meet the drinking water needs of the districts of Belagavi, Dharwad, Bagalkot, and Gadag in Karnataka. The project was proposed by the Karnataka Government in the 1980s, but faced opposition from the state of Goa. This project on the Mahadayi river has been a source of dispute between Karnataka, Goa and Maharashtra. In 2018, the Tribunal awarded 13.42 TMC water from Mahadayi river basin to Karnataka, 1.33 TMC to Maharashtra and 24 TMC to Goa. But all the parties challenged this verdict. Importance of Mandovi to Goa: The Mandovi and the Zuari are the two primary rivers in the state of Goa. 79% of the total catchment area of Mandovi lies in the state of Goa. Mandovi sustains agriculture, fisheries and tourism, the latter two being the mainstay of Goa’s economy. Source:   Indian Express Central Consumer Protection Authority Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: CCPA asks e-commerce sites to stop selling car seat belt alarm stoppers About CCPA: Central Consumer Protection Authority is a regulatory authority set up under Section 10(1) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. It regulates matters affecting the rights of consumers by individuals or entities following improper trade practices or by the display of inappropriate or wrong advertisements affecting public interest and helps promote consumer trust by enforcing the rights of consumers through effective guidelines. Members: Chief Commissioner Two Commissioners – One commissioner for goods and one for services. The CCPA will have an Investigation Wing that will be headed by a Director General. Al of them are appointed by Central Government. Central Consumer Protection Authority has the following powers: Inquire or cause an inquiry, either on receipt of complaint or suo moto or as directed by Central Government. It can order an investigation by the District Collector or by Director General. They have powers of search and seizure, and authority to ask submission of any record or document. The commission can direct recalling of any dangerous, hazardous or unsafe goods or withdrawal of similar services and order refunding of the amount collected. The commission can involve in consumer advocacy, suggesting remedial actions, involving itself in related research, creating awareness and guiding consumers on safety precautions. The commission can direct to a trader or manufacturer or endorser or advertiser or publisher after investigation to discontinue advertisements which are wrong or misleading or prejudicial to consumers. The commission can also prevent the endorser of an advertisement which is wrong or misleading from making the same in relation to any product or service for a time period ranging upto one year, and three years in case of subsequent contravention. Source: Indian Express Burachapori Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: The Assam government successfully conducted an eviction drive at Burachapori Wildlife Sanctuary About Burachapori Wildlife Sanctuary It is located in the Sonitpur district of It forms an integral part of the Laokhowa-Burachapori eco-system and is a notified buffer of the Kaziranga Tiger reserve. Vegetation: It comprises of a mosaic of wet alluvial grassland, riparian and semi-evergreen forests dotted by wetland and river systems. Brahmaputra River flows through the sanctuary. It is considered to be an ideal habitat for the Bengal florican (IUCN, Critically Endangered). Important fauna: Indian-one horned rhinoceros, Asiatic water buffalo and Bengal tiger. Source:   The Print Data Governance Quality Index Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW) has secured the second position among 66 ministries in the highly influential Data Governance Quality Index (DGQI) assessment for 2022-2023 (Q3) About Data Governance Quality Index (DGQI): The DGQI is a comprehensive framework that evaluates the data governance practices of various ministries and departments of the Government of India. It covers aspects such as data quality, data security, data sharing, data analytics, data innovation and data literacy. The DGQI assessment is conducted by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) in collaboration with the NITI Aayog. Objectives: To assess the data preparedness of various ministries and departments on a standardized framework. To drive healthy competition among them and promote cooperative peer learning from best practices.   3 key pillars: The DGQI assessment covers three key pillars of data preparedness: Data Strategy: It evaluates the existence and implementation of systemic guidelines for data governance. Data systems: It assesses the processes of data generation, management and use. Data-driven outcomes: It measures the extent to which data is utilized and widely shared by institutions to drive decision-making. Source:  The Print UNESCO World Heritage Site Tag Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Art and Culture) Context: Santiniketan in West Bengal has been recommended for inclusion in UNESCO’s World Heritage List. About Santiniketan: Santiniketan is a renowned cultural and heritage place located in Birbhum District, West Bengal, India. It holds historical significance and is known for its association with Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore. It was the home of Rabindranath Tagore, where he lived and composed many of his literary works, including songs, poems, and novels. The Santiniketan campus is adorned with splendid sculptures, frescoes, murals, and paintings created by renowned artists such as Rabindranath Tagore, Nandalal Bose, Ramkinkar, Binodbehari Mukhopadhyay, and others. Santiniketan celebrates unique festivals like Briksharopan (festival of Planting Saplings) and Halakarshan (festival of Plowing the Fields) on the 22nd and 23rd days of Sravana (August), respectively. Varshamangal, the festival of rains, is celebrated during August/September. Poush Mela is an annual fair and festival held in Santiniketan, starting on the 7th day of the month of Poush. The fair officially lasts for three days, but vendors may stay until the end of the month. It is known for live performances of Bengali folk music, particularly by bauls (traditional wandering minstrels), and also features tribal dances like Santali. About World Heritage Sites: World Heritage Sites are places of exceptional cultural or natural significance and are recognized by UNESCO under World Heritage Convention of 1972 for their outstanding universal value. Cultural heritage consists of monuments (such as architectural works, monumental sculptures, or inscriptions), groups of buildings, and sites (including archaeological sites). Natural Heritage consists of natural features (consisting of physical and biological formations), geological and physiographical formations (including habitats of threatened species of animals and plants), and natural sites which are important from the point of view of science, conservation or natural beauty. The World Heritage Sites list is maintained by the international World Heritage Program administered by the UNESCO World Heritage Committee, composed of 21 “states parties” that are elected by their General Assembly. As of April 2023, a total of 1,157 World Heritage Sites (900 cultural, 218 natural, and 39 mixed properties) exist across 167 countries. The countries with the most sites are Italy (58), China (56), Germany (51), France (49), Spain (49), India (40), Mexico (35), the United Kingdom (33) and Russia (30). About Nomination process: A country must first identify its significant cultural and natural sites in a document known as the Tentative List. A country may not nominate sites that have not been first included on its Tentative List. Next, it can place sites selected from that list into a Nomination File, which is evaluated by the ICOMOS and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). ICOMOS and IUCN make recommendations to the World Heritage Committee for new designations. The Committee meets once a year to determine what nominated properties to add to the World Heritage List. To be included on the World Heritage List, sites must be of outstanding universal value and meet at least one out of ten selection criteria. 10 criteria for determining Outstanding Universal Value (OUV): to represent a masterpiece of human creative genius; to exhibit an important interchange of human values, over a span of time or within a cultural area of the world, on developments in architecture or technology, monumental arts, town-planning or landscape design; to bear a unique or at least exceptional testimony to a cultural tradition or to a civilization which is living or which has disappeared; to be an outstanding example of a type of building, architectural or technological ensemble or landscape which illustrates (a) significant stage(s) in human history; to be an outstanding example of a traditional human settlement, land-use, or sea-use which is representative of a culture (or cultures), or human interaction with the environment especially when it has become vulnerable under the impact of irreversible change; to be directly or tangibly associated with events or living traditions, with ideas, or with beliefs, with artistic and literary works of outstanding universal significance. (The Committee considers that this criterion should preferably be used in conjunction with other criteria. to contain superlative natural phenomena or areas of exceptional natural beauty and aesthetic importance; to be outstanding examples representing major stages of earth’s history, including the record of life, significant on-going geological processes in the development of landforms, or significant geomorphic or physiographic features; to be outstanding examples representing significant on-going ecological and biological processes in the evolution and development of terrestrial, freshwater, coastal, and marine ecosystems and communities of plants and animals; to contain the most important and significant natural habitats for in-situ conservation of biological diversity, including those containing threatened species of outstanding universal value from the point of view of science or conservation. About ICOMOS The International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS) is a professional association that works for the conservation of cultural heritage places around the world. ICOMOS was founded in 1965 in Warsaw (Poland) as a result of the Venice Charter of 1964 and offers advice to UNESCO on World Heritage Sites. It is now headquartered in Charenton-le-Pont, Paris (France). World Heritage Sites in India: Image Source:   Tourmyindia     News Source:Times of India Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Karnataka Legislative Assembly elections’ results were released recently. There were allegations that Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) from South Africa were being used for voting. About Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs): Electronic Voting Machine (also known as EVM) is voting using electronic means to either aid or take care of the chores of casting and counting votes. An EVM is designed with two units: the control unit and the balloting unit. These units are joined together by a cable. The control unit of the EVM is kept with the presiding officer or the polling officer. The balloting unit is kept within the voting compartment for electors to cast their votes. This is done to ensure that the polling officer verifies your ident With the EVM, instead of issuing a ballot paper, the polling officer will press the Ballot Button which enables the voter to cast their vote. A list of candidates names and/or symbols will be available on the machine with a blue button next to it. The voter can press the button next to the candidate’s name they wish to vote for. MB Haneefa invented the first Indian voting machine in 1980. It was first used in 1981 in the by-election to North Paravur Assembly Constituency of Kerala in 50 polling stations. The EVMs were commissioned in 1989 by Election Commission of India in collaboration with Bharat Electronics Limited and Electronics Corporation of India Limited. The law was amended by the Parliament in December, 1988 and a new section 61A was inserted in the Representation of the People Act, 1951 empowering the Commission to use voting machines. The amended provision came into force with effect from 15th March, 1989. Voter verifiable paper audit trail (VVPAT): Voter verifiable paper audit trail (VVPAT) or verified paper record (VPR) is a method of providing feedback to voters using a ballot-less voting system. A VVPAT is intended as an independent verification system for voting machines designed to allow voters to verify that their vote was cast correctly, to detect possible election fraud or malfunction, and to provide a means to audit the stored electronic results. It contains the name of the candidate (for whom vote has been cast) and symbol of the party/individual candidate. The VVPAT offers some fundamental differences as a paper, rather than electronic recording medium when storing votes. Advantages of electronic voting machines: Many developed countries have adopted ballot paper: It is the constitutional duty and the responsibility of the Election Commission and the Central government to introduce such a transparent system of voting and counting in the elections which can be evaluated by the public, the voters, themselves. Difficult for the hackers to hack: In most of the advanced versions of electronic voting machines, there are no external communication paths which make it difficult for the hackers to hack the machine and tamper the count numbers. Electronic voting machines are cost effective and economical: In the paper ballot, the amount of raw material used is higher. It directly impacts the environment as paper ballots use papers to cast votes. Time savers: one can count the votes in a few minutes which make life easier for the election officers on duty. In a paper ballot, the vote counting process is quite tedious and time-consuming. Electronic voting machines are quite effective against bogus votes: Electronic voting machines are programmed to capture a maximum of five votes in a minute. Due to which a single vote cannot cast fake votes. Concerns of using electronic voting machines: No certification: No nationally or internationally recognised institutions or governments have certified the EVMs as cent per cent accurate. Vulnerability to malware: Many software programmers have claimed that the electronic voting machines are vulnerable to malicious programming and if it gets affected then any hacker can hack the machine and can tamper the vote counts easily. Manufacturing: Most of the electronic voting machines used in the country were foreign manufactured which means the secret codes that control the electronic voting machines are in foreign hands and they can be used to influence the election results. Loss of data: The biggest change with technology is that no matter how much data it records, a single virus can destroy the entire data storage. Not suitable to Humid places: The highly humid area and those areas which receive frequent rainfall are not suitable for casting votes using electronic voting machines. As machines are prone to damage due to high humidity level, thus usage of electronic voting machines is not advisable in such areas. Fake votes: Most of the electronic voting machines used in the country do not have any mechanism by which the voter can verify their identity before casting the vote due to which fake voters can cast numerous fake votes. Suggestive Measures: Rather than throwing the baby out with the bathwater, a couple of procedural changes will bring in credibility to the voting process. The EC has already operationalised the voter-verifiable paper audit trail (VVPAT) with an attached printer that provides a paper trail for those who have cast their votes. At present, after casting the vote in EVMs, the printed paper is directly dropped in the box (the voter only has seven seconds to see this). Instead, the paper should be given to the voter who should then drop it in the ballot box. This was the procedure before the introduction of EVMs. In the current system, to ask for a counting of ballots from the VVPAT, one has to move the courts. Instead, the ECI should introduce a new procedure wherein the manual counting of the printed ballots has to be done before announcing the result if the difference between the winner and the loser is less than, say, 10%, and the loser demands a recount. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Burachapori Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Arunachal Pradesh Assam Jharkhand Maharashtra Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA): It a regulatory authority set up under Section 10(1) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. It functions under the guidelines of The Minister of Commerce and Industry. Consumer Protection Act, 2019 defines a consumer as a person who buys any goods or avails of service for final use. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) The Mandovi/Mahadayi River Water Dispute associated with Maharashtra and Telangana Goa and Kerala Karnataka and Goa Jharkhand and Odisha Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 17th May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 16th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Global Report on Internal Displacement 2023 Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: The Global Report on Internal Displacement 2023 (GRID-2023) stated that in 2022, over 32 million people were displaced by disasters, 98% of which were triggered by weather-related events such as floods and storms. About the publisher: The Global Report on Internal Displacement 2023 (GRID-2023) is published by the Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre (IDMC). IDMC is the world’s leading source of data and analysis on Internal Displacement (ID). IDMC is an international non-governmental organization established in 1998 by the Norwegian Refugee Council in Geneva. It is focused on monitoring and providing information and analysis on the world’s internally displaced persons. About Internal displacement: Internal displacement refers to the situation where people are forced to leave their homes but remain within their country’s borders. Unlike refugees, internally displaced people have not crossed international borders and are not covered by any international convention. India has one of the highest numbers of IDPs in the world. India does not have a national policy or legal framework to deal with refugees or IDPs. India has not ratified the 1951 Convention and 1967 Protocol and does not permit UNHCR access to most refugee groups. Key highlights of the report: Highlights Details Total Number of IDPs Over 71 million IDPs across 110 countries and territories at the end of 2022, a 20% increase in a year Highest displacement Pakistan had the highest number of disaster displacements in the world in 2022, at 8.16 million. It was followed by Philippines and China. Total IDPs in India India recorded the fourth largest disaster displacement, with 2.5 million displacements. Actions needed ·        Unconditional cash assistance for supporting the immediate needs of IDPs; ·        Developing livelihoods and skills for IDPs; ·        Building resilience and preparedness at an individual, community, and national levels; ·        Addressing the impacts of climate change and investing in adaptation measures are crucial to mitigate future displacements   Factors for Internal Displacement: Internal displacement in India arises from secessionist movements, identity-based autonomy movements, localized violence, and environmental disaster and development-induced displacement. In 2022, the Russia-Ukraine caused a displacement of 16.9 million — “the highest figure ever recorded for any country.” The number of displacements associated with conflict and violence nearly doubled to 28.3 million. In recent years, disasters have displaced more people than historically dominant reasons for conflicts and violence. This makes climate change — that leads to frequent weather-related disasters — the key driver of massive internal migration of people, who we popularly call “climate refugees”. As per the report, in 2022, 32.6 million people were displaced due to disasters and 6 out of 10 disaster displacements were triggered by floods. Why is there a sudden increase in such disasters? The prolonged three-year La Niña phenomenon has contributed to the rise in weather-related disasters, especially floods, leading to widespread disasters across the globe. There is also a rise in drought in Eastern Africa which also adds to the displacement. La Niña is the cooler than the normal phase of the El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO) phenomenon in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean. Source:  DTE Positive Indigenisation List Syllabus Prelims – Defence Context: The Union Ministry of Defence (MoD) has approved the fourth and the largest positive indigenisation list of 928 strategically-important Line Replacement Units (LRUs), sub-systems, spares and components, including high-end materials and spares. About Positive Indigenisation List: The list means that defence PSUs cannot import the specified items beyond the timelines indicated against them. These items will be purchased only from domestic manufacturers. The DPSUs will undertake indigenisation of these items through different routes under ‘Make’ category and in-house development through the capabilities of MSMEs and private Indian industry. In the last two years, the defence ministry has brought in three positive indigenisation lists of 351, 107 and 780 items which will have to be procured only from indigenous sources after the timelines mentioned against each item. What is the need for such a list? The fundamental idea is to promote self-reliance in defence while reducing imports of defence items and equipment. This is important as India is one of the largest defence importers globally and the demand for better defence equipment is going to increase in the future given the rising security threats. The DPSUs, MSMEs and private sector would get more opportunities to grow in this sector thereby providing impetus to the growth in economy. Enhanced investment in defence, especially from the private sector would lead to more research in defence technology. The design capabilities of the domestic defence industry would be enhanced by involving academia and research institutions. Source: Indian Express Adopt A Heritage Syllabus Prelims – Indian Art and Culture About ‘Adopt a Heritage’ scheme The ‘Adopt a Heritage: Apni Dharohar, Apni Pehchaan’ scheme is an initiative of the Ministry of Tourism, in collaboration with the Ministry of Culture and the Archaeological Survey of India along with the State/UT governments. Private firms, corporates, NGOs and public sector units can enter into agreements with the Union Ministry of Culture to adopt and maintain State-owned archaeological sites or monuments. It aims to develop synergy among all partners to effectively promote ‘responsible and sustainable tourism’. Agencies/Companies would become ‘Monument Mitras’ through the innovative concept of ‘Vision Bidding’, where the agency with the best vision for the heritage site will be given an opportunity to maintain the monument through their CSR activities. The project primarily focusses on providing basic amenities like cleanliness, public conveniences, drinking water, ease of access for differently abled and senior citizens, and enhanced facilities like surveillance system, night viewing facilities, etc., to provide an enhanced tourism experience. The project began with 93 ASI monuments and has extended to heritage, natural and tourist sites across India, some of which are not protected under ASI currently. Rationale Behind ‘Adopt a Heritage’ Need for amenities: There is a need to develop a robust mechanism for the provision of basic amenities on an immediate basis. Advanced amenities are needed for sustaining the interest of tourists on a long-term basis. Government doesn’t have resources for all monuments: Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) protects 3,686 ancient monuments and archaeological sites, including 36 world heritage sites. The government needs more resources for maintenance of heritage. CSR fund: The private entities anyways have their CSR funds which lie unutilized. Such a scheme would be useful in putting the CSR funds to some purpose. Sustainable tourism creates employment: The scheme aims at harnessing the tourism potential of heritage for its effects in employment generation and economic development, especially through the active involvement of local communities. Global experience: Italy has the largest number of UNESCO Heritage Sites in the world. The cash-strapped government has been successfully collaborating with corporates since 2014 for heritage maintenance after shunning them for decades. Source:   Indian Express National Gallery of Modern Art Syllabus Prelims – Indian Art and Culture Context: Prime Minister visited the National Gallery of Modern Art, New Delhi for viewing the exhibition ‘Jana Shakti: A Collective Power’ which celebrates the artistic diversity of India and is inspired by the themes highlighted in Prime Minister’s popular radio programme Mann ki Baat. About NGMA: The National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA) is the premier art gallery which aims to acquire and preserve works of modern art from 1850s onward. It is run and administered as a subordinate office to the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. Its collection includes works by artists such as Raja Ravi Verma, Rabindranath Tagore, Abanindranath Tagore, Gaganendranath Tagore, Nandalal Bose, Jamini Roy, Amrita Sher-Gil as well as foreign artists like Thomas Daniell. The main museum in New Delhi was established in 1954 by the Government of India. NGMA has two other branches, one at Mumbai and another at Bangalore. Source:   PIB Indian Ocean Conference (IOC) 2023 Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: The sixth international Indian Ocean Conference (IOC) began in Dhaka, Bangladesh. About the 6th IOC: The theme of this year’s conference is ‘Peace, Prosperity and Partnership for a Resilient Future’ due to the post-Covid situation and the ongoing Russia-Ukraine war. About IOC: The Indian Ocean Conference (IOC) was started in 2016 It has emerged as the “flagship consultative forum” for countries in the region over regional affairs. The conference aims to strengthen partnerships with Indian Ocean countries, enhance regional political engagement, and facilitate decision-making in crisis situations. The conference aims to bring critical states and principal maritime partners of the region on a common platform to deliberate upon the prospects of regional cooperation for Security And Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR). Source: NewsOnAir Sahyadri Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: 374 animals recorded in wildlife census at Sahyadri Tiger Reserve. About Sahyadri Tiger Reserve: The Sahyadri Tiger Reserve is located in the Sahyadri Ranges of Western Ghats in Maharashtra. These ranges from a common boundary between Maharashtra, Karnataka and Goa. Vegetation: It comprises of rich evergreen, semi-evergreen and moist deciduous forests. The habitat of Sahyadri is composed of woodlands, grasslands and plateau. The most distinct feature of the Tiger Reserve is the presence of numerous barren rocky and lateritic plateaus, locally called “Sadas”, with less perennial vegetation and over hanging cliffs on the edges along with numerous fallen boulders with dense thorny bushes. It is the first Tiger Reserve of Western Maharashtra and the fourth Tiger Reserve of the State spreading over two Protected Areas of Koyana Sanctuary (KWLS) and Chandoli National Park (CNP). KWLS and CNP are part of the UNESCO World Natural Heritage Sites. Birdlife International has declared this area an ‘Important Bird Area’. CNP has a number of ecotone areas and is thus highly species rich. Fauna: The Tiger Reserve is home to the endangered species of top carnivores such as Tiger, Wild dog, and Leopard. As many as 30 species of mammals have been recorded. In addition, the area is home to Vultures and Crocodiles. The habitat also supports Hornbills, and many other endemic Birds. The Blue finned Mahasheer fish is present in the Koyana waters. Source:  Times of India Greenwashing Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy and Environment) Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will join 12 international regulators in the Global Financial Innovation Network (GFIN)’s first-ever Greenwashing TechSprint to develop a tool to help regulators and the market effectively tackle the risks of greenwashing in financial services. About Greenwashing: Greenwashing refers to misleading the general public into believing that companies, sovereigns or civic administrators are doing more for the environment than they actually are. This may involve making a product or policy seem more environmentally friendly or less damaging than it is in reality. The term was coined by environmentalist Jay Westervelt in 1986. The phenomenon came into practice as consumers and regulators increasingly sought to explore planet-friendly, recyclable and sustainable ‘green’ products. By 2015, 66% of consumers were willing to shell out more for a product that was environmentally sustainable. Examples: In April 2022, the S. Federal Trade Commission penalised retailers Kohl and Walmart $5.5 million for misleading customers about their home furnishing products being made of bamboo. In reality, they were made of rayon — a fibre made from cellulose whose manufacturing entails the use of harmful chemicals such as sodium hydroxide that are hazardous to the environment. Why does greenwashing happen? Greenwashing is done primarily for a company to either present itself as an ‘environment-friendly’ entity or for profit maximisation. It is achieved by introducing a product, catering to the inherent demand for environment-friendly products. In certain instances, it is done using the larger idea as a premise to cut down on certain operational logistics and providing consumer essentials. Criticism against green washing: At the COP27 conference, Secretary-General of the United Nations (U.N.), António Guterres said, “We must have zero tolerance for net-zero greenwashing.” Although several companies, cities, states and regions have committed to reaching net-zero, in the absence of regulation, a lot of these pledges are not aligned with the science to achieve the same and do not have enough detail to be credible. Additionally, the inconsistent use of terms ‘net-zero’, ‘net-zero aligned’, ‘eco-friendly’, ‘green’ and ‘ecological’ among others are not accompanied with satisfactory evidence to substantiate their claims. If greenwash premised upon low-quality net zero pledges is not addressed, it will undermine the efforts of genuine leaders, creating both confusion, cynicism and a failure to deliver urgent climate action. Green washing and financial sector: Ethical investing: Sustainable investing has become increasingly popular among millennials and impact investors concerned with ‘ethical investing’. Role of ESG credentials: Financial services providers expect increased scrutiny of a company’s Environmental, Social and Governance (ESG) credentials from regulators, shareholders, customers as well as other stakeholders. Transition funding: Financial institutions are expected to fund the transition towards renewable energy and discourage investments in further harnessing of conventional energy sources as coal, oil and gas. Policy moves in India If the financial sector is to respond effectively to the demand for products that endeavour to introduce positive changes into the economy, it is imperative that ‘greenwashing’ is averted. In May 2022, market regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) constituted an advisory committee to look into all ESG-related matters. Suggestive measures to combat ‘greenwashing’: Non-state actors cannot claim to be net-zero while they continue to build or invest in new fossil fuel supply. Thus, companies must work towards reducing emissions across their entire value chain and not limit the endeavour to only one part of the chain. Companies must not invest, through any means, in harnessing fossil fuels or engage in deforestation and other environmentally destructive activities. In addition to this, companies cannot compensate for this investment by means of cheap credits, which “often lack integrity”. For perspective, carbon credits work as a permit allowing the holder to emit a stipulated amount of carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases. The committee also recommends a transition from voluntary disclosures (pertaining to net emissions) to regulatory norms. Verification and enforcement in a voluntary space can be particularly challenging. Source:  The Hindu About Global Financial Innovation Network (GFIN) The GFIN is the international network of financial regulators and related organisations committed to supporting financial innovation in the best interests of consumers. The Global Financial Innovation Network (GFIN) was formally launched in January 2019 by an international group of financial regulators and related organisations. The GFIN is a network of over 70 organisations committed to supporting financial innovation in the interests of consumers. It seeks to provide a more efficient way for innovative firms to interact with regulators, helping them navigate between countries as they look to scale new ideas. This includes the ability to apply to join a pilot for firms wishing to test innovative products, services or business models across more than one jurisdiction. The GFIN also aims to create a new framework for co-operation between financial services regulators on innovation related topics, sharing different experiences and approaches. The world bank group, OECD and IMF are observers of GFIN. Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: India chose to join the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) but declined the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP). About IPEF: It is the S.-led economic grouping representing 40 percent of the global GDP, proposes to advance resilience, economic growth, competitiveness and fairness in member countries. However, some analysts view it as a move to counter China’s growing influence in the region. It is to counter the influence of China in the region and fill the vacuum created by not being a partner to RCEP. Partner Countries: Australia, Brunei, India, Indonesia, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam and the United States. Within days of its launch, IPEF expanded its membership to the Pacific Island states, with Fiji joining the initiative. Pillars: The IPEF has four pillars: trade, supply chains, clean economy, and fair economy. India has joined the other three pillars but not trade. Significance of IPEF: Strategic importance: The US-led Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) is strategically important for India. It will enhance India’s economic engagement in the region. The IPEF will help control the damage caused by the RCEP withdrawal as all the IPEF members save India and the US are signatories to the RCEP. Supply chain building: Building resilient supply chains is one of the motives of the IPEF. India can consider members as alternative sources for its raw materials requirements. This could reduce India’s overdependence on China for these inputs. Challenges: Economic dependency on the US: India needs to ensure that its strategic partnership with the US does not result in complete economic dependency. The IPEF is about developing an integrated economic system centred on the US, and excluding China. Impact on manufacturing sector: The fear of any trade deal’s impact on India’s manufacturing sector remains a concern. With the IPEF, there is a risk of unfair labour and environment standards compromising India’s comparative advantage in manufacturing. Limited policy space: India joining the IPEF could lead to a compromise on its ability to create a vibrant domestic ecosystem in emerging areas such as the digital economy and green products. Joining the IPEF could mean surrendering policy space for regulating Big Tech and digital policy-making. Impact on agriculture: The IPEF could have deep implications in agriculture, especially in terms of genetically modified seeds and food. Rushed negotiations: The IPEF is proposed to be concluded by November 2023, and real engagements only began late last year. The rush to conclude negotiations could mean that India misses out on addressing key concerns and issues. Deep implications for India: The IPEF can already be seen to have deep implications in Agriculture, in terms of genetically modified seeds and food, Surrendering policy space for regulating Big Tech, and Compromising a comparative advantage in manufacturing because of unfair labour and environment standards. It will also seriously affect India’s ability to create a vibrant domestic ecosystem in emerging areas such as a digital economy and green products. Way Forward: India would stand to gain by being part of the supply chain initiative of the arrangement but it would need flexibility on the other initiatives. The one clear difference is of China versus the U.S. Developing a strategic partnership with the U.S. is India’s top foreign policy priority. Its relationship with China has, meanwhile, further deteriorated. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) This Protected Area lies in the Western Ghats. It has lateritic plateau called ‘Sada’ with less perennial vegetation and dense thorny bushes. It houses the Koyana Sanctuary (KWLS) and Chandoli National Park (CNP). It is the fourth Tiger Reserve of Maharashtra. Which of the following matches the above description? Sahyadri TR Tadoba-Andhari TR Melghat TR Bor TR Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Adopt a Heritage’ Scheme: It covers heritage sites only. This scheme is beyond the ambit of CSR. Public sector units are prohibited from adopting monuments under the scheme. How many of the above statements is/are correct? Only 1 statement is correct. Only 2 statements are correct. All 3 statements are correct. None of the statements are correct. Q.3) Consider the following statements about National Gallery of Modern Art NGMA only deals with artworks post 1850s. It is a statutory body. It is located at Delhi and does not have any branches. Which of the above statement(s) is/are true? Only 1 Only 2 and 3 Only 1 and 3 1, 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 16th May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 15th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 15th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Satavahana Syllabus Prelims – Ancient History Context: Explorers in Telangana recover artefacts which link Cherial village in Siddipet district to Satavahana period About the news: Field researchers have retrieved: several terracotta figurines of dolls, yakshini puppets, etc. pottery shreds of different designs, Colourful stone beads and terracotta beads which were part of ornaments during the Satavahana period. Coin from the Satavahana period. The coin bears the insignia of Ujjain on one side and Brahmi script on the other. Large bricks measuring 14 X 12 X 4 inches and figures of goddesses belong to the Ikshvaku as well as Satavahana periods. About Satavahanas: The Satavahanas came to power in the Deccan area after the decline of Mauryans in the region. The first king of the Satavahana dynasty was Simuka. Most glorious period under Gautamiputra Satkarni. Territorial spread: The Satavahana kingdom majorly comprised present Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Telangana. At times, their rule also included parts of Gujarat, Karnataka as well as Madhya Pradesh. Matronyms: The Satavahana kings used matronyms like Gautamiputra and Vaishishthiputra. This is a unique feature of Satavahana But this does not indicate that they were matriarchal or matrilineal in any sense. Multiple capitals: Two of the capitals were Amaravati and Pratishthana (Paithan). They assumed the title of Dakshinapatha Pati (Lord of Dakshinapatha). Grants: The Satavahanas started the practice of giving royal grants of land to Brahmans and Buddhist monks. For instance, the Karle inscription mentions the grant of Karajika village, near Pune, Maharashtra. Coins: The Satavahanas were the first native Indian kings to have issued their own coins. Gautamiputra Satakarni started this practice. Nahapana coins: Nahapana was a powerful Western Satraps king and the adversary of Gautamiputra Satkarni. Gautamiputa defeated him and more than 800 Nahapana silver coins (found near Nasik) bear the marks of being restruck by the Satavahana king. They mostly issued coins of lead, which is found on the Deccan and also coins of silver, copper and bronze. The coins had the portraits of rulers on them. These coins sometimes had bilingual legends, one side Prakrit and the other side in Tamil, Telugu or Kannada. Language: They patronised Prakrit more than Sanskrit. Sanskrit was rarely used. They used the Brahmi script. Religion: Even though the rulers were Hindus and claimed Brahmanical status, they supported Buddhism They revived Vedic Brahmanism and the corresponding rituals like the Ashvamedha yajna. Polity: The king was at the apex of the administrative hierarchy and considered the guardian of the established social order. The state was divided into aharas, each being governed by a minister called Amatya. The Satavahana kingdom had three grades of feudatories – Raja (who had the right to strike coins), Mahabhoja and Senapati. Art and architecture: Amravati Stupa was constructed by them. Paintings at Ajanta caves 9 and 10 are from Satavahana period. Major inscriptions: The earliest inscriptions of the Satavahans belong to the first century BCE when they defeated the Kanvas and established their power in parts of Central India. Nashik prashasti inscription by Gautami Balashri: It states that the horses of Gautamiputra drank waters of the “three oceans”(Arabian Sea, Bay of Bengal and Indian Ocean). It gives detailed account of Satavahana administration. Karle inscription: It mentions about donation of land to Buddhist monks. Source: Indian Express NOTA Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: In Karnataka elections, AAP receives fewer votes than NOTA. About NOTA: NOTA meaning ‘None of the Above’ options. It was incorporated by the SC through its judgement in People’s Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL) v. Union of India It has been an integral part of the Indian voting system for the past decade. The NOTA option was first used in the 2013 assembly elections held in four states — Chhattisgarh, Mizoram, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh and the Union Territory, Delhi. NOTA enables the voter to officially register a vote of rejection for all candidates who are contesting an election without violation of the secrecy of their decision. If a voter chooses to press NOTA on the EVM, it indicates that the voter has not chosen to vote for any party. Pre-NOTA period: Before NOTA option came into being, there was Section 49 (O) of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, which allowed voters to cast a negative vote. But such a vote was to be verified by the presiding officer. This provision was deemed unconstitutional by the SC as it did not protect the identity and choice of the voter. Under NOTA, the officials cannot find out the reason and the identity of the voter is also protected. In 2018, SC held that the NOTA option is meant only for universal adult suffrage and direct elections. Thus, NOTA is not applicable to Rajya Sabha elections. Issues with NOTA: First past the post system: As per RPA, 1951, the candidate who has polled the largest number of valid votes is to be declared elected by the Returning Officer. Thus, if out of total 10,000 votes, 9999 voters select NOTA option and just one candidate gets a single vote, even then the latter wins from that constituency. No re-election: There has been a debate for re-election to be held in case the total number of NOTA votes crosses a certain percentage. But re-election would lead to wastage of already scarce government resources. No right to recall: Currently, Right To Recall does not exist in the Indian electoral process and this weakens NOTA as the candidates are sure they won’t face any consequences. Limited use: So far, only a small number of Indian voters have come to see NOTA as an instrument of protest. NOTA has its limitations, but it has provided the voters with democratic means of NOTA to express their resentment rather than boycotting the polls outright. NOTA will become a meaningful means of negative voting only if it becomes a ‘right to reject’ rather than being a symbolic instrument to express resentment as it is now. Source:  The Hindu United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF) Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Discussions on integrated policies on sustainable forest management (SFM) and energy to meet the United Nations-mandated Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) took centre stage at the United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF18). About UNFF: The United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF) was established in 2000 with the primary goal of promoting “the management, conservation, and sustainable development of all types of forests and to strengthen long-term political commitment to this end” based on the Rio Declaration, the Forest Principles, Chapter 11 of Agenda 21, and the Intergovernmental Panel on Forests (IPF) report. It is a subsidiary body created by the UN Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). Every Member State of the United Nations as well as specialized agencies make up the Forum’s universal membership. The Collaborative Partnership on Forests (CPF), a grouping of 15 forest-related international organizations, institutions and convention secretariats, was established in April 2001, to support the work of the UNFF. Because of UNFF, in 2007, the UN General Assembly adopted the ‘Non-Legally Binding Instrument on All Types of Forests’, updating it to the ‘United Nations Forest Instrument’ in 2015.  Source:  DTE UK to give long-range Storm Shadow cruise missiles to Ukraine Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: The United Kingdom will provide long-range Storm Shadow cruise missiles to Ukraine to push back invading Russian forces. About Storm Shadow cruise missile: Storm Shadow is a long-ranged, air-launched, conventionally armed, deep-strike cruise missile. It is manufactured by the France-based MBDA Missile Systems. Range: More than 250 km. It’s capable of being operated day and night in all weathers. It is designed to destroy high-valued stationary targets. The combination of its long-range, low altitude and supersonic speed makes it a stealthy weapon. It offers high precision deep strike capability as it features a sophisticated navigation system that includes inertial navigation (INS), global positioning system (GPS) and terrain reference navigation for better control over the path. The missile features the BROACH (Bomb Royal Ordnance Augmented Charge) warhead — a high-technology warhead, which first cuts the surface of the target, penetrates into it and then explodes. Source:   Indian Express Hammerhead sharks Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: As per study, Hammerhead sharks can hold their breath to survive almost freezing-cold waters during deep dives. About Hammer Shark heads: Hammerhead Sharks are characterized by a flattened hammer- or shovel-shaped head. These distinctive heads serve multiple purposes, including granting the sharks 360-degree vision as well as better hunting abilities. Distribution: They are widely distributed in tropical and temperate marine waters near the coasts and above the continental shelves. They may migrate seasonally, moving equatorward during the winter and poleward during the summer. Features: They have very impressive triangular, serrated teeth—like the edge of a saw’s blade. The hammerhead also has special sensors across its head that helps it scan for food in the ocean. Unlike many fish, hammerheads do not lay eggs. They are viviparous i.e. the female gives birth to young ones. Source: The New York Times Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), has embarked on a nationwide capacity building drive to augment thousands of Aadhaar operators across the country. About UIDAI: UIDAI was created with the objective to issue Unique Identification numbers (UID), named as “Aadhaar”, to all residents of India. Aadhaar was meant to be a document which is: robust enough to eliminate duplicate and fake identities, and authenticated and verifiable in an easy, cost-effective way. UIDAI is a statutory authority established under the provisions of the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016. Earlier, UIDAI was functioning as an attached office of the then Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) Ministry: It comes under the Ministry of Electronics & IT (MeitY) Under the Aadhaar Act 2016, UIDAI is responsible for: Aadhaar enrolment and authentication, including operation and management of all stages of Aadhaar life cycle, Developing the policy, procedure and system for issuing Aadhaar numbers to individuals and Perform authentication and To ensure the security of identity information and authentication records of individuals. Source:  Times of India Milkweed butterflies Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: A recent study by a team of researchers shed light on the migration patterns of Milkweed butterflies in southern India. About Milkweed butterflies: Milkweed butterflies are a diverse group of butterflies belonging to the brush-footed butterfly family. Brush-footed butterfly: Their forelegs are reduced in size and covered in fine hairs, giving them a brush-like appearance. These specialized legs are used for various functions, including perching and tasting. Diversity: There are approximately 300 species of milkweed butterflies, including the well-known and iconic Monarch butterfly. Distribution: Most milkweed butterfly species are found in the tropical regions of both the Old World (Europe, Africa, and Asia) and the New World (North America, South America, and the Caribbean). However, some species, such as the monarch butterfly and the queen butterfly, can also be found in temperate regions. Adult milkweed butterflies are typically large and exhibit vibrant colours. Their wings are usually long, with brownish or orange hues and distinctive black-and-white patterns. Flight and Migration: Milkweed butterflies have a slow flight pattern. Some species, like the monarch butterfly, undertake remarkable long-distance migrations to reach their breeding or overwintering grounds. Milkweed butterflies migrate westward from the Eastern Ghats and plains to the Western Ghats. When the summer rain cools southern India, the butterflies migrate eastwards into the Eastern Ghats and the plains. Feeding and defence mechanisms: Milkweed butterflies primarily feed on milkweed plants, hence the name. Milkweed plants contain acrid and milky juices that make the larvae and subsequent stages of milkweed butterflies unappetizing to predators. The combination of these distasteful characteristics and their conspicuous colouration serves as a defence mechanism to protect them. Source:  The Hindu U.S. Debt ceiling standoff Syllabus Prelims – Defence Context: The United States hit its debt ceiling of $31.4 trillion forcing the Treasury Department to initiate “extraordinary measures” to ensure that the federal government keeps paying its bills and can stave off default until June — when it will run out of funds. About U.S. Debt ceiling: The debt ceiling is the maximum amount the U.S. government can borrow to fulfil its financial obligations. The US Federal Government borrows money due to the budget deficit where expenditure is greater than revenue. It was introduced in 1917 during World War I. The Government borrows by issuing debt securities like bonds to investors and a large part of the money is kept by the US government for social security schemes, Medicare, federal pensions, etc. The government will default on debt if it runs out of cash, extraordinary measures are exhausted and the debt ceiling is not raised. The stand-off is recurring because Congress does not have the entire amount of funding when it approves programmes and there is a limit on borrowing by the treasury to pay for already borrowed programmes. For example, if Congress approves $100 of spending, then $70 comes in taxes and for the rest of the amount due to the debt ceiling the government can only borrow $15. What will happen if the debt ceiling is breached? If the Congress failed to raise the debt limit by June, the government would default on its debt, which might trigger an economic catastrophe. Once the debt default happens, the dollar would weaken, the stock markets would collapse, and thousands of people might lose their jobs. T This would also make investors demand much higher interest rates in the future to loan money to the government. Has the US breached the debt ceiling earlier? No, the US has never breached the debt ceiling so far. However, experts suggest that even approaching debt default might severely impact the economy in the longer run. The US government has faced the threat of breaching the debt limit multiple times and Congress has always acted to either permanently raise, temporarily extend, or revise the definition of the debt limit. Source:  Financial Express Should India consider phasing out nuclear power? Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: There are questions on whether nuclear power, with its attendant concerns on cost and safety, remains a relevant option for a future that is fossil-free, particularly in India. About Nuclear Energy: Nuclear energy is the energy source found in an atom’s nucleus, or core. Once extracted, this energy can be used to produce electricity by creating nuclear fission in a reactor through two kinds of atomic reaction: nuclear fusion and nuclear fission. The Global Outlook for Nuclear Power: There has been a renaissance of sorts for nuclear power in the last two years, with even Europe and the US looking at it again, especially after the Ukraine war. China has been surging ahead on nuclear power, and South Korea’s new president has changed energy policy to increase the share of nuclear power in the country’s energy mix to 30% by 2030. Japan, despite having faced the Fukushima accident, has restarted reactors and plans to start ten more. This is because Japan would have had to depend on expensive imported coal or natural gas (LNG) otherwise. Even the UK has said that scaling up nuclear power is essential for decarbonizing the electricity sector. India’s Nuclear Power: India currently has 22 nuclear reactors with over a dozen more projects planned. All the existing reactors are operated by the state-owned Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL). Nuclear power currently comprises 3% of India’s total electricity generation and the current policy targets a three-fold rise in nuclear-installed capacity by 2032. The present installed nuclear power capacity is set to increase from 6,780 MW to 22,480 MW by 2031 on progressive completion of projects under construction and accorded sanction. Law governing nuclear liability Convention on Supplementary Compensation (CSC): The umbrella Convention on Supplementary Compensation (CSC) was adopted in 1997 with the aim of establishing a minimum national compensation amount. The amount can further be increased through public funds, (to be made available by the contracting parties), should the national amount be insufficient to compensate for the damage caused by a nuclear incident. India’s Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act (CLNDA): Even though India was a signatory to the CSC, Parliament ratified the convention only in 2016. To keep in line with the international convention, India enacted the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act (CLNDA) in 2010, to put in place a speedy compensation mechanism for victims of a nuclear accident. The CLNDA provides for strict and no-fault liability on the operator of the nuclear plant, where it will be held liable for damage regardless of any fault on its part. Advantages of Nuclear Power: Efficient power supplier: Nuclear power has higher energy density as it requires a lesser quantity of fuel than other sources of power like coal or natural gas based power plants. It is especially suitable for space missions which must not have bulky cargo, making it difficult for them to escape the earth’s gravity. Co-existence with other power sources: A lot of countries claim that nuclear power would be good to have in the mix because it is firm, dispatchable power, while wind and solar are intermittent or variable. Firm power is the power that can be sent to the electric grid to be supplied whenever needed. Efficiency of newer machines: Older designs required active cooling pumps, but the world now has systems which, even if the power fails, will gradually and gracefully control temperature, waste-heat, etc. The worst sort of accident in history, Chernobyl, was a design that will never get repeated again. Challenges Associated with Nuclear Power: Safety Concerns: The safety of nuclear power plants is a significant concern, mainly due to the catastrophic consequences of nuclear accidents. The accidents at Chernobyl and Fukushima are still fresh in people’s minds. Even though nuclear safety has improved since then, the potential for human error, natural disasters, or other incidents leading to nuclear accidents cannot be ignored. Nuclear Proliferation: The enrichment of uranium for nuclear fuel production can also be used to develop nuclear weapons. Therefore, countries that have nuclear power plants must be extremely cautious about the safety and security of their nuclear facilities to prevent the proliferation of nuclear weapons. Liability Issues: Nuclear liability is a significant sticking point for many countries. In the event of a nuclear accident, the question of liability arises. This issue has been a stumbling block for India’s deal with France to install European Pressurized Reactors at Jaitapur, Maharashtra. Cost Overruns: The cost of building and operating nuclear power plants is another significant challenge. The cost of nuclear power plants is higher than the cost of alternative sources of energy such as solar and wind power. Radioactive Waste: Nuclear power plants generate radioactive waste that needs to be safely disposed of to avoid environmental contamination. The disposal of nuclear waste is a contentious issue, with no satisfactory solution found yet. Way Forward: While there are concerns about the safety, cost, and waste associated with nuclear power, it remains a low-carbon source of base-load power. India’s energy mix is dominated by coal, which has significant environmental and health impacts. Phasing out nuclear power could result in an increased reliance on coal, which would have severe environmental and health consequences. Therefore, nuclear power should remain a part of India’s energy mix, at least in the short to medium term. However, India should continue to invest in renewable energy sources such as solar and wind power to reduce its reliance on fossil fuels in the long term. Source: The Hindu Model Prisons Act 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Ministry of Home Affairs has prepared the ‘Model Prisons Act 2023’ on the recommendations of the Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPRD). About Model Prisons Act 2023: Model Prisons Act 2023 has assimilated the relevant provisions of ‘The Prisons Act, 1894’, ‘The Prisoners Act, 1900’ and ‘The Transfer of Prisoners Act, 1950’. These three acts will be replaced by the Model Prisons Act 2023. It will serve as a “guiding document” for the States, and for adoption in their jurisdiction. It aims to overhaul the prison administration, with focus on the reformation and rehabilitation of inmates. Some salient features of the new Model Prisons Act are as follows: Security: Provision for security assessment and segregation of prisoners, individual sentence planning, grievance redressal, prison development board, attitudinal change towards prisoners. Accommodation: Provision of separate accommodation for women prisoners, transgender, etc. Technology: Provision for use of technology in prison administration with a view to bring transparency in prison administration. Provision for video conferencing with courts, scientific and technological interventions in prisons, etc. Provision of punishment for prisoners and jail stay for use of prohibited items like mobile phones etc. in jails. Open jail: Provision regarding establishment and management of high security jail, open jail (open and semi open), etc. Protection for society: Provision for protecting the society from the criminal activities of hardened criminals and habitual offenders, etc. Legal aid: Provision for legal aid to prisoners, provision of parole, furlough and premature release etc. to incentivise good conduct. Skill development: Focus on vocational training and skill development of prisoners and their reintegration into the society. Present Legal Status: Constitution: ‘Prisons’/’persons detained therein’ is a “State-List” subject under Entry 4 of List II of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. Administration and management of prisons and prisoners is the responsibility of respective State Governments. Laws: The Prisons Act of 1894 is a pre-independence era Act and is almost 130-years-old. Two other related laws — The Prisoners Act, 1900 and The Transfer of Prisoners Act, 1950 are also decades-old. There is also the Repatriation of Prisoners Act, 2003. Types of Jails: The number of jail establishments in India stood over 1,000 which are categorised as Central Jails, District Jails, Sub-Jails, Juvenile and Women Jails as well as open Jails/Camps. Present issues with Prisons in India: Issues with existing laws: The existing Act mainly focuses on keeping the criminals in custody and enforcement of discipline and order in prisons. There is no provision for reform and rehabilitation of prisoners in the existing Act. Undertrial: Bulk of the inmates comprises undertrial prisoners. These are often people from disadvantaged backgrounds involved in minor and technical violations of the law who are incarcerated due to their inability to pay for bail and/or for good legal representation. Overcrowding: Jails India suffer from serious overcrowding. India’s prison population stood at 331,391 as on 31.12.2004 reflecting a jail population of 30 per hundred thousand Indians and jail occupancy levels stood at 139% of capacity. Poor conditions: The situation in many prisons is appalling enough to be considered a violation of human dignity as well as the basic human rights of the inmates. Convicts are imprisoned for long periods in crumbling buildings with inadequate accommodation and sanitary facilities. Privileges for powerful people: Paradoxically, a few individuals, who are powerful are allowed to enjoy extraordinary facilities not permitted under the rules. Misuse of Parole: The issue of misuse of the provisions for parole and for remission of sentences has significant implications for public order because indiscriminate and reckless grant of parole or remission of sentences can impact public order adversely. Suggestive Measures: Addressing the issue of prison overcrowding by exploring alternatives to incarceration for non-violent offenders, such as diversion programs and community-based sentencing. Legal Aid and Access to Justice: Ensuring that prisoners have access to legal aid and representation to protect their rights and facilitate fair trials. Promoting awareness among inmates about their legal rights and avenues for seeking redress. Prison Healthcare: Enhancing healthcare services within prisons, including mental health support and substance abuse treatment programs. Women and Children in Prisons: Creating gender-responsive policies and separate accommodations for women prisoners, ensuring their safety, privacy, and access to reproductive health services. Community Reintegration: Collaborating with community-based organizations, NGOs, and vocational training institutes to support the reintegration of released prisoners into society. Technology and Digital Solutions: Leveraging technology to improve prison management, record-keeping, and communication systems. Source: The Hindu About Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D) Established in: 1970. Headquarters at New Delhi. Comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs It is a multifaceted, consultancy organisation which works for the modernisation of police forces. It has 4 divisions – Research, Development, Training and Correctional Administration. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1)The Karle and Nashik inscriptions talk about which dynasty? Satavahana Rashtrakuta Chalukya Chola Q.2) Consider the following statements: There was no way to register a negative vote before NOTA. If NOTA has the highest share of votes in an election, it is mandatory to go for a re-election. NOTA is applicable only to Lok Sabha and not Rajya Sabha. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 Only 2 and 3 Only 3 Only 1, 2 and 3 Q.3) Consider the following statements about UN Forum on Forests (UNFF): It was established by UNEP. It aims to promote the management, conservation, and sustainable development of all types of forests. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 15th May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 13th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – a  Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[CURRENT AFFAIRS] IAS UPSC REVAMPED Current Affairs Magazine April 2023

Archives Hello Friends,This is April 2023 of IASbaba’s REVAMPED Current Affairs Monthly Magazine. Current Affairs for UPSC Civil Services Examination is an important factor in this preparation.An effort towards making your Current Affairs for IAS UPSC Preparation qualitative. We hope you make the best use of it!This edition covers all Important current affairs issues that were in the news for the month of April 2023.Kindly leave your feedback in the comment section below on the new design and presentation of the magazine. We would love to hear from you! Download The Magazine - April 2023 Important Topics Covered In The Magazine Includes: 50 years of Kesavananda Bharati case Brain economy Glacial Retreat: Causes and Impact Genome Sequencing and the Genome India Project Global Food Policy Report 2023 Earth4All Initiative PSLV-C55 mission And Much More.... Download The Magazine - April 2023 To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow-TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccountYOUTUBE – https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQFACEBOOK – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/Also, SUBSCRIBE to the WEBSITE Below, so that you don’t miss out on important posts!Thank YouIASbaba

मासिक पत्रिका फ़रवरी 2023 – हिन्दी IASbaba सामयिकी

Archives Hello Friends,This is फ़रवरी/February 2023 of IASbaba’s REVAMPED Current Affairs Monthly Magazine. Current Affairs for UPSC Civil Services Examination is an important factor in this preparation.An effort towards making your Current Affairs for IAS UPSC Preparation qualitative. We hope you make the best use of it!This edition covers all Important current affairs issues that were in news for the month of फ़रवरी/February 2023.Kindly leave your feedback in the comment section below on the new design and presentation of the magazine. We would love to hear from you! Download The Magazine - फ़रवरी/February 2023 Important Topics Covered In The Magazine Includes: Significance of Tribal Culture in Sustainable Development Data Protection Bill The Problems associated Solar Energy in India India-South Korea Relations Deep-Sea Mining Cyberattacks And Much More.... Download The Magazine - फ़रवरी/February 2023 To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow-TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccountYOUTUBE – https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQFACEBOOK – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/Also, SUBSCRIBE to the WEBSITE Below, so that you don’t miss out on important posts!Thank YouIASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Palak Lake Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a Nature walk was organised along Palak Lake in  Mizoram. About Palak Lake:-   IMAGE SOURCE: Mizoram map showing the location of nest boxes | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) Palak Lake is the largest natural lake in Mizoram. (UPSC CSE: Assam-Mizoram border dispute ) It is situated near Phura village which is about 391 km to the south of Aizawl. The Palak Lake wetland conservation area falls under the Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot. It is rich in biodiversity. It is oval in shape and covers about 1 square km. It is surrounded by lush virgin forests rich in flora and fauna. It is home to most of the common wetland birds and hill birds  (UPSC MAINS: Wetland Conservation) It is believed to be a winter stop-over for migrating Pintail Duck. A few elephants still roam the surrounding virgin forests. National Museum of Natural History (NMNH):- The National Museum of Natural History (NMNH) is located in New Delhi, India. It was established in 1972. It opened its doors to the public on 5th June 1978, coinciding symbolically with World Environment Day. It works under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India. It is an institution devoted to environmental education. It derives its strength principally from theme-based exhibition galleries and experiential resource centres. Objectives:- To extend its activities at the regional/local levels. To develop museum-based educational projects. To develop environmental education resource materials (such as audio-visual aids, low-cost teaching aids, school loan kits, etc.) to promote environmental education To develop national and international cooperation with other organizations, professional bodies or museums. National Centre for Sustainable Coastal Management (NCSCM):- It is under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. It undertakes studies and research in the area of Coastal Zone Management including coastal resources and environment. It is located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu. Objective:- It aims to promote integrated and sustainable management of the coastal and marine areas in India. It works for the benefit and well-being of the traditional coastal and island communities. It also intends to promote sustainable coasts through increased partnerships. Role:- It has various research divisions including, Geospatial Sciences, Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems (GIS), Coastal environmental impact assessment, Conservation of Coastal & Marine Resources, etc. Survey of India and NCSCM have mapped the Hazard Line for the entire coast of India. It also advises the Union and State Governments and other associated stakeholders on policy, and scientific matters related to Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM). National Institute of Himalayan Environment:- It was established in 1988-89 as an autonomous Institute. It is under the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change (MoEF&CC), Govt. of India. It is identified as a focal agency to:-  advanced scientific knowledge  evolve integrated management strategies  demonstrate their efficacy for the conservation of natural resources  ensure environmentally sound development in the entire Indian Himalayan Region (IHR) The institute pays particular attention to the preservation of fragile mountain ecosystems, indigenous knowledge systems and sustainable use of natural resources. MUST READ: COP14 of Ramsar Convention on Wetlands SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With references to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are the names of (2021) Glaciers Mangrove areas Ramsar sites Saline lakes Q.2) What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati? (2019) Recently discovered uranium deposits Tropical rain forests Underground cave systems Water reservoirs Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, NTCA wrote to the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State to initiate action against illegal resorts and homestays in enclosures of BRT Tiger Reserve. About Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve:- IMAGE SOURCE: Location of Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve. Triangle… | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) It derives its name ‘BILIGIRI’  from the white rocky cliff on the top of which is a temple of Lord VISHNU locally known as Rangaswamy. In Kannada, Biligiri means white hills – hence the name. It is situated in the middle of the bridge between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats in South India. It was constituted as a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1974. (UPSC CSE: Wildlife Protection ) BRT Wildlife Sanctuary was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2011. (UPSC PRELIMS: Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS)) Flora:- The forests are principally of dry deciduous type and are interspersed with moist deciduous, semi-evergreen, evergreen and shola patches occurring at varying altitudes. Fauna:- Animals found here include tiger, elephant, leopard, wild dog, bison, sambar, spotted deer, barking deer, four-horned antelope, sloth bear, wild boar, common langur, bonnet macaque, varieties of reptiles, birds, etc. Tiger Reserves in Karnataka:- Karnataka has been declared as No.1 State in Tiger Population in the country.  At present the Tiger population is estimated around 300. As per India Tiger estimate 2010 conducted by the Ministry of Environment and Forests, Govt. of India. The State has 5 Tiger Reserves namely:-  Bandipur:- The park is situated at the foothills of the Western Ghats. It is known for its rich diversity of flora and fauna. It was established as a hunting reserve for the Maharajas of Mysore. In 1973, it was declared a national park.  It was designated as a tiger reserve in 1974 as part of Project Tiger. It is one of the highest tiger densities in India.  The park also has a significant population of other wildlife species such as elephants, leopards, dholes, and gaurs. Bhadra:- Parts of the current reserve were first declared as Jagara Valley Wildlife Sanctuary in 1951. In 1974 the area was expanded and named the Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary. In 1998 the sanctuary was included in the Project Tiger Network. Flora: Bhadra is the natural habitat of prized timber such as Teak and Rosewood. Forest Types: Tropical Moist Mixed Deciduous Forest, Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest, Semi-Evergreen Forest. Fauna: Tiger, leopard, elephant, gaur, sambar, barking deer, spotted deer, wild dog, wild boar, sloth bear, etc. Nagarahole:- It is also known as ‘Rajiv Gandhi National Park. It was established as a wildlife sanctuary in 1955. It was upgraded into a national park in 1988. It was declared as the 37th Tiger reserve under Project Tiger in 1999. The Park lies in the Western Ghats. It is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. The Nagarahole River flows through the park, which joins the Kabini River which also is a boundary between Nagarahole and Bandipur National Park. Flora: The vegetation consists mainly of moist deciduous forests with predominating trees of teak and rosewood. Fauna: Asian elephants, chital (spotted deer), Indian mouse deer, gaur, stripe-necked, leopard, tiger, and sloth bear among others. Dandeli-Anshi:- It was established in 1956 in the central portion of the Uttara Kannada (North Canara) district of Karnataka. In 1987, the state proposed carving out a section of the sanctuary to create the Anshi national park, which was implemented. The park area was expanded by 90 square kilometres when the final notification was issued in 2002. It was granted Project Tiger tiger reserve status in 2007. Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve MUST READ: Kali Tiger Reserve SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous? (2020) Kanha National Park Manas National Park Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary Fomalhaut Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, NASA’s James Webb Space Telescope uncovered a complex and fascinating dusty structure around the young star Fomalhaut. About Fomalhaut:- IMAGE SOURCE: JWST spies asteroid belt around star Fomalhaut | Popular Science (popsci.com) Fomalhaut is located 25 light-years from Earth It was one of the first exoplanets ever discovered in visible light by NASA’s Hubble Space Telescope in 2004. (UPSC PRELIMS: Exoplanets) Exoplanets: are the planets that orbit around stars other than the Sun. It is used in navigation because of its conspicuous place in a sky region otherwise lacking in bright stars. It is a white star, it has an apparent magnitude of 1.16. It lies in the southern constellation Piscis Austrinus, 25 light-years from Earth. It is the brightest star in the southern constellation Piscis Austrinus. (UPSC CSE: A star with a heartbeat & without a magnetic field discovered) It is surrounded by debris disks that are remnants of collisions between larger bodies, similar to asteroids and comets.  Astronomers proposed that Fomalhaut b was not a real planet but rather an expanding dust cloud left behind by a collision between two cometlike bodies. MUST READ: James Webb Space Telescope SOURCE: TIMES NOW PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years?(2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change The gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in a straight line The speed of light is always the same Q.2) Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘black holes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation? (2019) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected The possibility of intergalactic space travel through a ‘wormhole’ was confirmed It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’ Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) rolled out a module for automated scrutiny of GST returns. About Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC):- IMAGE SOURCE: indirect taxes India – Bing images Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs is a part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance. It is a statutory body established under the Central Boards of Revenue Act, of 1963. It was formed in 1964 when the Central Board of Revenue was split into the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) and the Central Board of Excise and Customs. Central Board of Excise and Customs was renamed the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs in 2018. It is the nodal national agency responsible for administering:- Customs GST (UPSC MAINS: GST- Five years on ) Central Excise Service Tax Narcotics in India. The Board is the administrative authority for its subordinate organizations, including Custom Houses, Central Excise and Central GST Commissionerate and the Central Revenues Control Laboratory. (UPSC MAINS: Tax administration in India) Functions performed by the CBIC include:- Formulation of policy concerning levy and collection of Customs, Central Excise duties, Central Goods & Services Tax and IGST. Prevention of smuggling. Administration of matters relating to Customs, Central Excise, Central Goods & Services Tax, IGST and Narcotics to the extent under CBIC’s purview. MUST READ: ( Tax-GDP ratio ) SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (2017) It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2017) Tax revenue as a per cent of the GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Fiscal deficit as a per cent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: DGCA recently, suspended an Air India pilot’s licence for three months after he violated safety norms. About Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA):- The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is a statutory body of the Government of India. It was formed under the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, of 2020. It comes under the Ministry of Civil Aviation. (UPSC CSE: New Director General of Bureau Of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) appointed) It aims to regulate civil aviation in India. It primarily deals with safety issues in civil aviation. Its headquarters are located in New Delhi. It has regional offices in various parts of India. Mandate: DGCA is responsible for the regulation of air transport services to/from/within India and for enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety, and airworthiness standards. (UPSC MAINS: Reforms In Civil Aviation Industry) Functions:- Registration of civil aircraft. Formulation of standards of airworthiness for civil aircraft registered in India and grant of certificates of airworthiness to such aircraft. Licensing of pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers and flight engineers, and conducting examinations and checks for that purpose. Licensing of air traffic controllers. Investigating accidents/incidents. Taking accident prevention measures. Coordination at the national level for flexible use of air space by civil and military air traffic agencies Interaction with ICAO for the provision of more air routes for civil use through Indian air space. Promoting indigenous design and manufacture of aircraft. MUST READ: International Air Connectivity Scheme (IACS) scheme SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Pokhran Tests Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: 25th anniversary of the Pokhran-II test was celebrated recently. About Pokhran Tests:- IMAGE SOURCE: Pokhran Tests and India’s Nuclear Journey (ilearncana.com) The foundation of India’s nuclear programme was laid by physicist Dr Homi J Bhaba. The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) was founded in 1954 with Bhabha as director. In May 1998, India conducted a series of nuclear tests at its Pokhran test site in the northwestern state of Rajasthan. The tests were hailed as a triumph of Indian science and technology. These tests also sparked widespread controversy and condemnation from the global community, leading to a period of diplomatic isolation and economic sanctions for India. Pokhran 1:- It was India’s first nuclear test. It was codenamed “Smiling Buddha”. It was conducted at the Pokhran site in 1974. Vikram Sarabhai (Bhaba’s successor at the DAE) contributed significantly to broadening India’s nuclear technology through these tests. It made India the first country outside of the five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council to conduct a nuclear test. The test was carried out under the leadership of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. It marked a significant step forward in India’s nuclear ambitions. The test was a “peaceful nuclear explosion” (PNE) intended for civilian purposes. However, it raised concerns in the international community about India’s nuclear intentions and led to widespread condemnation and sanctions. (UPSC MAINS: Pokhran gave India a strategic upper hand) Pokhran 2:- IMAGE SOURCE: Parmanu – The Story of Pokhran nuclear tests 1998 – HimBuds.com It was held in 1998, in Pokhran, Rajasthan. It was India’s second wave of nuclear tests. It was code-named “Operation Shakti”.  It included five nuclear explosions, over the course of three days.  It was under the leadership of Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.  A thermonuclear or hydrogen bomb was used in these tests. The world community widely condemned the tests, and the United States and other nations hit India with economic penalties as a result. The tests, however, enjoyed enormous popularity in India and were viewed as a source of national pride and technological advancement.   India’s nuclear doctrine (presented in 1999) since Pokhran-II:- It highlighted a credible minimum deterrence (CMD) and a no-first-use (NFU) policy, while concurrently supporting non-proliferation and universal disarmament. The sole purpose of India’s nuclear deterrence is to deter adversaries’ use or threat of use of nuclear weapons. (UPSC CSE: India’s Nuclear Doctrine) The policy changed India’s image and the US (once an adversary of India’s nuclear programme) signed a civil nuclear deal with India in 2008. It acknowledged India as a responsible nuclear player. MUST READ: The Return of nuclear weapons on the global platform SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India’s satellite launch  vehicles, consider the following statements: (2016) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct.? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Q.2) Which reference to Agni-IV Missile, the following statements is/are correct? (2014) It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Three-parent baby Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, a three-parent baby was born in the UK using IVF. About Three-parent Baby:- IMAGE SOURCE: Britain’s first three-parent baby is born: Procedure ‘marks the biggest leap forward since IVF created – Business Telegraph It s a technique to create to have a child without passing on Mitochondrial diseases caused by faulty mitochondria of the mother. Mitochondrial diseases: are long-term, genetic, often inherited disorders that occur when mitochondria fail to produce enough energy for the body to function properly. Mitochondria: the cellular structures that provide energy to cells. Mechanism:- Researchers do this by exchanging the diseased mitochondria of a prospective mother with those of a healthy, unrelated donor: the ‘third parent’. The procedure replaces a small amount of faulty DNA in a mother’s egg with healthy DNA from a second woman, so that the baby would inherit genes from two mothers and one father. The idea is to prevent certain genetic diseases from being passed on to children. The technique used is called ‘Maternal Spindle transfer’ in which maternal DNA is put into the egg of a donor woman, which is then fertilized using the father’s sperm. (UPSC CSE: Test Tube Babies) The procedure was developed to help existing IVF treatments in which mothers have mitochondrial diseases. In Vitro Fertilization (IVF): a medical procedure in which mature egg cells are removed from a woman, fertilized with male sperm outside the body, and inserted into the uterus of the same or another woman for normal gestation. (UPSC CSE: Surrogacy in India) Britain became the first country to allow for a three-parent baby and in 2017.  The first 3 parent baby was born. MUST READ: ART and surrogacy SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of the developments in Bioinformatics, the term ‘transcriptome’, sometimes seen in the news, refers to (2016) a range of enzymes used in genome editing the full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an organism the description of the mechanism of gene expression a mechanism of genetic mutations taking place in cells Q.2) The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the (2015) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 Visva-Bharati University Syllabus Prelims –ART and Culture Context: Visva-Bharati University is set to become the first living heritage university to receive the Unesco World Heritage tag. About Visva-Bharati University:- The university was set up by Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore in 1921 at Santiniketan, West Bengal. He called it Visva-Bharati, which means the communion of the world with India. Until independence, it was a college.  Soon after independence, the institution was given the status of a central university in 1951 by an act of the Parliament. Rabindranath Tagore’s philosophy about Viswa Bharti:- Rabindranath Tagore believed in open-air education. (UPSC CSE: Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE)) He had reservations about any teaching done within four walls. This was due to his belief that walls represent the conditioning of the mind. Tagore did not have a good opinion about the Western method of education introduced by the British in India. (UPSC CSE: School education) On this subject, Tagore and Gandhiji’s opinions matched. So, he devised a new system of learning in Visva-Bharati. Special feature of Visva Bharti:- He allowed students to continue their course till the student and his teacher both are satisfied. At Visva-Bharati, if a course demanded by a student is not available, then the university will design a course and bring teachers for that course. The university would not be bothered by the consideration of whether there is a demand for the course. MUST READ: India’s education emergency SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Anti-Conversion Legislation In India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Uttar Pradesh government has released figures regarding the Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Act Amid the ongoing controversy over The Kerala Story movie. The government said 427 conversion-related cases were reported between January 1, 2021, and April 30, 2023. Status of the anti-conversion law in India: There are several anti-conversion laws in India that regulate the conversion of one religion to another. These laws vary from state to state, and the specific provisions of the laws can differ significantly. Constitutional Provision: Article 25 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the freedom to practise, profess, and propagate any religion. It also grants all religious groups the right to control their own religious affairs, subject to public morality, health, and order. Existing Laws: Religious conversions have not been subject to any national restrictions or regulations. Private Member Bills to control religious conversions, however, have repeatedly been introduced in the Parliament since 1954 (but never passed by it). Additionally, the Union Law Ministry stated in 2015 that Parliament lacks the legislative authority to enact legislation prohibiting conversion. Several states have passed “Freedom of Religion” laws over the years to prohibit forced, fraudulent, or coerced conversions to another religion. In general, however, anti-conversion laws in India require that individuals seeking to convert to another religion must obtain permission from the government before doing so. Some states have more stringent anti conversion laws than others, and some states have provisions that specifically target certain religious groups or activities. In recent years, there has been significant controversy and debate over the use of anti-conversion laws in India. Some people argue that these laws are necessary to protect the cultural and social cohesion of the country, while others believe that they are used to suppress minority religions and violate the right to freedom of religion. The Supreme Court of India has ruled that anti conversion laws are constitutional as long as they are not used to interfere with an individual’s right to freedom of religion. However, there have been cases in which these laws have been used to target and persecute minority religious groups. Supreme Court’s Observations: The Supreme Court verdict in Rev. Stainislaus vs. State of Madhya Pradesh in the 1960s is frequently cited in matters involving religious freedom. Then Chief Justice of India A.N. Ray dissected Article 25 to hold that “the Article does not grant the right to convert other persons to one’s own religion but to transmit or spread one’s religion by an exposition of its tenets.” Recently, the Supreme Court emphasised that Forced religious conversions are “dangerous” and they affect the security of the nation. It urged the Union government to “step in” and apprise the court of the measures being taken to prevent such occurrences. Arguments in Favour of anti-conversion: These laws only ban and punish forceful religious conversion. Fundamental rights under Article 25 ‘Right to propagate a religion” did not extend to forced conversions. There is no fundamental right to convert another person to one’s own religion. Arguments against anti-conversion: According to some activists “Such laws are used to target religious minorities and interfaith couples”. These laws would be used to target even voluntary conversions, and curb the fundamental rights “Freedom of conscience” under Article 25. These Acts do not satisfy the test of reasonableness and fairness, and also go against the Fundamental rights under Article 14 and Article 21” of the Constitution. Right to Freedom of religion in India The Indian Constitution allows individuals the freedom to live by their religious beliefs and practices as they interpret these. In keeping with this idea of religious freedom for all, India also adopted a strategy of separating the power of religion and the power of the State Constitutional Provisions: Article 25: Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion Article 26: Freedom to manage religious affairs Article 27: Freedom to pay taxes for promotion of any particular religion Article 28: Freedom to attend religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions. Way Forward: The right to religion did not include the right to convert other people to a particular religion, especially through fraud, deception, coercion, allurement, and other means. The conversion laws must be strengthened and rightly so to stop the use of lures and force but they should not discriminate among religions while identifying the perpetrators. Source: The Hindu The problem with India’s multi-alignment stand Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: India’s strategic autonomy and policy of non-alignment have evolved into a multi-alignment approach. About India’s multi-alignment stand Origin of India’s non-alignment stand: There has been a progressive evolution in Indian thinking on forming and joining regional economic and security groupings, since the days New Delhi declared itself as “Non-Aligned” in the 1950s. India, thereafter, remained a leading player in the “Non-Aligned Movement” (NAM). The 120 members of NAM professed that they would not get drawn into “Great Power” rivalries between the US and USSR. India’s current multi-alignment stand: With Russia: The disintegration of the Soviet Union in the 1990s led to new groupings and alliances. But we are now happily in a position where we are partners, in different ways, with all major global power centres. Economics and economic integration play a far more central role as bridges of cooperation today. West Asia: The most notable decision taken in recent days was after the first summit meeting of the recently established I2U2 grouping, comprising India, Israel, the US and the UAE. This was the first time when India and the US partnered two West Asian countries to focus cooperation on use of water resources, food security, health, transportation and space. USA and QUAD: India finds itself linked with the US and Japan far more closely than in the past, in a world order which is becoming more China-centric than in the past. This has been the rationale of Quadrilateral Security Dialogue or QUAD, comprising Australia, India, Japan and the US. Southeast Asian Nations: While India has a free trade agreement (FTA) with ASEAN, New Delhi has chosen, for understandable reasons, not to join the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP), containing 15 East Asian and Pacific nations, including ASEAN members, Australia, New Zealand and China. Eurasia: India holds membership of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), which is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation of Eurasian Nations with a secretariat in Beijing. India’s view on Ukraine-Russia Conflict: India has been actively engaging with Ukraine and expressing solidarity with the Nation in the face of the ongoing conflict with Russia. This is in contrast to China’s move with Moscow in order to cement China’s relationship with Russia. India has been committed to supporting peace efforts in Ukraine and sees itself as a mediator in the conflict. The United States sees this engagement as important because it aligns with its own response to the conflict and helps to bring the two countries’ positions into closer alignment. Reasons for India’s ambiguity: India’s position on the Ukraine war is nuanced and reflects a balancing act between its traditional ties with Russia and its democratic values. While India has expressed disapproval of Russia’s military actions in Ukraine. it has avoided taking a clear position on the issue in many UN resolutions, which may be due to India’s military and geopolitical dependence on Russia. However, India’s views on sovereignty align with universally acceptable Westphalian notions and clash with China’s political philosophy of ‘might is right,‘ which has led to China’s support for Russia in the conflict. Problem with India’s multi-alignment stand India lacks hard power .It has been recently argued that had India been adequately powerful it could have stopped the Ukraine conflict. While India has  expressed disapproval of the Ukraine war but it has avoided taking any clear positions in several UN resolutions. This is understandable that India has often taken an evasive position on conflicts that involve traditional allies. However critics argue that  India’s ambiguity does not behove a nation aspiring to become  a permanent member of the UNSC, which implies a commitment to speak as  a global voice against territorial aggression and human rights violations like the case of the Russia -Ukraine conflict. This is based on the military dependence of India as it is on the anti-colonial standard of India’s strategic autonomy doctrine. Way Forward: A pursuit of ‘multi-alignment’ may have given New Delhi some diplomatic space in the ongoing war in Ukraine.  However, it may not be sufficient for India to play the role of a mediator between Russia and Ukraine. India currently lacks the material resources to match the extent of China’s economic and military potential. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA): It is a statutory body of the Government of India. It comes under the Ministry of Civil Aviation. Its headquarters are located in Hyderabad. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC): It is a statutory body. It comes under the ministry of Commerce and Industry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Q.3) The palak lake often mentioned in the news located in Manipur Mizoram Assam Jharkhand Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 12th May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 11th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here