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IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – Essay Questions [12th July, 2023] – Day 31

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 31 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

[CURRENT AFFAIRS] IAS UPSC REVAMPED Current Affairs Magazine June 2023

Archives Hello Friends,This is June 2023 of IASbaba’s REVAMPED Current Affairs Monthly Magazine. Current Affairs for UPSC Civil Services Examination is an important factor in this preparation.An effort towards making your Current Affairs for IAS UPSC Preparation qualitative. We hope you make the best use of it!This edition covers all Important current affairs issues that were in the news for the month of June 2023.Kindly leave your feedback in the comment section below on the new design and presentation of the magazine. We would love to hear from you! Download The Magazine - June 2023 Important Topics Covered In The Magazine Includes: Drug Abuse in India 22nd Law Commission and Uniform Civil Code India – US Relations Financial Inclusion in India Flash Floods in India Transgenic Crops in India And Much More.... Download The Magazine - June 2023 To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow-TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccountYOUTUBE – https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQFACEBOOK – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/Also, SUBSCRIBE to the WEBSITE Below, so that you don’t miss out on important posts!Thank YouIASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –11th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: Recently, the last date of submission for the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar was extended. Background:- The Ministry of Women and Child Development has extended the last date of submission for the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar till the 31st of August,2023. About Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar:- IMAGE SOURCE: noticebard.com The Awards are announced on December 26 on ‘Veer Bal Diwas’. Veer Baal Diwas: marks a tribute to the martyrdom of Guru Gobind Singh’s sons. (UPSC CSE: Parkash Purab of Sri Guru Gobind Singh Ji) The awards are conferred by the President of India at New Delhi at a special ceremony/function to be held in January every year. Historical Background: It was instituted in 1979 as the National Child Welfare Awards, renamed in 2018 as Bal Kalyan Puraskar. (UPSC CSE: Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA)) Objective: It is organized to celebrate the energy, determination, ability, zeal and enthusiasm of our children. Field: This national-level award is given in the fields of Bravery, Sports, Social Service, Science and Technology, Environment, Arts and Culture, and Innovation. Awarded by: Ministry of Women and Child Development. Eligibility:- A child who is an Indian Citizen and residing in India and is not exceeding 18 years (as of the last date of receipt of application/nomination). The act/incident/achievement should have been within 2 years of the last date of receipt of application/nomination for the year of consideration. The applicant should not be a previous recipient of the same award earlier in any category (including National Child Awards for Exceptional Achievement, as were awarded by the Ministry earlier) Nomination can be done by:- State Governments, Union Territory Administrations, District Collectors/District Magistrates, and Panchayati Raj Institutions. All Central and State School Boards, Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan, Navodaya Vidyalaya Sangathan, National Commission for Protection of Child Rights, State Commissions for Protection of Child Rights and National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child Development. Ministry of Social Justice, Department of Disabilities, Department of School Education in Ministry of Education, all state Departments of School Education, Ministry of Youth Affairs, Department of Sports, Sports Authority of India, Ministry of Culture, Ministry of Science and Technology, Ministry of Environment & Forests, Ministry of Defence, Ministry of Home Affairs, and Press Information Bureau. National Selection Committee. Selection Process The applications received are first scrutinized by the Screening Committee. The final selection is done by the National Selection Committee. Decoration:- Medal Cash prize of Rs. 1,00,000 Certificate and citation The Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar is given under two categories:- Bal Shakti Puraskar It is given by the Government of India every year to recognize exceptional achievements of children in various fieldse., innovation, scholastic achievements, social service, arts & culture, sports and bravery. Eligibility: A child who is an Indian Citizen residing in India and is between 5-18 years of age. Decoration: A medal, a cash prize of Rs. 1,00,000, book vouchers worth Rs.10,000, a certificate and a citation. Bal Kalyan Puraskar It is given as recognition to Individuals and Institutions, who have made an outstanding contribution towards service for children in the field of child development, child protection and child welfare. Eligibility: An individual who is an Indian Citizen residing in India and should have attained the age of 18 years or above (as of 31st August of the respective year). S/he should have worked for the cause of children for not less than 7 years. The institution should not be entirely funded by the government and should have been in the field of child welfare for 10 years and performing consistently in the field. MUST READ: Padma awards SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four INS Utkrosh Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: The Chief of Defense Staff, CDS, General Anil Chauhan inaugurated LRMR Hangar & Dispersal at Naval Air Station, INS Utkrosh in Port Blair. The twin hangar spread over 6000 sq. mt. can accommodate a combination of P8I aircraft with Dronier & Advanced Light Helicopters. It will help in strengthening the security of the Indian Oceans Region. About INS Utkrosh:- It is an Indian naval air station under the joint-services Andaman and Nicobar Command of the Indian Armed Forces. (UPSC CSE: SLBM launch by INS Arihant) Location: Port Blair, Andaman & Nicobar Islands. Commissioning: It was commissioned in This station operates the Do-228 maritime patrol aircraft and a SAR (Search & Rescue) flight of HAL Chetak helicopters. Maritime patrol aircraft (MPA): a fixed-wing aircraft designed to operate for long durations over water in maritime patrol roles. Search and rescue (SAR) service: provided to the survivors of aircraft accidents as well as aircraft in distress (and their occupants) regardless of their nationality. Significance:- The station handles courier flights from the mainland and civil flights to and from Port Blair. It shares airside facilities with Veer Savarkar International Airport which handles civilian traffic. The facilities at INS Utkrosh have been significantly upgraded. The runway has been lengthened to almost 11,000 feet (3,400 m). Except for the civilian terminal operated by the Airports Authority of India, all other air traffic operations over Port Blair are undertaken by INS Utkrosh. MUST READ: Kalvari-Class Submarine INS Vagir SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (2016) Amphibious warfare ship Nuclear-powered submarine Torpedo launch and recovery vessel Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier Directorate of Revenue Intelligence Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence seized over 48 kg of gold paste estimated to be worth 25 crore rupees at Surat international airport. Background:- DRI said that it has busted a smuggling syndicate by arresting the four persons. It said that based on specific intelligence, DRI officers intercepted three passengers arriving from Sharjah by an Air India Express Flight suspected to be carrying gold in paste form. About Directorate of Revenue Intelligence:- It is the apex anti-smuggling agency of India. (UPSC CSE: DRI) Implementing Agency: Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs, Ministry of Finance. The Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC) was renamed as the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) in 2018 after the rollout of Goods and Services Tax (GST). (UPSC CSE: GST) Established: 1957. Objective: It is tasked with detecting and curbing the smuggling of contraband, including drug trafficking and illicit international trade in wildlife and environmentally sensitive items, as well as combating commercial frauds related to international trade and evasion of Customs duty. HQ: New Delhi. The DRI has also been designated as the lead agency for Anti-Smuggling National Coordination Centre (SCord). (UPSC CSE: Problem of cross border smuggling in India) Functions of DRI:- Collection of intelligence about the smuggling of contraband goods, narcotics, under-invoicing etc. Analysis and dissemination of such intelligence to the field formations for action and working on such intelligence, where necessary. Keeping watch over important seizures and investigation cases. Associating or taking over the investigations which warrant specialized handling by the Directorate. Guiding important investigation/prosecution cases. Keeping liaison with foreign countries, Indian Missions and Enforcement agencies abroad on anti-smuggling matters. To keep liaison with C.B.I. and through them with the INTERPOL. To refer cases registered under the Customs Act to the Income Tax Department for action under the Income Tax Act. To keep statistics of seizures and prices/rates etc. To study and suggest remedies for loopholes in law and procedures to combat smuggling. MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Kharif crops Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Kharif crops took a severe hit by intense and unprecedented rainfall across India. Background:- Record-breaking, heavy to extremely heavy rainfall in different regions, especially in the northwestern states of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh, has now dealt a crushing blow by inundating the fields of already sown crops. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has advised farmers to drain out excess water from their fields so that standing crops are saved from rotting. About India Meteorological Department Established:1875. Ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences. HQ: New Delhi. It is the principal agency responsible for meteorological observations, weather forecasting and seismology. IMD is also one of the six Regional Specialized Meteorological Centres of the World Meteorological Organization. Regional Specialized Meteorological Centre (RSMC) of Tropical Cyclones in New Delhi is responsible for naming the cyclones in the northern Indian Ocean region. About Kharif crops:- IMAGE SOURCE: blogspot.com India is a peninsular country where the climate is mostly driven by monsoon. (UPSC CSE: North East Monsoon) Due to this reason, India is endowed with a variety of seasons. These seasons, in turn, provide different weather conditions to crops, which eventually lead to different cropping patterns. Based on seasons, crops are classified into the following: Kharif crops Rabi crops Zaid crops Kharif crops, are cultivated and harvested in the monsoon season. Naming: The word “Kharif” is Arabic for autumn since the season coincides with the beginning of autumn or winter. Sowing and Harvesting: These are sown at the beginning of a monsoon season and farmers harvest them at the end of the season. Time Period: The Kharif season differs in every state of the country but is generally from June to September. One of the important features of Kharif crops is that they need a lot of water and hot weather for proper growth. Kharif crops examples: Rice, Cotton, Maize etc. (UPSC CSE: Government announces hike in MSP for Kharif season) India is the second-largest producer of rice in the world after China. India accounts for approximately 20% of the world’s rice production. MUST READ: Agriculture Insurance Company of India (AIC) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following trees: (2023) Jackfruit (Artoca7pus heterophyllus) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger( Guizotia aoyssinica) seeds. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Yamuna Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: As per recent reports, evacuation of people from low-lying areas around the river Yamuna is to start soon. Background:- Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal announced that evacuation of people from low-lying areas around Yamuna will start once the river touches the 206-metre mark. About Yamuna:- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideShare Origin: It originates from the Yamunotri Glacier. Yamunotri Glacier: it lies on the southwestern slopes or Banderpoonch Peak, in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. Yamuna joins the Ganges (Ganga) River near Prayagraj (Allahabad). Drainage Basin: it flows along the states of Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and Haryana and enters Delhi and Uttar Pradesh. It is the largest tributary of the Ganga in the northern plains. (UPSC CSE: Cleaning of River Ganga) Total length: from its origin till Allahabad is 1,376 km. It creates the highly fertile alluvial, Yamuna-Ganges Doab region between itself and the Ganges in the Indo-Gangetic plain. Important Cities: The cities of Bhagpat, Delhi, Noida, Mathura, Agra, Firozabad, Etawah, Hamirpur, and Allahabad lie on its banks. (UPSC CSE: Sutlej-Yamuna Link Canal Project) Tributaries of Yamuna:- Yamuna is joined by its biggest tributary, the Tons River near Dehradun, Uttarakhand. Right bank tributaries: Chambal, Hindon, Sarda and Giri rivers. Chambal River is Yamuna’s biggest tributary right bank tributary. (UPSC CSE: National Chambal Sanctuary) Left bank tributaries: Betwa and Sindh. MUST READ: Yamuna Pollution SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake. Meandering of the Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? (2022) Cauvery Manjira Pennar Tungabhadra Mains: Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) Mechanisms Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Union government is set to launch an initiative under which women-only courts will be set up at the village-level. Alternative Dispute Resolution: ADR refers to the methods of resolving a dispute, which are alternatives for litigation in Courts. Generally, it uses a neutral third party who helps the parties to communicate, discuss the differences and resolve the dispute. It offers to resolve all types of matters related to civil disputes, as explicitly provided by the law. Important Provisions Related To ADR Section 89 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908: Provides that opportunity to the people, if it appears to court there exist elements of settlement outside the court then the court formulate the terms of the possible settlement and refer the same for ADRs. Legal Services Authority Act, 1987 (established Lok Adalat System) Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 Types of ADR Source:    https://viamediationcentre.org/readnews/NjI4/Modes-of-ADR Status of ADR in India Statutory Backing: The Legal Services Authorities Act was passed in 1987 to encourage out-of-court settlements, and the new Arbitration and Conciliation Act was enacted in 1996. Inclusion of Plea Bargaining: Procedure for plea-bargaining was included in the Code of Criminal Procedure in 2005. Plea-bargaining is best described as a “pre-trial negotiation between the accused and the prosecution during which the accused agrees to plead guilty in exchange for certain concessions by the prosecution.” Lok Adalats: Lok Adalat or “people’s court” comprises an informal setting which facilitates negotiations in the presence of a judicial officer wherein cases are dispensed without undue emphasis on legal technicalities. The order of the Lok-Adalat is final and binding on the parties, and is not appealable in a court of law. Online Dispute Resolution (ODR): The NITI Aayog in its recently released report – The Future of Dispute Resolution discusses the concept of Online Dispute Resolution (ODR) – its evolution, significance and present status in India. ODR refers to the usage of ICT tools to enable parties to resolve their disputes. In its first phase, ODR shares its fundamentals with ADR Mechanisms of negotiation, mediation and arbitration. Advantages of ADR: Amicable solution: It is a party-driven process, allowing litigants to reach an amicable settlement. Thus ADR mechanisms mainly focus on simplicity and convenience of the litigants. Speed of settlement: When compared to litigation, alternative dispute resolution devices, such as arbitration and mediation can clear a dispute within days if not months. Lok Adalats offer parties speed of settlement, as cases are often disposed of in a single day; Procedural flexibility: As there is no strict application of procedural laws such as the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, and the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 there is procedural flexibility for the parties; Economic affordability: Cases in courts can go on for years increasing the costs exponentially. ADR mechanism is much more cost effective as there are no court fees and significantly less lawyer fees. Finality of awards: No further appeal is allowed on the agreement reached between two parties. This prevents delays in settlement of disputes. Extra security of awards: The award issued by a Lok Adalat, after the filing of a joint compromise petition. It has the status of a civil court decree. Limitations No Appeals: There is less or no scope of appeal in awards. Whenever there is a problem with the award, there would be no scope of appeal or correction. Varied Guidelines: It is difficult to choose among various guidelines and multiple institutions providing the facility of arbitration. Different Statutes: Due to different statutes for domestic and international arbitration, it is difficult to ascertain the applicability of the laws relating to international arbitration. Cross-cultural Language Barrier: Due to discrepancy in the language and culture of the two regions, it becomes difficult to bridge the gap and come to a unified solution. Unfamiliarity and lack of awareness: Most people still prefer the conventional method of going to courts and are also not informed about these options and the methodology. Way Forward: The material and social situation of the litigants forces them to approach ADR mechanism, which is cost effective. However, such mechanism might not always be fair to all parties and may favour the mighty. when dealing with equal parties and in major economic matters, ADR mechanisms can lead to significant cost reductions and reduction of burden on the judiciary. Source:The Hindu Forest (Conservation) Amendment Bill, 2023 Syllabus Mains –GS 3 (Environment) Context: A parliamentary committee, set up to examine the controversial proposed amendments to the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, has endorsed the amendment Bill in its entirety. About Forest cover in India: Forest cover’, in India, refers to land greater than one hectare in size where the tree canopy density is greater than 10%. India’s total forest cover rose to 38,251 sq. km from 2001 to 2021. This increase was mainly in terms of open forest cover, where tree canopy density ranges from 10% to 40%. Forest cover in regions classified as ‘dense forest’ actually decreased during that period. The amendments which encourage plantation cultivation may increase tree cover, but will be unable to stem the loss of dense forests. Key Features of the Forest (Conservation) Amendment Bill, 2023: Land under the Purview of the Act : The Bill provides that two types of land will be under the purview of the Act: land declared/notified as a forest under the Indian Forest Act, 1927 or under any other law, or land not covered in the first category but notified as a forest on or after October 25, 1980 in a government record. Exempted Categories of Land; The Bill exempts certain types of land from the provisions of the Act, such as forest land along a rail line or a public road maintained by the government. Assignment/Leasing of Foreign Land Under the Act, a state government requires prior approval of the central government to assign forest land to any entity not owned or controlled by government. In the Bill, this condition is extended to all entities, including those owned and controlled by government. It also requires that prior approval be subject to terms and conditions prescribed by the central government. Permitted Activities in Forest Land: The Act restricts the de-reservation of forests or use of forest land for non-forest purposes. Such restrictions may be lifted with the prior approval of the central government. Non-forest purposes include use of land for cultivating horticultural crops or for any purpose other than reafforestation. The Act specifies certain activities that will be excluded from non-forest purposes, meaning that restrictions on the use of forest land for non-forest purposes will not apply. The Bill adds more activities to this list such as: zoos and safaris under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 owned by the government or any authority, in forest areas other than protected areas, ecotourism facilities, silvicultural operations (enhancing forest growth), and any other purpose specified by the central government. Power to Issue Directions: The Bill adds that the central government may issue directions for the implementation of the Act to any authority/organisation under or recognized by the centre, state, or union territory (UT). Controversial parts of the Amendment Dilution Concerns: Some critics argue that the amendments dilute the Supreme Court’s 1996 Godavarman case judgment, which extended protection to forests not officially classified as such. Geographically Sensitive Areas: Projects within 100 km of international borders or the Line of Control would no longer require forest clearance, which raises concerns about the environment and security. Deemed Forests and Tourism: Central protection for deemed forests and restrictions on activities like tourism could be compromised, affecting biodiversity conservation and forest integrity. Impact on Forest Cover: Exempting land near border areas for national security projects may adversely affect forest cover and wildlife in northeastern states, which have high forest cover and are biodiversity hotspots. Potential Adverse Effects: Blanket exemptions for projects like zoos, eco-tourism facilities, and reconnaissance surveys may have negative consequences for forest land and wildlife. Way Forward: The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Bill, despite attracting objections and controversies, has received the endorsement of the parliamentary committee. The proposed amendments aim to bring clarity to the Act’s applicability and promote tree cover, national security infrastructure, and livelihood opportunities. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Directorate of Revenue Intelligence suggest remedies for loopholes in law and procedures to combat smuggling. Statement-II: It collects intelligence about the smuggling of narcotics. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar can be given to a child who is an Indian Citizen not exceeding 20 years. Statement-II: It includes a medal, a cash prize of Rs. 1,00,000, a certificate and a citation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following pairs: River                                                                Origin Hindon                                                         Vindhya Range Yamuna                                                        Yamunotri Glacier Teesta                                                           Shivalik Hills How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Mains practice questions Q.1) Explain the various types of Alternative Dispute Resolution mechanisms available in India. What advantages do they offer over the traditional methods of settling disputes? (250 words) Q.2) The forest conservation Bill’s focus on raising ‘tradeable vertical repositories of carbon’ can jeopardise the very purpose of the Act, which is to protect and conserve India’s forests. Critically analyse. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 11th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 10th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) -d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – Essay Questions [11th July, 2023] – Day 30

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 30 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 10th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Performance Grading Index for Districts (PGI-D) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The Performance Grading Index for Districts (PGI-D) combined reports for 2020-21 and 2021-22 were released recently. About Performance Grading Index for Districts (PGI-D):- Released first: 2017-18. (UPSC CSE: Performance Grading Index) By: Department of School Education and Literacy (DoSE&L), Ministry of Education. Objective: to help the Districts to prioritize areas for intervention in school education and thus improve to reach the highest grade. The report the performance of the school education system at the District level by creating an index for comprehensive analysis. 83-indicator-based PGI-D has been designed to grade the performance of all districts in school education. Significance: The PGI-D is expected to help the state education departments to identify gaps at the district level and improve their performance in a decentralized manner. The indicator-wise PGI score shows the areas where a district needs to improve. Methodology The PGI-D structure comprises of total weightage of 600 points across 83 indicators. These are grouped under 6 categories viz., Outcomes, Effective Classroom Transaction, Infrastructure Facilities & Student’s Entitlements, School Safety & Child Protection, Digital Learning and Governance Process. These categories are further divided into 12 domains. PGI-D grades the districts into ten grades viz., Daksh and Akanshi-3. Daksh: it is the Highest achievable Grade for Districts scoring more than 90% of the total points in that category or Akanshi-3: The lowest grade in PGI-D, which is for scores up to 10% of the total points. PGI for districts report – 2020-21 & 2021-22 The Covid Pandemic has affected the performance of districts during 2020-21 to 2021-22 as compared to 2019-20. None of the districts attained the top two grades. 79 districts made consistent improvement in PGI-D scores in the last 4 years. In spite of the Covid pandemic at its peak in 2021-22, 290 districts have made a notable improvement in their performance when compared to 2019-20 (pre-pandemic) with 2021-22. Overall, 194 districts have made grade level improvement in 2021-22 as compared to 2018-19. MUST READ: Education & Aspiring India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. 3 . It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. 4 . Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’?(2017) To enable famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Syllabus Prelims –Governance and Economy Context: Recently, Delhi High Court dismissed PepsiCo’s plea against a revocation order on its Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) certificate for potato variety. Background:- The Delhi High Court on July 5, 2023, dismissed an appeal filed by PepsiCo India Holdings (PIH) against a 2021 order that had revoked the PVP (plant varietal protection) certificate granted to the company for a potato variety (FL-2027). (UPSC CSE: RSTV IAS UPSC – Pepsico v/s Potato Farmers) The FL-2027 variety of potatoes, used in Lays potato chips, came to the limelight in April 2019, when it became the centerpiece for a fight in the potato belt of northern Gujarat. Alleging that farmers who were not part of its “collaborative farming programme” were also growing and selling this variety in Gujarat, PepsiCo had filed rights infringement cases against farmers. About FL2027:- It is a for a potato variety. Its commercial name is FC-5. It has a 5 per cent lower moisture content than other varieties. With 80 per cent moisture content, as compared to the usual 85 per cent, this variety is considered more suitable for processing and therefore, for making snacks such as potato chips. The variety was first cultivated by Dr Robert W. Hoopes, who holds the most potato patents and potato variety protections in the whole world. FL2027 came to be registered in the US in 2005 and was put to commercial use in India in 2009. PepsiCo had then granted licenses to some farmers in Punjab to grow the variety on a buyback system. Buyback system allows the company to buy all the produce from these farmers at pre-decided rates. PepsiCo applied for registration of the potato variety in India in 2011. It was granted registration in Pepsi’s North America subsidiary Frito-Lay has the patent for the potato plant variety FL-2027 until October 2023. For India, Pepsi Co has patented FC-5 until January 2031 under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FR) Act, 2001. PPVFR Act, 2001 has been enacted in India for giving effect to the TRIPS Agreement:- The PPVFR Act retained the main spirit of TRIPS. The Act also had strong provisions to protect farmers’ rights. The act allows farmers to plant, grow exchange & sell patent-protected crops, including seeds, & only bars them from selling it as “branded seed”. It recognized three roles for the farmer: cultivator, breeder & conserver. As cultivators, farmers were entitled to plant-back rights. As breeders, farmers were held equivalent to plant breeders. As conservers, farmers were entitled to rewards from a National Gene Fund. The patent dispute Issue:- In 2019, PepsiCo sued nine Gujarat farmers for cultivating the same potato variety, accusing them of infringing its intellectual property rights (IPR). It sought over Rs. 1 crore each from the farmers for alleged patent infringement under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act, 2001. However, PepsiCo soon withdrew the suit after discussions with the government. Arguments by Farmers: The farmers stated that as per the agreement, PepsiCo would collect potatoes of diameter greater than 45 mm and those farmers had been storing smaller potatoes for sowing next year. They got registered seeds from known groups and farmer communities and had been sowing these for the last four years or so, and had no contractual agreement with anyone. According to Section 39(1)(iv) of the PPV&FR Act, a farmer is entitled to save, use, share or sell his farm produce including seed of a variety protected under this Act, provided that he is not entitled to sell branded seed of a variety protected under this Act. Hence, there was no violation. Arguments by breeder: – In the US, if someone has patented a seed, no other farmer can grow it However, the same does not apply in India. The court’s take on the matter:- The court observed that PepsiCo India Holdings (PIH) had ticked the variety as ‘New variety’ instead of ‘extant variety’, which is a crop variety that exists in a country. The judgment was upheld on the grounds of an ineligible registrant and failure to provide necessary documents under various provisions of the Act. Based on these, an order that revoked the PVP (plant varietal protection) certificate granted to the company for a potato variety (FL-2027) was made in 2021. Hence, the suing of farmers by PepsiCo was not seen in the public interest. About Intellectual Property Rights (IPR):- Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) are the rights acquired by an owner of intellectual property. It refers to creations of the mind, such as:- inventions literary & artistic works designs & symbols, Names & images used in commerce. IPRs have been outlined in Article 27 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. Objectives of IPR:- To encourage the creation of a wide variety of intellectual goods & strike the right balance between the interests of innovators & wider public interest. These rights are outlined in Article 27 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, which provides for the right to benefit from the protection of moral and material interests resulting from authorship of scientific, literary, or artistic productions. (UPSC MAINS: India’s IPR regime)  MUST READ: Boosting patent ecosystem SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the investments in the following assets: (2023) Brand recognition Inventory Intellectual property Mailing list of clients How many of the above are considered intangible investments? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to (2017) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes. Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings. Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme. Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent reports suggest that Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) exposure can lead to premature death and respiratory & circulatory illness. Background:- The review commissioned by Health and Environment Alliance (HEAL), suggested that Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) can lead to premature death from respiratory and circulatory illness. HEAL a European non-profit organization. The review, also observed that the knowledge about the health effects of NO2 has increased significantly over the last 10-15 years. In addition, studies are now able to distinguish between health impacts caused by NO2 and that by other pollutants, including particulate matter or PM2.5. 5: it refers to atmospheric particulate matter (PM) that has a diameter of less than 2.5 micrometers About Nitrogen dioxide (NO2):- IMAGE SOURCE: clarity.io Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2) is a highly reactive gas. Other nitrogen oxides include nitrous acid and nitric acid. It is an odourless, acidic, and extremely corrosive gas. It can harm our health and the environment. (UPSC CSE: Delhi and Air Pollution) Sources:- NO2 primarily gets in the air from the burning of fuel. It forms from emissions from cars, trucks and buses, power plants, and off-road equipment. It is also created by natural sources that include volcanoes and microbes. It is also formed during the creation of nitric acid, welding and the usage of explosives, the refining of fuel and metals, commercial manufacturing, and food processing. Uses of Nitrogen Dioxide Nitrogen dioxide is used as an intermediary in the production of nitric acid. It is used to make oxidised cellulose molecules. It is used as a catalyst in many reactions. It is used in the production of sulphuric acid. Rocket fuels use it as an As a nitrating agent. As an oxidising agent. It is used to make explosives. Health effects of Nitrogen dioxide (NO2):- NO2 can aggravate respiratory diseases, particularly asthma. It increases airway inflammation. It decreases lung capacity. It increases allergic response. It increases the probability of respiratory problems. It can cause a burning sensation in the eyes and skin. NO2 along with other NOx reacts with other chemicals in the air to form both PM and ozone. Environmental effects Acid Rain: NO2 and other NOx interact with water, oxygen and other chemicals in the atmosphere to form acid rain. Acid rain harms ecosystems such as lakes and forests. Air Pollution: The nitrate particles that result from NOx make the air hazy and difficult to see through. (UPSC CSE: Air pollution) Water Pollution: NOx in the atmosphere contributes to nutrient pollution in coastal waters. MUST READ: India’s uphill battle to bring down air pollution SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements: (2023) It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) In the Guidelines, statements: the context of WHO consider the Air Quality following (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and the annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Indian Grey Hornbill Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Indian Grey Hornbill was  sighted in Puducherry for the first time.  Background:- A bird enthusiast, M.S. Lara, photographed the hornbill in Koodapakkam, near the Sankarabarani River recently. It had been previously sighted in the Jawadhu Hills in Tiruvannamalai district, the Kalvarayan Hills in Dharmapuri district, the Western Ghats, and at the Adyar Estuary in Chennai in the recent past, but this is the first sighting of the bird from Puducherry. About Indian Grey Hornbill:- The Indian grey hornbill (Ocyceros birostris) is the smallest in the Hornbill family. (UPSC CSE: Hornbills) Habitat: Foothills of Southern Himalayas. It is one of the few hornbill species found in urban areas in many cities where they are able to make use of large trees in avenues. Distribution: Indian subcontinent; found from north-east Pakistan and south Nepal east to north-west Bangladesh and south throughout most of India except in Assam. It is a common hornbill found on the Indian subcontinent. It is commonly sighted in pairs. These birds are known to be Arboreal: spend most of their time on tall trees. They may descend for food and to collect mud pellets for nesting. Appearance:- It has grey feathers all over the body with a light grey or dull white belly. , Unlike a lot of other birds, the male and female look similar. They play an essential role in the ecosystem as prime dispersers of seeds. Conservation status:- IUCN: Least Concern. (UPSC CSE: IUCN updates the Red list of species) Sankaraparani River: The Sankaraparani River is a river in Tamil Nadu state. It originates on the western slope of the Gingee Hills in Viluppuram District, and flows southeastwards to empty into the Bay of Bengal south of Pondicherry. The Sankaraparani is also known as Varahanadi or Gingee River. MUST READ: Hornbill Festival SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (2023) Fishing cat Orangutan Otter Sloth bear Q.2) Which of the following organisms ·perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps SEBI’s Complaints Redress System (SCORES ) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: As per recent reports, Sebi’s SCORES platform disposed of 3,079 complaints in June. Background:- At the beginning of June, as many as 3,141 complaints were pending, and 3,967 fresh complaints were received, according to SEBI. About SEBI’s Complaints Redress System (SCORES )platform:- Launched: 2011. Launched by: SEBI. SEBI’s Complaints Redress System (SCORES) is a grievance redressal system. Objective: It enables investors to lodge and follow up on their complaints and track the status of redressal of such complaints online. These complaints are related to investment advisers, research analysts, corporate governance/listing conditions, minimum public shareholding, venture capital funds and takeover/restructuring. SCORES does not deal with complaints against companies. Laws covered: Complaints arising out of issues that are covered under the SEBI Act, Securities Contract Regulation Act, Depositories Act and rules and regulations made there under relevant provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. Time limit: The complaint shall be lodged on SCORES within one year from the date of the cause of action. Average resolution time for a complaint: 31 days. About SEBI (The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Establishment: (UPSC CSE: SEBI) The Securities and Exchange Board of India was established as a statutory body in the year 1992. HQ: Mumbai, Maharashtra. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. Function: It monitors and regulates the Indian capital and securities market while ensuring to protect the interests of the investors, formulating regulations and guidelines. (UPSC CSE: Open Offer) Chairperson: The chairperson is nominated by the Union Government of India. MUST READ: Sweat Equity Rules: SEBI SOURCE: BUISINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements. (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the government has brought the Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) under the Prevention of Money-laundering Act (PMLA). Background:- The government has brought the Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) under the Prevention of Money-laundering Act (PMLA), as per a notification dated July 7. The changes have been made for provisions under Section 66 of the PMLA, which provides for the disclosure of information. Under Section 66 of the Act, the 15 entities are bound to disclose case information to the ED if the probe falls under its jurisdiction. Based on the information, the ED can file a case under the PMLA, if it deems fit. The notification by Finance Ministry has amended an earlier 2006 notification that will facilitate sharing of information between the GSTN, Enforcement Directorate and other investigative agencies. About Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN):- Establishment: 2013. (UPSC CSE: GST) HQ: New Delhi. It is a not for profit, non-Government, private limited company incorporated in 2013. Objective: The Company has been set up primarily to provide IT infrastructure and services to the Central and State Governments, taxpayers and other stakeholders for implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST). Shareholding: The Government of India holds 5%equity in GSTN. All States including NCT of Delhi and Puducherry, and the Empowered Committee of State Finance Ministers (EC), together hold another 5%. Balance 51% equity is with non-Government financial institutions. GST Council has approved a proposal to convert GST Network (GSTN) into a government entity from its current private entity status by taking over stakes held by private entities. GSTN provides a strong IT Infrastructure and Service backbone which enables the capture, processing and exchange of information amongst the stakeholders (including taxpayers, States and Central Governments, Accounting Offices, Banks and RBI.  Mission of GSTN:- Provide common and shared IT infrastructure and services to the Central and State Governments, Tax Payers and other stakeholders for implementation of the Goods & Services Tax (GST). Provide common Registration, Return and Payment services to the Taxpayers. Partner with other agencies for creating an efficient and user-friendly GST Eco-system. Encourage and collaborate with GST Suvidha Providers (GSPs) to roll out GST Applications for providing simplified services to the stakeholders. Carry out research, study best practices and provide Training and Consultancy to the Tax authorities and other stakeholders. Provide efficient Backend Services to the Tax Departments of the Central and State Governments on request. Develop Tax Payer Profiling Utility (TPU) for Central and State Tax Administration. Assist Tax authorities in improving Tax compliance and transparency of the Tax Administration system. Deliver any other services of relevance to the Central and State Governments and other stakeholders on request.  Prevention of Money-laundering Act (PMLA), 2002 It was enacted in It came into force with effect from 1st July 2005. The Parliament enacted the PMLA as a result of international commitment to sternly deal with the menace of money laundering. Money Laundering: conversion or misrepresentation of money which has been illegally obtained by unlawful sources and methods. (UPSC MAINS: money laundering in India) Applicability: The PMLA is applicable to all persons which include individuals, companies, firms, partnership firms, associations of persons or incorporations and any agency, office or branch owned or controlled by any of the above-mentioned persons. Objectives of PMLA:- To prevent and control money laundering. To confiscate and seize the property obtained from the laundered money. To deal with any other issue connected with money laundering in India.  Provisions of PMLA,2002:- Definition of money laundering: 3 of PMLA defines the offence of money laundering Prescribed obligation: PMLA prescribes the obligation of banking companies, financial institutions and intermediaries to verification and maintenance of records of the identity of all its clients and also of all transactions and for furnishing information of such transactions in a prescribed form to the Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND). Empowerment of officers: PMLA empowers certain officers of the Directorate of Enforcement to carry out investigations in cases involving the offence of money laundering and also to attach the property involved in money laundering. It empowers the Director of FIU-IND to impose fines on banking companies, financial institutions or intermediaries if they or any of its officers fail to comply with the provisions of the Act as indicated above. Setting up of Authority: PMLA envisages the setting up of an Adjudicating Authority to exercise jurisdiction, power and authority conferred by it essentially to confirm attachment or order confiscation of attached properties. It also envisages the setting up of an Appellate Tribunal to hear appeals against the order of the Adjudicating Authority and the authorities like Director FIU-IND. Special Courts:- It envisages the designation of one or more courts of sessions as Special Courts or Special Courts to try the offences punishable under PMLA and offences with which the accused may, under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, be charged at the same trial. (UPSC CSE: Supreme Court verdict on PMLA) MUST READ: GST- Critical analysis of its working SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following markets : (2023) Government Bond Market Call Money Market Treasury Bill Market Stock Market How many of the above are included in capital markets? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (2017) It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: National Green Hydrogen Mission Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment and Ecology). Context: As part of its quest towards energy transition, the government has brought together stakeholders in order to explore how we can establish a Green Hydrogen ecosystem. Hydrogen Fuel: Hydrogen fuel is a zero-emission fuel burned with oxygen. It can be used in fuel cells or internal combustion engines. It can be manufactured by Electrolysis of water by using direct current. Natural Gas Reforming/Gasification: Natural Gas on reaction with steam produces Synthesis gas. Synthetic gas is a mixture of hydrogen, carbon monoxide, and a small amount of carbon dioxide. Fermentation: Biomass is converted into sugar-rich feedstocks that can be fermented to produce hydrogen. Types of Hydrogen Fuel Source: https://enerdatics.com/blog/types-of-hydrogen/ About National Green Hydrogen Mission? It is a program to incentivise the commercial production of green hydrogen and make India a net exporter of the fuel. The Mission will facilitate demand creation, production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen. Sub Schemes: Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition Programme (SIGHT): It will fund the domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and produce green hydrogen. Green Hydrogen Hubs: States and regions capable of supporting large scale production and/or utilization of hydrogen will be identified and developed as Green Hydrogen Hubs. Objective: Developing green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonne) per annum, alongside adding renewable energy capacity of about 125 GW (gigawatt) in India by 2030. It aims to entail over Rs 8 lakh crore of total investments and is expected to generate six lakh jobs. It will also lead to a cumulative reduction in fossil fuel imports by over Rs 1 lakh crore and an abatement of nearly 50 MT of annual greenhouse gas emissions. Nodal Ministry: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy Significance: It will help entail the decarbonisation of the industrial, mobility and energy sectors; reducing dependence on imported fossil fuels and feedstock; developing indigenous manufacturing capabilities; creating employment opportunities; and developing new technologies such as efficient fuel cells. Significance/Intended outcomes of the NGHM Renewable Energy Capacity Enhancement: Development of green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonne) per annum. An associated renewable energy capacity addition of about 125 GW in the country Investment boost Employment generation Cumulative reduction in fossil fuel imports. Green House Gases Emission Reduction: Abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions and help government in achievement the commitments made at COP 26 Under the Paris Agreement of 2015, India is committed to reducing its greenhouse gas emissions by 33-35% from the 2005 levels. It is a legally binding international treaty on climate change with the goal of limiting global warming to below 2°C compared to pre-industrial levels. Possible Challenges in harnessing Green Hydrogen Lack of fuel station infrastructure: India will need to compete with around 500 operational hydrogen stations in the world today which are mostly in Europe, followed by Japan and South Korea. Energy-intensive nature of Hydrogen generation process: The technology is in an infant stage and the energy requirement for splitting water or Methane is high. Besides, the whole process is costly at present. High R and D requirement for the newer technology for making the process cheap and operational and scalable. Multiplicity of regulatory authorities: Involvement of multiple Ministries and Departments causes red tape in government functioning. Risks associated with the transportation of hydrogen: Hydrogen in gaseous form is highly inflammable and difficult to transport, thereby making safety a primary concern. Indian Initiatives for Promoting Clean Fuel Transition The India-led International Solar Alliance (ISA) is a coalition of solar-rich countries aiming at promoting solar energy globally. India aims to reach net zero emissions by 2070 and to meet fifty percent of its electricity requirements from renewable energy sources by 2030. Initiatives such as Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid) Electric Vehicles (FAME) India Scheme and Atal Jyoti Yojana promote the adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles and solar-powered lighting to rural areas, a move which reduces emission footprint. The ‘National Policy on Biofuels’ notified by the Government in 2018 envisaged an indicative target of 20% ethanol blending in petrol by year 2030. A “Roadmap for Ethanol Blending in India 2020-25” which lays out a detailed pathway for achieving 20% ethanol blending. Way Forward: There is a need to announce incentives to convince enough users of industrial hydrogen to adopt green hydrogen. India needs to develop supply chains in the form of pipelines, tankers, intermediate storage and last leg distribution networks as well as put in place an effective skill development programme to ensure that lakhs of workers can be suitably trained to adapt to a viable green hydrogen economy. Source:   PIB Internationalisation of rupee: Why and what are the benefits? Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) inter-departmental group (IDG) recently said that India remaining one of the fastest-growing countries and showing remarkable resilience in the face of major headwinds and the rupee has the potential to become an internationalised currency. The Internationalisation of the Rupee: Internationalisation is a process that involves increasing the use of the rupee in cross-border transactions. These are all transactions between residents in India and non-residents. It involves – Promoting the rupee for import and export trade and then other current account transactions (measures imports and exports of goods and services, etc), Followed by its use in capital account transactions – measures cross-border investments in financial instruments, etc. Currently, the US dollar, the Euro, the Japanese yen and the pound sterling are the leading reserve currencies in the world. China’s efforts to make its currency renminbi has met with only limited success so far. India has allowed only full convertibility on the current account as of now. Current Status for the Rupee’s Internationalization: Limited Progress in Internationalisation: The rupee is far from being internationalized, the daily average share for the rupee in the global foreign exchange market hovers around 1.6%, while India’s share of global goods trade is mere 2%. Steps Taken to Promote Internationalisation: India has taken some steps to promote the internationalisation of the rupee (e.g., enable external commercial borrowings in rupees), with a push to Indian banks to open Rupee Vostro accounts for banks from Russia, the UAE, Sri Lanka and Mauritius and measures to trade with about 18 countries in rupees instituted. However, such transactions have been limited, with India still buying oil from Russia in dollars. Benefits of Internationalization of rupee Increased global acceptance: Internationalization of the rupee can increase its global acceptance, which can lead to more international transactions being conducted in the rupee, thereby reducing the demand for foreign currencies and reducing exchange rate risks. Reduced transaction costs: Internationalization of the rupee can reduce transaction costs for Indian businesses as they will not have to incur exchange rate fees for converting rupees into foreign currencies for international transactions. Boost to trade and investment: Internationalization of the rupee can promote trade and investment by making it easier for foreign businesses to invest in India and for Indian businesses to invest abroad. Enhanced competitiveness: A more freely traded rupee can enhance India’s competitiveness in global markets by allowing the currency to reflect the country’s economic fundamentals and reducing the need for the Reserve Bank of India to intervene in currency markets. Diversification of reserves: Internationalization of the rupee can diversify India’s foreign exchange reserves away from a concentration in US dollars, reducing the risks associated with holding a single currency. Challenges associated with Internationalizing the Rupee: Exchange Rate Volatility: Internationalising the rupee exposes it to greater exchange rate volatility. Fluctuations in the value of the rupee can impact trade competitiveness, foreign investment flows, and financial market stability. Managing exchange rate risks becomes crucial in order to mitigate potential adverse effects. Capital Flight and Financial Stability: Opening up the rupee to international markets may lead to capital flight if investors lose confidence in the currency or anticipate unfavourable economic conditions. This can strain the country’s foreign exchange reserves, impact financial stability, and create challenges for monetary policy management. Capital Controls: India still has capital controls in place that limit the ability of foreigners to invest and trade in Indian markets. These restrictions make it difficult for the rupee to be used widely as an international currency. Competing Currencies: The rupee faces competition from established international currencies like the US dollar, euro, and yen, which enjoy widespread acceptance and liquidity. Gaining market share and displacing these dominant currencies can be a significant challenge. Confidence and Perception: The credibility and stability of India’s economic and monetary policies play a crucial role in building confidence in the rupee. Any perception of policy uncertainty, lack of transparency, or geopolitical risks can impede the internationalisation process. Adoption by Market Participants: Convincing market participants, including businesses, individuals, and financial institutions, to adopt the rupee for international transactions requires trust, familiarity, and confidence in the currency. Building awareness and promoting the benefits of using the rupee globally is a significant challenge. Way Forward: The RBI’s Recommendations: For the short term: Adoption of a standardised approach for examining the proposals on bilateral and multilateral trade arrangements. Encouraging the opening of the rupee accounts for non-residents both in India and outside India and integrating Indian payment systems with other countries for cross-border transactions. Strengthening the financial market by fostering a global 24×5 rupee market and recalibration of the FPI (foreign portfolio investor) regime. A review of taxes on masala (rupee-denominated bonds issued outside India by Indian entities) bonds, international use of Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) for cross-border trade transactions, etc. For the long term: Efforts should be made for the inclusion of the rupee in International Monetary Fund’s (IMF) special drawing rights (SDR). The SDR is an international reserve asset created by the IMF to supplement the official reserves of its member countries. The value of the SDR is based on a basket of five currencies [the U.S. dollar, the euro, the Chinese renminbi, the Japanese yen, and the British pound sterling]. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Nitrogen Dioxide causes water pollution Statement-II: Volcanoes and microbes create Nitrogen Dioxide. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Q2) Consider the following pairs: Horbill species                        IUCN Status Great Hornbill:                          Near threatened. Narcondam Hornbill:               Endangered Indian Grey Hornbill:               Near Threatened How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None  Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: GSTN was established in 2015. Statement-II: GSTN Provide common Registration, Return and Payment services to Taxpayers. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 10th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st Mains practice questions Q.1) Hydrogen is being dubbed as the alternative fuel. However, there are many problems associated with the leveraging of hydrogen technology. Discuss (250 words) Q.2) Discuss the potential benefits and challenges associated with the Internationalisation of Rupee for India’s economy. (250 words) ANSWERS FOR 8th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – a Q.3) -a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 10th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – Essay Questions [10th July, 2023] – Day 29

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 29 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 8th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) International Maritime Organization Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the summit of the United Nations International Maritime Organization (IMO) concluded in London. Background:- Maritime countries upgraded their Greenhouse House Gas (GHG) emissions strategy to reach net zero “by or around” 2050 without specifying a definite year agreed to upgrade their Greenhouse House Gas (GHG) emissions strategy to reach net zero “by or around” 2050. About International Maritime Organization:- IMAGE SOURCE: south-star-ltd.com IMO is the United Nations specialized agency. Establishment: HQ: London, United Kingdom. Objective: to create a regulatory framework for the shipping industry that is fair and effective, universally adopted and universally implemented. Membership: IMO currently has 175 Member States and three Associate Members. India joined the IMO in (UPSC CSE: International Maritime Organization (IMO) & India) Functions:- Its role is to create a level playing field so that ship operators cannot address their financial issues by simply cutting corners and compromising on safety, security and environmental performance. IMO’s work supports the UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). The IMO is not responsible for enforcing its policies. It has the responsibility for the safety and security of shipping and the prevention of marine and atmospheric pollution by ships. (UPSC CSE: Maritime Security) Key Conventions of IMO: International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification, and Watchkeeping for Seafarers (STCW) International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) MUST READ: Green Ports & Green Shipping in India SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q.2) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Water Positive India Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Bureau of Water Use Efficiency (BWUE) and the Indian Plumbing Association (IPA) have signed a MoU with the aim of achieving a Water Positive India. Background:- The MoU focuses on creating awareness and promoting rainwater harvesting structures, low-flow fixtures and sanitary ware, treatment of grey and black water, and water audit of the built environment. About the Bureau of Water Use Efficiency (BWUE):- Establishment: 2022. HQ: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. The Bureau of Water Use Efficiency (BWUE) has been set up under the scheme of the National Water Mission. Functions of said Bureau:- To plan and execute a nationwide program for the promotion of efficient use of water in irrigation, domestic water supply, and municipal and/or industrial uses in the country. To make necessary regulatory directions to promote Water Use Efficiency. Prescribing guidelines for water conservation codes, standardizing and developing codes and facilitating their notification from concerned authorities. Developing standards for water-efficient fixtures, appliances, sanitary wares and other equipment using water in both urban/rural areas. Evolving a system of efficiency labelling. Evolve a system for incentivizing promotional efforts to increase water use efficiency. Create a Resource Centre and Data Bank related to various aspects of Water Use Efficiency. Promote research and development including research in the field of water conservation. Indian Plumbing Association (IPA) Establishment: 1993 It is the apex body of plumbing professionals in the country. Objectives of IPA:- To uplift the dignity of the profession by encouraging members to: Adopt correct professional practices. (UPSC CSE: Catch The Rain Awareness Generation Campaign) Adhere to ethical codes of conduct. Aim for the highest standards of workmanship. Promote and foster healthy relationships within the fraternity. To promote the advancement of plumbing services in the country by: Organizing seminars, exhibitions, and symposiums to educate members of the trade and the general public. Providing a platform for the dissemination of information and exchange of ideas on matters related to the plumbing profession. Establishing harmonious means of communication to facilitate better interface between the plumbing community, government/quasi-government agencies, statutory bodies, NGOs and private agencies. Establishing training and education programmes to create plumbing professionals. Mission of IPA:- Redefining Plumbing Standards in India. Striving for an overall improvement of the plumbing profession in India at par with international standards. Active participation with the global body in the plumbing profession. National Water Mission: It is one of the eight missions launched under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) for combating the threats of global warming. (UPSC CSE: Jal Jeevan Mission) NAPCC: it is a Government of India’s programme launched in 2008 to mitigate and adapt to the adverse impact of climate change. Launched: 2008. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Objective of the National Water Mission:- To conserve water. To minimise the wastage of the water. To ensure equitable distribution across the country and within States through integrated water resources management. Goals of the National Water Mission:- Comprehensive water database in the public domain and assessment of the impact of climate change on water resources. Promotion of citizen and state actions for water conservation, augmentation and preservation. Focused attention to vulnerable areas including over-exploited areas. Increasing water use efficiency by 20%. Promotion of basin-level integrated water resources management. MUST READ: National Water Policy SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Salvage and Explosive Ordnance Disposal Exercise (SALVEX) Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: The Seventh edition of the Indian Navy – US Navy (IN – USN) Salvage and Explosive Ordnance Disposal exercise, SALVEX was conducted recently. About SALVEX:- It was conducted from 26 Jun – 06 Jul 23 at Kochi. Started : Background: Indian Navy(IN) and US Navy(USN) have been participating in joint Salvage and EOD exercises since (UPSC CSE: 26th Exercise Malabar) EOD: it is a specialized technical area in military and law enforcement. The exercise saw participation from both the navies which included the ships – INS Nireekshak and USNS Salvor in addition to Specialist Diving and EOD teams. Duration: it spans over 10 days. (UPSC CSE: Exercise TARKASH) Key engagements and outcomes:- Shared Learning on Maritime Salvage: The Diving teams from both countries engaged in the exchange of experiences, lessons, and best practices in maritime salvage operations. Training Synergies on EOD Operations: The exercise provided an ideal platform for joint training exercises, allowing divers and EOD teams to enhance their interoperability and refine their skills. Mastery of Mine Detection and Neutralization: The participating divers received comprehensive training in the detection and neutralization of mines, enabling them to mitigate potential threats in underwater environments. Efficient Wreck Location and Salvage Techniques: The exercise focused on honing the teams’ abilities to locate and salvage wrecks, a critical skill for ensuring safe navigation and effective disaster response. MUST READ: India-US relations SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following actions : (2023) Detection of car crash/ collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. B Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of the display between portrait and landscape mode In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Dinutuximab (Qarziba) Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: GST Council will discuss the exemption for cancer medicine Dinutuximab (Qarziba) in its upcoming meeting. Background:- The Council, chaired by the Union finance minister and comprising state ministers, will also decide on GST exemption for satellite launch services provided by private players. (UPSC CSE: GST) The tax rate for online gaming, on multiplex food and drinks is also on the agenda for the meeting. About Dinutuximab (Qarziba):- Qarziba is a cancer medicine used to treat neuroblastoma, a cancer of nerve cells, in patients over 1 year of age. Neuroblastoma: Cancer of immature nerve cells arising from the adrenal gland, nerve ganglia or the neck. It is used in 2 groups of patients who have high-risk neuroblastoma (which has a high chance of coming back): patients who have had some improvement with previous treatments, which included blood stem-cell transplantation (a transplant of blood-producing cells) Patients whose neuroblastoma has not improved with other cancer treatments or has come back. Working Mechanism:- Qarziba is a monoclonal antibody (a type of protein) that has been designed to recognise and attach to a structure called GD2. Monoclonal antibody: an antibody produced from a cell lineage made by cloning a unique white blood cell. GD2: present in high amounts on the surface of neuroblastoma cells, but not normal cells. When Qarziba attaches to the neuroblastoma cells, it makes them a target for the body’s immune system which then kills the cancer cells. Immune system: a network of biological processes that protects an organism from diseases. About GST Council The GST Council is a constitutional body. (UPSC CSE: GST Council) It was established under Article 279A of the Indian Constitution. (UPSC CSE: GST Appellate Tribunal) Article 279-A: gives the President the authority to appoint a GST Council by executive order. The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 (122nd Amendment Bill), paved the way for the implementation of GST. Functions:– As per Article 279, it is meant to “make recommendations to the Union and the states on important issues related to GST, like the goods and services that may be subjected or exempted from GST, model GST Laws”. It also decides on various rate slabs of GST. Chairman: The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister. Other members: these include the Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Ministers in charge of Finance or Taxation of all the States. MUST READ: Platinum drugs SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following? (2023) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna. Stimulating ‘stem cells to transform into diverse functional tissues. Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants. Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting a series of drug trials in a population. Q.2) ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations? (2023) Collecting DNA samples from the air in a habitat in one go. Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat. Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals. Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies. High Seas Treaty Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the UN adopted the Marine Biodiversity of Areas beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) or the High Seas Treaty. Background:- About High Seas Treaty:- IMAGE SOURCE: ResearchGate It is an international agreement on the conservation and sustainable use of marine biological diversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction. (UPSC CSE: UN High Seas Treaty) The UN adopted the Marine Biodiversity of Areas beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) or the High Seas Treaty in 2023. Objective: to achieve a more holistic management of high seas activities, which should better balance the conservation and sustainable use of marine resources. Jurisdiction: It encompasses the high seas, beyond the exclusive economic zones or national waters of countries. This new instrument is being developed within the framework of the UNCLOS ( United Nations Convention for the Law of the Sea). (UPSC CSE: BBNJ Treaty) The agreement has five aspects: Environmental impact assessments for activities taken up on high seas. Conservation of marine genetic resources. Capacity building. Technology transfer. Cross-cutting issues such as institutional structure and financial support.  UNCLOS( United Nations Convention for the Law of the Sea) It is an international agreement that establishes the legal framework for marine and maritime activities. Historical Background: The Convention which concluded in the year 1982 replaced the quad-treaty of 1958. Establishment: It came into effect in the year It is the only international convention which stipulates a framework for state jurisdiction in maritime spaces. It provides a different legal status to different maritime zones. It divides marine areas into 5 zones : Internal-waters Territorial seas Contiguous Zone Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) Continental shelf or High seas India has been a party to the convention since 1995. MUST READ: Deep-Sea Mining SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’? (2022) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters. It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region. It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies at the North Pole and the South Pole. It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council. Q.2) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or landlocked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Ubinas volcano Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, Peru declared a state of emergency for 60 days in areas around Ubinas volcano. Background:- According to the Geophysical Institute of Peru, the volcano has been spewing ash and gas since earlier this week. The smoke cloud has travelled over towns that are 10 kilometers away from the volcano, according to the institute. Some 2,000 people live in the affected areas. About Ubinas volcano:- IMAGE SOURCE: researchgate.net Ubinas is an active stratovolcano. (UPSC CSE: Volcano) Stratovolcano: it is a conical volcano built up by many layers (strata) of hardened lava. It is located in the Moquegua Region of southern Peru, approximately 60 kilometers east of the city of Arequipa. It is part of the Central Volcanic Zone of the Andes and stands at an elevation of 5,672 meters above sea level. The volcano’s summit contains a 1.4-kilometer-wide and 150-meter-deep caldera, within which lies a smaller crater. This distinct feature adds to the volcano’s geological significance. Caldera: it is a large cauldron-like hollow that forms shortly after the emptying of a magma chamber in a volcano eruption. Ubinas I and Ubinas II: The volcano exhibits an upwards-steepening cone shape, with a notable notch on its southern side. The lower part is referred to as Ubinas I while the steeper upper section is known as Ubinas II. This represents different stages in the volcano’s geological history. The region where Ubinas is situated falls within the Ring of Fire. Ring of Fire: an area around the Pacific Ocean known for its high volcanic and seismic activity. History of Volcanic activity:- Ubinas is recognized as the most active volcano in Peru. (UPSC CSE: Volcanic eruption at Mount Semeru) It has a history of small to moderate explosive eruptions and persistent degassing. Notable Eruptions: The volcano has experienced notable eruptions throughout history, including the 2006–2007 event that resulted in eruption columns, ash fall, health concerns, and evacuations in the region. Recent Activity: From 2013 to 2017, Ubinas exhibited lava flow within the crater, accompanied by ash falls, leading to further evacuations in nearby towns. MUST READ: Mt. Mauna Loa SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia Turkey Amhara Ethiopia Cabo Delgado Spain Catalonia Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Mains: How India can leverage its biggest strength Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: The next 25 years could be the golden years for the country, provided it makes the best use of its favourable demographic composition. About Demographic dividend: Demographic dividend, as defined by the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA), is “the economic growth potential that can result from shifts in a population’s age structure, mainly when the share of the working-age population (15 to 64) is larger than the non-working-age share of the population (14 and younger, and 65 and older)”. India’s demographic dividend: India’s average age is 29 years, whereas the average age in US, China, France, Germany and Japan is 38, 38, 42, 45 and 48 years, respectively. Therefore, India is the youngest among the most populous countries in the world. Advantages of India’s demographic dividend: Higher Economic Growth: A large and young working-age population can increase the labour supply, productivity, savings, and investment in the economy, leading to higher GDP growth and per capita income. Greater Competitiveness: A skilled workforce can enhance India’s competitiveness in the global market, especially in labour-intensive sectors such as manufacturing, services, and agriculture. India can also benefit from the rising demand for its exports in the ageing markets of developed countries. Social Development: It can contribute to social development by improving health, education, gender equality, and social cohesion. An empowered population can also participate more actively in democratic processes and civic engagement. Innovation and Entrepreneurship: A creative population can foster innovation and entrepreneurship in various fields, such as science, technology, arts, and culture. An aspirational population can also create new markets and opportunities for economic diversification. Challenges associated with Demographic dividend: Asymmetric demography: The growth in the working-age ratio is likely to be concentrated in some of India’s poorest states and the demographic dividend will be fully realized only if India is able to create gainful employment opportunities for this working-age population. Lack of skills: Most of the new jobs that will be created in the future will be highly skilled and lack of skill in Indian workforce is a major challenge. India may not be able to take advantage of the opportunities, due to a low human capital base and lack of skills. Low human development parameters: India ranks 130 out of 189 countries in UNDP’s Human Development Index, which is alarming. Therefore, health and education parameters need to be improved substantially to make the Indian workforce efficient and skilled. Informal nature of economy in India is another hurdle in reaping the benefits of demographic transition in India. Jobless growth: There is mounting concern that future growth could turn out to be jobless due to de-industrialization, de-globalization, the fourth industrial revolution and technological progress. As per the NSSO Periodic Labour Force Survey 2017-18, India’s labour force participation rate for the age-group 15-59 years is around 53%, that is, around half of the working age population is jobless. Indian government’s initiatives to reap the demographic dividend in India: The government has launched programmes like Jan Shikshan Sansthan, Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, and National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme to improve employability through skilling, re-skilling, and up-skilling. These initiatives aim to make the Indian labour force more productive and efficient. The MSDE Vision 2025 further aims to improve the linkage between education and skill. The Ayushman Bharat and Swachh Bharat Mission seek to improve health equity in India. The Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana aims to make drug prices affordable and accessible, enhancing overall public health. The National Education Policy 2020, alongside the Samagra Shiksha programme, is focused on providing inclusive, equitable, and quality education at all school levels, ensuring a productive labour force in the future. Recognizing MSMEs as the backbone of Indian manufacturing, the government has endeavoured to support them in improving competitiveness, achieving scale, digital infrastructure, technology upgrades, and branding. The government has introduced flagship programmes like Skill India, Make in India, and Start-up India to enhance the productivity of the labour force and to foster innovation and entrepreneurship. Way Forward: If India has to reap the benefits of ‘demographic dividend’ in the years ahead, it is imperative that investments in social infrastructure by way of education, skill development, training and provision of health care facilities are made to enhance productivity of workforce and welfare of the population. Source:    Indian Express Data Protection Bill 2022 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: The Union Cabinet cleared the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Bill 2022, paving the way for it to be introduced in Parliament. History of Digital Personal Data Protection: In 2017 the S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India judgement declared that right to privacy a fundamental right as part of right to life and liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution. To protect the personal data the data protection Bill has been in the works since 2018 when a panel led by Justice B N Srikrishna had prepared a draft version of the Bill. It is India’s first attempt to domestically legislate on the issue of data protection. The government has made several revisions to this draft and introduced it as the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2022. Provisions of the Bill: The Bill will apply to the processing of digital personal data in India, whether it is collected online or offline and then digitized. It will also apply to the processing of digital personal data outside of India if it involves offering goods or services or profiling individuals in India. Personal data may be processed only for a lawful purpose for which an individual has given consent. Consent may be deemed in certain cases. Data fiduciaries will be obligated to maintain the accuracy of data, keep data secure, and delete data once its purpose has been met. The Bill grants certain rights to individuals including the right to obtain information, seek correction and erasure, and grievance redressal. The central government may exempt government agencies from the application of provisions of the Bill in the interest of specified grounds such as security of the state, public order, and prevention of offences. The central government will establish the Data Protection Board of India to adjudicate non-compliance with the provisions of the Bill. Significance of personal data protection in India:  Privacy protection: It guarantees that an individual’s privacy is not breached, as was the case with the Aadhaar data leak in 2018. It helps to avoid identity theft and other types of fraud. For example, consider the 2018 Cambridge Analytica controversy. Data accuracy is ensured through personal data protection, which guarantees that the data is correct and up to date. Personal data protection avoids data abuse and unlawful access, as shown in the WhatsApp data-sharing scandal in 2021. Personal data protection guarantees that data is safe and protected from cyberattacks. Personal data protection secures sensitive data, such as the health and financial data of persons, as well as sensitive health data. Individual empowerment: As previously said in 2018 Justice Srikrishna Committee Report Recommendations, personal data protection empowers people by giving them control over their personal data. Compliance with worldwide standards: Compliance with global data protection standards, such as GDPR compliance, requires personal data protection. Concerns associated with the Bill: Government Control: The Bill is learnt to have prescribed that the central government can exempt “any instrumentality of the state” from adhering to the provisions on account of national security, relations with foreign governments, and maintenance of public order among other things. The control of the central government in appointing members of the data protection board — an adjudicatory body that will deal with privacy-related grievances and disputes between two parties — is learnt to have been retained as well. Dilutes the Right to Information (RTI) Act as personal data of government functionaries is likely to be protected under it, making it difficult to be shared with an RTI applicant. No Criminal Liability: The Bill only prescribes monetary penalties (under Schedule 1 of the DPDP Bill) for breaches and non-compliances and limits such penalties to breaches/non-compliances that the Data Protection Board determines to be ‘significant’. The DPD Bill has done away with criminal liabilities, as well as penalties that are directly linked to the turn-over or revenue of an erring Data Fiduciary. Penalties vary from INR 50 crore to INR 250 crore. Section 25 stipulates maximum penalty to be limited to INR 500 crore. Data of Children: The Bill requires parental consent for age less than 18 years. Parental consent would be required every time they want to access the internet. Global Scenario: EU model: The GDPR focuses on a comprehensive data protection law for processing of personal data. It has been criticised for being excessively stringent, and imposing many obligations on organisations processing data, but it is still the template for most of the legislation drafted around the world. US model: Privacy protection is largely defined as “liberty protection” focused on the protection of the individual’s personal space from the government. It is viewed as being somewhat narrow in focus, because it enables collection of personal information as long as the individual is informed of such collection and use. China model: New Chinese laws on data privacy and security issued over the last 12 months include the Personal Information Protection Law (PIPL), which came into effect in November 2021. It gives Chinese data principals new rights as it seeks to prevent the misuse of personal data. Way Forward: While protecting the rights of the data principal, data protection laws need to ensure that the compliances for data fiduciaries are not so onerous as to make even legitimate processing impractical. The challenge lies in finding an adequate balance between the right to privacy of data principles and reasonable exceptions, especially where government processing of personal data is concerned. Source:   Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Exercise SALVEX was conducted between Indian Navy and the Japanese Navy. Statement-II: The seventh edition of the exercise was conducted in Kochi, India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) Consider the following pairs: Stratovolcano: it is a conical volcano built up by much hardened lava. Ring of Fire: it is a large cauldron-like hollow that forms shortly after the emptying of a magma chamber in a volcano eruption. Caldera: an area around the Pacific Ocean known for its high volcanic and seismic activity. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The Bureau of Water Use Efficiency makes necessary regulatory directions to promote Water Use Efficiency. Statement-II: It has been set up under the scheme of the National Water Mission. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Mains practice question: Q.1) India is on the right side of demographic transition that provides golden opportunity for its rapid socio-economic development. What are the challenges associated with this transition? What measures needs to be taken to overcome those challenges? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 8th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 7th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – a Q.3) – c