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[DAY 60] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 60->Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) LIGO-India Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently, laid down the foundation stone of LIGO-India on the occasion of National Technology Day. About LIGO-India:- IMAGE SOURCE: Gravitational waves discovery: India’s imprint in landmark LIGO project – Times of India (indiatimes.com) LIGO is the world’s most powerful observatory. It exploits the physical properties of light and space to detect and understand the origins of gravitational waves. At the moment, there are two such observatories in the US. These are separated by a distance of 3000 kilometres that work in tandem to pick up these gravitational waves. Each LIGO detector consists of two arms. LIGO-India will be the fifth node of this international network of gravitational wave observatories. It will be located in Maharashtra, India. It is envisaged as a collaborative project between a consortium of Indian research institutions and the LIGO Laboratory in the USA, along with its international partners. It will be built by the Department of Atomic Energy and the Department of Science and Technology, with a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with the National Science Foundation, the US, along with several national and international research and academic institutions. LIGO-India is a collaboration between the LIGO Laboratory (operated by Caltech and MIT in the US) and three Institutes in India namely:-  the Raja Ramanna Center for Advanced Technology (RRCAT, in Indore),  the Institute for Plasma Research (IPR in Ahmedabad), and the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA, in Pune). When LIGO-India is completed, it will join a global network of gravitational-wave observatories that includes Virgo in Italy and KAGRA in Japan. Significance:- LIGO-India will provide opportunities for Indian youth to pursue research careers in cutting-edge areas of science and technology. It will lead to advancement in gravitational-wave astronomy and astrophysics. It will lead to the development of cutting-edge technologies.(UPSC MAINS: Privatisation in Space Sector) Gravitational Waves:- A gravitational wave is an invisible (yet incredibly fast) ripple in space. (UPSC MAINS: Gravitational waves)  They travel at the speed of light (186,000 miles per second). These waves squeeze and stretch anything in their path as they pass by. Einstein predicted that when two bodies such as planets or stars orbit each other it causes ripples in space. These ripples would spread out like the ripples in a pond when a stone is tossed in.  Scientists call these ripples of space gravitational waves. MUST READ: India’s Space Economy SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on it. Q.2) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Monlam Chenmo Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: The annual five-day-long ‘Monlam Chenmo’ Festival, began recently in Ladakh. About Monlam Chenmo:- Monlam Chenmo is an annual five-day-long Great Prayer Festival of Ladakh. (UPSC PRELIMS: Ladakh) It is a mass prayer camp by Buddhist monks and nuns for world peace and happiness. The annual Mass Prayer is resuming this year after three years of discontinuation due to Covid. The event is being organised by the All Ladakh Gonpa Association. It is a major annual prayer of the Sangha Community of Ladakh gathered at one platform. The Festival falls on the 21st to 25th days of the third month of the Tibetan lunar calendar. It is being held since 1991. Seva for Sangha:- It is a special camp for Sangha Community. Objective: to help the Sangha Community avail benefits of different government schemes. It is led by the Member of Parliament for Ladakh Constituency Jamyang Tsering Namgyal in collaboration with district administration Leh. (UPSC CSE: Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council (LAHDC), Leh) The camp is being organised for the first time for Sanga Community. Different government departments, including banks, will come forward and offer the benefits of about 20 schemes of the government to the monks and nuns. The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) has also joined hands with the organisers to set up medical camps during the camp. MUST READ: India’s first-ever night sky sanctuary in Ladakh SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2018) Tradition                                 State Chapchar Kut festival              Mizoram Khongjom Parba ballad          Manipur Thang-Ta dance                      Sikkim Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2015) Traditions                                     Communities Chaliha Sahib Festival             Sindhis Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra               Gonds Wari-Warkari                          Santhals Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only None of the above Hydrogen sulphide Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Preliminary evidence, from post-mortem and clinical features of the survivors of the recent Giaspura tragedy, suspect hydrogen sulphide gas as the cause. About Hydrogen sulphide:- IMAGE SOURCE: Overview of environmental sources and the fate of hydrogen sulfide (H2S) in… | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) Hydrogen sulphide (H2S) is a colourless chalcogen hydride gas with a characteristic foul odour. It is very poisonous, corrosive, and flammable. (UPSC PRELIMS: India’s first pure green hydrogen plant commissioned) It dissolves in water and oil. It may be released when these liquids are heated, depressurized, or agitated. It occurs in volcanic gases, natural gas, and some sources of well water. (UPSC CSE: Electronic nose to detect hydrogen sulphide developed)   Health Hazards Associated with Hydrogen Sulphide:- The health effects of hydrogen sulfide range from mild, headaches or eye irritation, to very serious, unconsciousness and death. Too much H2S can halt the breathing centre in the brain, which can cause death. The gas can irritate the eyes, nose, throat, and lungs. Because it is heavier than air, hydrogen sulfide can collect in low-lying and enclosed spaces, such as manholes, sewers, and underground telephone vaults. Its presence makes work in confined spaces potentially very dangerous. Uses:- Hydrogen sulphide is used primarily to produce sulfuric acid and sulphur. It is also used to create a variety of inorganic sulphides. It is used to create pesticides, leather, dyes, and pharmaceuticals. It is used to produce heavy water for nuclear power plants. It is also used or is a by-product in many industrial processes. Hydrogen sulfide is produced naturally from decaying organic matter.  It occurs naturally in sewers, manure pits, well water, oil and gas wells, and volcanoes.  It can be released from sewage sludge, liquid manure, sulfur hot springs, and natural gas. MUST READ: Bhopal Gas Tragedy SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2021) Low-density polyethene Polycarbonate Polyethene terephthalate Polyvinyl Chloride Q.2) Water can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because. (2021) It is dipolar in nature. It is a good conductor of heat It has a high value of specific heat It is an oxide of hydrogen Poshan Bhi, Padhai Bhi Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Union Minister for Women and Child Development Smriti Irani launched the ‘Poshan Bhi, Padhai Bhi’ schemes. About Poshan Bhi, Padhai Bhi:- Poshan Bhi, Padhai Bhi is an initiative for strengthening Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE). It is launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Objective:  to ensure that India has the world’s largest, universal, high-quality preschool network, as suggested by the NEP 2020. (UPSC CSE: National Education Policy 2020) It emphasizes the links with primary education as well as early childhood health and nutrition services. (UPSC PRELIMS: POSHAN Maah) Salient Features:- The government will target children’s development in every domain mentioned in the National Curriculum Framework. These include physical and motor development, cognitive development, socio-emotional-ethical development, etc. All States will follow the national ECCE task force recommendations for a play-based, activity-based learning pedagogy. It is targeted specifically at developmental milestones of 0-3-year olds as well as 3-6-year olds. It will include special support for Divyang children. Every child would be provided with at least two hours of high-quality preschool instruction on a daily basis. Anganwadi Centres will be strengthened with high-quality infrastructure, play equipment, and well-trained Anganwadi workers/teachers. It will provide for the mother tongue as the primary teacher instruction medium. It will also ensure different types of teaching-learning material (visual aids, audio aids, audio-visual and bodily-kinesthetic aids) to Anganwadi Sewikas. It will help build a Jan Andolan, to involve communities in strengthening the foundations of the country’s future generations. MUST READ: Education & Nation Building SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’? (2017) To enable famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only iDrone initiative Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: ICMR successfully conducted a trial run of delivery of blood bags by drones under its ‘iDrone initiative’ recently. About the drone initiative:- IMAGE SOURCE: Advantages And Disadvantages Of Drone Technology | Grind Drone The iDrone initiative is an innovative of the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR). (UPSC PRELIMS: i-Drone) The ICMR introduced the i-DRONE during the COVID-19 pandemic. It is now being used to deliver blood and blood-related products which are supposed to be kept at a low temperature. The inaugural trial flight carried ten units of whole blood samples from the Government Institute of Medical Sciences (GIMS) and Lady Hardinge Medical College (LHMC) in a visual line of sight. This initiative aims to transport essential medical resources to remote areas within the country. The medical supplies delivered under iDrone project included COVID-19 vaccines, vaccines used in routine immunisation programs, antenatal care medicines, multi-vitamins, syringes and gloves. The drone delivery system focused on an end-to-end ecosystem for drone-based logistic transportation within the states.  It was the first successful example of delivering vaccines through drones from land to islands in South Asia. The longest drone flight under this project carried 3525 units of medical supplies from Mokokchung to the district Tuensang in Nagaland (approx. 40 km). Significance: it will revolutionize the healthcare industry, especially in remote areas where access to medical facilities is limited. (UPSC CSE: Ministry of Civil Aviation notifies liberalised Drone Rules, 2021) Objectives:- To deliver medical supplies using drones. To distribute vaccines to inaccessible regions. To ensure the safe delivery of temperature-sensitive blood products to distant locations in the country. Other countries use drones to deliver medical supplies:- In Ghana, drone delivery of blood both as laboratory samples and as emergency blood and blood product delivery is available. MUST READ: Import Ban on Drones SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices? (2019) Location identification of a person Sleep monitoring of a person Assisting the hearing-impaired person Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017? (2017) It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city in our country into Smart Cities in a decade. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 3 only 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only Gajapati irrigation project Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, the Odisha Government announced the move to start the Gajapati irrigation project. About the Gajapati irrigation project:- It is a multipurpose irrigation project at Chheligada in the Gajapati district of Odisha. It is being undertaken across the river Badjhore. Badjhore: is a tributary of river Vansadhara near the village Chheligada in the Gajapati District of Odisha. The Project envisages the construction of a 250m long & 30m high dam across the river Badjhore with a central spillway. After this Project, 5201 hectares metres of water can be preserved and water can be supplied for irrigation of 5760 hectares of land in Ganjam and 500 hectares of land in Gajapati districts. This Project will also provide drinking water to Brahampur City. Additionally, 36 MW of electricity can be produced through a mini hydel project in three places Shiali Loti, Kankata and Dekili in the Gajapati district. Salient features of the Project are:- 90m long centrally located Ogee-type gated Spillway 1.13 km long tunnel to connect Chheligada reservoir with Ghodahada river (UPSC PRELIMS: Linking Rivers) Canal system directly from the dam to irrigate in the Gajapati district (UPSC MAINS: Decentralised irrigation techniques) Laying of the pipeline for drinking water supply to Berhampur (Distt. Ganjam) MUST READ: Cabinet approves Ken-Betwa Interlinking of Rivers Project SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? (2022) Cauvery Manjira Pennar Tungabhadra Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2022) Reservoirs        :     States Ghataprabha   :     Telangana Gandhi Sagar  :     Madhya Pradesh Indira Sagar    :     Andhra Pradesh Maithon          :     Chhattisgarh How many pairs given above are not correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs PAY Only three pairs All four pairs Central Electricity Authority Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, the Central Electricity Authority has projected a peak power demand of 335 gw and 2.28 trillion units of electricity for the year 2029-30. About Central Electricity Authority:- The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) is a statutory organization. It was constituted under Section 3 (1) of the repealed Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948 and continued under Section 70 of the Electricity Act, 2003. It was established as a part-time body in 1951. It became a full-time body in the year 1975. Members:- As per Section 70 (3) of the Electricity Act, 2003, the authority shall consist of not more than 14 members. (UPSC CSE: The Electricity (Amendment) Bill 2022) This includes its chairperson. Not more than eight of them shall be full-time members to be appointed by the Central Government. The CEA is headed by a chairperson who, is the Chief Executive of the authority. He oversees largely the development of the power sector in the country. Functions:- It advises the government on matters relating to the National Electricity Policy (NEP). It formulates short-term and prospective plans for the development of electrical systems. It is the designated authority for cross border trade of electricity. (UPSC CSE: Cross-border Electricity Trade) It also prescribes the standards on matters such as the construction of electrical plants, electric lines and connectivity to the grid, safety and grid standards and installation and operation of meters. It is also responsible for the concurrence of hydropower development schemes of central, state and private sectors for the efficient development of rivers and their tributaries for power generation. MUST READ: Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to solar water pumps, consider the following statements: (2020) Solar power can be used for running surface pumps and not for submersible Pumps. Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps and not the ones with pistons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following is the purpose of `UDAY’, a scheme of the Government? (2016) Providing technical and financial assistance to start-up entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy Providing electricity to every household in the country by 2018 Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period of time Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies Gaza and West Bank Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, Oman and Qatar criticized aggression by Israeli occupation forces on Gaza & incursion into West Bank’s Nablus. About Gaza and West Bank:- IMAGE SOURCE: Rocket kills man in Israel as strikes target Gaza militant commanders – BBC News. The West Bank and Gaza Strip are the two geographical regions. They house a large number of Palestinians. Background:- The Gaza Strip is an entirely artificial creation that emerged in 1948 when roughly three-fourths of Palestine’s Arab population was displaced.  (UPSC CSE: Violence between Israel- Palestine ) Most of the refugees scattered across the region in neighbouring countries like Jordan, Syria and Lebanon The West Bank and Gaza Strip are separated from each other by Israel. (UPSC PRELIMS: India and Israel) The West Bank is a landlocked region located west of the Jordan River. It is surrounded by Jordan to the east. It has Israel to the south, west and north MUST READ: India, Israel and Palestine SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (2018) China Israel Iraq Yemen Q.2) What is the importance of developing the Chabahar Port by India? (2017) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase. India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened. India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India Indian Sludge finds ‘high potential’ for use as Fertilizer Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment) Context: A recent analysis found that sludge found in Indian sewage treatment plants (STP)has  high potential for use as fertilizer but required treatment before it could be used unrestrictedly in farms, or as a potential biofuel. About Sludge: Sludge is a thick residue found in Sewage Treatment Plants set up to treat polluted water. They are rich in organic chemicals but are also a repository of heavy metals, industrial effluents and bacterial contaminants. Classification of Treated sludge: India doesn’t yet have standards classifying sludge as class A or B. Treated sludge can be classified as class A or class B, as per the standards of the United States Environment Protection Agency. Class A sludge: It is safe to be disposed of in the open and useful as organic fertilizer. Class B sludge: It can be used in restricted agricultural applications, with the edible parts of the crop not exposed to the sludge-mixed soil, and animals and people not come into extensive contact. Government initiative to treat sludge: National Mission for Clean Ganga is a flagship programme of the government to establish treatment facilities and prevent pollution of the Ganga River. One of the measures under this is “Arth Ganga” (economic value from Ganga). It aims to “monetise” and reuse treated wastewater and sludge. This means converting sludge into usable products such as manure and bricks. Findings: Most of the dried sludge analysed falls into the class B category. Nitrogen and phosphorus levels exceed India’s fertilizer standards, while potassium levels are lower than recommended. Total organic carbon content is higher than recommended, but heavy metal contamination and pathogen levels surpass fertilizer standards. Calorific value of sludge ranges from 1,000-3,500 kcal/kg, lower than that of Indian coal. Recommendations for Improving Sludge Quality: Storage of sludge for at least three months is recommended to kill pathogens. Blending sludge with cattle manure, husk, or local soil can reduce heavy metal content. These measures, however, would still categorize sludge as class B. Converting sludge into class A would require more extensive treatment. Challenges: India doesn’t yet have standards classifying sludge as class A or B. Currently, those awarded contracts for developing and maintaining STPs under the Namami Ganga Mission are also apportioned land for disposing of the sludge. However, this is rarely treated, and during rains, such sludge — with its accompanying chemical and metallic constituents — often makes its way back into rivers and local water sources. A study by the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT)-Roorkee found that most of the sludge analysed after drying fell into the class B category. Nitrogen and phosphorous levels were higher than those recommended by India’s fertilizer standards (FCO, 2009). However, the potassium levels of some sludges were less than recommended. Suggestive measures: To improve the quality of sludge, the report recommends the sludge needs to be stored for at least three months to kill pathogens, and blended with cattle manure and husk or local soil to reduce the heavy metal. This, however, would still put it in class B and converting it into grade A sludge would require far more extensive treatment. Before standards were made, it was necessary to understand the characteristics of the sludge from these STPs before ways could be devised to incentivize private players to treat and dispose of sludge. Source:   The Hindu Arth Ganga Project: ‘Arth Ganga’ implies a sustainable development model with a focus on economic activities related to Ganga. Prime Minister of India first introduced the concept during the first National Ganga Council meeting in Kanpur in 2019, where he urged for a shift from Namami Gange to the model of Arth Ganga. Under Arth Ganga, the government is working on six verticals: The first is Zero Budget Natural Farming, which involves chemical-free farming on 10 km on either side of the river, and the promotion of cow dung as fertilizer through the Gobardhan scheme. The Monetization and Reuse of Sludge & Wastewater is the second, which seeks to reuse treated water for irrigation, industries and revenue generation for Urban Local Bodies (ULBs). Arth Ganga will also involve Livelihood Generation Opportunities, by creating haats where people can sell local products, medicinal plants and ayurveda. The fourth is to increase public participation by increasing synergies between the stakeholders involved with the river. The model also wants to promote the cultural heritage and tourism of Ganga and its surroundings, through boat tourism, adventure sports, and by conducting yoga activities. Lastly, the model seeks to promote institutional building by empowering local administration for improved water governance. What is the stalemate over the U.S. debt ceiling? Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: The U.S. Treasury Secretary notified Congress last week that the country could default on its debt as early as June 1 2023, if the Republican-dominated House of Representatives and President Joe Biden’s White House did not reach a consensus to raise or suspend the debt ceiling. About debt ceiling: The maximum amount of money that the United States can borrow by issuing bonds is known as Debt Ceiling. It was introduced in 1917 during World War I. Under the Second Freedom Bond Act of 1917 and the debt ceiling was created and it is also known as the statutory debt limit or the debt limit. If the US government’s national debt reaches the cap, the Treasury Department must take other steps to meet government expenditures and other obligations the cap is increased again. The debt ceiling has been suspended or raised several times across the years so as to avoid the worst-case scenario of default. There have been numerous clashes regarding the debt ceiling, which have even led to the shutdown of governments. Disadvantages of Debt Ceiling: The debt ceiling will be raised even higher when the cap is reached and doing so every time can cause problems. The risk non-payment of interest as well as default to bondholders increases the nations borrowing costs and reduces the solvency of the United States. Debt Management in India: The Reserve Bank of India has allowed the following bodies to issue debt instruments in India: Central and State Governments, Municipal Corporations, Government agencies, Banks, NBFCs, Public Sector Units, Corporates. Debt products available include bonds, Certificates of Deposit, Commercial Papers, Debentures, National Savings Certificates, Government Securities, Fixed Deposits, and more. In India, public debt includes the total liabilities of the Union government that have to be paid from the Consolidated Fund of India (Article 292). It is further classified into internal and external debt. Internal debt is categorized into marketable and non-marketable securities. The part of a nation’s debt that is borrowed from foreign lenders, such as commercial banks, governments, or international financial institutions, is referred to as its external debt. The debt-to-GDP ratio shows how probable it is that the nation will be able to pay off its debt. Investors frequently use the debt-to-GDP ratio to determine the capacity of the government to finance its debt. Global economic crises have been fueled by higher debt-to-GDP ratios. In 2015, the creation of a statutory body called Public Debt Management Agency (PDMA) was envisaged in India that deals with the management of public debt called the Public Debt Management Cell. Public Debt Management Cell is an interim arrangement before setting up an independent and statutory debt management agency namely the Public Debt Management Agency (PDMA). Way Forward: An excessive level of public debt can result in higher interest rates, which has a crowding effect on the amount of private investment in the economy and the rate of economic expansion as a whole. Although it temporarily boosts overall demand, if left unchecked it can cause a country’s economy to experience spiralling losses. Source:    The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-wave Observatory (LIGO) India: It exploits the physical properties of light and space to detect and understand the origins of gravitational waves. It will be located in Karnataka, India. It is envisaged as a collaborative project between a consortium of Indian research institutions and the LIGO Laboratory in the USA, along with its international partners. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) The health effects of hydrogen sulphide range from mild, headaches or eye irritation, to very serious, unconsciousness and death. In this context, which of the following are sources of Hydrogen Sulphide? Fertilizer Industry Leather Industry Textile Industries Pharmaceuticals Industry Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 2 and 4 only 1 2 and 3 only 2 3 and 4 only All of the above Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the Central Electricity Authority (CEA): It is a non-statutory organization. It advises the government on matters relating to the National Electricity Policy (NEP). The CEA is headed by a chairperson who, is the Chief Executive of the authority. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 12th May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 11th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 12th May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[Compilations] 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Subjectwise Compilations for UPSC Prelims 2023 – Part 1

Hello friends,If you ask any topper about their secret of success, you’ll find one common answer. And that is – Revision.Revision is key to success as if you have not revised the topics, you won’t be able to recall them in the exam and there will be a very high probability of getting confused and marking an incorrect answer.To assist all of you in Revision, we are providing you with the Compilation of the 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series. Make the best use of them. All the best! Download Compilations - Part 1 Part 2 compilations will be updated soon! Polity Economy History Geography Environment Science & Technology Current Affairs CSAT

[DAY 59] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 59->Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Rabindranath Tagore Syllabus Prelims –Important Personalities Context: Recently, a political row erupted following Union Home Minister Amit Shah’s remark that Rabindranath Tagore had composed “national songs” of two countries. About Rabindranath Tagore:- IMAGE SOURCE: Tagore wins Nobel Prize (bl. UK) Rabindranath Tagore was a Bengali poet, novelist, artist, painter and educational theorist. He is credited with composing the National Anthem of India. Tagore won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1913 for his collection Gitanjali. He was the first Indian and non-European to receive a Nobel Prize. He received the British Knighthood in 1915. However, he renounced it in protest against the Jallianwalla Bagh massacre in 1919. (UPSC PRELIMS: Jallianwala Bagh) Social Philosophy:- He fought against the evils of his society such as poverty, superstition, and untouchability. He welcomed Western science and Western beliefs in individual worth, freedom, and democracy. Independence movement:- He believed that nationalism deteriorated from patriotism to chauvinism. He is credited for giving the Mahatma title to Mahatma Gandhi. (UPSC MAINS: Gandhi as a Political thinker and a Social Reformer) He strongly protested against the partition of Bengal in 1905. He wrote many national songs and attended protest meetings against the decision to partition Bengal. Religion:- Tagore advocated the religion of humanity. Education:- In his view, traditional schools imprison children. Hence, he started a model school after the ancient hermitage schools of India named Santiniketan (the abode of peace). Santiniketan engaged many scholars from across the world, including his English friends, Oxford professor E J Thompson, missionary C F Andrews and Lord Elmhirst. He also widened his educational commitment by founding a university – Visva Bharati  Visva Bharati: promoted an international culture of unity in diversity. Literary Contributions:- Poems: Manasi (The Ideal One,1890)  Sonar Tari (The Golden Boat,1894)  Gitanjali (Song Offerings,1910) Gitimalya (Wreath of Songs,1914) Balaka (The Flight of Cranes,1916) Plays: Raja (1910) [The King of the Dark Chamber], Dakghar (The Post Office,1912) Achalayatan (The Immovable,1912) Muktadhara (The Waterfall,1922) Raktakaravi (Red Oleanders,1926) Short stories and Novels: Gora (1910), Ghare-Baire (The Home and the World, 1916) and Yogayog (Crosscurrents, 1929) MUST READ:   (Book Review – Gitanjali by Rabindranath Tagore) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Who among the following is associated with ‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English? (2021) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Jawaharlal Nehru Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi Sarojini Naidu Q.2) Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School? (2021) Annie Besant Debandranath Tagore Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar Sarojini Naidu Enforcement Directorate Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Enforcement Directorate conducted a search at gold-backed lender Manappuram Finance. About Enforcement Directorate:- IMAGE SOURCE: Enforcement Directorate (ED) and its Functions – Enterslice The Enforcement Directorate is a multi-disciplinary organization founded in 1956. It is a law enforcement organization tasked with enforcing economic laws and combating economic crime in India, such as money laundering and foreign exchange irregularities. It works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Headquarters: New Delhi The functions of the Directorate include the enforcement of the following Acts:- The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) (UPSC PRELIMS: Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) 2002) The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA): A civil law under which ED conducts an investigation into suspected contraventions of foreign exchange laws and regulations. (UPSC PRELIMS: Foreign Exchange Management Act) The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act 1973 Sponsoring Organizations under the 1974 Foreign Exchange Conservation and Smuggling Activity Prevention Act The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA): A law whereby the Directorate is mandated to attach the properties of the fugitive economic offenders who have escaped from India warranting arrest and providing for the confiscation of their properties to the Central Government. (UPSC CSE: Fugitive Economic Offenders) Director of Enforcement:- Appointed by the central government on the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Central Vigilance Commissioner and members comprising of Vigilance Commissioners, Home Secretary, Secretary DOPT and Revenue Secretary. Tenure: up to 5 years. Recruitment of other officers:- Other officers may be recruited directly from other investigative agencies or indirectly.  It is made up of representatives from the police, excise, customs, and income tax departments of the Indian Revenue Services (IRS), the Indian Police Services (IPS), and the Indian Administrative Services (IAS). MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Geological Survey of India (GSI) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Geological Survey of India (GSI) denied media reports claiming large lithium reserves being identified in Rajasthan. About the Geological Survey of India (GSI):- The Geological Survey of India (GSI) is a scientific agency of India founded in 1851. (UPSC MAINS: Geological Survey of India ) It works under the Ministry of Mines. Background: It was set up in 1851 primarily to find coal deposits for the Railways. It is one of the oldest organisations in the world and the second oldest survey in India after Survey of India. (UPSC PRELIMS: Survey of India) Objectives:- Conducting geological surveys and studies of India. Being the prime provider of basic earth science information to government, industry and the general public, as well as the official participant in steel, coal, metals, cement, power industries and international geoscientific forums. Functions: creation and updation of national geoscientific information and mineral resource assessment. Headquarters: Kolkata It has six regional offices located at Lucknow, Jaipur, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Shillong and Kolkata. Important events in the history of the Geological Survey of India:- 1821: First Geological Map of parts of India was of the Hyderabad region by Dr H. W. Voysey 1840: Museum of Geology established in Calcutta 1873: Ram Singh becomes the first Indian to join the Geological Survey of India (as an apprentice) 1911: Revised Geological Map of India in 1″= 32 Mile scale was published under H. H. Hayden 1921-33: E. H. Pascoe’s “Manual of Geology of India” published in four volumes 1951 M. S. Krishnan becomes the first Indian to be a Director of the Geological Survey of India 2001: GSI celebrated 150 years Missions for GSI:- Mission I: Baseline Geoscience, Data Collection Ground and Marine Surveys Remote Sensing and Aerial Surveys Mission II: Natural Resource Assessment Natural Mineral Resource Assessment Natural Energy Mineral Resources Mission III: Geoinformatics Data Repository and Management, etc Publication and Information, Library Map, Geoinformatics and Data Integration Mission IV: Multidisciplinary Geosciences Geotechnical and Geohazards Management Climate Change and Eco-Systems, etc Fundamental Geosciences and Research Mission V: Training And Capacity Building Training And Capacity Building MUST READ: Gold Reserve SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Monazite is a source of rare earth. Monazite contains thorium. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following minerals: (2020) Bentonite Chromite Kyanite Sillimanite In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) recently published a new study on the rising challenges of extreme weather events and natural disasters. About United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP):-   IMAGE SOURCE: About ESCAP | ESCAP (unescap.org) The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) is the most inclusive intergovernmental platform in the Asia-Pacific region. The United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific is the main legislative organ of ESCAP. It reports to the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of the UN. (UPSC MAINS: Peacekeeping efforts of UN)  It provides a forum for all governments of the region to review and discuss economic and social issues and to strengthen regional cooperation. The Commission meets annually at the ministerial level.  It discusses and decides on important issues pertaining to inclusive and sustainable economic and social development in the region, to decide on the recommendations of its subsidiary bodies and of the Executive Secretary. It reviews and endorses the proposed strategic framework and programme of work, and makes any other decisions required, in conformity with its terms of reference. Members: It has 53 member States and 9 associate members. The Commission promotes cooperation in pursuit of solutions to sustainable development challenges. ESCAP is one of the five regional commissions of the United Nations. (UPSC MAINS: Reforms in the United Nations (UN)) Functions:- It supports inclusive, resilient and sustainable development in the region by generating action-oriented knowledge. It provides technical assistance and capacity-building services in support of national development objectives, regional agreements and the implementation of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.  It also provides support to partners at the national level. MUST READ: United Nations Institute for Water, Environment and Health (UNU-INWEH) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for (2021) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit of time Q.2) “R2 Code of Practices” constitute a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2021) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources Maharana Pratap Syllabus Prelims –Important Personalities Context: Maharana Pratap Jayanti was celebrated recently. About Maharana Pratap:- Maharana Pratap, was born in Kumbhalgarh, Rajasthan. He was the 13th King of Mewar and the eldest son of Udai Singh II. Maharana Udai Singh II: ruled the kingdom of Mewar, with his capital at Chittor. Udai Singh II was also a founder of the city of Udaipur (Rajasthan). Important Events:- Battle of Haldighati: The Battle of Haldighati was fought in 1576. It was between Rana Pratap Singh of Mewar and Raja Man Singh of Amber who was the general of the Mughal emperor Akbar. (UPSC PRELIMS: Akbar) Maharana Pratap fought a brave war but was defeated by Mughal forces. It is said that Maharana Pratap’s loyal horse named Chetak, gave up his life as the Maharana was leaving the battlefield. Reconquest:- After 1579, Pratap recovered Western Mewar including Kumbhalgarh, Udaipur and Gogunda. He also built a new capital, Chavand, near modern Dungarpur. He was succeeded by his son Amar Singh, who submitted in 1614 to Emperor Jahangir. (UPSC PRELIMS: Mughal paintings) MUST READ: Eastern Rajasthan Canal Project (ERCP) SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS  Q.1) With reference to medieval India, which one of the following is the correct sequence in ascending order in terms of size? (2020) Paragana – Sarkar – Suba Sarkar – Paragana – Suba Suba – Sarkar – Paragana Paragana – Suba – Sarkar Q.2) Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to the album and individual portraits? (2018) Humayun Akbar Jahangir Shah Jahan Coco Islands Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: Indian Navy drones are keeping an eye on China-linked Coco Islands after a top Myanmar military official’s recent visit. About Coco Islands:- IMAGE SOURCE: Sri Lanka the heart of the Indian Ocean (heartofindianocean.blogspot.com) Coco Islands are a small group of islands located in the Bay of Bengal. They are part of the Yangon Region of Myanmar. Historical Background:- In the early 19th century, the British government in India established a penal colony in the Andaman for the convicts in the Indian subcontinent, and the Coco Islands were a source of food for it. The British government had reportedly leased out the islands to the Jadwet family of Burma. The leasing of control of the Coco Islands resulted in poor governance of the islands, which made the British government in India transfer its control to the government of Lower Burma in Rangoon. In 1882, the islands officially became part of British Burma. (UPSC MAINS: Political Crisis in Myanmar) The islands became a self-governing crown colony even after Burma was separated from British India in 1937. Great Coco Island, the largest in the group, lies just 55 km from India’s strategic Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Coco Islands are geologically an extended division of the Arakan Mountains or Rakhine Mountains. They submerge as a chain of islands in the Bay of Bengal for a long stretch and emerge again in the form of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. (UPSC MAINS: Plate tectonics theory) They are part of the same topography as India’s Andaman & Nicobar Islands. MUST READ: Andaman and Nicobar Gets Large Area Certification SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                              Turkey Amhara                                               Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                     Spain Catalonia                                             Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following pairs : (2018) Regions sometimes mentioned in news                    Country Catalonia                                                        Spain Crimea                                                            Hungary Mindanao                                                       Philippines Oromia                                                            Nigeria Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only Voting Rights of Migrant Workers Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: Given the large migrant population in Karnataka, Lokniti-Centre for the Study of Developing Societies conducted a study among the migrant voters of Bengaluru to find out their voting patterns. About Migrant Worker: A migrant worker is a person who migrates within a home country or outside it to pursue work. Migrant workers usually do not have the intention to stay permanently in the country or region in which they work. In India, Migrant workers usually refer to those who engage in internal migration within the country, often for the purpose of seeking employment. Internal migration refers to the movement of people from one place to another within the same country. Internal migration in India: As per census 2011, the total number of internal migrants in India is 36 crore or 37% of the country’s population. The Economic Survey pegged the size of the migrant workforce at roughly 20 per cent or over 10 crore in 2016. Major origin states of internal migration: Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Odisha. Major destination states of internal migration: Maharashtra, Delhi, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Punjab. Sectoral composition: The share of migrant workers is the highest in the construction sector for females while the highest number of male migrant workers are employed in public services (transport, postal, public administration services) and modern services (financial intermediation, real estate, renting, education, health). About Remote Voting: Any method that enables voters to cast their ballots from locations other than the polling place designated for their registration address is referred to as remote voting. Both domestically and internationally may be used as the remote voting location. It includes both non-electronic and electronic voting processes. A “Committee of Officers on Domestic Migrants” was established by the Election Commission of India (ECI) earlier to handle this problem. A solution in the form of “remote voting” was proposed in the Committee’s 2016 report. Migration and  Remote Voting Migrant workers across India are often apprehensive about registering themselves as voters in any other State apart from their home State. This is due to various reasons such as frequent changes in residence, fear of losing property in their home State, and their inability or unwillingness to bring their families with them as well. The migrants often convey that the locality were not safe for women. Remote Electronic Voting Machine: Source: The Hindu Remote Electronic Voting Machine (RVM), allows domestic migrants to vote in national and regional elections. The EC proposed using this in a State Assembly election as a pilot so internal migrants within a state can cast their ballots. Features of RVM: It is a standalone, non-networked system having the same security features as the existing Indian EVMs and provides the same voting experience to the voter as the EVM. The RVM system is essentially a modified version of the existing EVM system. A single Ballot Unit (BU) can cater to multiple AC/ PCs at a single polling station by using a dynamic ballot display instead of the usually printed paper ballot sheet on BU. Significance of RVM: Increasing voters’ participation: It will enable a voter, who is listed in constituencies, to exercise voting rights from a single machine. Ease of Voting: Migrant voters need not travel to their home district to exercise their voting rights. Vibrant Democracy: It will enable approximately 30 crore electors, currently not exercising their franchise, to vote. Safety and Security: Remote e-voting machine will be a standalone device which doesn’t need connectivity to operate. Concerns with RVM: Inclusive definition of migrants: Migrants are not a uniform and defined class, with fluid identities, locations and situations. Trust Issue: Various countries have already rejected EVMs for paper-based ballots. Hacking Probability: RVMs with more technological components are bound to raise further questions. Lack of Level Playing Field: Remote voting can theoretically provide an added edge to bigger parties and richer candidates who can campaign across the constituency and beyond. Model Code of Conduct: There is no clarity about how Model Code of Conduct will be implemented in the remote constituencies. Way Forward: Lakhs of migrants not only have they left their home States, they have also given up on significant rights. While elections are an opportunity for people to exercise their fundamental rights, the votes of migrant voters have been missing for years. While the ECI’s move provides a ray of hope to millions of migrant workers, two crucial priorities ahead are to create awareness about the initiative and ensure transparency. Source:   The Hindu Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: The ONDC (Open Network for Digital Commerce) is gradually challenging the dominance of Zomato and Swiggy by offering users cheaper prices for the same food items. About ONDC Project: Source:   The Hindu Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is an initiative aiming at promoting open networks for all aspects of exchange of goods and services over digital or electronic networks. ONDC is to be based on open-sourced methodology, using open specifications and open network protocols independent of any specific platform. It is a non-profit initiative of the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce. Currently, grocery and food items merchants are mostly part of it, but beauty, fashion, personal care products, and electronics, among others, are gradually joining in Currently, there are partners like Paytm, Meesho, Magicpin, Mystore, Craftsvilla, and Spice Money, which act as online storefronts, allowing users to order food or any other product from a business listed on the ONDC platform. Significance of ONDC: On ONDC, buyers and sellers may transact irrespective of the fact that they are attached to one specific e-commerce portal. This could give a huge booster shot to smaller online retailers and new entrants. However, if mandated, this could be problematic for larger e-commerce companies, which have their own processes and technology deployed for these segments of operations. ONDC is expected to digitise the entire value chain, standardise operations, promote inclusion of suppliers, derive efficiency in logistics and enhance value for consumers. The platform envisages equal-opportunity participation and is expected to make e-commerce more inclusive and accessible for consumers as they can potentially discover any seller, product or service by using any compatible application/platform, thus increasing their freedom of choice. It will enable transactions of any denomination, thus making ONDC a truly ‘open network for democratic commerce’. Over the next five years, the ONDC expects to bring on board 90 crore users and 12 lakh sellers on the network, enabling 730 crore additional purchases. Challenges with ONDC: Threat to Local businesses in the long run: The local business will find it extremely challenging to compete with the discounts, sales and other lucrative offers, being offered by prominent e-commerce players which may result in local business being squeezed out of the network in the long run. Silent on liability for a bad product: The strategy paper is silent on the issues regarding liability on the network in case consumers faced issues regarding transactions, delivery of substandard products and service. No clarity on how existing laws will apply: There is also a lack of clarity on the applicability of the existing e-commerce laws to the network. Indian e-commerce Industry: Growth: The Indian e-commerce industry has been on an upward growth trajectory. The Indian e-commerce market was estimated to be worth over $55 Bn in Gross Merchandise Value in 2021. By 2030, it is expected to have an annual gross merchandise value of $350 Bn. Factors of Growth: Fuelling e-commerce growth, India is expected to have over 907 million internet users by 2023, which accounts for ~64% of the total population of the country. The e-commerce industry in India is growing on levers such as increased smartphone penetration, increased affluence and low data prices, providing impetus for e-retail growth. India is the 2nd largest internet market in the world with ~62 billion UPI transactions in 2022. Electronics and apparel make up nearly 70 per cent of the e-commerce market, when evaluated against transaction value. Other new upcoming categories within e-commerce include ed-tech, hyperlocal and food-tech. Gaining Popularity in tier-2 and tier-3 cities: The e-commerce trend is gaining major popularity even in tier-2 and tier– 3 cities as they now make up nearly half of all shoppers and contribute three of every five orders for leading e-retail platforms. The average selling price (ASP) in tier-2 and smaller towns is only marginally lower than in tier-1/metro cities. Way Forward: ONDC must create consumer trust through robust mechanisms for ensuring redressal of grievances of consumers and enforcing transparent policies for returns, refunds and cancellations. There needs to be a paradigm shift from an operator-driven monolithic platform-centric model to a facilitator-driven, interoperable decentralized network. The policies should be implemented at the network level. Source:   The Hindu MUST READ: (UPSC CSE: E-Commerce) Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP): It is the most inclusive intergovernmental platform in the Asia-Pacific region. It has 75 member States and 15 associate members. It reports to the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of the United Nations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Geological Survey of India (GSI)” It is a scientific agency of India founded in 1851. It works under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. It headquartered in New Delhi It aims at creation and updation of national geoscientific information and mineral resource assessment. Which of the above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only Q.3) The functions of the Enforcement Directorate in India include the enforcement of the which of the following acts? The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 The Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act or COFEPOSA 1974 select the correct using the code given below: 1 2 and 3 only 1 2 and 4 only 2 3 and 4 only 1 2 3 and 4 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 10th May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 9th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 58] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 58->Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 10th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) CISO Deep-Dive Training Programme Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, NeGD organised the 36th CISO Deep-Dive Training Programme under Cyber Surakshit Bharat. About CISO Deep-Dive Training Programme:- IMAGE SOURCE: Infographic: The 8 most common types of Cyber Attacks – CyberOne It’s a training programme, under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). It is a five-day intensive training programme. The CISO training programme was launched in 2018 under the Public Private Partnership (PPP) model. NeGD has organized 36 sessions of CISO deep-dive training programs for more than 1,419 CISOs and IT officials since that time. Participants: it had 24 participants, including CISOs, technical wings of police and security forces, CTOs, and members of technical/PMU teams from Central Line Ministries and States/UTs. The purpose of the CISO Deep-Dive training programme is to provide CISOs with a comprehensive understanding of cyber-attacks, the latest safeguarding technologies, and how to communicate the benefits of a strong e-infrastructure to organizations and the public. (UPSC PRELIMS: India’s cyber infrastructure) Additionally, the training seeks to give a comprehensive view of legal provisions and help build concrete crisis management plans for cyber-attacks. (UPSC CSE: Cybercrime) Coverage of Topics:- Governance Risk and Compliance, the Landscape of Cyber Security Products in India, Security for Endpoints and Digital Workplaces, Network Security, Security for Applications and Data, Incident Response and CCMP, Mobile Security, Cryptography, Cyber Security Testing and Audit, Cyber Security related Provisions of IT Act and ISMS Standards such as ISO 27001, as well as Security Logging and Operation and Monitoring of Security Operation Centers. Cyber Surakshit Bharat:- It is the initiative of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) It was conceptualised with the mission to spread awareness about cybercrime and build capacities of Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs) and frontline IT officials, across all government departments, for ensuring adequate safety measures to combat the growing menace. MUST READ: Cyber Attacks in India SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following pairs of Terms sometimes seen in news vs Context /Topic: (2018) Belle II experiment: Artificial Intelligence Blockchain technology: Digital/ Cryptocurrency CRISPR — Cas9: Particle Physics Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Gems and Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Gems and Jewellery Export Promotion Council(GJEPC) launched India Jewellery Exposition 2023. About Gems and Jewellery Export Promotion Council(GJEPC):- IMAGE SOURCE: Gems and Jewellery Industry in India by 10rahulcc on DeviantArt The Gem & Jewellery Export Promotion Council is the apex body founded in 1966. It drives India’s export-led growth in the gem and jewellery sector. (UPSC MAINS: Export-oriented units) Headquartered in Mumbai. It has regional offices across the country and over 7,500 members in its fold. VISION: to make India the preferred source for quality gems and jewellery. (UPSC PRELIMS: India’s Gems & Jewellery sector ) Objectives:- PROMOTING BRAND INDIA:- Organising India’s biggest and second-biggest trade shows, IIJS Premiere and IIJS Signature Organising joint participation in international jewellery shows CONNECTING GOVERNMENT & TRADE:- Facilitating better interaction on trade-related issues between the industry and the Government of India, Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Ministry of Finance, DGFT, Dept of Commerce, Dept. of Finance UPHOLDING DIAMOND INTEGRITY:- Executing the Kimberly Process Certification Scheme in the country, as the Nodal Agency appointed by the Government of India SPREADING EDUCATION:- Running training institutes that impart manufacturing skills, technical and design excellence in six cities – Mumbai, Delhi, Surat, Jaipur, Varanasi and Udupi  INNOVATION AND INFRASTRUCTURE:- Providing MSMEs with affordable modern machines and tools at Common Facility Centres Setting up Jewellery Parks across the country  HEALTH AND WELL-BEING:- Providing health insurance for the employees of the Council’s member companies through the group mediclaim scheme called Swasthya Ratna PAYING BACK TO SOCIETY:- Founded by GJEPC in 2014, Jewellers for Hope has donated Rs.1 crore every year to one or more NGOs/charities doing exceptional work in supporting the underprivileged. Providing relief to victims of natural calamities and emergency situations through the Gem & Jewellery National Relief Foundation (GJNRF). MUST READ: New Foreign Trade Policy SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at (2016) bringing small entrepreneurs into the formal financial system providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating particular crops providing pensions to old and destitute persons funding the voluntary organizations involved in the promotion of skill development and employment generation Q.2) What is/are the purpose/purposes of `District Mineral Foundations in India? (2016) Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich districts Protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations Authorizing State Governments to issue licences for mineral exploration Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Finance Minister chaired the meeting of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC). About Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC):- IMAGE SOURCE: What is the meaning of fiscal deficit? – OneMint The Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) was constituted by executive order in 2010. It is a non-statutory apex council. It works under the Ministry of Finance. The Council can invite experts to its meeting if required. The Raghuram Rajan committee (2008) on financial sector reforms first proposed the creation of FSDC. It is chaired by the Finance Minister. FSDC sub-committee is headed by the Governor of RBI. Its members include:- The heads of all Financial Sector Regulators (RBI, SEBI, PFRDA & IRDA) Finance Secretary Secretary of the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) Secretary of the Department of Financial Services (DFS) Chief Economic Adviser Minister of State for the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) Secretary of the Department of Electronics and Information Technology, Chairperson of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) Revenue Secretary. Objectives:- To strengthen and institutionalize the mechanism for maintaining financial stability, enhancing inter-regulatory coordination and promoting financial sector development. (UPSC MAINS: Mechanism to address fiscal deficit) To monitor macro-prudential supervision of the economy. (UPSC MAINS: Macro-economic stability) It assesses the functioning of the large financial conglomerates. MUST READ: Financial Stability Report SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements (2018) The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Government. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of the war of GDP of the State 2 Governments. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Border Roads Organisation Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Border Roads Organisation started constructing 6,100km of road on the China border. About Border Roads Organisation:- BRO was conceived and raised in 1960 by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru for coordinating the speedy development of a network of roads in the North and the North Eastern border regions of the country. It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence. (UPSC PRELIMS: Umbrella scheme of Border Infrastructure & Management (BIM)) Functions:- It develops and maintains road networks in India’s border areas and friendly neighbouring countries. (UPSC MAINS: Economic and strategic advantages of Border road infrastructure) Construction and development works comprising airfields, building projects, defence works and tunnelling and has endeared itself to the people. Staff:-  It is staffed by officers and troops drawn from the Indian Army’s Corps of Engineers, Electrical and Mechanical Engineers, Army Service Corps, Military Police and army personnel on extra regimental employment. Officers from the Border Roads Engineering Service and personnel from the General Reserve Engineer Force (GREF) form the parent cadre of the Border Roads Organisation. Currently, the organisation maintains operations in twenty-one states, one UT (Andaman and Nicobar Islands), and neighbouring countries such as Afghanistan, Bhutan, Myanmar, and Sri Lanka. MUST READ: Sela Tunnel Project SOURCE: TIMESOFINDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries : (2018) Australia Canada China India Japan USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4, 5 and 6 1, 3, 4 and 5 2, 3, 4 and 6 Q.2) Consider the following countries (2015) China France India Israel Pakistan Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Nonproliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)? 1 and 2 only 1, 3, 4 and 5 only 2, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Gopal Krishna Gokhale Syllabus Prelims –Important Personalities Context: Recently, the Prime Minister paid homage to Gopal Krishna Gokhale on his birth anniversary. About Gopal Krishna Gokhale:- IMAGE SOURCE: Gopal krishna gokhale (slideshare.net) Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a great social reformer and educationist who provided exemplary leadership to India’s freedom movement. Ideology:- He worked towards social empowerment, expansion of education, and struggle for freedom in India for three decades and rejected the use of reactionary or revolutionary ways. He joined Indian National Congress in 1889. He was associated with the Moderate Group of Indian National Congress. (UPSC MAINS: Key achievements of the moderates) He became president of INC in 1905 in Banaras’s session. Societies and Other Works:- Gokhale with the aid of M.G. Ranade established the Servants of India Society in 1905 for the expansion of Indian education. He was also associated with the Sarvajanik Sabha journal started by Govind Ranade. In 1908, Gokhale founded the Ranade Institute of Economics. He started an English weekly newspaper, The Hitavada (The People’s Paper). Role in Colonial Legislatures:- Between 1899 and 1902, he was a member of the Bombay Legislative Council followed by work at the Imperial Legislative Council from 1902 till his death (1915). Mahatma Gandhi was regarded as his political master. (UPSC MAINS: Non-Cooperation Movement) Gandhi wrote a book in Gujarati dedicated to the leader titled ‘Dharmatma Gokhale’. MUST READ: Mahatma Gandhi SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School? (2021) Annie Besant Debandranath Tagore Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar Sarojini Naidu MiG-21 fighter jet Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: A MiG-21 fighter jet of the Indian Air Force (IAF) crashed near Rajasthan’s Suratgarh recently. About MiG-21 fighter jet:- The Mikoyan-Gurevich MiG 21  is a supersonic jet fighter and interceptor aircraft. It is designed by the Mikoyan-Gurevich Design Bureau in the Soviet Union. The MiG-21 is capable of performing a range of roles and can be used for both air-to-air and ground attacks. It has a single engine and can seat only one person. MiG is a product of the Soviet Union which entered into the service in 1959. India inducted the MiG-21 in 1963 and got full technology transfer and rights to license-build the aircraft in the country. The MiG-21 has proved its mettle in several wars fought by India, including the Bangladesh Liberation War of 1971. (UPSC CSE: 50 Years of Bangladesh Liberation War) It was also one of the mainstay fighter jets in the 1965 and 1999 Kargil conflicts with Pakistan In 2019, a MiG-21 Bison flown by Wing Commander Abhinandan Varthaman downed an F-16 aircraft of the Pakistan Air Force. (UPSC CSE: Balakot Airstrike ) Russia stopped producing the aircraft in 1985. India continued operating the upgraded variants. India has procured over 700 MiG-21 aircraft of different variants since then, such as the Type-77, Type-96 and the BIS. The latest of them is the MiG-21 Bison. MiG-21 Bison: this is an upgraded aircraft with advanced missiles and radars and better avionics. Over 100 MiG-21s with the IAF have been upgraded to Bison since 2006. The IAF has three squadrons of MiG-21 Bison aircraft currently in service, planned to be phased out by 2025. MUST READ: Tejas Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Mk-1A SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) Which reference to Agni-IV Missile, of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Saint Samarth Ramdas Syllabus Prelims –Important Personalities Context: Recently, a controversy arose pertaining to Saint Samarth Ramdas’s alleged connection to Marathi icon Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj. About Saint Samarth Ramdas:- Saint Samarth Ramdas was an Indian Marathi Hindu saint, poet, philosopher, writer and spiritual master. (UPSC CSE: Swami Vivekananda ) He was a devotee of Hindu deities Rama and Hanuman. He was previously famous as Narayan.  He was born in Jamb, a village in the present-day Jalna district of Maharashtra.  He was born on the occasion of Rama Navami, in 1608.  His Works:- His literary works include Karunashtakas, Dasbodh, Yuddhakand, Sunderkand,  Poorvarambh, Antarbhav, Chaturthman, Aatmaaram, Panchman, Panchsamasi, Manpanchak, Janaswabhawgosavi, etc. Ramdas is not deemed a pacifist. His writings include strong expressions encouraging nationalism to counter aggressive Muslim invaders. His Legacy:- Ramdas served as an inspiration for several Indian thinkers, historians and social reformers from the 19th and 20th-century, including Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Rajwade, Keshav Hedgewar, and Ramchandra Ranade. (UPSC MAINS: Contribution did Swami Vivekananda) A spiritual guru, Nana Dharmadhikari, promoted the views of Ramdas through his spiritual discourses. MUST READ: Dayanand Saraswati SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag here. Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of the Andhra region from here. Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here. Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up the headquarters of the Theosophical Society first here. Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) St. Francis Xavier was one of the founding members of the Jesuit Order. St. Francis Xavier died in Goa and a church is dedicated to him there. The feast of St. Francis Xavier is celebrated in Goa each year. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Gold rush Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the phenomenon of the gold rush by central banks was observed. About Gold Rush:- The Adding gold to its reserves at an unusual pace is commonly called the ‘gold Rush’. (PSC PRELIMS: Gold Reserve) Objective: to safeguard its returns amid global uncertainty and a rising inflation scenario. adding gold to its reserves, is considered a more safe, secure, liquid asset. Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) gold reserves showed an increase of nearly 5 per cent over fiscal 2022 when it held 760.42 metric tonnes of gold. (UPSC MAINS: Factors to maintain a healthy foreign exchange reserve) Global Scenario:- Many other central banks, including the Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS), the People’s Bank of China (PBoC) and the Central Bank of the Republic of Turkey have been buying gold. In the calendar year 2022, central banks around the world purchased 1,136 tonnes of gold, which was a record high. During 2022, the central banks from the Middle East, including Egypt, Qatar, Iraq, the UAE, and Oman significantly boosted their gold reserves. The Central Bank of Uzbekistan ended 2022 as a net purchaser of gold, with its gold reserves rising by 34 tonnes. In January-March 2023, the Monetary Authority of Singapore was the largest single buyer of gold after it added 69 tonnes to its gold reserves The two key drivers of central banks’ decisions to hold gold are:-  its performance during times of crisis, and its role as a long-term store of value MUST READ: RBI relaxed norms to stem rupee slide and to Forex inflows SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 UN Security Council Reforms Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: China has maintained its stance on the UN Security Council reforms, saying there should be more representation for developing countries, but avoided a direct response to India and other countries’ call for its expansion and their inclusion. About United Nations Security Council: The UNSC was established by the UN Charter in 1945. It is one of the 6 principal organs of the United Nations. UNSC has 15 members: 5 permanent members (P5) and 10 non-permanent members elected for 2-year terms. The 5 permanent members are: United States, Russian Federation, France, China and the United Kingdom. India has served seven times in the UNSC as a non-permanent member and in January 2021, India entered the UNSC for the eighth time. UNSC elections: Each year the General Assembly elects five non-permanent members (out of 10 in total) for a two-year term. The 10 non-permanent seats are distributed on a regional basis as follows: Five for African and Asian States. One for the Eastern European States. Two for the Latin American and Caribbean States; Two for Western European and other States To be elected to the Council, candidate countries need a two-thirds majority of ballots of the Member States that are present and voting in the Assembly. The UNSC elections were traditionally held in the General Assembly hall with each of the 193 member states casting its vote in a secret ballot. Need: Changing world order: In the 77-year-old history of the UN, the composition of the Security Council has been altered only once. e., In 1963 when the General Assembly decided to expand the Council from 11 to 15 members, with the addition of four non-permanent seats. Since then, the world has changed. The geopolitical relations in the world have altered, the economic responsibilities in the world in countries have also changed. Equitable World Order: There is a need for a more equitable world in order to uphold the principles of democracy at the global level. Developing countries like the African countries, need to be made stakeholders in the multilateral institutions and involved in the decision-making process. Mitigation of New Threats: With rising protectionism, increased incidents of terrorism and the threat of climate change, the multilateral system must become more resilient and responsive. Issues with regard to UNSC: Lack of Adequate Representation: The UN Security Council is less effective because it is less representative, the most pertinent absence being that of Africa, a continent of 54 countries. Current global issues are complex, and interconnected. Lack of representation of geopolitical and geo-economically important countries is leaving out a large segment of global opinion to have a voice in the highest security summit. Misuse of Veto Power: Veto power has been always criticized by many experts as well as by most States calling it a” self-chosen club of the privileged” and non-democratic and not allowing the Council to make necessary decisions whenever it displeases any one of the P-5. It is also not appropriate for the current global security environment to be guided by elite decision-making structures. Geopolitical Rivalry within P5: The geopolitical rivalry among the permanent members has prevented the UNSC from coming up with effective mechanisms to deal with global issues. Taking the current world order as an example, the P5 members: United States, Russia, and China are three poles on the periphery of the globe having several geopolitical issues revolving around them (Taiwan Issue and Russia-Ukraine War). Threat to State’s Sovereignty: As the principal organ of international peacekeeping and conflict resolution, the UNSC is responsible for keeping peace and managing conflict. Its decisions (referred to as resolutions) are binding on all member countries, unlike the General Assembly’s. This means that any state’s sovereignty can be encroached upon, if necessary, by acting, such as imposing sanctions. Significance of India as a permanent UNSC member: Global decision-making: As a permanent member of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC), India would have a more significant role in shaping global decision-making and playing a prominent role in maintaining international peace and security. Representation of the global south: It would address the issue of under-representation of developing countries in the Council. As the world’s largest democracy, with a population of over 1.3 billion people and a growing economy, India’s permanent membership would ensure that the voices and interests of the global South are better represented in the UNSC. Larger role in dealing with the new age challenges: India’s permanent membership would give it greater leverage in dealing with regional and international issues. India could play a more active role in addressing challenges such as terrorism, climate change, and nuclear disarmament. Peace Keeping efforts: India has consistently contributed to the UN peacekeeping efforts. Despite this, it has no say in how the peace-making forces will be deployed and how the mandate will be exercised. India’s inclusion in the UNSC would also give India more say in decisions regarding peacekeeping operations and interventions in conflict zones. Recognition as an emerging power: India’s permanent membership would also be a recognition of its growing global importance and its commitment to multilateralism. India’s permanent membership in the UNSC would be an affirmation of its place as a key player in shaping the future of the world. Suggestive Measures: the Security Council should better reflect on the current global realities and incorporate more geographically diverse perspectives. It must demonstrate flexibility and willingness to compromise in the name of greater credibility and legitimacy. Developing countries vision of development for the South and the role on the UN in promoting and achieving such vision needs to be strongly and consistently articulated. The UN’s role as the core global governance institution should not be undermined by the UN reform Rather, such process should result in a strengthened mandate for the UN as the primary global governance institution to be able to exercise coordinative functions over the work of the major multilateral economic policymaking institutions like the World Bank, the IMF and the WTO. India should continue to push hard for UNSC reforms. Foreign Policy experts suggest that a pragmatic approach should be to accept a permanent status without the power to veto. Way Forward: India’s claim for permanent membership is a genuine demand in the changed geo politics of 21st century as we have discussed before. India is possibly the most obvious and least controversial option to add as a permanent member, and probably long overdue for a seat. However it is under constant criticism for its plans and actions. It is said to be performing in unilateral way with unquestioned authority, working only for vested interests and not making non-permanent members inclusive in their decision making. Source:   Times of India Drug Recall Law in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recent failures of Indian manufactured drugs overseas (like the Gambia incident) have brought attention to the issue of absence of a drug recall law in the pharmaceutical industry in India. About Drug Recall: Drug recall refers to the action of removing or withdrawing a batch of product from distribution or use, to be returned to the manufacturer. This action is generally done in cases where deficiencies are discovered in the safety, quality, or efficacy of drugs. The Organization of Pharmaceutical Producers of India (OPPI) defines recall as, “An action is taken to resolve a problem with therapeutic goods for which there are established deficiencies in quality, efficacy or safety.” Status of Drug Recall Law in India: India has been considering the creation of a mandatory recall law for substandard drugs since 1976, but still no law exists that mandates such medicine be removed from the market. In 1976, the Drugs Consultative Committee (DCC), discussed the issue of drug recalls with the various state regulators, however, none of them resulted in amendments to the Drugs & Cosmetics Act to create a mandatory recall mechanism. In 2012, the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) proposed a set of draft recall guidelines but the national regulator lacks the power to convert guidelines into a binding law. The issue of recalls resurfaced in 2016 at meetings of the DCC and at another committee, called the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB). Nothing changed on the ground. The same issue came up again in 2018 and 2019 at the meetings of the DCC, but India still lacks a recall law, 46 years on. Reasons for Absence of Drug Recall Law in India: Incompetence of authorities: The Drug Regulation Section of the Union Health Ministry is unable to tackle complex drug regulatory issues due to a combination of factors including apathy, lack of expertise etc. Vested interests: There have been indications that Ministry of Health has greater interest in enabling the growth of the pharmaceutical industry than protecting public health. It is believed that tighter regulation could slow the growth of the pharmaceutical industry. Fragmented regulatory structure: India has one of the most fragmented regulatory structures with each State having its own drug regulator. One regulator cannot inspect facilities in another jurisdiction. Opposition to centralized authority: There must be a central authority that has legal powers to hold companies liable for failures to recall drugs. However, pharmaceutical industry and state drug regulators have opposed centralization of regulatory powers. Bad publicity to pharma companies: A drug recall will mandate companies to publicize the product in media, which will generate bad publicity for pharma companies. This will not only harm them individually but will dent India’s image on the global scale. Present Laws Regulating the Drugs and Pharmaceutical Sector in India: Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation: It is the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India. The Drugs & Cosmetics Act,1940 and rules 1945 have entrusted various responsibilities to central & state regulators for regulation of drugs & cosmetics. It envisages uniform implementation of the provisions of the Act & Rules made there under for ensuring the safety, rights and wellbeing of the patients by regulating the drugs and cosmetics. CDSCO along with state regulators, is jointly responsible for grant of licenses of certain specialized categories of critical Drugs such as blood and blood products, I. V. Fluids, Vaccine and Sera. The Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940: It regulates the import, manufacture, distribution and sale of drugs in India. The Pharmacy Act,1948: It is meant to regulate the profession of Pharmacy in India. The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisement) Act, 1954: It provides to control the advertisements regarding drugs; it prohibits the advertising of remedies alleged to possess magic qualities. The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985: It is an act concerned with control and regulation of operations relating to Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances. National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority: It is an organization of the Government of India which was established, inter alia, to fix/ revise the prices of controlled bulk drugs and formulations and to enforce prices and availability of the medicines in the country, under the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 1995. The organization is also entrusted with the task of recovering amounts overcharged by manufacturers for the controlled drugs from the consumers. It also monitors the prices of decontrolled drugs in order to keep them at reasonable levels. Suggestive Measures A national drug recall law: It is crucial for India to have a national drug recall law to guarantee that once a drug is known to be Not of Standard Quality (NSQ), the entire batch is withdrawn from the market. A central drug regulator: There needs to be a central drug regulator who can execute and coordinate national recall. Inspections of manufacturing facilities: Drug inspectors are required to carry out inspections of manufacturing facilities on an annual basis to ensure compliance with the Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) code. It is possible that in many states, there is a lack of capacity and training to do so. But the larger problem, is a reluctance to actually enforce the GMP standards because it would put several SME pharma companies out of business. Health Activism As with any other aspect of Indian society, activism can help move the needle on any policy issues. Health activists need to accept there is a problem with drug regulation and ask for systemic reform. Right now, there appears to be a reluctance to even accept there is a problem with drug quality in India. Source:  The Hindu About Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation(CDSCO) CDSCO comes under Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. It is the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India for Drugs. The Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and Rules 1945 have entrusted various responsibilities to central & state regulators for regulation of drugs & cosmetics. Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, CDSCO is responsible for approval of Drugs, Conduct of Clinical Trials. Further CDSCO along with state regulators, is jointly responsible for grant of licenses of certain specialized categories of critical Drugs such as blood and blood products, I. V. Fluids, Vaccine etc. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation(CDSCO): CDSCO comes under the Department of Pharmaceuticals It is the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India for Drugs. Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, CDSCO is responsible for approval of Drugs, Conduct of Clinical Trials. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) He was a great social reformer and educationist who provided exemplary leadership to India’s freedom movement. He became president of INC in 1905 in Banaras’s session. With the aid of M.G. Ranade, He established the Servants of India Society in 1905 for the expansion of Indian education. Between 1899 and 1902, he was a member of the Bombay Legislative Council. Which of the following freedom fighters described in the above paragraph? Lala Lajpat Rai Bal Gangadhar Tilak Gopal Ganesh Agharkar Gopal Krishna Gokhale Q,3) Consider the following statements regarding the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC): It is a statutory apex council. It works under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It aims to strengthen and institutionalize the mechanism for maintaining financial stability, enhancing inter-regulatory coordination and promoting financial sector development. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 10th May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 9th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

[DAY 57] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 57->Click Here