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[DAY 57] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 57->Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 10th May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 9th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Galapagos Islands Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Ecuador’s government recently pledged to spend about $18 million annually for two decades on conservation in the Galapagos Islands. About Galapagos Islands:- IMAGE SOURCE: Britannica Kids The Galápagos Islands are a chain of islands in the Pacific Ocean. (UPSC PRELIMS: Galapagos Islands) They are part of the country of Ecuador, in South America. There are thirteen major islands and a handful of smaller islands that make up the Galápagos archipelago. The largest of the islands is called Isabela. Repeated volcanic eruptions helped to form the rugged mountain landscape of the Galápagos Islands. The Galápagos Islands are located near the equator, yet they receive cool ocean currents. (UPSC PRELIMS: Ocean Currents) This makes for a strange mix of tropical and temperate climates. British naturalist Charles Darwin came to the Galápagos in 1835, on a ship called the HMS Beagle. His observations of wildlife on the island inspired his theory of evolution by natural selection. Wildlife:- It contains aquatic species such as manta rays and sharks which have been endangered by commercial fishing. It also hosts a wide array of aquatic wildlife, including marine iguanas, and waved albatrosses. (UPSC CSE: Wildlife Protection ) Also, the giant tortoises found here – ‘Galápagos’ in old Spanish – give the islands their name.  Many species are endemic. Endemic: they are not found anywhere else in the world. These include the giant Galápagos tortoise (Chelonoidis nigra), the marine iguana (Amblyrhynchus cristatus), the flightless cormorant (Phalacrocoraz harris), and the Galápagos penguin. Galápagos penguin, Galápagos fur seal and Galápagos sea lion are critically endangered. The Galápagos penguin (Spheniscus mendiculus) is the only penguin species to live in the Northern Hemisphere. Protection Status:- Ecuador made a part of the Galapagos a wildlife sanctuary in 1935. The sanctuary became the Galapagos National Park in 1959. In 1978, the islands became UNESCO’s first World Heritage Site.  MUST READ: Islands SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Region often mentioned in the news:   Country (2022) Anatolia                                                    Turkey Amhara                                                    Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                          Spain Catalonia                                                  Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds. In the temperate Zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Arab League Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Arab League voted to reinstate Syria’s membership after its suspension more than 10 years ago About Arab League:- IMAGE SOURCE: Arab League, League of Arab States, Political Map Stock Vector – Illustration of the middle, mapping: 138942280 (dreamstime.com) The Arab League, formally known as the League of Arab States, was established in 1945. It is a regional organization of Arab states in the Middle East and parts of Africa. The founding member states were Egypt, Syria, Lebanon, Iraq, Transjordan (now Jordan), Saudi Arabia, and Yemen. Currently, it has 22 member states, who have pledged to cooperate on economic and military affairs, among other issues. Other members are Libya (1953); Sudan (1956); Tunisia and Morocco (1958); Kuwait (1961); Algeria (1962); Bahrain, Oman, Qatar, and the United Arab Emirates (1971); Mauritania (1973); Somalia (1974); the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO; 1976); Djibouti (1977); and Comoros (1993). Each member has one vote on the League Council, decisions being binding only on those states that have voted for them. (UPSC PRELIMS: Gulf region) The signing on April 13, 1950, of an agreement on joint defence and economic cooperation also committed the signatories to the coordination of military defences measures. (UPSC PRELIMS: Arab Spring) MUST READ: Contribution of Indian Diaspora SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (2022) China Israel Iraq Yemen Scary Barbie Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Scientists named the recently discovered black hole “Scary Barbie,” after a beloved children’s character. About Scary Barbie:- IMAGE SOURCE: BlackHole Info: r/nasa (reddit.com) Scary Barbie is a supermassive black hole that is devouring a star with a thousand times the brightness of a supernova. (UPSC PRELIMS: Black Hole) It was first observed in 2020. It was named ZTF20abrbeie. It is one of the most luminous, energetic, long-lasting transient objects in the sky. It is also extremely far away and in a somewhat neglected corner of the sky. (UPSC MAINS: Can outer space be considered a resource ) The researchers discovered it using an AI engine called REFITT (Recommender Engine For Intelligent Transient Tracking). The AI engine looks through observations from many different telescopes around the World. MUST READ: IN-SPACe SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2) Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘black holes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation? (2019) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected. ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected. Possibility of intergalactic space travel through a ‘wormhole’ was confirmed. It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’. Donanemab Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the pharmaceutical company, Eli Lilly, released the drug donanemab for Alzheimer’s treatment. About Donanemab:- IMAGE SOURCE: About Alzheimer’s Disease [INFOGRAPHIC] – Infographic Plaza Donanemab is a drug developed for Alzheimer’s by a US pharma company ‘Eli Lilly’. It is yet to be approved in the USA. Donanemab is not a cure for Alzheimer’s. (UPSC PRELIMS: Alzheimer) The drug aims to remove the plaques from the brain and slow the progression of the disease. It slows cognitive decline by 35% Mechanism: It has antibodies that target different forms of amyloid-beta (Aβ) proteins that can clump together to form amyloid plaques in people’s brains, resulting in their cognitive decline. It has similar antibody-based therapy like lecanemab, but targets different forms of amyloid-beta (Aβ) proteins. Lecanemab:- It is a drug developed for Alzheimer’s. It is approved in the US. It is still under evaluation by the FDA’s counterpart in Europe, the European Medicines Agency (EMA). Lecanemab trial results showed it slowed cognitive decline by 27%. Both donanemab and lecanemab are given intravenously. Both donanemab and lecanemab have a high risk of side effects like ‘amyloid-related imaging abnormalities’ (ARIA) which include swelling or bleeding in the brain. About Alzheimer’s Disease:- Alzheimer’s disease is a neurological disorder which causes brain cells to degenerate and die. This leads to loss of memory, problems with words in speaking or writing, poor judgment, changes in mood and personality, confusion with time or place, etc. It is a brain disorder that gets worse over time. Alzheimer’s is the most common cause of dementia among older adults. (UPSC CSE: Drug Addiction) Causes:- Alzheimer’s disease is thought to be caused by the abnormal build-up of proteins in and around brain cells. One of the proteins involved is called amyloid, deposits of which form plaques around brain cells and the other protein is called tau. Tau is a protein that when it occurs in tangled formations in the brain of Alzheimer patients, disrupts the ability of neurons to communicate with one another in the brain. Alzheimer’s is an incurable disease, as the death of brain cells cannot be reversed. Women have a higher risk of having Alzheimer’s disease than men. MUST READ: Mental Health SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India? (2019) (1) Genetic predisposition of some people. (2) Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases. (3) Using antibiotics in livestock farming. (4) Multiple chronic diseases in some people. Select the correct answer using the code given below.  1 and 2 2 and 3 only  1,3 and 4 2,3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following pairs of Terms sometimes seen in news vs Context /Topic: (2018) Belle II experiment: Artificial Intelligence Blockchain technology: Digital/ Cryptocurrency CRISPR — Cas9: Particle Physics Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Programme for Prevention & Control of Non-Communicable Diseases (NP-NCD) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The NPCDCS programme has been renamed National Programme for Prevention & Control of Non-Communicable Diseases (NP-NCD) recently. About the National Programme for Prevention & Control of Non-Communicable Diseases (NP-NCD):- IMAGE SOURCE: EMANTHI-NEWSBLOG: Health Minister To Appoint A Special Add. Secretary On Non-Communicable Diseases The National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS) programme launched in 2010, has been renamed National Programme for Prevention & Control of Non-Communicable Diseases (NP-NCD) amid widening coverage and expansion. The new name reflects the shift in focus from only controlling the four major non-communicable diseases (NCDs) to preventing them as well. (UPSC PRELIMS: Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs)) According to the MoHFW, the NP-NCD will aim to reduce the burden of NCDs by promoting healthy lifestyles, early detection and timely treatment. The programme will also integrate with other health initiatives such as Ayushman Bharat and National Health Mission. The programme will also strengthen the health system by enhancing human resources, infrastructure, equipment and drugs. The NP-NCD will also leverage digital technologies such as telemedicine and m-health to improve access and quality of NCD care. (UPSC CSE: WHO and Traditional Medicine) Other Government initiatives:- The Central Government is implementing the Strengthening of Tertiary Care Cancer Facilities scheme to support the setting up of State Cancer Institutes (SCI) and Tertiary Care Centres (TCCC) in different parts of the country. Fit India movement is implemented by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports  Various Yoga related activities are carried out by the Ministry of AYUSH. Preventive aspect of NCDs is strengthened under Comprehensive Primary Health Care through the Ayushman Bharat Health Wellness Centre scheme, by promotion of wellness activities and targeted communication at the community level. Affordable Medicines and Reliable Implants for Treatment (AMRIT) Deendayal outlets have been opened at 159 Institutions/Hospitals with the objective to make available Cancer and Cardiovascular Diseases drugs and implants at discounted prices to patients. Jan Aushadhi stores are set up by the Department of Pharmaceuticals to provide generic medicines at affordable prices.  MUST READ: National Non-Communicable Disease Monitoring Survey (NNMS) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the use of nanotechnology in the health sector, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2015) Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following pairs (2014) Vitamin           Deficiency Disease Vitamin C        Scurvy Vitamin D        Ricket Vitamin E        Night Blindness Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 None Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, ISRO announced a new introductory-level online training programme called Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START). About Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START):- Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START), is launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). (UPSC MAINS: Achievements of ISRO) It is an introductory-level training program for students. Objective:-  To provide students with introductory-level training in Space Science and Technology. Giving students an overview of different facets of the field, research opportunities, and career options. The programme will cover various domains of space science, including Astronomy & Astrophysics, Heliophysics & Sun-Earth interaction, Instrumentation, and Aeronomy. It will be delivered by scientists from Indian academia and ISRO centres. (UPSC MAINS: Latest advances made by ISRO in satellite technology. ) The programme will cover various domains of Space Science, including Astronomy and Astrophysics, Heliophysics and Sun-Earth interaction, Instrumentation, and Aeronomy. The training will also emphasize the cross-disciplinary nature of Space Science, giving students insights into how individual aptitudes can be applied to the field. The lectures will also cover topics on the Indian Space Science exploration program and research opportunities in Space Science and technologies. MUST READ: IN-SPACe SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, `String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of (2017) Observation and understanding of the Universe Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth Q.2) With reference to `Astrosat’, the astronomical observatory launched by India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) Other than the USA and Russia, India is the only country to have launched a similar observatory into space. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Thalassaemia Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, World Thalassaemia Day was observed. About Thalassaemia:- IMAGE SOURCE: 5 Common Thalassaemia Questions | CFCH | Centre for Clinical Haematology Thalassaemia is a genetic blood disorder affecting the production of red blood cells. (UPSC MAINS: Awareness and Cure of Thalassemia) Genetic Disorder: disorder which is inherited and can be passed down from one generation to the next. It is a genetic blood disorder that causes the body to have less haemoglobin than normal. Hemoglobin: it enables red blood cells to carry oxygen. Thalassemia can cause anaemia, leading to fatigue. Abnormal production of blood means that affected individuals do not make adequate amounts of functional red blood cells. (UPSC PRELIMS: Rare Diseases ) Symptoms:- Fatigue, weakness, or shortness of breath A pale appearance or yellow colour to the skin (jaundice) Irritability Deformities of the facial bones Slow growth A swollen abdomen Dark urine Treatment:- Bone marrow transplant (BMT) In BMT, high-dose chemotherapy eliminates thalassemia-producing cells in the marrow and replaces them with healthy donor cells from bone marrow or umbilical cord blood. Supplements and Medications Blood transfusions MUST READ: Genetic Information and Right to Privacy SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology has gained popularity in the last few years why? (2019) It is used in developing gene silencing therapies. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to virtual pathogens. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1, 2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 3 1 and 4 only Q.2) What is the cas9 protein that is often mentioned in the news? (2019) molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing. A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients. A gene that makes plants pest-resistant A herbicidal substance synthesized in generally modified crops Improve technology to detect Improvised Explosive Device (IEDs) Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Security Issues) Context:  Recently ten jawans and a civilian driver, who were returning in a van following an anti­Maoist operation, were killed in a blast caused by an Improvised Explosive Device (IED) in Chhattisgarh’s Dantewada. About IEDs: An IED is a type of unconventional explosive weapon that can take any form and be activated in a variety of ways. An IED is a bomb fabricated in an improvised manner incorporating destructive, lethal, noxious, pyrotechnic, or incendiary chemicals and designed to destroy or incapacitate personnel or vehicles. IEDs are triggered by various methods, including remote control, infrared or magnetic triggers, pressure-sensitive bars or trip wires (victim-operated). In some cases, multiple IEDs are wired together in a daisy chain to attack a convoy of vehicles spread out along a roadway. There are several types of IEDs such as roadside bombs, suicide bombs, vehicle-borne IEDs, and command-detonated IEDs. Roadside bombs are the most common type of IED and are typically placed on or near a roadway to target vehicles passing by. IEDs are cheap, easy to make, and can be concealed in ordinary objects. They are also highly adaptable, making them a preferred weapon for insurgents and terrorists. IEDs can cause significant damage and casualties with minimal risk to the attacker. Violation of International Humanitarian Laws: The use of IEDs is prohibited under international law. The Convention on Certain Conventional Weapons (CCW) prohibits the use of IEDs in armed conflicts, and the International Mine Action Standards (IMAS) provide guidelines for the safe disposal of explosive remnants of war, including IEDs. India is a signatory to the Geneva and Hague Conventions which regulate the means employed during warfare, so that casualties are checked. The Maoists deliberately and grossly violate international humanitarian laws — the use of landmines is banned internationally as they are non-discriminatory, lack precision and cause unnecessary or excessive suffering. It is well known that in addition to the security forces, many civilians, including children, and animals have also been victims of IED attacks. Limitations to detect IEDs: The technical equipment used by the security forces to detect IEDs has its limitations. If the quantity of metal in the IED is low or the IED is planted deep under the road, mine detectors may fail to find it. Ground-penetrating radar, which can detect recent disturbances in the soil subsurface, has also not proved successful because it is susceptible to generating false alarms. As not much research and development has been undertaken in this field, the Central government and industry must join hands to improve technology to detect IEDs. The details printed on boxes containing detonators are not sufficient to trace the source of the detonators and punish the guilty. The Central government must, therefore, amend rules and make the manufacturers accountable for unique identification of detonators. IEDs are among the most potent tools deployed by the Maoists. Even a small formation of the Maoists can cause huge damage to the security forces by using an IED. Suggestive measure to manage the threats of use of IEDs by Maoists: The use of technology such as unmanned aerial vehicles and drones may be useful to check suspicious movement. But the security forces need to improve their tactics too. The use of vehicles should be permitted only after securing the road from ambushes and IEDs. A visual search must be carried out cautiously or up to about 100­-150 metres on both sides of the road, to check the presence of suspicious elements or wire ends. Every effort needs to be made to detect, diffuse or avoid these brutal devices. India must raise the issue of the use of IEDs by the Maoists at appropriate international platforms so that the Maoists are forced to respect international humanitarian laws and stop using these devices. Central government and industry must join hands to improve technology to detect IEDs. The details printed on boxes containing detonators are not sufficient to trace the source of the detonators and punish the guilty. The Central government must amend rules and make the manufacturers accountable for unique identifi­cation of detonators. Source:   The Hindu MUST READ: Left-wing Extremism(LWE) in India India’s Aviation Industry Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: The carrier Go Airlines (India) Ltd (Go First), filed for voluntary insolvency proceedings with the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT). About Voluntary Insolvency Proceedings: The voluntary insolvency means that the company has accepted its business is insolvent. It is a process in which the company says it cannot pay debts and needs help from someone to sort it out. When the company goes insolvent, it can proceed to voluntary liquidation. This process refers to the dissolution of a company with approval from shareholders and creditors of the company. It is a time-bound process which needs to be completed in 270 days from the date of commencement of Voluntary Liquidation. Sequence of Steps under Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC): Source:  https://muds.co.in/voluntary-liquidation-of-company/ Aviation Sector in India Large Market Size: India has become the third-largest domestic aviation market in the world and is expected to overtake the UK to become the third-largest air passenger market by 2024. Economic Contribution: Indian aviation also contributed 5% of the GDP, creating a total of 4 million jobs. Rapid Growth: Over past 6 years, India’s domestic passenger traffic has grown at a compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of around 14.5%, while international passenger traffic has increased by a CAGR of around 6.5%. India’s domestic passenger traffic is likely to rise to 16 crores in the 2023-24 fiscal year from an estimated 13.75 crore from the previous fiscal. By 2029-30, India’s domestic passenger traffic is likely to touch 35 crore. Infrastructure: The number of airports with civilian flights in India has grown from 74 in 2014 to 148 in 2023. Airports Authority of India (AAI) and other airport operators have targeted a capital outlay of around Rs 98,000 crore in the airport sector across India by 2025 for constructing greenfield airports and new terminals, expanding and modernizing existing terminals. Challenges faced by the Aviation Sector? Safety Concerns: Last couple of months have witnessed several instances of malfunctions before/during flights resulting in diversions/delays. The malfunctions are being attributed to lower turnaround times by airlines to maximize profits after a pandemic-induced slowdown. Experts have argued that low-cost airlines (which dominate the sector) give low priority to maintenance in order to save costs e.g., many snag rectifications are being undertaken by technicians rather than qualified engineers. Moreover, the ongoing Russia-Ukraine war has created shortage of spare parts, especially those containing titanium. Profitability of the Sector: Most airline operators have poor financial health. The situation worsened during the COVID-19 pandemic due to lockdowns and flight restrictions. Consistent losses drive down number of operators impacting competition and efficiency. To reduce losses, operators increase turnaround times of aircraft and cut-down on maintenance/safety aspects. Absence of robust competition: While the policy is being liberalized; still, there are stiff regulations which act as barrier to the expansion of the sector. According to GR Gopinath (founder of Air Deccan) tough entry barriers for new entrants reduce competition, high fuel prices on account of taxes reduce profitability of airlines which prohibit the sector from operating at full efficiency. Public sector airports are inefficient and still have a monopoly in the airport segment. Poor rural connectivity: With mega airports controlling air and ground space, it is almost impossible to connect rural and small towns from the large metros. Although UDAN has showed some positive impact, regional connectivity still remain poor. Policy Lacunae: There are many policy gaps that remain to be addressed g., the Aircraft Act, 1934 and Aircraft Rules, 1937 have not kept pace with modern technology in aerospace. This has increased costs to the industry and ultimately affected passenger growth. Govt of India Initiatives to support growth of the Aviation Sector: Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS): It is a part of Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan to support eligible Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) and business enterprises in meeting their operational liabilities and restarting their businesses in the context of the disruption caused by the COVID-19 pandemic. Digi Yatra: Digi Yatra policy is Union Government’s initiative for providing passengers seamless and hassle-free experience at airports without the need for verification of ticket and ID at multiple touch points. UDAN: Union Government’s flagship program Regional Connectivity Scheme UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) has the objective to fulfill the aspirations of the common citizen with an enhanced aviation infrastructure and air connectivity in tier II and tier III cities. The government has also planned to develop 100 airports by 2024 under this scheme. Greenfield Airport Policy: Government of India had accorded ‘In-Principle’ approval for setting up of 21 Greenfield Airports. Better Policies: The Ministry of Civil Aviation in India has been encouraging States to reduce their VAT on (aviation turbine fuel) ATF and vouched for ATF to be brought under GST. Maintenance, Repair and Overhaul (MRO) Policy: The Union Government had in 2021 introduced an MRO policy that aims to turn India into a global hub for aircraft maintenance and overhaul, which now largely happens abroad. NABH (Nextgen Airports For Bharat): This scheme was launched in 2018 to increase the number of Airports and their capacity to handle traffic in India. It aims to expand airport capacity more than five times to handle a billion trips a year through investments to be made in airport upgrade by both the private sector and the state-owned Airports Authority of India (AAI). Source:   The Hindu About Airports Authority of India (AAI): It is a statutory body under the aegis of Ministry of Civil Aviation. It is responsible for creating, upgrading, maintaining and managing civil aviation infrastructure in India. It was founded in 1995 and is headquartered in New Delhi. It also provides Air traffic management (ATM) services over Indian airspace and adjoining oceanic areas. It manages around 125 airports in India, which include 18 International Airport, 07 Customs Airports, 78 Domestic Airports and 26 Civil Enclaves at Defense airfields. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START): START is launched by the Ministry of Science and Technology The programme will cover various domains of space science, including Astronomy & Astrophysics, Heliophysics and Sun-Earth interaction, Instrumentation, and Aeronomy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) the term “Scary Barbie” often mentioned in the news is related to Supercomputer developed by NASA Supermassive blockhole Neutron star A Meteorite Q.3) Consider the following countries: Egypt Syria Ethiopia Iran Iraq Saudi Arabia Which of the above are members of the Arab League of Nations? 1 4 5 and 6 only 1 2 3 and 5 only 1 2 5 and 6 only 2 3 4 and 5 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 9th May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 8th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 9th May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 56] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 56->Click Here

Important Articles

[MOCK TEST] IASbaba’s All India Open Mock for UPSC Prelims 2023 on 14th May (SUNDAY)

Hello Aspirants,We understand how this season might affect you… Some of you must be pouring cup after cup of coffeechai/coffee and sitting under the study lamp to cram in every passing minute to make sure you do not miss out on anything…The restlessness and the desire to perform the best are real!But here’s one thing that you can do (some of you are already aware of this Magic Pill)This Magic Pill in layman’s language is called :- PRACTICE So, what ‘Magic’ does this Magic Pill bring in your life? Magic 1: Relieves you off the pressure of performing on that 1 day. Because your body and mind get used to the number of questions you are supposed to be attempting, the way your brain starts working while thinking of solutions, the way your heart beats when you come across something out of the unknown and then slowly starts normalizing… Basically, you are training your mind and body both to calm down… Magic 2: You learn things which you might have missed out on. Rather than learning from the same source, you get to fill in the gaps.So, who wouldn’t in their right mind want something like that….?We all want to stay one notch ahead, isn’t it?This is the right moment to turn on your engines and put all your energy in that FINAL revision and practice. To ensure that you get to experience the UPSC’s interface closely and become attuned to it, we have decided to conduct… We Thank You For The Overwhelming Response For Open Mock 1 & 2 All India Mock Test on 14th May (Sunday) Note: We have introduced Rs.50/- as registration fee for OFFLINE mode. ONLINE mode will be free for all! The registration fee of Rs.50/- is just a token amount for providing access/hall tickets only. This amount will not be considered an exam fee. We are collecting the fees to avoid unwanted/spam registrations. Register For Open Mocks - ONLINE Register For Open Mocks - OFFLINE Registrations will close on 13th May at 4 PM The details email of the test will be shared by 13th May 8 PM Another Mock Tests will happen on 14th May The registrations and details will be announced soon! This is the right time to gain momentum that by the time you are in the examination hall, you are at peak of your performance. If you can achieve that, no one will be able to stop you from qualifying the exam. The questions of these mocks will be made by experts from the IASbaba team which have been analysing the language and trend of UPSC. Hence you can be sure that these mocks will be closest to the language and difficulty level of UPSC. Dates of the All India Mock Test 14th May 2023Paper 1 (General Studies)9:30 AM to 11:30 AMPaper 2 (CSAT)12:30 PM to 2:30 PM Register For Open Mocks - ONLINE Register For Open Mocks - OFFLINE Modes & Language of All India Mock Test Online - (English & हिन्दी) Offline - (English & हिन्दी) Centres for All India Mock Test Delhi: 22B, Bada Bazar Marg, Above Domino’s, Near Karol Bagh Metro Station, New Delhi 110060Bengaluru: IASbaba HQ, 2nd floor, Ganapathi Circle, 80 Feet Rd, Chandra Layout, Bengaluru, Karnataka 560072Lucknow: No.B1/66, Sec J Aliganj, Near Sahoo Studio, Lucknow 226024 (Landmark: Near Mr Brown)Bhopal: 136, Near Vikramaditya College Zone -2, MP Nagar Bhopal, 462011, Madhya Pradesh* Centres are tentative, we will notify you via email if there are any changes. P.S. Since the seats are limited at any given centre, you must register soon through the following link IASbaba’s Paid Subscribers (ILP, AIPTS, Gurukul, FC, TLP Connect) need not register or take the Open Mock. Register For Open Mocks - ONLINE Register For Open Mocks - OFFLINE Are you ready?All the very best!

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 8th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Shoot-at-sight orders Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Manipur government authorised all District Magistrates to issue “shoot at sight orders” in “extreme cases”. About Shoot at-sight orders:- IMAGE SOURCE: Manipur in India Map. Manipur Map Vector Illustration Stock Vector – Illustration of the graphic, country: 176108947 (dreamstime.com) A shoot-at-sight or firing order may be passed in terms of the statutory powers relating to the arrest or prevention of offences or for disbanding unlawful assemblies under the CrPC, 1973. (UPSC PRELIMS: Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022) Section 144 of the CrPC enables the use of wide powers while dealing with urgent cases of “apprehended danger” or nuisance through the issuance of orders. Section 46 (2) of the CrPC enables the use of force in the course of arresting a person. If a person forcibly resists the endeavour to arrest him, or attempts to evade the arrest, such police officer or other person may use all means necessary to effect the arrest. Section 46(3) places a limit on this executive power. The provision does not give a right “to cause the death of a person who is not accused of an offence punishable with death or with imprisonment for life.” Exceptions:- It also places a limit on this executive power. The provision does not give a right to cause the death of a person not accused of an offence punishable with death or imprisonment for life. (UPSC CSE: Committee for Reforms in Criminal Law) Section 3(a) Oof the Armed Forces Special Powers Act, of 1958 empowers the armed forces to use force in disturbed areas. disturbed areas: a notification in the Official Gazette declaring an area as “disturbed” may be passed by the Governor of the State or the Administrator of that Union Territory or the Central Government. Provisions in the Indian Penal Code,1860:- Section 81 says that “Nothing is an offence merely by reason of its being done with the knowledge that it is likely to cause harm if it is done without any criminal intention to cause harm, and in good faith for the purpose of preventing or avoiding other harm to person or property.”  Section 76 exempts such acts, if done by a person “who is, or who by reason of a mistake of fact and not by reason of a mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be, bound by law to do it.” Section 76 IPC goes so far as to say that if a soldier “fires on a mob by the order of his superior officer, in conformity with the commands of the law”, he has committed no offence. Related Judicial Judgements:- Jayantilal case:- Gujarat High Court declared the shoot-at-sight orders imposed for breaking a curfew “void”. The Gujarat High Court’s 1974 ruling in “Jayantilal Mohanlal Patel vs Eric Renison And Anr.” Held that the “law and order forces of the State of Gujarat have no authority to shoot at anyone for a mere breach of the curfew order.” In the 1974 ruling, Justice SH Seth also observed that any threat issued by the executive to the life of a citizen without the authority of law must be viewed very seriously. In 1981 the Supreme Court ruling, given by Justice YV Chandrachud led Bench, in the case of “State Of West Bengal vs Shew Mangal Singh & Ors” which dealt with the conflict between the executive’s power of extreme coercive action and an individual’s right to liberty. MUST READ: Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 River-Cities Alliance Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, National Mission For Clean Ganga Organizes River-Cities Alliance Global Seminar. About River-Cities Alliance:- River Cities Alliance (RCA) was launched in 2021. (UPSC PRELIMS: River Cities Alliance) It is organized by National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) in association with the National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA). It is a joint initiative of the Department of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation under the Ministry of Jal Shakti (MoJS) & the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). Objective: to provide a platform for officials of member cities and international stakeholders to discuss and learn good practices for managing urban rivers. Vision: to connect river cities and focus on sustainable river-centric development. Membership: Beginning with 30 member cities in November 2021, the Alliance has expanded to 109 river cities across India and one international member city from Denmark(the city of Aarhus from Denmark). It is a dedicated platform for river cities across India to discuss & exchange information for sustainable management of urban rivers. It includes cities from both the Ganga basin and non-Ganga basin states.(UPSC CSE: Linking Rivers) The RCA Global Seminar witnessed participation from Embassies/High Commissions of select countries along with funding agencies like the World Bank, ADB, JICA & KfW. In it was noted that the theme of RCA resonated in the UN Water Conference 2023 held in New York in March 2023. ‘ DHARA 2023 The first annual meeting of the RCA – DHARA 2023 (Driving Holistic Action for Urban Rivers) was held in 2023, in Pune. It featured key sessions on international best practices and examples for urban river management. It was aimed to inspire members of the RCA to engage in progressive actions for urban river management in their cities. The event shone a light on the unaddressed issues and challenges for river management in cities, which helped NIUA and its partners formulate an effective work plan.  The event also helped in developing a compendium of technological solutions that cities may adopt for enhancing the management of their local rivers. MUST READ: The International Drought Resilience Alliance (IDRA) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? (2022) Cauvery Manjira Pennar Tungabhadra Q.2) With reference to the Indus River system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of which joins the Indus direct. Among the following, which one is a such river that joins the Indus direct? (2021) Chenab Jhelum Ravi Sutlej Commission for Scientific and Technical Terminology (CSTT) Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: The Commission for Scientific and Technical Terminology (CSTT) is to create technical and scientific terminology in 10 Indian languages. About Commission for Scientific and Technical Terminology (CSTT):- It works under the aegis of the Union Ministry of Education. It was established in December 1960 by the Government of India resolution under provision Article 344(4) of the Constitution. Its headquarters are in New Delhi. Objective: to evolve standard terminology, propagate its use, and distribute it widely. The commission is mandated to collaborate with State governments, universities, regional textbook Boards, and State ‘Granth Academies’, which are nodal bodies in charge of providing translations of English textbooks in local languages for institutions of higher education. CSTT has standardized the terminology of about Nine lakh technical terms in different subjects and in different languages. (UPSC CSE: Languages of India ) CSTT has published a large number of Definitional Dictionaries, Glossaries, Text-Books, Reference Materials and Monographs, Quarterly Journals named ‘Vigyan Garima Sindhu’ and ‘Gyan Garima Sindhu’ and many more works of similar nature.  CSTT has also taken care of Administrative and various Departmental Glossaries that are widely used by various Government Departments, Institutions, Research Laboratories, Autonomous Organizations, PSUs etc. CSTT regularly organizes workshops, seminars, symposiums, conferences, orientation and training programmes to increase the use and popularize the standard terminology of Hindi and other Indian languages. (UPSC CSE: Three-language formula) Functions of the Commission:- To evolve and define scientific and technical terms in Hindi and all Indian Languages and publish technical glossaries, definitional dictionaries, encyclopaedia etc. To see that the evolved terms and their definitions reach students, teachers, scholars, scientists, officers etc. To ensure proper usage/necessary updation/correction/improvement on the work done by obtaining feedback (through Workshops/Training programmes/Orientation programmes/Seminars). To encourage technical writings in Hindi and other Indian Languages by sponsoring Seminars/Conferences/Symposia on scientific and technical subjects. MUST READ: Language Panel Recommendations SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2021) 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to (2021) dance forms of Northwest India musical instruments pre-historic cave paintings tribal languages All India Radio (AIR) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Centre, ordered that public broadcaster, previously known as All India Radio (AIR), be exclusively referred to as Akashvani in all broadcasts and programmes. About All India Radio (AIR):- IMAGE SOURCE: History of Indian broadcasting (slideshare.net) All India Radio is the radio vertical of Prasar Bharati. It’s motto is ‘Bahujan Hitaya : Bahujan Sukhaya’. It is one of the largest broadcasting organisations in the world in terms of the number of languages of broadcast and the spectrum of socioeconomic and cultural diversity. AIR’s home service comprises 470 Broadcasting centres located across the country, covering nearly 92% of the country’s area and 99.19 % of the total population. AIR originates programming in 23 languages and 179 dialects. Historical Background:- All India Radio entered the realm of external broadcasting shortly after the outbreak of II world War in 1939-when it started a service in Pushtu for listeners across the then country’s North West Frontier. The service was designated to counter radio propaganda from Germany, directed towards Afghanistan, Iran and Arab countries. Today, The External Services Division of All India Radio ranks high amongst the overseas Radio networks of the world. (UPSC MAINS: Internal security threats emanating from communication networks) Services:- FM Service AIR runs FM Rainbow and FM Gold Channels. There are 25 FM Rainbow channels and 5 FM Gold channels originating from 23 cities. AIR launched the FM Rainbow channel in 1993 when radio listening was on the decline, especially in big cities. FM Gold Channel which came on air in 2001. It provides round-the-clock service and presents popular film music in its distinctive style while keeping its listeners updated with current affairs and News on the hour. Vividh Bharati Service:- The popular Vividh Bharati Service of All India Radio was conceptualized in 1957 Objective: to meet the competition offered by Radio Ceylon. Today the service provides entertainment for 15 to 17 hours from its 41 centres, with a mix of music and film-based content, skits, short plays and interactive programmes. Archive Services:- AIR preserves the cultural and intellectual wealth of the country in its Archive. It has the recordings of eminent musicians, men and women of letters, political figures, intellectuals, leaders, statesmen and luminaries in various walks of life and is an important national resource for historians, scholars, music enthusiasts and others. News Service Division:- It disseminates news and commentaries for listeners in India and abroad. Technical Services:- All India Radio plans, designs, installs, operates and maintains its studios, transmitters and allied technical services through in-house expertise. (UPSC MAINS: communication satellites ) MUST READ: Mobile Train Radio Communication (MTRC) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)? (2019) LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology. Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Project Loon’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to (2016) waste management technology wireless communication technology solar power production technology water conservation technology European Securities and Markets Authority (ESMA) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the European Securities and Markets Authority (ESMA), has de-recognised six Indian clearing houses. About European Securities and Markets Authority (ESMA):- IMAGE SOURCE: Governance Structure (Europa. eu) The European Securities and Markets Authority (ESMA) is an independent European Union (EU) Authority. It contributes to safeguarding the stability of the EU’s financial system by enhancing the protection of investors and promoting stable and orderly financial markets. It is the direct supervisor of specific financial entities: Credit Rating Agencies (CRAs) Securitisation repositories (SRs) Trade Repositories (TRs) These entities form essential parts of the EU’s market infrastructure. About European Market Infrastructure Regulation:- It was adopted by the EU in August 2012. It is an implementation of the G20 commitment to reduce systemic, counterparty and operational risk, and increase transparency in the OTC derivatives market. (UPSC PRELIMS: India and G20 Presidency ) It was also designed as a preventative measure to avoid fallout during possible future financial crises similar to the collapse that followed the Lehman Brothers bankruptcy in 2008. Its focus is the regulation of over-the-counter (OTC) derivatives, central counterparties and trade repositories. It provides guidance on reporting of derivative contracts, implementation of risk management standards and common rules for central counterparties and trade repositories. It establishes common rules for central counterparties. It also outlines three sets of obligations, including the clearing, reporting and risk mitigation of applicable products. It requires mandatory clearing obligations for specific OTC derivative contracts. The obligations require that over-the-counter derivatives trades are cleared through central counterparties. EMIR requires that all entities entering into derivative contracts must submit reports to their corresponding trade repositories, outlining each over-the-counter trade. EMIR covers entities that qualify for derivative contracts to interest rate, equity, foreign exchange, or credit and commodity derivatives. The risk mitigation standards outlined in EMIR’s Article 11 impose risk management regulation on bilateral derivatives, as these derivatives are not appropriate for standard central counterparty clearing Article 25 of EMIR requires CCPs in other global jurisdictions providing services to European banks to be approved by ESMA. India signed the pact in 2017, which lapsed in March 2022. About Clearing Corporation of India (CCIL):- The Clearing Corporation of India (CCIL), was set up in April 2001. It was set up by banks, financial institutions and primary dealers. Objective: to function as an industry service organisation for clearing and settlement of trades in the money market, government securities and foreign exchange markets. The Clearing Corporation plays the crucial role of a Central Counterparty (CCP) in: The government securities, USD –INR forex exchange (both spot and forward segments) (UPSC PRELIMS: Exchange Rate) Collagenised Borrowing and Lending Obligation (CBLO) markets. CCIL plays the role of a central counterparty whereby the contract between buyer and seller gets replaced by two new contracts – between CCIL and each of the two parties. This process is known as ‘Novation’. Through novation, the counterparty credit risk between the buyer and seller is eliminated with CCIL subsuming all counterparty and credit risks. It also provides non-guaranteed settlement services for National Financial Switch (Interbank ATM transactions) and for rupee derivatives such as Interest Rate Swaps. CCIL is also providing a reporting platform and acts as a repository for Over Counter (OTC) products. MUST READ: India-EU SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Ecologically Sensitive Zone (ESZ) norms Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, NTCA stepped in over the violation of the Ecologically Sensitive Zone (ESZ) norms by the Kali Tiger Reserve authorities. About Ecologically Sensitive Zone (ESZ):- As per the National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016) of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) the state governments should declare land falling within 10 km of the boundaries of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries as eco-fragile zones or Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) under the Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986. Areas beyond 10 km can also be notified by the Union government as ESZs if they hold larger ecologically important “sensitive corridors”. (UPSC MAINS: ECO-SENSITIVE ZONES) Objectives:- to regulate certain activities around National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.  to minimise the negative impacts of such activities on the fragile ecosystem encompassing the protected areas. Activities Allowed in ESZs:- Prohibited Activities: Commercial mining, sawmills, industries causing pollution (air, water, soil, noise etc), the establishment of major hydroelectric projects (HEP), and commercial use of wood. Tourism activities like hot-air balloons over the National Park, discharge of effluents or any solid waste or production of hazardous substances. Regulated Activities: Felling of trees, the establishment of hotels and resorts, commercial use of natural water, erection of electrical cables, drastic change of agricultural system etc. Permitted Activities: Ongoing agricultural or horticultural practices, rainwater harvesting, organic farming, use of renewable energy sources, and adoption of green technology for all activities. Significance of ESZs:- To minimize the impact of urbanization and other developmental activities, the areas adjacent to protected areas have been declared as Eco-Sensitive Zones. ESZs help in in-situ conservation, which deals with the conservation of an endangered species in its natural habitat. (UPSC PRELIMS: Wildlife Protection ) Eco-Sensitive Zones minimise forest depletion and man-animal conflict. Minimise the Negative Impact on the Fragile Ecosystems They also act as a transition zone from areas of high protection to areas involving lesser protection MUST READ: Kali Tiger Reserve SOURCE: DECCANHERALD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Article 355 Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Ministry of Home Affairs has denied promulgating Article 355 in violence-hit Manipur. About Article 355:- Article 355 empowers the Centre to take all necessary steps to protect a State against internal disturbances and external aggression. Article 355 in the Constitution states that “It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution”. Article 355 is part of emergency provisions contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution of India, from Article 352 to 360. (UPSC MIANS: Emergency provisions of the Indian constitution vis a vis that of Canada) Other Related Articles:- Article 352 (Proclamation of Emergency):-  If the President is satisfied that  a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India or of any part of the  territory thereof is threatened, whether, by war or external aggression or [armed  rebellion], he may, by Proclamation, make a declaration to that effect [in  respect of the whole of India or of such part of the territory thereof as may be  specified in the Proclamation.] A Proclamation issued under clause (1) may be varied or revoked by a subsequent Proclamation. The President shall not issue a Proclamation under clause (1) or a  Proclamation varying such Proclamation unless the decision of the Union  Cabinet (that is to say, the Council consisting of the Prime Minister and other  Ministers of Cabinet rank appointed under article 75) that such a Proclamation may be issued has been communicated to him in writing. Every Proclamation issued under this article shall be laid before each  House of Parliament and shall, except where it is a Proclamation revoking a  previous Proclamation, cease to operate at the expiration of one month unless, before the expiration of that period, it has been approved by resolutions of both  Houses of Parliament. (UPSC MAINS: The emergency declared in 1975 ) Article 353(Effect of Proclamation of Emergency):- While a Proclamation  of Emergency is in operation, then— Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to any State as to the manner in which the executive power thereof is to be exercised. the power of Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter shall include the power to make laws conferring powers and imposing duties, or authorising the conferring of powers and the imposition of duties, upon the Union or officers and authorities of the  Union as respects that matter, notwithstanding that it is one which is not enumerated in the Union List. Article 354(Application of provisions relating to distribution of revenues  while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation) The President may, while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, by order direct that all or any of the provisions of articles 268 to 279 shall for such period, not extending in any case beyond the expiration of the financial year in which such  Proclamation ceases to operate, as may be specified in the order, have effect subject to such exceptions or modifications as he thinks fit. Every order made under clause (1) shall, as soon as may be after it is made, be laid before each House of Parliament. Article 356:- It empowers the President to issue a proclamation if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution. Article 365:- It says that whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction from the centre, it will be lawful for the President to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution. Articles 358:- According to Article 358, when a proclamation of National Emergency is made, the six fundamental rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended. Under Article 359:-  The President is authorised to suspend, by order, the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency. However, it should be noted that Fundamental Rights are not affected during President’s Rule and Financial Emergency. Article 360:- It empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. MUST READ: The AFSPA SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State? (2017) Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State Dissolution of the local bodies Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) During which Five Year Plan was the Emergency clamped, new elections took place and the Janata Party was elected? (2009) Third Fourth Fifth Sixth Shanghai Organisation Corporation (SCO) Syllabus Prelims –International Organization Context: Recently, SCO added Kuwait, UAE, Myanmar and Maldives as dialogue partners. About Shanghai Organisation Corporation (SCO):- The SCO is a permanent intergovernmental international organization. (UPSC MAINS: SCO) It’s a Eurasian political, economic and military organization aiming to maintain peace, security and stability in the region. It was created in 2001. The SCO Charter was signed in 2002 and entered into force in 2003. The SCO’s official languages are Russian and Chinese. Prior to the creation of SCO in 2001, Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Russia and Tajikistan were members of the Shanghai Five. Shanghai Five (1996) emerged from a series of border demarcation and demilitarization talks which the four former Soviet republics held with China to ensure stability along the borders. Following the accession of Uzbekistan to the organization in 2001, the Shanghai Five was renamed the SCO. India and Pakistan became members in 2017. (UPSC MAINS: Advantages to India after her membership of the SCO) In 2021, it was announced that Iran would become a full member of the SCO. Structure of the SCO:- Heads of State Council: The top SCO body that decides on internal SCO operations, interactions with other states and international organisations, and international concerns. Heads of Government Council: Approves the budget and evaluates and decides on topics pertaining to SCO’s economic domains of engagement. Council of Foreign Ministers: Considers problems concerning day-to-day operations. Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS): An organisation formed to combat terrorism, separatism, and extremism.  MUST READ: 20th Summit of SCO Council of Heads of State SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2016) New Development Bank has been set up by APEC. The headquarters of the New Development Bank is in Shanghai. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Switching on India’s smart electricity future Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: India will soon have a smart transmission system incorporating features that can improve efficiency, disaster preparedness, etc. About Smart Meters: Smart meters are next-generation digital electricity meters that measure energy consumption and communicate this information back to the utility company in near real-time. Unlike traditional electric meters that require manual reading, smart meters automatically send readings to the utility company, enabling a two-way communication between the meter and the utility. India’s Vision: India is striving hard to implement this vision by installing more than 5.5 million smart meters, with over 100 million sanctioned for installation. The country aims to replace 250 million conventional electric meters with prepaid smart meters by 2025-26. To support this initiative, India is providing a results-linked grant-cum-financing to power distribution companies (discoms) to become financially sound and efficient in providing better services to consumers. Benefits of Smart Meters over traditional electric meters: A recent study by the Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW) found that the majority of smart meter users have already begun to experience some of the technology benefits. Accurate billing: Smart meters enable accurate billing as they eliminate the need for estimated bills, providing customers with accurate and transparent information about their energy usage. Near real-time data: Smart meters provide near real-time data on energy consumption, enabling customers to monitor their usage and make informed decisions about their energy consumption. Dynamic pricing: Smart meters have the potential to enable dynamic pricing, where electricity tariffs vary depending on the time of day, season or other factors, incentivizing customers to use energy when it’s cheaper and reducing demand during peak hours. Improved energy management: Smart meters allow utilities to better manage energy supply and demand, reduce power outages, and integrate renewable energy sources more effectively. Energy theft detection: Smart meters can help detect and respond to energy theft, reducing losses for utilities and ensuring a fair distribution of energy costs. Customer control: Smart meters provide customers with more control over their energy consumption, allowing them to better manage their energy usage and reduce their bills. Challenges: High Capital Costs: A full scale deployment of smart meters requires expenditures on all hardware and software components, network infrastructure and network management software, along with costs associated with the installation and maintenance and information technology systems. Integration: Smart Meter must be integrated with utilities’ information technology systems, including Customer Information Systems (CIS), Geographical Information Systems (GIS), Outage Management Systems (OMS),Mobile Workforce Management (MWM), Distribution Automation System (DAS), etc. Standardisation: Interoperability standards need to be defined, which set uniform requirements for technology, deployment and general operations. Release of Radiation: Unlike the electronic meter, the smart meter allows ‘communication’ among the consumer and the meter, hence there is probability of release of radiation. Way Forward: India is on a unique journey of meeting its growing electricity demand while decarbonizing its generation sources. Smart meters comprise a critical part of the transition toolbox, by way of enabling responsible consumption, efficient energy management, and cost-effective integration of distributed energy resources. Therefore, with the effective implementation, India can improve smart meter deployment and user satisfaction, making the smart-meter revolution a reality. Source:  The Hindu Coal Sector in India Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: Coal India Limited (CIL) has registered a profit after tax (PAT) of ₹28,125 crores for FY’ 2023 posting a growth 62% growth compared to PAT of ₹17,378 Crores of FY ’2022. About Coal: Coal is a combustible black sedimentary rock, formed as rock strata called coal seams. Coal is mostly carbon with variable amounts of other elements; chiefly hydrogen, Sulfur, oxygen, and nitrogen. Coal supplies about a quarter of the world’s primary energy and two-fifths of its electricity. Coal is a natural resource that can be used as a source of energy, and in the production of coke for metallurgical processes. Coal is a major source of energy in the production of electrical power using steam generation. In addition, gasification and liquefaction of coal produce gaseous and liquid fuels that can be transported by pipeline and stored in tanks. Coal mining in India Source:   maps of India Coal in India was first mined in 1774 by East India Company in Raniganj Coalfield along the Western bank of Damodar River. India has the fifth largest coal reserves in the world. India is the largest producer of coal in the world. India is rich in ancient coal fields like Gondwana coalfields (250 million years old) and tertiary coalfields (15-60 million years old). The largest coal mine in India in terms of reserves and production is the Jharia Coalfield located in the state of Jharkhand. Jharia Coalfield is estimated to have a reserve of around 19.4 billion tonnes of coal and accounts for over 60% of India’s total coal production Significance of coal: It is used as source of energy in brick, cement and iron industries. It is also used to run the engines of the trains and to generate electricity. It is also an important source of a large number of organic compounds which are used in the manufacture of dyes, drugs, explosives, synthetic fibers and synthetic detergents. The destructive distillation of coal provides coal gas, ammoniacal liquor, coal tar and coke. Coal gas is used mainly as a fuel in industries. Ammoniacal liquor is used to prepare fertilizers. For example, ammonium sulphate is made by treating ammoniacal liquor with sulfuric acid. Coal tar is a thick black liquid which is used for blacktopping of roads. Coke is used as a fuel. Challenges of Coal Mines in India: Environmental degradation: Coal mining has a significant impact on the environment, including air, water, and soil pollution. Mining activities can cause deforestation, soil erosion, land subsidence, and the destruction of wildlife habitats. Health hazards: Coal mining is associated with several health hazards, including respiratory diseases, skin diseases, hearing loss, and accidents. The workers are exposed to coal dust, which can cause black lung disease and other respiratory illnesses. Safety concerns: Coal mining is a hazardous occupation, and safety measures are often inadequate. Accidents in coal mines are common, and they can result in loss of life and property. Land acquisition and displacement: Coal mining requires a large amount of land, and the acquisition of land often leads to the displacement of local communities. Displaced people often lose their livelihoods and face social and economic hardships. Illegal mining: Illegal mining is a major challenge in India, and it leads to a loss of revenue for the government. Illegal miners often use unscientific mining practices, leading to environmental degradation and safety hazards. Technological obsolescence: The technology used in coal mining in India is outdated, and there is a need to modernize the mining methods to increase productivity, and efficiency and reduce environmental impact. Suggestive Measures: Transparency: Currently, it is not easy to obtain data or information regarding many aspects of the coal sector. This makes it difficult for citizens to demand accountability from the sector. Therefore, complete transparency in the form of regular publication of information related to all aspects of the sector is needed. Better policies: It is important to increase the level of public participation and inputs in decision making. All policies must be published in draft form and must be finalised after comments are invited from citizens and the feedback is incorporated. Local involvement: Local citizens must be involved in coal mining related activities. Before the mine starts, there should be meaningful public hearing processes regarding environmental and social impacts, and associated compensation mechanisms. During the mine’s operation, local citizens can help to oversee the operations and ensure its compliance to existing norms. Rehabilitation: Innovative approaches such as long-term lease of land, offering equity should be tried in rehabilitation processes. Proper compensation must be ensured to the displaced people. Strengthening Institutions: The capacity of the relevant institutions must be enhanced. Plans must be developed to increase capacities of coal industry. This would help in improving the planning, operations and oversight of the sector. India needs to address the energy issues through clean coal and take advantage of the presence of interested private players in the mining sector. Coal energy needs to transform by considering environmental factors like reducing carbon footprint, global warming, climate change, renewable and cleaner energy, etc. Source:  The Hindu About Coal India Limited: CIL a state owned coal mining corporation came into existence in November, 1975. CIL is the world’s largest coal producer and one of the largest corporate employer. CIL headquartered at Kolkata, West Bengal. Spread over eight (8) states of India, CIL operates through its subsidiaries in 84 mining areas. CIL is a Maharatna Company – a body privileged by the Government of India to enable State-owned enterprises to expand their operations and emerge as global giants. CIL has ten wholly owned Indian subsidiaries. In addition, CIL has an overseas subsidiary, Coal India Africana Limitada (CIAL), in Mozambique. Besides this, CIL has four more joint venture companies – Hindustan Fertilizers & Chemicals Limited, Talcher Fertilizers Limited, CIL NTPC Urja Private Limited and Coal Lignite Urja Vikas Private Limited. The mines of Assam I e North Eastern Coalfields (NEC) are directly managed by CIL. CIL contributes 85% of the total coal production and 75% of the total coal based production in the country. CIL contributes 55% to the total electricity generation and supplies 40% of the country’s primary commercial energy requirements. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Coal India Limited (CIL): Coal India Limited is the world’s largest coal producer and one of the largest corporate employer. CIL is a Navratna Company. CIL headquartered at Ranchi, Jharkhand. CIL has an overseas subsidiary, Coal India Africana Limitada (CIAL), in Mozambique. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 4 only Q.2) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the Shanghai Organisation Corporation (SCO)? SCO is a permanent intergovernmental international organization, India and Pakistan are members of SCO SCO has observer status in the United Nations General Assembly The SCO’s official languages are Russian, English and Chinese. Q.3) Kali Tiger Reserve is located in West Bengal Kerala Karnataka Gujrat Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 8th May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 8th May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 55] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. Attempt Day 55-> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Buddha Purnima Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, President Droupadi Murmu greeted people on the occasion of Buddha Purnima. About Buddha Purnima:- Buddha Purnima is celebrated to mark the birth of Gautam Buddha, the founder of Buddhism. It is also known as Vesak. In 1999, it became an UN-designated day, to acknowledge the contribution of Buddhism to society. It is believed that this was also the day he attained enlightenment. It is considered a ‘triple-blessed day’ as it is Tathagata Gautam Buddha’s birth, enlightenment, and Maha Parnirvana. Buddha Purnima falls on a full moon night, usually between April and May. It is a gazetted holiday in India. Many devotees visit Mahabodhi Temple, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, located in Bodh Gaya, Bihar, on this occasion. Bodhi Temple is the location where Lord Buddha is said to have attained enlightenment. About Budhha:- IMAGE SOURCE: Karma Buddhism | Does Buddhism Believe in Karma | TheMindFool Siddhartha Gautama, or Buddha was a spiritual leader and the founder of Buddhism. (UPSC MAINS: Wisdom of the Buddha) He lived from 563 B.C. to 483 B.C. He was born in the Shakya clan in Lumbini, Kapilvastu, Nepal. At the age of 29, he abandoned his home and began to live as a homeless ascetic and practised rigorous meditation for a year. At the age of 49, he sat down under a Pipal tree at Bodhgaya (present-day Bihar), where he finally attained Nirvana (perfect enlightenment) and came to be known as the Buddha. Buddha gave his first sermon in Sarnath. (UPSC PRELIMS: The Buddhist Circuit) This is called Dhammacakkappavattana (turning off the wheel of law). Buddha passed away in 483 BCE at Kushinagara, Uttar Pradesh. This event is termed Five forms that represent Buddha are:- Lotus and Bull – Birth Horse – Renunciation Bodhi Tree – Mahabodhi Dhamma Chakra Pravartana – First sermon Footprints – Nirvana Three pillars of his teachings are:- Buddha – Founder/Teacher Dhamma – Teachings Sangha – Order of Buddhist Monks and Nuns Eight-Fold Paths:- Right Vision (Samma-Ditthi) Right Thought or Attitude (Samma-sankappa) Right or Whole Speech (Samma-Vacca) Right or Integral Action (Samma-Kammanta) Right or Proper Livelihood (Samma-Ajiva) Right Effort or Energy (Samma-Vayama) Right Mindfulness (Samma-Sati) or Thorough Awareness (Samma-Sati) Right Concentration (Samma-Samadhi) Buddhist Councils:- 1st Council Year: 483 BC Venue : Saptaparni Cave, Rajgir Chairman :Maha Kassapa King: Ajatshatru Key Developments : Sutta & Vinaya Pitaka compiled 2nd Council Year: 383 BC Venue: Vaishali Chairman : Sabakami King: Kalasoka Key Developments: Monks got split into Sthavir Madins & Mahasanghikas The dispute arose over the ‘Ten Points During the 2nd Buddhist Council: 3rd Council Year: 250 BC Venue: Pataliputra Chairman : Mogalliputta Tissa King: Ashoka Key Developments: Abhidhammapitaka compiled 4th Council Year: 72 AD Venue: Kundalvan, Kashmir Chairman: Vasumitra & Ashvaghosha King: Kanishka Key Developments: Buddhists got split into Hinayana & Mahayana Buddhist Literature Tripitaka or three baskets include the prominent Buddhist scriptures. Others include Jatakas, Mahavamsa, Bodhi Vamsa. Tripitakas Vinaya Pitaka: Contains monastic rules of conduct for monks. Sutta Pitaka: This scripture describes the first Buddhist council. Abhidhamma Pitaka: It is a detailed scholastic analysis and summary of the Buddha’s teachings. Milinda Panha It is a dialogue between Indo-Greek king Meander and Buddhist monk Written in Pali Dipavamsa It deals with the arrival of Buddha‘s teaching and preachers in Sri Lanka. Written in Pali Mahavamsa It deals with the royal dynasties of the Indian subcontinent. The consecration of Asoka and details of Selucus and Alexander have been detailed in it. Buddha Charita It is an epic poem on the life of Buddha It is written in It was written by a Buddhist philosopher Ashwaghosha who was a member of King Kanishka’s court. MUST READ: Neo-Buddhism SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements: (2020) Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana Buddhism The Lokottaravadin sect was an offshoot of the Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism The deification of Buddha by Mahasanghikas fostered Mahayana Buddhism Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following pairs: Parivrajaka — Renunciant and Wanderer Shramana — Priest with a high status Upasaka — Lay follower of Buddhism Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Penumbral lunar eclipse Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: The penumbral lunar eclipse was observed recently. About the Penumbral lunar eclipse:- IMAGE SOURCE: Eclipse Shadow: What Is the Penumbra? (timeanddate.com) An eclipse happens when a planet or a moon gets in the way of the sun’s light. (UPSC PRELIMS: Eclipses ) The lunar eclipse is a celestial phenomenon where the sun, moon, and earth come in a straight line. In the Lunar Eclipse, the Earth arrives in between the sun and the moon. In this way, the shadow of the earth falls on the moon.  The lunar eclipse can only happen during the Full Moon. But, the orbits of the moon and earth are different. That’s why the lunar eclipse happens only up to 3-4 times a year. There are three types of lunar eclipses:- Total lunar eclipses, partial lunar eclipses, and penumbral lunar eclipses. (UPSC PRELIMS: Beaver blood moon) A penumbral lunar eclipse happens when the moon moves through the outermost region of the Earth’s shadow known as the penumbra. Penumbra: the lighter outer part of a shadow. The Moon’s penumbra causes partial solar eclipses, and the Earth’s penumbra is involved in penumbral lunar eclipses. During this event, the moon appears slightly darker than usual. Since the penumbral lunar eclipse occurs when the moon stands in the penumbral shadow. Thus, it is not very visible. MUST READ: Supermoon SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs on the: (2022) The first half of the month of June The second half of the month of June The first half of the month of July The second half of the month of July Q.2) On 21st June, the Sun (2019) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn G20 TechSprint Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the RBI and Bank for International Settlements (BIS) launched the G20 TechSprint. About G20 TechSprint:- G20 TechSprint is a global technology competition. (UPSC PRELIMS: India and G20 Presidency) The fourth and 2023 TechSprint is a joint initiative between the BIS Innovation Hub and the Reserve Bank of India. It will focus on three problem statements on cross-border payments formulated by the RBI and the BIS Innovation Hub. (UPSC CSE: Restoring Cross Border Mobility by WEF’s Common Trust Network ) Technology solutions: to reduce illicit finance risk around anti-money laundering, countering the financing of terrorism and sanctions. Foreign exchange and liquidity technology solutions: to enable settlement in emerging markets and developing economy currencies. Technology solutions for multilateral cross-border central bank digital currency platforms. (UPSC PRELIMS: Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC)) The competition is open for developers around the world. The shortlisted teams will be invited to develop their solutions over a six-week period.  Each team will be eligible for a stipend of eight lakh rupees approximately 10,000 US dollars. An independent panel of experts will select the most promising solution to each problem statement from the shortlisted solutions. The winners for each problem statement will receive an award of forty lakh rupees approximately 50,000 US dollars. MUST READ: Unified Payments Interface SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  1 only  2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017? (2017) It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city in our country into Smart Cities in a decade. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 3 only 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only Talaq-e-Hasan Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Supreme Court agreed to examine the validity of the practice of talaq-e-Hasan. About Talaq-e-hasan:- IMAGE SOURCE: TALAQ AND TALAQ E TAFWEEZ (slideshare.net) Talaq-e-Hasan is a form of ‘triple talaq’. (UPSC CSE:Personal Laws in Marriage) Under this, a Muslim man can divorce his wife by pronouncing ‘talaq’ at three separate intervals. The gap is at least one month or one menstrual cycle. According to Sharia or the Muslim personal law, men are allowed to practice polygamy that is, they can have more than one wife at the same time, up to a total of four. (UPSC PRELIMS: Uniform Civil Code) Nikah halala is a process in which a Muslim woman has to marry another person and get divorced from him before being allowed to marry her divorcee husband again. Triple talaq allows a husband to divorce his wife by repeating the word “talaq” (divorce) three times in any form, including email or text message. In Islam, talaq and khula are two terms for divorce for men and women respectively.  A man can part ways through ‘talaq’ while a woman can separate from her husband through ‘Khula’. MUST READ: Religion and Indian Constitution SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following? (2017) The Preamble The Fundamental Rights The Directive Principles of State Policy The Fundamental Duties Q.2) Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India? (2017) Liberty of thought Economic liberty Liberty of expression Liberty of belief Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The stock price of Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL) doubled in the last two months. About Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL):- RVNL is a Central Public Sector Enterprise. It works under the Ministry of Railways. (UPSC PRELIMS: Rail Development Authority) It was established in 2003 to implement railway infrastructure projects and raise extra-budgetary resources for Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs). (UPSC MAINS: Development of railways by the British) RVNL began operations in 2005. It is responsible for undertaking Rail project development and execution of works, creating project-specific SPVs, and handing over completed railway projects to the relevant Zonal Railway for operation and maintenance. RVNL was granted Mini-Ratna status in 2013. It has now been granted Navratna status. MUST READ: Rail Kaushal Vikas Yojana SOURCE: BUISINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to (2017) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes. Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings. Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme. King Cobra Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent studies suggest that King Cobra may be under-threat in India. About King Cobra:- They are one of the most venomous snakes on the planet. It is also the longest of all venomous snakes. The venom is not the most potent among venomous snakes, but the amount of neurotoxin they can deliver in a single bite up to two-tenths of a fluid ounce is enough to kill 20 people or even an elephant. They are the only snakes in the world that build nests for their eggs, which they guard ferociously until the hatchlings emerge. Habitat:- They live mainly in the rainforests and plains of India, southern China, and Southeast Asia. They are comfortable in a variety of habitats, including forests, bamboo thickets, mangrove swamps, high-altitude grasslands, and in rivers. Protection Status: IUCN Red List: Vulnerable. CITES: Appendix II. (UPSC PRELIMS: CITES COP19) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule II. (UPSC PRELIMS: Wildlife Protection) MUST READ:  (Mangrove Breakthrough ) SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Mridangam Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, Mridangam artiste, Karaikudi Mani, passed away. About Mridangam:- IMAGE SOURCE: Mridangam – India Instruments (India-instruments.de) The mridangam is the classical drum of South Indian music. It is also known by the name of medal or maddalam. It is one of the oldest Indian percussion instruments, originating 2,000 years ago. This traditional instrument is found in various parts of South India. The body of the mridangam is scooped out of a single block of wood. Jackwood or redwood is the ideal choice of mridangam makers, but the wood of the morogosa tree or the core of the coconut tree and the palm tree is also used for this purpose. It is a popular bifacial drum of Carnatic music and is used as an accompaniment in South Indian Classical music. (UPSC MAINS: Most recurring themes of Indian music) A similar instrument, the pakhavaj, is played in the Hindustani tradition of northern India, as well as in Pakistan and Bangladesh. (UPSC MAINS: gharana tradition’ in Hindustani music) MUST READ: Thirukokarnam Ranganayaki Ammal SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the cultural history of India consider the following statements (2018) Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna Tyagaraja created several new fits of rage Annamacharya nad Tyagaraja are contemporaries Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Voluntary insolvency proceedings Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the cash-strapped no-frills carrier Go Airlines (India) Ltd (Go First), said that it was filing for voluntary insolvency proceedings with the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) About Voluntary insolvency proceedings:- The Process of Voluntary Winding up of a solvent company is now shifted from the Companies Act, 2013 to Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 w.e.f. 1st April 2017. The shifting of Jurisdictional Authority from the High Court to NCLT will result in faster execution. The settlement of cases since Insolvency Professionals have been bestowed with powers for completing the winding-up process and reporting to NCLT. (UPSC PRELIMS: National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)) With the passing of a special resolution at the Member’s meeting and declaration of solvency.  An applicant can commence with the winding up proceedings Section 59 (3) (c) of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 says:- (UPSC MAINS: Insolvency & Bankruptcy: Issues & Way forward) Within 4 weeks of the Declaration  of Solvency Voluntary Winding up of the Company and Appointment of an Insolvency Professional to act  as Liquidator subject to the approval of the Members in General Meetings through Special Resolution:- To pass the Special Resolution for Voluntary Winding up and Appointment of Insolvency Professional to act as a Liquidator. MUST READ: Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2020 SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (2022) Central Statistics Office Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade Labour Bureau National Technical Manpower Information System Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Need for Reforming urban infrastructure in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, Maharashtra has launched Aspirational Cities Programme (ACP) modelled on the Aspirational District Programme of the NITI Aayog. About Urbanization: Urbanization refers to the population shift from rural to urban areas, the corresponding decrease in the proportion of people living in rural areas, and the ways in which societies adapt to this change. It is the process through which cities grow as higher percentages of the population come to live in the city. Classification: Urban area or Census Town: A habitation is declared urban (excluding a municipality, corporation, cantonment board and a notified town area committee) if it has a minimum population of 5,000; at least 75 per cent of the male working population in non-agricultural pursuits; population density is at least 400 people per sq km Metropolitan City: As per census are those Indian cities having a population of more than 4 million. Metropolitan Area: As per 74th Amendment 1992, is an area specified by the Governor by public notification to be a Metropolitan area having a population of 10 Lakh or 1 Million or more, comprised in one or more districts and consisting of two or more Municipalities or Panchayats or other contiguous areas, Urban Agglomeration: As per Census, is a continuous urban spread constituting a town and its adjoining outgrowths (OGs) or two or more physically contiguous towns together with or without outgrowths of such towns. Urban population of India: According to the Census of India 2011, the urban population of India was 377 million, which accounted for 31.16% of the total population. Around 590 million people would live in the cities by 2030. According to Mckinsey Global Institute study in 2010, Indian cities having only 3% of the land could generate 70 percent of net new jobs Around 70 percent of Indian GDP Near fourfold increase in per capita incomes Urban population will soar from 340 million in 2008 to 590 million in 2030, half the time taken before 2008. India needs to invest $1.2 trillion just in capital expenditure in its cities over the next 20 years, nearly eight times of today’s expenditure. The World Urbanization Prospects, 2018 report of UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA) notes that India, China and Nigeria will account for 35% of the projected global urban population growth and by 2050, India will have added 416 million urban dwellers. Current process of “urbanisation” and urban growth in India India is rapidly urbanising and is estimated to host 50 per cent of its population in cities by 2050. India is witnessing one of the largest urban growth spurts in history. This presents Indian cities with an unprecedented opportunity to look at urban planning and development through a long-term strategic lens to enable economic, environment and social impact. Challenges of urbanization in Maharashtra Deficient Infrastructure: Maharashtra’s cities are grappling with issues of deficient infrastructure, such as inadequate roads, public transport, water supply, and waste management systems. Mobility and Migration: Maharashtra’s cities continue to face the challenge of frequent mobility and migration, with an inward net movement of people for better livelihood opportunities. Air Pollution: Urbanization has led to an increase in air pollution in Maharashtra’s cities, primarily due to vehicular emissions and industrial activities. Social Inequities: The growth of informal settlements and slums in Maharashtra’s cities has led to social inequities, with the urban poor lacking access to basic services, such as healthcare, education, and housing. Vulnerabilities to Disasters and Climate Change: Rapid urbanization has increased the vulnerability of Maharashtra’s cities to disasters and climate change, such as floods and heatwaves. Poor Urban Planning: Many of the challenges faced by Maharashtra’s cities are a result of poor urban planning, with a lack of coordination between various government departments and inadequate implementation of policies and programmes. Suggestive Measures: Development of infrastructural facilities in rural and semi urban areas: Focus on idea of PURA (Provision of Urban Amenities in Rural Area) given by Dr APJ Abdul Kalam, now taken up under Shyama Prasad Mukherjee RURBAN Mission. Environmental Sustainability: Cleaning up of rivers and ponds, Integration of green spaces, prevent encroachment of wetlands, proper waste management through ‘reduce, reuse, recycle strategy’ apart from the use of modern technology. Ensuring better urban infrastructural facilities– education, health, water, sewage, power, proper transport planning and investment in public transport sector and pedestrian pavements. Ensuring Good urban Governance: Decentralization and devolution of funds, functions and functionaries to the local governments, modern framework for spatial planning of cities and standardized designs for public utilities for Inclusive urbanization taking care of the needs of the urban poor and other vulnerable groups for ease of living. Proper implementation of major urban policies like One Nation One Ration Card scheme, AMRUT, Housing for All by 2022, Smarts City Mission, National Urban Livelihood Mission and Master Plans for Mega Cities like Delhi Master Plan 2031. Thus, urban areas are the growth engines for the country and need to be healthy and sustainable. Focus should be on developing better facilities in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities and connectivity to bigger cities for better ecosystem and prevent excessive migration. Bringing employment opportunities and civic facilities to rural areas will be essential to achieve Sustainable Development Goal 11 for India. About Aspirational Cities Programme (ACP): It is an initiative of the Government of Maharashtra aimed at addressing the challenges of rapid urbanization in the state by adopting a holistic approach to urban governance. The ACP has identified 57 cities that have been proposed for the programme. Service level benchmarking will be done for the cities based on the data collected on the Performance Assessment System of the Government of Maharashtra. The performance of the 57 selected cities would be monitored and ranked quarterly through a standard digital monitoring platform with indicators on the themes of urban infrastructure, education, urban services, skill development, and climate change. The ACP is based on three priority areas: inclusive urban development, scientific data methods for assessing and monitoring outcomes, and citizen participation in civic affairs. Source:   Indian Express Prevention of Sexual Harassment (Posh) Act, 2013 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: A recent investigation revealed that more than half of India’s 30 national sports federations do not have an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) which is a legal requirement under the Prevention of Sexual Harassment (PoSH) Act, 2013. About Prevention of Sexual Harassment (Posh) Act, 2013: The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act, often known as the PoSH Act, was passed in 2013. The Act defines sexual harassment as any unwelcome act or behaviour (whether directly or by implication) such as; Physical contact and advances A demand or request for sexual favours Making sexually coloured remarks Showing pornography Any other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of sexual nature. The Act provides a mechanism for the prevention, prohibition, and redressal of complaints of sexual harassment in the workplace. The 2013 law expanded and legitimised the Vishaka Guidelines, which were established by the Supreme Court in a 1997 decision. The Vishaka Guidelines defined sexual harassment and imposed on institutions three key obligations: prohibition, prevention, and reparation. The Supreme Court ordered that a Complaints Committee be formed to investigate allegations of sexual harassment of women in the workplace. The guidelines were made legally binding by the court. Key Provisions of the act: It mandated that every employer must constitute an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) at each office or branch with 10 or more employees. It lay down procedures and defined various aspects of sexual harassment, including the aggrieved victim, who could be a woman “of any age whether employed or not”, who “alleges to have been subjected to any act of sexual harassment”. The aggrieved victim under the Act can be a woman “of any age whether employed [at the workplace] or not”, who “alleges to have been subjected to any act of sexual harassment”. In effect, the Act protects the rights of all women who are working or visiting any workplace, in any capacity. The Act in its Section 2n, defines sexual harassment. Sexual harassment includes any one or more of the following unwelcome acts or behaviour (whether directly or by implication), namely Physical contact and advances, or A demand or request for sexual favours, or Making sexually coloured remarks, or Showing pornography, or Any other unwelcome physical, verbal, nonverbal conduct of sexual nature Section 3 (2) of the Act further elaborates that if any of the following circumstances occurs or is present in relation to or connected with any act or behavior of sexual harassment among other circumstances, it may amount to sexual harassment- Implied or explicit promise of preferential treatment in her employment, or Implied or explicit threat of detrimental treatment in her employment, or Implied or explicit threat about her present or future employment status, or Interference with her work or creating an intimidating or offensive or hostile work environment for her, or Humiliating treatment likely to affect her health or safety Procedure for complaint: It is not compulsory for the aggrieved victim to file a complaint for the ICC to act. she “may” do so — and if she cannot, any member of the ICC “shall” render “all reasonable assistance” to her to complain in writing. The complaint must be made “within three months from the date of the incident”. After the ICC has filed its report: If the allegations of sexual harassment are proven, the ICC will recommend to the employer to act “in accordance with the provisions of the service rules” of the company. These may vary from company to company. The ICC may also recommend that the company deduct the salary of the person found guilty, “as it may consider appropriate”. Key Issues/Challenges: There could be feasibility issues in establishing an Internal Complaints Committee at every branch or office with 10 or more employees. The Internal Complaints Committee has been given the powers of a civil court. However, it does not require members with a legal background nor are there any provisions for legal training. The act provides for action against the complainant in case of a false or malicious complaint. This could deter victims from filing complaints. Two different bodies are called the ‘Local Complaints Committ The Bill does not clearly demarcate the jurisdiction, composition and functions of these Committees. Unlike sexual harassment legislation in many other countries, this Bill does not provide protection to men. Way Forward: The Justice Verma committee was formed in 2013 to provide recommendation on prevention of sexual harassment in workplaces. Some of its recommendations include: Employment tribunal: An employment tribunal must be set up under PoSH act instead of ICC. The tribunal need not function as a civil court but may choose its own procedure to deal with each complaint. Expanding scope: The act must be expanded to include domestic workers. The definition of ‘sexual harassment’ must be expanded to consider perception of the victim. Other provisions: The committee recommended doing away with 90 days’ time limit and penalty for wrong complaints. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding King Cobra species: They are the only snakes in the world that build nests for their eggs. They have been mentioned in the schedule I of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the statements is not correct regarding the Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL)? RVNL is a Central Public Sector Enterprise. RVNL is a Navratna Company It works under the Ministry of Railways All statements are correct Q.3) With reference to Buddhism in India, consider the following statements: Melinda Panha is a dialogue between Indo-Greek king Meander and Buddhist monk Nagasena. Mahavamsa deals with the arrival of Buddha‘s teaching and preachers in Sri Lanka. Dipavamsa deals with the royal dynasties of the Indian subcontinent. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 only 2 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 6th May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 5th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – c Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }