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Jul 3, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 3rd July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Jul 3, 2023 TLP Mains Answer Writing

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS3 Questions [3rd July, 2023] – Day 22

Hello Students TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains. You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 22 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

Jul 1, 2023 TLP Mains Answer Writing

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS3 Questions [1st July, 2023] – Day 20

Hello Students TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains. You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 20 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

Jun 30, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –30th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) Syllabus Prelims – Important Institutions Context: Recently, the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) in association with S. K. Somaiya College in Mumbai celebrated the 17th Statistics Day. Background:- This year, the theme selected for Statistics Day, 2023 is ‘Alignment of State Indicator Framework with National Indicator Framework for Monitoring Sustainable Development Goals’. National Statistics Day: it is celebrated on 29th June every year on the birth anniversary of Prof. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis. Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis: He is considered the father of modern statistics in India. He He founded the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) and shaped the Planning Commission. About National Sample Survey Office (NSSO):- Established: 1950. The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) is now merged with the Central Statistical Office to form the National Statistical Office (NSO) in Central Statistical Office: it was responsible for the coordination of statistical activities in the country. Objective: to conduct large-scale sample surveys throughout India. Head: by a Director General. Ministry: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation It was the largest organization in India responsible for conducting periodic socio-economic surveys. (UPSC CSE: All India Debt & Investment Survey NSS 77th round) Functions of NSSO:- It is responsible for the conduct of large-scale sample surveys in diverse fields on an all-India basis. Primarily data are collected through nationwide household surveys on various socio-economic subjects, Annual Survey of Industries (ASI), etc. It collects data on rural and urban prices. It plays a significant role in the improvement of crop statistics through supervision of the area enumeration and crop estimation surveys of the State agencies. It also maintains a frame of urban area units for use in sample surveys in urban areas. The NSSO has four Divisions: Survey Design and Research Division (SDRD): is responsible for the technical planning of surveys, formulation of concepts and presentation of survey results etc. HQ: Kolkata. Field Operations Division (FOD): it is responsible for the collection of primary data for the surveys undertaken by NSS. HQ: Delhi/Faridabad. Data Processing Division (DPD): it is responsible for sample selection, software development, processing, validation and tabulation of the data collected through surveys. HQ: Kolkata. Survey Coordination Division (SCD): it coordinates all the activities of different Divisions of NSS. HQ: New Delhi. MUST READ: National Statistical Commission (NSC) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes. Statement-II : Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Both Statement-I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is· incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Central Board for Film Certification (CBFC) Syllabus Prelims – Important Institutions Context: Central Board for Film Certification (CBFC) clarified that the film Bahattar Hoorain, was granted ‘A’ certification in 2019. About Central Board for Film Certification (CBFC):- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideShare Establishment: 1951 It is a statutory body under the Cinematograph Act 1952. (UPSC CSE: Amendments to Cinematograph Act) Ministry: Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. HQ: Mumbai, Maharashtra. Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they are certified by the CBFC. Objectives of CBFC:- To ensure good and healthy entertainment in accordance with the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952 and the Cinematograph (Certification) Rules 1983. To grant a certificate to regulate the public exhibition of films in India. To promote recreation, education, and good and healthy entertainment to the public according to the provisions of the Cinematograph Act, 1952, and Cinematograph (Certification) Rules, 1983. Structure of CBFC:- CBFC board: is headed by a central government-appointed chairperson and 12-45 non-official members. The members are eminent persons from social science, education, law, arts or films background appointed. Functions:- It examines films for content that may be harmful or unsuitable for some particular audiences, particularly children and young people. It ensures that films adhere to ethical standards, respecting cultural values and societal norms. After evaluating the content and classifying the film, the CBFC grants a certificate that permits the film’s public exhibition. Appeals:- Filmmakers can appeal against the CBFC’s decisions in the Film Certification Appellate Tribunal (FCAT). FCAT: it is an independent body to review and resolves appeals. Films are certified under four categories:- “U”: unrestricted public exhibition. “A”: restricted to adult audiences. “U/A”: unrestricted public exhibition subject to parental guidance for children below the age of twelve. “S”: restricted to specialized audiences such as doctors or scientists. The board may also refuse to certify. MUST READ: Reforms SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Himalaya Mountains Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: According to a recent study, the Himalayas Mountains and other mountains across the Northern Hemisphere are likely to see 15 per cent more rain for every 1-degree Celsius rise. Key Findings of the report:- Climate change could cause a shift in snowfall to rainfall in mountain regions across the Northern Hemisphere, amplifying rainfall extremes lasting over a few hours to a day. For 2 degrees and 3 degrees rise, the world would see a 30 per cent and 45 per cent increase in rain, This switch from snowfall to rainfall could increase the risk of disasters such as floods, landslides, and soil erosion. Not all mountain regions are at high risk. The Himalayas and the North American Pacific Mountain ranges, including the Cascades, Sierra Nevada, and coastal ranges from Canada to Southern California are more threatened than the Rockies or the Alps. Cascades: this mountain range is a segment of the Pacific mountain system of western North America. Sierra Nevada: it is a major mountain range of western North America, running along the eastern edge of the U.S. state of Rocky Mountains: they stretch from northern Alberta and British Columbia in Canada southward to New Mexico in the United States. Alps: a small segment of a discontinuous mountain chain that stretches from the Atlas Mountains of North Africa across southern Europe and Asia to beyond the Himalayas. The Himalayas is one of those hotspot regions where we see an increased risk of rainfall extremes. About the Himalaya Mountains:- IMAGE SOURCE: jfb-levage.com They are the world’s tallest mountain ranges. Begin at Pamir Knot in the west End: Purvanchal in the east. Major Peaks: Mount Everest, Karakora (K2), Kailash, Kanchenjunga, Nanga Parbat, Annapurna, and Manasklu. Formation of Himalayas:– The Himalayas are the result of the Indian and Eurasian plates colliding. Indian Peninsula split off from Gondwana during the Cretaceous Period and began moving north. Gondwana: ancient supercontinent that incorporated present-day South America, Africa, Arabia, Madagascar, India, Australia, and Antarctica. Between the two plates, the Tethys Sea was squeezed, creating a geosyncline. Geosyncline: a large-scale depression in the earth’s crust containing very thick deposits. Tethys Sea: a prehistoric ocean during much of the Mesozoic Era and early Cenozoic Era, located between the ancient continents of Gondwana and Laurasia. The Indian Plate’s oceanic boundary was subducted as the plate moved north. The northward drift along with the Tethys sea compression caused the Himalayas to rise. The mountains continued to converge, creating fold mountains known as the Greater Himalayas. Divisions of Himalayas:- Trans Himalayas The Trans Himalaya is a 1,600-kilometre-long (990 mi) mountain range, extending in a west–east direction parallel to the main Himalayan range. Great Himalayas Its average height is 5000 km. It has loft peaks along with extensive snowfields of glaciers. Middle Himalayas Its average height is 1300 to 5000km. Shiwaliks This is not a continuous range, it is also called the outer Himalayas. The Himalayas can be divided into the following subdivisions:- Kashmir or Northwestern Himalayas It comprises a series of ranges such as the Karakoram, Ladakh, Zanskar and Pir Panjal. Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas This part lies approximately between the Ravi in the west and the Kali in the east. Ravi: a tributary of the Indus River. Kali: a tributary of the Ghaghara River. Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas They are flanked by Nepal Himalayas in the west and Bhutan Himalayas in the east. Arunachal Himalayas These extend from the east of the Bhutan Himalayas up to the Diphu Pass in the east. Significance of the Himalayas for India:- River source: The great rivers and their tributaries like Ganga, Brahmaputra, Indus etc. originate here. Fertile plains of North India: the rivers carry enormous quantities of alluvium while descending from the Himalayas. This is deposited in the Great Plain in the form of fertile soil, making the plain one of the most fertile lands in the world. India’s Energy Security: Almost 33% of the country’s thermal electricity and 52% of its hydropower is dependent on river waters originating in the Himalayas. Monsoon: The Himalayas play a very significant role in monsoon. Due to their high altitude, length and direction, they effectively intercept the summer monsoons coming from the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea and cause precipitation in the form of rain or snow. Forest Resources: The Himalayan ranges are very rich in forest resources. The Himalayan forests provide fuel wood and a large variety of raw materials for forest-based industries. Tourism: due to their scenic beauty and healthy environment, the Himalayan ranges have developed a large number of tourist spots. SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following activities : (2023) Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding _lime. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned Subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters. How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) When you travel in the Himalayas, you will see the following: (2012) Deep gorges U-turn river courses Parallel mountain ranges Steep gradients causing land sliding Which of the above can be said to be the evidence for the Himalayas being young fold mountains? 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Green Credit Programme (GCP) Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change have notified draft rules for ‘Green Credit’. Background:- The ministry proposed the draft Green Credit Programme Implementation Rules 2023 in a notification issued on June 26, 2023. It has invited objections and suggestions within 60 days. About Green Credit Programme (GCP):- Launched: 2023. Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman had launched “Green Credit Programme”(GCP) in Union Budget 2023-24. Objective: to create a market-based mechanism for undertaking environment-friendly activities such as afforestation programmes, and water conservation by providing additional incentives in the form of green credits. Green Credit: it is an incentive that individuals, farmer-producer organisations (FPO), industries, and rural and urban local bodies, among other stakeholders, will be able to earn for environment-positive actions. Ministry: Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. It will be launched at the national level to incentivize voluntary environmental actions of various stakeholders. It will encourage private sector industries by taking actions, which are able to converge with activities relevant to generating or buying Green Credits. Governance Structure of GCP:- GCP Administrator The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) will be the administrator of GCP. ICFRE: it is an autonomous organisation or governmental agency under the MoEFCC. Its aim is to generate, advance and disseminate scientific knowledge and technologies for ecological security, improved productivity, livelihood enhancement and sustainable use of forest resources through forestry research and education. It will manage, monitor and operate the entire programme. Steering committee It will be set up to approve procedures for institutionalising the GCP, rules and regulations It will recommend it to the central government for issuance of a Green Credit Certificate. It will also determine the type and amount of fees and charges for the purpose of meeting the cost and expense towards implementation of GCP. Working of GCP:- The GCP administrator will collect the environmental compensation and deposit it in a separate dedicated account. This fund shall be utilised for activities related to the implementation of GCP. For instance, an individual who undertakes tree plantation in an area, can earn green credits, which he can sell at the trading platform after validation by the steering committee. Benefits of GCP:- It allows forests to be traded as a commodity. It allows the Forest Department to outsource one of its responsibilities of reforesting to non-government agencies. It will encourage plantation by individuals outside the traditional forest area. It will help in meeting international commitments such as sustainable development goals and nationally determined contributions. SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2)With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s ﬁrst fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Just Energy Transition Partnership (JET-P) deal. Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Senegal signed the Just Energy Transition Partnership deal. Background:- Senegal has become the fourth country after South Africa, Indonesia and Vietnam to sign the JET-P deal. The deal was announced on June 22, 2023, and will mobilize 2.5 billion euros for Senegal in new and additional financing over an initial period of 3-5 years. About Just Energy Transition Partnership (JET-P) deal:- It is an initiative to accelerate the phasing out of coal and reduce emissions. (UPSC CSE: Just Energy Transition Partnership) Objective: to reduce emissions in the energy sector and accelerate the coal phase-out process. Launch: 2021. The announcement of the first “Just Energy Transition Partnership” (JETP) was made at the 26th UN Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP 26) in It was launched with the support of the United Kingdom (UK), the United States (US), France, Germany, and the European Union (EU). G7 announced a similar partnership in India, Indonesia, Senegal, and Vietnam. Funding is made available for this purpose in identified developing countries. Existing Deals:- COP 26(2021): South Africa was promised to finance worth $8.5 billion in the first phase through mechanisms such as grants, loans and investments to meet its Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) goals. COP 27 (2022): South Africa published its JETP Implementation Plan (JETP IP). G20 leaders’ summit in Bali: At the summit, Indonesia’s JETP deal was announced. Challenges:- The emphasis by developed countries on coal phase-down without adequate attention to the country context. It disregards the crucial difference in energy transition between industrialized and emerging economies. India’s Stand:- India has refused to put ‘coal phase-out’ on the negotiation table and wants to design its own “transition plan”. The talks on JETP have also stalled over differences in approaches on coal. US wants to include coal phase-out as part of the discussion. However, India is pushing for climate funds for renewable energy, technology transfer and green jobs. MUST READ: G7 SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) “The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2, 4 and 5 1, 3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Election Commission Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: The Election Commission announced elections for 10 Rajya Sabha seats from three States that are falling vacant in July and August. Background:- About Election Commission:- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideShare The Election Commission is a permanent and independent body established by the Constitution of India. (UPSC CSE: Election Commission) Objective: to ensure free and fair elections in the country. Article 324 of the Constitution: provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission. Composition Election Commission of India:- Members: The election commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and a such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. Appointment: The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made by the Head: When any other election commissioner is so appointed the chief election commissioner shall act as the chairman of the election commission. Regional commissioners: The president may also appoint after consultation with the election commission such regional commissioners as he may consider necessary to assist the election commission. Procedure of Removal:- The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge by Parliament. Judges of High Courts and Supreme Court, CEC, Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) may be removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on grounds of ‘Proven misbehaviour or incapacity’. Removal requires a special majority of 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50% of the total strength of the house. Conditions of service: it shall be such as the President may by rule. Tenure of office: President may by rule determine it. Key Functions of ECI:- ECI superintendents, direct and control the entire process of conducting elections. These include elections to Parliament and Legislature of every State and to the offices of President and Vice-President of India. It decides the election schedules for the conduct of periodic and timely elections, whether general or bye-elections. It prepares electoral rolls and issues Electronic Photo Identity Cards (EPIC). It decides on the location of polling stations, assignment of voters to the polling stations, location of counting centres, and other related arrangements to be made. It grants recognition to political parties. It allots election symbols to them along with settling disputes related to it. Advisory jurisdiction: it can advise in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures. It issues the Model Code of Conduct in elections for political parties and candidates. Model Code of Conduct: a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India for the conduct of political parties and candidates during elections. It sets limits of campaign expenditure per candidate to all the political parties and also monitors the same. Rajya Sabha Article 80: The Constitution of India provides that the Rajya Sabha shall consist of 250 members. 12 members of these shall be nominated by the President from amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art and social service. Not more than 238 representatives of the States and of the Union Territories. The Vice-President is the ex-officio chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. Deputy Chairman: elected from amongst the house’s members, takes care of the day-to-day matters of the house in the absence of the Chairman. Tenure of members: Every Rajya Sabha MP has a tenure of six years and elections to one-third of seats are held every two years. Election of members:- Elections to the Rajya Sabha are Members representing States are elected by elected members of legislative assemblies of the States in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Each MLA’s vote is counted only once. To win a Rajya Sabha seat, a candidate should get the required number of votes. That number is found using the below formula. Required vote = Total number of votes / (Number of Rajya Sabha seats + 1 ) + 1. MUST READ: Role of Rajya Sabha SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean? (2023) The principle of natural justice The procedure established by law Fair application of law Equality before law Q.2) With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements : (2023) When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mains: A model for quality and inclusive education Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) is adopted by the Ministry of Education to rank institutions of higher education in India. About National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF): It was launched by the Ministry for Human Resource Development (MHRD) [now Ministry of Education (MoE)] in September 2015. This framework outlines a methodology to rank institutions across the country. Ranking Metric: The NIRF employs a ranking metric comprising five parameters with varying weightage to assess the quality of colleges: Teaching, Learning and Resources (40%), Graduation Outcome (25%), Research and Professional Practices (15%), Outreach and Inclusivity (10%) and Perception (10%). Each of these parameters has several components, which again have varying weightage. Though far from perfect, the metric is reasonably robust as it uses broad-based and curated parameters. Learning from Top ranking states: Larger coverage of colleges: More than one-third of the top-ranked colleges are dispersed across different places; they not only cater largely to the rural and under-served areas, but also provide an opportunity for quality education for students from poor and disadvantaged social groups who do not have the economic resources and social networks to study in colleges. Reservation Policy: Tamil Nadu not only has one of the highest reservation quotas, but also has been quite effective in its implementation of the reservation policy. Significance of Quality education in India: There is a severe learning crisis in India. Time and again this has been emphasized by several national and international level studies. The Annual Status of Education Report (ASER), stated that 50% of Class V students were unable to even read the text meant for students three levels below. Without immediate remedial assistance, these children cannot effectively progress in the education system. These future citizens will be low on skill level requirements of Industry 4.0. In the longer run, this will act as roadblock in the path of demographic dividend’s realization. Criticisms of the ranking framework: Insufficient quality parameters: The quality of an institution is a function of several inputs and the above indicators alone may not be sufficient. For example., how can we include the skills that an institution/university imparts to its students as one of the important ingredients? Should the financial health and size of the institution not be a criterion? etc. One-size-fits-all approach: The diversity in the Indian education system is large. There are fresh as well as old institutions offering degrees/diplomas/certifications. There are also technology vs social sciences institutions, multi-disciplinary vs single discipline, private vs public, research-based, innovation-based, language-based or even special-purpose institutions/universities. The boundary conditions in which they operate are very different. NIRF seems to be committing the same sin that the global rankings systems were once accused of — a one-size-fits-all approach. Ranking Vs accreditation: Another glaring oversight is the disconnect that exists between the ranking and accreditation. Several universities have earned a NAAC A grade but figure poorly in the ranking system. Lack of international faculty: The world over, ranking educational institutes is a matter of debate and research. There are at least 20 global ranking agencies that measure quality on various parameters. Two factors that are absent and differentiate us from the global ranking systems are our lack of international faculty and students and the inadequacy of our research to connect with the industry. Challenges at higher education level: Indian universities have become moribund institutions run by cloistered, change-resistant bureaucracies where curricula are not updated for years. Students are not exposed to cutting edge research and ideas – CSIR has research avenues but these are cut off from University linkages. Political interference in selections, appointments and day-to-day administrative of universities. Mistaken belief that homogenization of institutions will produce greater pedagogic creativity. This leaves no room for competition among higher education institutions. Way Forward: The consistent and remarkable performance of Tamil Nadu in higher education highlights the possibility of achieving both quality and inclusion simultaneously. This significant achievement should serve as a catalyst for introspection among other southern states that possess a robust and inclusive social welfare framework. There is need to examine the reasons behind their lagging performance and be inspired to take proactive measures to address the existing issues and improve the quality and inclusivity of higher education in their respective regions. Source: The Hindu Open Market Sale Scheme Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: The Food Corporation of India’s imposed quantity restrictions followed by the refusal to allow States to procure the two food grains through its Open Market Sale Scheme. About Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS): The OMSS is operationalised to sell foodgrains, especially wheat and rice, at predetermined prices in the open market from time to time to bulk consumers and private traders during the lean season. Nodal Agency: Food Corporation of India (FCI) Mode of Selling: Weekly auctions by FCI on the platform of the National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange Limited (NCDEX). Purpose: To improve domestic availability of these two key grains and cool down open market prices, especially in deficit regions. Features of OMSS: The FCI conducts weekly auctions through e-auctions in the open market to sell surplus stocks of wheat and rice. The reserve price of wheat and rice for sale under OMSS is fixed by the Department of Food and Public Distribution (DFPD) every year. The reserve price is kept uniform throughout the country without adding any further freight to facilitate buyers to lift stocks from any place at ease. The sale of wheat and rice under OMSS is undertaken throughout the year in the non-procuring states and during the non-procurement period in the procuring states. The quantum of wheat and rice for sale under OMSS is decided by the DFPD based on the availability and demand of food grains. The surplus procuring states (paddy/rice) are not allowed to participate in e-auction for the purchase of rice for their state schemes and they are advised to retain stocks under the state pool for their schemes. Significances of OMSS: Enhance the supply of food grains: The OMSS helps to enhance the supply of food grains, especially wheat, during the lean season and moderates the open market prices, especially in deficit regions. According to the Department of Food and Public Distribution, the primary objective of the OMSS is to ensure food security for the country through timely and efficient procurement and distribution of food grains. Prevent wastage and deterioration of food grains: The OMSS also helps to prevent wastage and deterioration of food grains in FCI godowns due to a lack of storage space and proper maintenance. The FCI is the only government agency entrusted with the movement of food grains from the procuring states to consuming states through a network of storage infrastructure owned or hired by FCI in the whole of India. Provides an alternative source of food grains: The OMSS provides an alternative source of food grains for bulk consumers, state governments, UTs and private parties who participate in various schemes and programmes such as ethanol production under biofuel policy. The FCI conducts weekly auctions through e-auctions in the open market to sell surplus stocks of wheat and rice under OMSS. Generates revenue for the FCI: The OMSS generates revenue for the FCI and reduces its subsidy burden on the central government. The FCI sells food grains under OMSS at pre-determined prices which are higher than the minimum support prices (MSPs) paid to farmers for procurement. Challenges faced by OMSS: Impact on farmers: The sale of excess food grains in the open market could potentially lower the prices of food grains, which could negatively impact farmers who rely on income from the sale of their crops. Quality control: The quality of the excess stock may not always be up to the required standards, which could lead to issues with spoilage and wastage. Administrative issues: The process of conducting e-auctions and other sales can be complex and time-consuming, which could lead to delays and administrative issues. Does not address the structural problems: The OMSS does not address the structural problems of food grain management such as procurement, distribution and buffer stocking policies, which need to be reformed to ensure food security and fiscal prudence. The FCI procures more than what is required for TPDS and OWS, leading to excess stocks and high carrying costs. Way Forward: Thus, the OMSS has the potential to reduce wastage, generate revenue, and stabilize prices, but it also has potential drawbacks such as impacts on farmers, quality control issues, and administrative challenges. It is important for the government to carefully manage the implementation of the scheme to ensure that the benefits outweigh the drawbacks. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Green Credit Programme (GCP) create a market-based mechanism for undertaking environment-friendly activities such as afforestation programmes. Statement-II: GCP was launched in 2014. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q2) Consider the following pairs: Election Commission of India : Article 324 Union Public Service Commission: Article 148 Comptroller and Auditor-General of India: Article 315 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) is under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. Statement-II: NSSO was merged with the Central Statistical Office to form the National Statistical Office (NSO) in 2017. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 30th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 29th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – c Q.3) -d

Jun 30, 2023 IASbaba's Courses

[ADMISSIONS OPEN] Connect to Conquer(C2C) 2024 – The Most Comprehensive and Integrated OFFLINE Course @ DELHI for UPSC 2024 – Classes, Daily Targets, Tests & Mentorship! Starting from 17th July

Success is a combination of – “Ideas, Planning, Strategy, Quality Approach and Guidance” If you miss any of these elements, success will be a far-fetched dream! What is Success?Success is a combination of – Ideas + Planning + Strategy + Quality + Approach + Guidance…When all of the above conditions are met, we experience what we all say with love ‘achieving one’s dreams’.This is what IASbaba stands for. While the entire coaching ecosystem revolves around classes and test series, the team at IASbaba understood one key issue – not everyone gets an equal chance in life. This is despite being talented as well as immensely knowledgeable in their respective fields. Connect to Conquer (C2C) is an intensive programme designed only for sincere and serious candidates. It is programme focused on consistency and dedication.It primarily focuses on Daily Tests (Prelims & Mains) according to the Detailed Micro-Plan, Daily Offline Test Discussion. There is a lot of confusion, which is leading to the herd of choosing courses where the norm of the batch size is around 400. This doesn’t help students and aspirants as there is hardly any interaction with the faculties and the mentorship guidance is almost nil and Personalized Mentorship is nowhere to be seen.C2C is a sincere attempt to tackle these problems and help aspirants to improve every single day and move closer towards realising their UPSC Dream.C2C gives you a chance to connect with the best mentors at IASbaba and get your skills monitored, honed and upgraded to let you secure a place in the final list. The USP of this initiative is the connect that you get to establish with your mentor. Believe us, it helps a lot. The mentor is your friend, philosopher and guide in this process. You will enjoy the process even as you devote your maximum energy and time to keep pace with the course plan. The seats are limited to 50 only The programme will be held in OFFLINE MODE at DELHI CENTRE ONLYRead Complete Details -> Click Here

Jun 30, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 30th June 2023

Jun 30, 2023 TLP Mains Answer Writing

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS3 Questions [30th June, 2023] – Day 19

Hello Students TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains. You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day19 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

Jun 29, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –29th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) National Cooperative Union of India (NCUI) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the 17th Indian Cooperative Congress (ICC) organized by the National Cooperative Union of India (NCUI) recently. Background:- National Cooperative Union of India (NCUI) is organizing the two days Indian Cooperative Congress. The theme of Amrit Kaal: Prosperity through Cooperation for a Vibrant India. The Union Home and Cooperation Minister Amit Shah will chair it. Objective of the Indian Cooperative Congress:- To discuss various trends in the cooperative movement. To showcase the best practices being adopted by the successful cooperatives. To deliberate on challenges being faced by the cooperative world. About the National Cooperative Union of India (NCUI):- Established: 1929. HQ: New Delhi. It is the apex body in India which represents all sectors of the Indian Co-operative Movement. (UPSC CSE: India’s Cooperative Sector) Objectives of NCUI:- To promote and develop the co-operative movement in India. To educate, guide and assist the people in their efforts. To build up and expand the co-operative sector. NCUI membership:- It is open to national and state-level co-operative organisations as well as multi-state co-operative societies. As of 2016, NCUI had 260 members, including, 17 National, 163 State and 80 Multi-State Cooperatives. Function: it provides service as an exponent of co-operative opinion in accordance with cooperative principles. MUST READ: Cooperative Sector Reforms SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s ﬁrst fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Research Foundation Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, the government has decided to bring the National Research Foundation (NRF) Bill, 2023 to strengthen the research ecosystem in the country. Background:- The Bill approved by the Union Cabinet will pave the way to establish National Research Foundation (NRF). The Bill will repeal the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) established by an act of Parliament in 2008 and subsume it into NRF. It will seed, grow and promote research and development and foster a culture of research and innovation throughout India’s universities, colleges, and research institutions. About National Research Foundation:- It is an apex body to promote, fund and mentor scientific research in higher education institutions. Initial budget of Rs 50,000 crore for over a five-year period between 2023 and 2028. The NRF would also provide fellowships for post-doctoral research, the funding for which is not available right now. Objective:- Cultivating the culture of research in universities and colleges. Facilitating research in universities across the country. (UPSC MAINS: Factors that have constrained research and innovation capabilities in India.) Historical Background:- The proposal for an NRF was first floated in the public domain by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2019, during his address to the Indian Science Congress. The NRF found a second mention on January 20 of that year during a joint session of Parliament. Later, it was mentioned in the Finance Minister’s speech during the Budget Session in July 2019. The creation of NRF was also one of the key recommendations of the National Education Policy 2020. 2023: the Union Cabinet approved the National Research Foundation(NRF),2023 bill to establish NRF. Administration of NRF:- The NRF would be administratively housed in the Department of Science and Technology (DST). It would have a 16-member governing board. Of these two members from DST, five from industry, one from humanities and six experts would be selected depending on the nature of the project being evaluated. Structure of NRF:- Prime Minister will be the ex-officio president of the board and the Minister of Science and Technology and the Minister of Education will be the ex-officio vice presidents. The NRF’s functioning will be governed by an executive council chaired by the Principal Scientific Advisor to the government of India. Funding for NRF:- Of the Rs 50,000 crore estimated funding over the next five years, Rs 36,000 crore would come from the industry. Scientific research projects under the NRF would be funded by the DST and industry on a 50:50 basis. The Department of Science and Technology’s main funding body, the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) will be absorbed in the NRF. SERB: it was set up in 2008. It is responsible for funding science and technology start-ups, setting up incubators and funding science-related projects in central and state universities. Function of NRF:- The NRF will forge collaborations among the industry, academia, government departments and research institutions. It will create an interface mechanism for the participation and contribution of industries and state governments in addition to the scientific and line ministries. MUST READ: Number of women scientists goes up SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’? (2017) To enable famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only Padma Awards Syllabus Prelims –Awards Context: Recently, the Ministry of Home Affairs announced that the online nominations for Padma Awards 2024 would be open till 15th September 2023. About Padma Awards:- IMAGE SOURCES: Oneindia The Padma Award are one of the highest civilian honours of India. Instituted:1954. (UPSC CSE: Padma awards) Objective: to recognize achievements in all fields of activities or disciplines where an element of public service is involved. Presented by: President of India. Time period: March/April every year. It is announced every year on the occasion of Republic Day. There was a brief interruption(s) during the years: 1978 and 1979 and 1993 to 1997. The Awards are given in three categories:- Padma Vibhushan: for exceptional and distinguished service. Padma Bhushan: for distinguished service of higher order. Padma Shri: for distinguished service. Historical Background:– 1954: The Government of India instituted two civilian awards-Bharat Ratna & Padma Vibhushan. Padma Vibhushan had three classes namely Pahela Varg, Dusra Varg and Tisra Varg. 1955: These were renamed as Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri. Eligibility:- All persons without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex are eligible for these awards. Exclusion: Government servants including those working with PSUs, except doctors and scientists, are not eligible for these Awards. The award seeks to recognize works of distinction and is given for distinguished and exceptional achievements/service in all fields of activities/disciplines:- Art: includes Music, Painting, Sculpture, Photography, Cinema, Theatre etc. Social work: includes social service, charitable service, contribution to community projects etc. Public Affairs: includes Law, Public Life, Politics etc. Science & Engineering: includes Space Engineering, Nuclear Science, Information Technology, Research & Development in Science & its allied subjects etc. Trade & Industry: includes Banking, Economic Activities, Management, Promotion of Tourism, Business etc. Medicine: includes medical research, distinction/specialization in Ayurveda, Homeopathy, Siddha, Allopathy, Naturopathy etc. Literature & Education: includes Journalism, Teaching, Book composing, Literature, Poetry, Promotion of education, Promotion of literacy, Education Reforms etc. Civil Service: includes distinction/excellence in administration etc. by Government Servants Sports: includes popular Sports, Athletics, Adventure, Mountaineering, promotion of sports, Yoga etc. Others: fields not covered above and may include propagation of Indian Culture, protection of Human Rights, Wild Life protection/conservation etc. Decoration:- The awardees are presented a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a medallion. The recipients are also given a small replica of the medallion, which they can wear during any ceremonial/State functions etc. Selection Process:- The nomination process is open to the public. Even self-nomination can be made. The Padma Awards are conferred on the recommendations made by the Padma Awards Committee. Padma Awards Committee: It is constituted by the Prime Minister every year. It is headed by the Cabinet Secretary. Other members: Home Secretary, Secretary to the President and four to six eminent persons as members. Approval: The recommendations of the committee are submitted to the Prime Minister and the President of India for approval. Special Features of Padma Awards:- The total number of awards to be given in a year (excluding posthumous awards and to NRI/foreigners/OCIs) should not be more than 120. The award does not amount to a title and cannot be used as a suffix or prefix to the awardees’ name. The award is normally not conferred posthumously. However, in highly deserving cases, the Government could consider giving an award posthumously. MUST READ: Padma awardee Shanti Devi SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards : (2023) Major Dhyan Chand: For the most spectacular and outstanding performance and outstanding Khel Ratna Award performance over a period of the last four years. Arjuna Award: For the lifetime achievement of a sportsperson. Dronacharya Award: To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams. Rashtriya Khel: To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement. Protsahan Puraskar How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four CHAMPIONS 2.0 Portal Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the Union Minister for the Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises, Shri Narayan Rane launched the ‘CHAMPIONS 2.0 Portal’. Background:- On International MSME Day, The Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises, MSME launched the ‘CHAMPIONS 2.0 Portal’. MSME Day: The United Nations General Assembly designated 27 June as “Micro-, Small, and Medium-sized Enterprises Day”. Objective: to raise awareness of the tremendous contributions of MSMEs to the achievement of the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). About CHAMPIONS 2.0 Portal:- Champions portal is a single-window grievance redressal portal for Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises(MSME). Launched: June 1, 2020. Ministry: Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises. Nomenclature: The CHAMPIONS stands here for the Creation and Harmonious Application of Modern Processes for Increasing Output and National Strength. It is created in a Hub & Spoke Model. Hub-and-spoke model: a transportation or distribution system that uses a central hub or node as a focal point for the movement of goods, people, or information to and from various spokes or peripheral locations. Hub: situated in New Delhi in the Secretary MSME’s office. Spokes: will be in the States in various offices and institutions of the Ministry. Objectives:- Addressing the challenges faced by MSMEs in managing their cluster projects efficiently. Ensuring a speedy, convenient, and effective redressal of MSME’s grievances. Handholding and helping MSMEs in their navigation of various government schemes/policies. Providing guidance and advisory services in areas of Finance, Marketing, Technology, Raw Material, Labour, Infrastructure and Capacity Building. (UPSC CSE: MSME sector issues and concern) Connecting MSMEs with key officials of the Ministry, State Governments, Lending Institutions and Government agencies. Dissemination of information and details of all schemes of the Ministry of MSME. New Features:- The revamped portal will now incorporate AI-driven chatbots. It will be available in 11 languages, including Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, and Kannada. The portal will also have a real-time feedback mechanism for its analysis. Geo tagging through the mobile application will enable real-time monitoring, tracking, and evaluation of projects, ensuring transparency and effective resource utilisation. Geotagging: is the process of adding metadata that contains geographical information about a location to a digital map. The data usually consists of latitude and longitude coordinates. MUST READ: Empowering MSMEs digitally SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Kharchi Puja Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently, Kharchi Puja 2023 was celebrated in Tripura. About Kharchi Puja:- Nomenclature: The word ‘Kharchi’ is derived from two Tripuri words–‘khar’ or kurta meaning sin and ‘chi’ or si meaning cleaning. Region: It is one of the main festivals of Tripura. Time period: It is performed during the months of July-August on the eighth day of the new moon. Significance of Kharchi Puja:- It is believed that the Mother Goddess or Tripura Sundari, the presiding deity of the land who protects the people of Tripura, menstruates during the time of Ambubachi. Ambubachi: observed in June. Popular belief: the Earth becomes impure during the menstruation period of the Goddess. Hence, Kharchi Puja is observed to ritualistically clean the Earth after her menstruation is over and wash away the sins of the people in the land. Rituals during Kharchi Puja:- During the festival, the people of Tripura worship the earth along with their 14 deities. (UPSC CSE: Bathukamma festival) The fourteen Gods are worshipped by the Royal priest ‘Chantai. It lasts for seven days and it takes place at old Agartala in the Fourteen Gods temple known as the ‘Chaturdasha Devata’ temple premises. The Kharchi Puja deities do not have a full body. They have only heads which are worshipped. On the day of the puja, the fourteen Gods are taken from the temple to the river Saidra by the Chantai members and given to bathe with the holy river water. They are then carried back to the temple. The festival it is celebrated by both tribal and non-tribal people of Tripura. MUST READ: Goa’s Sao Joao festival SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Mains: Govt of India Unveils Critical Mineral (CM) List Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: The Government of India, through the Ministry of Mines, is set to unveil for the first time “the list of Critical Minerals for India”. About critical minerals (CM): Critical minerals are elements that are crucial to modern-day technologies and are at risk of supply chain disruptions. Minerals such as antimony, cobalt, gallium, graphite, lithium, nickel, niobium, and strontium are among the 22 assessed to be critical for India. Many of these are required to meet the manufacturing needs of green technologies, high-tech equipment, aviation, and national defence. Significance of listing CM: Transition to clean energy: As countries around the world scale up their transition towards clean energy and digital economy, these critical resources are key to the ecosystem that fuels this change. Avoid dependence on other countries: Any supply shock can severely imperil the economy and strategic autonomy of a country over-dependent on others to procure critical minerals. But these supply risks exist due to rare availability, growing demand and complex processing value chain. Many times the complex supply chain can be disrupted by hostile regimes, or due to politically unstable regions. Increase in Demand: As the world transitions to a clean energy economy, global demand for these critical minerals is set to skyrocket by 400-600 per cent over the next several decades, and, for minerals such as lithium and graphite used in electric vehicle (EV) batteries, demand will increase by even more. Countries own list: Different countries may have their own unique lists of critical minerals based on their specific circumstances and priorities. The US has declared 50 minerals critical in light of their role in national security or economic development. The UK considers 18 minerals critical and Canada 31. Applications of CM: Electric vehicles: cobalt, lanthanum, lithium Fuel cells: platinum, palladium, rhodium Wind energy technologies: neodymium, dysprosium, terbium Aviation sector: titanium Photovoltaic solar technologies: cadmium, indium, gallium Challenges: India faces global and domestic challenges in assuring resilient critical minerals supply chains. International Challenges: China: China, the most dominant player in the critical mineral supply chains, still struggles with Covid-19-related lockdowns. As a result, the extraction, processing and exports of critical minerals are at risk of slowdown. Russia Ukraine war: Russia is one of the significant producers of nickel, palladium, titanium sponge metal, and the rare earth element scandium. The war between the two countries has implications for these critical mineral supply chains. Shifting Balance of power: As the balance of power shifts across continents and countries, the critical mineral supply chains may get affected due to the strategic partnership between China and Russia. As a result, developed countries have jointly drawn up partnership strategies, including the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) and G7’s Sustainable Critical Minerals Alliance, while developing countries have missed out. Domestic challenges: Scarce reserves: Manufacturing renewable energy technologies would require increasing quantities of minerals, including copper, manganese, zinc, and indium. Likewise, the transition to electric vehicles would require increasing amounts of minerals, including copper, lithium, cobalt, and rare earth elements. However, India does not have many of these mineral reserves, or its requirements may be higher than the availability, necessitating reliance on foreign partners to meet domestic needs. Minerals Security Partnership: India recently joined the coveted critical minerals club — the Mineral Security Partnership (MSP) — headed by the United States. MSP is a strategic grouping of 13 member states including Australia, Canada, Finland, France, Germany, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Sweden, the United Kingdom, US, the European Union, Italy and now India. It aims to catalyse public and private investment in critical mineral supply chains globally. India is already a member of the Intergovernmental Forum on Mining, Minerals, Metals and Sustainable Development, which supports the advancement of good mining governance. Way Forward: India’s inclusion in the club is vital for India to fulfill its ambition of shifting towards sustainable mobility through large, reliable fleets of electric public and private transport. It will also foster several bilateral, plurilateral and multilateral agreements, specifically for the governance involving critical minerals and their strategic importance among the member countries. Source: PIB Fast Radio Bursts (FRB) Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: In a study, astronomers have reported a fast radio burst (FRB) whose characteristics are different from almost all other FRBs previously detected, except one. About Fast Radio Bursts: Fast Radio Bursts are brief (few millisecond) bursts of radio waves coming from far beyond our Milky Way galaxy. The phenomenon was first reported in 2007. A defining property of these bursts is their dispersion the bursts produce a spectrum of radio waves, and as the waves travel through matter, they spread out or disperse with bursts at higher radio frequencies arriving at telescopes earlier than those at lower frequencies. This dispersion allows researchers to learn about two important things: They can measure this dispersion to learn about the stuff that radio bursts pass through as they travel toward Earth. Origin of Fast Radio Bursts (FRBs): FRBs have been spotted in various and distant parts of the universe, as well as in our own galaxy. Their origins are unknown and their appearance is highly unpredictable. The astronomers have suggested that the candidates for the sources of FRBs are the superdense neutron stars left over after a supernova, or magnetars (neutron stars with ultra-strong magnetic fields). The CHIME project has nearly quadrupled the number of fast radio bursts discovered to date. The telescope has detected 535 new FRBs in its first year of operation itself, between 2018 and 2019. With more observations, astronomers hope soon to find the origins of the FRBs. Significance of FRBs: First noticed in 2018 by the Canadian observatory the waves have created ripples across the globe for one reason — they arrive in a pattern. This gave birth to theories that they could be from an alien civilization. Initially, it was believed that the collision of black holes or neutron stars triggers them. But the discovery of repeating FRBs debunked the theory of colliding objects. The unique properties of fast radio bursts and their host galaxies combined with recent technological advancements have given researchers hope that these phenomena can be used to answer some long-standing questions about the universe. It can be used to understand the three–dimensional structure of matter in the universe and to learn about poorly understood early moments in the evolution of the universe. Way Forward: This theory will help in explaining the intense radio light ‘seen’ in the host galaxies of some FRBs. Some astronomers attribute this radio light to the glow around high energy events, such as a gigantic black hole at the centre of the galaxy, devouring stars. These findings will also help in the study of gravitational waves, which were first observed in 2015. Moreover, the upcoming space-based gravitational wave detector Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (LISA) could provide further insights into these high-energy cosmic events and the structure of the universe. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Champion’s portal is a single-window grievance redressal portal for Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME). Statement-II: The champion’s portal was launched in 2017. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Both tribal and non-tribal people celebrate Kharchi Puja. Statement-II: Kharchi Puja is a festival in Manipur. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Padma Awards are the highest civilian honours of India. Statement-II: The President of India presents Padma Awards. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 29th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 28th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) -c

Jun 29, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 29th June 2023

Jun 29, 2023 TLP Mains Answer Writing

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS3 Questions [29th June, 2023] – Day 18

Hello Students TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains. You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day18 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

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