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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 54] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 54-> Click Here

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[Results, Question Paper, Solutions] IASbaba’s All India Open Mock for UPSC Prelims 2023 - Mock 2

Hello Aspirants, Thank you for your tremendous response to our 2nd All India Prelims Open Mock! Due to the significant rise in the number of registrations in Bangalore & Delhi, we decided to conduct the Open Mock in a School instead of IASbaba Centres.It was a good decision when we saw the turn out of students.More than 6,000 students took the test as per their preferred mode and language of choice. Many of the students have mailed to show their appreciation towards our commitment to our UPSC Aspirant Community. Click Here To Provide Your Feedback! Thank you for your valuable feedback and appreciation, it motivates the entire team, it will only make us to try and work harder to bring the best possible experience to our followers! Download Question Paper & Synopsis GS / Paper 1 English Questions English Solutions Hindi Questions Hindi Solutions CSAT / Paper 2 English Questions English Solutions Hindi Questions Hindi Solutions Rank List Download GS / Paper 1 Ranklist Download CSAT / Paper 2 Ranklist We will be announcing the next mock test details in a couple of days, Mark your calendar on 14th May to attend the test!All the best!

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 5th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Key Takeaways from the Petersberg Dialogue on Climate Change Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Petersberg Dialogue on Climate Change was held in Berlin. About key takeaways from Petersberg Dialogue on Climate Change:- IMAGE SOURCE: Today in chemistry history: The Kyoto protocol – Compound Interest (compoundchem.com) The 14th Petersberg Dialogue on Climate Change was hosted by Germany and the United Arab Emirates. UAE would be hosting the 28th Conference of Parties (COP28) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. (UPSC PRELIMS: UNFCCC – COP27 ) Objective:  to discuss the way forward towards COP28 The Climate Dialogue was initiated by Germany’s former Chancellor Angela Merkel.  It was first held in 2010 United Nations Secretary-General António Guterres emphasised the need for “cleaning up economies of the developed countries by breaking their fossil fuel addiction and driving decarbonisation in every sector to achieve a 1.5-degree global warming pathway. He reiterated his earlier call for an Acceleration Agenda, where “all countries hit fast-forward on their Net Zero deadlines”. Key takeaways:- Global renewables target:- Discussions around a potential global target for renewables at the next climate conference. Possibility of an agreement on a global target for renewables and energy efficiency among the G7 countries. (UPSC PRELIMS: G7) $100 billion climate finance:- It was stated that developed countries are “on a good track” to deliver the $100 billion per year as promised to mobilise by 2020 during the COP15 in 2009. However, a recent estimate pegs climate finance needs at $1 trillion per year by 2030 for emerging markets alone. This means that climate finance needs are more than 10 times the amount that developed countries have been able to mobilise, 14 years after committing to the $100 billion figure. This underlines the urgent need for financial reparations. Global Stocktake:- 2023 is the year for the Global Stocktake.  Global Stocktake: a periodic review of global climate action. It aims to assess whether current efforts will enable us to reach the objectives set out in the Paris Agreement. This is the first Global Stocktake year since the Paris Agreement was signed in 2015.  The report is set to be released in September of 2023. About Paris Agreement:- It was the successor to the Kyoto Protocol. This international climate treaty expired in 2020. It was agreed in December 2015. Objective: to limit the rise in the average global surface temperature. To do this, countries that signed the accord set national pledges to reduce humanity’s effect on the climate that are meant to become more ambitious over time. The Paris Accord legally bound its signatories collectively to limit greenhouse gas emissions to keep the temperature rise well below 2.0 degrees Celsius (3.6 Fahrenheit) this century. The countries also promised to “pursue efforts” to keep the rise below 1.5C (2.7F). MUST READ: India’s Long-Term Low-Emission Development Strategy SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) With reference to the ‘’New York Declaration on Forests’’, which of the following statements is correct? (2021) It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014 It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests It is a legally binding international declaration It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities. India was one of the signatories at its inception Select the correct answer using the code given below 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 5 3 and 4 2 and 5 The Innovative Finance Facility for Climate in Asia and the Pacific Financing Partnership Facility (IF-CAP) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently a new funding mechanism ‘the Innovative Finance Facility for Climate in Asia and the Pacific Financing Partnership Facility (IF-CAP)’ was launched. About the Innovative Finance Facility for Climate in Asia and the Pacific Financing Partnership Facility (IF-CAP):- In line with climate change financing requirements, ADB(Asian Development Bank) announced its newest climate finance program: the Innovative Finance Facility for Climate in Asia and the Pacific (IF-CAP). (UPSC PRELIMS: ADB) Objective:  use guarantees from partners for leverage to accelerate billions of dollars in much-needed climate change investment IF-CAP’s initial partners are Denmark, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Sweden, the United Kingdom, and the United States. Intended Benefits of IF-CAP:- With a model of ‘$1 in, $5 out’, the initial ambition of $3 billion in guarantees could create up to $15 billion in new loans for much-needed climate projects across Asia and the Pacific. Financing will help vulnerable countries in Asia and the Pacific region meet their mitigation and adaptation goals. It will support ADB’s raised ambition for $100 billion in climate finance from 2019-2030. . IF-CAP will pilot a guarantee mechanism, where every US$1 guarantee from financing partners can generate up to US$5 in new loans for climate adaptation and mitigation projects across Asia. IF-CAP operates as an umbrella mechanism for mobilising resources for climate adaptation and mitigation projects. Under this umbrella is the IF-CAP Guarantee Trust Fund, which will provide guarantees to ADB covering payment defaults. The facility will finance projects over a five-year investment period, but guarantees will remain effective for 25 years.  In addition, ADB will establish donor trust funds, framework arrangements, and other forms of financing partnerships, such as grants, guarantees, and similar arrangements that support IF-CAP’s objectives and scope. Most contributions to the facility will be in the form of guarantees or grants. (UPSC MAINS: Significance of ADB, NDB and AIIB) Structure and working mechanism:- Eligibility: All developing countries that are eligible to receive assistance from ADB are also eligible for support from IF-CAP. Selection process: ADB will select project proposals based on criteria agreed with the Donor Committee. Donor Committee: a committee of financial contributors which will take decisions on matters including specific guarantee and grant fund considerations, In general, projects will be aligned with the Paris Agreement.  Both sovereign and non-sovereign projects will have access to IF-CAP funding unless otherwise decided by the Donor Committee. IF-CAP support can be combined with other ADB resources and forms of bilateral or multilateral assistance and made available to central and sub-national governments, government agencies, the private sector, and other entities eligible to receive assistance from ADB. A Strategic Partners Forum will gather representatives of developing countries, financing partners and other stakeholders on an annual basis to provide strategic guidance on IF-CAP operations with a view to aligning climate and development needs with available funding. MUST READ: ADB Financing to Support Urban Development in Nagaland SOURCE: OBSERVER RESEARCH FOUNDATION PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 US Federal Reserve Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the US Federal Reserve raised interest rates by 25 basis points. About US Federal Reserve:- The Federal Reserve System is the central bank of the United States. The role of the Federal Reserve:- Conducting the US monetary policy to promote maximum employment and stable prices (UPSC PRELIMS: Fed tapering ) Promoting the stability of the financial system and seeking to minimise and contain systemic risks through active monitoring and engagement in America and overseas Promoting the safety and soundness of individual financial institutions.  Monitoring the financial system. Promoting consumer protection Impact of the Fed on the global market and their economy:- A high rate signal by the Fed means a lower impetus to growth in the US Currency markets: Rate hikes by the Federal Reserve affect not only the US economy but also shape the macroeconomic outlook and exert a certain degree of influence on the monetary policies in other emerging economies. (UPSC PRELIMS: Exchange Rate) Impact of Increased Interest Rates on India:- Emerging economies such as India tend to have higher inflation and higher interest rates than those in developed countries such as the US. As a result, financial institutions, particularly Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) would want to borrow money in the US at low-interest rates in dollar terms and then invest that money in government bonds of emerging countries such as India in local currency terms to earn a higher rate of interest. However, when the US Federal raises its domestic interest rates, the difference between the interest rates of the two countries decreases. This makes India less attractive for the currency carry trade. As a consequence, some of the money may be expected to move out of the Indian markets and flow back to the US. (UPSC PRELIMS: US Fed Reserve Hike ) On Equity Market:- Bond yields will rise due to the growing dollar shortage in the global market. On Export and Forex:- India is one of the largest crude oil importers in the world. A weaker rupee vis-à-vis a dollar results in more expensive imports of crude oil that may put a cost-driven inflationary push across the whole economy.  India’s exports on the other hand will benefit to some extent from a stronger dollar with respect to the rupee. MUST READ: Rupee Depreciation SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Listeria contamination Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, Cadbury recalls chocolates in the UK over listeria contamination fears. About Listeria contamination:- IMAGE SOURCE: We help create a safer world for you | UL Solutions Listeria infection is a foodborne bacterial illness. It is typically caused by foods infected with the Listeria monocytogenes bacteria. The bacteria exist in the environment. It is found in water, soil and some animals’ intestines. Listeria bacteria can survive refrigeration and even freezing. Symptoms:- Fever Chills Muscle aches Nausea Diarrhea Causes:- Listeria bacteria can be found in soil, water and animal faeces.  People can get infected by eating the following: Raw vegetables that have been contaminated from the soil or from contaminated manure used as fertilizer Contaminated meat Unpasteurized milk or foods made with unpasteurized milk Certain processed foods such as soft cheeses, hot dogs and deli meats that have been contaminated after processing Unborn babies can contract a listeria infection from the mother. Risk factors- Pregnant women and people who have weak immune systems are at highest risk of contracting a listeria infection. (UPSC PRELIMS: Immune Imprinting ) People older than 65 People who have AIDS (UPSC PRELIMS: World AIDS Day) People who are receiving chemotherapy People who have diabetes or kidney disease People who take high-dose prednisone or certain rheumatoid arthritis drugs People who take medications to block rejection of a transplanted organ Prevention:- Keeping things clean  Washing hands thoroughly with warm, soapy water before and after handling or preparing food. After cooking, use hot, soapy water to wash the utensils, cutting boards and other food preparation surfaces. Scrubing raw vegetables. Cooking the food thoroughly. MUST READ: American Foulbrood (AFB) disease SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2021) Low-density polyethene Polycarbonate Polyethene terephthalate Polyvinyl Chloride Q.2)  “Triclosan” considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following? (2021) Food preservatives Fruit ripening substances reused plastic containers Toiletries World Press Freedom Index Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The World Press Freedom Index was released recently. About World Press Freedom Index:- IMAGE SOURCE: THE HINDU The World Press Freedom Index is published every year since 2002 by Reporters Sans Frontieres (RSF) or Reporters Without Borders. Reporters Without Borders: it is an independent NGO based in Paris with consultative status with the United Nations, UNESCO, the Council of Europe and the International Organization of the Francophonie (OIF). OIF: 54 french speaking nations collective. The Index ranks countries and regions according to the level of freedom available to journalists. (UPSC MAINS: Challenges to Freedom of Press)  However, it is not an indicator of the quality of journalism. Scoring Criteria:- The Index’s rankings are based on a score ranging from 0 to 100 that is assigned to each country or territory, with 100 being the best possible score. Evaluation Criteria:- Each country or territory’s score is evaluated using five contextual indicators. These include political context, legal framework, economic context, sociocultural context and safety. World Press Freedom Index 2023 Rankings:- Norway, Ireland and Denmark occupied the top three positions in press freedom. Vietnam, China and North Korea constituted the bottom three. India’s ranking in the 2023 World Press Freedom Index has slipped to 161 out of 180 countries. (UPSC PRELIMS: World Press Freedom Index 2022) MUST READ: Index Monitoring Cell (IMC) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? (2021) A committed judiciary Centralization of powers Elected government Separation of powers Q.2) Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”? (2018) Limitation of powers Equality before the law People’s responsibility to the Government Liberty and civil rights Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Bombay High Court stated that the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act was not enacted to punish minors in a consensual relationship. About the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act:- The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (POCSO Act) was enacted in 2012. Objective:  to effectively address sexual abuse and sexual exploitation of children and pornography. (UPSC MAINS: Pornography – Impact on Children & Society ) The Act has been amended in 2019. The amendment contains provisions for the enhancement of punishments for various offences and provides security and dignified childhood for a child. (UPSC PRELIMS: National Commission for Protection of Child Rights) Salient provisions of the Act:- The Act defines a Child as any person below eighteen.  The Act remains gender-neutral. The Act also defines different forms of sexual abuse It includes penetrative and non-penetrative assault, as well as sexual harassment and pornography. The Act deems a sexual assault to be “aggravated” if the abused child is mentally ill or the abuse is committed by a person in a position of trust or authority like a family member, police officer, teacher, or doctor. The law provides for relief and rehabilitation as soon as the complaint is made. The Special Juvenile Police Unit or the local police will make immediate arrangements for the care and protection of a child. The Arrangements such as obtaining emergency medical treatment for the child and placing the child in a shelter home etc will be made available. The Act contains provisions for Mandatory reporting. This casts a legal duty upon a person who has knowledge that a child has been sexually abused to report the offence. If he fails to do so, he may be punished with six months imprisonment and/ or a fine. The Act provides for the establishment of Special Courts for the trial of offences under the Act. The Act prescribes a maximum punishment of life imprisonment or the death penalty. The Act provides a mandatory minimum punishment of three years. MUST READ: Sexual Intent is Key to POCSO Act: SC SOURCE: THE PRINT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the constitution of India? (2021) Article 15 Article 19 Article 21 Article 29 Q.2) Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? (2020) Preamble Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Currency & Finance 2022-23 Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The report on Currency & Finance 2022-23 was released recently. About Currency & Finance 2022-23:- It is released by the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) Department of Economic and Policy Research (DEPR). (UPSC PRELIMS: RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee ) The theme of the report is ‘Towards a Greener Cleaner India’. Key findings:- Net zero target:-  India aims to achieve the net zero target by 2070. This would require an accelerated reduction in the energy intensity of GDP by around 5% annually and a significant improvement in its energy mix in favour of renewables to around 80% by 2070-71. The cumulative total expenditure for adapting to this climate change in India is estimated to be Rs 85.6 lakh crore (at 2011-12 prices) by the year 2030. Implications for Financial Stability:- The financial sector faces the dual challenge of recalibrating its operations and business strategies to support the green transition process while also strengthening resilience to rising vulnerability to adverse climate events so as to safeguard financial stability. On the first challenge, estimates suggest that the green financing requirement in India could be at least 2.5% of GDP annually to address the infrastructure gap caused by climate events. On the second challenge, the results of a climate stress test reveal that public sector banks may be more vulnerable than private sector banks in India. Measures suggested:- Introducing an Emissions Trading System (ETS) linked to green taxonomy, covering all sectors of the economy This can partly balance subsidies and taxes. Ramping up domestic capacity to mine rare earth elements or procure them through long-term contracts and outward FDI (UPSC PRELIMS: FDI Inflow ) Complementing green building standards with IoT-based monitoring and AI and ML to manage and reduce energy demand Boosting climate-resilient agriculture Production of green hydrogen using renewable energy Investment in carbon capture and storage technologies. MUST READ: RBI- Integrated Ombudsman Scheme PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, the Central Bank’s function as the “lender of last resort” usually refers to which of the following? (2021) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Yanomami Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, Brazil has been pushing out illegal miners from its Yanomami territory. About Yanomami:- IMAGE SOURCE: The Yanomami Tribe of the Amazon Rainforests | Only Tribal The Yanomami live in the rainforests and mountains of northern Brazil and southern Venezuela, and are, according to Survival International, the largest relatively isolated tribe in South America. Guarani, Kaingang, Pataxó, Hã Hã Hãe, Tupinambá, Yanomami, Tikuna and Akuntsu are popular tribes of the Amazon basin. (UPSC PRELIMS: Deforestation in Amazon Basin) Amazon is a river of South America and its basin is the largest tropical rainforest in the world. The tribe numbers around 38,000 today, and its members live in the contiguous forested territory of around 9.6 million hectares in Brazil and 8.2 million hectares in Venezuela. They live in large, circular houses called yanos or shabonos, some of which can hold up to 400 people. The Yanomami consider all people to be equal and do not have a chief. Instead, all decisions are based on consensus after long discussions and debates. They are speakers of the Xirianá language. A Brazilian indigenous leader Davi Kopenawa who secured the land rights of the Yanomami people was awarded the Right Livelihood Award-2019, also known as Sweden’s alternative Nobel Prize. (UPSC PRELIMS: Nobel Peace Prize 2022 ) MUST READ: India and Brazil SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs:  (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                              Turkey Amhara                                               Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                     Spain Catalonia                                             Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (2022) Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta India’s Hunger Paradox Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: A national effort to establish routine dietary and nutritional assessments for the entire population is the need of the hour. About Food Security: Food security refers to the state in which all individuals in a country have access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food to meet their dietary needs and preferences for an active and healthy life. This involves various dimensions such as: Availability of food through production and imports Accessibility of food without any discrimination, and Affordability of food for everyone. Zero Food Prevalence in India NFHS-5 Data: As per the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5), among mothers with a child between ages 6-23 months, 18 percent reported that their child did not eat any food, referred to as “zero-food”, in the 24 hours preceding the survey. Zero-food prevalence: 30 percent for infants aged 6-11 months. 13 percent among the 12-17 months old. 8 percent among the 18-23 months old. An estimated 60 lakh zero-food children of 6-23 months of age in India not getting to eat every day lies substantial deprivations in specific food groups. More than 80 percent had not consumed any protein-rich foods for an entire day (“zero-protein”). 40 percent did not eat any grains (roti, rice, etc) for an entire day. 6 out of 10 children do not consume milk or dairy of any form every day (“zero milk”). Daily minimum calorie intake for a child as per the World Health Organisation (WHO): At six months of age, 33 percent of the daily calorie intake is expected to come from food. At 12 months of age, 61 percent of the daily calorie intake is expected to come from food. It is presumed that the child obtains the remaining calories through breastfeeding, meaning the child is breastfed whenever they need it throughout the day and night, and not solely when the mother can provide it. Percentage of food-sourced calories only increases further when a child cannot receive breast milk when needed. Issues and challenges with current measures: Severe food insecurity: Going without food for an entire day at this critical period of a child’s development raises serious concerns related to severe food insecurity. Faulty assessment: The assessment of the extent of nutritional deprivation among young children in India has, thus far, relied on measures of anthropometric failure such as the percentage of children short for their age (stunting) or weighing less given their height (wasting), compared to a reference population. These anthropometric measures are, at best, proxies suggesting plausible overall deficiencies in the child’s environment, without any guidance on the specific nature of the deficiencies. Non-communicable diseases: The rising burden of cardiovascular and other non-communicable diseases in India, particularly among the rapidly growing “middle class”, is strongly linked to diet and nutrition. The Role of Poshan 2.0: Mission Poshan 2.0 is a flagship program dedicated to maternal and child nutrition in India. However, appropriate food-based metrics are not developed to monitor and assess the program’s performance effectively. Measures India should take to fight Hunger: A national effort to establish routine dietary and nutritional assessments for the entire population is the need of the hour. Appropriate food-based metrics should be developed to effectively monitor and assess the performance of Poshan 2.0. The zero-food metric provides a good start. The success of the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) offers valuable insights for Poshan 2.0, in its strategic use of directly trackable metrics, as well as a strong political commitment at the highest levels. Measuring the availability, accessibility and affordability of nutritious food, especially for disadvantaged and vulnerable populations such as young children, women should be the foundation for any evidence-based policy to end hunger and improve nutritional security. India has taken several initiatives to achieve food security and end hunger, including: Mid-day Meal Scheme: The Mid-day Meal Scheme provides hot, cooked meals to school children to improve their nutritional status and increase school attendance. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme: The ICDS Scheme provides a package of services, including supplementary nutrition, health check-ups, and pre-school education, to young children and pregnant and lactating mothers. Mission Poshan 2.0: Launched in 2021, Mission Poshan 2.0 is a flagship programme dedicated to maternal and child nutrition, with a focus on food-based initiatives to achieve the SDG of zero hunger. National Nutrition Mission (Poshan Abhiyaan): Launched in 2018, the mission aims to reduce malnutrition among children, adolescent girls, and pregnant and lactating mothers by providing nutritional supplements and promoting behavioural change through community mobilization. Agriculture and Rural Development Initiatives: India has various agriculture and rural development initiatives to increase food production, enhance rural livelihoods, and reduce poverty, such as the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana, and Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mission. Way Forward: The need of the hour is to make addressing child malnutrition the top priority of the government machinery, and all year around. Thus fixing the pre-existing schemes is the obvious answer to addressing India’s multi-dimensional nutrition challenge. Source:  Indian Express Organ Donation Policy in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Union Health Ministry has said that it will soon release a transplant manual and a standard course for training transplant coordinators. About Organ donation in India: Organ donation means giving part of the body (organ) to a person with end-stage organ disease who needs a transplant. In India, organ donations are legal under the Transplantation of Human Organs Act (THOA), 1994, which also legalizes the concept of ‘brain death’, the permanent cessation of all brain functions. Organ donation is a voluntary process wherein you can fill up a consent form to donate your organs in the event of your demise. Types of organ donation: Living Donor Organ Donation: A person during his life can donate one kidney, a portion of the pancreas, and a part of the liver. Living Donor is any person not less than 18 years of age who voluntarily authorizes the removal of any of his organ and/or tissue, during their lifetime, as per prevalent medical practices for therapeutic purposes. The donor can be a family member, relative, friend, neighbour, or in-law. Deceased Donor Organ Donation: A person can donate multiple organs and tissues after (brain-stem/cardiac) death. Their organ continues to live in another person’s body. Deceased Donor is anyone, regardless of age, who can become an organ and tissue donor after their death (Brainstem/Cardiac). Consent of a near relative or a person in lawful possession of the dead body is required. Eligibility criteria: There is no age limit for organ donation. It can be started at as young as six weeks. The only essential thing is the health and condition of your organs. About Organ Transplantation in India: The Transplantation of Human Organs Act of 1994 provides a number of laws for the removal and preservation of human organs. Additionally, it controls the transplantation of human organs for medical treatment and prohibits the sale of human organs. The number of total organ transplants in the country has substantially increased from less than 5000 in the year 2013 to more than 15000 in the year 2022. Now, more organs per deceased donor are being utilized due to better coordination through the network of Organ and Tissue Transplant Organizations at National (NOTTO), Regional (ROTTO) and State level (SOTTO). Laws and Rules governing Organ Transplant in India Transplantation of Human Organs Act (THOA) 1994: It was enacted to provide a system of removal, storage and transplantation of human organs for therapeutic purposes and for the prevention of commercial dealings in human organs. THOA is now adopted by all States except Andhra Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir, who have their own similar laws. Under THOA, source of the organ may be: Near Relative donor (mother, father, son, daughter, brother, sister, spouse), Other than near relative donor: Such a donor can donate only out of affection and attachment or for any other special reason and that too with the approval of the authorisation committee. Deceased donor, especially after Brain stem deathg. a victim of road traffic accident etc. where the brain stem is dead and person cannot breathe on his own but can be maintained through ventilator, oxygen, fluids etc. Other types of deceased donor could be donors after cardiac death. Brain Stem death is recognized as a legal death in India under the Transplantation of Human Organs Act, like many other countries, which has revolutionized the concept of organ donation after death. After natural cardiac death only a few organs/tissues can be donated (like cornea, bone, skin and blood vessels) whereas after brain stem death almost 37 different organs and tissues can be donated including vital organs such as kidneys, heart, liver and lungs. Human Organs (Amendment) Act 2011: Tissues have been included along with the Organs. ‘Near relative’ definition has been expanded to include grandchildren, grandparents. Provision of ‘Retrieval Centres’ and their registration for retrieval of organs from deceased donors. There is provision of mandatory inquiry from the attendants of potential donors admitted in ICU and informing them about the option to donate – if they consent to donate, inform the retrieval centre. Provision of Mandatory ‘Transplant Coordinator’ in all hospitals registered under the Act. To protect the vulnerable and poor there is provision of higher penalties for trading in organs. National Human Organs and Tissues Removal and Storage Network and National Registry for Transplant are to be established. The Act has made provision of greater caution in case of minors and foreign nationals and prohibition of organ donation from mentally challenged persons. Challenges Associated with Organ Donation in India Lack of awareness: There is a lack of awareness among the general public about the importance of organ donation, the legal framework governing it, and the procedures involved. This can limit the number of potential donors. Cultural beliefs and superstitions: In India, there are several cultural beliefs and superstitions that discourage organ donation. Some people believe that organ donation is against religious beliefs, or that it can impact the soul or afterlife. Lack of infrastructure: India faces a shortage of hospitals and medical facilities that are equipped to handle organ transplantation. This can limit the availability of organs for transplantation. Regulatory bottlenecks: While the legal framework exists, there is a lack of implementation and enforcement of the law. This can lead to issues such as organ trafficking and black market activities. Way Forward: Despite a facilitatory law, organ donation from deceased persons continues to be very poor. In India there is a need to promote deceased organ donation as donation from living persons cannot take care of the organ requirement of the country. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is imbibing learnings from international best practices for further policy reforms towards augmentation of organ donation and transplantation in the country which is a step in the right direction. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) The Innovative Finance Facility for Climate in Asia and the Pacific Financing Partnership Facility (IF-CAP) recently launched by International Monetary Fund World Bank World Economic Forum Asian Development Bank Q.2) An increase in US Federal Reserve’s interest rates will result in which of the following in India? Increase Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) Decrease in bond yields Benefit for Indian exports Rupee depreciation Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 2 and 3 only 2 3 and 4 only 1 3 and 4 only 1 2 3 and 4 Q.3) The report on Currency and Finance 2022-23 was recently released by Reserve Bank of India Department of Economic and Policy Research NITI Aayog Both A and B together Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 5th May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 4th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

[DAY 53] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 53-> Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 5th May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 4th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) U.S. Commission for International Religious Freedom (USCIRF) Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, the U.S. Commission for International Religious Freedom (USCIRF) sought sanctions on Indian agencies over the ‘violation’ of religious freedom. About U.S. Commission for International Religious Freedom (USCIRF):- USCIRF is an independent, bipartisan US federal government commission. It was established by the US government in 1998 after the inaction of the International Religious Freedom Act. It is Headquartered in Washington DC. It is dedicated to defending the universal right to freedom of religion or belief abroad. It is an advisory body to the US Congress. The recommendations of USCIRF are non-binding on the state department Traditionally, India does not recognize the view of USCIRF. .(UPSC PRELIMS: India’s designation by the USCIRF ) It monitors the universal right to freedom of religion or belief (FoRB) abroad. UNCIRF Functions:- Advises Congress by working with Congressional offices, convening and testifying at hearings, and holding briefings on countries and thematic issues. Engages the Executive Branch by regularly meeting with Executive Branch officials. Monitors Religious Freedom Conditions Abroad. (UPSC PRELIMS: Religious Tolerance and Social Harmony) It makes policy recommendations to the President, Secretary of State, and Congress. Raises Public Awareness by holding public events, hosting podcast episodes, releasing public statements, and publishing op-eds. Issues an Annual Report & Other Publications that assess foreign countries that violate religious freedom in a systematic, ongoing, and/or egregious manner. MUST READ: The hijab case and the essential practices doctrine SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (2018) China Israel Iraq Yemen De-dollarisation Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, De-dollarisation picked up pace in the aftermath of Russia’s invasion of Ukraine. About De-dollarisation:- IMAGE SOURCE: Dollarization and Ecuador (slideshare.net) De-dollarisation refers to the replacement of the U.S. dollar with other currencies as the global reserve currency. Reserve currency: refers to any currency that is widely used in cross-border transactions and is commonly held as reserves by central banks. De-dollarisation is a process of substituting the US dollar as the currency used for: Trading oil and/ or other commodities Buying US dollars for the forex reserves Bilateral trade agreements Dollar-denominated assets History of Global Currency:- The British pound was the primary reserve currency during the 19th and early 20th centuries. After World War II, and the U.S. dollar became the dominant reserve currency. It has held this position since then, with over 60% of global foreign exchange reserves held in dollars as of 2021. Reasons for the popularity of the US Dollar:- High Level of Trust: The global acceptability of the U.S. dollar as a reserve currency is primarily due to the popularity of U.S. assets among investors. Rule of Law: This trust may be due to the ‘rule of law’ in the U.S. Need for De- Dollarisation:- Diversification of Risk: Holding a basket of currencies instead of just one currency (i.e., the US dollar) can help reduce the potential negative impact of a sudden currency devaluation or other economic shocks/political changes in the US. (UPSC PRELIMS: Currency manipulation) Increasing Trade and Investment: By using other currencies, countries can increase trade and investment with other countries that may not have a strong relationship with the US, which can open up new markets and opportunities for growth. Reducing US Monetary Policy Influence: By reducing the use of the US dollar, countries can increase their economic autonomy. Geopolitical Benefits: By reducing dependence on the US dollar, countries may be able to improve their geopolitical standing. (UPSC PRELIMS: Hyper globalisation) Challenges of De dollarisation:– Market Volatility and Global Financial Crisis: A sudden shift away from the dollar could create market volatility and instability, as many countries and businesses are heavily reliant on the dollar for trade and investment and any change would lead to a potential global financial crisis. Trade Disruptions: A move away from the dollar could also disrupt international trade, as businesses and governments adjust to new currencies and exchange rate regimes. Exchange Rate Risk: De-dollarisation can expose countries to exchange rate risk, as they may have to convert their reserves into other currencies that are subject to volatility. Geopolitical Risks: A shift away from the dollar can be seen as a challenge to US economic and geopolitical power, which could lead to political tensions and even conflict. International Efforts so far:- Bilateral currency swaps among countries, promotion of trade in national currencies, and the establishment of alternative payment systems. The BRICS’s New Development Bank encourages trade and investment in national currencies by disbursing up to 50% of its loans in national currencies since 2015. Russian banks have started using the China-based Cross-Border Interbank Payment System for international payments as they are debarred from the SWIFT international system. Some countries are also exploring the possibility of using cryptocurrencies for international trade and payments, as they offer a decentralized alternative to traditional payment systems. National Efforts:- Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently unveiled a rupee settlement system for international trade by allowing special vostro accounts in designated Indian banks, a step towards internationalising the rupee. Similarly, India and Russia are considering the use of a third currency or the inclusion of a third country like the UAE to facilitate oil trade between the two countries. MUST READ: India’s Digital rupee: CBDC SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Twenty Point Programme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The Government shines on 11 parameters of the Twenty Point Programme released recently. About Twenty Point Programme:- The Twenty Point Programme was initially launched by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in 1975. It was subsequently restructured in 1982 and again in 1986. With the introduction of new policies and programmes it has been finally restructured in 2006 and it has been in operation at present. The Programmes and Schemes under TPP-2006 are in harmony with the priorities contained in the National Common Minimum Programme, the Millennium Development Goals of the United Nations and the SAARC Social Charter. Objective: to eradicate poverty and to improve the quality of life of the poor and the underprivileged population of the country. The monitoring of the programme at the centre has been assigned to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Government of India. The management information system relating to Twenty Point developed by the Ministry consists of a monthly Progress Report (MPR) and yearly Review of the Programme, Point-wise, Item-wise and State-wise. The 20 points under TPP after restructuring in 2006 include:- Poverty eradication power to people Support to farmers Labour welfare (UPSC PRELIMS: India’s labour reforms ) Food security Clean drinking water Housing for all Health for all Education for all Welfare of SC/ ST/ OBC and minorities Women welfare Child welfare Youth Development Improvement of slums Environment protection and afforestation Social security Rural Roads Energising rural areas Development of Backward areas IT enabled and e-governance (UPSC PRELIMS: Governance 4.0) MUST READ: States SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Recently, India’s first ‘National Investment and Manufacturing Zone’ was proposed to be set up in (2016) Andhra Pradesh Gujarat Maharashtra Uttar Pradesh Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT) Kakinada began its admission process. About the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT):- IMAGE SOURCE: An introduction to NAAC Accreditation | by Linways Team | Linways Technologies The Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT) was established in 1963 as an autonomous body. It works under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry. The Institute was granted “Deemed to be University” status in 2002. The Institute was granted the prestigious AACSB accreditation in 2021. With this the IIFT figures amongst 900+ Business Schools of the world which have earned this accreditation. The National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) recognized IIFT as a Grada e ‘A’ Institution in 2005 as well as in 2015. (UPSC PRELIMS: Accreditation of HEIs) MBA (International Business), the flagship programme of IIFT. Mission:- To create and foster a learning environment that enables participants to be leaders in international business with sensitivity towards society. ( Academic Collaboration between Indian and foreign Universities) Objectives & Activities:- Impart professional education in modern management techniques relevant to international business. Enable the participants to appreciate the inter-relationship between the diverse and complex tasks of international business. Develop capacities among business executives for improved understanding of various trade and economic issues. Conduct high-quality research that addresses domestic as well as world trade and business issues. (UPSC CSE: National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories (NABL)) MUST READ:  Academic Collaboration between Indian and foreign universities SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Regarding DigiLocker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2018) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) SWAYAM’, an initiative of the Government of India, aims at (2018) promoting Self-Help Groups in rural areas providing financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs promoting the education and health of adolescent girls providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free Buland Bharat exercise Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: Recently, the Army held a ‘Buland Bharat’ exercise in Arunachal to test synergy in simulated war conditions. About Buland Bharat exercise:- IMAGE SOURCE: Map of selected study sites in Tawang and West Kameng districts of… | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) Buland Bharat is an integrated surveillance and firepower training exercise. Objective:  to test the simulated war conditions in high altitude areas at the Mandala High Altitude Firing Ranges in Arunachal Pradesh. The month-long training culminated in the test exercise in which troops and equipment were tested in simulated war conditions, in high altitude areas and in extreme weather conditions. During the exercise, synergised surveillance and firepower from infantry and artillery radars, weapon systems and direction of fire from the air were practised. Uninterrupted communication on multiple media was also tested at long distances. The exercise validated plans for bringing down integrated firepower by orchestrating synchronised firing by artillery guns and fire support components of the infantry, aimed toward the destruction of designated targets. It involved the synergised application of surveillance and firepower capabilities of the artillery and the infantry in close coordination with Special Forces, Aviation and Central Armed Police Forces deployed in West Kameng and Tawang districts of Arunachal Pradesh. (UPSC PRELIMS: Arunachal-Assam border dispute) The Gajraj Corps, under which the exercise was held, handles major responsibilities which span from counterinsurgency to the Line of Actual Control in West Arunachal Pradesh including the Tawang area. (UPSC PRELIMS: India-China Tawang clash ) MUST READ: Kaiser-i-Hind: Arunachal’s State butterfly SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In which one of the following groups are all four countries members of G20? (2019) Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea Q.2) Consider the following countries : (2018) Australia Canada China India Japan USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4, 5 and 6 1, 3, 4 and 5 2, 3, 4 and 6 CU-Chayan portal Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, UGC launched the ‘CU-Chayan’ portal for faculty recruitment in Central varsities. About CU-Chayan portal:- CU-Chayan portal is a new platform to hire faculty members in central universities. The portal will provide a consolidated list of job openings across all 46 central universities under the Union Ministry of Education. (UPSC CSE: Governor’s Role in Universities) Central universities will still be responsible for advertising job openings, accepting applications, screening applicants, conducting interviews, and hiring faculty members, just as they did before. However, all of these tasks will be managed through the admin dashboard for each university on the portal. Process:- Applicants will find a consolidated list of openings across the central universities, personalized dashboards to help manage the application process, and filters such as location, designation, subject, experience, and education level to view openings that suit them. Benefits for Applicants and Universities:- Both applicants and universities will benefit from it as it provides a simple interface to apply for job openings. The portal will also throw up real-time data on vacancies, applications under consideration, and whether the reservation policy is being followed or not. (UPSC MAINS: reservation in education institutions) It will fast-track the recruitment process without centralizing the faculty hiring for the central universities. About UGC:- UGC came into existence in 1953. It became a statutory body by an Act of Parliament in 1956. Background:- UGC was formed in 1946 to oversee the work of the three Central Universities of Aligarh, Banaras and, Delhi. In 1947, the Committee was entrusted with the responsibility of dealing with all the then existing Universities. After independence, the University Education Commission was set up in 1948 under the Chairmanship of S. Radhakrishnan and it recommended that the UGC be reconstituted on the general model of the University Grants Commission of the United Kingdom. The UGC was formally established in November 1956, by an Act of Parliament. Objective: for the coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of teaching, examination and research in university education. The head office of the UGC is located in New Delhi. It is charged with coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of higher education. It provides recognition to universities in India. It disburses funds to such recognized universities and colleges. MUST READ: Common University Entrance Test (CUET) SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Q.2) Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to (2017) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes. Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings. Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme Star campaigners Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: The Election Commission of India (ECI) recently issued an advisory urging star campaigners to “maintain the dignity of the political discourse.” About Star Campaigners:- A star campaigner is a celebrity vote seeker in an election for a party. This person can be anyone, a politician or even a film star. There is no law governing who can or cannot be made a star campaigner. (UPSC PRELIMS: Election Commission) They are nominated by the concerned political parties specifying their constituencies and duration of the status. Terms and Conditions:- Numbers of Star Campaigners: A ‘recognised’ National or State party declared as such by the ECI can nominate a maximum of 40-star campaigners.(UPSC PRELIMS: What does it take to become a National Party in India?) An unrecognised political party can nominate a maximum of 20-star campaigners. Section 77 (b) of The Representation of People’s Act, 1951 says that most of the expenses incurred by the campaigner “shall not be deemed to be an expenditure in connection with the election”. In other words, all expenses will be borne by the respective political party. For example, expenses borne by star campaigners on account of travel by air or by any other means of transport shall not be deemed as expenditure in connection with the election. The manual to the Model Code of Conduct states that for the benefit of availing Section 77 (1) of The RP Act, a permit for the mode of transport for every star campaigner will be issued centrally and against their name. It is also mandatory for this permit to be stuck on a prominent and visible place on the vehicle. If a star campaigner campaigns specifically for one candidate:- If a candidate or her election agent shares the stage with a star campaigner at a rally, then the entire expenditure on that rally, other than the travel expenses of the star campaigner, is added to the candidate’s expenses. Even if the candidate is not present at the star campaigner’s rally, but there are posters with her photographs or her name on display, the entire expenditure will be added to the candidate’s account. This applies even if the star campaigner mentions the candidate’s name during the event. When more than one candidate shares the stage, or there are posters with their photographs, then the expenses of such rally/meeting are equally divided between all such candidates. Prime Minister as Star Campaigner:- The MCC guidelines say when a prime minister or a former prime minister is a star campaigner, the expenditure incurred on security including bullet-proof vehicles will be borne by the government and will not be added to the election expenses of the party or the individual candidate. (UPSC PRELIMS: Elections & MCC) However, if another campaigner travels with the prime minister, the individual candidate will have to bear 50% of the expenditure incurred on the security arrangements. MUST READ: Election Symbol SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. The law does not provide any time frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Dengue Fever Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recent studies by researchers at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) have explained how the dengue virus causes the Dengue Fever. About Dengue Fever:- IMAGE SOURCE: Dengue Fever INFO – Bing images Dengue Fever is a mosquito-borne tropical disease. It is caused by the dengue virus belonging to the Genus Flavivirus. It is transmitted by several species of female mosquito within the genus Aedes, principally Aedes aegypti. This mosquito also transmits chikungunya, yellow fever and Zika infection. (UPSC PRELIMS: Zika Virus Disease ) There are 4 distinct, but closely related, serotypes of the virus that cause dengue: DEN-1, DEN-2, DEN-3 and DEN-4. Symptoms:- Sudden high fever  severe headaches pain behind the eyes  severe bone, joint, and muscle pain, etc. Diagnosis and Treatment:- Diagnosis of dengue infection is done with a blood test. There is no specific medicine to treat dengue infection. Dengue Vaccine:- The dengue vaccine CYD-TDV or Dengvaxia was approved by the US Food & Drug Administration in 2019. It was the first dengue vaccine to get the regulatory nod in the US. (UPSC PRELIMS: Malaria Vaccine ) Dengvaxia is basically a live, attenuated dengue virus which has to be administered in people ages 9 to 16 who have laboratory-confirmed previous dengue infection and who live in endemic areas. Vaccine manufacturer Indian Immunologicals Limited (IIL) is developing India’s first Dengue vaccine and has received permission for a Phase-1 trial. The vaccine is being produced in collaboration with the National Institutes of Health in the US. MUST READ:  Tomato Flu SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing? (2013) Chikungunya Hepatitis B HIV-AIDS Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Economics of India’s Population Growth Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society and associated issues) Context: The annual State of World Population report 2023 by the UN Population Fund (UNFPA) stated that India’s population is expected to surpass that of China by the middle of this year at the latest. Key facts about India’s population: Fertility Decline According to National Family Health Survey (NFHS), fertility rate falling below the replacement level for the first time to 2.0 in 2021.dropped from 2.2 to 2.0. Only five States have a fertility rate above the replacement rate: Bihar (3), Meghalaya (2.9), Uttar Pradesh (2.4), Jharkhand (2.3), and Manipur (2.2) At the time of Independence, India’s fertility rate was six per woman, and it had taken 25 years to reach five, with the government launching the first ever family planning program in the world in 1952. India’s fertility further declined to four in the 1990s when Kerala became the first State in India to have a fertility rate below replacement. Increased use of contraception, more years of average schooling, better health care, and an increase in the mean marriage age of women are of the reasons behind the steady dip in fertility rate. Population vs Economic development: Starting point of this debate is Thomas Malthus’ argument in 1798. Malthusianism is the theory that population growth is potentially exponential while the growth of the food supply or other resources is linear, which eventually reduces living standards to the point of triggering a population decline. This event, called a Malthusian catastrophe. Since then, however, the world population has grown eight times to reach 8 billion. During the 1950s and 60s, “the general view of economists was that high birth rates and rapid population growth in poor countries would divert scarce capital away from savings and investment, thereby placing a drag on economic development. However, between the 1970s and 1990s, several studies “failed to detect a robust relationship between national population growth rates and per capita income growth”. The global view reverted in the 1990s when researchers again found a clear “negative association between population growth and economic performance”. During this time, World was also introduced to the concept of “demographic dividend”e., high economic growth when there is a bulge in the working-age population (roughly speaking, population between 15 and 65 years). Opportunities for India: A larger workforce: A growing population means a larger workforce, which, if trained and employed, can contribute to economic growth and development. Domestic market: A larger population can create a larger domestic market, which can drive economic growth by increasing demand for goods and services. Innovation and technological advancements: A larger population can provide a greater pool of knowledge and expertise, and a more diverse range of perspectives and ideas, which can lead to innovation and technological advancements. Investment in infrastructure: Population growth can create opportunities for investment in infrastructure, education, and health, which can further stimulate economic development. Cultural richness: A larger population can lead to cultural richness and diversity. With a diverse population comes a range of languages, traditions, and cultural practices, which can contribute to a vibrant and dynamic society. Diplomatic influence: A larger population can give a country greater diplomatic influence on the world stage. As one of the world’s most populous countries, India has significant diplomatic influence and can use its demographic size as a bargaining tool in international negotiations. Issues associated with over population: Strain on resources: A growing population can put a strain on natural resources, such as water, food, and energy. It can lead to environmental degradation, scarcity, and conflict. Unemployment: A larger population can create a mismatch between the supply and demand of jobs, leading to high unemployment rates, particularly among young people Poverty: Population growth can exacerbate poverty, particularly in rural areas and among marginalized communities. This can create social and economic inequality and limit access to education, healthcare, and other basic needs. Overcrowding: A larger population can lead to overcrowding, particularly in urban areas. This can create poor living conditions, increased pollution, and health hazards. Infrastructure: A growing population can put a strain on infrastructure, such as transportation, housing, and sanitation. This can lead to inadequate services and poor living conditions. Health: A larger population can increase the spread of disease and illness, particularly in areas with poor healthcare infrastructure. It can lead to public health crises and decreased life expectancy. Education: Population growth can put a strain on education systems, particularly in terms of providing quality education to all. This can limit social and economic mobility and contribute to inequality. Migration: A larger population can lead to migration, particularly to urban areas, which can create social and economic challenges, such as increased crime rates and inequality. Way Forward: Population growth constantly acts as a hurdle in effectively addressing the problem of poverty, hunger and malnutrition and in providing a better quality of health and education, with limited resources. It is, therefore, important to understand that in order to have a better future for all on a healthy planet, attainment of the SDGs is critical. Family planning is an effective tool to ensure a stable rise in the population, which in turn is crucial for the achievement of some of these SDGs. The Government at all levels — Union, State and local, citizens, civil societies as well as businesses — must take the responsibility to promote awareness and advocate the sexual and reproductive rights of women and encourage the use of contraception. This would go a long way in ensuring that every child who is born would prove to be an asset for the country, as all the research shows that investing in family planning and well-being measures have significant benefits over per Rupee spent vis-à-vis other investments. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT): It aims to create and foster a learning environment that enables participants to be leaders in international business with sensitivity towards society. It works under the Ministry of Finance Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the University Grants Commission (UGC): It is a statutory body The head office of the UGC is located in Hyderabad It provides recognition to universities in India. UGC was formed in 1946 to oversee the work of the three Central Universities of Aligarh, Banaras and, Delhi. Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding star campaigners in Indian elections: A ‘recognised’ National or State party declared as such by the ECI can nominate a maximum of 50-star campaigners. If a candidate or his/her election agent shares the stage with a star campaigner at a rally, then the entire expenditure on that rally, other than the travel expenses of the star campaigner, is added to the candidate’s expenses. when a prime minister or a former prime minister is a star campaigner, the expenditure incurred on security including bullet-proof vehicles will be borne by the government and will not be added to the election expenses of the party or the individual candidate. There is no law governing who can or cannot be made a star campaigner. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 4th May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 3rd May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 4th May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 52] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 52->Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 3rd May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Red Pandas Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent studies point out that transboundary conservation is essential to save the endangered Red Pandas. About Red Pandas:- IMAGE SOURCE: High camp: India’s untrodden Himalayas | India holidays | The Guardian Red Pandas usually live in chilly, cold, mountainous mixed deciduous and coniferous forests of the eastern Himalayas. (UPSC MAINS: Re-wilding programme of red pandas) Habitat: In the eastern part of the Himalayas, this type of suitable habitat is available only in the Singalila and Neora Valley national parks in the Darjeeling and Kalimpong districts of West Bengal. Red Panda belongs to the order Carnivora as per the taxonomic classification, but they have adapted to a vegetarian diet. There are only two different panda species in the world, the Giant Pandas and the Red Pandas. (UPSC PRELIMS: Red Panda species in India) Conservation Status:- Red Pandas IUCN Red List: Endangered CITES: Appendix I Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule I Giant Pandas IUCN Red List: Vulnerable CITES: Appendix I India is home to both the (sub) species: Himalayan red panda (Ailurus fulgens) They are present in Sikkim, Darjeeling-Kalimpong districts of West Bengal, Nepal, Bhutan and Southern Tibet. Chinese red panda (Ailurus styani) They are distributed in southeastern Tibet, Northern Myanmar and the Sichuan and Yunan provinces of China. The zygomatic (cheekbone) breadth and skull size of the Chinese Red Panda are larger than the Himalayan Red Panda. The facial colour of the Chinese Red Panda is redder than the Himalayan Red Panda.  In the Chinese Red Panda, tail rings are more prominent, with dark rings being darker red and the pale rings being whitish than the Himalayan Red Panda. Singalila National Park:- Singalila National Park is located on the Singalila Ridge at an altitude of more than 7000 feet above sea level, in the Darjeeling district of West Bengal. It is well known for the trekking route to Sandakphu that runs through it. The Singalila area in Darjeeling was purchased by the British Government from Sikkim Durbar in 1882. It was notified as a Reserve Forest under the Indian Forest Act of 1878. It was notified as a National Park in 1992 and was also officially opened up for tourism. Neora Valley National Park:-  It is situated in the Kalimpong District of West Bengal. One of the richest biological zones in entire Eastern India Neora Valley National Park is the Natural Habitat of Red panda It borders Sikkim and Bhutan. Flora: rhododendron, bamboo, oak, ferns, sal, etc. Fauna: Indian leopard, Red panda, Sloth bear, Asiatic golden cat, goral, sambar deer etc. MUST READ: Kanchenjunga Biosphere SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Bedaquiline Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the Indian Patent Office rejected Johnson & Johnson’s claim for a secondary patent on its tuberculosis drug bedaquiline. About Bedaquiline:- IMAGE SOURCE: Tuberculosis Control & Prevention Program | Florida Department of Health in Escambia (floridahealth.gov) Bedaquiline is an oral medication used to treat active tuberculosis. (UPSC PRELIMS: Tuberculosis )  It is particularly used to treat multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB). It has a unique mechanism of action. It targets the adenosine triphosphate (ATP) synthase enzyme of the TB mycobacteria. Bedaquiline is central to WHO ­recommended TB treatment regimens (UPSC PRELIMS: WHO and its funding) Johnson and Johnson holds the patent for it. India is also the country with the second highest number (after South Africa) of estimated HIV-associated TB cases. (UPSC CSE: 2021 Global TB report: WHO ) MUST READ: India’s TB Elimination Programme SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens. Similipal Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a rare melanistic tiger was found dead in the core area of Similipal Tiger Reserve. About Similipal Tiger Reserve:- IMAGE SOURCE: Map of Similipal Tiger Reserve.  | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) Similipal derives its name from the ‘Simul’ (silk cotton) tree. It was formally designated a tiger reserve in 1956. (UPSC CSE: Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS)) It was brought under Project Tiger in the year 1973. (UPSC PRELIMS: Saving the Tiger) It was declared a biosphere reserve by the Government of India in June 1994. It has been part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves since 2009. It is part of the Similipal-Kuldiha-Hadgarh Elephant Reserve popularly known as Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve, which includes 3 protected areas i.e. Similipal Tiger Reserve, Hadagarh Wildlife Sanctuary and Kuldiha wildlife sanctuary. (UPSC MAINS: Similipal National Park ) MUST READ: Simlipal Forest Fires SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? (2020) Askot Wildlife Sanctuary Gangotri National Park Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary Manas National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only ASEAN India Maritime Exercise (AIME-2023) Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: Recently, Indian Naval Ships arrived in Singapore to participate in the Inaugural ASEAN India Maritime Exercise (AIME-2023). About ASEAN India Maritime Exercise (AIME-2023):- IMAGE SOURCE: AEC Blog: Common ASEAN Driving License vs. Mutual Recognition of Driving Licenses (aseanec.blogspot.com) ASEAN India Maritime Exercise (AIME-2023) will inaugurate in Singapore. Objective: to strengthen cooperation and coordination between the Indian Navy and ASEAN navies in the maritime domain. (UPSC PRELIMS: India-ASEAN relations ) The Harbour Phase of the exercise is scheduled to be held at Changi Naval Base from 02 to 04 May 2023. During this phase, participating nations will engage in various professional and cultural exchanges. The Sea Phase will be conducted from 07 to 08 May 2023 in the South China Sea. (UPSC PRELIMS: Taiwan Strait, Yellow Sea and Bohai Sea) This phase will include a wide range of naval exercises such as surface warfare exercises, anti-submarine warfare exercises, and air defence exercises. INS Delhi and INS Satpura are a part of the Indian Navy’s Eastern Fleet based at Visakhapatnam. INS Delhi is India’s first indigenously-built guided missile destroyer, and INS Satpura is an indigenously-built guided missile stealth frigate. The ships, will also participate in International Maritime Defence Exhibition (IMDEX-23) and International Maritime Security Conference (IMSC) being hosted by Singapore. MUST READ: Indian Ocean Naval Symposium SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries : (2018) Australia Canada China India Japan USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4, 5 and 6 1, 3, 4 and 5 2, 3, 4 and 6 Q.2) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 National SC-ST Hub Scheme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Prime Minister praises National SC-ST Hub Scheme for crossing over 1 lakh beneficiary registrations. About National SC-ST Hub Scheme:- IMAGE SOURCE: National SC-ST Hub Scheme – Bing images The National SC-ST Hub (NSSH) is under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. (UPSC CSE: Empowering MSMEs digitally) It has been set up to provide professional support to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe Entrepreneurs to fulfil the obligations under the Central Government Public Procurement Policy for Micro and Small Enterprises Order 2012, adopt applicable business practices and leverage the Stand-Up India initiative. (UPSC PRELIMS: Launch of Stand Up India Scheme) The key action areas of NSSH include vendor development, participation in public procurement, building a reliable database, mentoring and handholding support, policy advocacy with states, credit facilitation, capacity building, private affirmative action, technology upgradation, marketing support, and special subsidies under various schemes. The NSSH works on the mentioned priority areas through various sub-schemes which are as follows: Special Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme Special Marketing Assistance Scheme Single Point Registration Scheme Bank Loan Processing Reimbursement Scheme Bank Guarantee Charges Reimbursement Scheme Testing Fee Reimbursement Scheme Export Promotion Council Membership Reimbursement Scheme Top 50 NIRF Rated Management Institution’s Short-Term Training Program Fee Reimbursement Scheme Key Benefits of the Scheme:- To achieve the 4% Public Procurement target from SC-ST entrepreneurs Facilitating SC/ST Entrepreneurs to be part of vendor development programs and mentoring support. (UPSC CSE: National Commission for SCs – Needs to be reimagined) Collection, collation and dissemination of information regarding SC/ST enterprises and entrepreneurs Distribution of trade-specific tool kits to trained candidates Eligibility:- Existing and Aspiring SC/ST Entrepreneurs MUST READ: SAMARTH initiative for women SOURCE: NEWSONAIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019) PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to the ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statement is/are correct? (2016) Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Meitei community Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Meitei community members declared their intention to file contempt proceedings against the Hill Areas Committee (HAC) of the Manipur Legislative Assembly. About the Meitei community:- Meitei community is the dominant population of Manipur in northeastern India. (UPSC PRELIMS: Manipur Insurgency ) They are predominantly Vaishnavite Hindus. They are divided into clans, the members of which do not intermarry. An interesting aspect of the village socio-economic organization in Meitei society is the Marup system (literally means friendship association), a type of cooperative saving and credit institution. They speak a Tibeto-Burman language. They differ culturally from the surrounding hill tribes due to following Hindu customs. Hill Areas Committee (HAC) of the Manipur Legislative Assembly:- The HAC was set up through a 1972 order. It comprises legislators of all constituencies that fall partly or wholly within the State’s hilly areas. The tribal hill districts of Manipur enjoy special protections under Article 371C of the Constitution, which says that all laws affecting the districts must be vetted by the hill areas committee of the Manipur Legislative Assembly. (UPSC PRELIMS: Manipur’s NRC exercise) MUST READ: Kuki Insurgency in Manipur SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Q.2) At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? (2021) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climatic Change. Ministry of Panchayat Raj Ministry of Rural Development Ministry of Tribal Affairs Painted storks Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, close to 4,000 painted storks were found nesting in two Andhra Pradesh villages. About Painted Storks:- The painted stork (Mycteria leucocephala ) is a large wader in the stork family.  It is found in the wetlands of the plains of tropical Asia, south of the Himalayas, in the Indian Subcontinent and extending into Southeast Asia. Their distinctive pink tertial feathers of the adults give them their name. They forage in flocks in shallow waters along rivers or lakes. They are not migratory and only make short-distance movements in some parts of their range in response to changes in weather or food availability or for breeding. (UPSC PRELIMS: Conservation of Migratory Species) Distribution:- Painted storks are widely distributed over the plains of Asia. They are found south of the Himalayan ranges and are bounded on the west by the Indus River system where they are rare and extend eastwards into Southeast Asia. Painted storks are absent from very dry or desert regions, dense forests, and higher hill regions. They prefer freshwater wetlands in all seasons but also use irrigation canals and crop fields, particularly flooded rice fields during the monsoon. (UPSC PRELIMS: COP14 of Ramsar Convention on Wetlands)         Conservation Status:- IUCN Red List: Near Threatened Wildlife Protection Act: Schedule-IV MUST READ: Spot-Billed Pelicans SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In which one of the following states is Pakhui wildlife sanctuary located? (2018) Arunachal Pradesh Manipur Meghalaya Nagaland Q.2) Due to some reasons if there is a huge fall in the population of a species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences? (2017) Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infection of some cultivated plants It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Business Ready (B-READY) rankings Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the World Bank released the Business Ready (B-READY) rankings. About Business Ready (B-READY) rankings:- The World Bank Group is implementing a new corporate flagship, Business Ready (B-READY). Objective:  to assess the business and investment environment worldwide annually. In September 2021, the World Bank Group (WBG) Senior Management decided to discontinue the Doing Business (DB) report and data and announced a new approach for assessing the business and investment climate. (UPSC CSE: World Bank Stops ‘Ease of Doing Business Report) B-READY improves upon and replaces Doing Business. (UPSC MAINS: Criticism of WB’s Ease of Doing Business Report) The new approach is informed by advice from experts in the WBG and recommendations from qualified academics and practitioners outside the institution, including the External Panel Review on DB methodology. The new benchmarking exercise is being developed in the Development Economics (DEC) Global Indicators Group (DECIG). This Group will design, pilot, and implement the new benchmarking exercise. It will be under the guidance of the WBG Chief Economist and DEC Senior Vice President. The data collection and reporting process will be governed by the highest possible standards, including sound data gathering The key features of the new project are as follows:- Working Title. The working title of the new project is Business Enabling Environment, with the acronym ‘BEE’. The title will be refined after due consideration for branding impact. The objective of this benchmarking exercise is to provide a quantitative assessment of the business environment for private sector development. Scope: BEE will assess the economy’s business environment by focusing on the regulatory framework and the provision of related public services for firms and markets, as well as the efficiency with which they are combined in practice. MUST READ:  India and World Bank SOURCE: WORLD BANK PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Action plan to reduce Air Pollution Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Environment) Context: Delhi Chief Minister announced a 14-point action plan to reduce air pollution during the summer months with a focus on controlling dust pollution. Highlights of the action plan: The Delhi government will conduct a real-time apportionment study of 13 identified hotspots to find sources of pollution and solutions to curb them. People will have to register to carry out construction work on land measuring more than 500 square meters. The government will increase green cover by planting 59 lakh saplings. Urban farming will also be increased and 400 workshops will be conducted and free training kits will be given to people. The government is preparing a new policy to deal with industrial waste management and techniques to collect and scientifically dispose of industrial waste to curb industrial pollution. About Air Pollution: Air pollution refers to the release of pollutants into the air that is detrimental to human health and the planet as a whole. Source of Air Pollution Nitrogen dioxide: It is one of the major pollutants and major sources of NOx include emissions from motor vehicle exhaust, industrial facilities, and chemical solvents. Agriculture & Allied Sources: Ammonia (NH3) -It is another gaseous pollutant that is monitored. It occurs naturally in air, soil and water, and is used as an agricultural fertiliser and in cleaning products. Short-term inhalation of high levels of ammonia can cause irritation and serious burns in the mouth, lungs and eyes. Stubble burning: It is also one of the major sources of air pollution in northern India, especially in winters. Sulphur dioxide (SO2): They emitted from the combustion of fossil fuels have, historically, been the main component of air pollution in many parts of the world. The largest source of SO2 in the atmosphere is burning fossil fuels by power plants and other industrial facilities. Short-term exposure to SO2 can harm the respiratory system, making breathing more difficult. Particulate Matter: Particulate matter (PM) are inhalable and respirable particles composed of sulphate, nitrates, ammonia, sodium chloride, black carbon, mineral dust and water. Both PM2.5 and PM10 are capable of penetrating deep into the lungs but PM2.5 can even enter the bloodstream, primarily resulting in cardiovascular and respiratory impacts, and also affecting other organs. In 2013, outdoor air pollution and particulate matter were classified as carcinogenic by WHO’s International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC). Carbon monoxide (CO): It is a toxic, colourless and odourless gas, given off when fuel containing carbon, such as wood, coal and petrol, are burned. Major sources of methane include waste and fossil fuel and agricultural industry. Ozone (O3): It occurs both in the Earth’s upper atmosphere and at ground level. At the ground, O3 is created by the chemical reaction between oxides of nitrogen (NOx) and volatile organic compounds. It is formed when pollutants emitted by cars, power plants, refineries and other sources chemically react in presence of sunlight. It can trigger a variety of health problems, including chest pain, throat irritation and airway inflammation. Associated risks Air pollution is a threat to health in all countries, but it hits people in low- and middle-income countries the hardest. Every year, exposure to air pollution is estimated to cause 7 million premature deaths and result in the loss of millions more healthy years of life. In children, this could include reduced lung growth and function, respiratory infections and aggravated asthma. In adults, ischaemic heart disease and stroke are the most common causes of premature death attributable to outdoor air pollution, and evidence is also emerging of other effects such as diabetes and neurodegenerative conditions. This puts the burden of disease attributable to air pollution on a par with other major global health risks such as unhealthy diet and tobacco smoking. There is a body of scientific evidence to prove that air pollution is leading to severe health impacts and 90% of the entire global population is breathing polluted air. Steps taken by the government: Graded Response Action Plan ( GRAP ) is a set of emergency measures that kick in to take required steps such as banning construction activities, implementing an odd-even scheme etc. Based on an initiative by the supreme court, legislation has been brought in to form the Commission for Air Quality Management to implement measures like GRAP and ensure inter-state coordination with a vast range of powers. National Clean Air Program(NCAP) to reduce pollution in non-attainment cities by 2024 compared to 2017 levels. Efforts to distribute turbo happy Seeder machines, expanding area under bio decomposers for in situ stubble management Development of safe fewer polluting crackers such as STAR ( safe thermite cracker ) and SWAS( Safe water releaser) by the Council of scientific and industrial research. Way Forward: The air does not belong to any one State therefore all have to work in close coordination with neighbouring States to curb air pollution. Policies to reduce air pollution offer a win-win strategy for both climate and health, lowering the burden of disease attributable to air pollution, as well as contributing to the near- and long-term mitigation of climate change. The WHO also prescribed some steps to be taken by governments to improve the air quality and health. It urged countries to implement national air quality standards in line with the WHO’s guidelines, usage of clean household energy, and implementation of stricter vehicle emissions and efficiency standards among other measures. Source:   Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following pairs: National park and State Kanchenjunga NP – Assam Neora Valley NP – Uttarakhand Singalila NP – West Bengal How many of the above is/are correctly matched? None One pair only Two pairs only All three pairs Q.2) It derives its name from the ‘Simul’ (silk cotton) tree. It was formally designated a tiger reserve in 1956. It was declared a biosphere reserve by the Government of India in June 1994. It has been part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves since 2009. It is part of the Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve. Which of the following Tiger Reserve (TR) described above? Satkosia TR Simlipal TR Sathyamangalam TR Kanha TR Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the National SC-ST Hub Scheme: The National SC-ST Hub (NSSH) is under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. It has been set up to provide professional support to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe Entrepreneurs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 3rd May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 2nd May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }