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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 31st March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) COVID-19 Syllabus Prelims –Science and technology Context: Recently, Delhi reported an uptick in COVID-19 cases, compelling the health department to hold an emergency meeting. About COVID-19:- Covid-19 is spread via airborne droplets (sneezing coughing) or contact with the surface. The incubation period (interval between being infected and showing symptoms) is not very accurately known. Coronavirus is also known as COVID-19. This disease is caused by Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus(SARS-CoV-2). It is an infectious disease that spreads from person to person. Structure:- IMAGE SOURCE: Trending Clinical Topic: COVID-19 (medscape.com) The outer layer of this virus is covered with spike-like proteins which surround it like a crown, thus named COVID. COVID-19 Diagnostic tests:- Viral tests: Mainly laboratory tests done by doctors. Antibody test:– It is a kind of blood test that determines the body’s status before exposure to COVID-19 and the body’s antibody stamina. The body takes 12 days to make enough antibodies to get identified in a test. Important Variants:- IMAGE SOURCE: What is a variant? An expert explains | News | Wellcome Over time, the virus may start to differ slightly in terms of its genetic sequence. These changes to the viral genetic sequence during this process are known as Viruses with new mutations are sometimes called Variants. Variants can differ by one or multiple mutations. All strains are variants, but not all variants are strains. XE Variant of Coronavirus:- XE is a sub-variant of Omicron, which caused the third wave of Covid-19. It was suspected of a woman in Mumbai, India in 2022. The Omicron variant, which is responsible for over 90% of the infections detected in 2022, has two prominent sub-variants, called 1 and BA.2. The XE variant is what is called a ‘recombinant’. This means it contains the mutations found in BA.1 as well as BA.2 varieties of Omicron. MUST READ: iNCOVACC SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Uncontrolled Re-entry of satellites Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recent studies show that aeroplanes may face a growing risk of being hit by uncontrolled re-entries of rockets used to launch satellites. About Uncontrolled Re-entry of satellites:- IMAGE SOURCE: Everything about ISRO: History and Mission: Planets Education In an uncontrolled re-entry, the rocket stage simply falls. Its path down is determined by its shape, angle of descent, air currents and other characteristics. It disintegrates as it falls. Concerns:- As the smaller pieces fan out, the potential radius of impact will increase on the ground. Some pieces burn up entirely while others don’t. But because of the speed at which they’re travelling, debris can be deadly. If re-entering stages still hold fuel, atmospheric and terrestrial chemical contamination is another risk. Regulations:- There is no international binding agreement to ensure rocket stages always perform controlled re-entries nor on the technologies with which they can be controlled. The Liability Convention, 1972 requires countries to pay for damages, not prevent them. These technologies include wing-like attachments, de-orbiting brakes, extra fuel on the re-entering body, and design changes that minimise debris formation. MUST READ: RISAT and RISAT-2B SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch  vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct.? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Climate change impact on Salt Marshes Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent studies show that more than 90% of the world’s salt marshes may soon succumb to sea level rise. About Salt Marshes:- These are types of wetlands. Wetlands: Lands transitional between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems where the water table is usually at or near the surface or the land is covered by shallow water. These are periodically saturated, flooded, or ponded with water. They are characterized by herbaceous (non-woody) vegetation adapted to wet soil conditions. They are further characterized as tidal marshes and non-tidal marshes. Marshes are often divided into:- Freshwater Swamps These are often found hundreds of kilometres from the coast. These are dominated by grasses and aquatic plants. These marshes often develop around lakes and streams. Saltwater Marshes These are some of the richest ecosystems for biodiversity. They are dominated by grasses. They provide food and shelter for algae, fungi, shellfish, fish, amphibians, and reptiles. A few mangrove trees may dot saltwater marshes, but they are dominated by grasses and a layer of algae called an algal mat. This algal mat is home to many insects and amphibians. Wetlands in India Globally, wetlands cover 4 per cent of the geographical area of the world The ‘Convention on Wetlands’ is called the Ramsar Convention. It was signed in Ramsar, Iran, in 1971. It is an intergovernmental treaty which provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. Ramsar sites in India:- IMAGE SOURCE: Ramsar Convention | The Official Website of Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India (moef.gov.in) MUST READ: India Designates 5 New Ramsar Sites SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “R2 Code of Practices” constitute a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2021) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of the Ramsar Convention The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 EOS-06 Satellite Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, ISRO released images captured by EOS-06 SATELLITE. About EOS-06 Satellite:- It is the third-generation satellite in the Oceansat series. This is to provide continuity services for Oceansat-2 spacecraft with enhanced payload specifications as well as application areas. Payloads:- Ocean Color Monitor (OCM-3) Sea Surface Temperature Monitor (SSTM) Ku-Band Scatterometer (SCAT-3) ARGOS Mission Objectives:- To ensure the data continuity of Ocean colour and wind vector data to sustain the operational applications. To improve the applications. Some additional datasets such as Sea Surface Temperature and more bands in the Optical region for fluorescence and in the Infrared region for atmospheric corrections are accommodated. To improve related algorithms and data products to serve in well-established application areas and to enhance the mission utility. MUST READ: Satellite Broadband Services SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change The gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in straight lines Speed of light is always the same Q.2) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements : (2018) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. IRNSS covers the entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only None Piezoelectric effect Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Researchers have reported evidence of the Piezoelectric effect in liquids recently. About Piezoelectric effect:- IMAGE SOURCE: i Piezo THE PIEZOELECTRIC EFFECT AS AN ALTERNATIVE (slidetodoc.com) The Piezoelectric effect was discovered in 1880, in quartz, by Jacques and Pierre Curie. Piezo’ meaning to press or to squeeze. Piezoelectricity is the generation of electric charges in certain solid materials in response to applied mechanical stress. Piezoelectric property essentially is based on the interplay between mechanical and electrical features of a material. The bonds that keep materials together are electrons and these electrons are the basis for electricity. There exists a connection between material mechanics and material electronics. Therefore, changing one will impact the other. The effect has been known for 143 years and in this time has been observed only in solids. Uses:– Piezoelectric materials are used in a variety of applications, such as in sensors, actuators, and energy harvesting devices. Some examples of common piezoelectric materials include quartz, ceramics, and certain types of crystals. MUST READ: Lithium-Ion Batteries SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital displays in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays? (2017) OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs. Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 3 only 2 only 1, 2 and 3 None of the above statements is correct Q.2) With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements : (2015) If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC). Which of the statements given above is / are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Rajender Prasad Syllabus Prelims –(Important Personalities)Modern Indian History Context: About Rajender Prasad:- He was the first president of India, in office from 1952 to 1962. A supporter of Mahatma Gandhi, Prasad was imprisoned by British authorities during the Salt Satyagraha of 1931 and the Quit India movement of 1942 In the early 1920s, he became the editor of a Hindi weekly Desh and an English biweekly, Indian National Movement: He attended the 1906 Calcutta session of Indian National Congress. He joined the party in 1911 and later elected to the All India Congress Committee. He was highly impressed by Mahatma Gandhi and he supported Gandhi during the Satyagraha Movement against Indigo Planters in Champaran, 1917 ,Bihar. He later quit his lucrative career as a lawyer in 1920 and jumped into Freedom Struggle Movement and participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement. He led the Non-Cooperation Movement in Bihar He started the National College in Patna in 1921 to promote Swadeshi asking people to boycott foreign goods. He set up the Quetta Central Relief Committee in Sindh and Punjab under his own presidency after 1935 Quetta Earthquake. Hewas elected as the President of the Bombay Session of the Indian National Congress in 1934. He was also elected as the President for second time in 1939 after Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from his post He became president of INC the third time President of INC in 1947 when J.B.Kripalani resigned from his post. Contribution to Constitution Making:- In 1946, Rajendra Prasad joined the Interim Government of India as the Minister of Food and Agriculture. As a firm believer in the maximization of agricultural production, he crafted the slogan “Grow More Food.” He was elected as a member of the Constituent Assembly from the Bihar Province where he served as the president of the Constituent Assembly from 1946 to 1950. On 24th January 1950, at the last session of the Constituent Assembly, Prasad was elected as the President of India He has the distinction of being the only President to have been re-elected for a second term. Committees of Constituent Assembly under the chairmanship of Dr. Prasad includes: Ad hoc Committee on the National flag Committee on the Rules of Procedure Finance and Staff Committee Steering Committee Literary Works:- Satyagraha at Champaran (1922) India Divided (1946) Atmakatha (1946) his autobiography written during his 3 year prison term in Bankipur Jail Mahatma Gandhi and Bihar, Some Reminiscences (1949) Bapu Ke Kadmon Mein (1954) Since Independence (1960) MUST READ: C.Rajagopalachari SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School? (2022) Annie Besant Debandranath Tagore Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar Sarojini Naidu Q.2) He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was (2018) Aurobindo Ghosh Bipin Chandra Pal Lala Lajpat Rai Motilal Nehru The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) Syllabus Prelims –Disaster Management Institutions Context: NDRF, SDRF and Army contingent were called in during rescue and relief operations after an accident took place during a Ram Navami function at a temple in Indore, Madhya Pradesh. About the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF):- It is an Indian specialized force . It was constituted “for the purpose of special response to a threatening disaster situation or disaster” under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 It comes under Ministry of Home Affairs It is the only dedicated disaster response force in the world The Apex Body for Disaster Management in India is the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA). The Chairman of the NDMA is the Prime Minister. The head of the NDRF is designated as Director General. The Director Generals of NDRF are IPS officers on deputation from Indian police organisations. Director General is a three-star officer. Working of NDRF:- The responsibility of managing disasters in India is that of the State Government. When ‘calamities of severe nature’ occur, the Central Government is responsible for providing aid and assistance to the affected state, including deploying, at the State’s request, of Armed Forces, Central Paramilitary Forces, National Disaster Response Force (NDRF), and such communication, air and other assets, as are available and needed. Composition:- National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) is a force of 12 battalions, organized on para-military lines, and manned by persons on deputation from the para-military forces of India. These include:- three Border Security Force three Central Reserve Police Force two Central Industrial Security Force two Indo-Tibetan Border Police and two Sashastra Seema Bal. MUST READ: State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclones do not originate. What is the reason? (2015) Sea surface temperatures are low Inter-tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs Coriolis force is too weak Absence of land in those region Q.2) Consider the following pairs : (2014) Programme                                                                                  Project Ministry Drought-Prone Area Programme                                                 Ministry of Agriculture Desert Development Programme                                                 Ministry of Environment and Forests National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas       Ministry of Rural Development Which of the above pairs are correctly matched 1 and 2 only 3 only 1,2 and 3 None Time to Break Away from the Colonial Legacy of ‘Homophobia’ Syllabus GS-1: Effects of globalization on Indian society; Social empowerment GS-2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. Context: On March 13, the Supreme Court referred a batch of petitions seeking the legal recognition of same-sex marriages to a Constitution Bench. The Union government has opposed the petitions. In its affidavit to the Supreme Court, it argued that the traditional concept of marriage, consisting of a “biological man, woman and child”, cannot be disrupted. It further claimed that recognising same-sex marriages could cause havoc in the system of personal laws. Law Minister Kiren Rijiju said that marriage is a matter of policy to be decided by Parliament and the executive alone. The government must think twice before arguing in court that same-sex marriage would “wreak havoc” in India. Same-sex marriage is a matter of life and death for crores of Indians affected by the decisions made about their lives, unfortunately without any representation from their community. About Same-Sex Marriage: It is the practice of marriage between two men or between two women. Same-sex marriage has been regulated through law, religion, and custom in most countries of the world. As of 2023, marriage between same-sex couples is legally performed and recognized in 34 countries, constituting some 1.35 billion people (17% of the world’s population), with the most recent being Andorra. Marriages in India are categorized under Hindu Marriage Act, Christian Marriage Act, Muslim Marriage Act, and Special Marriage Act. None of this permits marriage between same-sex couples. Homophobia is a Colonial Legacy – India needs to break away from it British imperialists became the prime exporters of the most acute form of homophobia. So vicious was the homophobia in Britain that in 1952 their government prosecuted war hero, genius, and the father of modern computer science, Alan Turing, for his homosexuality and forced him to undergo chemical castration. In 1954, days before he turned 42, Turing committed suicide. The British showed a willingness to reform, and today, Britain ensures a life of basic equality and dignity for its queer citizens. Yet, the system of laws and attitudes that the British imprinted on their colonies wreaked havoc on the lives of queer people elsewhere. No community bore a greater brunt than India’s Hijra community, targeted under the Criminal Tribes Act 1871, with the movement and freedoms of the community as a whole severely curtailed. While such laws have been removed, the stigma that they brought to the community has not faded away. Queer In India Queer people have existed since the dawn of humanity. They are so fundamental to the makeup of society that indigenous cultures and faiths have accepted them matter-of-factly, like any other gender or orientation. Historically The Kama Sutra, a treatise on the private lives of people in Pataliputra in the 3rd century BCE, devoted an entire chapter and more to same-sex relations and courtship and passingly mentioned the customary practice of Parigraha. Parigraha, where two people of the same gender cohabited for life. As there existed no codified sanction of marriage in pre-modern India, all systems of marriage, including Parigraha, were customary. Current Situation in India Nearly one crore young Indians (15 to 30 years old) are likely to be gay, lesbian, or transgender (roughly 3 per cent of the total population aged 15 to 30 – 35 crore), and many more are bisexuals. India’s total queer population is even larger, although most live in the closet, discreetly. They grew up when being gay was a criminal act, facing a world where institutionalised homophobia at all levels of society was normal. While things have improved in the last few years (since Navtej Singh Johar vs.Union of India, 2018), it does not imply that queer people can now live fearlessly. Many challenges still exist, like the structurally imposed isolation that most queer people face daily. The Way Forward The government should have made a minimal effort to consult India’s queer citizens before making ahistorical, unscientific, and grossly insensitive statements, such as it does not condone or legitimise the “conduct” of queer people just because such conduct is decriminalised. The government must develop some sensitivity to realise the far-reaching impact of its words on the lives of young queer people, who need hope — not government-sanctioned humiliation. Same-sex marriage is not a matter of policy, introducing it will change personal laws minimally, and traditional values are irrelevant in matters of determination of rights. With respect to the right to privacy: The Supreme Court recognised this right to be part of the right to life and liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution in the celebrated Puttaswamy (2017) verdict. The court said: “Privacy includes at its core the preservation of personal intimacies, the sanctity of family life, marriage, procreation, the home and sexual orientation.” The right to privacy entails the right of the citizens to make decisions about their family life and marriage. The state currently denies same-sex couples this right. Same-sex marriages can be recognised under the Special Marriage Act. The Act already speaks of marriages between “any two persons” which are solemnised under it. Any two persons can include two persons of the same sex. A change in the Special Marriage Act does not change religious personal laws at all. The “traditional concept of marriage” and the argument that same-sex marriage goes against prevailing social values. In this context, the Supreme Court has repeatedly made it clear that the yardstick has to be constitutional morality rather than popular morality. The government cannot deny anyone their constitutional rights to equality and privacy simply because this would challenge popular morality. The government holds the responsibility to ensure the safety and well-being of all its citizens. If the government cannot recognise the full dignity of queer people, it should at least not get in the way of their right to build a family so that they can find support among each other and create a place they call home. Queer people are not asking for more, just for the same rights that everyone else already has. ANSWERS FOR 30th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 31st March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 23] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 23-> Click Here

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 30th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Vembanad and Ashtamudi lakes Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology and Geography Context: Recently, the National Green Tribunal (NGT), imposed a penalty of Rs 10 crore on the Kerala government for failing to protect the Vembanad and Ashtamudi lakes. About Vembanad lake:- It is the largest lake in Kerala and the longest Lake in India. It is bound by Alappuzha, Kottayam and Ernakulam. It has its source in four rivers: Meenachil, Achankovil, Pampa and Manimala. It is separated from the Arabian Sea by a narrow barrier island and is a popular backwater stretch in Kerala. Vallam Kali (i.e Nehru Trophy Boat Race): a Snake Boat Race held every year in the month of August in Vembanad Lake. It was included in the list of wetlands of international importance, as defined by the Ramsar Convention in 2002. It is the second-largest Ramsar site in India only after the Sundarbans in West Bengal. The Government of India has identified the Vembanad wetland under the National Wetlands Conservation Programme. The Kumarakom Bird Sanctuary is located on the east coast of the lake. In 2019, Willingdon Island, a seaport was carved out. About Ashtamudi Lake:- IMAGE SOURCE: http://www.kerenvis.nic.in/WriteReadData/userfiles/ramsar.jpg It is a freshwater lake located in the Kollam district of Kerala, a state in southern India. It is an extensive estuarine system, the second largest in Kerala State. Ashtamudi means ‘eight braids’ in the local Malayalam language. It has been recognized as a Ramsar site, a wetland site designated internationally important under the Ramsar Convention. The Ramsar Convention: is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands, and India is a signatory to this treaty. MUST READ: COP14 of Ramsar Convention on Wetlands SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) Wetland/Lake:                                  Location Hokera Wetland                        Punjab Renuka Wetland                       Himachal Pradesh Rudrasagar Lake                       Tripura Sasthamkotta                            Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of the Ramsar Convention The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 SHRESHTA and SMILE scheme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The implementation of the Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA) and Support for Marginalised Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise (SMILE)was reviewed recently. About Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA):- It is under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It is a Central Sector Scheme. Objective: for the purpose of providing seats for the meritorious SC boys and girls in the best private residential schools in the country. Every year, it is expected that about (3000) students would be selected for admission in Class 9 and Class 11 under the scheme. Admission will be provided in Class 9 and Class 11 of CBSE-affiliated private schools. Selection process: The selection will be done through a transparent mechanism which is known as National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA (NETS). It will be conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA) for admission in classes 9th and 11th. NTA: it is a premier, specialist, an autonomous and self-sustained testing organization to conduct entrance examinations for admission/fellowship in higher educational institutions. It was established as an independent, autonomous, and self-sustained premier testing organization under the Societies Registration Act (1860) by the Ministry of Education (MoE). It is for conducting efficient, transparent, and international standardized tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admission to premier higher education. About Support for Marginalised Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise (SMILE):- It is under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It is a Central Sector scheme. Objective: for providing welfare measures to the Transgender community and people engaged in begging. It seeks to strengthen and expands the reach of Rights that give necessary legal protection and secured life to the targeted group. It keeps in mind the social security required through multiple dimensions of identity, education, medical care, shelter, and occupational opportunities. This umbrella scheme would cover several comprehensive measures including welfare measures with a focus extensively on rehabilitation, provision of medical facilities, counselling, education, skill development, economic linkages etc. It will work with the support of State Governments/UTs/Local Urban Bodies, Voluntary Organizations, Community-Based Organizations (CBOs) and institutions and others. It includes two sub-schemes – Comprehensive Rehabilitation for the Welfare of Transgender Persons and  Comprehensive Rehabilitation of persons engaged in the act of Begging. Components of Comprehensive Rehabilitation for the Welfare of Transgender Persons:- Scholarships for Transgender Students studying in IX and till post-graduation to complete their education. Skill Development and Livelihood under the PM-DAKSH scheme. Composite Medical Health package in convergence with PM-JAY to support Gender-Reaffirmation surgeries through selected hospitals Shelter Homes ‘Garima Greh’, where all the basic facilities (food, clothing, medical support) recreational facilities and skill development opportunities, will be provided. Transgender Protection Cell will be set up in each state for monitoring cases of offences and ensuring timely registration, investigation and prosecution. Components of Comprehensive Rehabilitation of persons engaged in the act of Begging:- Survey and Identification of beneficiaries by Implementing Agencies. Outreach work will be done to mobilise the persons engaged in begging to avail services available in Shelter Homes. Shelter homes will facilitate education for children engaged in the act of Begging. MUST READ: Education & Nation Building SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Q.2) What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’? (2017) To enable famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only New India Literacy Programme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Government has launched a new Scheme namely, New India Literacy Programme. About New India Literacy Programme:- IMAGE SOURCE: Government approves New India Literacy Programme for Financial Years 2022 to 2027 (newsonair.gov.in) It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. The scheme aims to cover a target of five crore non-literates in the age group of 15 years and above. It is under the Ministry of Education.  Implementation: the beneficiaries under the scheme are identified through door-to-door surveys on Mobile Apps by the surveyors in the States and Union Territories. The scheme is targeted at all non-literates of age 15 years and above. The scheme has five components:- Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Critical Life Skills (which include, financial literacy, digital literacy, legal literacy, healthcare and awareness, childcare and education, family welfare, etc.) Basic Education (includes preparatory (classes 3 – 5), middle (classes 6- 8), and secondary stage (classes 9-12) equivalency) Vocational Skills (Skill development will be a part of the continuous learning process for neo-literates to obtain local employment) Continuing Education (This includes engaging holistic adult education courses in arts, sciences, technology, culture, sports, and recreation, as well as other topics of interest or use to local learners). Formation and involvement of SHGs, Voluntary & User Groups and other community-based organizations may be encouraged. The scheme is to be implemented through volunteerism. The learners will be encouraged to excess the content in local languages in online mode through the DIKSHA platform in NCERT. Government/Aided schools registered under UDISE are the units of implementation of the scheme which are run by the State/UT Governments. United Information System for Education Plus(UDISE): is one of the largest Management Information Systems on school education.  It was launched in 2018-2019 to speed up data entry, reduce errors, improve data quality and ease its verification. MUST READ: Scientific Literacy in India SOURCE: NEWSONAIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Regarding DigiLocker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) SWAYAM’, an initiative of the Government of India, aims at (2016) promoting Self-Help Groups in rural areas providing financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs promoting the education and health of adolescent girls providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently the top government officials indicated that the PPF, Sukanya Samriddhi Account interest rate hike may remain elusive. About Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme:- It is under the Ministry of Women and Child Development. It is a small deposit scheme for girl children, launched as a part of the ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhao’ campaign. Objective: it would fetch an attractive interest rate and provide an income tax rebate. Eligibility:- Parents or legal guardians can open deposits on behalf of a girl child (including an adopted girl child) for up to 2 daughters aged below 10. Minimum of Rs 250 of initial deposit with multiple of Rs 150 thereafter with an annual ceiling of Rs.150000 in a financial year. Maximum period up to which deposits can be made 15 years from the date of opening of the account. The account shall mature on completion of 21 years from the date of opening of the account or on the marriage of the Account holder whichever is earlier. The investments are designated as an EEE (Exempt, Exempt, Exempt) investment. This means that the principal invested, the interest earned as well as the maturity amount are tax-free. About Public Provident Fund (PPF):- It is a popular investment scheme with multiple investor-friendly features and associated benefits. It is a long-term investment scheme to earn high but stable returns. Proper safekeeping of the principal amount is the prime target of individuals opening a PPF account. Implementation: When a PPF scheme is opened, the PPF account is scheduled for the applicant where the money is deposited every month and interest is compounded A Public provident fund scheme is ideal for individuals with a low-risk appetite. Since this plan is mandated by the government, it is backed up with guaranteed returns to protect the financial needs of the masses in India. Further, invested funds in the PPF account are not market-linked either. Investors can also undertake the public provident fund regime to diversify their financial and investment portfolios Eligibility Criteria:- Indian citizens residing in the country are eligible to open a PPF account in his/her name. Minors are also allowed to have a Public provident fund account in their name, provided it is operated by their parents. Non-residential Indians are not permitted to open a new PPF account. However, any existing account in their name remains active till the completion of tenure. These accounts cannot be extended for 5 years – a benefit available to Indian residents. Interest in a PPF Account:- The interest payable on public provident fund schemes is determined by the Central Government of India. It aims to provide higher interest than regular accounts maintained by various commercial banks in the country. The entire amount redeemed from a PPF account upon completion of maturity is not subject to taxation.  Loan provisions: these can be done between the third and fifth years of your PPF account. The loan amount can be no more than 25% of the second year immediately preceding the loan application year. If the first loan is entirely repaid, a second loan can be taken out before the sixth year. MUST READ: Small savings schemes SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and Q.2) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2017) Resident Indian citizens only Persons of age from 21 to 55 only All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April 2004 Employees' Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recent reports suggest that most of EPFO’s equity investments are routed into Nifty 50 stocks, including Adani Enterprises and Adani Ports & SEZ. About Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (EPFO):- The EPFO is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India. It is one of the World’s largest Social Security Organisations in terms of clientele and the volume of financial transactions undertaken. It into existence with the promulgation of the Employees’ Provident Funds Ordinance on the 15th of November 1951. It was replaced by the Employees’ Provident Funds Act, of 1952.  The Employees’ Provident Funds Bill was introduced in the Parliament in the year 1952 as a Bill to provide for the institution of provident funds for employees in factories and other establishments.  The Act is now referred to as the Employees’ Provident Funds & Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 which extends to the whole of India. The Act and Schemes framed there under are administered by a tri-partite Board known as the Central Board of Trustees, Employees’ Provident Fund. The Central Board of Trustees : It consists of representatives of Government (Both Central and State), Employers, and Employees. It administers a contributory provident fund, a pension scheme and an insurance scheme for the workforce engaged in the organized sector in India.  It is assisted by the Employees’ PF Organization (EPFO), consisting of offices at 138 locations across the country. The Organization has a well-equipped training set-up where officers and employees of the Organization as well as Representatives of the Employers and Employees attend sessions for training and seminars. Vision: An innovation-driven social security organisation aiming to extend universal coverage and ensure Nirbadh (Seamless and uninterrupted) service delivery to its stakeholders through state-of-the-art technology. Schemes under EPFO:- EPF Scheme 1952 It provides for the accumulation plus interest upon retirement and death. Partial withdrawals are allowed for education, marriage, illness and house construction. Pension Scheme 1995 (EPS) It provides monthly benefits for superannuation/retirement, disability, survivor, widow(er) and children. It provides a  minimum pension on disablement. It provides past service benefits to participants of the erstwhile Family Pension Scheme, 1971. Insurance Scheme 1976 (EDLI) It provides the benefit in case of the death of an employee who was a member of the scheme at the time of death. It provides the benefit amount 20 times the wages. Maximum benefit is 6 lakhs. MUST READ: EPFO’s New Facility on UMANG App started SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Regarding ‘Atal Pension Yojana’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a minimum guaranteed pension scheme mainly targeted at unorganized sector workers. Only one member of a family can join the scheme. Same amount of pension is guaranteed for the spouse for life after the subscriber’s death. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at (2016) bringing the l entrepreneurs into a formal financial system providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating particular crops providing pensions to old and destitute people funding the voluntary organizations involved in the promotion of skill development and employment generation Upward Lightning Phenomenon Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Brazilian researchers recently succeeded in taking pictures of the Upward Lightning Phenomenon. About Upward Lightning Phenomenon:- Upward lightning is a phenomenon whereby a self-initiated lightning streak develops from a tall object that travels upward toward an overlaying electrified storm cloud. For this to happen, storm electrification and the resulting presence of a cloud charge region are enabling factors. The vertical elevation of a tall object accentuates the electric field locally on the ground, resulting in conditions favourable for the initiation of an upward streak (called a leader) from a tall object, which can also develop in response to an electric field change created by a nearby preceding lightning flash. The process is triggered by the development of the stepped leader Stepped leader: a channel of negative charge that travels downward in a zigzag pattern from a cloud, nearly invisible to the human eye) travelling to the ground in a millisecond, leading to an intensification of the positive charge on the ground. As the streaks of the stepped leader keep streaking towards the ground, the electrical charges between the leader tips and the tops of tall objects on the ground keep on increasing. In the due course, these forces cause the air above these tall buildings or towers to ionise and thereby turn more conductive. With the negative charge repeatedly moving toward the ground, the channel of air just above the tall objects turns positively charged, which starts streaking upwards and is called an upward streamer.  In due course, the negatively-charged, downward-moving stepped leader makes contact with one of the developing positively-charged upwards streamers. Upward lightning typically has a lower intensity and duration compared to downward lightning. It also has a higher frequency of occurrence during thunderstorms Risks:- Upward lightning can cause damage to structures such as buildings and towers by creating an electrical surge that can overload electrical systems and cause fires or explosions. Upward lightning can also pose a risk to aviation, particularly for planes that fly close to tall structures during thunderstorms.  This can cause electromagnetic interference, affecting communication and navigation systems. Preventions: – To prevent damage from upward lightning, lightning rods and other grounding systems can be installed on tall structures to safely dissipate the electrical charge. Additionally, electrical equipment and systems can be designed to withstand lightning strikes and power surges.  MUST READ: Lightning SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds. In the temperate Zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 DNA profiling of Elephant Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology and Environment and Ecology Context: DNA profiling of 270 captive elephants has been completed recently. About DNA profiling of Elephant:- DNA profiling is a method to differentiate between individuals of the same species using samples of their Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). DNA profiling of elephants was started in August 2022 for Gaj Soochna App.  This will act as the ‘Adhaar card of captive elephants’. Gaj Soochna: this is a mobile application developed to record the details of captive elephants across India.  The centralized database will include physical and genetic information of every captive elephant individual in the country. The DNA profiling process is being carried out in collaboration with the Wildlife Institute of India. Benefits:- The forest officers can identify each elephant and track it. Therefore its transfer, which often happens in the case of captive elephants, can be recorded. More focus can be put on elephant care with unique information about elephants. About Project Elephant:- It was launched in 1992. It is a Centrally-Sponsored Scheme. Objective: to protect elephants and improve their habitat and corridors, reduce Human-elephant conflict and ensure their welfare. Implementation: Under this project, financial and technical support is given to wildlife management efforts by states for their free-ranging populations of wild Asian Elephants. Project elephant is mainly implemented in 16 States. , Unlike Project Tiger, Project Elephant looks at the welfare and health of captive elephants as well. Conservation status of Asian Elephant:- IUCN: Endangered Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I. CITES: Appendix I MUST READ: Elephant Conservation SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements: (2020) They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body. They can be used in biochemical sensors. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements (2020) The leader of an elephant group is a female The maximum gestation period can be 22 months An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only Armed Forces (Special) Powers Act (AFSPA) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Security) Context: The Union government has extended the Armed Forces (Special) Powers Act (AFSPA) in Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland and it has been removed from several areas in Northeast India. About Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act 1958: Genesis: The genesis of the law can be traced to the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Ordinance 1942 which was enacted by the British to subjugate the rebels in the country during the Quit India movement, particularly in Assam and Bengal . The law continues to be enforced in its new format as the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act 1958. The need for the law was required in the 1950s when Naga insurgents resorted to large-scale violence. Provisions Under Section 3, the Central Government or the Governor of the State or administrator of the Union Territory can declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a disturbed area. An area can be disturbed due to differences or disputes between members of different religious, racial, language or regional groups or castes or communities. Section 4 gives the Army powers to search premises and make arrests without warrants, to use force even to the extent of causing death, destroy arms/ammunition dumps, fortifications/shelters/hideouts and to stop, search and seize any vehicle. Section 6 stipulates that arrested persons and the seized property are to be made over to the police with the least possible delay. Section 7 offers protection of persons acting in good faith in their official capacity. The prosecution is permitted only after the sanction of the Central Government. Need for the AFSPA: The Army believes that the AFSPA is extremely necessary to fight domestic insurgency and preserve the nation’s frontiers. Protection of members of the armed forces – It is essential to empower members of the military forces whose lives are continuously threatened by rebels and extremists. Its absence would negatively affect morale. The Act and Army regulations offer necessary protections, as outlined below: According to Section 5 of the Act, apprehended civilians must be delivered to the closest police station with the “least feasible delay” and a “report of the circumstances that led to the arrest.” Effective Counterinsurgency: Strong legislation is required to combat insurgent groups inside the nation, especially in Kashmir and the Northeastern area. The presence of proxy groups in troubled regions necessitates the use of extraordinary means to break this connection. As the armed services confront asymmetric warfare including raids, ambushes, mines, and explosives, extraordinary abilities are also required. Arguments against AFSPA: Violation of the Human Rights: The exercise of these extraordinary powers by armed forces has often led to allegations of fake encounters and other human rights violations by security forces in disturbed areas while questioning the indefinite imposition of AFSPA in certain states. Human rights violations in AFSPA areas are not inquired into and followed by adequate action. Thus, it is against the principle of natural justice. Violation of the right to remedy: Section 6 of the Act “immediately takes away, abrogates, frustrates the right to constitutional remedy which has been given in article 32(1) of the Constitution. AFSPA was outside the powers granted in the Constitution since it was declaring a state of emergency without following the Constitutional provisions for such a declaration. Ineffectiveness of the Act: Critics argue that this act has failed in its objective of restoring normalcy in disturbed areas although being in existence for about 50 years. Present Status: AFSPA now applicable fully only in 31 districts of 4 Northeast states and partially in 12 districts. The Act is applicable in the entire state of Jammu and Kashmir and States include Nagaland, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur. Way Forward: AFSPA is required to counter insurgencies and lack of development in the Northeast region is also a major reason for the insurgency therefore the Government should take urgent steps to create new opportunities for growth and development. However, there needs to be a comprehensive and serious periodical review undertaken by the Centre till the entire North-east is freed from the tentacles of AFSPA. Source:   Indian Express Governance of Essential Commodities under Essential Commodities Act, 1955 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: Recently, the government announced the formation of a committee to monitor the stock of tur dal held by importers, mills, stockists, and traders in order to prevent hoarding and speculation. Tur is a long-duration (180 days) pulses variety that is grown in rainfed conditions. It is grown in many states of India including Karnataka, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh etc. India meets about 10-12% of its domestic consumption through imports. About Essential Commodities: Essential commodities are not specifically defined in the Essential Commodities Act, 1955, but Section 2(A) of the act underlines that an “essential commodity” means a commodity mentioned in the Schedule of the Act. The Union government derives its power to add or remove a commodity specified in the schedule from this act. If necessary, the Central Government in consultation with state governments can notify an item as essential. Face masks and sanitisers were added to the list on March 13, 2020 in the wake of the COVID-19 outbreak. The government can control the production, supply, and distribution of the declared essential commodity and can also impose a stock limit. About Essential Commodities Act, 1955: The Centre has invoked the Essential Commodities Act of 1955 to ask States to monitor and verify the stocks available with such traders. Under the EC Act of 1955, if the Central government thinks that it is necessary to maintain or increase supplies of any essential commodity or make it available at fair prices, it can regulate or prohibit the production, supply, distribution and sale of that commodity. The Centre has the power to add or remove any commodity in public interest from this list of essential commodities. The EC (Amendment) Bill 2020: It aims to remove fears of private investors of excessive regulatory interference in their business operations. The freedom to produce, hold, move, distribute and supply will lead to harnessing economies of scale and attract private sector/foreign direct investment into the agriculture sector. It will help drive up investment in cold storages and modernization of the food supply chain. Issues Related to Essential Commodities Act 1955: The Economic Survey 2019-20 highlighted that government intervention under the ECA 1955 often distorted agricultural trade while being totally ineffective in curbing inflation. Such intervention does enable opportunities for rent-seeking and harassment. Rent-seeking is a term used by economists to describe unproductive income, including from corruption. Traders tend to buy far less than their usual capacity and farmers often suffer huge losses during surplus harvests of perishables. This led to farmers being unable to get better prices due to lack of investment in cold storage, warehouses, processing and export. Owing to these issues, the Parliament passed the Essential Commodities (Amendment) Bill, 2020. However, due to farmers’ protest the Government had to repeal this law. Way Forward: The ECA 1955 was brought when India was not self-sufficient in food grains production. However, now India has become surplus in most Agri-commodities, and the amendments to the ECA 1955 is an important step by the government to achieve its target of inflation of Agri commodities and ease of doing business in the market. Source:   Financial Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (EPFO): It is a statutory organisation It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme: It is implemented under the Ministry of Education. It is a small deposit scheme for girl children, launched as a part of the ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhao’ campaign. Parents or legal guardians can open deposits on behalf of a girl child (including an adopted girl child) for up to 2 daughters aged below 10. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) Consider the following pairs: Wetland/Lake:                      Location Vembanad lake              Tamil Nadu Asthamudi Lake              Kerala Sasthamkotta Lake         Karnataka How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’30th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 29th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 30th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 22] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – ECONOMICS, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 22->Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 29th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Daylight Saving Time (DST) Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, Lebanon saw mass confusion after its government at the last minute delayed the start of daylight saving time by a month. About Daylight Saving Time (DST):- IMAGE SOURCE: Daylight saving time – Phần 9 – THIẾT BỊ KHOA HỌC CÔNG NGHỆ (thietbikhoahoccongnghe.com.vn) It is the practice of turning the clock ahead as warmer weather approaches and back as it becomes colder again. The practice was first suggested by Benjamin Franklin in 1784. India does not follow daylight saving time as countries near the Equator do not experience high variations in daytime hours between seasons. However, people of the Northeast have demanded a separate time zone to make up for the loss of daylight hours due to the longitudinal breadth of India. Several countries, including Australia, Great Britain, Germany, and the United States, adopted Daylight Saving Time during World War I to conserve fuel by reducing the need for artificial light. A group of Canadians in Port Arthur (Ontario) were the first to adopt the practice of setting their clocks an hour ahead in 1908. Among the biggest disadvantages is the disruption of the body clock or circadian rhythm leading to health issues. SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs on the: (2022) The first half of the month of June The second half of the month of June The first half of the month of July The second half of the month of July Q.2) On 21st June, the Sun (2019) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn iDEX scheme Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: Recently, three iDEX scheme winners secured contracts from Army, Navy & Air Force. About the iDEX scheme:- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Defence. It was launched by the Government in April 2018. Objective: It aims to create an ecosystem which fosters innovation and encourages technology development in Defence by engaging R&D institutes, academia, industries, start-ups and even individual innovators. It is one of the first aims of India as a nation since Independence has been to achieve self-reliance in the field of defence and defence production. Its two founding members are Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) & Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) HAL and BEL are Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs). HAL and BEL are navratna companies. India is the world’s largest defence equipment importer. iDEX will be funded and managed by a “Defence Innovation Organisation (DIO)‟ DIO is a “not-for-profit‟ company as per Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013 for this purpose. Working:  Start-ups or individual applications are invited to provide solutions to these problems and after rigorous evaluation of the applications, winners receive innovation grants in technological areas through the prototype funding guidelines called Support for Prototype and Research Kickstart (SPARK). iDEX has partnered with leading incubators in the country to provide hand-holding, technical support and guidance to the winners of iDEX challenges. MUST READ: Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) Prime SOURCE: BUISINESSLINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Bauxite Certified Reference Material (CRM) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, NALCO-BARC Released India’s 1st Bauxite Certified Reference Material (CRM). About Bauxite Certified Reference Material (CRM):- CRMs are blocks of metal that come with certificates indicating the concentration of their various constituent elements along with their uncertainty levels. CRMs are used as calibration standards for analytical methods, instrument performance evaluation, and data quality control in routine analysis of bauxite. The CRM was certified for nine property values – Al2O3, Fe2O3, SiO2, TiO2, V2O5, MnO, Cr2O3, MgO and LOI which are traceable to the international system of units. NALCO-BARC Released India’s 1st Bauxite Certified Reference Material (CRM). This is the first of its kind CRM in India and 5th in the World. It is developed by NALCO in joint collaboration with Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC). It has been named BARC B1201. The CRM will serve as a standard for bauxite testing and analysis, ensuring greater accuracy and consistency in testing. It exemplifies India’s commitment to building a robust and dependable testing infrastructure for critical raw materials, which is critical for the country’s economic growth and development. The National Centre for Certified Reference Materials (NCCRM), a division of India’s National Physical Laboratory, has certified the bauxite CRM (NPL). The certification process included extensive testing and analysis to ensure the CRM meets the highest accuracy and reliability standards. National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO):- It was established in 1981. It works under the Ministry of Mines, Govt. of India. It is a Schedule ‘A’ Navratna CPSE. It has a registered office in Bhubaneswar.  It is one of the largest integrated Bauxite-Alumina-Aluminium- Power Complex in the Country. It is the country’s leading manufacturer and exporter of alumina and aluminium. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre ( BARC ) It is under the  Department of Atomic Energy, Government of India. It is a multi-disciplinary research centre with extensive infrastructure for advanced research and development covering the entire spectrum of nuclear science, chemical engineering, material sciences and metallurgy, electronic instrumentation, biology and medicine, supercomputing, high-energy physics and plasma physics and associated research for Indian nuclear programme and related areas. Background:- Dr Homi Jehangir Bhabha conceived the Nuclear Program in India and established the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR) for carrying out nuclear science research in 1945. To intensify the effort to exploit nuclear energy for the benefit of the nation, Dr Bhabha established the Atomic Energy Establishment, Trombay (AEET) in 1954 for a multidisciplinary research program essential for the ambitious nuclear program of India. AEET was renamed Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) after the demise of Bhabha in 1966. Important Research Reactors in BARC:- Apsara-U (Apsara-Upgraded): indigenously developed Low Enriched Uranium (LEU) fuel in Uranium Silicide form is used in the reactor. APSARA was the first research reactor in Asia to achieve criticality. ZERLINA was a 100 Watt thermal reactor based on natural uranium metallic fuel and heavy water as both moderator and coolant. CIRUS reactor (40 MWth) was built in collaboration with Canada and was commissioned in 1960. DHRUVA was conceived in the 1970s out of the need for a research reactor with higher neutron flux for research in basic sciences in addition to a growing demand for radioisotopes and advanced. PURNIMA-I was the first experimental fast reactor built in BARC with Plutonium Oxide as the fuel. PURNIMA-II was a 100 mW experimental thermal reactor in BARC that achieved criticality in 1984. PURNIMA-III was another 233U based 1 W thermal reactor built in BARC intended for mockup studies for the KAMINI reactor. Critical Facility for Advanced Heavy Water Reactor (AHWR-CF) MUST READ: Mali Parbat bauxite mine SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following minerals: (2020) Bentonite Chromite Kyanite Sillimanite In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2013) Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma. Dharwars are famous for petroleum. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 None Project Green Wall Syllabus Prelims –Geography and Environment and Ecology Context: Afforestation Project Green Wall has been launched to revive the Aravallis recently. About Project Green Wall:- IMAGE SOURCE: La muraglia verde africana: a che punto siamo – TimeForAfrica The Haryana government recently launched an extensive afforestation and plantation project called the “Green Wall” in 75 villages . Aim: to revive the Aravallis that is under threat from rampant mining, dumping of waste and encroachments. The Aravalli range, has lost so much green cover that it is losing its ability to act as a natural barrier against the heat and dust that blows in from the west. The greener it remains, the less likely that the desert will expand into the rest of the Indian landmass. The project, was conceptualised on the lines of the African Green Wall programme. African Green Wall programme was launched in 2007 by the African Union Aim: to restore Africa’s degraded landscapes and transform millions of lives in one of the world’s poorest regions( the Sahel). It aimed to increase the amount of arable land It was an initiative launched in the Sahel, the region bordering Africa’s Sahara Desert. It is a symbol of hope in the face of one of the biggest challenges of our time which is called desertification. Objectives:- Grow economic opportunities for the world’s youngest population Grow food security for the millions that go hungry every day Grow climate resilience in a region The GGW goals will also contribute to 15 of the 17 UN-mandated Sustainable Development Goals. It will also contribute to the implementation of the post-2020 global biodiversity framework About Aravalli Hills:- IMAGE SOURCE: Aravalli Range – My Udaipur City They lie in Northwestern India. They are one of the oldest fold mountains of the world, now forming residual mountains with an elevation of 300m. to 900m. They stretch for a distance of 800 km. from Himmatnagar in Gujarat to Delhi, spanning Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Delhi. It separates western India’s Thar desert from the relatively green plains to its east.  In Rajasthan it is divided into two, main ranges – the Sambhar Sirohi Range and the Sambhar Khetri Range  They run for about 800 km between Delhi and Palanpur in Gujarat. After its formation in Archaean Era (several 100 million years ago), its summits were nourishing glaciers and several summits were probably higher than the present-day Himalayas. At the south-west extremity the range rises to over 1,000 m. Mt. Abu (1,158 m), a small hilly block lies here.             Guru Sikhar (1,722 m), the highest peak, is situated in Mt. Abu. Pipli Ghat, Dewair and Desuri pass allow movement by roads and railways. MUST READ: Land Degradation and Desertification SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following Rivers: (2019) Brahmani Nagavali Subarnarekha Vamsadhara Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats? 1 and 2 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 3 Q.2) Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries? (2013) Jordan Iraq Lebanon Syria Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only Affinity test Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: In a recent judgement , the Supreme Court held that an affinity test cannot be the litmus test to decide a caste claim. About Affinity test:- Affinity Test is used to shift through anthropological and ethnological traits to link a person to a tribe. There is the likelihood that contact with other cultures, migration and modernization would have erased the traditional characteristics of a tribe. An affinity test mandates the study and preparation of a report by authorities on caste/tribe claims based on the peculiar anthropological and ethnological traits, deities, rituals, customs, mode of marriage, death ceremonies, methods of burial of dead bodies, etc, of the particular caste or tribe and the applicants knowledge of them. Caste Claim:- Any person who claims to belong to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe or Other Backward Class has to produce a certificate to the Appointing Authority/Selection Committee/Board etc. in support of his claim . This makes him eligible for reservation and various relaxations and concessions. The Caste/Tribe/Community certificate issued by the appointing authorities in the prescribed form for SCs/STs and for OBCs is only accepted as proof in support of a candidate’s claim as belonging to the Scheduled Caste or the Scheduled Tribe or the Other Backward Class. MUST READ: Addition of Tribes in ST List SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Q.2) At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? (2021) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climatic change. Ministry of Panchayat Raj Ministry of Rural Development Ministry of Tribal Affairs Heatwaves in India Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: A recent study has said that India’s efforts to mitigate heatwaves are “legally weak, under-funded and non-transparent”. About Heatwaves in India:- IMAGE SOURCE: Heat wave in India: Heat wave grips the nation, most places under severe heat wave conditions | Skymet Weather Services In April 2022, India suffered an early spring heat wave that saw temperatures in New Delhi, topping 46 degrees Celsius. In March 2022, which witnessed extraordinary spikes in temperatures, was the hottest ever recorded. About Heatwaves:- A Heat Wave is a period of abnormally high temperatures, more than the normal maximum temperature that occurs during the summer season in the North-Western parts of India.  Heat Waves typically occur between March and June, and in some rare cases even extend till July. The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) has given the following criteria for Heat Waves : Heat Wave need not be considered till maximum temperature of a station reaches atleast 40°C for Plains and atleast 30°C for Hilly regions When normal maximum temperature of a station is less than or equal to 40°C Heat Wave Departure from normal is 5°C to 6°C Severe Heat Wave Departure from normal is 7°C or more When normal maximum temperature of a station is more than 40°C Heat Wave Departure from normal is 4°C to 5°C Severe Heat Wave Departure from normal is 6°C or more When actual maximum temperature remains 45°C or more irrespective of normal maximum temperature, heat waves should be declared. Higher daily peak temperatures and longer, more intense heat waves are becomingly increasingly frequent globally due to climate change. India too is feeling the impact of climate change in terms of increased instances of heat waves which are more intense in nature with each passing year, and have a devastating impact on human health thereby increasing the number of heat wave casualties. Impacts of Heat Waves In India:- Economic Impacts: The frequent occurrence of heat waves also adversely affects different sectors of the economy. Heatwaves also have an adverse impact on daily wage workers’ productivity, impacting the economy. Agriculture Sector: Crop yields suffer when temperatures exceed the ideal range. Across India, wheat production could be down 6-7% due to heat waves. Livestock is also vulnerable to heatwaves. Thus, milk yields in India could drop due to increased heat stress. Electricity Usage: Naturally, heatwaves impact power load. Human Mortality: Mortality due to heat waves occurs because of rising temperature, lack of public awareness programmes, and inadequate long-term mitigation measures. Food Insecurity: The concurrence of heat and drought events are causing crop production losses and tree mortality. Impact on Workers: Workers in sectors like agriculture and construction will be severely impacted in 2030 because India’s large population depends on these sectors for their livelihoods. Weaker Sections to be Specifically Affected: Heatwaves in India, have the potential to influence thousands of vulnerable and poor people who contributed very little to the climate crisis. MUST READ: Heatwaves linked to man-made climate change SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclones do not originate. What is the reason? (2015) Sea surface temperatures are low Inter-tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs Coriolis force is too weak Absence of land in those regions Operation Interflex Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, Britain and its nine partners said they are training Ukrainian military recruits under Operation Interflex. About Operation Interflex:- It is the British-led multinational military operation. Objective: to train and support the Armed Forces of Ukraine. It aims to teach weapon handling, range activity, marksmanship, fieldcraft basics, field tactics, battle casualty drills, counter explosives, the laws of armed conflict, first aid, and cyber security awareness. The operation is a part of the U.K.’s commitment of £2.3 billion for military aid and support to Ukraine. It is a successor to Operation Orbital (2015–2022). Operation Orbital: It was a British military operation to train and support the Armed Forces of Ukraine in 2015. MUST READ: FTA India and UK SOURCE:THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. “Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 ,2, and 3 Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Biotransformation Technology Syllabus  Mains – GS 3 (Environment) Context: A UK-based startup claims to have developed a Biotransformation Technology that could alter the state of plastics and make them biodegradable without leaving behind any microplastics. About Biotransformation technology: Source: polymateria Biotransformation technology is a novel approach to ensure plastics that escape refuse streams are processed efficiently and broken down. The tech was co-developed by the Imperial College in London, UK, and a Britain-based startup, Polymateria. Plastics made using this technology are given a pre-programmed time during which the manufactured material looks and feels like conventional plastics without compromising on quality. Once the product expires and is exposed to the external environment, it self-destructs and bio transforms into bioavailable wax. This wax is then consumed by microorganisms, converting waste into water, CO2, and biomass. This biotransformation technology is the world’s first that ensures polyolefins fully biodegrade in an open environment causing no microplastics. Significance for India: India is generating 3.5 billion kgs of plastic waste annually and that the per capita plastic waste generation has also doubled in the past five years. Of this, a third comes from packaging waste. A joint research project by Department of Management Studies, IIT Delhi, and Sea Movement noted that Amazon generated, nearly 210 million kgs (465 million pounds) of plastic from packaging waste in 2019. They also estimated that up to 10 million kgs (22.44 million pounds) of Amazon’s plastic packaging ended up in the world’s freshwater and marine ecosystems as pollution in the same year. Applications Food packaging and health care industries are the two prime sectors that could use this technology to reduce waste. Agriculture: Plastic mulch films are extensively used in agriculture to conserve moisture and control weed growth. Biotransformation technology can be used to develop biodegradable mulch films, reducing the environmental impact of plastic waste in the agriculture sector. Textile industry: Synthetic textiles like polyester and nylon are widely used in the textile industry and are a significant contributor to plastic waste. Biotransformation technology can be used to develop biodegradable textiles that can break down naturally, reducing the environmental impact of plastic waste in the textile industry. Automotive industry: The automotive industry is a significant consumer of plastic products, including plastic components and packaging materials. Biotransformation technology can be used to develop biodegradable plastic components and packaging materials, reducing the environmental impact of plastic waste in the automotive industry. Construction industry: Plastic products like PVC pipes and sheets are widely used in the construction industry and are a significant contributor to plastic waste. Biotransformation technology can be used to develop biodegradable plastic products for the construction industry, reducing the environmental impact of plastic waste. Steps taken by the Indian government to address the issue of plastic waste: Government introduced a plastic waste management gazette to help tackle the ever-growing plastic pollution caused by single-use plastics. In 2022, the Indian government imposed a ban on single-use plastics to bring a stop to their use in the country. The National Dashboard on Elimination of Single-Use Plastic and Plastic Waste Management brings all stakeholders together to track the progress made in eliminating single-use plastic and effectively managing such waste. An Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) portal helps in improving accountability traceability and facilitating ease of compliance reporting in relation to EPR obligations of the producers, importers, and brand-owners. India has also developed a mobile app to report single-use plastics grievances to check the sale, usage or manufacturing of single-use plastics in their area. Way Forward: Other alternatives such as coir, bagasse, rice and wheat bran, plant and agricultural residue, banana and areca leaves, jute and cloth.-based packaging could potentially cut down plastic waste. This could also build sustainability within the paper industry, and save on the import bill on ethylene solutions. Wooden packaging is yet another alternative, but that will make the packaging bulkier and increase the cost. Source:  The Hindu OneWeb Constellation Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: Recently The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) rocket carried 36 OneWeb broadband satellites toward low Earth orbit (LEO) which is a circular path about 280 miles (450 kilometers) above Earth. About OneWeb Constellation: OneWeb Constellation is a satellite-based network that aims to provide high-speed, low-latency internet connectivity worldwide. It is a collaborative project between the UK-based OneWeb Group and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), in partnership with NewSpace India Ltd(NSIL). OneWeb Satellites Connectivity: Source: https://www.electronicsweekly.com Significance: OneWeb Constellation already provides connectivity solutions in various key locations worldwide and continues to expand its network to bring more areas online. The high-speed, low-latency solutions offered by OneWeb will help connect communities, businesses, and governments around the world, demonstrating the immense potential of LEO connectivity. The constellation will bring secured solutions not only to enterprises but also to towns, villages, municipalities, and schools, including the hardest-to-reach areas across India. Advantages of OneWeb broadband: Global Coverage: Space-based broadband systems can provide coverage to even the most remote and isolated areas of the world, which is often not possible with traditional ground-based broadband systems. High Speeds: Space-based broadband systems can provide high-speed internet connectivity to users, which is crucial for many applications, such as video conferencing, cloud-based services, and real-time data transfer. Bridging the Digital Divide: Affordable and high-speed broadband connectivity to remote and underserved areas that currently lack reliable internet access will help to bridge the digital divide. Low Latency: Space-based systems can significantly reduce latency compared to traditional satellite-based systems, which can make a significant difference in many applications, such as online gaming and virtual reality. IoT and Machine-to-Machine Communication: It can support the growing number of Internet of Things (IoT) devices and enable machine-to-machine communication, which is becoming increasingly important in industries such as agriculture, transportation, and logistics Disaster Response: The system can be quickly deployed to provide emergency communication services in the aftermath of natural disasters, such as hurricanes, earthquakes, and floods thus helping to save lives and coordinate relief efforts more effectively. Scalability: Space-based broadband systems can be scaled quickly and easily to meet increasing demand, which is essential in areas experiencing rapid population growth or where there is a sudden surge in demand due to an emergency or disaster Redundancy: It can provide a redundant connection to users in areas where traditional broadband systems are unavailable, which is critical in emergency situations. Improved Connectivity for Air and Sea Travel: Low latency, high-speed of space-based broadband network can improve connectivity for air and sea travel, enabling passengers to stay connected during their journey and improving safety for ships and planes. Major challenges of space-based broadband projects: Cost of the project: Launching satellites into orbit is expensive, and the cost of building, launching, and maintaining a constellation of satellites can be very high. Technical issues: Satellites must be able to communicate with ground stations and with each other, and there are many technical challenges associated with designing, building, and operating a constellation of satellites. Orbital debris: The increasing amount of debris in space can pose a risk to satellites and their operations. Environmental concerns: The deployment of large constellations of satellites can have an impact on the space environment, potentially increasing the risk of collisions and contributing to the accumulation of orbital debris. Regulatory issues: Space-based broadband projects must comply with national and international regulations governing the use of space, including regulations related to radio frequency interference, orbital debris, and spectrum allocation. Way Forward: OneWeb will bring secured solutions not only to enterprises but also to towns, villages, municipalities and schools, including the hardest-to-reach areas across the country. Overall, the OneWeb broadband system has the potential to transform the way we connect and communicate, and make the benefits of the internet accessible to everyone, regardless of where they live or work. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Aravalli Range in India: It spreads across four states only It is one of the oldest block mountains of the world Abu is the highest peak in the range Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding iDEX scheme: It is an initiative of the Ministry of Science and Technology It aims to create an ecosystem which fosters innovation and encourages technology development in Defence Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Operation Interflex and Operation Orbital are often mentioned in news related to British-led military operations to support Ukraine Space programmes launched by NASA Humanitarian assistance by Indian govt during Turkey–Syria earthquake None of the above Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 21st March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 20th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 29th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 21] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – ECONOMICS, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 21->Click Here