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FREE MOCK TEST] IASbaba’s All India Open Mock for UPSC Prelims 2023 on 9th April (SUNDAY)

Hello Aspirants,We understand how this season might affect you… Some of you must be pouring cup after cup of chai/coffee and sitting under the study lamp to cram in every passing minute to make sure you do not miss out on anything…The restlessness and the desire to perform the best are real!But here’s one thing that you can do (some of you are already aware of this Magic Pill)This Magic Pill in layman’s language is called :- PRACTICE So, what ‘Magic’ does this Magic PILL bring in your life? Magic 1: Relieves you off the pressure of performing on that 1 day. Because your body and mind get used to the number of questions you are supposed to be attempting, the way your brain starts working while thinking of solutions, the way your heart beats when you come across something out of the unknown and then slowly starts normalizing… Basically, you are training your mind and body both to calm down… Magic 2: You learn things which you might have missed out on. Rather than learning from the same source, you get to fill in the gaps.So, who wouldn’t in their right mind want something like that….?We all want to stay one notch ahead, isn’t it?This is the right moment to turn on your engines and put all your energy in that FINAL revision and practice. To ensure that you get to experience the UPSC’s interface closely and become attuned to it, we have decided to conduct… FREE All India Mock Test on 9th April (Sunday) Register For Open Mocks More Mock Tests will happen on 30th April & 14th May The registrations and details will be announced soon! This is the right time to gain momentum that by the time you are in the examination hall, you are at peak of your performance. If you can achieve that, no one will be able to stop you from qualifying the exam. The questions of these mocks will be made by experts from the IASbaba team which have been analysing the language and trend of UPSC. Hence you can be sure that these mocks will be closest to the language and difficulty level of UPSC. Dates of the All India Mock Test 9th April 2023 Paper 1 (General Studies) 9:30 AM to 11:30 AM Paper 2 (CSAT) 2:30 PM to 4:30 PM Open Mock 2 - 30th April (Registrations & Details Soon...) Open Mock 3 - 14th May (Registrations & Details Soon...) Register For Open Mocks Modes & Language of All India Mock Test Online - (English & हिन्दी) Offline - (English & हिन्दी) Centres for All India Mock Test Delhi: 22B, Bada Bazar Marg, Above Domino’s, Near Karol Bagh Metro Station, New Delhi 110060Bengaluru: IASbaba HQ, 2nd floor, Ganapathi Circle, 80 Feet Rd, Chandra Layout, Bengaluru, Karnataka 560072Lucknow: No.B1/66, Sec J Aliganj, Near Sahoo Studio, Lucknow 226024 (Landmark: Near Mr Brown)Bhopal: 136, Near Vikramaditya College Zone -2, MP Nagar Bhopal, 462011, Madhya Pradesh* Centres are tentative, we will notify you via email if there are any changes. P.S. Since the seats are limited at any given centre, you must register soon through the following link IASbaba’s Paid Subscribers (ILP, AIPTS, Gurukul, FC, TLP Connect) need not register or take the Open Mock. Register For Open Mocks Are you ready?All the very best!

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Commission for the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources (CCAMLR) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Minister of state (independent charge) for science and technology and earth science stated that India will continue to support the efforts of the Commission for the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources (CCAMLR). About the Commission for the Commission for the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources (CCAMLR):-Background:– It was established by an international convention in 1982 with the objective of conserving Antarctic marine life. Objective:-Based on the best available scientific information, the Commission agrees to a set of conservation measures that determine the use of marine living resources in the Antarctic. It is an international commission with 27 Members. Important members: Australia, Brazil, China, EU, Japan, UK, USAetc 10 countries have acceded to the Convention so far. India is a member of the convention. The CAMLR Convention entered into force on 7 April 1982. CCAMLR’s Secretariat is located in Hobart, Tasmania, Australia. CCAMLR’s programs of research, monitoring and the application of conservation measures in the Convention Area make a valuable contribution to Antarctic conservation. About United Nations 30×30 Framework:- It is a landmark agreement adopted by the UN Biodiversity Conference, COP15. COP15:- It was held in Montreal, Canada. It was originally set to be held in Kunming, China, in 2020 but was postponed due to the COVID-19 pandemic. United Nations 30×30 Framework aims to protect 30 per cent of the planet’s lands, coastal areas and inland waters by 2030. The United Nations has designated the next 10 years “The Decade on Restoration” to halt ecosystem degradation. The 30×30 goal is particularly urgent because it’s easier to protect an environment from destruction than it is to regenerate an environment that’s already been degraded. An estimated 16.44% of land worldwide is currently protected, along with 7.74% of the ocean, according to the United Nations. Roughly three-quarters of all land environments and two-thirds of the ocean have been heavily degraded by human activities according to reports. The 30% conservation goal gives the planet a chance to recover and could protect millions of species from extinction. The countries can protect 30% of their land and marine spaces through legislation. MUST READ: Conserving Marine Resources and BIMSTEC & Maritime Protection SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations? (2022) Restoration of damaged coral reefs Development of building materials using plant residues Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas Earth Hour Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: About Earth Hour:- Earth Hour famously began in Sydney, Australia back in 2007. It is an annual initiative of the World Wildlife Fund for Nature (WWF). Earth Hour is held every year on the last Saturday of March. It encourages people from more than 180 countries to switch off the lights from 8.30 pm to 9.30 pm as per their local time. Objective: to encourage individuals, households, communities and businesses to take accountability for their ecological footprint and engage in a dialogue on finding real solutions to challenges like climate change, biodiversity loss and environmental degradation as a whole. The 2023 edition of this worldwide movement, organised by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), has been scheduled for 8:30-9:30 p.m. on Saturday, March 25. Interestingly, every year on March 20-21, Earth’s northern and southern hemispheres witness the equinox. Equinox: it is an astronomical event that causes both hemispheres to experience nearly equal hours of day and night. This leads to near coincidental sunset times in both hemispheres, thereby ensuring a compelling visual impact for a global ‘lights out event’. This is a major reason to celebrate Earth Hour towards the end of March. About World Wildlife Fund for Nature (WWF):- It is the world’s leading conservation organization and works in more than 100 countries. It was established in 1961. It is headquartered in Gland, Switzerland. Initiatives of WWF:- TX2 Goal TRAFFIC Living Planet Report MUST READ: Energy Security SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as the 2020 Tree City of the World Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for recognition for a year following its commitment to growing and maintaining the Urban forests. (2021) Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1 Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct. Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct. Q.2) The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for(2021) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit of time Gymnothorax tamilnaduensis Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a new species of eel Gy mnothorax tamilnaduensis has been discovered. About Gymnothorax tamilnaduensis:- The researchers have discovered a new species of Moray eel at the Mudasalodai fish landing centre off the Cuddalore coast. The species has been named after Tamil Nadu as Gymnothorax tamilnaduensis with a common name as Tamil Nadu brown moray. The new species are notably different from its known Indian water congeners (organisms of the same genus) by having a series of lines of small dark spots present on the head and a single line of black spots on the midline of the body. About 28 species of Gymnothorax have been documented in Indian waters so far.  The species discovered off the Cuddalore coast represents India and increases the total amount of species of Gymnothorax to 29.  The present description is also the first new species of the genus Gymnothorax from the south-eastern coast of the Bay of Bengal. The holotype of this new species has also been deposited at the National Fish Museum and repository of ICAR-NBFGR, Lucknow. The name of the species has been registered in ZooBank. ZooBank: it is the online registration system for the International Commission on Zoological Nomenclature (ICZN) MUST READ: Mumbai blind eel SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following kinds of organisms: (2021) Copepods Cyanobacteria Diatoms Foraminifera Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans? 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) Which one of the following is a filter feeder? (2021) Catfish Octopus Oyster Pelican Sanjay Gandhi National Park Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, four tiger cubs were born in Mumbai’s Sanjay Gandhi National Park after 13 years. About Sanjay Gandhi National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: Sanjay Gandhi National Park Well known national park in Mumbai , India | Popular travel destination in Maharashtra | Mumbai Orbit It is a protected area near Mumbai in Maharashtra. It was formerly known as Borivali National Park. It was renamed to its present name in 1996, after Sanjay Gandhi. Sanjay Gandhi: he was the eldest son of former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. It is part of the Western Ghats’ biodiversity. It forms roughly 20.5% of Mumbai’s geographical area. Kanheri Caves is situated within a national park It is a 2000-year-old complex of some 160 rock-cut caves. It was an important Buddhist learning centre It is a protected archaeological site. The name Kanheri is derived from ‘Kanhagiri’ in Prakrit . It occurs in the Nasik inscription of the Satavahana ruler Vasisthiputra Pulumavi. Kanheri was mentioned in the travelogues of foreign travellers. The earliest reference of Kanheri is ascribed to Fa-Hein who visited India during 399-411 CE and later by several other travellers. These excavations were primarily undertaken during the Hinayana phase of Buddhism but also has several examples of the Mahayana stylistic architecture as well as   few printings of the Vajrayana order. MUST READ: Silent Valley National Park SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements is correct? (2020) It is spread over two districts. There is no human habitation inside the Park. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Guilt by association doctrine Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Supreme Court on Friday restored the doctrine of “guilt by association” in criminal jurisprudence in India About Guilt by association doctrine:- It is also known as the association fallacy. It is officially defined as “guilt ascribed to someone not because of any evidence, but because of their association with an offender.” Thus, an individual can face criticism or backlash as a result of their likeness to an existing group or entity. Conversely, honour by association describes a situation where someone is lauded as a result of their affiliation with groups that are perceived in a positive light. The Supreme Court restored the doctrine of “guilt by association” in criminal jurisprudence in India.  It overruled a bunch of its 2011 judgments and declared that mere membership of a banned organisation will be a crime under the country’s anti-terror law — Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), 1967 About the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act,1967: It is an Indian law aimed at the prevention of unlawful activity and associations in India. Its main objective was to make powers available for dealing with activities directed against the integrity and sovereignty of India. The most recent amendment of the law, the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019 (UAPA2019). It has made it possible for the Union Government to designate individuals as terrorists without following any formal judicial process. MUST READ: Misuse of UAPA and Increase in arrests under UAPA Act SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?(2019) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers Absence of restraint Opportunity to do whatever one likes Opportunity to develop oneself fully Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Vikas Yojna (PMJVM) Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the government made a statement in Lok Sabha saying that it is providing 15 lakh rupees per Van Dhan Vikas Kendra (VDVK) under the Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Vikas Yojna (PMJVM). About Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Vikas Yojna:- IMAGE SOURCE: Van Dhan Vikas Yojana – Empowering Tribals across India – Speak loud with your Brand (inc91.com) It was launched in 2018. Objective: it seeks to improve tribal incomes through the value addition of tribal products. The scheme will be implemented through the Ministry of Tribal Affairs as Nodal Department.  Tribal Co-Operative Marketing Development Federation of India Limited (TRIFED) will be the Nodal Agency at the National Level. TRIFED was established in 1987 under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 1984 by the Government of India as a National level Cooperative body. It was under the administrative control of the then Ministry of Welfare of India.  Objective: as a market developer and service provider, the objective of TRIFED is socio-economic development of tribal people in the country by way of marketing development of the tribal products At the State level, the State Nodal Agency for MFPs and the District collectors are envisaged to play a pivot role in scheme implementation at the grassroots level. Locally the Kendras are proposed to be managed by a Managing Committee (an SHG) consisting of representatives of Van Dhan SHGs in the cluster. A typical Van Dhan Vikas Kendra constitutes 10 tribal Van Dhan Vikas Self Help Groups (SHG), each comprising of upto 30 MFP gatherers or tribal handicraft artisans i.e. about 300 beneficiaries per Kendra. MUST READ: Forest (Conservation) Rules, 2022 SOURCE: NEWSONAIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019) PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG mstatus. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Biodiversity heritage site Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Gandhamardan hills were named the third biodiversity heritage site in Odisha recently. About Gandhamardan hill:- The Gandhamardan hill (Gandhamardan Reserve Forest) spreads in Bargarh and Balangir districts in Odisha. This ecologically fragile ecosystem is rich in floral and faunal diversity and is protected under the Odisha Biodiversity Rules,2012. About Biodiversity heritage site:- These are well-defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems. They have a high diversity of wild and domesticated species, the presence of rare and threatened species, and keystone species. Under Section 37 of Biological Diversity Act, 2002 the State Government in consultation with local bodies may notify the areas of biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites. They may comprise of any one or more of the following components:- richness of wild as well as domesticated species or intra-specific categories high endemism presence of rare and threatened species keystone species species of evolutionary significance wild ancestors of domestic/cultivated species or their varieties past pre-eminence of biological components represented by fossil beds having significant cultural, ethical or aesthetic values; important for the maintenance of cultural diversity (with or without a long history of human association with them) Biodiversity Heritage Site in India:- There are 36 Biodiversity Heritage Site in India. Some of them are as follows:- Biodiversity Heritage Site (BHS)                     District/State Nallur Tamarind Grove                          Karnataka Hogrekan                                                 Karnataka University of Agricultural Sciences      Karnataka Ambaraguda                                             Karnataka Glory of Allapalli                                      Maharashtra Tonglu BHS and Dhotrey BHS under the Darjeeling Forest Division  -Darjeeling,    West Bengal Mandasaru                                              Odisha Dialong Village                                       Manipur Ameenpur lake                                      Telangana Majuli                                                       Assam Gharial Rehabilitation Centre             Uttar Pradesh Chilkigarh Kanak Durga                      West Bengal Purvatali Rai                                           Goa Naro Hills                                               Madhya Pradesh Asramam                                                Kerala Schistura Hiranyakeshi                       Maharashtra Arittapatti                                               Tamilnadu MUST READ: 1st Biodiversity Heritage site in TN SOURCE:HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve? (2019) Nayyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and NagarjunasagarSrisailam Tiger Reserve Q.2) Consider the following statements (2018) The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the forest rights act 2006 For the first time in India, Baigas have been given habitat rights Union Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Depleted Uranium Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, UK committed to provide weapons containing depleted uranium to Ukraine. About Depleted Uranium:- It is a by-product of the process of creating enriched uranium, which is used in nuclear reactors and nuclear weapons. In comparison to enriched uranium, depleted uranium is much less radioactive. It is incapable of generating a nuclear reaction. It is denser than lead.  It is thus ,widely used in weapons as it can easily penetrate armour plating.  Apart from the US, Britain, Russia, China, France and Pakistan produce uranium weapons. These are not classified as nuclear weapons, as per the International Coalition to Ban Uranium Weapons. the International Coalition to Ban Uranium Weapons(ICBUW):- It coordinates campaigning against Depleted Uranium ammunition worldwide within the framework of the United Nations. In particular, the campaign is supported by the IPPNW (International Doctors for the Prevention of Nuclear War) and the IALANA (Lawyers Against Atomic, Biological and Chemical Weapons). It was  established in 2003 in Berlaar, Belgium. It has had special consultative status with the UN Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) since 2005. The Coalition provides the framework for dealing with all aspects of the uranium weapons issue and seeks to bring peace, human rights and environmental movements closer together on this issue. The aim of the coalition is to ban DU weapons, eliminate the environmental damage caused by uranium weapons use, help the victims, and prevent future damage from such weapons and actions. The coalition is open to NGOs, groups and individuals who wish to contribute to the realization of their goals. Ingesting or inhaling them depresses renal function and raises the risk of developing a range of cancers. Depleted uranium munitions which miss their target can poison groundwater and soil. MUST READ: Iran nuclear Programme SOURCE:INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Monazite is a source of rare earths. Monazite contains thorium. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following minerals (2020) Bentonite Chromite Kyanite Sillimanite In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only Status of Smart Cities Mission Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Minister of State for Housing and Urban Affairs recently informed Lok Sabha that the implementation period of the Smart City Mission had been extended upto June 2023. About Smart Cities Mission (SCM): It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched in 2015. It will cover 100 cities and is being implemented by the Ministry Housing and Urban Affairs and all state and union territory (UT) governments. It initially aimed to be completed by 2019-20 but has since been extended. The projects were supposed to be completed within five years of the selection of the city, but in 2021 the Ministry changed the deadline for all cities to June 2023. As of March 2023, the 100 cities have issued work orders for 7,799 projects. Out of these, 5,399 projects have been completed, and the rest are ongoing. Only around 20 cities are likely to meet the June deadline; the rest will need more time. Significance: India is the world’s second-most populous nation. 31% of India’s present population and contribute around 63% of GDP (Census 2011). Urban areas are anticipated to house 40% of India’s people and contribute around 75% of India’s GDP by the year 2030. To promote cities that provide core infrastructure and give a decent quality of life to their citizens, a clean and sustainable environment and application of ‘Smart’ Solutions. Make Cities liveable, inclusive, sustainable (Area-based development). Create employment opportunities. Integrated Command and Control Centres: All 100 cities have also constructed Integrated Command and Control Centres to monitor all security, emergency and civic services. During the peak of the Covid-19 pandemic, these centres were converted into emergency response units by many of the cities. Important characteristics of smart cities are: Source: https://smartcitykota.com/about/ Challenges Infrastructure development: A lot of challenges come up when a large scale infrastructure development is done. The legal set-up, inconsistency in policies and regulatory norms are the major challenges in a country like India. They affect the actual execution of projects. Financing for project: Keeping the funds and finances flowing in for the smart cities mission is a challenge. Most ULBs are not even financially self-sustainable. Getting the right finances flowing in for the completion of the project and later the maintenance of the technological developments in the smart cities can be a challenge. Technical constraints: Most of the urban local bodies have a limited technical capacity to ensure the development of the smart cities. These technical and technological limitations hinder the cost-effective and timely implementation of the smart steps. Transport: Urbanizing the public transport for urban mobility is a challenge for the government due to the inadequate transport system currently persisting in the cities. Various factors like lack of investment, high population density, zoning, and poor urban planning have been making the transit system in Indian cities inadequate. Government Initiatives to Support the SCM National Urban Digital Mission (NUDM): It will create a shared digital infrastructure for urban India. It shall work across the three pillars of people, process, and platform to provide complete support to cities and towns. National Urban Learning Platform (NULP): It aims to propagate solutions and innovations that are underway, and act as an enabler of the rapid development of diverse new solutions developed by cities and states. Ease of Living Index (EoLI): The EoLI is an assessment tool by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs that evaluates the quality of life and the impact of various initiatives for urban development in the city. India Smart Cities Awards Contest (ISAC): It was launched to reward the cities, projects and innovative ideas promoting ‘smart; development in cities. The Urban Learning Internship Programme (TULIP): TULIP is a program for providing fresh graduates with experiential learning opportunities in the urban sector. It would help enhance the value-to-market of India’s graduates and help create a potential talent pool in diverse fields like urban planning, transport engineering, environment, municipal finance etc. Way Forward: As India continues its growth trajectory, the quality of its urbanisation will become paramount to ensure that this growth is sustainable and equitable. It is imperative that the government finds a solution to overcome these challenges to see the dream project of turning more than 100 Indian cities into smart cities. There has indeed been progress on a wide variety of smart projects in the 100 cities and towns chosen under the Smart Cities Mission. The completed projects are providing social and economic benefits, especially to the marginalised sections of the populations of these cities. Source:  Indian Express Ethical Guidelines for AI in Healthcare Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 4 (Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude) Context: The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has released the country’s first Ethical Guidelines for Application of Artificial Intelligence (AI) in Biomedical Research and Healthcare. Artificial intelligence(AI): Artificial intelligence(AI) is defined as a system’s ability to correctly interpret external data and to use those learnings to achieve specific goals and tasks through flexible adaptation. AI uses complex computer algorithms to emulate human cognition albeit with far reaching capabilities of analyzing large datasets. Applications of AI in Healthcare Source: ResearchGate The induction of AI into healthcare has the potential to be the solution for significant challenges faced in the field of healthcare like diagnosis and screening, therapeutics, preventive treatments, clinical decision making, public health surveillance, complex data analysis, and predicting disease outcomes. For example, Computed Tomography (CT) scans can be automatically read by AI as well as radiologists. Tuberculosis screening can be done by AI using Chest X-Rays. As a result, AI for health has been recognized as one of the core areas by researchers as well as the governments. Key features of the guidelines: Effective and safe development, deployment, and adoption of AI-based technologies: The guidelines provide an ethical framework that can assist in the development, deployment, and adoption of AI-based solutions in healthcare and biomedical research. Accountability in case of errors: As AI technologies are further developed and applied in clinical decision making, the guidelines call for processes that discuss accountability in case of errors for safeguarding and protection. Patient-centric ethical principles: The guidelines outline 10 key patient-centric ethical principles for AI application in the health sector, including accountability and liability, autonomy, data privacy, collaboration, risk minimisation and safety, accessibility and equity, optimisation of data quality, non-discrimination and fairness, validity and trustworthiness. Human oversight: The autonomy principle ensures human oversight of the functioning and performance of the AI system. Consent and informed decision making: The guidelines call for the attainment of consent of the patient who must also be informed of the physical, psychological and social risks involved before initiating any process. Safety and risk minimisation: The safety and risk minimisation principle is aimed at preventing “unintended or deliberate misuse”, anonymised data delinked from global technology to avoid cyber-attacks, and a favourable benefit-risk assessment by an ethical committee among a host of other areas. Accessibility, equity and inclusiveness: The guidelines acknowledge that the deployment of AI technology assumes widespread availability of appropriate infrastructure and thus aims to bridge the digital divide. Relevant stakeholder involvement: The guidelines outline a brief for relevant stakeholders including researchers, clinicians/hospitals/public health system, patients, ethics committee, government regulators, and the industry. Standard practices: The guidelines call for each step of the development process to follow standard practices to make the AI-based solutions technically sound, ethically justified, and applicable to a large number of individuals with equity and fairness. Ethical review process: The ethical review process for AI in health comes under the domain of the ethics committee which assesses several factors including data source, quality, safety, anonymization, and/or data piracy, data selection biases, participant protection, payment of compensation, possibility of stigmatisation among others. Concerns with Artificial Intelligence in healthcare: Cultural Acceptance: Patients often seek assurance from doctors physically present. This creates aversion to technology diagnosing. Elderlies are found to be more averse to adopting new technology. Data Safety/ Privacy: AI systems can challenge privacy through real time collection and use of a multitude of data points that may or may not be disclosed to an individual in the form of a notice with consent taken. Hackers can exploit AI solutions to collect private and sensitive information such as Electronic Health Records. Liability: In case of error in diagnosis malfunction of a technology, or the use of inaccurate or inappropriate data the question arises of who the liability would fall upon the doctor or the software developer. Malicious use of AI: While AI has the potential to be used for good, it could also be used for malicious purposes. For example, there are fears that AI could be used for covert surveillance or screening. Effects on patients: Concerns have been raised about a loss of human contact and increased social isolation if AI technologies are used to replace staff or family time with patients. Way Forward: India has a host of frameworks that combine technological advances with healthcare, such as the Digital Health Authority for leveraging digital health technologies under the National Health Policy (2017), the Digital Information Security in Healthcare Act (DISHA) 2018, and the Medical Device Rules, 2017. As governance of AI tools is still in preliminary stages, even in developed countries. Therefore, AI cannot be held accountable for the decisions it makes, so an ethically sound policy framework is essential to guide the AI technologies development and its application in healthcare. Further, as AI technologies get further developed and applied in clinical decision making, it is important to have processes that discuss accountability in case of errors for safeguarding and protection. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Depleted Uranium: It is a by-product of the process of creating enriched uranium, which is used in nuclear reactors and nuclear weapons. In comparison to enriched uranium, depleted uranium is much less radioactive. International Coalition to Ban Uranium Weapons(ICBUW) coordinates campaigning against Depleted Uranium ammunition worldwide within the framework of the United Nations. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: Biodiversity Heritage Site (BHS) and State Gandhamardan hills – West Bengal Nallur Tamarind Grove – Karnataka Arittapatti and Meenakshipuram villages – Kerala Ameenpur lake – Telangana How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched? One pair only Two pairs only Three pairs only All four pairs Q.3) Sanjay Gandhi National Park is located in Maharashtra Gujrat West Bengal Jharkhand Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 28th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 27th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

[DAY 20] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 20-> Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 28th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Motivational Articles

How Cultivating Critical Thinking Skills Can Transform UPSC Preparation

Critical thinking is a skill that's essential in life, not just in school. It's a way of thinking that helps you make decisions and solve problems based on sound reasoning, evidence, and judgment. Annie Bosler Clearing the UPSC exam is a challenging task that requires an aspirant to possess a wide range of skills. Among them, critical thinking is one of the most crucial and sought-after skills. In the rapidly changing landscape of Indian society and governance, UPSC aspirants need to learn how to think independently and evaluate multiple perspectives. The ability to think critically is not only an asset in clearing the UPSC exam, but it is also a fundamental skill that helps individuals thrive in the complex and dynamic world.In this article, we delve deeper into the concept of critical thinking, its importance in the UPSC exam, and why it is imperative for UPSC aspirants to develop this skill to succeed. What is Critical Thinking? Critical thinking is a way of thinking that involves analyzing, evaluating, and interpreting information to make well-informed decisions. It is a cognitive process that helps individuals to question assumptions, identify biases, and consider multiple perspectives. Critical thinking enables individuals to separate facts from opinions, evaluate the credibility of sources, and make sound judgments based on evidence and reasoning Why is Critical Thinking Important for UPSC Aspirants? The UPSC exam is one of the most prestigious and competitive exams in India. The exam is designed to test the aspirant’s analytical skills, problem-solving abilities, and decision-making skills. The exam assesses the aspirant’s ability to think independently, evaluate multiple perspectives, and make well-informed decisions based on evidence and reasoning.The UPSC exam requires aspirants to analyze complex issues, identify underlying problems, and propose viable solutions. To excel in the UPSC exam, aspirants must possess the ability to think critically and apply their knowledge to real-world problems. Critical thinking enables aspirants to analyze issues objectively, seek out evidence to support their viewpoints, and develop well-informed, logical arguments that stand up to scrutiny. Developing Critical Thinking Skills To develop critical thinking skills, UPSC aspirants must learn to question assumptions, seek out evidence, and consider multiple perspectives. They must be willing to challenge popular opinions and think independently. Developing critical thinking skills requires practice and patience. Here are some tips to help UPSC aspirants develop critical thinking skills: Question Assumptions: Critical thinking begins with questioning assumptions. Aspirants must learn to question assumptions, challenge stereotypes, and consider multiple perspectives. They must be willing to examine their own biases and question their beliefs.Seek Out Evidence: Critical thinking requires evidence. Aspirants must learn to seek out reliable sources of information, evaluate the credibility of sources, and use evidence to support their arguments.Consider Multiple Perspectives: Critical thinking requires considering multiple perspectives. Aspirants must learn to see issues from different angles, evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of different viewpoints, and develop well-informed, logical arguments that stand up to scrutiny.Develop Logical Arguments: Critical thinking requires developing logical arguments. Aspirants must learn to develop well-structured arguments that are supported by evidence and reasoning. They must be able to identify the main points, evaluate the evidence, and develop a coherent argument.Embrace Intellectual Flexibility: Critical thinking requires intellectual flexibility. Aspirants must be willing to change their minds, accept new information, and consider different perspectives. They must be open to new ideas and willing to challenge their own beliefs. The Importance of Critical Thinking The ability to think critically is not only valuable in the UPSC exam but also essential in everyday life. Critical thinking enables individuals to make well-informed decisions, evaluate the credibility of sources, and navigate the complexities of the world around them. In today’s world, where information is abundant and opinions are often presented as facts, critical thinking is a crucial tool for separating truth from falsehood.Moreover, in the rapidly changing world of governance and policymaking, critical thinking is a vital skill for civil servants. Decision-makers in the civil services must be able to adapt to changing circumstances, evaluate different perspectives, and make informed decisions. By developing critical thinking skills, UPSC aspirants can enhance their ability to navigate the complex world of governance and make a meaningful contribution to society.The Value of Intellectual HumilityIntellectual humility is an essential component of critical thinking. Intellectual humility involves recognizing the limitations of one’s knowledge and being open to new ideas and perspectives. It involves a willingness to acknowledge one’s own biases and to consider different viewpoints.Developing intellectual humility requires aspirants to step out of their comfort zones and engage with diverse perspectives. It requires a willingness to listen to others, learn from them, and consider their viewpoints. Intellectual humility enables individuals to learn from others, develop new ideas, and make well-informed decisions. The Power of Critical Thinking in a Changing World Consider the story of Rahul, a UPSC aspirant who struggled with critical thinking during his preparation. One day, he attended a seminar on public policy, where he was exposed to a range of perspectives on a contentious issue. He listened carefully to each speaker, evaluated their arguments, and considered their viewpoints.After the seminar, Rahul realized the value of critical thinking in making well-informed decisions. He understood that critical thinking was not just a test-taking skill, but a way of approaching the world and engaging with information. He began to question his assumptions, seek out evidence, and consider multiple perspectives. He embraced intellectual humility, recognizing the limitations of his knowledge, and being open to new ideas and perspectives.Rahul’s experience illustrates the power of critical thinking in a changing world. As the world becomes more complex and interconnected, critical thinking is becoming increasingly important. It enables individuals to navigate the complexities of the world, evaluate the credibility of sources, and make well-informed decisions.In conclusion, critical thinking is a crucial skill for UPSC aspirants and individuals alike. It enables individuals to think independently, evaluate multiple perspectives, and make well-informed decisions based on evidence and reasoning. Developing critical thinking skills requires questioning assumptions, seeking out evidence, considering multiple perspectives, developing logical arguments, and embracing intellectual humility. By cultivating these skills, UPSC aspirants can enhance their chances of success in the exam and thrive in the complex and dynamic world of governance and policymaking.

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 27th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Finance Bill 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Finance Bill 2023 was approved with amendments. About Finance Bill 2023:- Key Highlights of the bill:- The withholding tax rate on royalties and fees for technical services paid to non-residents has been raised from 10% to 20%This may increase the cost of import of technology. Options contracts will now attract 0.021% STT from 0.017% earlier and futures will attract a levy of 0.0125%, up from 0.01% The Finance Bill has paved the way for setting up GST Appellate Tribunals across the country, with a principal bench in New Delhi and several State benches. The Tribunal will be headed by a former Supreme Court judge or a retired Chief Justice of a High Court. The stock market has seen an increase in Securities Transaction Tax (STT) on futures and options contracts from April 1, 2023. It is to discourage excessive trade in F&O. Significance of the amendment:- This increase in  STT will shore up revenues for the Government. The main idea behind this could be to discourage excessive trade in the F&O segment where a large number of retail traders end up losing money as per a recent SEBI study. An incidental effect of this could be shifting the F&O trades to SGX, Gift and other locations that do not attract such taxes for participants who have access to them. REITs (Real Estate Investment Trusts) and InvITs (Infrastructure Investment Trusts): the government has tweaked the Budget proposal to tax distribution from business trusts as income from other sources. Any amount received in excess of the issue price would be taxable as income. The draft rules related to valuation shall be shared with the stakeholders for their input in April itself, and exclusions, currently provided to domestic Venture Capital Funds etc, shall also be considered for similar overseas entities. This will impact all mutual funds that offer schemes with nomenclatures such as conservative hybrid funds, that invest predominantly in debt but have an equity exposure of up to 35% in their portfolios. An arbitrage is being created right now where interest income from a debt mutual is not distributed and converted into long-term capital gains of 20% (with indexation). Debt mutual fund: where not more than 35% is invested in shares in the domestic company. Thus many taxpayers are able to reduce their tax liability through this arbitrage. Money Bill vs Finance Bill:- A Finance Bill is a bill that deals with the country’s finances, as the name implies – it could be about taxes, government spending, government borrowings, revenues, and so on. The Union Budget is enacted as a Finance Bill because it deals with these issues. The finance bill is classified into two categories: Financial bill (I) Financial bill (II) Money Bills, as the name implies, are bills whose provisions are entirely concerned with all or any of the issues specified in Article 110(1). It includes issues such as the imposition, repeal, and regulation of taxes, the control of government borrowing, the protection of Consolidated or Contingency Funds and the influx or outflow of money from any such funds, the allocation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India, and so on. Types of Financial Bills:- Financial bills (I)–Article 117 (1) A financial bill (I) is a measure that includes not only any or all of the subjects stated in Article 110, but also other general legislative provisions. A finance bill (I) is comparable to a money bill in two ways: (a) both can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha and (b) both can be introduced only on the president’s advice. In all other ways, a finance bill (I) follows the same parliamentary procedure as an ordinary bill. Financial bills (II)–Article 117 (3) A financial bill (II) has provisions affecting Consolidated Fund of India spending but does not include any of the items enumerated in Article 110. It is considered an ordinary bill and is subject to the same parliamentary procedure as an ordinary bill in all aspects. The single distinguishing element of this bill is that it cannot be enacted by either House of Parliament unless the President has requested that the measure be considered by that House. As a result, finance bill (II) can be filed in either House of Parliament, and the President’s approval is not required. In other words, the President’s suggestion is not necessary at the introduction stage but is required during the consideration step. Either the House of Parliament has the option of rejecting or amending it. If the two Houses disagree on such a law, the President might call a joint session of the two Houses to break the stalemate. When the measure is given to the President, he can either grant his consent to it, withhold his assent to it, or return it to the Houses for reconsideration. MUST READ: Angel Tax SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India? (2022) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India LaQshya Programme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently,2,660 Labour Rooms and 1989 Maternity Operation Theatres certified facilities under the LaQshya programme conduct the sensitization/ orientation of the latest Labour Room Protocols. About ​​​​​​​LaQshya Programme:- IMAGE SOURCE: PIB LaQshya is a quality improvement initiative under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It focuses on improving the quality of care in the labour room and maternity Operation Theatre (OT). It aims to ensure Quality of Care during intrapartum and immediate post-partum periods in Labour Room and Maternity OT. It targets all Government Medical College Hospitals, District Hospitals & equivalent health facilities, designated FRUs as well as high case load CHCs. All the targeted facilities (which include 2660 Labour Rooms and 1989 Maternity Operation Theatres) for LaQshya certification and certified facilities under the LaQshya programme conduct the sensitization/ orientation of the latest Labour Room Protocols. Goal – To reduce preventable maternal and newborn mortality, morbidity and stillbirths associated with the care around delivery in the Labour room and Maternity OT and ensure respectful maternity care. Under the purview of LaQshya, one of the facility-level targets is to achieve a 5% or less Surgical Site Infection Rate in Maternity OT or at least a reduction of 30% from the baseline. At the time of LaQshya certification, compliance with the above-mentioned requirement is verified by the independent empanelled NQAS assessors. MUST READ: Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) of India SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. 3) Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The endeavour of the ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’ Programme is (2012) to promote institutional deliveries to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Khandagiri and Udaygiri caves Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently, the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) has sealed the road between Khandagiri and Udaygiri caves. About Khandagiri Udayagiri caves:- IMAGE SOURCE: Ancient India (art-and-archaeology.com) These caves had been created during the reign of Kalinga King Kharavela in the first and second centuries BC. There are both man-made and natural caves in the cave complex. Udayagiri has 18 caves and Khandagiri has 15. They were formerly known as the Kattaka Caves or Cuttack Caves. The twin hills Udayagiri and Khandagiri (Lat. 20.16 N; Long. 85.47E) are located in the vicinity of Bhubaneswar town. National Highway No.5 passes through the close proximity of the hills.  These two hills represent one of the earliest groups of Jaina rock-cut architecture in eastern India. These hills are honeycombed with excavated rock-cut caves, essentially meant for the dwelling retreats of the Jaina recluses. On the basis of inscriptional evidence, these caves were first excavated by king Kharavela of the Chedi dynasty and his successors who were devout Jainas during the first century B.C. The Jain temple on the top of the Khandagiri hill was constructed in the late 19th century and is under worship even at present, preserving the continuity and tradition of the glorious past of the hill. Ranigumpha and Swargapuri-Manchapuri caves are double-storied and the largest in size. The Rani and Hathi Gumpha in the Udayagiri has description of the culture of dance in Orissa- Odissi among others beyond the 2nd century B.C. Ranigumpha or the queen’s palace is the architectural marvel of the entire complex. Architecturally the Hathi gumpha is insignificant but its historical importance lies in the famous inscription of king Kharavela engraved on its brow. The 17-line inscription records the expeditions of king Kharavela including the victory of Magadha and the retrieval of the Jaina cult image taken away by the Nanda king long before. The depiction of 24 Tirthankaras along with Sasanadevis in the Barabhuji cave, Surya Gajalaksmi and Jaina symbols in the Ananta Gumpha of Khandagiri in relief are a notable achievement of early medieval Indian art. Besides, remains of an apsidal structure were unearthed in 1958 atop the Udayagiri is the first earliest structure of its kind in eastern India. MUST READ: Ancient rock paintings SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts: (2022) Nettipakarana Parishishtaparvan Avadanashataka Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina’s texts 1,2 and 3 2 and 4 only 1,3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2021) Historical place                 Well-known for Burzahom                   Rock-cut shrines Chandraketugarh       Terracotta art Ganeshwar                 Copper artefacts Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 New Development Bank (NDB) Syllabus Prelims –International Relations and Economy Context: Former Brazilian President Dilma Rousseff has been “unanimously elected” as the head of the New Development Bank (NDB) recently. About New Development Bank (NDB):- IMAGE SOURCE: BRICS Culture Ministers Meeting (10pointer.com) IMAGE SOURCE: ndb BRICS countries – Bing It is a multilateral financial institution set up by the five BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) It was founded at the 6th BRICS Summit in Fortaleza, Brazil in 2014. Objective: It was formed to support infrastructure and sustainable development efforts in BRICS and other underserved, emerging economies for faster development through innovation and cutting-edge technology. It is headquartered in Shanghai, China. The NDB President is elected on a rotational basis from one of the founding members. K. V. Kamath, from India, is the first elected president of the NDB. The New Development Bank has an initial subscribed capital of US$50 billion and an initial authorized capital of US$100 billion. The initial subscribed capital is equally distributed among the founding members. The five founding members of the Bank include Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. The Bank’s Articles of Agreement specify that all members of the United Nations could be members of the bank. However, the share of the BRICS nations can never be less than 55% of the voting power. The NDB’s credit rating is AA+. Major Projects funded by NDB in India:- Mumbai Metro rail Delhi-Ghaziabad-Meerut Regional Rapid Transit System and many Renewable Energy projects. The NDB has so far approved 14 Indian projects for an amount of nearly USD 4.2 billion. In 2020, India announced a 1 billion USD loan pact with NDB to boost rural employment and infrastructure. MUST READ: BRICS SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of:(2015) ASEAN BRICS OECD WTO Q.2) With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements: (2014) The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Hopi site in Arizona Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a sacred Hopi site in Arizona was awarded the ICOMOS Water and Heritage Shield. About the Hopi site in Arizona:- IMAGE SOURCE: Looming power plant closure leaves Hopi seeking new energy and revenue sources – Medill Reports Chicago (northwestern.edu) It is located in northeastern Arizona. It encompasses lands that the Hopi people have inhabited for more than a thousand years. Hopi shrines and sacred sites are essential in the practice of the Hopi religion. Without them, the Hopi people cannot fulfil their religious obligation to serve as stewards of the land. About International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS):- ICOMOS is a non-governmental international organisation. It is dedicated to the conservation of the world’s monuments and sites. The International Secretariat is located at the headquarters of ICOMOS in Greater Paris. It is the only global non-government organisation of this kind, which is dedicated to promoting the application of theory, methodology, and scientific techniques to the conservation of architectural and archaeological heritage. ICOMOS is a network of experts that benefits from the interdisciplinary exchange of its members, among which are architects, historians, archaeologists, art historians, geographers, anthropologists, engineers and town planners. The members contribute to improving the preservation of heritage, the standards and the techniques for each type of cultural heritage property: buildings, historic cities, cultural landscapes and archaeological sites The members of ICOMOS  (December 2020):- 10 489 Individual Members in 151 countries 248 Institutional Members 104 National Committees 30 International Scientific Committees Mission:- support the development of ICOMOS’s network. disseminate knowledge about heritage conservation, notably through its Documentation Centre. provide advisory and evaluation services to State Parties required for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention. MUST READ: UNESCO Heritage Sites in Maharashtra SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora river. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal river. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada river. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari river. Q.2) What is/are common to the two historical places known as Ajanta and Mahabalipuram? (2016) Both were built in the same period. Both belong to the same religious denomination. Both have rock-cut monuments. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only None of the statements given above is correct Terran 1 Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, ‘the world’s first 3D-printed rocket Terran 1 launched successfully on its third attempt failed to achieve orbit during second-stage separation. About Terran 1:- It is the world’s first 3D-printed rocket. It is an expendable two-stage small-lift launch vehicle. It is developed by Relativity Space, a private sector company It’s 85% 3D-printed except for moving parts such as rubber seals, computers, and electrical circuitry. Objective: to show that the 3D-printed vehicle can endure Max Q or maximum dynamic pressure condition. Max Q: a condition that happens during the first few minutes of flight when the rocket is exposed to the greatest forces and stresses. It passed max q and reached space but failed to achieve Low Earth Orbit due to a failure of the second stage. It is powered by Aeon engines using liquid oxygen and liquid natural gas as propellants. It has nine 3D-printed Aeon 1 engines in its first stage and one 3D-printed Aeon Vacuum engine in its second stage. The rocket will eventually be capable of putting up to 2,755 pounds (1,250 kilograms) into low Earth orbit.   MUST READ: LVM3-M2 rocket SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change The gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in a straight line The speed of light is always the same Arudhra and DR-118 RWR Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the MoD inked Rs 3,700 crore contracts with BEL for Medium Power Radars ‘Arudhra’ & 129 DR-118 Radar Warning Receivers. About Arudhra:- The radar has been indigenously designed. It is developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and will be manufactured by BEL. Its successful trials have already been conducted by the Indian Air Force.  It is a 4D multi-function phased array radar with electronic steering in both azimuth and elevation for surveillance, detection and tracking of aerial targets. The system will have target identification based on interrogations from co-located Identification Friend or Foe system. The project will act as a catalyst for the development of manufacturing capability in the industrial ecosystem. About DR-118 RWR:- The DR-118 Radar Warning Receiver is a Radar Warning Receiver. It will considerably enhance the Electronic Warfare (EW) capabilities of Su-30 MKI aircraft. Majority of sub-assemblies and parts will be sourced from indigenous manufacturers. Significance:- The project will boost and encourage active participation of Indian Electronics and associated industries, including MSMEs. It will generate employment of approx. two lakh man-days over a period of three and half years. The DR-118 RWR is a significant leap forward in developing indigenous EW capabilities and making the country ‘Aatmanirbharta’ in defence. MUST READ: Smart anti-airfield weapon and Atmanirbhar Bharat 3.0 SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) In The context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements : (2019) In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from the computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of a smartphone or PC. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing a complete immersion experience. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 4 only Understanding IMF bailouts Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: International Monetary Fund (IMF) recently confirmed a $3 billion bailout plan for Sri Lanka’s struggling economy. Bailout is a general term for extending financial support to a company or a country facing a potential bankruptcy threat. It can take the form of loans, cash, bonds, or stock purchases. A bailout may or may not require reimbursement and is often accompanied by greater government oversee and regulations. About International Monetary Fund (IMF): Source: IMF  IMF was set up in 1945 out of the Bretton Woods conference. It is governed by and accountable to the 190 countries that make up its near-global membership. Headquartered in Washington, D.C. India became a member in December 1945. Publications: World Economic Outlook Global Financial Stability Report Fiscal Monitor Global Policy Agenda When a country borrows from the IMF, the government agrees to adjust its economic policies to overcome the problems that led it to seek financial assistance. These policy adjustments are conditions for IMF loans and help to ensure that the country adopts strong and effective policies. Functions of IMF Financial assistance: Providing loans to member countries that are experiencing actual or potential balance-of-payments problems is a core responsibility of the IMF. Surveillance: In order to maintain stability and prevent crises in the international monetary system, the IMF monitors member country policies as well as national, regional, and global economic and financial developments through a formal system known as surveillance. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs): The IMF issues an international reserve asset known as Special Drawing Rights, or SDRs, that can supplement the official reserves of member countries participating in the SDR Department (currently all members of the IMF). Resources: Member quotas are the primary source of IMF financial resources. A member’s quota broadly reflects its size and position in the world economy. The IMF regularly conducts general reviews of quotas. IMF Members: Any other state, whether or not a member of the UN, may become a member of the IMF in accordance with IMF Articles of Agreement and terms prescribed by the Board of Governors. Membership in the IMF is a prerequisite to membership in the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development. Reasons for nations seeking an IMF bailout: Countries seek help from the IMF usually when their economies face a major macroeconomic risk, mostly in the form of a currency crisis. For instance in the case of Sri Lanka and Pakistan, both countries have witnessed domestic prices rise rapidly and the exchange value of their currencies drop steeply against the U.S. dollar. A rapid, unpredictable fall in the value of a currency can destroy confidence in said currency and affect economic activity as people may turn hesitant to accept the currency in exchange for goods and services. When a country’s domestic economic policies can also have an adverse impact on its currency’s exchange rate and foreign exchange reserves. For example, economic policy that imperils productivity can affect a country’s ability to attract the necessary foreign exchange for its survival. In the case of Sri Lanka, a decrease in foreign tourists visiting the country led to a steep fall in the flow of U.S. dollars into the nation. Conditions laid out by IMF for recent bail-out The IMF is willing to support Sri Lanka but has some conditions regarding macroeconomic reforms. It wants Sri Lanka to be transparent about its debt situation. The IMF usually imposes conditions on countries before it lends any money to them. For example, a country may have to agree to implement certain structural reforms as a condition to receive IMF loans. The IMF’s conditional lending has been controversial as many believe that these reforms are too tough on the public. Some have also accused the IMF’s lending decisions, which are taken by officials appointed by the governments of various countries, to be influenced by international politics. Supporters of the IMF’s lending policies, however, have argued that conditions are essential for the success of IMF lending. For one, countries that seek an IMF bailout are usually in a crisis due to certain policies adopted by their governments that turned out to be inimical to economic growth and stability. It may thus not make sense for the IMF to throw money at a country when the policies that caused its crisis remain untouched. So, for instance, the IMF may demand a country affected by high price inflation to ensure the independence of its central bank. The IMF basically lends money, often in the form of special drawing rights (SDRs), to troubled economies that seek the lender’s assistance. SDRs simply represent a basket of five currencies, namely the U.S. dollar, the euro, the Chinese yuan, the Japanese yen, and the British pound. Way Forward: IMF’s stated mission is working to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and reduce poverty around the world. Therefore, It is important for the Government of Sri Lanka in collaboration with the IMF to work for the betterment of its economic and fiscal situation while securing transparency.  Source:  The Hindu Extradition of fugitive economic offenders Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: India has called upon G20 countries to adopt multilateral action for faster extradition of fugitive economic offenders and recovery of assets both on domestic front as well as from abroad, during the first anti-corruption working group meeting in Delhi. About India’s Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018: India has put in place specialized legislation in the form of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018. The ‘fugitive economic offender’ (FEO) is defined as an individual against whom a warrant of arrest in relation to scheduled offence has been issued by any court in India and who has left the country so as to avoid criminal prosecution; or the FEO abroad, refuses to return to face criminal prosecution. The Act aims to help confiscate assets of high-value economic offenders absconding from India till they submit to the jurisdiction of the appropriate legal forum. Salient features of the act: Its purpose is to take the assets of economic criminals who have left the country to escape prosecution or refuse to return to face charges. Statement of FEO: After hearing the application, a special court (created under the PMLA, 2002) may designate someone as a fugitive economic offender. It has the right to take any property, whether in India or abroad, including Benami assets and criminal gains. Upon confiscation, the central government will become the only owner and own all rights and titles to the property (such as any charges on the property). Prohibition Against Filing or Defending Civil Claims: The Act permits any civil court or tribunal to bar a designated fugitive economic offender from filing or defending any civil claim. Significance of the act: Recovering Loan Defaults: The key provision of confiscation of properties of fugitive economic offenders has helped in recovering loan defaults, which has been a major problem for Indian banks. For instance, in 2019, the Enforcement Directorate (ED) confiscated assets worth over Rs 18,000 crore belonging to fugitive economic offender Vijay Mallya. This helped in recovering a significant portion of the loans owed by him to Indian banks. International Cooperation: The act provides a mechanism for international cooperation in the investigation and prosecution of economic offenses. This has helped in the extradition of economic offenders who have fled the country. For instance, fugitive economic offender Nirav Modi was arrested in the UK and is currently facing extradition to India for his alleged involvement in the PNB scam. Transparency and Accountability: The act has helped in bringing transparency and accountability to the Indian banking sector by ensuring that economic offenders are held responsible for their actions. For instance, the act requires economic offenders to disclose all their assets, which helps in tracking and confiscating their properties. A deterrence for Economic Offenders: The act has acted as a strong deterrence for economic offenders from absconding. In the past, many economic offenders fled the country to escape prosecution, leaving Indian banks to suffer significant losses. Criticisms of the Act: Under the Act, any court or tribunal may prohibit FEO from initiating or defending civil cases in its court or tribunal. It seems that excluding these individuals from initiating or defending civil claims would violate Article 21 of the Constitution, which protects the right to life. The property of an FEO may be seized and transferred to the central government. It permits the Special Court to exclude properties in which third parties may have an interest (e.g., secured creditors). It does not define, however, whether the central government would split sale revenues with other claimants who do not have such an interest, e.g., those who do not own the land (secured creditors). Before conducting a search, the Act does not require authorities to acquire a search warrant or verify the presence of witnesses. Other statutes, such as the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973, incorporate comparable protections. These measures provide protection against harassment and abuses such as evidence planting. It permits the forfeiture of an FEO’s property. This varies from other regulations, such as the Criminal Procedure Code of 1973, where confiscation is final two years after an absconder is declared. The time period ensures due process without jeopardizing the defendant’s legal interests. Way Forward: Thus the government can consider introducing measures to ensure that the act is not misused, providing greater clarity on the definition of economic offenses, and improving the efficiency of the legal system to ensure speedy trials. India can improve transparency and accountability in its financial system to prevent FEOs from exploiting loopholes and engaging in illegal activities. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: All money bills are financial bills, but not all financial bills are money bills. A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the matters mentioned in the article 112 of the constitution. The President of India is authorised to decide whether the Bill is a Money Bill or not. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 only 1 and 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Khandagiri Udayagiri caves: These caves are located near Pune, Maharashtra These caves built by the Kalinga emperor Kharavela in first century B.C. The Rani and Hathi Gumpha in the Udayagiri has description of the culture of Odissi. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the International Council on Monuments and Sites (ICOMOS): ICOMOS is a United Nations specialised organisation. It is the only global organisation, which is dedicated to promoting the application of theory, methodology, and scientific techniques to the conservation of architectural and archaeological heritage. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 27th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 25th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) - c Q.2) - b Q.3) - d [/su_box table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 19] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 19-> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Coal Bed Methane Syllabus Prelims – Geography and Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Union Minister of Coal, Mines and Parliamentary Affairs spoke on the extraction of Coal Bed Methane in the Lok Sabha. About Coal Bed Methane:- IMAGE SOURCE: Natural Gas Drilling Basics – Lawrence & Mercer ALLARM – A Citizen Science Initiative from Westminster College (google.com) It is an unconventional form of natural gas. It is found in coal deposits or coal seams. It is formed during the process of coalification, the transformation of plant material into coal. Extraction:- Coal Bed Methane is extracted from unconventional gas reservoirs Unconventional gas reservoirs are where gas is extracted directly from the rock that is the source of the gas For example shale in the case of shale gas and coal in the case of CBM Process:- The methane is held underground within the coal and is extracted by drilling into the coal seam and removing the groundwater. The resulting drop in pressure causes methane to be released from the coal. Uses of Coal Bed Methane:- It can be used in Power generation. It can be used as Compressed natural gas (CNG) auto fuel. It can be used as a feedstock for fertilisers. It can be used for Industrial uses such as cement production, rolling mills, steel plants, and methanol production. Reserves in India:- IMAGE SOURCE: Coal Bed Methane IN INDIA MAP UPSC – Bing The country’s coal and CBM reserves are found in around 12 states of India. The Gondwana sediments of eastern India hold the bulk. The Damodar Koel valley and Son valley are prospective areas for CBM development. CBM projects existing in Raniganj coalfields, the Parbatpur block in Jharia coalfield and the East and West Bokaro coalfields. The Son valley includes the Sonhat North and Sohagpur East and West blocks. MUST READ: Methane Emissions SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Monazite is a source of rare earth. Monazite contains thorium. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2020) Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment. High ash content is observed in Indian coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Western Disturbances Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent studies suggest that Climate change is causing Western Disturbances to weaken. About Western Disturbances:- IMAGE SOURCE: Readying to pack your woollens up? Think again! Extreme weather conditions in North-West India next week will chill you to the bone – India Today These are low-pressure areas embedded in the Westerlies. Westerlies: the planetary winds that flow from west to east between 30°-60° latitude. Disturbance in the name indicates an area of “disturbed” or reduced air pressure. Western disturbances are formed naturally. They are labelled as an extra-tropical storms. Extra-tropical: it means outside the tropics. As the WD originates outside the tropical region, the word “extra-tropical” is used for them. They originate in the Mediterranean region and travel over Iran, Iraq, Afghanistan and Pakistan to enter India loaded with moisture In India, the Himalayas obstruct them, causing rain and snow in the western Himalayas. They usually bring mild rain during January-February, which is beneficial to the rabi crop. Since wheat is one of the most important Rabi crops and is the staple diet of people in this region, winter showers contribute to meeting India’s food security. These are associated with a cloudy sky, higher night temperatures and unusual rain. Excessive precipitation due to western disturbances can cause crop damage, landslides, floods and avalanches over the Indo-Gangetic plains. They occasionally bring cold wave conditions and dense fog. MUST READ: NORTHEAST (WINTER) MONSOON SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds. In the temperate Zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Vedic Heritage Portal Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, the Vedic Heritage Portal created by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts was inaugurated. About Vedic Heritage Portal:- The ‘Vedic Heritage Portal’ created by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA). It is a one-stop solution for common users and researchers seeking any information regarding ‘Vedic heritage. It gives detailed information about oral traditions, a textual traditions in form of published books/manuscripts or implements. It aims to communicate messages enshrined in the Vedas. It will help common people to have a general understanding of the Vedas. The audio-visual recording of four Vedas has been uploaded on the Vedic Heritage portal. The portal has over 18 thousand mantras of the four Vedas with a duration of over 550 hours.  About Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts:- The IGNCA comes under of Ministry of Culture. It was established in 1987 as an autonomous institution. The founder trustees of IGNCA were Shri Rajiv Gandhi, Shri R. Venkataraman, Shri P.V. Narasimha Rao, Smt. Pupul Jayakar, the Finance Minister of 1987, Shri H. Y. Sharada Prasad and Dr. Kapila Vatsyayan. It is a centre for research, academic pursuit, and dissemination in the field of the arts. The IGNCA has six functional units: –  Kala Nidhi, the multi-form library             Kala Kosa, devoted mainly to the study and publication of fundamental texts in Indian languages  Janapada Sampada, engaged in lifestyle studies  Kaladarsana, the executive unit which transforms researches and studies Cultural Informatics , which applies technology tools for cultural preservation and propagation Sutradhara, the administrative section that acts as a spine supporting and coordinating all the activities. 5 trees were planted during its establishment:- Asvattha (Ficus Religiosa), popularly known as the Bodhi tree, symbolizing enlightenment  Nyagrodha (Ficus Bengalensis), associated with the landscaping of JANAPADA SAMPADA . Asoka (Saraca Indica) associated with KALANIDHI . Arjuna (Terminalia) associated with KALAKOSA. Kadamba (Anthocephallus Camba) associated with KALADARSANA The IGNCA has a trust (Board of Trustees), which meets regularly to give general direction about the Centre’s work. The Executive Committee, drawn from among the Trustees, functions under a Chairman. Objectives:- to serve as a major resource centre for the arts. to undertake research and publication programmes of reference works, glossaries, dictionaries and encyclopaedia concerning the arts and the humanities to establish a tribal and folk arts division with a core collection for conducting systematic scientific studies and for live presentations. to provide a forum for a creative and critical dialogue through performances, exhibitions, multi-media projections, conferences, seminars and workshops between and amongst the diverse arts, traditional and cotemporary to promote an network with national and international institutions to conduct related research in the arts, humanities and culture. About Kala Vaibhav:- It is a virtual museum. It is based on 64 arts, through which, Objective: to make the world more familiar with India’s architecture, painting, drama, music, and thereby the rich history of the country’s glorious culture. MUST READ: Mandala Art SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs: (2018) Institution                                     Founder Sanskrit college at Benaras    William Jones Calcutta Madarsa                   Warren Hastings Fort William college               Arthur Wellesley Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2017) Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Disqualification of Member of parliaments Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Congress leader Rahul Gandhi has been disqualified from the Lok Sabha recently. About Disqualification of Member of parliaments:- Constitutional provisions:- The provision for disqualification is given in Article 102 of the Constitution. It specifies that a person shall be disqualified for contesting elections and being a Member of Parliament under certain conditions: If he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any other office exempted by Parliament). If he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court. If he is an undischarged insolvent. If he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state If he is so disqualified under any law made by Parliament. Article 102 also authorises Parliament to make laws determining conditions of disqualifications. There are analogous provisions for members of state legislatures. Defection under The Representation of the People Act, 1951:- Disqualification on Imprisonment: The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides that a person will be disqualified if convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for two years or more. The person is disqualified for the period of imprisonment and a further six years. Exception for sitting members: They have been provided a period of three months from the date of conviction to appeal The disqualification will not be applicable until the appeal is decided. About Disqualification on Ground of Defection: The Constitution also lays down that a person shall be disqualified from being a member of Parliament if he is so disqualified on the ground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule. Important Supreme Court Judgements: Union of India (UOI) v. Association for Democratic Reforms,2002:- The SC held that every candidate, contesting an election to the Parliament, State Legislatures, or Municipal Corporation, has to declare their criminal records, financial records, and educational qualifications along with their nomination paper. Ramesh Dalal vs. Union of India,2005: The SC held that a sitting MP or MLA shall also be subject to disqualification from contesting elections if he is convicted and sentenced to not less than 2 years of imprisonment by a court of law. Lily Thomas v. Union of India,2013: The SC held that Section 8(4) of The Representation of the People Act, 1951 is unconstitutional which allows MPs and MLAs who are convicted to continue in office till an appeal against such conviction is disposed of. The court held that MP/MLA convicted for two years or above would be disqualified immediately. Krishnamurthy v. Sivakumar & Ors,2015: The SC held that disclosure of criminal antecedents (especially heinous crimes) of a candidate at the time of filing of nomination paper as mandated by law was a categorically imperative. MUST READ: Defamation Case SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 The parliamentary procedure of guillotine Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: The parliamentary procedure of guillotine may come in use in the recent session of the parliament. About the parliamentary procedure of guillotine:- In legislative parlance, “guillotine” means to bunch together and fast-track the passage of financial business. Application: the procedure is used to save time when all the clauses of a measure cannot be discussed in the allotted time during the Budget session. After the Budget is presented, Parliament goes into recess for about three weeks, during which time the House Standing Committees examine Demands for Grants for various Ministries and prepare reports. After Parliament reassembles, the Business Advisory Committee (BAC) draws up a schedule for discussions on the Demands for Grants. Given the limitation of time, the House cannot take up the expenditure demands of all Ministries.  Therefore, the BAC identifies some important Ministries for discussion. Members discuss the policies and working of Ministries. Once the allotted time to discuss the clauses of the Bill is over, the Speaker of the House rolls out guillotine closure. The undiscussed clauses of a bill or resolution are placed for vote alongside the discussed portions. Implications:- Once the Speaker of the House applies the guillotine, all the outstanding demands for grants, whether discussed or not, are put to vote at once. MUST READ: Finance bill SOURCE:THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by(2020) Long standing parliamentary convention Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India Article 113 of the Constitution of India Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 Q.2) With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: (2017) A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Shaheed Diwas Syllabus Prelims –Modern Indian History Context: The Shaheed Diwas (martyrdom day of Shaheed Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru) was observed recently. About Shaheed Diwas:- It is observed on 23rd March. It is also known as Martyrs’ Day or Sarvodaya Day. It was on this day that Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were executed by the British government in 1931. They were hanged to death for assassinating John Saunders, a British police officer in 1928. They had mistaken him for British police superintendent James Scott who had ordered lathi charge, which eventually led to the death of Lala Lajpat Rai. Nehru about Bhagat singh:- Nehru had said, Whether I agree with him or not, my heart is full of admiration for the courage and self-sacrifice of a man like Bhagat Singh. Courage of the Bhagat Singh type is exceedingly rare About Sukhdev:- He was a famous Indian revolutionary who played a major role in the India’s struggle for Independence. He  was a member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA). He organized revolutionary cells in Punjab and other areas of North India. He even went on to educate the youth at the National College in Lahore, greatly inspiring them about India’s glorious past. He along with other renowned revolutionaries started the ‘Naujawan Bharat Sabha’ at Lahore It was an organization involved in various activities, mainly gearing the youth for the freedom struggle and putting an end to communalism. Sukhdev himself took active part in several revolutionary activities like the ‘Prison hunger strike’ in 1929. He was an accomplice of Bhagat Singh and Shivaram Rajguru. They  were involved in the assassination of Deputy Superintendent of Police, J.P. Saunders in 1928, to avenge the death of veteran leader, Lala Lajpat Rai, owing to excessive police beating in the Conspiracy case. About Shivaram Rajguru:- He joined the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA). Rajguru was born on 24 August 1908 at Khed to Parvati Devi and Harinarain Rajguru in a Marathi Brahmin family. He received primary education at Khed and later studied in New English High School at nana ka bara in Pune He was an accomplice of Bhagat Singh and Sukhdev who were charged for assassinating John Saunders, a British police officer in 1928. Rajguru was executed by the British government in 1931. MUST READ: India’s Women Unsung Heroes of Freedom Struggle SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a: (2014) revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco nationalist organization operating from Singapore militant organization with headquarters at Berlin communist movement for India’s freedom with headquarters at Tashkent Sarus crane Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Uttar Pradesh (U.P.) Forest Department has relocated a sarus crane, U.P. ‘s State bird, from Amethi to Raebareli’s Samaspur Bird Sanctuary. About Sarus crane:- Its scientific name is  Grus Antigone. It is the tallest flying bird in the world. It is the least social crane species and is mostly found in pairs or small groups of three or four. They are monogamous birds and pairs mate for life. Distribution and Habitat:- IMAGE SOURCE: Sarus Crane | Wildlife Institute of India, an Autonomous Institute of MoEF, Govt. of India (wii.gov.in) The Sarus Crane is found in Southeast Asia, northern India, and northern Australia. The Indian Sarus Crane occurs in northern and central India, Terai Nepal and Pakistan. Once a common site in the paddy fields of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan, West Bengal, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Assam, the population of the Indian sarus crane is now on the decline. They primarily inhabit wetlands such as canals, marshes, and ponds which are suitable for their forage and nesting. They are sometimes found near human settlements.  They are found in Dhanauri wetland in UP . It was declared as the state bird of Uttar Pradesh (UP) in 2014. Conservation Status:- IUCN : Vulnerable CITES :   Appendix II Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972: Schedule IV It receives legal protection in India. About Samaspur Bird Sanctuary: It is situated in the Rohaniya Development block of the Raebareli district, on Lucknow-Varanasi highway in UP. It was created in 1987 with the aim of protection and conservation of the wetland with special emphasis to the local and migratory birds, conservation of their natural habitat including aquatic plants and animals. MUST READ: Nagaland’s Bird Count drive SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Due to some reasons if there is a huge fall in the population of a species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences? (2017) Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infection of some cultivated plants It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Konkan 2023 Syllabus Prelims – Defence Context: Konkan 2023, the annual bilateral maritime exercise between the Indian Navy and the Royal Navy, was held recently. About Konkan 2023:- It is an annual bilateral maritime exercise between the Indian Navy and the UK’s Royal Navy. INS Trishul, a guided missile frigate, and HMS Lancaster, a Type 23 guided missile frigate, participated in this edition. It included gunnery shoots on the surface inflatable target ‘Killer Tomato’, helicopter operations, anti-air, and anti–submarine warfare drills, Visit Board Search and Seizure (VBSS), ship manoeuvres, and exchange of personnel. The exercise will help the Indian Navy and Royal Navy work together to improve maritime security and maintain a rules-based order in the region. MUST READ: India-United Kingdom Relations SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The term ‘West Taxes Intermediate’, sometimes found in news to a grade of (2020) Crude oil Bullion Rare earth elements Uranium Q.2) Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Online Gambling in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently Tamil Nadu Assembly re-adopts Bill against online gambling. About Online Gambling: Gambling is a state subject, and only states in India are entitled to formulate laws for gambling activities within their respective states. The constitution of India defines gambling. It says that gambling includes any activity or undertaking whose determination is controlled or influenced by chance or accident or any activity or undertaking which is entered into or undertaken with consciousness of the risk of winning or losing (e.g., prize competitions, a wagering contract). It does suggest that anything where you can risk money to win money could be considered gambling. Major Types: Casino games: These include slots, blackjack, roulette, and baccarat, among others. Sports betting: This involves placing bets on sports events, such as football, basketball, cricket, and horse racing. Poker: This is a card game played against other players online. Lottery: This involves purchasing tickets for online lotteries that offer large cash prizes. The market of online gambling in India The Indian gambling market is estimated to be worth $60 billion per year with half of that being estimated to illegal gambling. These skill-based games themselves could cross a billion dollars in value and are growing at around 30% annually. India is moving towards improved age and gender parity among online gamblers. The majority will continue to play on mobile devices in 2021. Casinos in Goa alone provide more than 100 crores rupees in tax revenue to the state, which only shows how states can benefit from a regulated and legalized gambling market. Factors pushing up the online gambling market: Need for such Rules in India Safeguarding the Users: The attempt is to regulate online gaming platforms as intermediaries and place due diligence requirements on them. It will promote the online gaming sector and encourage innovation. Safety of Women: Around 40 to 45 percent of the gamers in India are women, and therefore it was all the more important to keep the gaming ecosystem safe. Revenue generating, so need to be regulated: The revenue of the Indian mobile gaming industry is expected to exceed $1.5 billion in 2022 and is estimated to reach $5 billion in 2025. The industry grew at a CAGR (compound annual growth rate) of 38 percent in India between 2017-2020, as opposed to 8 percent in China and 10 percent in the US. Transparency & Credibility: This framework will boost the legitimate domestic online gaming industry, ensuring greater transparency, consumer protection and investor confidence. Encouraging Startups: Online gaming is a very important piece of the start-up ecosystem and a part of the goal of the 1-trillion dollar economy. Challenges of Online gambling: Lack of Regulation: Online gambling is often unregulated, making it easy for fraudulent activities to take place. This can lead to players losing their money or their personal information being compromised. Addiction: Online gambling can lead to addiction causing severe financial and social problems as it is easily accessible, and players can spend hours playing games without realizing the amount of time and money they are spending. Money Laundering: Online gambling can be used as a means for money laundering, where players can deposit large amounts of cash into online accounts and then withdraw the money in a legitimate form. Underage Gambling: Online gambling sites can be easily accessed by minors, leading to underage gambling. This can cause severe psychological and financial problems for children and their families. Cybersecurity Risks: Online gambling sites can be vulnerable to cyber-attacks, which can lead to the theft of sensitive personal and financial information of the players. Social Isolation: Online gambling can lead to social isolation, as players can spend hours playing games online, leading to a lack of social interaction with family and friends. Laws governing Online Gambling: The laws governing online gambling in India are complex and vary by state however, there are some overarching laws that apply to the entire country: Public Gambling Act, 1867: It is a federal law that prohibits operating or visiting a gambling house. However, this law does not specifically mention online gambling. Information Technology Act, 2011: It was amended to include provisions related to online gambling which states that any website that offers online gambling services must be located outside of India. Many states in India have their own laws related to gambling with some states, such as Goa and Sikkim, having legalized certain forms of gambling and issue licenses to operators. Major Court Judgements: Shri Krishna Agrawal vs. State of Maharashtra (1999): The Bombay High Court ruled that the game of poker involves a substantial degree of skill and is therefore not considered gambling. Varun Gumber v. Union Territory of Chandigarh (2017): The Punjab and Haryana High Court declared that online fantasy sports games, such as Dream11, involve a substantial degree of skill and are not considered gambling. Mahalakshmi Cultural Association v. State of Tamil Nadu (2013): The Madras High Court held that online games of chance, such as poker and rummy, are considered gambling and are therefore illegal. Way Forward: It is a fact that no clear regulation is in place for online gambling in India which is giving boost to illegal as well as unnecessary online gambling market. We also know that the negative effect outweighs the positive factors. Overall, online gambling poses significant challenges that need to be addressed by regulators and policymakers to ensure that players are protected and that online gambling is conducted in a fair and responsible manner. Source:  The Hindu Freedom of Press Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, the Chief Justice of India stated that ‘Press must remain free if a country is to remain a democracy’. About Freedom of Press: The constitutional bearing of the Freedom of Press: Freedom of Expression: Article 19 (a) of the Indian constitution guarantees to every citizen of India the Freedom of speech and expression. It is a fundamental Right of the Indian Constitution. Restriction on freedom: However this Freedom under Article 19 is also not absolute. It faces certain restrictions under Article 19(2), which are as follows: Matters related to in interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence. Freedom of press: It is an absence of statutory and administrative control on dissemination of information, ideas, knowledge and thoughts. Freedom of press is not specifically mentioned in article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution and what is mentioned there is only freedom of speech and expression. In the Constituent Assembly Debates it was made clear by Ambedkar, Chairman of the Drafting Committee, that no special mention of the freedom of press was necessary at all as the press and an individual or a citizen were the same as far as their right of expression was concerned. Significance of Media Media refers to all means of Communication, everything ranging from a Phone Call to the news on TV. TV, radio and newspapers are a form of media. Since they reach millions of people across the world, they are Called Mass Media. A balanced report is essential in media which has to report independently. Media plays a very important role in providing news and discussing events taking place in the Country and the world. News Stories in the media inform people about important events in the Country. Media by focusing on particular issues influences and Shapes our thoughts. It is said the media sets the agenda for People. Opinions, attitudes, and Conduct of persons are dependent upon the information available to them. Most of our knowledge of Contemporary events comes to us from newspapers, Radio, Television and movies. Our emotions and attitudes are also formed or influenced to a large extent by the media. The media tell us about the working of the Government and create awareness about the welfare programmes. The relevance of the media was best highlighted during the period of the Covid-19 pandemic. Electronic, print and social media facilitated the State to disseminate relevant information to the general public at large even during the lockdown. Fourth Pillar of Democracy: Due to these attributes, the Media can be rightly considered as the fourth pillar of democracy, the other three being legislature, executive and judiciary. Press Freedom Index & India’s performance: In the 2022 edition of the Press Freedom Index which is published by Reporters Without Borders, India ranked at the 150th position, eight positions lower than last year. Concern/ Challenges The media is far from being independent because of the Control of Government over the media Called Censoring and because big business houses Control the media. Corporate Funding – A lot of money is spent on maintaining People and getting the latest technology. Media, therefore, uses advertising as a tool to raise revenue. Manipulating News for TRPs is not only a financial scam but also morally and ethically wrong. Some Channels are spreading a hate narrative which is a violation of the fundamental right of the citizen to know the truth through the media. The media has become a source of disinformation, and this is also an ethical issue. Both legal and ethical dimensions are equally serious. Way Forward: The democratic way of life depends upon the existence of free agencies of mass media. The Media must act in a Responsible and Independence manner; they need to promote Sincerity, Truthfulness, Accuracy, and Impartiality in their work. Freedom of the press is crucial to the functioning of a vibrant democracy hence the government should ensure its well-being. Source:  Indian Express   Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) He was a famous Indian revolutionary who played a major role in the India’s struggle for Independence. He  was a member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA). He was involved in the assassination of Deputy Superintendent of Police, J.P. Saunders in 1928, to avenge the death of veteran leader, Lala Lajpat Rai, owing to excessive police beating in the Conspiracy case. He along with other renowned revolutionaries started the ‘Naujawan Bharat Sabha’ at Lahore. Who among the following freedom fighters described in the above passage? Chandra Shekhar Azad Khudiram Bose Sukhdev Ashfaqulla Khan Q.2) With reference to India, Which of the following is not a constitutional provisions for the disqualification of a member of the Parliament? If he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any other office exempted by Parliament). A person will be disqualified if convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for two years or more. If he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state If he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court. Q.3) consider the following statements regarding Western Disturbances: These planetary winds that flow from east to west between 30°-60° latitude. They originate in the Bay of Bengal region They usually bring mild rain during January-February, which is beneficial to the rabi crop. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 25th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 24th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 25th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here