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मासिक पत्रिका फ़रवरी 2023 – हिन्दी IASbaba सामयिकी

Archives Hello Friends,This is फ़रवरी/February 2023 of IASbaba’s REVAMPED Current Affairs Monthly Magazine. Current Affairs for UPSC Civil Services Examination is an important factor in this preparation.An effort towards making your Current Affairs for IAS UPSC Preparation qualitative. We hope you make the best use of it!This edition covers all Important current affairs issues that were in news for the month of फ़रवरी/February 2023.Kindly leave your feedback in the comment section below on the new design and presentation of the magazine. We would love to hear from you! Download The Magazine - फ़रवरी/February 2023 Important Topics Covered In The Magazine Includes: Significance of Tribal Culture in Sustainable Development Data Protection Bill The Problems associated Solar Energy in India India-South Korea Relations Deep-Sea Mining Cyberattacks And Much More.... Download The Magazine - फ़रवरी/February 2023 To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow-TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccountYOUTUBE – https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQFACEBOOK – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/Also, SUBSCRIBE to the WEBSITE Below, so that you don’t miss out on important posts!Thank YouIASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Palak Lake Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a Nature walk was organised along Palak Lake in  Mizoram. About Palak Lake:-   IMAGE SOURCE: Mizoram map showing the location of nest boxes | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) Palak Lake is the largest natural lake in Mizoram. (UPSC CSE: Assam-Mizoram border dispute ) It is situated near Phura village which is about 391 km to the south of Aizawl. The Palak Lake wetland conservation area falls under the Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot. It is rich in biodiversity. It is oval in shape and covers about 1 square km. It is surrounded by lush virgin forests rich in flora and fauna. It is home to most of the common wetland birds and hill birds  (UPSC MAINS: Wetland Conservation) It is believed to be a winter stop-over for migrating Pintail Duck. A few elephants still roam the surrounding virgin forests. National Museum of Natural History (NMNH):- The National Museum of Natural History (NMNH) is located in New Delhi, India. It was established in 1972. It opened its doors to the public on 5th June 1978, coinciding symbolically with World Environment Day. It works under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India. It is an institution devoted to environmental education. It derives its strength principally from theme-based exhibition galleries and experiential resource centres. Objectives:- To extend its activities at the regional/local levels. To develop museum-based educational projects. To develop environmental education resource materials (such as audio-visual aids, low-cost teaching aids, school loan kits, etc.) to promote environmental education To develop national and international cooperation with other organizations, professional bodies or museums. National Centre for Sustainable Coastal Management (NCSCM):- It is under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. It undertakes studies and research in the area of Coastal Zone Management including coastal resources and environment. It is located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu. Objective:- It aims to promote integrated and sustainable management of the coastal and marine areas in India. It works for the benefit and well-being of the traditional coastal and island communities. It also intends to promote sustainable coasts through increased partnerships. Role:- It has various research divisions including, Geospatial Sciences, Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems (GIS), Coastal environmental impact assessment, Conservation of Coastal & Marine Resources, etc. Survey of India and NCSCM have mapped the Hazard Line for the entire coast of India. It also advises the Union and State Governments and other associated stakeholders on policy, and scientific matters related to Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM). National Institute of Himalayan Environment:- It was established in 1988-89 as an autonomous Institute. It is under the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change (MoEF&CC), Govt. of India. It is identified as a focal agency to:-  advanced scientific knowledge  evolve integrated management strategies  demonstrate their efficacy for the conservation of natural resources  ensure environmentally sound development in the entire Indian Himalayan Region (IHR) The institute pays particular attention to the preservation of fragile mountain ecosystems, indigenous knowledge systems and sustainable use of natural resources. MUST READ: COP14 of Ramsar Convention on Wetlands SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With references to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are the names of (2021) Glaciers Mangrove areas Ramsar sites Saline lakes Q.2) What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati? (2019) Recently discovered uranium deposits Tropical rain forests Underground cave systems Water reservoirs Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, NTCA wrote to the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State to initiate action against illegal resorts and homestays in enclosures of BRT Tiger Reserve. About Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve:- IMAGE SOURCE: Location of Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve. Triangle… | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) It derives its name ‘BILIGIRI’  from the white rocky cliff on the top of which is a temple of Lord VISHNU locally known as Rangaswamy. In Kannada, Biligiri means white hills – hence the name. It is situated in the middle of the bridge between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats in South India. It was constituted as a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1974. (UPSC CSE: Wildlife Protection ) BRT Wildlife Sanctuary was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2011. (UPSC PRELIMS: Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS)) Flora:- The forests are principally of dry deciduous type and are interspersed with moist deciduous, semi-evergreen, evergreen and shola patches occurring at varying altitudes. Fauna:- Animals found here include tiger, elephant, leopard, wild dog, bison, sambar, spotted deer, barking deer, four-horned antelope, sloth bear, wild boar, common langur, bonnet macaque, varieties of reptiles, birds, etc. Tiger Reserves in Karnataka:- Karnataka has been declared as No.1 State in Tiger Population in the country.  At present the Tiger population is estimated around 300. As per India Tiger estimate 2010 conducted by the Ministry of Environment and Forests, Govt. of India. The State has 5 Tiger Reserves namely:-  Bandipur:- The park is situated at the foothills of the Western Ghats. It is known for its rich diversity of flora and fauna. It was established as a hunting reserve for the Maharajas of Mysore. In 1973, it was declared a national park.  It was designated as a tiger reserve in 1974 as part of Project Tiger. It is one of the highest tiger densities in India.  The park also has a significant population of other wildlife species such as elephants, leopards, dholes, and gaurs. Bhadra:- Parts of the current reserve were first declared as Jagara Valley Wildlife Sanctuary in 1951. In 1974 the area was expanded and named the Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary. In 1998 the sanctuary was included in the Project Tiger Network. Flora: Bhadra is the natural habitat of prized timber such as Teak and Rosewood. Forest Types: Tropical Moist Mixed Deciduous Forest, Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest, Semi-Evergreen Forest. Fauna: Tiger, leopard, elephant, gaur, sambar, barking deer, spotted deer, wild dog, wild boar, sloth bear, etc. Nagarahole:- It is also known as ‘Rajiv Gandhi National Park. It was established as a wildlife sanctuary in 1955. It was upgraded into a national park in 1988. It was declared as the 37th Tiger reserve under Project Tiger in 1999. The Park lies in the Western Ghats. It is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. The Nagarahole River flows through the park, which joins the Kabini River which also is a boundary between Nagarahole and Bandipur National Park. Flora: The vegetation consists mainly of moist deciduous forests with predominating trees of teak and rosewood. Fauna: Asian elephants, chital (spotted deer), Indian mouse deer, gaur, stripe-necked, leopard, tiger, and sloth bear among others. Dandeli-Anshi:- It was established in 1956 in the central portion of the Uttara Kannada (North Canara) district of Karnataka. In 1987, the state proposed carving out a section of the sanctuary to create the Anshi national park, which was implemented. The park area was expanded by 90 square kilometres when the final notification was issued in 2002. It was granted Project Tiger tiger reserve status in 2007. Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve MUST READ: Kali Tiger Reserve SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous? (2020) Kanha National Park Manas National Park Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary Fomalhaut Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, NASA’s James Webb Space Telescope uncovered a complex and fascinating dusty structure around the young star Fomalhaut. About Fomalhaut:- IMAGE SOURCE: JWST spies asteroid belt around star Fomalhaut | Popular Science (popsci.com) Fomalhaut is located 25 light-years from Earth It was one of the first exoplanets ever discovered in visible light by NASA’s Hubble Space Telescope in 2004. (UPSC PRELIMS: Exoplanets) Exoplanets: are the planets that orbit around stars other than the Sun. It is used in navigation because of its conspicuous place in a sky region otherwise lacking in bright stars. It is a white star, it has an apparent magnitude of 1.16. It lies in the southern constellation Piscis Austrinus, 25 light-years from Earth. It is the brightest star in the southern constellation Piscis Austrinus. (UPSC CSE: A star with a heartbeat & without a magnetic field discovered) It is surrounded by debris disks that are remnants of collisions between larger bodies, similar to asteroids and comets.  Astronomers proposed that Fomalhaut b was not a real planet but rather an expanding dust cloud left behind by a collision between two cometlike bodies. MUST READ: James Webb Space Telescope SOURCE: TIMES NOW PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years?(2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change The gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in a straight line The speed of light is always the same Q.2) Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘black holes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation? (2019) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected The possibility of intergalactic space travel through a ‘wormhole’ was confirmed It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’ Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) rolled out a module for automated scrutiny of GST returns. About Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC):- IMAGE SOURCE: indirect taxes India – Bing images Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs is a part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance. It is a statutory body established under the Central Boards of Revenue Act, of 1963. It was formed in 1964 when the Central Board of Revenue was split into the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) and the Central Board of Excise and Customs. Central Board of Excise and Customs was renamed the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs in 2018. It is the nodal national agency responsible for administering:- Customs GST (UPSC MAINS: GST- Five years on ) Central Excise Service Tax Narcotics in India. The Board is the administrative authority for its subordinate organizations, including Custom Houses, Central Excise and Central GST Commissionerate and the Central Revenues Control Laboratory. (UPSC MAINS: Tax administration in India) Functions performed by the CBIC include:- Formulation of policy concerning levy and collection of Customs, Central Excise duties, Central Goods & Services Tax and IGST. Prevention of smuggling. Administration of matters relating to Customs, Central Excise, Central Goods & Services Tax, IGST and Narcotics to the extent under CBIC’s purview. MUST READ: ( Tax-GDP ratio ) SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (2017) It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2017) Tax revenue as a per cent of the GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Fiscal deficit as a per cent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: DGCA recently, suspended an Air India pilot’s licence for three months after he violated safety norms. About Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA):- The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is a statutory body of the Government of India. It was formed under the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, of 2020. It comes under the Ministry of Civil Aviation. (UPSC CSE: New Director General of Bureau Of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) appointed) It aims to regulate civil aviation in India. It primarily deals with safety issues in civil aviation. Its headquarters are located in New Delhi. It has regional offices in various parts of India. Mandate: DGCA is responsible for the regulation of air transport services to/from/within India and for enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety, and airworthiness standards. (UPSC MAINS: Reforms In Civil Aviation Industry) Functions:- Registration of civil aircraft. Formulation of standards of airworthiness for civil aircraft registered in India and grant of certificates of airworthiness to such aircraft. Licensing of pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers and flight engineers, and conducting examinations and checks for that purpose. Licensing of air traffic controllers. Investigating accidents/incidents. Taking accident prevention measures. Coordination at the national level for flexible use of air space by civil and military air traffic agencies Interaction with ICAO for the provision of more air routes for civil use through Indian air space. Promoting indigenous design and manufacture of aircraft. MUST READ: International Air Connectivity Scheme (IACS) scheme SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Pokhran Tests Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: 25th anniversary of the Pokhran-II test was celebrated recently. About Pokhran Tests:- IMAGE SOURCE: Pokhran Tests and India’s Nuclear Journey (ilearncana.com) The foundation of India’s nuclear programme was laid by physicist Dr Homi J Bhaba. The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) was founded in 1954 with Bhabha as director. In May 1998, India conducted a series of nuclear tests at its Pokhran test site in the northwestern state of Rajasthan. The tests were hailed as a triumph of Indian science and technology. These tests also sparked widespread controversy and condemnation from the global community, leading to a period of diplomatic isolation and economic sanctions for India. Pokhran 1:- It was India’s first nuclear test. It was codenamed “Smiling Buddha”. It was conducted at the Pokhran site in 1974. Vikram Sarabhai (Bhaba’s successor at the DAE) contributed significantly to broadening India’s nuclear technology through these tests. It made India the first country outside of the five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council to conduct a nuclear test. The test was carried out under the leadership of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. It marked a significant step forward in India’s nuclear ambitions. The test was a “peaceful nuclear explosion” (PNE) intended for civilian purposes. However, it raised concerns in the international community about India’s nuclear intentions and led to widespread condemnation and sanctions. (UPSC MAINS: Pokhran gave India a strategic upper hand) Pokhran 2:- IMAGE SOURCE: Parmanu – The Story of Pokhran nuclear tests 1998 – HimBuds.com It was held in 1998, in Pokhran, Rajasthan. It was India’s second wave of nuclear tests. It was code-named “Operation Shakti”.  It included five nuclear explosions, over the course of three days.  It was under the leadership of Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.  A thermonuclear or hydrogen bomb was used in these tests. The world community widely condemned the tests, and the United States and other nations hit India with economic penalties as a result. The tests, however, enjoyed enormous popularity in India and were viewed as a source of national pride and technological advancement.   India’s nuclear doctrine (presented in 1999) since Pokhran-II:- It highlighted a credible minimum deterrence (CMD) and a no-first-use (NFU) policy, while concurrently supporting non-proliferation and universal disarmament. The sole purpose of India’s nuclear deterrence is to deter adversaries’ use or threat of use of nuclear weapons. (UPSC CSE: India’s Nuclear Doctrine) The policy changed India’s image and the US (once an adversary of India’s nuclear programme) signed a civil nuclear deal with India in 2008. It acknowledged India as a responsible nuclear player. MUST READ: The Return of nuclear weapons on the global platform SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India’s satellite launch  vehicles, consider the following statements: (2016) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct.? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Q.2) Which reference to Agni-IV Missile, the following statements is/are correct? (2014) It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Three-parent baby Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, a three-parent baby was born in the UK using IVF. About Three-parent Baby:- IMAGE SOURCE: Britain’s first three-parent baby is born: Procedure ‘marks the biggest leap forward since IVF created – Business Telegraph It s a technique to create to have a child without passing on Mitochondrial diseases caused by faulty mitochondria of the mother. Mitochondrial diseases: are long-term, genetic, often inherited disorders that occur when mitochondria fail to produce enough energy for the body to function properly. Mitochondria: the cellular structures that provide energy to cells. Mechanism:- Researchers do this by exchanging the diseased mitochondria of a prospective mother with those of a healthy, unrelated donor: the ‘third parent’. The procedure replaces a small amount of faulty DNA in a mother’s egg with healthy DNA from a second woman, so that the baby would inherit genes from two mothers and one father. The idea is to prevent certain genetic diseases from being passed on to children. The technique used is called ‘Maternal Spindle transfer’ in which maternal DNA is put into the egg of a donor woman, which is then fertilized using the father’s sperm. (UPSC CSE: Test Tube Babies) The procedure was developed to help existing IVF treatments in which mothers have mitochondrial diseases. In Vitro Fertilization (IVF): a medical procedure in which mature egg cells are removed from a woman, fertilized with male sperm outside the body, and inserted into the uterus of the same or another woman for normal gestation. (UPSC CSE: Surrogacy in India) Britain became the first country to allow for a three-parent baby and in 2017.  The first 3 parent baby was born. MUST READ: ART and surrogacy SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of the developments in Bioinformatics, the term ‘transcriptome’, sometimes seen in the news, refers to (2016) a range of enzymes used in genome editing the full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an organism the description of the mechanism of gene expression a mechanism of genetic mutations taking place in cells Q.2) The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the (2015) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 Visva-Bharati University Syllabus Prelims –ART and Culture Context: Visva-Bharati University is set to become the first living heritage university to receive the Unesco World Heritage tag. About Visva-Bharati University:- The university was set up by Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore in 1921 at Santiniketan, West Bengal. He called it Visva-Bharati, which means the communion of the world with India. Until independence, it was a college.  Soon after independence, the institution was given the status of a central university in 1951 by an act of the Parliament. Rabindranath Tagore’s philosophy about Viswa Bharti:- Rabindranath Tagore believed in open-air education. (UPSC CSE: Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE)) He had reservations about any teaching done within four walls. This was due to his belief that walls represent the conditioning of the mind. Tagore did not have a good opinion about the Western method of education introduced by the British in India. (UPSC CSE: School education) On this subject, Tagore and Gandhiji’s opinions matched. So, he devised a new system of learning in Visva-Bharati. Special feature of Visva Bharti:- He allowed students to continue their course till the student and his teacher both are satisfied. At Visva-Bharati, if a course demanded by a student is not available, then the university will design a course and bring teachers for that course. The university would not be bothered by the consideration of whether there is a demand for the course. MUST READ: India’s education emergency SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Anti-Conversion Legislation In India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Uttar Pradesh government has released figures regarding the Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Act Amid the ongoing controversy over The Kerala Story movie. The government said 427 conversion-related cases were reported between January 1, 2021, and April 30, 2023. Status of the anti-conversion law in India: There are several anti-conversion laws in India that regulate the conversion of one religion to another. These laws vary from state to state, and the specific provisions of the laws can differ significantly. Constitutional Provision: Article 25 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the freedom to practise, profess, and propagate any religion. It also grants all religious groups the right to control their own religious affairs, subject to public morality, health, and order. Existing Laws: Religious conversions have not been subject to any national restrictions or regulations. Private Member Bills to control religious conversions, however, have repeatedly been introduced in the Parliament since 1954 (but never passed by it). Additionally, the Union Law Ministry stated in 2015 that Parliament lacks the legislative authority to enact legislation prohibiting conversion. Several states have passed “Freedom of Religion” laws over the years to prohibit forced, fraudulent, or coerced conversions to another religion. In general, however, anti-conversion laws in India require that individuals seeking to convert to another religion must obtain permission from the government before doing so. Some states have more stringent anti conversion laws than others, and some states have provisions that specifically target certain religious groups or activities. In recent years, there has been significant controversy and debate over the use of anti-conversion laws in India. Some people argue that these laws are necessary to protect the cultural and social cohesion of the country, while others believe that they are used to suppress minority religions and violate the right to freedom of religion. The Supreme Court of India has ruled that anti conversion laws are constitutional as long as they are not used to interfere with an individual’s right to freedom of religion. However, there have been cases in which these laws have been used to target and persecute minority religious groups. Supreme Court’s Observations: The Supreme Court verdict in Rev. Stainislaus vs. State of Madhya Pradesh in the 1960s is frequently cited in matters involving religious freedom. Then Chief Justice of India A.N. Ray dissected Article 25 to hold that “the Article does not grant the right to convert other persons to one’s own religion but to transmit or spread one’s religion by an exposition of its tenets.” Recently, the Supreme Court emphasised that Forced religious conversions are “dangerous” and they affect the security of the nation. It urged the Union government to “step in” and apprise the court of the measures being taken to prevent such occurrences. Arguments in Favour of anti-conversion: These laws only ban and punish forceful religious conversion. Fundamental rights under Article 25 ‘Right to propagate a religion” did not extend to forced conversions. There is no fundamental right to convert another person to one’s own religion. Arguments against anti-conversion: According to some activists “Such laws are used to target religious minorities and interfaith couples”. These laws would be used to target even voluntary conversions, and curb the fundamental rights “Freedom of conscience” under Article 25. These Acts do not satisfy the test of reasonableness and fairness, and also go against the Fundamental rights under Article 14 and Article 21” of the Constitution. Right to Freedom of religion in India The Indian Constitution allows individuals the freedom to live by their religious beliefs and practices as they interpret these. In keeping with this idea of religious freedom for all, India also adopted a strategy of separating the power of religion and the power of the State Constitutional Provisions: Article 25: Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion Article 26: Freedom to manage religious affairs Article 27: Freedom to pay taxes for promotion of any particular religion Article 28: Freedom to attend religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions. Way Forward: The right to religion did not include the right to convert other people to a particular religion, especially through fraud, deception, coercion, allurement, and other means. The conversion laws must be strengthened and rightly so to stop the use of lures and force but they should not discriminate among religions while identifying the perpetrators. Source: The Hindu The problem with India’s multi-alignment stand Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: India’s strategic autonomy and policy of non-alignment have evolved into a multi-alignment approach. About India’s multi-alignment stand Origin of India’s non-alignment stand: There has been a progressive evolution in Indian thinking on forming and joining regional economic and security groupings, since the days New Delhi declared itself as “Non-Aligned” in the 1950s. India, thereafter, remained a leading player in the “Non-Aligned Movement” (NAM). The 120 members of NAM professed that they would not get drawn into “Great Power” rivalries between the US and USSR. India’s current multi-alignment stand: With Russia: The disintegration of the Soviet Union in the 1990s led to new groupings and alliances. But we are now happily in a position where we are partners, in different ways, with all major global power centres. Economics and economic integration play a far more central role as bridges of cooperation today. West Asia: The most notable decision taken in recent days was after the first summit meeting of the recently established I2U2 grouping, comprising India, Israel, the US and the UAE. This was the first time when India and the US partnered two West Asian countries to focus cooperation on use of water resources, food security, health, transportation and space. USA and QUAD: India finds itself linked with the US and Japan far more closely than in the past, in a world order which is becoming more China-centric than in the past. This has been the rationale of Quadrilateral Security Dialogue or QUAD, comprising Australia, India, Japan and the US. Southeast Asian Nations: While India has a free trade agreement (FTA) with ASEAN, New Delhi has chosen, for understandable reasons, not to join the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP), containing 15 East Asian and Pacific nations, including ASEAN members, Australia, New Zealand and China. Eurasia: India holds membership of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), which is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation of Eurasian Nations with a secretariat in Beijing. India’s view on Ukraine-Russia Conflict: India has been actively engaging with Ukraine and expressing solidarity with the Nation in the face of the ongoing conflict with Russia. This is in contrast to China’s move with Moscow in order to cement China’s relationship with Russia. India has been committed to supporting peace efforts in Ukraine and sees itself as a mediator in the conflict. The United States sees this engagement as important because it aligns with its own response to the conflict and helps to bring the two countries’ positions into closer alignment. Reasons for India’s ambiguity: India’s position on the Ukraine war is nuanced and reflects a balancing act between its traditional ties with Russia and its democratic values. While India has expressed disapproval of Russia’s military actions in Ukraine. it has avoided taking a clear position on the issue in many UN resolutions, which may be due to India’s military and geopolitical dependence on Russia. However, India’s views on sovereignty align with universally acceptable Westphalian notions and clash with China’s political philosophy of ‘might is right,‘ which has led to China’s support for Russia in the conflict. Problem with India’s multi-alignment stand India lacks hard power .It has been recently argued that had India been adequately powerful it could have stopped the Ukraine conflict. While India has  expressed disapproval of the Ukraine war but it has avoided taking any clear positions in several UN resolutions. This is understandable that India has often taken an evasive position on conflicts that involve traditional allies. However critics argue that  India’s ambiguity does not behove a nation aspiring to become  a permanent member of the UNSC, which implies a commitment to speak as  a global voice against territorial aggression and human rights violations like the case of the Russia -Ukraine conflict. This is based on the military dependence of India as it is on the anti-colonial standard of India’s strategic autonomy doctrine. Way Forward: A pursuit of ‘multi-alignment’ may have given New Delhi some diplomatic space in the ongoing war in Ukraine.  However, it may not be sufficient for India to play the role of a mediator between Russia and Ukraine. India currently lacks the material resources to match the extent of China’s economic and military potential. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA): It is a statutory body of the Government of India. It comes under the Ministry of Civil Aviation. Its headquarters are located in Hyderabad. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC): It is a statutory body. It comes under the ministry of Commerce and Industry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Q.3) The palak lake often mentioned in the news located in Manipur Mizoram Assam Jharkhand Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 12th May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 11th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 60] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 60->Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) LIGO-India Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently, laid down the foundation stone of LIGO-India on the occasion of National Technology Day. About LIGO-India:- IMAGE SOURCE: Gravitational waves discovery: India’s imprint in landmark LIGO project – Times of India (indiatimes.com) LIGO is the world’s most powerful observatory. It exploits the physical properties of light and space to detect and understand the origins of gravitational waves. At the moment, there are two such observatories in the US. These are separated by a distance of 3000 kilometres that work in tandem to pick up these gravitational waves. Each LIGO detector consists of two arms. LIGO-India will be the fifth node of this international network of gravitational wave observatories. It will be located in Maharashtra, India. It is envisaged as a collaborative project between a consortium of Indian research institutions and the LIGO Laboratory in the USA, along with its international partners. It will be built by the Department of Atomic Energy and the Department of Science and Technology, with a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with the National Science Foundation, the US, along with several national and international research and academic institutions. LIGO-India is a collaboration between the LIGO Laboratory (operated by Caltech and MIT in the US) and three Institutes in India namely:-  the Raja Ramanna Center for Advanced Technology (RRCAT, in Indore),  the Institute for Plasma Research (IPR in Ahmedabad), and the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA, in Pune). When LIGO-India is completed, it will join a global network of gravitational-wave observatories that includes Virgo in Italy and KAGRA in Japan. Significance:- LIGO-India will provide opportunities for Indian youth to pursue research careers in cutting-edge areas of science and technology. It will lead to advancement in gravitational-wave astronomy and astrophysics. It will lead to the development of cutting-edge technologies.(UPSC MAINS: Privatisation in Space Sector) Gravitational Waves:- A gravitational wave is an invisible (yet incredibly fast) ripple in space. (UPSC MAINS: Gravitational waves)  They travel at the speed of light (186,000 miles per second). These waves squeeze and stretch anything in their path as they pass by. Einstein predicted that when two bodies such as planets or stars orbit each other it causes ripples in space. These ripples would spread out like the ripples in a pond when a stone is tossed in.  Scientists call these ripples of space gravitational waves. MUST READ: India’s Space Economy SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on it. Q.2) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Monlam Chenmo Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: The annual five-day-long ‘Monlam Chenmo’ Festival, began recently in Ladakh. About Monlam Chenmo:- Monlam Chenmo is an annual five-day-long Great Prayer Festival of Ladakh. (UPSC PRELIMS: Ladakh) It is a mass prayer camp by Buddhist monks and nuns for world peace and happiness. The annual Mass Prayer is resuming this year after three years of discontinuation due to Covid. The event is being organised by the All Ladakh Gonpa Association. It is a major annual prayer of the Sangha Community of Ladakh gathered at one platform. The Festival falls on the 21st to 25th days of the third month of the Tibetan lunar calendar. It is being held since 1991. Seva for Sangha:- It is a special camp for Sangha Community. Objective: to help the Sangha Community avail benefits of different government schemes. It is led by the Member of Parliament for Ladakh Constituency Jamyang Tsering Namgyal in collaboration with district administration Leh. (UPSC CSE: Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council (LAHDC), Leh) The camp is being organised for the first time for Sanga Community. Different government departments, including banks, will come forward and offer the benefits of about 20 schemes of the government to the monks and nuns. The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) has also joined hands with the organisers to set up medical camps during the camp. MUST READ: India’s first-ever night sky sanctuary in Ladakh SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2018) Tradition                                 State Chapchar Kut festival              Mizoram Khongjom Parba ballad          Manipur Thang-Ta dance                      Sikkim Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2015) Traditions                                     Communities Chaliha Sahib Festival             Sindhis Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra               Gonds Wari-Warkari                          Santhals Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only None of the above Hydrogen sulphide Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Preliminary evidence, from post-mortem and clinical features of the survivors of the recent Giaspura tragedy, suspect hydrogen sulphide gas as the cause. About Hydrogen sulphide:- IMAGE SOURCE: Overview of environmental sources and the fate of hydrogen sulfide (H2S) in… | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) Hydrogen sulphide (H2S) is a colourless chalcogen hydride gas with a characteristic foul odour. It is very poisonous, corrosive, and flammable. (UPSC PRELIMS: India’s first pure green hydrogen plant commissioned) It dissolves in water and oil. It may be released when these liquids are heated, depressurized, or agitated. It occurs in volcanic gases, natural gas, and some sources of well water. (UPSC CSE: Electronic nose to detect hydrogen sulphide developed)   Health Hazards Associated with Hydrogen Sulphide:- The health effects of hydrogen sulfide range from mild, headaches or eye irritation, to very serious, unconsciousness and death. Too much H2S can halt the breathing centre in the brain, which can cause death. The gas can irritate the eyes, nose, throat, and lungs. Because it is heavier than air, hydrogen sulfide can collect in low-lying and enclosed spaces, such as manholes, sewers, and underground telephone vaults. Its presence makes work in confined spaces potentially very dangerous. Uses:- Hydrogen sulphide is used primarily to produce sulfuric acid and sulphur. It is also used to create a variety of inorganic sulphides. It is used to create pesticides, leather, dyes, and pharmaceuticals. It is used to produce heavy water for nuclear power plants. It is also used or is a by-product in many industrial processes. Hydrogen sulfide is produced naturally from decaying organic matter.  It occurs naturally in sewers, manure pits, well water, oil and gas wells, and volcanoes.  It can be released from sewage sludge, liquid manure, sulfur hot springs, and natural gas. MUST READ: Bhopal Gas Tragedy SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2021) Low-density polyethene Polycarbonate Polyethene terephthalate Polyvinyl Chloride Q.2) Water can dissolve more substances than any other liquid because. (2021) It is dipolar in nature. It is a good conductor of heat It has a high value of specific heat It is an oxide of hydrogen Poshan Bhi, Padhai Bhi Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Union Minister for Women and Child Development Smriti Irani launched the ‘Poshan Bhi, Padhai Bhi’ schemes. About Poshan Bhi, Padhai Bhi:- Poshan Bhi, Padhai Bhi is an initiative for strengthening Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE). It is launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development. Objective:  to ensure that India has the world’s largest, universal, high-quality preschool network, as suggested by the NEP 2020. (UPSC CSE: National Education Policy 2020) It emphasizes the links with primary education as well as early childhood health and nutrition services. (UPSC PRELIMS: POSHAN Maah) Salient Features:- The government will target children’s development in every domain mentioned in the National Curriculum Framework. These include physical and motor development, cognitive development, socio-emotional-ethical development, etc. All States will follow the national ECCE task force recommendations for a play-based, activity-based learning pedagogy. It is targeted specifically at developmental milestones of 0-3-year olds as well as 3-6-year olds. It will include special support for Divyang children. Every child would be provided with at least two hours of high-quality preschool instruction on a daily basis. Anganwadi Centres will be strengthened with high-quality infrastructure, play equipment, and well-trained Anganwadi workers/teachers. It will provide for the mother tongue as the primary teacher instruction medium. It will also ensure different types of teaching-learning material (visual aids, audio aids, audio-visual and bodily-kinesthetic aids) to Anganwadi Sewikas. It will help build a Jan Andolan, to involve communities in strengthening the foundations of the country’s future generations. MUST READ: Education & Nation Building SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’? (2017) To enable famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only iDrone initiative Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: ICMR successfully conducted a trial run of delivery of blood bags by drones under its ‘iDrone initiative’ recently. About the drone initiative:- IMAGE SOURCE: Advantages And Disadvantages Of Drone Technology | Grind Drone The iDrone initiative is an innovative of the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR). (UPSC PRELIMS: i-Drone) The ICMR introduced the i-DRONE during the COVID-19 pandemic. It is now being used to deliver blood and blood-related products which are supposed to be kept at a low temperature. The inaugural trial flight carried ten units of whole blood samples from the Government Institute of Medical Sciences (GIMS) and Lady Hardinge Medical College (LHMC) in a visual line of sight. This initiative aims to transport essential medical resources to remote areas within the country. The medical supplies delivered under iDrone project included COVID-19 vaccines, vaccines used in routine immunisation programs, antenatal care medicines, multi-vitamins, syringes and gloves. The drone delivery system focused on an end-to-end ecosystem for drone-based logistic transportation within the states.  It was the first successful example of delivering vaccines through drones from land to islands in South Asia. The longest drone flight under this project carried 3525 units of medical supplies from Mokokchung to the district Tuensang in Nagaland (approx. 40 km). Significance: it will revolutionize the healthcare industry, especially in remote areas where access to medical facilities is limited. (UPSC CSE: Ministry of Civil Aviation notifies liberalised Drone Rules, 2021) Objectives:- To deliver medical supplies using drones. To distribute vaccines to inaccessible regions. To ensure the safe delivery of temperature-sensitive blood products to distant locations in the country. Other countries use drones to deliver medical supplies:- In Ghana, drone delivery of blood both as laboratory samples and as emergency blood and blood product delivery is available. MUST READ: Import Ban on Drones SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices? (2019) Location identification of a person Sleep monitoring of a person Assisting the hearing-impaired person Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017? (2017) It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city in our country into Smart Cities in a decade. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 3 only 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only Gajapati irrigation project Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, the Odisha Government announced the move to start the Gajapati irrigation project. About the Gajapati irrigation project:- It is a multipurpose irrigation project at Chheligada in the Gajapati district of Odisha. It is being undertaken across the river Badjhore. Badjhore: is a tributary of river Vansadhara near the village Chheligada in the Gajapati District of Odisha. The Project envisages the construction of a 250m long & 30m high dam across the river Badjhore with a central spillway. After this Project, 5201 hectares metres of water can be preserved and water can be supplied for irrigation of 5760 hectares of land in Ganjam and 500 hectares of land in Gajapati districts. This Project will also provide drinking water to Brahampur City. Additionally, 36 MW of electricity can be produced through a mini hydel project in three places Shiali Loti, Kankata and Dekili in the Gajapati district. Salient features of the Project are:- 90m long centrally located Ogee-type gated Spillway 1.13 km long tunnel to connect Chheligada reservoir with Ghodahada river (UPSC PRELIMS: Linking Rivers) Canal system directly from the dam to irrigate in the Gajapati district (UPSC MAINS: Decentralised irrigation techniques) Laying of the pipeline for drinking water supply to Berhampur (Distt. Ganjam) MUST READ: Cabinet approves Ken-Betwa Interlinking of Rivers Project SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? (2022) Cauvery Manjira Pennar Tungabhadra Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2022) Reservoirs        :     States Ghataprabha   :     Telangana Gandhi Sagar  :     Madhya Pradesh Indira Sagar    :     Andhra Pradesh Maithon          :     Chhattisgarh How many pairs given above are not correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs PAY Only three pairs All four pairs Central Electricity Authority Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, the Central Electricity Authority has projected a peak power demand of 335 gw and 2.28 trillion units of electricity for the year 2029-30. About Central Electricity Authority:- The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) is a statutory organization. It was constituted under Section 3 (1) of the repealed Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948 and continued under Section 70 of the Electricity Act, 2003. It was established as a part-time body in 1951. It became a full-time body in the year 1975. Members:- As per Section 70 (3) of the Electricity Act, 2003, the authority shall consist of not more than 14 members. (UPSC CSE: The Electricity (Amendment) Bill 2022) This includes its chairperson. Not more than eight of them shall be full-time members to be appointed by the Central Government. The CEA is headed by a chairperson who, is the Chief Executive of the authority. He oversees largely the development of the power sector in the country. Functions:- It advises the government on matters relating to the National Electricity Policy (NEP). It formulates short-term and prospective plans for the development of electrical systems. It is the designated authority for cross border trade of electricity. (UPSC CSE: Cross-border Electricity Trade) It also prescribes the standards on matters such as the construction of electrical plants, electric lines and connectivity to the grid, safety and grid standards and installation and operation of meters. It is also responsible for the concurrence of hydropower development schemes of central, state and private sectors for the efficient development of rivers and their tributaries for power generation. MUST READ: Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to solar water pumps, consider the following statements: (2020) Solar power can be used for running surface pumps and not for submersible Pumps. Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps and not the ones with pistons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following is the purpose of `UDAY’, a scheme of the Government? (2016) Providing technical and financial assistance to start-up entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy Providing electricity to every household in the country by 2018 Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period of time Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies Gaza and West Bank Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, Oman and Qatar criticized aggression by Israeli occupation forces on Gaza & incursion into West Bank’s Nablus. About Gaza and West Bank:- IMAGE SOURCE: Rocket kills man in Israel as strikes target Gaza militant commanders – BBC News. The West Bank and Gaza Strip are the two geographical regions. They house a large number of Palestinians. Background:- The Gaza Strip is an entirely artificial creation that emerged in 1948 when roughly three-fourths of Palestine’s Arab population was displaced.  (UPSC CSE: Violence between Israel- Palestine ) Most of the refugees scattered across the region in neighbouring countries like Jordan, Syria and Lebanon The West Bank and Gaza Strip are separated from each other by Israel. (UPSC PRELIMS: India and Israel) The West Bank is a landlocked region located west of the Jordan River. It is surrounded by Jordan to the east. It has Israel to the south, west and north MUST READ: India, Israel and Palestine SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (2018) China Israel Iraq Yemen Q.2) What is the importance of developing the Chabahar Port by India? (2017) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase. India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened. India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India Indian Sludge finds ‘high potential’ for use as Fertilizer Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment) Context: A recent analysis found that sludge found in Indian sewage treatment plants (STP)has  high potential for use as fertilizer but required treatment before it could be used unrestrictedly in farms, or as a potential biofuel. About Sludge: Sludge is a thick residue found in Sewage Treatment Plants set up to treat polluted water. They are rich in organic chemicals but are also a repository of heavy metals, industrial effluents and bacterial contaminants. Classification of Treated sludge: India doesn’t yet have standards classifying sludge as class A or B. Treated sludge can be classified as class A or class B, as per the standards of the United States Environment Protection Agency. Class A sludge: It is safe to be disposed of in the open and useful as organic fertilizer. Class B sludge: It can be used in restricted agricultural applications, with the edible parts of the crop not exposed to the sludge-mixed soil, and animals and people not come into extensive contact. Government initiative to treat sludge: National Mission for Clean Ganga is a flagship programme of the government to establish treatment facilities and prevent pollution of the Ganga River. One of the measures under this is “Arth Ganga” (economic value from Ganga). It aims to “monetise” and reuse treated wastewater and sludge. This means converting sludge into usable products such as manure and bricks. Findings: Most of the dried sludge analysed falls into the class B category. Nitrogen and phosphorus levels exceed India’s fertilizer standards, while potassium levels are lower than recommended. Total organic carbon content is higher than recommended, but heavy metal contamination and pathogen levels surpass fertilizer standards. Calorific value of sludge ranges from 1,000-3,500 kcal/kg, lower than that of Indian coal. Recommendations for Improving Sludge Quality: Storage of sludge for at least three months is recommended to kill pathogens. Blending sludge with cattle manure, husk, or local soil can reduce heavy metal content. These measures, however, would still categorize sludge as class B. Converting sludge into class A would require more extensive treatment. Challenges: India doesn’t yet have standards classifying sludge as class A or B. Currently, those awarded contracts for developing and maintaining STPs under the Namami Ganga Mission are also apportioned land for disposing of the sludge. However, this is rarely treated, and during rains, such sludge — with its accompanying chemical and metallic constituents — often makes its way back into rivers and local water sources. A study by the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT)-Roorkee found that most of the sludge analysed after drying fell into the class B category. Nitrogen and phosphorous levels were higher than those recommended by India’s fertilizer standards (FCO, 2009). However, the potassium levels of some sludges were less than recommended. Suggestive measures: To improve the quality of sludge, the report recommends the sludge needs to be stored for at least three months to kill pathogens, and blended with cattle manure and husk or local soil to reduce the heavy metal. This, however, would still put it in class B and converting it into grade A sludge would require far more extensive treatment. Before standards were made, it was necessary to understand the characteristics of the sludge from these STPs before ways could be devised to incentivize private players to treat and dispose of sludge. Source:   The Hindu Arth Ganga Project: ‘Arth Ganga’ implies a sustainable development model with a focus on economic activities related to Ganga. Prime Minister of India first introduced the concept during the first National Ganga Council meeting in Kanpur in 2019, where he urged for a shift from Namami Gange to the model of Arth Ganga. Under Arth Ganga, the government is working on six verticals: The first is Zero Budget Natural Farming, which involves chemical-free farming on 10 km on either side of the river, and the promotion of cow dung as fertilizer through the Gobardhan scheme. The Monetization and Reuse of Sludge & Wastewater is the second, which seeks to reuse treated water for irrigation, industries and revenue generation for Urban Local Bodies (ULBs). Arth Ganga will also involve Livelihood Generation Opportunities, by creating haats where people can sell local products, medicinal plants and ayurveda. The fourth is to increase public participation by increasing synergies between the stakeholders involved with the river. The model also wants to promote the cultural heritage and tourism of Ganga and its surroundings, through boat tourism, adventure sports, and by conducting yoga activities. Lastly, the model seeks to promote institutional building by empowering local administration for improved water governance. What is the stalemate over the U.S. debt ceiling? Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: The U.S. Treasury Secretary notified Congress last week that the country could default on its debt as early as June 1 2023, if the Republican-dominated House of Representatives and President Joe Biden’s White House did not reach a consensus to raise or suspend the debt ceiling. About debt ceiling: The maximum amount of money that the United States can borrow by issuing bonds is known as Debt Ceiling. It was introduced in 1917 during World War I. Under the Second Freedom Bond Act of 1917 and the debt ceiling was created and it is also known as the statutory debt limit or the debt limit. If the US government’s national debt reaches the cap, the Treasury Department must take other steps to meet government expenditures and other obligations the cap is increased again. The debt ceiling has been suspended or raised several times across the years so as to avoid the worst-case scenario of default. There have been numerous clashes regarding the debt ceiling, which have even led to the shutdown of governments. Disadvantages of Debt Ceiling: The debt ceiling will be raised even higher when the cap is reached and doing so every time can cause problems. The risk non-payment of interest as well as default to bondholders increases the nations borrowing costs and reduces the solvency of the United States. Debt Management in India: The Reserve Bank of India has allowed the following bodies to issue debt instruments in India: Central and State Governments, Municipal Corporations, Government agencies, Banks, NBFCs, Public Sector Units, Corporates. Debt products available include bonds, Certificates of Deposit, Commercial Papers, Debentures, National Savings Certificates, Government Securities, Fixed Deposits, and more. In India, public debt includes the total liabilities of the Union government that have to be paid from the Consolidated Fund of India (Article 292). It is further classified into internal and external debt. Internal debt is categorized into marketable and non-marketable securities. The part of a nation’s debt that is borrowed from foreign lenders, such as commercial banks, governments, or international financial institutions, is referred to as its external debt. The debt-to-GDP ratio shows how probable it is that the nation will be able to pay off its debt. Investors frequently use the debt-to-GDP ratio to determine the capacity of the government to finance its debt. Global economic crises have been fueled by higher debt-to-GDP ratios. In 2015, the creation of a statutory body called Public Debt Management Agency (PDMA) was envisaged in India that deals with the management of public debt called the Public Debt Management Cell. Public Debt Management Cell is an interim arrangement before setting up an independent and statutory debt management agency namely the Public Debt Management Agency (PDMA). Way Forward: An excessive level of public debt can result in higher interest rates, which has a crowding effect on the amount of private investment in the economy and the rate of economic expansion as a whole. Although it temporarily boosts overall demand, if left unchecked it can cause a country’s economy to experience spiralling losses. Source:    The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-wave Observatory (LIGO) India: It exploits the physical properties of light and space to detect and understand the origins of gravitational waves. It will be located in Karnataka, India. It is envisaged as a collaborative project between a consortium of Indian research institutions and the LIGO Laboratory in the USA, along with its international partners. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) The health effects of hydrogen sulphide range from mild, headaches or eye irritation, to very serious, unconsciousness and death. In this context, which of the following are sources of Hydrogen Sulphide? Fertilizer Industry Leather Industry Textile Industries Pharmaceuticals Industry Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 2 and 4 only 1 2 and 3 only 2 3 and 4 only All of the above Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the Central Electricity Authority (CEA): It is a non-statutory organization. It advises the government on matters relating to the National Electricity Policy (NEP). The CEA is headed by a chairperson who, is the Chief Executive of the authority. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 12th May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 11th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 12th May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[Compilations] 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Subjectwise Compilations for UPSC Prelims 2023 – Part 1

Hello friends,If you ask any topper about their secret of success, you’ll find one common answer. And that is – Revision.Revision is key to success as if you have not revised the topics, you won’t be able to recall them in the exam and there will be a very high probability of getting confused and marking an incorrect answer.To assist all of you in Revision, we are providing you with the Compilation of the 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series. Make the best use of them. All the best! Download Compilations - Part 1 Part 2 compilations will be updated soon! Polity Economy History Geography Environment Science & Technology Current Affairs CSAT

[DAY 59] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 59->Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Rabindranath Tagore Syllabus Prelims –Important Personalities Context: Recently, a political row erupted following Union Home Minister Amit Shah’s remark that Rabindranath Tagore had composed “national songs” of two countries. About Rabindranath Tagore:- IMAGE SOURCE: Tagore wins Nobel Prize (bl. UK) Rabindranath Tagore was a Bengali poet, novelist, artist, painter and educational theorist. He is credited with composing the National Anthem of India. Tagore won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1913 for his collection Gitanjali. He was the first Indian and non-European to receive a Nobel Prize. He received the British Knighthood in 1915. However, he renounced it in protest against the Jallianwalla Bagh massacre in 1919. (UPSC PRELIMS: Jallianwala Bagh) Social Philosophy:- He fought against the evils of his society such as poverty, superstition, and untouchability. He welcomed Western science and Western beliefs in individual worth, freedom, and democracy. Independence movement:- He believed that nationalism deteriorated from patriotism to chauvinism. He is credited for giving the Mahatma title to Mahatma Gandhi. (UPSC MAINS: Gandhi as a Political thinker and a Social Reformer) He strongly protested against the partition of Bengal in 1905. He wrote many national songs and attended protest meetings against the decision to partition Bengal. Religion:- Tagore advocated the religion of humanity. Education:- In his view, traditional schools imprison children. Hence, he started a model school after the ancient hermitage schools of India named Santiniketan (the abode of peace). Santiniketan engaged many scholars from across the world, including his English friends, Oxford professor E J Thompson, missionary C F Andrews and Lord Elmhirst. He also widened his educational commitment by founding a university – Visva Bharati  Visva Bharati: promoted an international culture of unity in diversity. Literary Contributions:- Poems: Manasi (The Ideal One,1890)  Sonar Tari (The Golden Boat,1894)  Gitanjali (Song Offerings,1910) Gitimalya (Wreath of Songs,1914) Balaka (The Flight of Cranes,1916) Plays: Raja (1910) [The King of the Dark Chamber], Dakghar (The Post Office,1912) Achalayatan (The Immovable,1912) Muktadhara (The Waterfall,1922) Raktakaravi (Red Oleanders,1926) Short stories and Novels: Gora (1910), Ghare-Baire (The Home and the World, 1916) and Yogayog (Crosscurrents, 1929) MUST READ:   (Book Review – Gitanjali by Rabindranath Tagore) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Who among the following is associated with ‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English? (2021) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Jawaharlal Nehru Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi Sarojini Naidu Q.2) Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School? (2021) Annie Besant Debandranath Tagore Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar Sarojini Naidu Enforcement Directorate Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Enforcement Directorate conducted a search at gold-backed lender Manappuram Finance. About Enforcement Directorate:- IMAGE SOURCE: Enforcement Directorate (ED) and its Functions – Enterslice The Enforcement Directorate is a multi-disciplinary organization founded in 1956. It is a law enforcement organization tasked with enforcing economic laws and combating economic crime in India, such as money laundering and foreign exchange irregularities. It works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Headquarters: New Delhi The functions of the Directorate include the enforcement of the following Acts:- The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) (UPSC PRELIMS: Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) 2002) The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA): A civil law under which ED conducts an investigation into suspected contraventions of foreign exchange laws and regulations. (UPSC PRELIMS: Foreign Exchange Management Act) The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act 1973 Sponsoring Organizations under the 1974 Foreign Exchange Conservation and Smuggling Activity Prevention Act The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA): A law whereby the Directorate is mandated to attach the properties of the fugitive economic offenders who have escaped from India warranting arrest and providing for the confiscation of their properties to the Central Government. (UPSC CSE: Fugitive Economic Offenders) Director of Enforcement:- Appointed by the central government on the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Central Vigilance Commissioner and members comprising of Vigilance Commissioners, Home Secretary, Secretary DOPT and Revenue Secretary. Tenure: up to 5 years. Recruitment of other officers:- Other officers may be recruited directly from other investigative agencies or indirectly.  It is made up of representatives from the police, excise, customs, and income tax departments of the Indian Revenue Services (IRS), the Indian Police Services (IPS), and the Indian Administrative Services (IAS). MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Geological Survey of India (GSI) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Geological Survey of India (GSI) denied media reports claiming large lithium reserves being identified in Rajasthan. About the Geological Survey of India (GSI):- The Geological Survey of India (GSI) is a scientific agency of India founded in 1851. (UPSC MAINS: Geological Survey of India ) It works under the Ministry of Mines. Background: It was set up in 1851 primarily to find coal deposits for the Railways. It is one of the oldest organisations in the world and the second oldest survey in India after Survey of India. (UPSC PRELIMS: Survey of India) Objectives:- Conducting geological surveys and studies of India. Being the prime provider of basic earth science information to government, industry and the general public, as well as the official participant in steel, coal, metals, cement, power industries and international geoscientific forums. Functions: creation and updation of national geoscientific information and mineral resource assessment. Headquarters: Kolkata It has six regional offices located at Lucknow, Jaipur, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Shillong and Kolkata. Important events in the history of the Geological Survey of India:- 1821: First Geological Map of parts of India was of the Hyderabad region by Dr H. W. Voysey 1840: Museum of Geology established in Calcutta 1873: Ram Singh becomes the first Indian to join the Geological Survey of India (as an apprentice) 1911: Revised Geological Map of India in 1″= 32 Mile scale was published under H. H. Hayden 1921-33: E. H. Pascoe’s “Manual of Geology of India” published in four volumes 1951 M. S. Krishnan becomes the first Indian to be a Director of the Geological Survey of India 2001: GSI celebrated 150 years Missions for GSI:- Mission I: Baseline Geoscience, Data Collection Ground and Marine Surveys Remote Sensing and Aerial Surveys Mission II: Natural Resource Assessment Natural Mineral Resource Assessment Natural Energy Mineral Resources Mission III: Geoinformatics Data Repository and Management, etc Publication and Information, Library Map, Geoinformatics and Data Integration Mission IV: Multidisciplinary Geosciences Geotechnical and Geohazards Management Climate Change and Eco-Systems, etc Fundamental Geosciences and Research Mission V: Training And Capacity Building Training And Capacity Building MUST READ: Gold Reserve SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Monazite is a source of rare earth. Monazite contains thorium. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following minerals: (2020) Bentonite Chromite Kyanite Sillimanite In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) recently published a new study on the rising challenges of extreme weather events and natural disasters. About United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP):-   IMAGE SOURCE: About ESCAP | ESCAP (unescap.org) The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) is the most inclusive intergovernmental platform in the Asia-Pacific region. The United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific is the main legislative organ of ESCAP. It reports to the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of the UN. (UPSC MAINS: Peacekeeping efforts of UN)  It provides a forum for all governments of the region to review and discuss economic and social issues and to strengthen regional cooperation. The Commission meets annually at the ministerial level.  It discusses and decides on important issues pertaining to inclusive and sustainable economic and social development in the region, to decide on the recommendations of its subsidiary bodies and of the Executive Secretary. It reviews and endorses the proposed strategic framework and programme of work, and makes any other decisions required, in conformity with its terms of reference. Members: It has 53 member States and 9 associate members. The Commission promotes cooperation in pursuit of solutions to sustainable development challenges. ESCAP is one of the five regional commissions of the United Nations. (UPSC MAINS: Reforms in the United Nations (UN)) Functions:- It supports inclusive, resilient and sustainable development in the region by generating action-oriented knowledge. It provides technical assistance and capacity-building services in support of national development objectives, regional agreements and the implementation of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.  It also provides support to partners at the national level. MUST READ: United Nations Institute for Water, Environment and Health (UNU-INWEH) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for (2021) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit of time Q.2) “R2 Code of Practices” constitute a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2021) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources Maharana Pratap Syllabus Prelims –Important Personalities Context: Maharana Pratap Jayanti was celebrated recently. About Maharana Pratap:- Maharana Pratap, was born in Kumbhalgarh, Rajasthan. He was the 13th King of Mewar and the eldest son of Udai Singh II. Maharana Udai Singh II: ruled the kingdom of Mewar, with his capital at Chittor. Udai Singh II was also a founder of the city of Udaipur (Rajasthan). Important Events:- Battle of Haldighati: The Battle of Haldighati was fought in 1576. It was between Rana Pratap Singh of Mewar and Raja Man Singh of Amber who was the general of the Mughal emperor Akbar. (UPSC PRELIMS: Akbar) Maharana Pratap fought a brave war but was defeated by Mughal forces. It is said that Maharana Pratap’s loyal horse named Chetak, gave up his life as the Maharana was leaving the battlefield. Reconquest:- After 1579, Pratap recovered Western Mewar including Kumbhalgarh, Udaipur and Gogunda. He also built a new capital, Chavand, near modern Dungarpur. He was succeeded by his son Amar Singh, who submitted in 1614 to Emperor Jahangir. (UPSC PRELIMS: Mughal paintings) MUST READ: Eastern Rajasthan Canal Project (ERCP) SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS  Q.1) With reference to medieval India, which one of the following is the correct sequence in ascending order in terms of size? (2020) Paragana – Sarkar – Suba Sarkar – Paragana – Suba Suba – Sarkar – Paragana Paragana – Suba – Sarkar Q.2) Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to the album and individual portraits? (2018) Humayun Akbar Jahangir Shah Jahan Coco Islands Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: Indian Navy drones are keeping an eye on China-linked Coco Islands after a top Myanmar military official’s recent visit. About Coco Islands:- IMAGE SOURCE: Sri Lanka the heart of the Indian Ocean (heartofindianocean.blogspot.com) Coco Islands are a small group of islands located in the Bay of Bengal. They are part of the Yangon Region of Myanmar. Historical Background:- In the early 19th century, the British government in India established a penal colony in the Andaman for the convicts in the Indian subcontinent, and the Coco Islands were a source of food for it. The British government had reportedly leased out the islands to the Jadwet family of Burma. The leasing of control of the Coco Islands resulted in poor governance of the islands, which made the British government in India transfer its control to the government of Lower Burma in Rangoon. In 1882, the islands officially became part of British Burma. (UPSC MAINS: Political Crisis in Myanmar) The islands became a self-governing crown colony even after Burma was separated from British India in 1937. Great Coco Island, the largest in the group, lies just 55 km from India’s strategic Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Coco Islands are geologically an extended division of the Arakan Mountains or Rakhine Mountains. They submerge as a chain of islands in the Bay of Bengal for a long stretch and emerge again in the form of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. (UPSC MAINS: Plate tectonics theory) They are part of the same topography as India’s Andaman & Nicobar Islands. MUST READ: Andaman and Nicobar Gets Large Area Certification SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                              Turkey Amhara                                               Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                     Spain Catalonia                                             Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following pairs : (2018) Regions sometimes mentioned in news                    Country Catalonia                                                        Spain Crimea                                                            Hungary Mindanao                                                       Philippines Oromia                                                            Nigeria Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only Voting Rights of Migrant Workers Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: Given the large migrant population in Karnataka, Lokniti-Centre for the Study of Developing Societies conducted a study among the migrant voters of Bengaluru to find out their voting patterns. About Migrant Worker: A migrant worker is a person who migrates within a home country or outside it to pursue work. Migrant workers usually do not have the intention to stay permanently in the country or region in which they work. In India, Migrant workers usually refer to those who engage in internal migration within the country, often for the purpose of seeking employment. Internal migration refers to the movement of people from one place to another within the same country. Internal migration in India: As per census 2011, the total number of internal migrants in India is 36 crore or 37% of the country’s population. The Economic Survey pegged the size of the migrant workforce at roughly 20 per cent or over 10 crore in 2016. Major origin states of internal migration: Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Odisha. Major destination states of internal migration: Maharashtra, Delhi, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Punjab. Sectoral composition: The share of migrant workers is the highest in the construction sector for females while the highest number of male migrant workers are employed in public services (transport, postal, public administration services) and modern services (financial intermediation, real estate, renting, education, health). About Remote Voting: Any method that enables voters to cast their ballots from locations other than the polling place designated for their registration address is referred to as remote voting. Both domestically and internationally may be used as the remote voting location. It includes both non-electronic and electronic voting processes. A “Committee of Officers on Domestic Migrants” was established by the Election Commission of India (ECI) earlier to handle this problem. A solution in the form of “remote voting” was proposed in the Committee’s 2016 report. Migration and  Remote Voting Migrant workers across India are often apprehensive about registering themselves as voters in any other State apart from their home State. This is due to various reasons such as frequent changes in residence, fear of losing property in their home State, and their inability or unwillingness to bring their families with them as well. The migrants often convey that the locality were not safe for women. Remote Electronic Voting Machine: Source: The Hindu Remote Electronic Voting Machine (RVM), allows domestic migrants to vote in national and regional elections. The EC proposed using this in a State Assembly election as a pilot so internal migrants within a state can cast their ballots. Features of RVM: It is a standalone, non-networked system having the same security features as the existing Indian EVMs and provides the same voting experience to the voter as the EVM. The RVM system is essentially a modified version of the existing EVM system. A single Ballot Unit (BU) can cater to multiple AC/ PCs at a single polling station by using a dynamic ballot display instead of the usually printed paper ballot sheet on BU. Significance of RVM: Increasing voters’ participation: It will enable a voter, who is listed in constituencies, to exercise voting rights from a single machine. Ease of Voting: Migrant voters need not travel to their home district to exercise their voting rights. Vibrant Democracy: It will enable approximately 30 crore electors, currently not exercising their franchise, to vote. Safety and Security: Remote e-voting machine will be a standalone device which doesn’t need connectivity to operate. Concerns with RVM: Inclusive definition of migrants: Migrants are not a uniform and defined class, with fluid identities, locations and situations. Trust Issue: Various countries have already rejected EVMs for paper-based ballots. Hacking Probability: RVMs with more technological components are bound to raise further questions. Lack of Level Playing Field: Remote voting can theoretically provide an added edge to bigger parties and richer candidates who can campaign across the constituency and beyond. Model Code of Conduct: There is no clarity about how Model Code of Conduct will be implemented in the remote constituencies. Way Forward: Lakhs of migrants not only have they left their home States, they have also given up on significant rights. While elections are an opportunity for people to exercise their fundamental rights, the votes of migrant voters have been missing for years. While the ECI’s move provides a ray of hope to millions of migrant workers, two crucial priorities ahead are to create awareness about the initiative and ensure transparency. Source:   The Hindu Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: The ONDC (Open Network for Digital Commerce) is gradually challenging the dominance of Zomato and Swiggy by offering users cheaper prices for the same food items. About ONDC Project: Source:   The Hindu Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is an initiative aiming at promoting open networks for all aspects of exchange of goods and services over digital or electronic networks. ONDC is to be based on open-sourced methodology, using open specifications and open network protocols independent of any specific platform. It is a non-profit initiative of the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce. Currently, grocery and food items merchants are mostly part of it, but beauty, fashion, personal care products, and electronics, among others, are gradually joining in Currently, there are partners like Paytm, Meesho, Magicpin, Mystore, Craftsvilla, and Spice Money, which act as online storefronts, allowing users to order food or any other product from a business listed on the ONDC platform. Significance of ONDC: On ONDC, buyers and sellers may transact irrespective of the fact that they are attached to one specific e-commerce portal. This could give a huge booster shot to smaller online retailers and new entrants. However, if mandated, this could be problematic for larger e-commerce companies, which have their own processes and technology deployed for these segments of operations. ONDC is expected to digitise the entire value chain, standardise operations, promote inclusion of suppliers, derive efficiency in logistics and enhance value for consumers. The platform envisages equal-opportunity participation and is expected to make e-commerce more inclusive and accessible for consumers as they can potentially discover any seller, product or service by using any compatible application/platform, thus increasing their freedom of choice. It will enable transactions of any denomination, thus making ONDC a truly ‘open network for democratic commerce’. Over the next five years, the ONDC expects to bring on board 90 crore users and 12 lakh sellers on the network, enabling 730 crore additional purchases. Challenges with ONDC: Threat to Local businesses in the long run: The local business will find it extremely challenging to compete with the discounts, sales and other lucrative offers, being offered by prominent e-commerce players which may result in local business being squeezed out of the network in the long run. Silent on liability for a bad product: The strategy paper is silent on the issues regarding liability on the network in case consumers faced issues regarding transactions, delivery of substandard products and service. No clarity on how existing laws will apply: There is also a lack of clarity on the applicability of the existing e-commerce laws to the network. Indian e-commerce Industry: Growth: The Indian e-commerce industry has been on an upward growth trajectory. The Indian e-commerce market was estimated to be worth over $55 Bn in Gross Merchandise Value in 2021. By 2030, it is expected to have an annual gross merchandise value of $350 Bn. Factors of Growth: Fuelling e-commerce growth, India is expected to have over 907 million internet users by 2023, which accounts for ~64% of the total population of the country. The e-commerce industry in India is growing on levers such as increased smartphone penetration, increased affluence and low data prices, providing impetus for e-retail growth. India is the 2nd largest internet market in the world with ~62 billion UPI transactions in 2022. Electronics and apparel make up nearly 70 per cent of the e-commerce market, when evaluated against transaction value. Other new upcoming categories within e-commerce include ed-tech, hyperlocal and food-tech. Gaining Popularity in tier-2 and tier-3 cities: The e-commerce trend is gaining major popularity even in tier-2 and tier– 3 cities as they now make up nearly half of all shoppers and contribute three of every five orders for leading e-retail platforms. The average selling price (ASP) in tier-2 and smaller towns is only marginally lower than in tier-1/metro cities. Way Forward: ONDC must create consumer trust through robust mechanisms for ensuring redressal of grievances of consumers and enforcing transparent policies for returns, refunds and cancellations. There needs to be a paradigm shift from an operator-driven monolithic platform-centric model to a facilitator-driven, interoperable decentralized network. The policies should be implemented at the network level. Source:   The Hindu MUST READ: (UPSC CSE: E-Commerce) Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP): It is the most inclusive intergovernmental platform in the Asia-Pacific region. It has 75 member States and 15 associate members. It reports to the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of the United Nations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Geological Survey of India (GSI)” It is a scientific agency of India founded in 1851. It works under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. It headquartered in New Delhi It aims at creation and updation of national geoscientific information and mineral resource assessment. Which of the above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only Q.3) The functions of the Enforcement Directorate in India include the enforcement of the which of the following acts? The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 The Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act or COFEPOSA 1974 select the correct using the code given below: 1 2 and 3 only 1 2 and 4 only 2 3 and 4 only 1 2 3 and 4 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 10th May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 9th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here