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[DAY 18] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 18-> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 24th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Green Tug Transition Programme Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways (MoPSW) and Ayush announced the Green Tug Transition Programme (GTTP). About Green Tug Transition Programme: It is launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways. The programme will start with ‘Green Hybrid Tugs’, which will be powered by Green Hybrid Propulsion systems and subsequently adopt non-fossil fuel solutions (like Methanol, Ammonia, and Hydrogen). Objective: to convert all tugboats working in the country into ‘Green Hybrid Tugs’. Green Hybrid Tugs: tugboats running on non-fossil fuel. Green hybrid propulsion system-enabled tug boats will be in action across all major ports by 2025. Target: By 2030, 50% of the existing tugboat fleet will be replaced with green tugs. National Centre of Excellence in Green Port & Shipping (NCoEGPS )will act as the nodal entity for GTTP. India aims at becoming a ‘Global Hub for Green Ship’ building by 2030 with the launch of the Green Tug Transition Programme (GTTP). About the National Centre of Excellence in Green Port & Shipping:-  It is India’s first National Centre of Excellence for Green Port & Shipping (NCoEGPS). It will work under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. It is situated in Gurugram, Haryana. Objectives:- to provide sustainable solutions for the shipping sector. to assist the union ministry in developing and maintaining a policy and regulatory framework for the promotion of green alternative technology in India’s shipping sector. to ensure the sector’s shift towards carbon neutrality and circular economy (CE). The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) is the knowledge and implementation partner of the NCoEGPS. The centre will be set up with assistance from Deendayal Port Authority Kandla, Paradip Port Authority, Paradip, VO Chidambaram Port Authority, Thoothukudi and Cochin Shipyard, Kochi. About The Energy and Resources Institute(TERI):- TERI is a non-profit research institution. It was established in 1974 as Tata Energy Research Institute. It was later renamed as ‘The Energy and Resources Institute’ in 2003. It aims to focus on formulating local and national level strategies for shaping global solutions to critical issues. It conducts research work in the fields of energy, environment and sustainable development. Headquarters: New Delhi MUST READ: Green Ports & Green Shipping in India and GREEN MARITIME SECTOR SOURCE: BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’? (2022) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters. It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region. It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies at the North Pole and the South Pole. It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council. Q.2) Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”? (2022) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country Ignoring the consequences of disastrous ecological while infrastructure development undertaking Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme National Chambal Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh have commenced joint action to stop illegal sand mining in the National Chambal Sanctuary. About National Chambal Sanctuary:- It is a tri-state protected area in northern India. It is home to the critically endangered gharial (small crocodiles), the red-crowned roof turtle and the endangered Ganges river dolphin. It is said to have the highest population of Gharials in India. It is located on the Chambal River near the tri-point of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. It was first declared as a Protected Area in Madhya Pradesh in 1978. It constitutes a long narrow eco-reserve co-administered by the three states. Within the sanctuary, the pristine Chambal River cuts through mazes of ravines and hills with many sandy beaches along its banks. Aquatic animals in National Chambal Sanctuary:- The river is abode to smooth-coated otters, eight types of tortoises, over 30 kinds of fishes, marsh crocodiles and the critically endangered Gangetic dolphin. The Gangetic dolphin is the National Aquatic Animal. Wildlife:- The park boasts famous Indian skimmers. Other birds such as the common teal, northern pintail, sarus crane, black-bellied tern and red-crested pochard can also be seen here. Golden jackal, chinkara, wild boar, Indian wolf etc. are also found here. About Gharial: Gharials are a type of Asian crocodilian distinguished by their long, thin snouts. Crocodilians are a group of reptiles that includes crocodiles, alligators, caimans, etc. Habitat of Gharials: Natural Habitat: Fresh waters of the northern part of India. Primary Habitat: Chambal river (a tributary of Yamuna). Secondary Habitat: Ghagra, Gandak river, Girwa river (Uttar Pradesh), the Ramganga river (Uttarakhand) and the Sone river (Bihar). Conservation Status:- IUCN Red List- Critically Endangered Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I CITES: Appendix I Indicator Species: They are also a crucial indicator of clean river water. Distribution: Gharials were once abundant in the main rivers and tributaries of the Indus, Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Mahanadi-Brahmani river systems. But they are now limited to only 14 widely spaced and restricted localities of India and Nepal. In India, Gharials are present in the Son River, the Girwa River, the Ganges, the Mahanadi River, and the Chambal River. The Satkosia gorge in the Mahanadi is the southernmost limit of gharials. India has three species of Crocodilians namely: Gharial: IUCN Red List- Critically Endangered Mugger crocodile: IUCN- Vulnerable. Saltwater crocodile: IUCN- Least Concern. MUST READ: Saltwater crocodile and Chambal River SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon Frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray Chinned Minivet and White-throated Redstart are (2020) Birds Primates Reptiles Amphibians Q.2) If you want to see gharials in their natural best habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit? (2017) Bhitarkanika Mangroves Chambal River Pulicat Lake Deepor Beel Property Rights For Daughters Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, a daughter’s right to the family property was probed by the Goa Bench of the Bombay High Court. About Property Rights For Daughters:- Hindu Succession Act, 1956 governs property division within the Hindu undivided family. The Mitakshara school of Hindu law, a personal law, codified as the Hindu Succession Act,1956 used to govern the succession and inheritance of property in Hindus. Under this law, only males were recognised as the legal heirs or coparceners in the family Thus, the women were denied the right to inherit their father’s property. In the year 2005, Parliament amended this act. As per this amendment, daughters were allowed to have equal rights. They were made coparceners in ancestral property. Coparcener: someone who shares equally with others in inheritance. Section 6 of the Act was amended to make a daughter a coparcener by birth in her own right in the same manner as the son. Prakash v Phulwati case, 2015 In this case, the Supreme Court ruled that the 2005 amendment could be granted only to the “living daughters of living coparceners” as per the wording in the amended section. This implied that only those daughters whose fathers were alive after the cut-off date of September 2005, would be entitled to benefits under the amendment. The 2018 judgments:- This judgment extended the date further to 2001, but the cut-off was soon retroverted to 2005. In February 2018, contrary to the 2015 ruling, a two-judge Bench headed by Justice A K Sikri held that the share of a father who died in 2001 will also pass to his daughters as coparceners. Previously, the sons could inherit the property regardless of whether their father is ‘living/deceased’, daughters could only do that only if their father was alive after 2005. This was done so that coparcenary cases already settled would not be reopened. However, in April 2018 yet another two-judge bench, headed by Justice RK Agrawal, reiterated the position taken in 2015. Later, a three-judge Bench headed by Justice Arun Mishra ruled the following:- That a Hindu woman’s right to be a joint heir to the ancestral property is by birth. Thus, it does not depend on whether her father was alive or not when the law was enacted in 2005. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 gave Hindu women the right to be coparceners or joint legal heirs in the same way a male heir does. This applies to even if they were born before the change or the father was not alive at the time of the amendment. If the woman died before the amendment came into force, her share may be passed on to her children. MUST READ: Right to Property SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (2021) Legal right available to citizens only Legal right available to any person Fundamental Rights are available to citizens only Neither fundamental Rights nor legal rights Q.2) Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”? (2018) Limitation of powers Equality before the law People’s responsibility to the Government Liberty and civil rights Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises (PMFME) Scheme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the PMFME scheme for micro food processing units sanctioned over 25,000 loans. About Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises (PMFME) Scheme:- Pradhan Mantri Formalization of Micro food processing Enterprises (PMFME) Scheme is a centrally sponsored scheme It is under the  Ministry of Food Processing Industries. It was launched in 2020. The expenditure under the scheme would be shared in a 60:40 ratio between Central and State Governments, in a 90:10 ratio with North Eastern and Himalayan States, a 60:40 ratio with UTs with the legislature and 100% by the Centre for other UTs. It was launched under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan. It aims to enhance the competitiveness of existing individual micro-enterprises in the unorganized segment of the food processing industry. It aims to provide support to Farmer Producer Organizations, Self Help Groups, and Producers Cooperatives along their entire value chain. The scheme envisions directly assisting the 2,00,000 micro food processing units. This will be done by providing financial, technical, and business support for the upgradation of existing micro food processing enterprises. Marketing and branding support would be provided to groups of FPOs/SHGs/ Cooperatives or an SPV of micro food processing enterprises under the scheme. The unorganised food processing sector comprising nearly 25 lakh units contributes to 74% of employment in the food processing sector. Nearly 66% of these units are located in rural areas. MUST READ: One District One Product(ODOP) SOURCE: THE FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements (2018) The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Call Before u Dig app Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the ‘Call Before u Dig’ (CBuD) app. About Call Before u Dig app:- The app is an initiative of the Department of Telecommunications, Ministry of Communications. Objective: It will save potential business loss and minimise discomfort to the citizens due to reduced disruption in essential services like road, telecom, water, gas and electricity. Background:-  Uncoordinated digging and excavation cause damage to underlying assets like optical fibre cables, leading to losses of about Rs 3,000 crore every year. The app aims to prevent damage to utilities due to digging. The CBuD app connects excavators and asset owners through SMS/Email notifications and click-to-call. It ensures planned excavations in the country. It also ensures the safety of underground assets. It aims to give excavating companies a point of contact. They can inquire about existing subsurface utilities before starting excavation work here. Utility owners can also find out about impending work at the location. MUST READ: BHIM–UPI in Bhutan SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India ? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Regarding DigiLocker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Bharat 6G Vision Document Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, Prime Minister unveiled the India’s 6G vision document that eyes service rollout by 2030 . About Bharat 6G Vision Document: Source:  https://newgadgetsindia.com/pm-modi-unveils-bharat-6g-vision-document-and-launches-6g-rd-test-bed/ It outlines India’s plan to launch 6G communication services by 2030. Objective: to create an enabling environment for innovation, capacity building, and faster technology adoption in the country. The document was developed by the Technology Innovation Group on 6G. It is a group of experts from various ministries, research institutions, standardization bodies, telecom service providers, and industry. The 6G test bed was also launched. It is for providing a platform for industry, academic institutions, and others to test and validate emerging technologies. The vision document highlights that 6G will provide ultra-low latency with speeds up to 1 terabit per second. It is 1,000 times faster than the top speed of 5G. While 5G technology promises a speed of 40-1,100 Mbps with the potential to hit maximum speeds of 10,000 Mbps, 6G will offer faster and more efficient communication services. The TIG-6G group’s members will develop a roadmap and action plans for 6G in India. It will provide a clear direction for the development and adoption of 6G technologies in the country.  India’s plan to launch 6G communication services by 2030 demonstrates its commitment to adopting new technologies and remaining at the forefront of the telecommunication industry. About 6 G:- IMAGE SOURCE: 6G main Applications, trends, and technologies [24] | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) It is the successor to 5G cellular technology. It will be able to use higher frequencies than 5G networks. It provide substantially higher capacity and much lower latency (delay). One of the goals of 6G internet will be to support one microsecond-latency communication (delay of one-microsecond in communication). This is 1,000 times faster or 1/1000th the latency than one millisecond throughput. It seeks to utilize the terahertz band of frequency which is currently unutilized. Terahertz waves fall between infrared waves and microwaves on the electromagnetic spectrum. MUST READ: 5G SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: (2022) Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation Which of the following given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following communication technologies: (2022) Closed-circuit Television Radio Frequency Identification Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered of the Short-Range devices/technologies? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Hangul Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent Census shows increased population of endangered Hangul at Dachigam National Park. About Hangul:- It is the state animal of Jammu & Kashmir. The hangul is also called as Kashmir stag. It is a subspecies of elk native to India. Hangul, or cervus ellaphus hanglu, a sub-specie of the European red deer known to be existing only in Kashmir. Habitat:- It is restricted to the Dachigam National Park some 15 km north-west of Jammu & Kashmir’s summer capital Srinagar. The Hangul was once widely distributed in the mountains of Kashmir and parts of Chamba district in neighbouring Himachal Pradesh. Conservation Status:- IUCN’s Red List: Critically Endangered Schedule I:of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and the J&K Wildlife Protection Act, 1978. About Dachigam National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: Dachigam National Park upsc – Bing images Dachigam national park is located in Jammu and Kashmir. It was declared a protected area in 1910. In the year 1981 it was declared as National Park. In the year 1951 it was declared as the Wildlife Sanctuary. It is famous for Himalayan moist temperate evergreen forest. The forest also consists of moist deciduous trees, shrubs, deodar, pine and oak trees. The mountain sides of the national park are covered in Coniferous forest tress that has broad leaves. Dachigam national park is known as the home of Hangul. The National Park covers nearly half of the catchment area of the famous Dal Lake. MUST READ: Wildlife Protection SOURCE:TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Q.2) What is/are unique about ‘Kharai Camel’, a breed found in India? (2016) It is capable of swimming up to three kilometres in seawater It survives by grazing on mangroves It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 International Day of Forests 2023: Healthy forests for healthy people Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Environment and Ecology Context: The International Day of Forests (IDF) was observed recently on March 21 to raise awareness about the significance of forests and trees. The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) declared March 21 as the International Day of Forests (IDF) in 2012. Importance of Forest Forests are of global importance. Forests provide habitat for 80% of amphibian species, 75% of bird species, and 68% of mammal species. More than 18% of the total forest area is in legally established protected areas. Nevertheless, forest biodiversity remains under threat from deforestation and forest degradation. The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO’s) latest report on State of the World’s Forests (2022) states that forests cover 31% of the Earth’s land surface (4.06 billion ha) but the area is shrinking, with 420 million ha of forests lost due to deforestation between 1990 and 2020. The rate of deforestation is declining but was still 10 million ha per year during the period of 2015–2020. Water cycle: Trees play a vital role in the water cycle by absorbing water from the soil and releasing it into the atmosphere through transpiration. This helps to regulate the climate and maintain the water cycle. Soil conservation: Forests help to prevent soil erosion by holding the soil in place with their roots. This is especially important in areas with steep slopes or heavy rainfall, where erosion can lead to landslides and other disasters. Economic value: Forests provide a wide range of products and services, including timber, non-timber forest products, and ecotourism. They also provide employment and income for millions of people around the world. Role of forest in combating climate change A robust forest ecosystem acts as a vital carbon sink. The Indian State of Forest Report (ISFR) estimates the carbon stock (which is the quantity of carbon sequestrated from the atmosphere and stored in biomass, deadwood, soil, and litter in the forest) of forests to be about 7,204 million tonnes in 2019, which is an increase of 79.4 million tonnes of carbon stock as compared to the estimates in 2017. Among the Indian states, Arunachal Pradesh has the maximum carbon stock in forests (1023.84 million tonnes), followed by Madhya Pradesh (609.25 million tonnes). Concerns of declining forest cover: The area is shrinking : The United Nations’ Food and Agriculture Organisation’s (FAO’s) latest report ‘The State of the World’s Forests (2022)’ states that forests cover 31% of the Earth’s land surface (4.06 billion ha) but the area is shrinking, with 420 million ha of forests lost due to deforestation between 1990 and 2020. The rate of deforestation is declining but was still 10 million ha per year during the period of 2015–2020. Climate change is a major threat to forest health and this is manifested in a number of ways. For instance, there are indications that the incidence and severity of forest fires and pests are increasing. The COVID-19 pandemic also had a significant impact on forest value chains and trade in early 2020. There is a possible longer-term link between forests and disease. More than 30% of new diseases since 1960 are ascribed to land-use change, including deforestation, and 15% of 250 emerging infectious diseases have been linked to forests. Deforestation, specifically in the tropics, has been associated with an increase in infectious diseases such as malaria and dengue. Moreover, worldwide almost 90% of deforestation is driven by agricultural expansion such as the conversion of forest to cropland or grassland for livestock grazing. FAO’s report ‘The State of the World’s Forests (2022)’ suggests three forest-based pathways as a means for tackling local to global challenges first, halting deforestation and maintaining forests; second, restoring degraded lands and expanding agroforestry; and finally yet importantly, sustainably using forests and building green value chains. Government of India Initiatives to conserve forest: National Afforestation Programme (NAP): Launched in 2002, the NAP aims to increase the country’s forest cover by 5 million hectares and improve the quality of existing forests. The programme is implemented through a combination of afforestation, regeneration, and agroforestry. Green India Mission: Launched in 2010, the Green India Mission aims to increase the forest cover by 5 million hectares and improve the quality of existing forest cover. Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (CAF): The CAF Act was passed in 2016 to ensure that the compensatory afforestation funds are used for afforestation, regeneration, and conservation activities. Forest Conservation Act (FCA): The FCA was enacted in 1980 to protect forests and regulate diversion of forestland for non-forest purposes. Under this Act, prior approval of the central government is required for any diversion of forestland for non-forest use. National Bamboo Mission (NBM): The NBM was launched in 2006 with the objective of promoting the growth of bamboo in non-forest areas to supplement the income of farmers and promote bamboo-based industry. National Green Corps (NGC): The NGC, also known as Eco-Clubs, was launched in 2001 to create awareness about environmental issues among school children. The programme aims to involve students in various environmental activities and create a generation of environmentally conscious citizens. Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE): The Government of India (GoI) has launched a global movement on Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE), or Mission LiFE. This is designed with the objective of mobilising at least one billion Indians and other global citizens to take individual and collective action for protecting and conserving the environment. Way Forward: FAO’s SOFO report (2022) suggests three forest-based pathways as a means for tackling local to global challenges — Halting deforestation and maintaining forests; Restoring degraded lands and expanding agroforestry; Sustainable use of forests and building green value chains. Government of India has launched a global movement on Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE), or Mission LiFE. This is designed with the objective of mobilising at least one billion Indians and other global citizens to take individual and collective action for protecting and conserving the environment. In India, at least 80% of all villages and urban local bodies are intended to become environment-friendly by 2028. Source: The Hindu Protection of Domestic Workers in India Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Social Issues) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, social workers rescued a 14-year-old girl from a Gurugram home where she was employed as a domestic worker. The incident has highlighted the quality of paid domestic work in urban India, where people risk abuse and exploitation in an unregulated sector. About Domestic Workers: According to International Labour Organisation, domestic workers are those workers who perform work in or for a private household or households. They provide direct and indirect care services, and as such are key members of the care economy. According to ILO, domestic work refers to housework such as sweeping, cleaning utensils, washing clothes, cooking, caring of children and such other work which is carried out for an employer for remuneration. A brief about Domestic Workers in India: Domestic work is the fastest-growing sector of women and girls’ employment in urban India. Official estimates show that as of 2012, 39 lakh people were employed as domestic workers, of which at least 26 lakh were women. Independent estimates such as one by the International Labour Organisation (ILO) place the count anywhere between 20 million and 90 million workers. Most people come from marginalised castes and underprivileged locations. A Bengaluru-based study in 2016 found 75% of domestic workers were from Scheduled Castes, 15% from OBCs and 8% from Scheduled Tribes. A large number of girls and women (mostly unmarried) migrate from States like Jharkhand, Bihar, Bengal and Orissa – regions with a sizeable population living below the poverty line. More than 12.6 million domestic workers in the country are minors, with 86% of them being girls. Moreover, 25% of underage domestic workers were below 14 years, according to the data available. Condition of domestic work: The informal nature of work within homes means people are both unpaid and underpaid. There is no legal contract, translating into ill-defined work hours, discrimination and violence, sexual harassment, and exploitation at the hands of placement agencies and/or traffickers. Between 2010 and 2012, reported cases of violence against domestic workers increased from 3,422 to 3,564, according to the Press Information Bureau of India. There is “widespread abuse and exploitation of women working as domestic workers, including trafficking of children for domestic servitude”, a 2016 report by Anti-Slavery International concluded. Trafficking and forced labour: It is difficult to demarcate victims of trafficking from people who migrate across State for employment. ILO has defined domestic work as a “modern slavery” practice, where domestic workers, including minors, “remain vulnerable to abuse, exploitation, forced labour and trafficking”. The ILO Forced Labour Convention, 1930 defines forced labour as work which is “exacted from any person under the menace of any penalty” and which is “not offered voluntarily”. Challenges faced by Domestic Workers in India: Poor Working Conditions: Domestic workers are denied minimum wages. They lack any social security cover. Many workers are exploited to work for long hours and live-in workers are more vulnerable to physical abuse and harassment. Lack of Laws to Protect Rights: The National Commission for Women had drafted the Domestic Workers (Registration, Social Security and Welfare) Bill in 2008-10. However, the Bill wasn’t passed. Similarly, the Draft Policy on Domestic Workers has been waiting for approval since 2017. Issues in Implementation: Domestic work was added to the list of scheduled employment under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, which coincided with the 2011 ILO convention 189. However, the implementation remains poor, with most domestic workers working below minimum wage level. Only 13 States/UTs have passed legislation requiring minimum wages for domestic employees. Insufficient Data: There is lack of reliable data regarding number of domestic workers. There is large variation among estimates, with number of workers varying from 4 million to 50 million. The absence of data acts as a barrier to the formulation of appropriate plans and the allocation of resources for the improvement of the conditions of domestic workers. Informal Placement Agencies/Housekeeping Companies: The companies that provide domestic workers in urban areas themselves function in an informal manner. They are more focused on their own profits and care little about the rights of the workers. Neglect of Domestic Labour Rights: Legislation pertaining to workers such as the Industry Disputes Act, 1947, the Employee’s Provident Fund Act, 1952, and the Factories Act, 1948, do not recognise the labour performed by domestic workers in private households as ‘work’. Measures taken by Indian government: There is no dedicated law or policy to regulate people working in the domestic work sector. Unorganized Sector Social Security Act, 2008 – The Act provided the first legal recognition meant to provide social welfare to workers—including domestic workers. Code on Social Security, 2020 – The code replaced the Unorganized Sector Social Security Act, 2008 and is yet to take effect. Child Labour Act, 1986 – The Indian government prohibited minors from entering domestic housework in 2006, listing it as a form of “hazardous child labour”. Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 – Includes domestic workers as a specific category of workers – with the house as a designated workplace. Minimum Wages Act, 1948 – Only certain States such as Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Tripura have included domestic workers in the schedule of Minimum Wages Act. Domestic Workers (Registration, Social Security and Welfare) Bill in 2008 – The National Commission of Women proposed the bill. Domestic Workers’ Welfare Bill 2016 – Recognised a private household as a workplace, and broader definition of “wages”. Both the 2008 and 2016 bill have not been passed yet. National Domestic Worker Policy – Proposed by the Labour Ministry in 2019 to regulate placement agencies and include domestic workers under existing laws. India is a signatory to ILO’s 189th convention, known as Convention on the Domestic Workers but has not ratified it yet. International measures to protect domestic worker: Domestic Workers Convention (No. 189) – ILO enacted Domestic Workers Convention (No. 189) in 2011 to protect domestic workers. International Domestic Workers Day – June 16th, celebrating the 2011 passage of the International Labor Organization Convention 189 for Decent Work for Domestic Workers. Your Work Is Important – ILO has launched a campaign “Your Work Is Important” to generate public awareness. Way Forward: There is a need to give protection to informal sector workers via social welfare schemes so that the disruption they are facing does not lead to a permanent fall in demand. Therefore, the Government of India’s intervention in regulating the engagement between domestic workers and their employers is need of the hour to resolve the issue of modern slavery. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Dachigam National Park is often mentioned in the media is in Jharkhand Assam Jammu and Kashmir Karnataka Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises (PMFME) Scheme: It is a central sector scheme It is under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises It aims to provide support to Farmer Producer Organizations, Self Help Groups, and Producers Cooperatives along their entire value chain. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the National Centre of Excellence in Green Port and Shipping: It is India’s first National Centre of Excellence for Green Port & Shipping (NCoEGPS). It will work under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. It is situated in Chennai, Maharashtra. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 24th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 23rd March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 17] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 17-> Click Here

[CURRENT AFFAIRS] IAS UPSC REVAMPED Current Affairs Magazine February 2023

Archives Hello Friends,This is February 2023 of IASbaba’s REVAMPED Current Affairs Monthly Magazine. Current Affairs for UPSC Civil Services Examination is an important factor in this preparation.An effort towards making your Current Affairs for IAS UPSC Preparation qualitative. We hope you make the best use of it!This edition covers all Important current affairs issues that were in the news for the month of February 2023.Kindly leave your feedback in the comment section below on the new design and presentation of the magazine. We would love to hear from you Download The Magazine - February 2023 Important Topics Covered In The Magazine Includes: Significance of Tribal Culture in Sustainable Development Data Protection Bill The Problems associated Solar Energy in India India-South Korea Relations Deep-Sea Mining Cyberattacks And Much More.... Download The Magazine - February 2023 To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow-TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccountYOUTUBE – https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQFACEBOOK – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/Also, SUBSCRIBE to the WEBSITE Below, so that you don’t miss out on important posts!Thank YouIASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) PADMA AWARDS Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: Recently, President Droupadi Murmu confers 54 Padma Awards for the year 2023. About Padma Awards:- IMAGE SOURCE: Padma Awards 2021 Announced: See Full List Of Recipients (sakshipost.com) The Padma Award are one of the highest civilian honours of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954. It is announced every year on the occasion of Republic Day except for brief interruption(s) during the years 1978 and 1979 and 1993 to 1997. It is announced annually on the eve of Republic Day. The Awards are given in three categories:- Padma Vibhushan: for exceptional and distinguished service Padma Bhushan: distinguished service of higher order Padma Shri: distinguished service. The award seeks to recognize achievements in all fields of activities or disciplines where an element of public service is involved. The Padma Awards are conferred on the recommendations made by the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year. The nomination process is open to the public. Even self-nomination can be made. Historical Background:– The Government of India instituted two civilian awards-Bharat Ratna & Padma Vibhushan in The latter had three classes namely Pahela Varg, Dusra Varg and Tisra Varg. These were subsequently renamed Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri in 1955. Eligibility:- All persons without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex are eligible for these awards. Government servants including those working with PSUs, except doctors and scientists, are not eligible for these Awards. The award seeks to recognize works of distinction and is given for distinguished and exceptional achievements/service in all fields of activities/disciplines:- Art: includes Music, Painting, Sculpture, Photography, Cinema, Theatre etc. Social work: includes social service, charitable service, contribution to community projects etc. Public Affairs: includes Law, Public Life, Politics etc. Science & Engineering: includes Space Engineering, Nuclear Science, Information Technology, Research & Development in Science & its allied subjects etc. Trade & Industry: includes Banking, Economic Activities, Management, Promotion of Tourism, Business etc. Medicine: includes medical research, distinction/specialization in Ayurveda, Homeopathy, Siddha, Allopathy, Naturopathy etc. Literature & Education: includes Journalism, Teaching, Book composing, Literature, Poetry, Promotion of education, Promotion of literacy, Education Reforms etc. Civil Service: includes distinction/excellence in administration etc. by Government Servants Sports: includes popular Sports, Athletics, Adventure, Mountaineering, promotion of sports, Yoga etc. Others: fields not covered above and may include propagation of Indian Culture, protection of Human Rights, Wild Life protection/conservation etc. The award is normally not conferred posthumously. However, in highly deserving cases, the Government could consider giving an award posthumously. The awards are presented by the President of India usually in the month of March/April every year. The awardees are presented a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a medallion. The recipients are also given a small replica of the medallion, which they can wear during any ceremonial/State functions etc. The total number of awards to be given in a year (excluding posthumous awards and to NRI/foreigners/OCIs) should not be more than 120. The award does not amount to a title and cannot be used as a suffix or prefix to the awardees’ name. Selection Process:- All nominations received for Padma Awards are placed before the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year. The Padma Awards Committee is headed by the Cabinet Secretary. It includes Home Secretary, Secretary to the President and four to six eminent persons as members. The recommendations of the committee are submitted to the Prime Minister and the President of India for approval. BHARAT RATNA Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award in the country. It is awarded in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavour. The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the President of India. No formal recommendations for Bharat Ratna are necessary. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year. The government has conferred Bharat Ratna Award on 45 persons to date. MUST READ: Ramon Magsaysay Award SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. (C) The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 River Kothari Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology and Geography Context: Recently, the National Green Tribunal (NGT) directed the Rajasthan State Pollution Control Board (RSPCB) to recover environmental compensation from Bhilwara municipal council for its failure to take action to remedy the pollution of River Kothari. About River Kothari:- IMAGE SOURCE: Kothari River – Jatland Wiki It arises from the Rajsamand district of Rajasthan. Source: Aravalli hills near Devgarh (Rajsamand, Rajasthan). It is one of the left-bank tributaries of the Banas river. This river joins the river Banas at Nandrai in Kotri tehsil. The Meja dam on the Kothari river provides drinking water to the Bhilwara district. River Pollution:-  most open wells in villages near the Kothari river, which flows along the industrial belt, had chromium, lead, iron, zinc and sodium above the norms set by the Bureau of Indian Standards, Poisoned Water. MUST READ: SC on National Green Tribunal (NGT) and State of Environment Report 2022 SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following Rivers: (2021) Brahmani Nagavali Subarnarekha Vamsadhara Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats? 1 and 2 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency National Security Act Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the National Security Act has been invoked in the case of self-styled Sikh preacher and on-the-run Waris Punjab De chief Amritpal Singh. About National Security Act:- It is a preventive detention law. It allows for the detention of alleged individuals for months if authorities are satisfied that a person is a threat to national security or law and order. Preventive detention is basically the detention of a person without a trial to prevent him/her from committing a crime. It was enacted in 1980 during the Indira Gandhi government. Grounds for detention under NSA:- It can be invoked to prevent a person from acting in any manner prejudicial to the defence of India, relations of India with foreign powers or the security of India. It can also be applied to prevent a person from acting in any manner prejudicial to the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community. Historical Background:- The first such law was 1818’s Bengal Regulation III which enabled the government to arrest anyone for defence or for maintaining public order without giving the person any legal remedies. In 1919, the Rowlatt Acts were passed. After independence, the government enacted the Preventive Detention Act of 1950 which expired in 1969. In 1971, the MISA (Maintenance of Internal Security Act, 1971) was enacted which gave unlimited powers to the government and law enforcement bodies. It was repealed in 1977. In 1980, the NSA was enacted. Constitutional Provisions:- Article 22 (3) (b) of the Constitution of India allows for preventive detention and restriction on personal liberty for reasons of state security and public order. Article 22(4) states that no law providing for preventive detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless:- An Advisory Board reports sufficient cause for extended detention. Period of detention:- An individual can be detained without a charge for a maximum period of 12 months. The detained person can be held for 10 to 12 days in special circumstances without being told the charges against them. The detention can be further extended by the state if it finds fresh evidence for the same. Appeal against detention:- A detained person can appeal before a high court advisory board but they are not allowed a lawyer during the trial. MUST READ: National Security Council (NSC) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? (2020) Preamble Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following reflects the nicest, most appropriate relationship between law and liberty? (2018) if there are more laws, there is less liberty. If there are no laws, there is no liberty. If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people. If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger. Ceramic Radome Technology Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the Murugappa Group-owned Carborundum Universal Limited (CUMI) announced that it has inked an MoU with DRDO’s RCI Laboratory for Ceramic Radome Technology. About Ceramic Radome Technology:- IMAGE SOURCE: https://ceramics.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/abs/10.1111/ijac.14077 Ceramic radome is regarded as a state-of-the-art technology for ballistic and tactical missiles and high-performance aircraft. The ceramic radomes have been developed indigenously by Research Centre Imarat (RCI). The Research Centre Imarat (RCI) has developed India’s missile arsenal. It is India’s premier DRDO laboratory. It carries out R&D in the technologies of control engineering, inertial navigation, imaging infrared seekers, radio frequency seekers and systems, onboard computers and mission software Need for Ceramic radome:- Missiles undergo extremely high surface temperatures while travelling thro­ugh the atmosphere, and while re-entering from space. To withstand those temperatures, radomes located at the tip of a missile are made of ceramic. Ceramics:- They are classified as inorganic and nonmetallic materials that are essential to our daily lifestyle. They are corrosion-resistant, hard, and brittle. The majority of ceramics are also excellent insulators and can withstand high temperatures. Radomes:- They are structures or enclosures designed to protect an antenna and associated electronics from the surrounding environment and elements such as rain, UV light, etc. MUST READ: DRDO’s New Procurement Manual SOURCE: BUSINESSLINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) With reference to the carbon nanotubes, consider the following statement  (2020) They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body. They can be used in biochemical sensors. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Mir Jafar Syllabus Prelims –History Context: Recently, Mir Jafar was brought to the conversation in political spats between various political parties. About the Battle of Plassey:- The Battle of Plassey (1757) was a watershed moment in modern Indian history, resulting in the consolidation of British rule in India. The East India Company, led by Robert Clive, fought this battle against the Nawab of Bengal (Siraj-Ud-Daulah) and his French Troop. About Mir Jafar:- Background:-Mir came to India and won the confidence of Nawab Alivardi Khan to rise to the post of Bakshi. He gained reputation as a brave military personnel, playing prominent role in many of Nawab’s military campaigns. He rescued Nawab’s nephew Saulat Jung in Katak and also defeated the Marathas. When Alivardi’s grandson Siraj-Ud-Dullah came to the throne and he again conspired, with Shawkat Jang to invade Bengal. However, the treachery became known to Siraj again and he demoted him and replaced him with Mir Madan as the Bakshi. In 1756, Siraj won the Cossimbazar factory from the British and then advanced towards Calcutta but the British soon retaliated and Siraj was compelled to flee to Murshidabd. Siraj sought the help of Mir Jafar who assured him of his help against the British. Mir Jafar was the  Commander-in-Chief of Nawab’s army during the the Battle of Plassey. He  was bribed by the East India Company (EIC) to cheat Siraj-Ud-Daulah during the battle. EIC promised to make him Nawab for conspiring against Siraj-Ud-Daulah. Mir Jafar, a kin of Siraj was promised the throne in return for supporting the British. The nawab’s army of 50,000 soldiers outnumbered Clive’s force of just 3000. However, the secret alliance of the British with the conspirators strengthened the British foothold in the battle. Mir Jafar, with around one-third of the Bengali army, did not join the battle and contributed to Nawab’s defeat. Mir Jafar later became the first Nawab of Bengal under British influence.   MUST READ: Treaty of Alinagar SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the first quarter of the seventeenth century, in which of the following was/were the factory/factories of the English East India Company located? (2021) Broach Chicacole Trichinopoly Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to educational institutes during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs: (2018) Institution                                                 Founder 1. Sanskrit College at Benaras            William Jones 2. Calcutta Madrasa                           Warren Hastings 3. Fort William College                       Arthur Wellesley Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only The National Programme for Dairy Development (NPDD) scheme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently , The National Programme for Dairy Development (NPDD) scheme has been restructured. About The National Programme for Dairy Development (NPDD) scheme:- It works under the Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying  Government of India. The NPDD scheme is designed to provide technical and financial assistance for the dairy development . This scheme is implemented with the view to dairying activities in a scientific and holistic manner. Dairying have the most important role in providing income-generating opportunities and employment opportunities particularly for marginal and women farmers . Objectives of the Scheme:- To strengthen and create the necessary infrastructure for the production of quality milk. To strengthen and create the infrastructure required for the production, procurement, marketing and processing of milk. To create appropriate training infrastructure and facilities for the training of dairy farmers. To strengthen the dairy Producer Companies/cooperative societies at the village level. To increase the production of milk by providing the most needed technical input services like mineral mixture and cattle feed, etc; to assist the rehabilitation potential and viable milk unions/federations. Areas of Operation:- National Dairy Plan Phase-I (NDP-I) will cover the case of States (i.e, Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, Gujarat, Karnataka, Haryana, Kerala, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh). Implementation of NPBBDD will be done throughout the country. Services Provided to Milk Producers:- Doorstep Veterinary Emergence and Health Services at MPCS around 18 Lakh Artificial Insemination (AI) are done per year. Cattle feed subsidy Rs.2-4/kg given (will be revised every month according to current market rates) The Mineral mixture is supplied to the milk producers at a subsidy of Rs.25 per Kg. Periodical animal health camps are conducted in villages. Green fodder and fodder slips are provided to milk producers through fodder cultivation in union land. FMD vaccinations carried out twice every year . Regular training is given to milk producers and village level workers in training centres. Bulk Milk Cooler (BMC) are installed when necessary as per the request of the producers and the budgeting done under this scheme. MUST READ: National Dairy Plan SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Annual Information Statement (AIS) and Taxpayer Information Summary (TIS) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Income Tax Department has launched a free of cost Mobile app namely AIS and TIS for taxpayers. About Annual Information Statement (AIS):- The Annual Information Statement (AIS) is a comprehensive view of the taxpayer’s information that appears on form 26AS. Taxpayers can also provide feedback on the information displayed in AIS. AIS shows both the reported value (the value declared by the reporting entities) and the converted value (the value after considering the taxpayers’ feedback) for each information such as tax at source (TDS), statement of financial transactions (SFT) and other information. information etc. Goals of AIS:- Show complete information to taxpayers with online feedback collection. Promote voluntary compliance and enable seamless pre-filling of returns. Prevent non-compliance. Difference between AIS and Form 26AS:- AIS is an extension of form 26AS. Form 26AS shows details of real estate purchases, valuable investments and TDS/TCS transactions made during the financial year. AIS includes savings account interest, dividends, rents received, securities/property purchases and sales, foreign remittances, deposit interest, GST turnover, etc. About Taxpayer Information Summary (TIS):- The Taxpayer Information Summary (TIS) is a category-wise aggregated information summary for a taxpayer. It shows processed value which means the value generated after deduplication of information based on pre-defined rules and derived value. It is the value derived after considering the taxpayer feedback and processed value under each information category, like salary, interest, dividend etc. The derived information in TIS will be used for prefilling of return, if applicable. The Taxpayer Information Summary is a vital section in the AIS which includes an important information summary of the taxpayer. A person will be shown various details within the Taxpayer Information Summary, like:- Information Category Processed Value Derived Value Within an Information Category, the following information is shown:- Part through which information received Information Description Information Source Amount Description Amount (Reported, Processed, Derived) MUST READ: Input Tax Credit (ITC) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: (2022) They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium transactions. of commercial Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2019) 1 only 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Maritime India Vision -2030 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: The Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways has recently released the blueprint to increase share of Inland transport through “ Maritime India Vision (MIV)-2030”. The govt plans to increase Inland Water Transport share to 5% by 2030. According to the Ministry of Shipping, around 95% of India’s trading by volume and 70% by value is done through maritime transport. India has 12 major and 205 notified minor and intermediate ports. Under the National Perspective Plan for Sagarmala, six new mega ports will be developed in the country. India’s key ports had a capacity of 1,534.91 million tonnes per annum (MTPA) in FY20. In FY21, all key ports in India handled 672.60 million tonnes (MT) of cargo traffic. About Maritime India Vision-2030: It is a 10-year blueprint with the aim of overhauling the Indian maritime sector, envisages Rs 3 lakh crore investment in port projects that in turn promises to generate employment for 20 lakh persons. The government plans to increase the transhipment volumes of Indian cargo at Indian ports from 25 per cent in 2020 to more than 75 per cent by 2030. To enhance Ease of Doing Business are planned under it which include implementing Enterprise Business System (EBS) to simplify and digitize processes across major ports by 2021, developing National Marine Logistics Portal to implement 100 per cent paperless processes including online payment and implementing unified ship e-registration portal. It plans development of green sustainable ports with an aim to increase the share of renewable energy to over 60 per cent by 2030 from current levels of less than 10 per cent. The policy focuses on ‘Make in India, Make for the world’ and thereby becoming a leading ship building country by 2030 through 15 times increase in the gross tonnage of ships built in India. It envisages setting up a maritime development fund to provide low cost, long term funding to maritime sector stakeholders besides enhancing cruise infrastructure by developing dedicated cruise terminals at 12 selected ports. The policy plans incentivising global cruise liners to make India their home port and emphasises on strengthening the maritime institutions to enhance India’s training and development capabilities at par with global standards. This would help in increasing India’s share of seafarers from 12 per cent at present to over 20 per cent. It will also focus on the development of eastern waterways connectivity transport grid for enhancing regional connectivity and reducing cost of transportation from Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan and Myanmar, as per the document. About Green Sustainable Port: A Green Sustainable Port, also known as an ecological port, is a sustainable development port, which not only meets the environmental requirements, but also raises their social, economic interests. The core question of an ecological port is to find a balance point between environmental, social impacts and economic interests. Key challenges of maritime sector in India: Inadequate infrastructure: Despite having a significant coastline and a vast network of waterways, India’s maritime infrastructure, including ports and inland waterways, is inadequate and requires significant investment and development. Environmental concerns: The maritime sector can have a significant impact on the environment, and there are concerns around issues such as oil spills, pollution, and the impact of climate change. Poor connectivity: The lack of connectivity between ports, as well as ports and hinterland, leads to inefficiencies and increased costs. Skill gaps: There is a shortage of skilled manpower in the maritime sector, including seafarers, engineers, and other professionals. Security challenges: The maritime sector is also vulnerable to security threats such as piracy and terrorism. Regulatory hurdles: The maritime sector in India is subject to complex and fragmented regulations, which can make it challenging for businesses to operate efficiently. Govt initiatives and development projects: Marine Fund: A Rs. 25,000 crore to provide low-cost and long-term financing to the sector, with the Centre contributing Rs. 2,500 crores within seven years. Ports Regulatory Authority: Under the new Indian Ports Act (to replace the old Indian Ports Act, 1908), an all-India Ports Authority will be established to enable inspection of major and other ports, improve institutional coverage of ports and organize structured ports. growth of the port sector to increase investor confidence. Eastern Waterways Connectivity Transport Grid Project: It plans to develop regional connectivity with Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan and Myanmar. Riverine Development Fund: Requirements for the extension of low-cost long-term financing for inland waterway vessels through the Riverine Development Fund (RDF) and  the extension of the tonnage tax system (applied to ocean-going vessels and dredgers) to inland waterways to improve access for such vessels. Rationalization of port charges: This will make them more competitive and eliminate hidden charges from liners to increase transparency. Fairway development works: Fairway development works to ensure Least Available Depth (LAD) of 3.0 meters in Haldia-Barh, 2.5 meters in Barh-Ghazipur, and 2.2 meters in Ghazipur-Varanasi stretches on NW-1. These are progressing under the Jal Marg Vikas Project (JMVP) which has been undertaken by Inland Waterway Authority of India with technical and financial assistance from the World Bank. Development of New National Waterways: IWAI has identified 25 new NWs through techno-economic feasibility studies for undertaking technical interventions to make the waterways navigable for transportation purposes. Once ready, these new waterways will provide an alternate mode of transportation in respective geographies. Digital Solutions for Ease-of-Doing Business: The CAR-D (Cargo Data) Portal is a web-based portal for collection & compilation, analysis and dissemination of all cargo and cruise movement data of National Waterways to the stakeholders. Way Forward: The pace at which the Green initiatives are undertaken by the 12 major ports will surely bring a green revolution in the sector making the ports cleaner and greener, which is also a key component of ‘Blue Economy’, creating environmental benefits and balancing the investments and cash flow. The proposed vision will go a long way in brownfield capacity augmentation, developing world-class Mega Ports, the development of a trans-shipment hub in Southern India, and infrastructure modernization besides addressing the marine ecosystem and maritime security. Source:  The Hindu Learning Science via Standards’ initiative Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution launches an initiative for students to learn science via standards. The National Standards Body of India, known as the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), has recently introduced an educational programme called ‘Learning Science via Standards’ for students. About Learning Science via Standards’ initiative: It is an initiative for students for learning science via standards. It focuses on a series of lesson plans aimed to use concepts and laws to help students understand their practical applications in manufacturing, functioning and testing of quality characteristics of different products as stated in the relevant Indian Standards. Significance of the Initiative: Bridge the gap between theory and real-life use of science education. Enable students to relate the concepts of science to their actual applications and also promote a culture of quality and standardization in the country. Contribute towards capacity building to engage successfully in a variety of economic sectors in the country. Standards Clubs: It was earlier launched by the BIS. Standards Clubs’ undertake student-centric activities like debates, quiz and competitions, including standards-writing competitions. Significance of ensuring standards Quality Assurance: Standards promote quality assurance and help to prevent the sale of substandard or counterfeit products. Consumer Protection: Standards help protect the health, safety, and well-being of consumers by ensuring that products and services meet certain quality and safety standards. Innovation: Standards play a vital role in fostering innovation and supporting the development of new products and technologies. Environment: Standards also help to promote environmental protection and sustainability by encouraging the use of environmentally friendly technologies and practices. Trade and Commerce: Standards help to facilitate trade and commerce both domestically and internationally by ensuring that products and services meet certain quality and safety standards. Public Health: Standards in healthcare can help ensure the safety and efficacy of medical devices, drugs, and treatments, thereby safeguarding public health. Challenges of ensuring standards in India Lack of Awareness: Lack of understanding of standards among manufacturers, consumers, and policymakers leads to non-compliance with standards and a lack of demand for quality products. Weak Enforcement: Despite the existence of standards and regulations, their enforcement is weak, which leads to non-compliance by manufacturers and importers. Fragmented Market: India has a fragmented market with a large number of small and medium-sized enterprises (SMEs), which lack the resources to comply with standards and certification requirements. Lack of Infrastructure: The lack of adequate infrastructure for testing, certification, and quality control such as insufficient laboratory facilities, shortage of trained personnel, and inadequate accreditation systems. Technological Obsolescence: The fast-paced technological changes create a challenge for standards development and enforcement as the standards need to be updated regularly to keep pace with technological advancements. International Harmonization: The global trade requires harmonization of standards between countries while India faces the challenge of aligning its standards with international standards while preserving its domestic priorities. Way Forward: Though the proposed initiative is expected to contribute towards the capacity building of students to engage successfully in a variety of economic sectors in the country, there is a need for a multi-pronged approach, involving awareness-building, capacity-building, infrastructure development, simplification of procedures, and closer collaboration with stakeholders to ensure desired results. Source:   NewsOnAir Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) The terms Annual Information Statement (AIS) and Taxpayer Information Summary (TIS) are often mentioned in the media launched by Income Tax Appellate Tribunal The Income Tax Department NITI Aayog The Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the National Programme for Dairy Development (NPDD) scheme: The scheme is designed to provide technical and financial assistance for the dairy development. It works under the Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) With reference to the National Security Act, which of the following statements are correct? It is a preventive detention law which allows detention of alleged individuals if authorities are satisfied that a person is a threat to national security or law and order. It was enacted in 1980 during the Indira Gandhi government. A detained person can appeal before a high court advisory board but they are not allowed a lawyer during the trial. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 23rd March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 22nd March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23nd March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 16] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 16-> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Maharishi Dayanand Saraswati Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Government to celebrate 200th birth anniversary of Maharishi Dayanand Saraswati. About Maharishi Dayanand Saraswati:- Maharishi Dayanand Saraswati was an Indian philosopher and social leader. He was the founder of the Arya Samaj. Arya Samaj: was a reform movement of the Vedic dharma. He was the first to give the call for Swaraj as “India for Indians” in 1876. Philosophy: Denouncing idolatry and ritualistic worship, he worked towards reviving Vedic ideologies. He believed in the infallible authority of the Vedas. He advocated the doctrine of Karma and Reincarnation. Dayananda’s contributions: promoting equal rights for women, such as the right to education and reading of Indian scriptures. He translated the Vedas and wrote three books : Satyartha Prakash in Hindi, Veda Bhasya Bhumika: an introduction to his Vedic commentary, and Veda Bhashya: a Vedic commentary in Sanskrit on the Yajurveda and the major part of the Rig-Veda. He also established Vedic schools for the education of girls and boys of all castes. The Shuddhi Movement was introduced by Maharishi Dayanand to bring back the individuals to Hinduism who were either voluntarily or involuntarily converted to other religions like Islam or Christianity. The ten tenets of the Arya Samaj are as follows: God is the efficient cause of all true knowledge. God is existent, intelligent and blissful. He alone is worthy of being worshipped The Vedas are the scriptures of all true knowledge. It is the paramount duty of all Aryas to read, teach, and recite them and to hear them being read. One should always be ready to accept the truth and to renounce untruth All acts should be performed in accordance with Dharma that is, after deliberating on what is right and wrong The prime object of the Arya Samaj is to do good to the world, that is, to promote the physical, spiritual and social good of everyone. Our conduct towards all should be guided by love, righteousness and justice. We should dispel Avidya (ignorance) and promote Vidya (knowledge). One should look for his/her good in promoting the good of all. One should regard oneself under restriction to follow the rules of society calculated to promote the well-being of all, while in following the rules of individual welfare all should be free. MUST READ: Swami Vivekananda SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School? (2022) Annie Besant Debandranath Tagore Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar Sarojini Naidu Q.2)   Consider the following freedom fighters(2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Bacterial cellulose Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recent researches demonstrate how bacterial cellulose can help develop vegan leather and other environmentally safe material. About Bacterial cellulose:- IMAGE SOURCES: Figure – PMC (nih.gov) It is an organic compound produced by certain types of bacteria. It was discovered by J. Brown in 1886. The most used bacteria for producing it is Bacterial cellulose (BC) is recognized as a multifaceted, versatile biomaterial with abundant applications. Special characteristics:- It is free from impurities such as lignin and wax. It shows water retention capacity and other mechanical properties. Uses:- It can replace leather in the making of products such as bags. Its polymers can be used in other industries such as biomedicine. It can also be used as a carrier for bioactive compounds such as antibiotics. In developing pure and environmentally safe functional materials. Mechanical properties make it useful in producing green composite and in dealing with tissue engineering, medical implants, and biofilm. Challenges:- Its high cost of production is a challenge in its commercial adoption. MUST READ: CRISPR biotechnology SOURCE: Businessline PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Integrated Mobile Camouflage System Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the Indian Army procures Integrated Mobile Camouflage Systems from a start-up. About Integrated Mobile Camouflage System:- Armoured fighting vehicles (AFVs) can blend in with their surrounding terrain. It comprises low emissivity and/or CAM-IIR coatings and mobile camouflage system materials that enable armoured fighting vehicles (AFVs) to blend in with their terrain background. It achieves a reduction in the detection range of AFVs when viewed through a Hand Held Thermal Imager (HHTI)/Battle Field Surveillance Radar (BFSR) tank-based thermal camera under given environmental and weather conditions. By regulating the object’s visual, thermal, infrared, and radar signatures, it manages signatures. For AFVs, it will significantly improve their stealth capabilities. This is the Indian Army’s first-ever purchase order under the Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) programme. Project for Defence Excellence (iDEX):- It was introduced under the iDEX project in April 2018. Aim: achieve self-reliance and stimulate innovation and technology development in defence and aerospace by involving industries like MSMEs, start-ups, individual innovators, and R&D institutes. MUST READ: Chaff technology by DRDO SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? (2020) Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units Create meaningful short stories and songs Disease diagnosis Text-to-speech conversion Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2, 4, and 5 only Q.2) In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices? (2019) Location identification of a person Sleep monitoring of a person Assisting the hearing-impaired person Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Major tribes in the Nilgiris Syllabus Prelims –Geography and Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, more than 700 families, including Adivasis, were incentivised to leave the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve in the Nilgiris. About major tribes in the Nilgiris:- IMAGE SOURCE: The Nilgiris : The Nilgiris (thequeenofhillsnilgiris.blogspot.com) The Nilgiri Hills is a region of mountains, forests and tea plantations located in southern India. The states of Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka meet here. The Nilgiri Hills are home to some unusual tribal groups including the Toda, Kota, Badaga and Kurumba. Badaga:- The Badaga is a group that lives in the Nilgiri Hills where Kerala and Tamil Nadu come together. Their names mean “northerner,” a reference to the fact that they came from the plains of the Mysore district not too far to the north. The Badaga are Hindus that practice hypergamy, a system in which women can marry into a caste that is higher than the one they were born into, and also marry into of lower caste. Irula:- The Irula are a Scheduled tribe that lives in northern Tamil Nadu and the Nilgiri Hills. They have many animist beliefs but have had enough contact with Hindus to embrace many orthodox Hindu beliefs. The Irula live in villages with special “pollution huts” for menstruating women, lots of mango and jackfruit trees, and ancestral temples with stones in them that represent the dead. They produce their own flutes and drums. Kota:- The Kotas are a group thought to be indigenous to the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu. Women have traditionally given birth in special huts. The Kota practice “green” and “dry” funerals. Kurumbas:- The Kurumbas are another group that lives in the Nilgiri Hills. The Kurumbas have traditionally been hunters and gatherers. The Kurumbas have a reputation for being sorcerers. Nayaka:- The Nayaka are another group that lives in the Nilgiri Hills. Traditionally regarded as honey collectors and people of the forest. Nayaka have no formal marriage ceremony. Hill Pandaram:- Hill Pandaram are a scheduled tribe that lives in rain forests of the Western Ghats in the state of Kerala. They are nomadic foragers who speak dialects of Tamil and Malayalam and practice Hinduism infused with beliefs of hill spirits, ancestral ghosts and other supernatural beings. Kani and Their Magic Berry:- The Kani people of the rainforest of Kerala. They are poor and live in thatch huts. MUST READ: Betta-Kuruba tribe SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Q.2) At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? (2021) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climatic change. Ministry of Panchayat Raj Ministry of Rural Development Ministry of Tribal Affairs Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations (1961) Syllabus Prelims –Polity and International Relations Context: Recently, the Ministry of External Affairs invoked the Vienna Convention after vandalism at Indian High Commission in London by pro-Khalistan protestors. About Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations (1961):- It provides the framework for the establishment, maintenance and termination of diplomatic relations on a basis of consent between independent sovereign States. The term “Vienna Convention” can refer to any of a number of treaties signed in Vienna. Most of these are related to the harmonisation or formalisation of the procedures of international diplomacy. The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations (1961) entered into force in  1964. It is nearly universally ratified, with Palau and South Sudan being the exceptions. It codifies the longstanding custom of diplomatic immunity. Under this, diplomatic missions are granted privileges that enable diplomats to perform their functions without fear of coercion or harassment by the host country. MUST READ: Khalistan threat: Need for Constant vigilance SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as the ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started the implementation of its from 25th May 2018? (2019) Australia Canada The European Union The United States of America International Telecommunication Union (ITU) Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology and Governance Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi will soon inaugurate the new International Telecommunication Union (ITU) Area office and Innovation Centre in New Delhi. About International Telecommunication Union (ITU):- It is the United Nations’ specialized agency for information and communication technologies. It was founded in 1865. Objective: to facilitate international connectivity in communications networks. Functions:- To allocate global radio spectrum and satellite orbits To develop the technical standards To ensure networks and technologies seamlessly interconnect It strives to improve access to ICTs in underserved communities worldwide. Every time you make a phone call via mobile, access the Internet or send an email, you are benefitting from the work of ITU. ITU is committed to connecting all the world’s people. It protects and supports everyone’s right to communicate.​ It currently has a membership of 193 countries and over 900 private-sector entities and academic institutions. The Area Office and Innovation Centre of ITU in New Delhi. It is expected to serve South Asian countries namely Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Iran, Maldives, Nepal, Sri Lanka and India. The Host Country Agreement provides the legal and financial framework for the establishment and operations of the Area Office. The WSIS Forum 2023 will be held from 13–17 March 2023 at the ITU Headquarters in Geneva. MUST READ: India signs Host Country Agreement with the International Telecommunication Union SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)? (2019) LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology. Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Project Loon sometimes seen in the news, is related to (2016) waste management technology wireless communication technology solar power production technology water conservation technology City Finance Rankings 2022 Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry launched the ‘City Finance Rankings 2022’ under which urban local bodies in the country will be evaluated on the basis of their financial health. About City Finance Rankings 2022:- It is conducted by the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs . It aims to evaluate, recognise, and reward urban local bodies on the basis of their strength across key financial parameters. It aim to motivate city and state officials and decision makers, to implement municipal finance reforms. The participating urban local bodies will be evaluated on 15 indicators across three key municipal finance assessment parameters like:- Resource mobilisation Expenditure performance and Fiscal governance. The evaluation will be done on the basis of the quality of current financial health and improvement with time in financial performance. Top 3 cities in each population category will be rewarded. Participation in the City Beauty Competition is Significance:- It will help ULBs to identify areas in their financial performance where they can make improvements and able to deliver quality infrastructure and services to its citizens. Rankings will motivate city/state officials and decision makers, to implement municipal finance reforms. MUST READ: Climate Finance SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2016) The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 (Q.2) What is/are the purpose/purposes of `District Mineral Foundations’ in India?(2016) Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich districts Protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations Authorizing State Governments to issue licences for mineral exploration Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Chaitra Sukladi, Ugadi, Gudi Padwa, Cheti Chand, Navreh and Sajibu Cheiraoba Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently , President Droupadi Murmu greeted citizens on the eve of Chaitra Sukladi, Ugadi, Gudi Padwa, Cheti Chand, Navreh and Sajibu Cheiraoba . About Chaitra Sukladi:- It marks the beginning of the new year of the Vikram Samvat. Vikram Samvat is based on the day when the emperor Vikramaditya defeated Sakas, invaded Ujjain and called for a new era. Under his supervision, astronomers developed a new calendar based on the lunisolar system, which is still used in northern India. It is the first day of the moon’s waxing phase (when the visible side of the moon grows larger every night) in Chaitra (the first month of the Hindu calendar). About Ugadi:- The doors in homes are adorned with mango leaf decorations called toranalu or Torana in Kannada. The festivals are celebrated by the people in the Deccan region including Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra. The common practice in the celebrations is the festive food that is prepared with a mix of sweet and bitter. The celebrations involve drawing of rangoli, hanging of mango leaf decorations called torana, exchanging of gifts, sharing of food called pachadi, temple visits, etc. The festival is observed in several parts of India under different names: Yugadi in Karnataka, Gudi Padwa in Maharashtra, Ugadi in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, Cheti Chand in the Sindhi region, Sajibu Cheiraoba in Manipur, etc. Some parts also celebrate it as Navreh. About Gudi Padwa:- The festivals are celebrated by the people in the Deccan region including Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra. A famous concoction served is jaggery (sweet) and neem (bitter), called bevu-bella in the South, signifying that life brings both happiness and sorrows. Gudi is a doll prepared in Maharashtrian homes. Gudi is the word used to refer to Brahma’s flag (which is hoisted on this day) while Padva is derived from the Sanskrit word Paddava or Paddavo which refers to the first day of the bright phase of the moon. This festival is celebrated on the first day of the month of Chaitra, according to the Hindu calendar, which usually falls during March-April according to the Gregorian calendar. This day is also symbolic of the season of Vasant or spring in India.  About Cheti Chand:- Sindhis celebrate the new year as Cheti Chand. Chaitra month is called ‘Chet’ in Sindhi. The day commemorates the birth anniversary of Uderolal/Jhulelal, the patron saint of Sindhis. Cheti Chand is deemed to be highly beneficial and promising to start new endeavours. Sindhis conduct various rituals and pray for forty days. This offering is known as Chaliho. After this, they celebrate the grand fest of Cheti Chand. Many of them also conduct fasting on this day and break it once they complete the ceremonial offerings with fruits About Navreh:- It is the lunar new year that is celebrated in Kashmir. It is the Sanskrit word ‘Nav-Varsha’ from which the word ‘Navreh’ has been derived. It falls on the first day of the Chaitra Navratri. On this day, Kashmiri pandits look at a bowl of rice which is considered as a symbol of riches and fertility. About Sajibu Cheiraoba:- It is the great ritual festival of Meiteis (an ethnic group in Manipur) It is observed on the first day of Manipur lunar month Shajibu, which falls in the month of April every year. The festival is intended to strengthen the bond of love and brotherhood among family members. People arrange a family feast in which traditional cuisines are offered to local deities on plantain leaf at the entrance gates of the house. After the hearty meal, people climb up the Cheirao Ching Hill in Chingmeirong or atop a nearby hill in the afternoon to offer prayers. The belief is that it will elevate them to greater heights in their worldly life.  MUST READ: Goa’s Sao Joao festival SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2018) Tradition                        State Chapchar Kut festival — Mizoram Khongjom Parba ballad — Manipur Thang-Ta dance — Sikkim Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2017) Traditions                                    Communities Chaliha Sahib Festival            Sindhis Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra              Gonds Wari-Warkari                          Santhals Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 only 2 and 3 only (c)1 and 3 only None of the above Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) Sixth Assessment Synthesis Report Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the new Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) Sixth Assessment Synthesis Report was released. About Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) Sixth Assessment Synthesis Report: Source:       Hindustan times The Report is the culmination of a cycle of reports (the Sixth Assessment) that have been published over the past five years. The report finds that it is likely that warming will exceed 1.5°C during the 21st century, despite progress in climate mitigation policies and legislation. The report also highlights the economic imperative for taking action, finding that the global economic benefit of limiting global warming to 2°C exceeds the cost of mitigation in most assessed literature. The report demonstrates an undeniable scientific consensus about the urgency of the climate crisis, and the irreversible harm that will occur if warming surpasses 1.5°C, even temporarily. The report evaluates the physical science basis of climate change, impacts, adaptation and vulnerability, and mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions. It says the GreenHouse Gas(GHG) emissions will lead to increasing global warming in the near term, and it’s likely this will reach 5°C between 2030 and 2035. The world is currently at around 1.1°C of warming, and current climate policies are projected to increase global warming by 3.2°C by 2100. To keep within the 1.5°C limit, emissions need to be reduced by at least 43% by 2030 compared to 2019 levels and at least 60% by 2035. About adaptation gap report:- It is released by the United Nations Environment Programme’s (UNEP). The report found some progress on adaptation plans from national governments, but they are not backed by finance. A third of the 197 parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) have incorporated quantified and time-bound targets on adaptation. 90% of them have considered gender and disadvantaged groups. International adaptation finance flows are 5-10 times lower than required and this gap continues to grow. Finance for adaptation increased to USD 29 billion in 2020, a 4% increase over 2019. MUST READ: Climate Finance SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for (2021) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries Assessing the overall carbon foot-print caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time One Rank One Pension (OROP) Scheme Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Supreme Court recently asked the government to clear One Rank One Pension (OROP) dues of 10-11 lakh pensioners by February end of next year in three equal instalments. About OROP scheme: Source: Indian Express OROP means that any two military personnel retiring at the same rank, with the same years of service, must get an equal pension. Military personnel across the three services fall under two categories, the officers and the other ranks. The other ranks, which are soldiers, usually retire at age 35. Unlike government employees who retire close to 60, soldiers can thus miss out on the benefits from subsequent pay commissions. Armed Forces Personnel who had retired till 30th June 2014 are covered under it. The implementation of the scheme was based on recommendation of the Koshiyari committee. Arguments in favour of OROP: The difference between the pensions of present and past pensioners has grown wide with every pay commission. Veterans argue this is an issue of justice, equity, honor and national security. A lower pay status as compared to their civilian counterparts leads to the military personnel having lower morale. This will also affect the serving officers and soldiers. Armed forces personnel typically have shorter careers since about 80% of the soldiers compulsorily retire between the ages of 35 and 37. About 12% of soldiers retire between 40 and 54 years. This means they retire at far younger ages when compared to the usual 60 years in case of civilians. Therefore, adequate support is required for military personnel to sustain a dignified life. Arguments against OROP: The implementation of this scheme will increase annual financial burden between 8,000 to 10,000 crore. Some argue that the comparison with civilians is not correct as the armed forces receive many other allowances that are not given to civilians. They get dedicated army schools, colleges, hospitals, subsidized food and beverages, quotas for children in universities and schools, etc. the equivalents of which are not accorded to civilians anywhere. Similar demands can also be made by the other paramilitary forces like the CAPF, Assam Rifles, SSB, etc. The police forces have also started making similar demands as even their conditions of service are often tough. The implementation of this scheme can also be an administrative challenge due to the lack of records going back decades. Way Forward: There is a need for implementation of Supreme Court of India’s suggestion either the inclusion of representation of armed forces in the central pay commission or to constitute separate armed forces pay commission. The government should resolve the issue of civil-military disparity as well as the combat, non-combat officers’ disparity in time bound manner. This is necessary to honor the military and give them what is rightfully theirs. Source: Indian Express India Bangladesh Relations Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: Prime Ministers of India and Bangladesh recently inaugurated the first cross-border energy pipeline called India-Bangladesh Friendship Pipeline (IBFPL). About the India-Bangladesh Friendship Pipeline (IBFPL) The pipeline runs from the Siliguri-based marketing terminal of the Numaligarh Refinery Limited (NRL) to the Parbatipur depot of Bangladesh Petroleum Corporation (BPC). The construction of the project started in 2018 with the help of India’s grant funding. It will be used to supply diesel from India to Bangladesh. The pipeline will transport 1 million metric ton of high-speed diesel every year to seven districts of North Bangladesh. The fuel transport deal will be effective for 15 years with an option for further extension. Significance: The operation of India- Bangladesh Friendship Pipeline will put in place a sustainable, reliable, cost-effective and environment friendly mode of transporting HSD (High-speed diesel) from India to Bangladesh and will further enhance cooperation in energy security between the two countries. India Bangladesh Relations Political: India was one of the first countries to recognize Bangladesh and establish diplomatic relations immediately after its independence in December 1971. Bangladesh occupies a key place in India’s Neighbourhood First policy. There is much that unites the two countries- a shared history and common heritage, linguistic and cultural ties, passion for music, literature and the arts. Rabindranath Tagore, created the National Anthems of both India and Bangladesh. Internationally both the nations share the following platforms: SAARC, BIMSTEC, Indian Ocean Coastal Regional Cooperation Association, and Commonwealth. Security and Border Control The 2011 agreement on a coordinated Border Management plan to effectively control cross-border illegal activities and crimes by coordinating the efforts of both border guards. Following the exchange of ratification documents during the Hon’ble Prime Minister’s visit to Bangladesh in June 2015, the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) between India and Bangladesh entered into force. Strip maps were signed and the Indian and Bangladeshi enclaves in each other’s countries were exchanged as part of this agreement. The understanding will assist with bettering the executives and controlling the issue of dealing, unlawful development, and so on. According to the award made by UNCLOS on July 7, 2014, the settlement of the maritime boundary arbitration between India and Bangladesh paved the way for the economic development of this region of the Bay of Bengal and will be beneficial to both nations. An annual Coordinated Patrol (CORPAT) between the two Navies was established by India and Bangladesh. It is a significant step toward enhancing the operational ties that exist between the two Navies. River Water Sharing India and Bangladesh share 54 rivers, with Bangladesh being the lower riparian nation. As a lower riparian country, Bangladesh stays in danger from the effects of streams from India. However, India does provide Bangladesh with flood forecasting assistance by sharing seasonal data on water flow and rainfall. Since November 1972, a bilateral Joint Rivers Commission (JRC) has been in place to maintain communication between the two nations and maximize the benefits of their shared river systems. The Ganges Waters Treaty, which was signed in 1996 to share Ganges River waters during the dry season, has also worked well. Trade and Investment:  Bangladesh is India’s biggest trade partner in South Asia. India’s exports to Bangladesh during 2021 was US$14.09 Billion. Bangladesh may become India’s fourth-largest export destination in FY22, jumping five places in two years. Bangladesh’s growth stems largely from its success as an exporter of garments, which account for around 80 percent of its total exports. Exchange and Obligation Concessions India’s commodities to Bangladesh in 2017-18 were around US $ 8.4 billion, and imports from Bangladesh during a similar period were around US $ 900 million. Under SAFTA, SAPTA, and APTA, substantial duty concessions have been granted to Bangladesh. Bangladesh and other SAARC LDCs have had quota-free, duty-free access to India on all tariff lines since 2011, with the exception of tobacco and alcohol, which are on the sensitive list under SAFTA. For the benefit of communities along the border, four Border Haats have been established—two in Tripura and two in Meghalaya. The total amount of Indian investments in Bangladesh is $3.11 billion, and this number is rising. Multimodal Connectivity: The passenger trains between India and Bangladesh: Bandhan Express: starting from Kolkata for Khulna – Since 2017 It covers the distance via Petrapole and Benapole border route to cater to the demands of the people from both countries. Maitree Express: Starting from Dhaka for Kolkata – since 2008 The tri-weekly service between Kolkata and Dhaka used to run with 90 percent occupancy. Mitali Express: Starting from New Jalpaiguri in North Bengal to Dhaka. Bus Service: Both the governments decided to commence: Dhaka-Siliguri-Gangtok-Dhaka and Dhaka Siliguri-Darjeeling-Dhaka bus service to enhance people to people contacts between both the countries and the trail run of Dhaka-Siliguri-Gangtok-Dhaka was also held in December 2019. Cultural Exchange For the past 43 years, the Bengali literary monthly magazine “Bharat Bichitra” has been published in print and online by the High Commission of India. The magazine is viewed as truly outstanding of its sort in Bangladesh and has a wide readership among all segments of society. Yoga, Hindi, Hindustani Classical Music, Manipuri Dance, Kathak, and Painting are some of the regularly offered training courses at the Indira Gandhi Cultural Centre. Students from Bangladesh enjoy the courses. Areas of Concerns: Citizenship Amendment Act: There has been a concern in Bangladesh about the CAA and the proposed National Register of Citizens in India. The concern is as much about laws as the anti-Bangladeshi rhetoric from the highest political echelons in Delhi. It is a testament to the abiding relationship that such politics has not upset the relationship with Dhaka. But that doesn’t mean that India should take things for granted. Teesta River Water Dispute: The long-pending issue of sharing Teesta waters – a major concern for Dhaka – continues to be unresolved, partly due to the Government of West Bengal. No treaty has been signed yet to resolve the Teesta water-sharing dispute between the two nations. Regional geopolitics: Chinese inroads into the neighbourhood have been a cause of worry for India. Bangladesh had successfully approached China for a mega project to enhance the Teesta River water flow. Bangladesh also requires China’s support in resolving the Rohingya refugee crisis. Bangladesh is the second biggest arms market for China after Pakistan. At present, Bangladesh is an active partner in the Belt and Road Initiative (BRI). Way Forward: India needs to look at more ways to deepen its ties with Bangladesh, especially keeping in mind the shifting nature of geopolitics and geoeconomics in South Asia. India and Bangladesh have more or less agreed on most issues and this stability must be maintained. India needs to find a fine balance in respecting Bangladesh’s economic growth while maintaining its economic progress. Source:   Hindustan Times Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) The Sixth Assessment Synthesis Report is often mentioned in the news released by Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change World Bank United Nations Environment Programme Global Green Climate Fund Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding International Telecommunication Union (ITU): It is the United Nations’ specialized agency for information and communication technologies. It currently has a membership of 200 countries. It is headquartered at Geneva, Switzerland. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Maharishi Dayanand Saraswati: He was the founder of the Brahmo Samaj. He believed in the infallible authority of the Vedas. He introduced the Shuddhi Movement to bring back the individuals to Hinduism who were either voluntarily or involuntarily converted to other religions like Islam or Christianity. He was against the doctrine of Karma and Reincarnation. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 only 3 and 4 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 22nd March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 21st March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – a Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 22nd March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here