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[DAY 15] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 14-> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana( PMUY) Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the Minister of State for Petroleum and Natural Gas said that there were 7.99 crore beneficiaries under the Phase-I of Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana( PMUY). About Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana( PMUY):- Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana( PMUY) was launched in May 2016. It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas Objective: to make clean cooking fuel such as LPG available to the rural and deprived households which were otherwise using traditional cooking fuels such as firewood, coal, cow-dung cakes etc. Ujjwala 1.0 had a target to provide deposit-free LPG connections to 5 crore women members of BPL households. The scheme was expanded in April 2018 to include women beneficiaries from seven more categories (SC/ST, PMAY, AAY, most backward classes, tea garden, forest dwellers etc). EMI facilities were given for stove and refill costs (Interest-free loan). Ujjwala 2.0:- The Union budget for FY 21-22, announced the provision for an additional one crore LPG connection under the PMUY scheme. Additional allocation of 1.6 Crore LPG Connections under the PMUY Scheme with a special facility to migrant households. It will provide a  deposit-free LPG connection. It will also give the first refill and hotplate (stove) free of cost to the beneficiaries. The migrants will not be required to submit ration cards or address proof. A self-declaration for both a ‘family declaration’ and a ‘proof of address’ will suffice. It will help achieve the Prime Minister’s vision of universal access to LPG. MUST READ: Pradhan MantriUjjwalaYojana (PMUY) – Diversion of LPG SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The endeavour of the Janini suraksha yojana programme is (2012) to promote institutional deliveries to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinements Which of the above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Jhamarkotra and Zawar Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, the need for better protection of India’s geo heritage sites of Jhamarkotra and Zawar, in Rajasthan was voiced. About Jhamarkotra:- Geoheritage are sites that offer insights into the evolution of the earth that can be used for research, reference, and awareness. A fossil park at Jhamarkotra, Rajasthan hosts stromatolites dating back 1.8 billion years. These exhibit a variety of textures and sizes. Stromatolite: a layered sedimentary rock formed by microorganisms. stromatolite fossils preserve the record of cyanobacteria, commonly known as blue-green algae – the earliest life on the planet. Cyanobacteria developed the ability to photosynthesise and make their food through which they pumped large quantities of oxygen into the atmosphere of primaeval earth, allowing most other life to evolve and flourish. Jhamarkotra’s fossils are phosphate-rich because the trapped sediments were mainly phosphate minerals.  About Zawar:- It lies in the south of Udaipur. It is the world’s oldest old known zinc-smelting site located in Udaipur. It has had numerous traces of zinc mining and smelting operations since ancient times. These include open stops, trenches, chambers, galleries, shafts, and open-pit mines. The discovery here of earthen retorts – brinjal-shaped, long-necked vessels – is particularly significant as their presence here suggests Zawar had a unique zinc-smelting legacy. Zawar’s zinc-smelting operations date back 2,000 years. MUST READ: 1st Biodiversity Heritage site in TN SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora river. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal river. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada river. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari river. Raccoon dogs Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: A new analysis of genetic data collected from the Huanan Seafood Market in Wuhan, China, has linked coronavirus to raccoon dogs. About Raccoon dogs:- They belong to the canid family and are closely related to foxes. Raccoon dogs are neither dogs nor raccoons. They are the only canids that hibernate during the winter. These animals are omnivores and relish food sources such as rodents and berries. They are monogamous, often living in pairs. Habitat:- Raccoon dogs are originally from East Asia. They are commonly found in parts of China, Korea and Japan, where they are known as tanuki. They are also found in Europe, where they were first brought in by fur traders in the 1920s. As per the experts, there are two species of raccoon dogs:- Nyctereutes procyonoides: the common raccoon dog (the species that was in the Wuhan market) and Nyctereutes p. viverrinus: the Japanese raccoon dog. IUCN Status: Least Concern MUST READ: iNCOVACC SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2021) Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes. Common cold is sometimes caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following statements is not correct? (2019) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV. Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine. Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses is several times more than those infected with HIV. Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years. Sangita Kalanidhi award Syllabus   Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Carnatic vocalist Bombay Jayashri has been selected for the Sangita Kalanidhi award of the Music Academy for 2023. About Sangita Kalanidhi award :- It came into existence in 1942. It is considered the highest award in the field of Carnatic music. The award comprises a gold medal and a birudu Patra (citation). In 1942, it was decided that the musician so invited would be conferred the title of Sangita Kalanidhi. Lalgudi Shri GJR Krishnan and Smt Vijayalakshmi received the 2022 award. Carnatic vocalist Bombay Jayashri has been selected for the 2023 award. About Sangeetha Kala Acharya:- This award was instituted in 1993. It is given to those who have contributed by bringing several disciples to the concert platform. It is awarded to two senior musicians who have contributed by bringing several disciples to the concert platform. About Natya Kala Acharya:- Instituted in 2012 by Dr Engikollai Krishnan and Dr Leela Krishnan in memory of Smt Meenakshi and Mysore Asthana Vidwan Engikollai Chidambara Ganapatigal. It is conferred each year in January on a senior dancer at the inauguration of the annual dance festival. It is awarded to a senior dancer at the inauguration of the annual dance festival. About Nritya Kalanidhi Award:- The award for 2023 is awarded to Vasanthalakshmi Narasimhachari. About TTK Award:- In 1950, the Music Academy instituted the Certificate of Merit. It is given to senior musicians who had made a mark in the field as icons and gurus. This in the 1980s was named the TTK Award in memory of TT Krishnamachari, former Union Minister and industrialist, who was a great patron of the arts and who as Vice-President of the Music Academy did much to make its auditorium a reality. Two senior performing artists are selected annually for this award. Noted thavil player and teacher Thirunageswaram has been selected for the TTK award 2023. Another musician who will get the award is Sargunanatha Odhuvar of the Kapaleeswarar temple in Myalpore. About Papa KS Venkataramiah award:- It is awarded to a Violinist of merit. This award is named after Papa KS Venkataramiah (a great violinist of the past). About Musicologist Award:- This was instituted as the Vaggeyakara award in 1999 by Smt R Ranganayaki to recognise outstanding contemporary music composers in the field. In 2008, the scope of this award was changed to include musicologists as well and the award was renamed the Musicologist Award. It is awarded to a musicologist. A scholar who participates in musical research is a musicologist. About Indira Sivasailam’s endowment concert and medal:- This was instituted in 2010 by the Indira Sivasailam Endowment Fund set up by Ms Mallika Srinivasan, Chairperson, Tafe Limited in the memory of her mother, noted Rasika and patron Smt Indira Sivasailam. It is awarded during Navaratri each year. It is given to the top-ranking performing artist in the concert organised at that time. MUST READ: Karakattam dance SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the cultural history of India consider the following statements (2018) Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna Tyagaraja created several new fits of rage. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries Annamacharya kirtans are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following pairs (2018) Tradition                                            State Chapchar Kut festival              Mizoram Khongjom Parba ballad          Manipur Thang-Ta dance                      Sikkim Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Sand Battery Syllabus Prelims – Science and technology Context: Recently, Finland has installed the world’s first sand battery that can store heat from renewable energy sources for months. About Sand Battery:- IMAGE SOURCE: What is a sand battery? — Polar Night Energy A   is a high-temperature thermal energy storage that uses sand or sand-like materials as its storage medium. It stores energy in the sand as heat. The sand battery is a battery system that uses sand as a medium to store thermal energy. The battery has a steel container to store recycled sand. Working:-The battery receives electricity from the grid through excess solar and wind power, which is converted to heat and transferred to the sand. The air inside the battery is heated using resistors and the hot air is circulated using a fan through a series of pipes, which releases the heat to the sand where it is preserved. The battery reservoir is so well-insulated from the outer environment that it can retain temperatures up to 600 degrees Celsius and prevent heat losses over time. The sand battery helps to ambitiously upscale renewables production by ensuring there’s always a way to benefit from clean energy, even if the surplus is massive. Sand batteries can store a significant extent of thermal energy and can aid Clean Energy Solutions. SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to street lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps? (2021) Sodium lamps produce light at 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps. As street lights, sodium lamps have a longer life span than LED lamps. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street lighting. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to solar water pumps, consider the following statements (2020) Solar power can be used for running surface pumps and not for submersible pumps, Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps and not the ones with the piston. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Global Terrorism Index (GTI) Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the 10th edition of the Global Terrorism Index (GTI) has warned that Climate change has provided an opportunity for terrorist groups to raise funds, propagandize and recruit. About Global Terrorism Index (GTI):- IMAGE SOURCE: 2022 — A Look At India On The Global Terrorism Index, Global Peace Index And The Positive Peace Index | by NewIndia | INDIAN Link | Medium It is a report published annually by the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP), The Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP), a global think tank. It is headquartered in Sydney, Australia. It is based primarily on the Global Terrorism Database (GTD) collated by the National Consortium for the Study of Terrorism and Responses to Terrorism (START) at the University of Maryland, besides other sources. The index provides a comprehensive summary of the key global trends and patterns in terrorism since 2000. GTI scores are directly used in the Global Peace Index, the Global Slavery Report. It is also indirectly used in reports of the World Economic Forum’s Travel and Tourism Competitiveness and Global Competitiveness Indices and compilation of the Safe Cities Index by the Economist Intelligence Unit. MUST READ: Terrorism & its financing SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) What is/are the consequence /consequences of a country becoming a member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’?(2018) It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Warehousing Development Regulatory Authority (WDRA) and Electronic Negotiable Warehousing Receipt Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Warehousing Development Regulatory Authority (WDRA) has recently signed an MoU with PNB to facilitate loans to farmers and traders against negotiable warehouse receipts. About Warehousing Development Regulatory Authority (WDRA):- The Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA) was constituted in 2010. It was constituted under the Warehousing (Development and Regulation) Act, of 2007 Objective: to exercise the powers conferred on it and to perform the functions assigned to it under the Act, Rules and Regulations for the development and regulation of warehouses, negotiability of warehouse receipts and promote orderly growth of the warehousing business in the country. The WDRA is a Statutory Authority. It works under the Department of Food and Public Distribution, Government of India. Its Headquarters is in New Delhi. The Authority consists of a Chairperson and two Members appointed by the Central Government. About Electronic Negotiable Warehousing Receipt:- The negotiable warehouse receipt (NWR) system was launched in 2011. It allows the transfer of ownership of a commodity stored in a warehouse without having to deliver it physically. The Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA) regulates the entire operation under NWR. An e-NWR is available only in electronic form. The single source of information for the e-NWR is the repository system where e-NWR is issued by registered warehouses. All e-NWRS can be traded through off-market or on-market Commodity Exchanges platforms. An e-NWR can be auctioned under certain conditions such as loan not repaid, on expiry and delivery not taken, and on likely damage or spoilage of the commodity in the warehouse. These can be transferred fully or in part. MUST READ: National Stock Exchange of India Limited SOURCE: BUSINESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? (2022) Farmers harvesting their crops Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics A commercial bank lending money to a trading company A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: (2022) They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium transaction. of commercial Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Important passes in Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, the Zojila Pass connecting Kashmir with Ladakh opened in a record 68 days. About important passes in Ladakh and Jammu and  Kashmir:- IMAGE SOURCE: Image result for bara acha pass | Mountain pass, Ias study material, Study materials (pinterest.com) Mintaka Pass:- It is located near Kashmir and China. It is the trijunction of India-China and Afghanistan border. Parpik Pass:- It is located near Kashmir and China. It is at East of Mintaka pass on the Indo-China border Khunjerab Pass:- Kashmir and China.    It is located at the Indo-China border. Aghil Pass:- It is near the Ladakh region of India with the Xinjiang (Sinkiang) Province of China  It is 5000 m above sea level. It is north of K2 Peak (the highest peak in India and the second-highest heat peak in the world) Banihal Pass:- It is in Jammu and Srinagar,   It is at 2832 m. It is located across the Pir-Panjal Range. The road from Jammu to Srinagar transversed Banihal Pass until 1956 when Jawahar Tunnel was constructed under the pass. The road now passes through the tunnel and the Banihal Pass is no longer used for road transport. Another 11 km long tunnel provides a railway link between Banihal and Kazigund. It was thrown open to railway transport in July 2013. Chang-La:- It connects Ladakh with Tibet.          It is at an altitude of 5360 m. This has a temple dedicated to Chang-La Baba after whom the temple has been named. Khardung La:- It is near Leh in the Ladakh range. It is at 5602 m. The world’s highest motorable road passes through this pass. It remains closed in winter due to heavy snowfall. Lanak La:- It is located in India and China (Akasai-Chin area of Jammu and Kashmir) region. This pass provides a passage between Ladakh and Lhasa. A road to connect Xinjiang Province with Tibet has been constructed by the Chinese Pir-Panjal pass:- It is across the Pir Panjal range. It provides the shortest and the easiest metal road between Jammu and Kashmir Valley. But this route had to be closed down as a result of the partition of the subcontinent. Qara Tag La:- It is at the Indo-China borer across the Karakoram Range. It is located at an elevation of over six thousand metres. Imis La:- Ladakh region of India and Tibet in China. Pensi La:- It is a vital link between the Kashmir Valley and Kargil.       It remains closed to traffic from November to mid-May due to heavy snowfall. Zoji La:- It is an important road link between Srinagar on one side and Kargil and Leh on the other side. The road passing through this pass has been designated as the National Highway (NH-1D). Border Road Organisation (BRO) is responsible for maintaining the road and cleaning it off the snow during winter. In spite of all these efforts, the road through this pass remains closed from December to mid-May. MUST READ: Ladakh SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) Peak                                              Mountains Namcha Barwa                     Garhwal Himalaya Nanda Devi                            Kumaon Himalaya Nokrek                                    Sikkim Himalaya Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Siachen Glacier is situated on the (2020) East of Aksai Chin East of Leh North of Gilgit North of Nubra Valley India Japan Relations Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: Amid increasing concern over China’s aggressive behaviour in the region, Japan Prime Minister Fumio Kishida recently emphasised that India is “indispensable” in Tokyo’s plan for a “Free and Open Indo-Pacific”. India- Japan Relations Historical: The friendship between India and Japan has a long history rooted in spiritual affinity and strong cultural and civilization ties dating back to the visit of Indian monk Bodhisena in 752 AD. Ancient records from the now-destroyed library at Nalanda University in India describe scholars and pupils who attended the school from Japan. One of the most famous Japanese travellers to the Indian subcontinent was Tenjiku Tokubei. In contemporary times, among prominent Indians associated with Japan were Swami Vivekananda, Gurudev Rabindranath Tagore,  JRD Tata, Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose and Judge Radha Binod Pal. Bilateral Trade and economic India and Japan have signed a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement in 2011. Some of the Mega Projects with Japanese investments are: Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail Chennai-Bengaluru Industrial Corridor Trade between India and Japan stood at $ 16.95 billion in the FY 2019-20. The key merchandise includes Petroleum products, textiles, Iron ore, Fish and fish products. India’s primary exports to Japan are petroleum products, chemicals, elements, compounds, non-metallic mineral ware, fish and fish preparations, metalliferous ores & scrap, clothing & accessories, iron & steel products, textile yarn, fabrics and machinery, etc. India’s primary imports from Japan are machinery, transport equipment, iron and steel, electronic goods, organic chemicals, machine tools, etc. Recently India, Australia and Japan formally launched the Supply Chain Resilience Initiative. The initiative was launched to counter the dominance of China in the Global Supply Chain. The Technical Intern Training Program (TITP) between India and Japan also has potential to deepen economic relations between the two. Defense cooperation India and Japan held their first bilateral exercises, ‘Dharma Guardian’ and ‘Shinyuu Maitri’, in 2018. It was held between the Armies and Air Forces of both the countries. Japan participates in the annual India-US Malabar naval exercises on a regular basis. Japan also joined the India-US Air Force exercise ‘Cope India’ as an observer for the first time. Acquisition and Cross-Servicing Agreement (ACSA): Negotiations are going on for the agreement through which Japan could gain access to Indian facilities in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and India could have access to Japan’s naval facility in Djibouti. Both India and Japan have been expanding cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region bilaterally as well as under the framework of the Quad grouping. Quad is an informal strategic dialogue between India, the USA, Japan and Australia with a shared objective to ensure and support a “free, open and prosperous” Indo-Pacific region. Science & Technology: Bilateral S&T cooperation was formalised through an Inter-Governmental Agreement signed in 1985. India-Japan Digital Partnership (IJDP) was launched during the visit of PM Modi to Japan in October 2018 furthering existing areas of cooperation as well as new initiatives within the scope of cooperation in S&T/ICT, focusing more on “Digital ICT Technologies” Recent initiatives include the establishment of three India-Japan Joint Laboratories in the area of ICT (AI, IoT and Big Data); Initiation of the DST-JSPS Fellowship Programme for young researchers. Healthcare In view of the similarities and synergies between the goals and objectives of India’s AYUSHMAN Bharat Programme and Japan’s AHWIN, both sides consulted with each other to identify projects to build the narrative of AHWIN for AYUSHMAN Bharat. Japan supported India to contain COVID-19 and mitigate its adverse socioeconomic impacts by extending budgetary support. Indian Community in Japan: In recent years, there has been a change in the composition of the Indian community with the arrival of a large number of professionals, including IT professionals and engineers working for Indian and Japanese firms as well as professionals in management, finance, education, and S&T research. Source: Indian Express The return of the Net Neutrality debate in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The telecom operators have gone from demanding payment to manage scarce resources on their networks to demanding payment for enormous usage on their networks. About Net Neutrality: The principle of net neutrality states that internet users should be able to access all content on the internet without being discriminated by Telecom Service Providers (TSPs). This means that – All websites or applications should be treated equally by TSPs, All applications should be allowed to be accessed at the same internet speed, and All applications should be accessible for the same cost. Net neutrality argues that the internet should be accessible to everyone and requires all ISPs to provide the same level of data access and speed to all traffic. Traffic to one service or website cannot be blocked or degraded. Features of net neutrality: Non-discrimination: All data should be treated equally, and internet service providers (ISPs) should not discriminate or prioritize any type of content, application, service, or device based on its source, destination, or ownership. Transparency: ISPs should provide customers with clear and accurate information about their internet services, including their network management practices, terms of service, and fees. No blocking: ISPs should not block or censor lawful content, applications, services, or devices that customers want to access, use, send, receive, or offer on the internet. No throttling: ISPs should not intentionally slow down or degrade the quality of any lawful content, application, service, or device that customers want to access, use, send, receive, or offer on the internet. No paid prioritization: ISPs should not offer faster or better access to any content, application, service, or device in exchange for payment or other consideration from content providers, developers, or users. Competition: Net neutrality promotes competition among ISPs by preventing them from using their control over access to the internet to favour their own content, applications, services, or devices or those of their partners, affiliates, or subsidiaries over those of their competitors. Arguments in favour of the demand: Paying for the infrastructure: This concept of paying for the use of infrastructure is an excellent concept wherein any entity that uses another entity’s infrastructure should pay for it. Sharing revenues: However, the revenues earned by the infra provider [telecom operators] should also be shared with the entity using it in the same proportion. No infrastructure with content providers: The apparent claim by the telecom operators is that content providers don’t build any of this infrastructure on their own. The infrastructure for any communication network includes data centres, undersea cables, content hosting centres, content delivery networks (CDNs), etc — all of which are built by the OTT platforms. In 2016, the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) ruled in favour of Net neutrality, the concept that all traffic on an Internet network has to be treated equally. The telecom regulator concluded that programmes such as Free Basics by Facebook (now Meta) and telecom operators’ plans to charge extra for data calls using apps like Viber would be prohibited, as all Internet access had to be priced equally. The Department of Telecommunications in 2018 embedded the net neutrality concept into the Unified Licence, whose conditions all telecom operators and Internet providers are bound by the govt rules. Arguments against the demand: Co-existence: Telecom operators and platforms support “each other’s growth, and neither can exist without the other”. No open Internet: According to the critics, charging a network fee will break the core essence of an open Internet. Net neutrality activists (as well as content providers) have argued that imposing such a fee, even on a limited number of large players, was a distortion of the Internet’s architecture, where content providers and telecom operators enjoy a symbiotic relationship without charging each other, and users pay both, in the form of fees or advertisements, or both. Universal Service Obligation Fund: According to critics, instead of providing for this demand, the government could reduce spectrum fees and support telecom companies with the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF). Democratic exchange of content: Net neutrality supporters believe that the internet should remain free, open and non-discriminatory and that this is essential for a democratic exchange of ideas and knowledge, ethical business practices, fair competition and ongoing innovation. Worldwide operations USA: The U.S. had, and continues to have, programmes like T-Mobile Binge On, where traffic from certain content providers is ‘zero-rated’, which means it would not be counted in users’ data limits. European Union: Telecom operators in the European Union are also demanding similar usage fees from content providers. The Electronic Frontier Foundation (EFF), a prominent Internet rights advocacy group in the U.S., warned against such moves. The EU is holding consultations on the issue this year before it finalises its stand. Way Forward: Net neutrality has been the foundation on which the success of several smartphone applications has been built. Although rich telecom and social media services MNCs like Bharti Airtel and Meta (earlier Facebook) attempted so-called affordable services stakeholders deemed acceptable like Airtel zero, Internet.org and Free Basics – a case of violation of net neutrality. Affordable data charges have been the key to the spread of the internet and digital literacy in India and other developing countries globally. In the years since, the Indian telecom industry has far outpaced the U.S. in terms of data consumed per month on mobile Internet connections, a result of the sharp drop in tariffs after Reliance Jio launched 4G services. Now, Indian telecom operators are emulating the approach that American carriers had aggressively pursued a decade ago. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following: Banihal Pass Khardung La Qara Tag La Which of the above passes is/are come across the pir Panjal range? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 only 1 and 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Warehousing Development Regulatory Authority (WDRA): The WDRA is a Statutory Authority It works under the Department of Food and Public Distribution, Government of India. Its Headquarters is in Kolkata. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) Recently, the 10th edition of the Global Terrorism Index (GTI) was released by World Bank Institute for Economics and Peace Peterson Institute for International Economics The Centre for Strategic and International Studies Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 21st March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 20th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 21st March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 14] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 14-> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Udhwa Bird Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Jharkhand’s Udhwa Bird Sanctuary was in news with the ongoing speculations of it getting the prestigious Ramsar Site status. About Udhwa Bird Sanctuary:- It is situated in the Sahebganj district of the state of Jharkhand. It is the only notified bird sanctuary in the state. It is named after saint Uddhava of Mahabharat times, a friend of Lord Krishna. It falls within the Gangetic Plains bio-geographic zone. The Sanctuary has two water bodies i.e. Patauran (155 ha) and Berhale (410 ha), interconnected by a water channel. The Sanctuary is connected to the Ganga River through a 25 km long water channel known as the Udhuwa Nala, at Farraka. The Sanctuary has been identified as an ‘Important Bird Area’. Among birds of prey are Tern, Brahminy Kite, Fishing Eagle, Hawk and Vulture. House and Palm Swift, Swallow, Kingfisher, Drongo. Indian Roller and Parakeet are also common here. Migratory birds visiting the lake during winter include Black-headed & Brown-headed Gulls, Grey-headed Lapwing, Little-ringed Plover, Red & Green Shanks, Spotted Green Shanks, Common Sandpiper, Temmink’s Stint, Yellow & White Wagtail, Blue-throat, Western Swallow etc. MUST READ: Atapaka Bird Sanctuary SOURCE: TIMES TRAVEL PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs (2022) Wetland/Lake:                              Location Hokera Wetland                    Punjab Renuka Wetland                    Himachal Pradesh Rudrasagar Lake                    Tripura Sasthamkotta                        Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis International Criminal Court (ICC) Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, the ICC issued an arrest warrant for Vladimir Putin for war crimes in Ukraine. About the International Criminal Court (ICC):- International Criminal Court (ICC) is an international organisation and international tribunal. It is headquartered in the Hague. The Court’s founding treaty, called the Rome Statute. India is not a party to Rome Statute along with US and China. It grants the ICC jurisdiction over four main crimes. First, the crime of genocide is characterised by the specific intent to destroy in whole or in part a national, ethnic, racial or religious group by killing its members or by other means: causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group. Second, the ICC can prosecute crimes against humanity, which are serious violations committed as part of a large-scale attack against any civilian population. Third, war crimes are grave breaches of the Geneva conventions in the context of armed conflict. The fourth includes crime falling within the ICC’s jurisdiction is the crime of aggression. It is the use of armed force by a State against the sovereignty, integrity or independence of another State. The definition of this crime was adopted by amending the Rome Statute at the first Review Conference of the Statute in Kampala, Uganda, in 2010. MUST READ: International Court of Justice SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to (2018) Child labour Adaptation of agriculture practices to global climate change Regulation of food prices and food security Gender parity in the workplace Q.2) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?(2018) Civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of the IAEA The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG. PM Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel Parks (PM MITRA) Scheme Syllabus Prelims – Government Schemes Context: Recently the government selected seven states to develop mega textile parks under PM MITRA. About PM Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel Parks (PM MITRA) Scheme:- It is under the Ministry of Textiles. PM MITRA Parks is envisaged to help India in achieving the United Nations Sustainable Development Goal 9 (“Build resilient infrastructure, promote sustainable industrialization and foster innovation”). Objective: to have a world-class industrial infrastructure which would attract cutting-edge technology and boost FDI and local investment in the textiles sector. PM MITRA is inspired by the 5F vision of the Hon’ble Prime Minister which encompasses:- Offering an opportunity to create an integrated textiles value chain right from spinning, weaving, processing/dyeing and printing to garment manufacturing at 1 location. Reducing the logistics cost of the Industry by an integrated Textile Value chain at 1 location. Generating 1 lakh direct and 2 lakhs indirect employment per park. Sites for PM MITRA Parks will be selected by a Challenge Method based on objective criteria. Proposals of State Governments having ready availability of contiguous and encumbrance-free land parcels of 1,000+ acres along with other textiles-related facilities & ecosystems are welcome. The scheme is to develop integrated large-scale and modern industrial infrastructure facilities for the entire value chain of the textile industry. It will reduce logistics costs and improve the competitiveness of Indian Textiles. The scheme will help India in attracting investments, boost employment generation and position itself strongly in the global textile market. These parks are envisaged to be located at sites which have inherent strength for Textile Industry to flourish and have the necessary linkages to succeed. Competitiveness Incentive Support (CIS) of ₹300 Crore will also be provided to each PM MITRA park for the early establishment of textiles manufacturing units in PM MITRA Park. PM MITRA park will be developed by a Special Purpose Vehicle which will be owned by the State Government and the Government of India in a Public Private Partnership (PPP) Mode. MUST READ: PM MITRA Parks SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at (2016) bringing small entrepreneurs into the formal financial system providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating particular crops providing pensions to old and destitute persons funding the voluntary organizations involved in the promotion of skill development and employment generation Q.2) Recently, India’s first ‘National Investment and Manufacturing Zone’ was proposed to be set up in(2016) Andhra Pradesh Gujarat Maharashtra Uttar Pradesh Shri Shri Harichand Thakur Syllabus Prelims – History and Art and Culture Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid tribute to Sri Sri Harichand Thakur on his Jayanti recently. About Shri Shri Harichand Thakur:- Shri Shri Harichand Thakur worked among the untouchable people of the Bengal Presidency. He came from a family of Vaishnavite Hindus. He founded a sect of Vaishnavite Hinduism called Matua. This was adopted by members of the Namasudra community. Namasudra community: were then also known by the pejorative name of Chandalas and considered to be untouchable. Philosophy: The sect was opposed to caste oppression and, inspired the community towards education and social upliftment. According to historian Sekhar Bandyopadhyay, Thakur “experienced Atma darshan or self-revelation, through which he realized that he was the incarnation of God himself, born in this world to bring salvation to the downtrodden”. MUST READ: Bhakti Movement SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the cultural history of India consider the following statements (2018) Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna Tyagaraja created several new fits of rage Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries Annamacharya kirtans are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2014) ‘Bijak’ is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal The Philosophy of PushtiMarg was propounded by Madhvacharya Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Plastic rocks Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, plastic rocks have been found on the remote Brazilian island of Trindade. About Plastic rocks:- They are made of sedimentary granules and other debris held together by plastic. These rocks are called “plastiglomerates” because they are made of a mixture of sedimentary granules and other debris held together by plastics. They are considered a potential marker of the Anthropocene. Anthropocene: an informal epoch of the Quaternary proposed by some social scientists, environmentalists, and geologists. Plastiglomerate could potentially form a marker horizon of human pollution on the geologic record. They may survive as future fossils. Plastiglomerate may also conceivably be formed in plastic-polluted regions affected by lava flows or forest fires. They have been found on the surface as well as beneath the sand. MUST READ: Plastic Pollution SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following? (2021) Brakes of motor vehicles Engines of motor vehicles Microwave stoves within homes Power plants Telephone lines Select the correct answer using the code given below 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into the environment? (2019) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems They are considered to cause skin cancer in children. They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields. They are often found to be used as food adulterants. Kudumbashree and Project Unnati Syllabus Prelims –Government Schemes Context: Recently, the President attended celebrations of Kudumbashree and Project Unnati-associated events in Kerala. About Kudumbashree:- Kudumbashree, the Kerala State Poverty Eradication Mission was launched in May 1998. It was inaugurated by the Prime Minister, Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee. Objective: to eradicate absolute poverty within a definite time frame of 10 years under the leadership of Local Self Governments formed and empowered by the 73rd and 74th Amendments of the Constitution of India. VISION: Kudumbashree strives to develop the model of a microfinance-led financial security process into a more comprehensive model of local economic development under the aegis of local governments. It was launched by the State Government with the active support of the Government of India and NABARD. Kudumbashree is formally registered as the “State Poverty Eradication Mission” (SPEM). State Poverty Eradication Mission (SPEM): it is a society registered under the Travancore Kochi Literary, Scientific and Charitable Societies Act 1955. It has a governing body chaired by the State Minister of LSG. It has adopted a different methodology for addressing poverty by organizing the poor into community-based organizations. The Mission follows a process approach rather than a project approach. Kudumbashree is a community organization of Neighborhood Groups (NHGs) of women in Kerala. It has been recognized as an effective strategy for the empowerment of women in rural as well as urban areas by bringing women together from all spheres of life to fight for their rights or for empowerment. Implementation; It is implemented through Community Development Societies (CDSs) of Poor Women, serving as the community wing of Local Governments. About Project Unnati:- It is under the Union Rural Development Ministry. It is a skill-upgrading initiative established in 2020. Objectives:- enhancing the beneficiaries of the Mahatma Gandhi NREGA’s skill base and enhancing their quality of life. to offer training to one adult household member (between the ages of 18 and 45) who has worked 100 days under the Mahatma Gandhi NREGA in the fiscal year prior to the project’s start. Under the project, the selected candidates are skilled using three established training programmes: the Deen Dayal Upadhyay Grameen Kaushal Yojana (DDU-GKY), the Rural Self Training Institute (RSETI) and the Krishi Vigyan Kendra. This project is meant for providing training for one adult member (of age 18-45 years old) of a household who has completed 100 days of work under Mahatma Gandhi NREGA in the previous financial year from the year of commencement of the project. The family from which training candidates are chosen continues to get 100 days of labour under the MGNREGA. The applicants undergoing training are paid a stipend for a maximum of 100 days and for one programme per household at the going wage rate in the relevant State/UT. The Central Government bears all costs associated with a stipend in exchange for wage loss benefits. Training will be provided to a total of 2,00000 beneficiaries over the course of three years across 26 States and 2 UTs. MUST READ: Issues with MGNREGA SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statement is/are correct? (2016) Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at (2016) bringing small entrepreneurs into a formal financial system providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating particular crops providing pensions to old and destitute people funding the voluntary organizations involved in the promotion of skill development and employment generation Namdapha National Park Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, logs and a truck were seized from the core area of Namdapha National Park and Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh’s Changlang district. About Namdapha National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: Arunachal Pradesh Tourist Maps – Arunachal Pradesh Travel Google Maps (traveldealsfinder.com) It is located in the Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh. It is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot. It was established as a national park in 1983. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in the same year 1983. It is also on the Tentative List of UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India. It is India’s easternmost tiger reserve. It is near the international border with Myanmar. Its adjoining areas, are flanked by the Patkai hills to the south and southeast and by the Himalayas in the north. The area lies close to the Indo-Myanmar-China trijunction. Namdapha is in fact the name of a river originating in the park and it meets the Noa-Dehing river. Noa-Dehing river is a tributary of the Brahmaputra and flows in a North-South direction in the middle of the National Park. The park is located between the Dapha bum range of the Mishmi Hills and the Patkai range. It is the fourth largest national park in India. The first three are Hemis National Park in Ladakh, Desert National Park in Rajasthan, and Gangotri National Park in Uttarakhand. Vegetation: The vegetation is characteristic of tropical evergreen forests (Tropical Rain Forests). Fauna: elephants, black bears, Indian Bison, several species of deer, reptiles and a variety of arboreal animals. Important bird species: White-winged Wood Ducks, a rare and endangered species, the great Indian hornbills, jungle fowls and pheasants. It is the only park in the World to have the four Feline species of big cat namely the Tiger (Panthera Tigris), Leopard (Panthera Pardus), Snow Leopard (Panthera Uncia) and Clouded Leopard (Neofelis Nebulosa). It is also famous for Critically Endangered species like the Namdapha flying squirrel, species that was last spotted in 1981. Hoolock Gibbons, the only ‘ape’ species found in India is found in this National Park. Other Protected Areas in Arunachal Pradesh:- Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary. About Mouling National Park:- It was established in 1972. It was the second to be established in Arunachal Pradesh, after Namdapha National Park. This park has a total land area of about 483 square kilometres and is located west of the Dihang-Dibang biosphere reserve. Mouling Peak, the park’s highest peak, mmakesthis an undulating area. Rivers such as the Siyom run through the park’s western border. Mouling National Park offers the sight of various conserved animals including different types of mammals and birds. About Kamlang Wildlife Sanctuary:- Kamlang Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the South-Eastern part of the Lohit District of Arunachal Pradesh. The name comes from the River Kamlang, which flows through the Sanctuary and joins the Brahmaputra The local inhabitants are Hishmi, Digaru, and Mizo. They Claim themselves as descendent of “King Rukmo” of “Mahabharat”. This Wildlife Sanctuary contains all four big cats (Tiger, Leopard, Clouded Leopard and Snow Leopard). It also has the population of endangered spp. like Hollock gibbon, Sllorisesies, Leopard cat, Himalayan palm civets etc. The famous pilgrimage centre, “Parasuram Kund” can be approached from Wakro throughout the year at a distance of 20 km. Fauna: This Sanctuary has animals like, Elephant, Tiger, leopards, and Hoolock gibbons. Stump-tailed macaque, Capped Langur, Boar, Civets, Deer, Hornbills, Giant and flying squirrels etc. Flora: Canarium resiniferous (Dhuna), Terminalia chebula (Hillika), Gmelina arborea (Gamari),Ammora wallichi (Amari) etc. About Itanagar Wildlife Sanctuary:- Itanagar Reserve Forest was declared as Itanagar Wildlife Sanctuary. It has a geographical boundary with Pam River in the East, Pachin in the South, Neorochi on the North-East and Chingke stream in the North. The vegetation of this Sanctuary can be classified as tropical semi evergreen and wet evergreen. The most common bamboos found in these forest areas are (1) Bambusa palida (Bijuli) and (2) Dendrocalamus hamiltonii (Kako). Tree species: (1) Duabanga grandiflora (Khokan) (2) Amoora Wallichii (Aman) (3) Toona ciliata (Poma) (4) Magnolia spp. (Sopa) (5) Schima Wallichii (Makrisal) and Castonopsis indica (Hingori) etc. Grass : succharam procerum, S.Spontamum, Andropogon assimillis, phramites karka, Allpinia allugus. Fauna:. Animals like Elephants, Tigers, Panthers, Sambar, Barking Deer and Bears were quite common. Hornbills were very common bird to sight. But now it is a chance to sight a Hornbill. MUST READ: Wildlife conservation in Arunachal Pradesh SOURCE:THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic? (2015) Khangchendzonga National Park Nandadevi National Park Neora Valley National Park Namdapha National Park Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2013) Nokrek Biosphere Reserve: Garo Hills Logtak (Loktak) Lake: Barail Range Namdapha National Park: Dafla Hills Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 None Conservation and Protection Western Ghats Syllabus Mains – Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Supreme Court directed the Environment Ministry to file its counter-affidavit to a petition seeking judicial intervention to protect the Western Ghats from destruction. About Western Ghats: The Western Ghats, also known as the Sahyadri Hills, are well known for their rich and unique assemblage of flora and fauna. It is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Western Ghats passes through Gujarat, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Puducherry and Tamil Nadu. Importance of Western Ghats: Biodiversity hotspots: Western Ghats have high level of biological diversity and endemism and is recognized as one of the world’s eight ‘hottest hotspots’ of biological diversity. It is estimated that 52% of tree species and 65% of amphibians found in western ghats are endemic. Water shed: The Western Ghats are one of the four watersheds of India, feeding the perennial rivers of the country. The major river systems starting in the Western Ghats are the Godavari, Kaveri, Krishna and Tungabhadra rivers. Weather pattern: The Ghats act as a key barrier, intercepting the rain-laden monsoon winds and influencing the Indian monsoon weather pattern. They have a major role in groundwater recharge. Western Ghats with their forest eco systems sequester large amount of carbon. It is estimated that they neutralise around 4 million tonnes of carbon every year- around 10% of emissions neutralised by all Indian forests. Hydropower: The rivers flowing through Western Ghats are important source of hydropower generation. Threats to Western Ghats: Mining: The mining activities have grown rapidly and often in violation of all laws, resulting in serious environmental damage and social disruption. Unsustainable mining has increased vulnerability to landslides, damaged water sources and agriculture, thus negatively affected the livelihoods of the people living in those areas Hydropower Projects: Large dam projects in Western Ghats have resulted in huge environmental costs. Extraction of Forest Produce: Human communities living within and adjacent to protected areas in the Western Ghats are often dependent on it for extraction of forest produce to meet a diversity of subsistence and commercial needs. Plantations: Agroforestry systems in the Western Ghats are replacing native endemic species with tea, coffee, rubber and monocultures of various species, including the recently introduced oil palm. Encroachment by Human Settlements: Human settlements occur both within and outside protected areas all across the Western Ghats and represent a significant threat. Livestock Grazing: Livestock grazing within and bordering protected areas is a serious problem causing habitat degradation across the Western Ghats. Committees and Recommendations Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP) Report  The report was submitted in 2011. Madhav Gadgil, ecologist and panel chairman pointed to the degradation suffered of Western Ghat. The report had designated the entire hill range as an Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA). It had classified the 142 taluks in the Western Ghats boundary into three Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZs). It also recommended no new dams based on large­ scale storage be permitted in the region. Participatory process for development related activity involving the Gram Sabhas in these zones. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change opposed disclosure of the report stating that it could affect the economic and scientific interests of the six States. The successive State governments opposed it stating that most of its suggestions were impractical. The Centre later appointed a high­ level working group on Western Ghats led by K. Kasturirangan, in August, 2012 to examine the Gadgil report. Kasturirangan Committee To give special attention to the preservation of the precious biodiversity. Also ,to consider the rights, needs and development aspirations of the local and indigenous people. It identified only 37% or 59,940 sq. km of the Western Ghats in the 6 States as ESAs. Around 4,156 villages along the region were identified as ESAs On the basis of the criterion that they had 20% or more of ecologically sensitive area within their boundary. Nearly 123 such villages were identified as ESAs in Kerala, provoking political and religious protests. Oommen V. Oommen Committee Following the advice of the Kasturirangan Committee The area of 9,993.7 sq. km to be considered ESAs in Kerala as against the 13,108 sq. km area. It also recommended that the inhabited areas, plantations and agricultural lands in the Western Ghats region be excluded from the scope of ESA. Union Environment Ministry Draft notification of 2014 Notified a total of 56,825 sq. km in the Western Ghats as ESA instead of the original 59,940 sq. km recommended by the Kasturirangan Committee. The final notification remains pending despite a directive by the Principal Bench of the National Green Tribunal. that there is no justification for continued delay merely because the States have sought exclusion of the area from the Eco Sensitive Zone. Way Forward Sustainable Growth : A balance between conservation efforts and development should be sought. Exempting areas of very high susceptibility from any types of constructions. Nature Based Solution : Increasing the vegetative cover as a first line of defence during a natural calamity. Government Policies: An intelligent public policy response is the need of the hour. Policies must adhere to the recommendations of reports. Avoiding mindless consumerism: United Nations Development Programme, which had pioneered the human development approach, has proposed a Planetary ­Pressures Adjusted Human Development Index. Awareness among various stakeholders : Living in the Anthropocene, we need to guard against any further damage to the natural world. Source:  The Hindu Simultaneous elections/One Nation, One Election Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The issue of holding simultaneous elections to the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies has been referred to the Law Commission for further examination. About simultaneous elections: The simultaneous election in India is the holding of elections to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies together once in a 5 year under which voters in a certain constituency vote for both Lok Sabha and State Assembly on the same day itself. It does not mean that elections across the nation for Lok Sabha and State Assemblies need to occur on a single day. It is based on the principle of “One Nation, One Election”. Notably, simultaneous elections were held in India until 1967 that was disrupted because of premature dissolution of state assemblies. Arguments in favour of Simultaneous Elections/ ONOE Reduction in cost: Multiple elections at different times lead to a huge cost to the exchequer in the form of lost time, labour and financial costs. There are significant costs involved in the conducting of elections including the movement of security personnel, diversion of state machinery towards presiding over the elections and other similar costs. Simultaneous polls will boost voter turnout. Engagement of security forces: Deployment of security forces is normally throughout the elections and frequent elections take away a portion of such armed police force which could otherwise be better deployed for other internal security purposes. Impact on social fabric: Frequent elections perpetuate caste, religion, and communal issues across the country as elections are polarising events that have accentuated casteism, communalism, and corruption. Hampering values of democracy: Smaller parties with less capital and money for election expenditure could not compete equally with larger parties with deep pockets. This hampers equity and equality in a democratic process. With simultaneous elections, the election expense will be reduced thus allowing for more level playing field during the campaign times. Focus on populist measures: Frequent elections will impact the focus of governance and policymaking as it forces the political class to typically think in terms of immediate electoral gains rather than focus on long-term programs and policies. Regular elections hamper the delivery of essential services due to the engagement of public servants, including a large number of teachers, in the election process. Arguments against Simultaneous Election: Local issues will fade out: There are concerns that simultaneous elections will impact the behaviour of voters, as national and local issues may get mixed up and distort priorities, giving an unfair advantage to national parties, at the expense of regional parties. Difficult scheduling: It may be difficult to find a suitable time slot, given the geographical and administrative diversity relating to weather, agricultural cycle, exam schedule, religious festivals, and public holidays, in a country as vast as India. Logistical challenges: Holding simultaneous elections once in five years may also face logistical challenges. For the free and fair conduct of the elections, security forces need to be deployed in large numbers. Given the current strength of security personnel, this may be a challenging task. Midterm dissolution cannot be controlled: Even if the terms of the Houses are in sync as a one-time measure, it will still need an adequate legal safeguard in place to avoid mid-term dissolution and protect the simultaneous elections cycle. Need a lot of amendments: Amendments to the Constitution would encompass Articles 83 (Duration of Houses), 85 (Dissolution of the Lok Sabha), 172 (Duration of state legislatures), 174 (Dissolution of state legislatures), 356 (Failure of constitutional machinery), and the Tenth Schedule (to ensure that all disqualification issues arising from defection are decided by the presiding officer within six months). Change in the basic structure of the Constitution: Amending Article 356 – which deals with ‘Provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in State’, or President’s rule – will alter the basic structure of the Constitution and will impinge on federalism. International examples not suitable for India: The international examples – like Sweden, Belgium, and South Africa – cannot be compared to a country like India, whose population and area are many times that of the smaller countries. Concern over feasibility: If a central government that is made up of a coalition faces a situation where an ally pulls out, and the government falls, elections will have to be conducted in all state governments, too, within six months, even if there is no issue in those states and vice-versa. One aspect that could offset the savings would be the doubling of expenses on electronic voting machines (EVMs). Model code of conduct: Argument about MCC paralyzing policy-making is overstated and untrue – it only stops ruling parties from using the government machinery for electoral gains. Way forward Simultaneous election is an idea whose time has come. However, since the issue is concerned with the federal structure of the Constitution, it needs to be discussed and debated properly across the political spectrum to assuage the concerns of regional parties. This will make it easier to implement the idea in the country. Ideally, the ‘one nation, one election’ system should reduce the amount of time, energy and resources invested in the conduct of polls. If simultaneous polls do reduce the duration of conducting polls, political parties will have ample time to address national issues and enhance governance. Source: The Economic Times Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Namdapha National Park is often mentioned in the news located in Uttarakhand Kerala Assam Arunachal Pradesh Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding Project Unnati: It was launched by the Ministry of Skill development and Entrepreneurship It aims at enhancing the beneficiaries of the Mahatma Gandhi NREGA’s skill base and enhancing their quality of life. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the International Criminal Court (ICC): It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It is headquartered in the Hague. India is a party to Rome Statute which is a founding treaty of ICC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 20th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 18th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

[DAY 13] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 13 -> Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 20th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Exercise Sea Dragon 23 Syllabus Prelims – Defense Context: Recently, P8I aircraft of the Indian Navy arrived in Guam, USA to participate in ‘Exercise Sea Dragon 23’. About Exercise Sea Dragon 23:- Exercise Sea Dragon 23 is a biennial coordinated multilateral anti-submarine warfare (ASW) exercise for long-range maritime reconnaissance aircraft. The exercise is conducted by the United States Navy. Participating countries include India, the USA, Japan, Canada, and South Korea. It was held for the first time in 2015. This is the third edition of the Sea Dragon Exercise. The exercise aims to achieve high levels of synergy and coordination between the participating countries based on their shared values and commitment to an open, inclusive Indo-Pacific. The exercise’s primary objective is to improve coordination among participating countries in the multilateral anti-submarine warfare drills. Other Exercises between India and USA include Malabar, Yudh Abhyas, and VAJRA PRAHAR. MUST READ: Exercise Sea Breeze SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) India is a member of which of the following? (2015) Asia-Pacific economic corporation. Association of South-East Asian Nations. East Asia Summit Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2, and 3 India is a member of none of them Q.2) With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, Consider the following statements: (2015) It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills It is an alliance meant for maritime security only Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 National Green Hydrogen Mission, Atal Jyoti Yojana, and PM-KUSUM scheme Syllabus Prelims – Government Schemes and Environment and Ecology Context: The Union Minister of renewable energy & power R.K. Singh recently informed the Lok Sabha that the Green Hydrogen Mission can reduce Rs. 1 lakh crore of fossil fuel imports. About the PM-KUSUM scheme:- The PM-KUSUM scheme was launched in 2019. It is under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). The scheme is aimed at ensuring energy security for farmers in India. It also targets to honour India’s commitment to increase the share of installed capacity of electric power from non-fossil-fuel sources to 40% by 2030 as part of Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs). Objectives:- to support the installation of off-grid solar pumps in rural areas and reduce dependence on the grid, in grid-connected areas. to enable farmers to set up solar power generation capacity on their barren lands and sell it to the grid. The scheme has 3 components:- Component-A: For Setting up 10,000 MW of Decentralized Grid Connected Renewable Energy Power Plants on barren land. Component-B: Under this Component, individual farmers will be supported to install standalone solar Agriculture pumps of capacity up to 7.5 HP for replacement of existing diesel Agriculture pumps / irrigation systems in off-grid areas, where grid supply is not available. Component-C: Under this Component, individual farmers having grid-connected agriculture pumps will be supported to solarise pumps. About Atal Jyoti Yojana:- The Atal Jyoti Yojana scheme was launched in 2016. It is under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). Objective: installation of solar street lighting (SSL) systems in states with less than 50% of households covered with grid power (as per Census 2011).  Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL)  is implementing Atal Jyoti Yojana (AJAY). It is a sub-scheme under the Off-Grid and Decentralized Solar Application Scheme of MNRE. Under AJAY, Solar LED Lights are being installed in rural, semi-urban and urban areas which don’t enjoy adequate coverage of power. Funding: the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy will provide 75% of the cost of street lights and the remaining 25% will come from Member of Parliament Local Area Development funds (MPLADS). Under AJAY phase-I and II, EESL has installed over 1.97 lakh Solar LED street lights in rural areas of Uttar Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Odisha, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Rajasthan and Gujarat. MUST READ: National Green Hydrogen Mission and Green Hydrogen SOURCE: NEWSOnAIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to solar water pumps, consider the following statements (2020) Solar power can be used for running surface pumps and not for submersible Pumps. Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps and not the ones with pistons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2  Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2015) The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched during 1996-97 to provide loan assistance to poor farmers. The Command Area Development Programme was launched in 1974-75 for the development of water-use efficiency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 National Institute of Ocean Technology and Low-Temperature Thermal Desalination technology Syllabus Syllabus Prelims – Geography and Environment and Ecology Context: National Institute of Ocean Technology to set up a green, self-powered desalination plant in Lakshadweep soon. About the National Institute of Ocean Technology:- It is an autonomous institute under the Union Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). It was established in 1993. Headquarters: Chennai, Tamil Nadu Objectives:- to develop reliable indigenous technologies to solve various engineering problems associated with the harvesting of non-living and living resources in the Indian Exclusive Economic Zone. About Low-Temperature Thermal Desalination technology:- IMAGE SOURCE: Schematic diagram of low-temperature thermal desalination plant using… | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) It is a desalination process that uses low-grade thermal energy, typically below 70°C, to evaporate seawater and produce fresh water. The technology is designed to be efficient and cost-effective, in providing potable water. Working:- Low-Temperature Thermal Desalination exploits the difference in temperature (nearly 15°C) in the ocean water at the surface and at depths of about 600 feet. This cold water is used to condense water at the surface. The water at the surface is warmer and is maintained at low pressure using vacuum pumps. Water evaporates at ambient temperatures at such low pressures. This resulting vapour when condensed with the help of cold water from the depth is free of salts and contaminants and is fit to consume. MUST READ: Deep Ocean Mission (DOM) and Ocean Services, Modelling, Application, Resources and Technology (O-SMART) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm which is 129 meters in the southwestern Indian Ocean during January — March. OMT collected during January — March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in the monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Where was the first desalination plant in India to produce one lakh litre of freshwater per day based on the low-temperature thermal desalination principle commissioned? (2008) Kavaratti Port Blair Mangalore Valsad Venus Syllabus Prelims –Science and technology Context: Scientists got the first direct geological evidence of an active volcano on Venus recently. About Venus:- IMAGE SOURCE: venus solar system – Bing images  Venus is the second planet from the sun. It is Earth’s closest planetary neighbour. It is similar in structure but slightly smaller than Earth. Therefore, Venus has been called Earth’s twin. Venus is wrapped in a thick, toxic atmosphere filled with carbon dioxide that traps heat. Venus is the hottest planet in the solar system. The temperature of Venus is too high, and its atmosphere is highly acidic. Surface temperatures reach a scorching 880 degrees Fahrenheit (471 degrees Celsius), hot enough to melt lead. On Venus, the Sun rises in the west and sets in the East. One day on Venus is equivalent to 243 Earth days because of its backward spinning, opposite to that of the Earth and most other planets. Venus does not have a moon and no rings. Venus in news: Analysis of radar images obtained more than three decades ago has yielded new evidence indicating Venus, is currently volcanically active – a dynamic world with eruptions and lava flows. The new findings suggest there are eruptions on Venus about every few months. These are similar to some Earth volcanoes in places like Hawaii, the Canary Islands and Iceland. This is the latest evidence that Venus, lacking the plate tectonics that gradually reshapes Earth’s surface, is not the geologically dormant world some scientists had once considered it MUST READ: Shukrayaan I SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years?(2021) Distance among stellar bodies does not change The gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in straight lines The speed of light is always the same IQAir and the World Air Quality Report Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context:  According to the recently released World Air Quality Report 2022, Delhi ranked fourth on a list of 50 of the world’s most polluted cities. About the World Air Quality Report:- It is prepared by IQ Air. This 2022 World Air Quality Report presents PM2.5 air quality data from 7,323 cities across 131 countries, regions, and territories. It incorporates the 2021 World Health Organization (WHO) air quality guidelines and interim targets as a basis for data visualization and risk communication. The WHO guideline for annual PM2.5 levels is 5 μg/m3. Delhi had an average PM2.5 level of 92.6 μg/m3 in 2022, a little below the average of 96.4 μg/m3 in 2021. The most polluted city in the world was found to be Lahore, followed by Hotan in China, and Bhiwadi in Rajasthan. Chad is the most polluted capital city in the world. India is behind Chad, Iraq, Pakistan, Bahrain, Bangladesh, Burkina Faso and Kuwait on this list A total of 39 Indian cities (including ‘Delhi’ and ‘New Delhi’) are on the list of 50 of the world’s most polluted cities in 2022. These include cities like Noida, Gurgaon, Bulandshahr, Meerut, Charkhi Dadri, Jind, Ghaziabad, Faridabad, and Greater Noida. About IQAir:- It is a Swiss group that measures air quality levels based on the concentration of Particulate Matter (PM) 2.5. Objectives:- to engage, educate, and inspire governments, researchers, Non-Government Organisations, companies, and citizens to work together to improve air quality and create healthier communities and cities. to facilitate an informed dialogue and inspires action that improves air quality and the health of global communities and cities. MUST READ: IQ Air’s Global air pollution Report 2021 SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the Guidelines, statements: the context of WHO consider the Air Quality following (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and the annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Q.2) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (2020) Automobile exhaust Tobacco smoke Woodburning Using varnished wooden furniture Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 River Nile Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: As per recent document published in the journal Earth’s Future, the large-scale pollution from untreated agricultural drainage and wastewater is putting existential pressure on the delta system of the Nile river. About the Nile river:- IMAGE SOURCE: Nile River (geography.name) The River Nile is located in Africa. It originates in Burundi, south of the equator, and flows northward through northeastern Africa, eventually flowing through Egypt and finally draining into the Mediterranean Sea. Source: The source of the Nile is sometimes considered to be Lake Victoria, but the lake itself has feeder rivers of considerable size like the Kagera River. The Nile River is considered one of the longest rivers in the world. Nile basin includes parts of Tanzania, Burundi, Rwanda, Congo (Kinshasa), and Kenya. The Nile River forms an arcuate delta as it empties into the Mediterranean Sea. Arcuate delta: Deltas with triangular or fan-shaped are called arcuate (arc-like) deltas. The Nile is formed by three principal streams: the Blue Nile, the Atbara, and the White Nile. MUST READ: West Nile Virus and Lake Chad SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (2022) Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2020) Rivers  Flows into 1. Mekong       Andaman Sea 2. Thames       Irish Sea 3. Volga           Caspian Sea 4. Zambezi      Indian Ocean Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 3 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only Pennaiyar river Syllabus Prelims – Geography and Polity Context: Tamil Nadu is waiting for Centre’s next course of action as the three-month deadline fixed by the Supreme Court had expired recently. About Pennaiyar river:- The river originates in the Nandi Hills in the Chikkaballapura district of Karnataka. It flows through Tamil Nadu before emptying into the Bay of Bengal. It is the second largest interstate East flowing river basin among the 12 basins lying between Pennar and Cauvery basins. It covers a large area in the State of Tamil Nadu besides the areas covered in the states of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. Bangalore, Hosur, Tiruvannamalai, and Cuddalore are the important cities on the banks of South Pennar river. Major tributaries are the Chinnar, Markanda, Vaniar, and Pamban. MUST READ: Linking Rivers SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following Rivers: (2021) Brahmani Nagavali Subarnarekha Vamsadhara Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats? 1 and 2 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indus River system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of the which joins the Indus direct. Among the following, which one is such river that joins the Indus direct? (2021) Chenab Jhelum Ravi Sutlej ISRO’s Space Tourism: Key takeaways Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Society) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: ISRO plans to start ‘Space Tourism’ for passenger by 2030. About Space Tourism: Space tourism is another niche segment of the aviation industry that seeks to give tourists the ability to become astronauts and experience space travel for recreational, leisure, or business purposes. Companies including Virgin Atlantic, SpaceX, XCOR Aerospace, Jeff Bezos’s Blue Origin and Armadillo Aerospace are working on providing space tourism services to people. Major highlights of the proposal: Price: The per ticket price is estimated to be around Rs 6 crore and People who take the trip will also be able to call themselves astronauts. Type of Space Travel: The module is likely to feature sub-orbital space travel which generally involves spending 15 minutes at the edge of space, experiencing a few minutes in a low-gravity environment before the spaceflight descends back to Earth. Partnership with Private Firms: ISRO is likely to partner with private firms for the development of the space travel module via the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe). Safety Measures: ISRO will also be using the Reusable Launch Vehicle—Technology Demonstrator (RLV-TD) to gain more knowledge about the safety of the spaceflights as space experiences are being brought to the common people. Advantages of the Space Tourism: Boost to economy: Space tourism will increase the commercial activity in the time of poor state of world economy. Draw FDI Investors: It will renew interest in space exploration. This will draw more investors for more financial backing to support more innovations in the industry. Generate Employment: Space tourism will give employment to thousands of people. Manufacturing of new and better spacecraft will give employment to many skilled people. Pave ways to protect Earth: It would also help in identifying potential hazards dangerous for our planet. New resources: Help to find new minerals and other precious materials in space and other planets. This will be of great help to the people of Earth where natural resources are depleting fast. Adventure Tourism: Open a new avenue for adventure tourists. Technological advancement: Opens avenues for advanced technology which can be applied to other domains apart from space missions. Major challenges of space tourism: Exposure to Sun’s Radiation: Space travel technology at the nascent stage can make entering space a dangerous venture. Space travelers are likely to get exposed to harmful radiations from the sun. Health: Spending long hours in zero gravity condition can be dangerous for the person’s cardiovascular and musculoskeletal system. If people accidentally get exposed to high-energy ionizing cosmic rays, it may lead to cancer. Safety: Space tourism involves a high degree of risk, and safety will be a major concern for both tourists besides operators and the Spacecraft and launch vehicles must be reliable, and emergency procedures must be in place in case of any contingencies. Exposure to harmful organisms: We may unwittingly introduce some harmful microorganism from space into the atmosphere of Earth. Inequity: Space tourism is meant for the super-rich only. For example, a single 2 ½ hour flight ticket in Virgin Galactic’s upcoming space ship costs $ 250,000. Not a panacea: It is great to imagine people walking on the surface of Mars. It would not be wise to consider the escape to space will help in escaping the problems of earth. There is nowhere in the solar system where we can find the environment as congenial as that available on earth. Space Tourism modules of other countries: United States: It is a leader in space tourism, with several private companies such as SpaceX, Blue Origin, and Virgin Galactic which has already completed several test flights, and plans to launch commercial flights in the near future. Russia: It has been involved in space tourism since 2001, and has sent several paying tourists to the International Space Station (ISS) on its Soyuz spacecraft. United Arab Emirates: The UAE recently sent its first astronaut to the ISS, and has expressed interest in developing space tourism as part of its efforts to diversify its economy. Way Forward: As a whole, ISRO’s space tourism module, which is both safe and reusable is a significant step towards advancing India’s space exploration programs and providing the public with an opportunity to experience space travel. As technology continues to advance, space tourism could become more accessible and affordable, in future and thus allowing more people to experience the wonder and excitement of space exploration. MUST READ:  IN-SPACe Source:  Hindustan Times Right to Repair Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, Department of Consumer Affairs has formed a committee to develop a comprehensive framework for the Right to Repair in India. About Right to Repair: Image source: iFixitnews The Right to Repair refers to government legislation that is intended to allow consumers the ability to repair and modify their own consumer electronic devices, where otherwise the manufacturer of such devices require the consumer to use only their offered services. When customers buy a product, it is inherent that they must own it completely, for which the consumers should be able to repair and modify the product with ease and at reasonable cost, without being captive to the whims of manufacturers for repairs. The idea originally originated from the USA where the Motor Vehicle Owners’ Right to Repair Act 2012, required the manufacturers to provide the necessary documents and information to allow anyone to repair their vehicles. Proposed Sectors for Implementation: Farming equipment Mobile phones/ tablets Consumer durables Automobiles/automobile equipment Significance of Right to repair for India Reducing electronic waste: India is one of the largest generators of electronic waste in the world, and the right to repair can help reduce e-waste by extending the lifespan of electronic devices and appliances. Promoting transparency and collaboration: The right to repair framework aims to build a consumer-centric ecosystem that promotes transparency and collaboration between manufacturers, sellers, and consumers. Lowering costs for consumers: By providing access to third-party technicians, the right to repair can reduce costs for consumers who may not be able to afford expensive repairs or replacement devices. Empowering consumers: By giving consumers the ability to repair their own devices or choose where to have them repaired, the right to repair empowers consumers to make informed choices and take control of their own devices. Supporting small businesses: The right to repair can also support small businesses that provide repair services, by creating a level playing field with manufacturers who may have previously had a monopoly on repairs. Challenges of implementing right to repair in India Lack of Awareness: Consumers lack awareness about their rights to repair and the benefits of repairing their devices leading to a lack of demand for repair services, limiting the growth of the repair industry. Limited Availability of Spare Parts: The availability of spare parts is often limited in India, particularly for older or less common models of devices makes it difficult for repair technicians to perform repairs or for consumers to find reliable repair services. Lack of Regulation: Currently, there is no comprehensive regulation in India that governs the right to repair which can lead to confusion among consumers and repair technicians about their rights and responsibilities, and may limit the growth of the repair industry Opposition from Manufacturers: Some manufacturers may oppose the right to repair, arguing that it could compromise their intellectual property rights or lead to safety concerns making it difficult to pass legislation or regulations to support the right to repair. Limited Access to Information: Many manufacturers do not provide adequate information to consumers about repair options or how to repair devices, which can make it difficult for consumers to exercise their right to repair. Way Forward: Avoiding blanket waiver: While necessary clauses to maintain the quality of the product can be included, a blanket waiver should be avoided. For instance, the quality assurance clause can be incorporated for use of company-recommended spare parts and certified repair shops. Making available the repair manual: Making repair manuals available to certified business owners could go a long way in balancing the rights of consumers and manufacturers. Sign a non-disclosure agreement to protect IP rights: Manufacturers can sign a non-disclosure agreement to protect the IP with certified repairers/businesses. Allotting certification/license: Further, the lack of certification/licensing of repair workers is seen as a reflection of their lack of skills. Insert right to repair in Consumer protection Act: The ‘right to repair’ can be said to be implicit in Section 2(9) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. Reparability parameter: The product liability clause under Section 84 can be amended and expanded to impose product liability concerning various reparability parameters of the product. Duration of product liability: The duration of imposing product liability may vary depending on the product and its longevity. Source: LiveMint Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following: Tanzania Burundi Rwanda Kenya Which of the above countries comes under the Nile river basin? 1 3 and 4 only 1 2 and 3 only 2 3 and 4 only 1 2 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the National Institute of Ocean Technology: It is an autonomous institute under the Union Ministry of Science and Technology It aims to solve various engineering problems associated with the harvesting of non-living and living resources in the Indian Exclusive Economic Zone. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the Atal Jyoti Yojana: The scheme was launched in 2016 as a sub-scheme under the Off-Grid and Decentralized Solar Application Scheme. It is under the Ministry of Power The scheme is implemented by the Energy Efficiency Services Limited Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 18th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 17th March- Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 12] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 12 -> Click Here