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[DAY 55] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. Attempt Day 55-> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Buddha Purnima Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, President Droupadi Murmu greeted people on the occasion of Buddha Purnima. About Buddha Purnima:- Buddha Purnima is celebrated to mark the birth of Gautam Buddha, the founder of Buddhism. It is also known as Vesak. In 1999, it became an UN-designated day, to acknowledge the contribution of Buddhism to society. It is believed that this was also the day he attained enlightenment. It is considered a ‘triple-blessed day’ as it is Tathagata Gautam Buddha’s birth, enlightenment, and Maha Parnirvana. Buddha Purnima falls on a full moon night, usually between April and May. It is a gazetted holiday in India. Many devotees visit Mahabodhi Temple, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, located in Bodh Gaya, Bihar, on this occasion. Bodhi Temple is the location where Lord Buddha is said to have attained enlightenment. About Budhha:- IMAGE SOURCE: Karma Buddhism | Does Buddhism Believe in Karma | TheMindFool Siddhartha Gautama, or Buddha was a spiritual leader and the founder of Buddhism. (UPSC MAINS: Wisdom of the Buddha) He lived from 563 B.C. to 483 B.C. He was born in the Shakya clan in Lumbini, Kapilvastu, Nepal. At the age of 29, he abandoned his home and began to live as a homeless ascetic and practised rigorous meditation for a year. At the age of 49, he sat down under a Pipal tree at Bodhgaya (present-day Bihar), where he finally attained Nirvana (perfect enlightenment) and came to be known as the Buddha. Buddha gave his first sermon in Sarnath. (UPSC PRELIMS: The Buddhist Circuit) This is called Dhammacakkappavattana (turning off the wheel of law). Buddha passed away in 483 BCE at Kushinagara, Uttar Pradesh. This event is termed Five forms that represent Buddha are:- Lotus and Bull – Birth Horse – Renunciation Bodhi Tree – Mahabodhi Dhamma Chakra Pravartana – First sermon Footprints – Nirvana Three pillars of his teachings are:- Buddha – Founder/Teacher Dhamma – Teachings Sangha – Order of Buddhist Monks and Nuns Eight-Fold Paths:- Right Vision (Samma-Ditthi) Right Thought or Attitude (Samma-sankappa) Right or Whole Speech (Samma-Vacca) Right or Integral Action (Samma-Kammanta) Right or Proper Livelihood (Samma-Ajiva) Right Effort or Energy (Samma-Vayama) Right Mindfulness (Samma-Sati) or Thorough Awareness (Samma-Sati) Right Concentration (Samma-Samadhi) Buddhist Councils:- 1st Council Year: 483 BC Venue : Saptaparni Cave, Rajgir Chairman :Maha Kassapa King: Ajatshatru Key Developments : Sutta & Vinaya Pitaka compiled 2nd Council Year: 383 BC Venue: Vaishali Chairman : Sabakami King: Kalasoka Key Developments: Monks got split into Sthavir Madins & Mahasanghikas The dispute arose over the ‘Ten Points During the 2nd Buddhist Council: 3rd Council Year: 250 BC Venue: Pataliputra Chairman : Mogalliputta Tissa King: Ashoka Key Developments: Abhidhammapitaka compiled 4th Council Year: 72 AD Venue: Kundalvan, Kashmir Chairman: Vasumitra & Ashvaghosha King: Kanishka Key Developments: Buddhists got split into Hinayana & Mahayana Buddhist Literature Tripitaka or three baskets include the prominent Buddhist scriptures. Others include Jatakas, Mahavamsa, Bodhi Vamsa. Tripitakas Vinaya Pitaka: Contains monastic rules of conduct for monks. Sutta Pitaka: This scripture describes the first Buddhist council. Abhidhamma Pitaka: It is a detailed scholastic analysis and summary of the Buddha’s teachings. Milinda Panha It is a dialogue between Indo-Greek king Meander and Buddhist monk Written in Pali Dipavamsa It deals with the arrival of Buddha‘s teaching and preachers in Sri Lanka. Written in Pali Mahavamsa It deals with the royal dynasties of the Indian subcontinent. The consecration of Asoka and details of Selucus and Alexander have been detailed in it. Buddha Charita It is an epic poem on the life of Buddha It is written in It was written by a Buddhist philosopher Ashwaghosha who was a member of King Kanishka’s court. MUST READ: Neo-Buddhism SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements: (2020) Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana Buddhism The Lokottaravadin sect was an offshoot of the Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism The deification of Buddha by Mahasanghikas fostered Mahayana Buddhism Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following pairs: Parivrajaka — Renunciant and Wanderer Shramana — Priest with a high status Upasaka — Lay follower of Buddhism Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Penumbral lunar eclipse Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: The penumbral lunar eclipse was observed recently. About the Penumbral lunar eclipse:- IMAGE SOURCE: Eclipse Shadow: What Is the Penumbra? (timeanddate.com) An eclipse happens when a planet or a moon gets in the way of the sun’s light. (UPSC PRELIMS: Eclipses ) The lunar eclipse is a celestial phenomenon where the sun, moon, and earth come in a straight line. In the Lunar Eclipse, the Earth arrives in between the sun and the moon. In this way, the shadow of the earth falls on the moon.  The lunar eclipse can only happen during the Full Moon. But, the orbits of the moon and earth are different. That’s why the lunar eclipse happens only up to 3-4 times a year. There are three types of lunar eclipses:- Total lunar eclipses, partial lunar eclipses, and penumbral lunar eclipses. (UPSC PRELIMS: Beaver blood moon) A penumbral lunar eclipse happens when the moon moves through the outermost region of the Earth’s shadow known as the penumbra. Penumbra: the lighter outer part of a shadow. The Moon’s penumbra causes partial solar eclipses, and the Earth’s penumbra is involved in penumbral lunar eclipses. During this event, the moon appears slightly darker than usual. Since the penumbral lunar eclipse occurs when the moon stands in the penumbral shadow. Thus, it is not very visible. MUST READ: Supermoon SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs on the: (2022) The first half of the month of June The second half of the month of June The first half of the month of July The second half of the month of July Q.2) On 21st June, the Sun (2019) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn G20 TechSprint Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the RBI and Bank for International Settlements (BIS) launched the G20 TechSprint. About G20 TechSprint:- G20 TechSprint is a global technology competition. (UPSC PRELIMS: India and G20 Presidency) The fourth and 2023 TechSprint is a joint initiative between the BIS Innovation Hub and the Reserve Bank of India. It will focus on three problem statements on cross-border payments formulated by the RBI and the BIS Innovation Hub. (UPSC CSE: Restoring Cross Border Mobility by WEF’s Common Trust Network ) Technology solutions: to reduce illicit finance risk around anti-money laundering, countering the financing of terrorism and sanctions. Foreign exchange and liquidity technology solutions: to enable settlement in emerging markets and developing economy currencies. Technology solutions for multilateral cross-border central bank digital currency platforms. (UPSC PRELIMS: Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC)) The competition is open for developers around the world. The shortlisted teams will be invited to develop their solutions over a six-week period.  Each team will be eligible for a stipend of eight lakh rupees approximately 10,000 US dollars. An independent panel of experts will select the most promising solution to each problem statement from the shortlisted solutions. The winners for each problem statement will receive an award of forty lakh rupees approximately 50,000 US dollars. MUST READ: Unified Payments Interface SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  1 only  2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017? (2017) It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city in our country into Smart Cities in a decade. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 3 only 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only Talaq-e-Hasan Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Supreme Court agreed to examine the validity of the practice of talaq-e-Hasan. About Talaq-e-hasan:- IMAGE SOURCE: TALAQ AND TALAQ E TAFWEEZ (slideshare.net) Talaq-e-Hasan is a form of ‘triple talaq’. (UPSC CSE:Personal Laws in Marriage) Under this, a Muslim man can divorce his wife by pronouncing ‘talaq’ at three separate intervals. The gap is at least one month or one menstrual cycle. According to Sharia or the Muslim personal law, men are allowed to practice polygamy that is, they can have more than one wife at the same time, up to a total of four. (UPSC PRELIMS: Uniform Civil Code) Nikah halala is a process in which a Muslim woman has to marry another person and get divorced from him before being allowed to marry her divorcee husband again. Triple talaq allows a husband to divorce his wife by repeating the word “talaq” (divorce) three times in any form, including email or text message. In Islam, talaq and khula are two terms for divorce for men and women respectively.  A man can part ways through ‘talaq’ while a woman can separate from her husband through ‘Khula’. MUST READ: Religion and Indian Constitution SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following? (2017) The Preamble The Fundamental Rights The Directive Principles of State Policy The Fundamental Duties Q.2) Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India? (2017) Liberty of thought Economic liberty Liberty of expression Liberty of belief Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The stock price of Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL) doubled in the last two months. About Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL):- RVNL is a Central Public Sector Enterprise. It works under the Ministry of Railways. (UPSC PRELIMS: Rail Development Authority) It was established in 2003 to implement railway infrastructure projects and raise extra-budgetary resources for Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs). (UPSC MAINS: Development of railways by the British) RVNL began operations in 2005. It is responsible for undertaking Rail project development and execution of works, creating project-specific SPVs, and handing over completed railway projects to the relevant Zonal Railway for operation and maintenance. RVNL was granted Mini-Ratna status in 2013. It has now been granted Navratna status. MUST READ: Rail Kaushal Vikas Yojana SOURCE: BUISINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to (2017) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes. Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings. Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme. King Cobra Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent studies suggest that King Cobra may be under-threat in India. About King Cobra:- They are one of the most venomous snakes on the planet. It is also the longest of all venomous snakes. The venom is not the most potent among venomous snakes, but the amount of neurotoxin they can deliver in a single bite up to two-tenths of a fluid ounce is enough to kill 20 people or even an elephant. They are the only snakes in the world that build nests for their eggs, which they guard ferociously until the hatchlings emerge. Habitat:- They live mainly in the rainforests and plains of India, southern China, and Southeast Asia. They are comfortable in a variety of habitats, including forests, bamboo thickets, mangrove swamps, high-altitude grasslands, and in rivers. Protection Status: IUCN Red List: Vulnerable. CITES: Appendix II. (UPSC PRELIMS: CITES COP19) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule II. (UPSC PRELIMS: Wildlife Protection) MUST READ:  (Mangrove Breakthrough ) SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Mridangam Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, Mridangam artiste, Karaikudi Mani, passed away. About Mridangam:- IMAGE SOURCE: Mridangam – India Instruments (India-instruments.de) The mridangam is the classical drum of South Indian music. It is also known by the name of medal or maddalam. It is one of the oldest Indian percussion instruments, originating 2,000 years ago. This traditional instrument is found in various parts of South India. The body of the mridangam is scooped out of a single block of wood. Jackwood or redwood is the ideal choice of mridangam makers, but the wood of the morogosa tree or the core of the coconut tree and the palm tree is also used for this purpose. It is a popular bifacial drum of Carnatic music and is used as an accompaniment in South Indian Classical music. (UPSC MAINS: Most recurring themes of Indian music) A similar instrument, the pakhavaj, is played in the Hindustani tradition of northern India, as well as in Pakistan and Bangladesh. (UPSC MAINS: gharana tradition’ in Hindustani music) MUST READ: Thirukokarnam Ranganayaki Ammal SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the cultural history of India consider the following statements (2018) Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna Tyagaraja created several new fits of rage Annamacharya nad Tyagaraja are contemporaries Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Voluntary insolvency proceedings Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the cash-strapped no-frills carrier Go Airlines (India) Ltd (Go First), said that it was filing for voluntary insolvency proceedings with the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) About Voluntary insolvency proceedings:- The Process of Voluntary Winding up of a solvent company is now shifted from the Companies Act, 2013 to Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 w.e.f. 1st April 2017. The shifting of Jurisdictional Authority from the High Court to NCLT will result in faster execution. The settlement of cases since Insolvency Professionals have been bestowed with powers for completing the winding-up process and reporting to NCLT. (UPSC PRELIMS: National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)) With the passing of a special resolution at the Member’s meeting and declaration of solvency.  An applicant can commence with the winding up proceedings Section 59 (3) (c) of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 says:- (UPSC MAINS: Insolvency & Bankruptcy: Issues & Way forward) Within 4 weeks of the Declaration  of Solvency Voluntary Winding up of the Company and Appointment of an Insolvency Professional to act  as Liquidator subject to the approval of the Members in General Meetings through Special Resolution:- To pass the Special Resolution for Voluntary Winding up and Appointment of Insolvency Professional to act as a Liquidator. MUST READ: Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Bill, 2020 SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (2022) Central Statistics Office Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade Labour Bureau National Technical Manpower Information System Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Need for Reforming urban infrastructure in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, Maharashtra has launched Aspirational Cities Programme (ACP) modelled on the Aspirational District Programme of the NITI Aayog. About Urbanization: Urbanization refers to the population shift from rural to urban areas, the corresponding decrease in the proportion of people living in rural areas, and the ways in which societies adapt to this change. It is the process through which cities grow as higher percentages of the population come to live in the city. Classification: Urban area or Census Town: A habitation is declared urban (excluding a municipality, corporation, cantonment board and a notified town area committee) if it has a minimum population of 5,000; at least 75 per cent of the male working population in non-agricultural pursuits; population density is at least 400 people per sq km Metropolitan City: As per census are those Indian cities having a population of more than 4 million. Metropolitan Area: As per 74th Amendment 1992, is an area specified by the Governor by public notification to be a Metropolitan area having a population of 10 Lakh or 1 Million or more, comprised in one or more districts and consisting of two or more Municipalities or Panchayats or other contiguous areas, Urban Agglomeration: As per Census, is a continuous urban spread constituting a town and its adjoining outgrowths (OGs) or two or more physically contiguous towns together with or without outgrowths of such towns. Urban population of India: According to the Census of India 2011, the urban population of India was 377 million, which accounted for 31.16% of the total population. Around 590 million people would live in the cities by 2030. According to Mckinsey Global Institute study in 2010, Indian cities having only 3% of the land could generate 70 percent of net new jobs Around 70 percent of Indian GDP Near fourfold increase in per capita incomes Urban population will soar from 340 million in 2008 to 590 million in 2030, half the time taken before 2008. India needs to invest $1.2 trillion just in capital expenditure in its cities over the next 20 years, nearly eight times of today’s expenditure. The World Urbanization Prospects, 2018 report of UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA) notes that India, China and Nigeria will account for 35% of the projected global urban population growth and by 2050, India will have added 416 million urban dwellers. Current process of “urbanisation” and urban growth in India India is rapidly urbanising and is estimated to host 50 per cent of its population in cities by 2050. India is witnessing one of the largest urban growth spurts in history. This presents Indian cities with an unprecedented opportunity to look at urban planning and development through a long-term strategic lens to enable economic, environment and social impact. Challenges of urbanization in Maharashtra Deficient Infrastructure: Maharashtra’s cities are grappling with issues of deficient infrastructure, such as inadequate roads, public transport, water supply, and waste management systems. Mobility and Migration: Maharashtra’s cities continue to face the challenge of frequent mobility and migration, with an inward net movement of people for better livelihood opportunities. Air Pollution: Urbanization has led to an increase in air pollution in Maharashtra’s cities, primarily due to vehicular emissions and industrial activities. Social Inequities: The growth of informal settlements and slums in Maharashtra’s cities has led to social inequities, with the urban poor lacking access to basic services, such as healthcare, education, and housing. Vulnerabilities to Disasters and Climate Change: Rapid urbanization has increased the vulnerability of Maharashtra’s cities to disasters and climate change, such as floods and heatwaves. Poor Urban Planning: Many of the challenges faced by Maharashtra’s cities are a result of poor urban planning, with a lack of coordination between various government departments and inadequate implementation of policies and programmes. Suggestive Measures: Development of infrastructural facilities in rural and semi urban areas: Focus on idea of PURA (Provision of Urban Amenities in Rural Area) given by Dr APJ Abdul Kalam, now taken up under Shyama Prasad Mukherjee RURBAN Mission. Environmental Sustainability: Cleaning up of rivers and ponds, Integration of green spaces, prevent encroachment of wetlands, proper waste management through ‘reduce, reuse, recycle strategy’ apart from the use of modern technology. Ensuring better urban infrastructural facilities– education, health, water, sewage, power, proper transport planning and investment in public transport sector and pedestrian pavements. Ensuring Good urban Governance: Decentralization and devolution of funds, functions and functionaries to the local governments, modern framework for spatial planning of cities and standardized designs for public utilities for Inclusive urbanization taking care of the needs of the urban poor and other vulnerable groups for ease of living. Proper implementation of major urban policies like One Nation One Ration Card scheme, AMRUT, Housing for All by 2022, Smarts City Mission, National Urban Livelihood Mission and Master Plans for Mega Cities like Delhi Master Plan 2031. Thus, urban areas are the growth engines for the country and need to be healthy and sustainable. Focus should be on developing better facilities in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities and connectivity to bigger cities for better ecosystem and prevent excessive migration. Bringing employment opportunities and civic facilities to rural areas will be essential to achieve Sustainable Development Goal 11 for India. About Aspirational Cities Programme (ACP): It is an initiative of the Government of Maharashtra aimed at addressing the challenges of rapid urbanization in the state by adopting a holistic approach to urban governance. The ACP has identified 57 cities that have been proposed for the programme. Service level benchmarking will be done for the cities based on the data collected on the Performance Assessment System of the Government of Maharashtra. The performance of the 57 selected cities would be monitored and ranked quarterly through a standard digital monitoring platform with indicators on the themes of urban infrastructure, education, urban services, skill development, and climate change. The ACP is based on three priority areas: inclusive urban development, scientific data methods for assessing and monitoring outcomes, and citizen participation in civic affairs. Source:   Indian Express Prevention of Sexual Harassment (Posh) Act, 2013 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: A recent investigation revealed that more than half of India’s 30 national sports federations do not have an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) which is a legal requirement under the Prevention of Sexual Harassment (PoSH) Act, 2013. About Prevention of Sexual Harassment (Posh) Act, 2013: The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act, often known as the PoSH Act, was passed in 2013. The Act defines sexual harassment as any unwelcome act or behaviour (whether directly or by implication) such as; Physical contact and advances A demand or request for sexual favours Making sexually coloured remarks Showing pornography Any other unwelcome physical, verbal or non-verbal conduct of sexual nature. The Act provides a mechanism for the prevention, prohibition, and redressal of complaints of sexual harassment in the workplace. The 2013 law expanded and legitimised the Vishaka Guidelines, which were established by the Supreme Court in a 1997 decision. The Vishaka Guidelines defined sexual harassment and imposed on institutions three key obligations: prohibition, prevention, and reparation. The Supreme Court ordered that a Complaints Committee be formed to investigate allegations of sexual harassment of women in the workplace. The guidelines were made legally binding by the court. Key Provisions of the act: It mandated that every employer must constitute an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) at each office or branch with 10 or more employees. It lay down procedures and defined various aspects of sexual harassment, including the aggrieved victim, who could be a woman “of any age whether employed or not”, who “alleges to have been subjected to any act of sexual harassment”. The aggrieved victim under the Act can be a woman “of any age whether employed [at the workplace] or not”, who “alleges to have been subjected to any act of sexual harassment”. In effect, the Act protects the rights of all women who are working or visiting any workplace, in any capacity. The Act in its Section 2n, defines sexual harassment. Sexual harassment includes any one or more of the following unwelcome acts or behaviour (whether directly or by implication), namely Physical contact and advances, or A demand or request for sexual favours, or Making sexually coloured remarks, or Showing pornography, or Any other unwelcome physical, verbal, nonverbal conduct of sexual nature Section 3 (2) of the Act further elaborates that if any of the following circumstances occurs or is present in relation to or connected with any act or behavior of sexual harassment among other circumstances, it may amount to sexual harassment- Implied or explicit promise of preferential treatment in her employment, or Implied or explicit threat of detrimental treatment in her employment, or Implied or explicit threat about her present or future employment status, or Interference with her work or creating an intimidating or offensive or hostile work environment for her, or Humiliating treatment likely to affect her health or safety Procedure for complaint: It is not compulsory for the aggrieved victim to file a complaint for the ICC to act. she “may” do so — and if she cannot, any member of the ICC “shall” render “all reasonable assistance” to her to complain in writing. The complaint must be made “within three months from the date of the incident”. After the ICC has filed its report: If the allegations of sexual harassment are proven, the ICC will recommend to the employer to act “in accordance with the provisions of the service rules” of the company. These may vary from company to company. The ICC may also recommend that the company deduct the salary of the person found guilty, “as it may consider appropriate”. Key Issues/Challenges: There could be feasibility issues in establishing an Internal Complaints Committee at every branch or office with 10 or more employees. The Internal Complaints Committee has been given the powers of a civil court. However, it does not require members with a legal background nor are there any provisions for legal training. The act provides for action against the complainant in case of a false or malicious complaint. This could deter victims from filing complaints. Two different bodies are called the ‘Local Complaints Committ The Bill does not clearly demarcate the jurisdiction, composition and functions of these Committees. Unlike sexual harassment legislation in many other countries, this Bill does not provide protection to men. Way Forward: The Justice Verma committee was formed in 2013 to provide recommendation on prevention of sexual harassment in workplaces. Some of its recommendations include: Employment tribunal: An employment tribunal must be set up under PoSH act instead of ICC. The tribunal need not function as a civil court but may choose its own procedure to deal with each complaint. Expanding scope: The act must be expanded to include domestic workers. The definition of ‘sexual harassment’ must be expanded to consider perception of the victim. Other provisions: The committee recommended doing away with 90 days’ time limit and penalty for wrong complaints. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding King Cobra species: They are the only snakes in the world that build nests for their eggs. They have been mentioned in the schedule I of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the statements is not correct regarding the Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL)? RVNL is a Central Public Sector Enterprise. RVNL is a Navratna Company It works under the Ministry of Railways All statements are correct Q.3) With reference to Buddhism in India, consider the following statements: Melinda Panha is a dialogue between Indo-Greek king Meander and Buddhist monk Nagasena. Mahavamsa deals with the arrival of Buddha‘s teaching and preachers in Sri Lanka. Dipavamsa deals with the royal dynasties of the Indian subcontinent. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 only 2 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 6th May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 5th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – c Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 54] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 54-> Click Here

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[Results, Question Paper, Solutions] IASbaba’s All India Open Mock for UPSC Prelims 2023 - Mock 2

Hello Aspirants, Thank you for your tremendous response to our 2nd All India Prelims Open Mock! Due to the significant rise in the number of registrations in Bangalore & Delhi, we decided to conduct the Open Mock in a School instead of IASbaba Centres.It was a good decision when we saw the turn out of students.More than 6,000 students took the test as per their preferred mode and language of choice. Many of the students have mailed to show their appreciation towards our commitment to our UPSC Aspirant Community. Click Here To Provide Your Feedback! Thank you for your valuable feedback and appreciation, it motivates the entire team, it will only make us to try and work harder to bring the best possible experience to our followers! Download Question Paper & Synopsis GS / Paper 1 English Questions English Solutions Hindi Questions Hindi Solutions CSAT / Paper 2 English Questions English Solutions Hindi Questions Hindi Solutions Rank List Download GS / Paper 1 Ranklist Download CSAT / Paper 2 Ranklist We will be announcing the next mock test details in a couple of days, Mark your calendar on 14th May to attend the test!All the best!

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 5th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Key Takeaways from the Petersberg Dialogue on Climate Change Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Petersberg Dialogue on Climate Change was held in Berlin. About key takeaways from Petersberg Dialogue on Climate Change:- IMAGE SOURCE: Today in chemistry history: The Kyoto protocol – Compound Interest (compoundchem.com) The 14th Petersberg Dialogue on Climate Change was hosted by Germany and the United Arab Emirates. UAE would be hosting the 28th Conference of Parties (COP28) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. (UPSC PRELIMS: UNFCCC – COP27 ) Objective:  to discuss the way forward towards COP28 The Climate Dialogue was initiated by Germany’s former Chancellor Angela Merkel.  It was first held in 2010 United Nations Secretary-General António Guterres emphasised the need for “cleaning up economies of the developed countries by breaking their fossil fuel addiction and driving decarbonisation in every sector to achieve a 1.5-degree global warming pathway. He reiterated his earlier call for an Acceleration Agenda, where “all countries hit fast-forward on their Net Zero deadlines”. Key takeaways:- Global renewables target:- Discussions around a potential global target for renewables at the next climate conference. Possibility of an agreement on a global target for renewables and energy efficiency among the G7 countries. (UPSC PRELIMS: G7) $100 billion climate finance:- It was stated that developed countries are “on a good track” to deliver the $100 billion per year as promised to mobilise by 2020 during the COP15 in 2009. However, a recent estimate pegs climate finance needs at $1 trillion per year by 2030 for emerging markets alone. This means that climate finance needs are more than 10 times the amount that developed countries have been able to mobilise, 14 years after committing to the $100 billion figure. This underlines the urgent need for financial reparations. Global Stocktake:- 2023 is the year for the Global Stocktake.  Global Stocktake: a periodic review of global climate action. It aims to assess whether current efforts will enable us to reach the objectives set out in the Paris Agreement. This is the first Global Stocktake year since the Paris Agreement was signed in 2015.  The report is set to be released in September of 2023. About Paris Agreement:- It was the successor to the Kyoto Protocol. This international climate treaty expired in 2020. It was agreed in December 2015. Objective: to limit the rise in the average global surface temperature. To do this, countries that signed the accord set national pledges to reduce humanity’s effect on the climate that are meant to become more ambitious over time. The Paris Accord legally bound its signatories collectively to limit greenhouse gas emissions to keep the temperature rise well below 2.0 degrees Celsius (3.6 Fahrenheit) this century. The countries also promised to “pursue efforts” to keep the rise below 1.5C (2.7F). MUST READ: India’s Long-Term Low-Emission Development Strategy SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) With reference to the ‘’New York Declaration on Forests’’, which of the following statements is correct? (2021) It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014 It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests It is a legally binding international declaration It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities. India was one of the signatories at its inception Select the correct answer using the code given below 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 5 3 and 4 2 and 5 The Innovative Finance Facility for Climate in Asia and the Pacific Financing Partnership Facility (IF-CAP) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently a new funding mechanism ‘the Innovative Finance Facility for Climate in Asia and the Pacific Financing Partnership Facility (IF-CAP)’ was launched. About the Innovative Finance Facility for Climate in Asia and the Pacific Financing Partnership Facility (IF-CAP):- In line with climate change financing requirements, ADB(Asian Development Bank) announced its newest climate finance program: the Innovative Finance Facility for Climate in Asia and the Pacific (IF-CAP). (UPSC PRELIMS: ADB) Objective:  use guarantees from partners for leverage to accelerate billions of dollars in much-needed climate change investment IF-CAP’s initial partners are Denmark, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Sweden, the United Kingdom, and the United States. Intended Benefits of IF-CAP:- With a model of ‘$1 in, $5 out’, the initial ambition of $3 billion in guarantees could create up to $15 billion in new loans for much-needed climate projects across Asia and the Pacific. Financing will help vulnerable countries in Asia and the Pacific region meet their mitigation and adaptation goals. It will support ADB’s raised ambition for $100 billion in climate finance from 2019-2030. . IF-CAP will pilot a guarantee mechanism, where every US$1 guarantee from financing partners can generate up to US$5 in new loans for climate adaptation and mitigation projects across Asia. IF-CAP operates as an umbrella mechanism for mobilising resources for climate adaptation and mitigation projects. Under this umbrella is the IF-CAP Guarantee Trust Fund, which will provide guarantees to ADB covering payment defaults. The facility will finance projects over a five-year investment period, but guarantees will remain effective for 25 years.  In addition, ADB will establish donor trust funds, framework arrangements, and other forms of financing partnerships, such as grants, guarantees, and similar arrangements that support IF-CAP’s objectives and scope. Most contributions to the facility will be in the form of guarantees or grants. (UPSC MAINS: Significance of ADB, NDB and AIIB) Structure and working mechanism:- Eligibility: All developing countries that are eligible to receive assistance from ADB are also eligible for support from IF-CAP. Selection process: ADB will select project proposals based on criteria agreed with the Donor Committee. Donor Committee: a committee of financial contributors which will take decisions on matters including specific guarantee and grant fund considerations, In general, projects will be aligned with the Paris Agreement.  Both sovereign and non-sovereign projects will have access to IF-CAP funding unless otherwise decided by the Donor Committee. IF-CAP support can be combined with other ADB resources and forms of bilateral or multilateral assistance and made available to central and sub-national governments, government agencies, the private sector, and other entities eligible to receive assistance from ADB. A Strategic Partners Forum will gather representatives of developing countries, financing partners and other stakeholders on an annual basis to provide strategic guidance on IF-CAP operations with a view to aligning climate and development needs with available funding. MUST READ: ADB Financing to Support Urban Development in Nagaland SOURCE: OBSERVER RESEARCH FOUNDATION PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 US Federal Reserve Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the US Federal Reserve raised interest rates by 25 basis points. About US Federal Reserve:- The Federal Reserve System is the central bank of the United States. The role of the Federal Reserve:- Conducting the US monetary policy to promote maximum employment and stable prices (UPSC PRELIMS: Fed tapering ) Promoting the stability of the financial system and seeking to minimise and contain systemic risks through active monitoring and engagement in America and overseas Promoting the safety and soundness of individual financial institutions.  Monitoring the financial system. Promoting consumer protection Impact of the Fed on the global market and their economy:- A high rate signal by the Fed means a lower impetus to growth in the US Currency markets: Rate hikes by the Federal Reserve affect not only the US economy but also shape the macroeconomic outlook and exert a certain degree of influence on the monetary policies in other emerging economies. (UPSC PRELIMS: Exchange Rate) Impact of Increased Interest Rates on India:- Emerging economies such as India tend to have higher inflation and higher interest rates than those in developed countries such as the US. As a result, financial institutions, particularly Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) would want to borrow money in the US at low-interest rates in dollar terms and then invest that money in government bonds of emerging countries such as India in local currency terms to earn a higher rate of interest. However, when the US Federal raises its domestic interest rates, the difference between the interest rates of the two countries decreases. This makes India less attractive for the currency carry trade. As a consequence, some of the money may be expected to move out of the Indian markets and flow back to the US. (UPSC PRELIMS: US Fed Reserve Hike ) On Equity Market:- Bond yields will rise due to the growing dollar shortage in the global market. On Export and Forex:- India is one of the largest crude oil importers in the world. A weaker rupee vis-à-vis a dollar results in more expensive imports of crude oil that may put a cost-driven inflationary push across the whole economy.  India’s exports on the other hand will benefit to some extent from a stronger dollar with respect to the rupee. MUST READ: Rupee Depreciation SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Listeria contamination Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, Cadbury recalls chocolates in the UK over listeria contamination fears. About Listeria contamination:- IMAGE SOURCE: We help create a safer world for you | UL Solutions Listeria infection is a foodborne bacterial illness. It is typically caused by foods infected with the Listeria monocytogenes bacteria. The bacteria exist in the environment. It is found in water, soil and some animals’ intestines. Listeria bacteria can survive refrigeration and even freezing. Symptoms:- Fever Chills Muscle aches Nausea Diarrhea Causes:- Listeria bacteria can be found in soil, water and animal faeces.  People can get infected by eating the following: Raw vegetables that have been contaminated from the soil or from contaminated manure used as fertilizer Contaminated meat Unpasteurized milk or foods made with unpasteurized milk Certain processed foods such as soft cheeses, hot dogs and deli meats that have been contaminated after processing Unborn babies can contract a listeria infection from the mother. Risk factors- Pregnant women and people who have weak immune systems are at highest risk of contracting a listeria infection. (UPSC PRELIMS: Immune Imprinting ) People older than 65 People who have AIDS (UPSC PRELIMS: World AIDS Day) People who are receiving chemotherapy People who have diabetes or kidney disease People who take high-dose prednisone or certain rheumatoid arthritis drugs People who take medications to block rejection of a transplanted organ Prevention:- Keeping things clean  Washing hands thoroughly with warm, soapy water before and after handling or preparing food. After cooking, use hot, soapy water to wash the utensils, cutting boards and other food preparation surfaces. Scrubing raw vegetables. Cooking the food thoroughly. MUST READ: American Foulbrood (AFB) disease SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2021) Low-density polyethene Polycarbonate Polyethene terephthalate Polyvinyl Chloride Q.2)  “Triclosan” considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following? (2021) Food preservatives Fruit ripening substances reused plastic containers Toiletries World Press Freedom Index Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The World Press Freedom Index was released recently. About World Press Freedom Index:- IMAGE SOURCE: THE HINDU The World Press Freedom Index is published every year since 2002 by Reporters Sans Frontieres (RSF) or Reporters Without Borders. Reporters Without Borders: it is an independent NGO based in Paris with consultative status with the United Nations, UNESCO, the Council of Europe and the International Organization of the Francophonie (OIF). OIF: 54 french speaking nations collective. The Index ranks countries and regions according to the level of freedom available to journalists. (UPSC MAINS: Challenges to Freedom of Press)  However, it is not an indicator of the quality of journalism. Scoring Criteria:- The Index’s rankings are based on a score ranging from 0 to 100 that is assigned to each country or territory, with 100 being the best possible score. Evaluation Criteria:- Each country or territory’s score is evaluated using five contextual indicators. These include political context, legal framework, economic context, sociocultural context and safety. World Press Freedom Index 2023 Rankings:- Norway, Ireland and Denmark occupied the top three positions in press freedom. Vietnam, China and North Korea constituted the bottom three. India’s ranking in the 2023 World Press Freedom Index has slipped to 161 out of 180 countries. (UPSC PRELIMS: World Press Freedom Index 2022) MUST READ: Index Monitoring Cell (IMC) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? (2021) A committed judiciary Centralization of powers Elected government Separation of powers Q.2) Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”? (2018) Limitation of powers Equality before the law People’s responsibility to the Government Liberty and civil rights Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Bombay High Court stated that the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act was not enacted to punish minors in a consensual relationship. About the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act:- The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (POCSO Act) was enacted in 2012. Objective:  to effectively address sexual abuse and sexual exploitation of children and pornography. (UPSC MAINS: Pornography – Impact on Children & Society ) The Act has been amended in 2019. The amendment contains provisions for the enhancement of punishments for various offences and provides security and dignified childhood for a child. (UPSC PRELIMS: National Commission for Protection of Child Rights) Salient provisions of the Act:- The Act defines a Child as any person below eighteen.  The Act remains gender-neutral. The Act also defines different forms of sexual abuse It includes penetrative and non-penetrative assault, as well as sexual harassment and pornography. The Act deems a sexual assault to be “aggravated” if the abused child is mentally ill or the abuse is committed by a person in a position of trust or authority like a family member, police officer, teacher, or doctor. The law provides for relief and rehabilitation as soon as the complaint is made. The Special Juvenile Police Unit or the local police will make immediate arrangements for the care and protection of a child. The Arrangements such as obtaining emergency medical treatment for the child and placing the child in a shelter home etc will be made available. The Act contains provisions for Mandatory reporting. This casts a legal duty upon a person who has knowledge that a child has been sexually abused to report the offence. If he fails to do so, he may be punished with six months imprisonment and/ or a fine. The Act provides for the establishment of Special Courts for the trial of offences under the Act. The Act prescribes a maximum punishment of life imprisonment or the death penalty. The Act provides a mandatory minimum punishment of three years. MUST READ: Sexual Intent is Key to POCSO Act: SC SOURCE: THE PRINT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the constitution of India? (2021) Article 15 Article 19 Article 21 Article 29 Q.2) Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? (2020) Preamble Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Currency & Finance 2022-23 Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The report on Currency & Finance 2022-23 was released recently. About Currency & Finance 2022-23:- It is released by the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) Department of Economic and Policy Research (DEPR). (UPSC PRELIMS: RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee ) The theme of the report is ‘Towards a Greener Cleaner India’. Key findings:- Net zero target:-  India aims to achieve the net zero target by 2070. This would require an accelerated reduction in the energy intensity of GDP by around 5% annually and a significant improvement in its energy mix in favour of renewables to around 80% by 2070-71. The cumulative total expenditure for adapting to this climate change in India is estimated to be Rs 85.6 lakh crore (at 2011-12 prices) by the year 2030. Implications for Financial Stability:- The financial sector faces the dual challenge of recalibrating its operations and business strategies to support the green transition process while also strengthening resilience to rising vulnerability to adverse climate events so as to safeguard financial stability. On the first challenge, estimates suggest that the green financing requirement in India could be at least 2.5% of GDP annually to address the infrastructure gap caused by climate events. On the second challenge, the results of a climate stress test reveal that public sector banks may be more vulnerable than private sector banks in India. Measures suggested:- Introducing an Emissions Trading System (ETS) linked to green taxonomy, covering all sectors of the economy This can partly balance subsidies and taxes. Ramping up domestic capacity to mine rare earth elements or procure them through long-term contracts and outward FDI (UPSC PRELIMS: FDI Inflow ) Complementing green building standards with IoT-based monitoring and AI and ML to manage and reduce energy demand Boosting climate-resilient agriculture Production of green hydrogen using renewable energy Investment in carbon capture and storage technologies. MUST READ: RBI- Integrated Ombudsman Scheme PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, the Central Bank’s function as the “lender of last resort” usually refers to which of the following? (2021) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Yanomami Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, Brazil has been pushing out illegal miners from its Yanomami territory. About Yanomami:- IMAGE SOURCE: The Yanomami Tribe of the Amazon Rainforests | Only Tribal The Yanomami live in the rainforests and mountains of northern Brazil and southern Venezuela, and are, according to Survival International, the largest relatively isolated tribe in South America. Guarani, Kaingang, Pataxó, Hã Hã Hãe, Tupinambá, Yanomami, Tikuna and Akuntsu are popular tribes of the Amazon basin. (UPSC PRELIMS: Deforestation in Amazon Basin) Amazon is a river of South America and its basin is the largest tropical rainforest in the world. The tribe numbers around 38,000 today, and its members live in the contiguous forested territory of around 9.6 million hectares in Brazil and 8.2 million hectares in Venezuela. They live in large, circular houses called yanos or shabonos, some of which can hold up to 400 people. The Yanomami consider all people to be equal and do not have a chief. Instead, all decisions are based on consensus after long discussions and debates. They are speakers of the Xirianá language. A Brazilian indigenous leader Davi Kopenawa who secured the land rights of the Yanomami people was awarded the Right Livelihood Award-2019, also known as Sweden’s alternative Nobel Prize. (UPSC PRELIMS: Nobel Peace Prize 2022 ) MUST READ: India and Brazil SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs:  (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                              Turkey Amhara                                               Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                     Spain Catalonia                                             Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (2022) Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta India’s Hunger Paradox Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: A national effort to establish routine dietary and nutritional assessments for the entire population is the need of the hour. About Food Security: Food security refers to the state in which all individuals in a country have access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food to meet their dietary needs and preferences for an active and healthy life. This involves various dimensions such as: Availability of food through production and imports Accessibility of food without any discrimination, and Affordability of food for everyone. Zero Food Prevalence in India NFHS-5 Data: As per the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5), among mothers with a child between ages 6-23 months, 18 percent reported that their child did not eat any food, referred to as “zero-food”, in the 24 hours preceding the survey. Zero-food prevalence: 30 percent for infants aged 6-11 months. 13 percent among the 12-17 months old. 8 percent among the 18-23 months old. An estimated 60 lakh zero-food children of 6-23 months of age in India not getting to eat every day lies substantial deprivations in specific food groups. More than 80 percent had not consumed any protein-rich foods for an entire day (“zero-protein”). 40 percent did not eat any grains (roti, rice, etc) for an entire day. 6 out of 10 children do not consume milk or dairy of any form every day (“zero milk”). Daily minimum calorie intake for a child as per the World Health Organisation (WHO): At six months of age, 33 percent of the daily calorie intake is expected to come from food. At 12 months of age, 61 percent of the daily calorie intake is expected to come from food. It is presumed that the child obtains the remaining calories through breastfeeding, meaning the child is breastfed whenever they need it throughout the day and night, and not solely when the mother can provide it. Percentage of food-sourced calories only increases further when a child cannot receive breast milk when needed. Issues and challenges with current measures: Severe food insecurity: Going without food for an entire day at this critical period of a child’s development raises serious concerns related to severe food insecurity. Faulty assessment: The assessment of the extent of nutritional deprivation among young children in India has, thus far, relied on measures of anthropometric failure such as the percentage of children short for their age (stunting) or weighing less given their height (wasting), compared to a reference population. These anthropometric measures are, at best, proxies suggesting plausible overall deficiencies in the child’s environment, without any guidance on the specific nature of the deficiencies. Non-communicable diseases: The rising burden of cardiovascular and other non-communicable diseases in India, particularly among the rapidly growing “middle class”, is strongly linked to diet and nutrition. The Role of Poshan 2.0: Mission Poshan 2.0 is a flagship program dedicated to maternal and child nutrition in India. However, appropriate food-based metrics are not developed to monitor and assess the program’s performance effectively. Measures India should take to fight Hunger: A national effort to establish routine dietary and nutritional assessments for the entire population is the need of the hour. Appropriate food-based metrics should be developed to effectively monitor and assess the performance of Poshan 2.0. The zero-food metric provides a good start. The success of the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) offers valuable insights for Poshan 2.0, in its strategic use of directly trackable metrics, as well as a strong political commitment at the highest levels. Measuring the availability, accessibility and affordability of nutritious food, especially for disadvantaged and vulnerable populations such as young children, women should be the foundation for any evidence-based policy to end hunger and improve nutritional security. India has taken several initiatives to achieve food security and end hunger, including: Mid-day Meal Scheme: The Mid-day Meal Scheme provides hot, cooked meals to school children to improve their nutritional status and increase school attendance. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme: The ICDS Scheme provides a package of services, including supplementary nutrition, health check-ups, and pre-school education, to young children and pregnant and lactating mothers. Mission Poshan 2.0: Launched in 2021, Mission Poshan 2.0 is a flagship programme dedicated to maternal and child nutrition, with a focus on food-based initiatives to achieve the SDG of zero hunger. National Nutrition Mission (Poshan Abhiyaan): Launched in 2018, the mission aims to reduce malnutrition among children, adolescent girls, and pregnant and lactating mothers by providing nutritional supplements and promoting behavioural change through community mobilization. Agriculture and Rural Development Initiatives: India has various agriculture and rural development initiatives to increase food production, enhance rural livelihoods, and reduce poverty, such as the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana, and Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mission. Way Forward: The need of the hour is to make addressing child malnutrition the top priority of the government machinery, and all year around. Thus fixing the pre-existing schemes is the obvious answer to addressing India’s multi-dimensional nutrition challenge. Source:  Indian Express Organ Donation Policy in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Union Health Ministry has said that it will soon release a transplant manual and a standard course for training transplant coordinators. About Organ donation in India: Organ donation means giving part of the body (organ) to a person with end-stage organ disease who needs a transplant. In India, organ donations are legal under the Transplantation of Human Organs Act (THOA), 1994, which also legalizes the concept of ‘brain death’, the permanent cessation of all brain functions. Organ donation is a voluntary process wherein you can fill up a consent form to donate your organs in the event of your demise. Types of organ donation: Living Donor Organ Donation: A person during his life can donate one kidney, a portion of the pancreas, and a part of the liver. Living Donor is any person not less than 18 years of age who voluntarily authorizes the removal of any of his organ and/or tissue, during their lifetime, as per prevalent medical practices for therapeutic purposes. The donor can be a family member, relative, friend, neighbour, or in-law. Deceased Donor Organ Donation: A person can donate multiple organs and tissues after (brain-stem/cardiac) death. Their organ continues to live in another person’s body. Deceased Donor is anyone, regardless of age, who can become an organ and tissue donor after their death (Brainstem/Cardiac). Consent of a near relative or a person in lawful possession of the dead body is required. Eligibility criteria: There is no age limit for organ donation. It can be started at as young as six weeks. The only essential thing is the health and condition of your organs. About Organ Transplantation in India: The Transplantation of Human Organs Act of 1994 provides a number of laws for the removal and preservation of human organs. Additionally, it controls the transplantation of human organs for medical treatment and prohibits the sale of human organs. The number of total organ transplants in the country has substantially increased from less than 5000 in the year 2013 to more than 15000 in the year 2022. Now, more organs per deceased donor are being utilized due to better coordination through the network of Organ and Tissue Transplant Organizations at National (NOTTO), Regional (ROTTO) and State level (SOTTO). Laws and Rules governing Organ Transplant in India Transplantation of Human Organs Act (THOA) 1994: It was enacted to provide a system of removal, storage and transplantation of human organs for therapeutic purposes and for the prevention of commercial dealings in human organs. THOA is now adopted by all States except Andhra Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir, who have their own similar laws. Under THOA, source of the organ may be: Near Relative donor (mother, father, son, daughter, brother, sister, spouse), Other than near relative donor: Such a donor can donate only out of affection and attachment or for any other special reason and that too with the approval of the authorisation committee. Deceased donor, especially after Brain stem deathg. a victim of road traffic accident etc. where the brain stem is dead and person cannot breathe on his own but can be maintained through ventilator, oxygen, fluids etc. Other types of deceased donor could be donors after cardiac death. Brain Stem death is recognized as a legal death in India under the Transplantation of Human Organs Act, like many other countries, which has revolutionized the concept of organ donation after death. After natural cardiac death only a few organs/tissues can be donated (like cornea, bone, skin and blood vessels) whereas after brain stem death almost 37 different organs and tissues can be donated including vital organs such as kidneys, heart, liver and lungs. Human Organs (Amendment) Act 2011: Tissues have been included along with the Organs. ‘Near relative’ definition has been expanded to include grandchildren, grandparents. Provision of ‘Retrieval Centres’ and their registration for retrieval of organs from deceased donors. There is provision of mandatory inquiry from the attendants of potential donors admitted in ICU and informing them about the option to donate – if they consent to donate, inform the retrieval centre. Provision of Mandatory ‘Transplant Coordinator’ in all hospitals registered under the Act. To protect the vulnerable and poor there is provision of higher penalties for trading in organs. National Human Organs and Tissues Removal and Storage Network and National Registry for Transplant are to be established. The Act has made provision of greater caution in case of minors and foreign nationals and prohibition of organ donation from mentally challenged persons. Challenges Associated with Organ Donation in India Lack of awareness: There is a lack of awareness among the general public about the importance of organ donation, the legal framework governing it, and the procedures involved. This can limit the number of potential donors. Cultural beliefs and superstitions: In India, there are several cultural beliefs and superstitions that discourage organ donation. Some people believe that organ donation is against religious beliefs, or that it can impact the soul or afterlife. Lack of infrastructure: India faces a shortage of hospitals and medical facilities that are equipped to handle organ transplantation. This can limit the availability of organs for transplantation. Regulatory bottlenecks: While the legal framework exists, there is a lack of implementation and enforcement of the law. This can lead to issues such as organ trafficking and black market activities. Way Forward: Despite a facilitatory law, organ donation from deceased persons continues to be very poor. In India there is a need to promote deceased organ donation as donation from living persons cannot take care of the organ requirement of the country. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is imbibing learnings from international best practices for further policy reforms towards augmentation of organ donation and transplantation in the country which is a step in the right direction. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) The Innovative Finance Facility for Climate in Asia and the Pacific Financing Partnership Facility (IF-CAP) recently launched by International Monetary Fund World Bank World Economic Forum Asian Development Bank Q.2) An increase in US Federal Reserve’s interest rates will result in which of the following in India? Increase Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) Decrease in bond yields Benefit for Indian exports Rupee depreciation Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 2 and 3 only 2 3 and 4 only 1 3 and 4 only 1 2 3 and 4 Q.3) The report on Currency and Finance 2022-23 was recently released by Reserve Bank of India Department of Economic and Policy Research NITI Aayog Both A and B together Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 5th May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 4th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

[DAY 53] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 53-> Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 5th May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 4th May 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) U.S. Commission for International Religious Freedom (USCIRF) Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, the U.S. Commission for International Religious Freedom (USCIRF) sought sanctions on Indian agencies over the ‘violation’ of religious freedom. About U.S. Commission for International Religious Freedom (USCIRF):- USCIRF is an independent, bipartisan US federal government commission. It was established by the US government in 1998 after the inaction of the International Religious Freedom Act. It is Headquartered in Washington DC. It is dedicated to defending the universal right to freedom of religion or belief abroad. It is an advisory body to the US Congress. The recommendations of USCIRF are non-binding on the state department Traditionally, India does not recognize the view of USCIRF. .(UPSC PRELIMS: India’s designation by the USCIRF ) It monitors the universal right to freedom of religion or belief (FoRB) abroad. UNCIRF Functions:- Advises Congress by working with Congressional offices, convening and testifying at hearings, and holding briefings on countries and thematic issues. Engages the Executive Branch by regularly meeting with Executive Branch officials. Monitors Religious Freedom Conditions Abroad. (UPSC PRELIMS: Religious Tolerance and Social Harmony) It makes policy recommendations to the President, Secretary of State, and Congress. Raises Public Awareness by holding public events, hosting podcast episodes, releasing public statements, and publishing op-eds. Issues an Annual Report & Other Publications that assess foreign countries that violate religious freedom in a systematic, ongoing, and/or egregious manner. MUST READ: The hijab case and the essential practices doctrine SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (2018) China Israel Iraq Yemen De-dollarisation Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, De-dollarisation picked up pace in the aftermath of Russia’s invasion of Ukraine. About De-dollarisation:- IMAGE SOURCE: Dollarization and Ecuador (slideshare.net) De-dollarisation refers to the replacement of the U.S. dollar with other currencies as the global reserve currency. Reserve currency: refers to any currency that is widely used in cross-border transactions and is commonly held as reserves by central banks. De-dollarisation is a process of substituting the US dollar as the currency used for: Trading oil and/ or other commodities Buying US dollars for the forex reserves Bilateral trade agreements Dollar-denominated assets History of Global Currency:- The British pound was the primary reserve currency during the 19th and early 20th centuries. After World War II, and the U.S. dollar became the dominant reserve currency. It has held this position since then, with over 60% of global foreign exchange reserves held in dollars as of 2021. Reasons for the popularity of the US Dollar:- High Level of Trust: The global acceptability of the U.S. dollar as a reserve currency is primarily due to the popularity of U.S. assets among investors. Rule of Law: This trust may be due to the ‘rule of law’ in the U.S. Need for De- Dollarisation:- Diversification of Risk: Holding a basket of currencies instead of just one currency (i.e., the US dollar) can help reduce the potential negative impact of a sudden currency devaluation or other economic shocks/political changes in the US. (UPSC PRELIMS: Currency manipulation) Increasing Trade and Investment: By using other currencies, countries can increase trade and investment with other countries that may not have a strong relationship with the US, which can open up new markets and opportunities for growth. Reducing US Monetary Policy Influence: By reducing the use of the US dollar, countries can increase their economic autonomy. Geopolitical Benefits: By reducing dependence on the US dollar, countries may be able to improve their geopolitical standing. (UPSC PRELIMS: Hyper globalisation) Challenges of De dollarisation:– Market Volatility and Global Financial Crisis: A sudden shift away from the dollar could create market volatility and instability, as many countries and businesses are heavily reliant on the dollar for trade and investment and any change would lead to a potential global financial crisis. Trade Disruptions: A move away from the dollar could also disrupt international trade, as businesses and governments adjust to new currencies and exchange rate regimes. Exchange Rate Risk: De-dollarisation can expose countries to exchange rate risk, as they may have to convert their reserves into other currencies that are subject to volatility. Geopolitical Risks: A shift away from the dollar can be seen as a challenge to US economic and geopolitical power, which could lead to political tensions and even conflict. International Efforts so far:- Bilateral currency swaps among countries, promotion of trade in national currencies, and the establishment of alternative payment systems. The BRICS’s New Development Bank encourages trade and investment in national currencies by disbursing up to 50% of its loans in national currencies since 2015. Russian banks have started using the China-based Cross-Border Interbank Payment System for international payments as they are debarred from the SWIFT international system. Some countries are also exploring the possibility of using cryptocurrencies for international trade and payments, as they offer a decentralized alternative to traditional payment systems. National Efforts:- Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently unveiled a rupee settlement system for international trade by allowing special vostro accounts in designated Indian banks, a step towards internationalising the rupee. Similarly, India and Russia are considering the use of a third currency or the inclusion of a third country like the UAE to facilitate oil trade between the two countries. MUST READ: India’s Digital rupee: CBDC SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Twenty Point Programme Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The Government shines on 11 parameters of the Twenty Point Programme released recently. About Twenty Point Programme:- The Twenty Point Programme was initially launched by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in 1975. It was subsequently restructured in 1982 and again in 1986. With the introduction of new policies and programmes it has been finally restructured in 2006 and it has been in operation at present. The Programmes and Schemes under TPP-2006 are in harmony with the priorities contained in the National Common Minimum Programme, the Millennium Development Goals of the United Nations and the SAARC Social Charter. Objective: to eradicate poverty and to improve the quality of life of the poor and the underprivileged population of the country. The monitoring of the programme at the centre has been assigned to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Government of India. The management information system relating to Twenty Point developed by the Ministry consists of a monthly Progress Report (MPR) and yearly Review of the Programme, Point-wise, Item-wise and State-wise. The 20 points under TPP after restructuring in 2006 include:- Poverty eradication power to people Support to farmers Labour welfare (UPSC PRELIMS: India’s labour reforms ) Food security Clean drinking water Housing for all Health for all Education for all Welfare of SC/ ST/ OBC and minorities Women welfare Child welfare Youth Development Improvement of slums Environment protection and afforestation Social security Rural Roads Energising rural areas Development of Backward areas IT enabled and e-governance (UPSC PRELIMS: Governance 4.0) MUST READ: States SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Recently, India’s first ‘National Investment and Manufacturing Zone’ was proposed to be set up in (2016) Andhra Pradesh Gujarat Maharashtra Uttar Pradesh Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT) Kakinada began its admission process. About the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT):- IMAGE SOURCE: An introduction to NAAC Accreditation | by Linways Team | Linways Technologies The Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT) was established in 1963 as an autonomous body. It works under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry. The Institute was granted “Deemed to be University” status in 2002. The Institute was granted the prestigious AACSB accreditation in 2021. With this the IIFT figures amongst 900+ Business Schools of the world which have earned this accreditation. The National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) recognized IIFT as a Grada e ‘A’ Institution in 2005 as well as in 2015. (UPSC PRELIMS: Accreditation of HEIs) MBA (International Business), the flagship programme of IIFT. Mission:- To create and foster a learning environment that enables participants to be leaders in international business with sensitivity towards society. ( Academic Collaboration between Indian and foreign Universities) Objectives & Activities:- Impart professional education in modern management techniques relevant to international business. Enable the participants to appreciate the inter-relationship between the diverse and complex tasks of international business. Develop capacities among business executives for improved understanding of various trade and economic issues. Conduct high-quality research that addresses domestic as well as world trade and business issues. (UPSC CSE: National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories (NABL)) MUST READ:  Academic Collaboration between Indian and foreign universities SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Regarding DigiLocker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2018) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) SWAYAM’, an initiative of the Government of India, aims at (2018) promoting Self-Help Groups in rural areas providing financial and technical assistance to young start-up entrepreneurs promoting the education and health of adolescent girls providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free Buland Bharat exercise Syllabus Prelims –Defence Context: Recently, the Army held a ‘Buland Bharat’ exercise in Arunachal to test synergy in simulated war conditions. About Buland Bharat exercise:- IMAGE SOURCE: Map of selected study sites in Tawang and West Kameng districts of… | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) Buland Bharat is an integrated surveillance and firepower training exercise. Objective:  to test the simulated war conditions in high altitude areas at the Mandala High Altitude Firing Ranges in Arunachal Pradesh. The month-long training culminated in the test exercise in which troops and equipment were tested in simulated war conditions, in high altitude areas and in extreme weather conditions. During the exercise, synergised surveillance and firepower from infantry and artillery radars, weapon systems and direction of fire from the air were practised. Uninterrupted communication on multiple media was also tested at long distances. The exercise validated plans for bringing down integrated firepower by orchestrating synchronised firing by artillery guns and fire support components of the infantry, aimed toward the destruction of designated targets. It involved the synergised application of surveillance and firepower capabilities of the artillery and the infantry in close coordination with Special Forces, Aviation and Central Armed Police Forces deployed in West Kameng and Tawang districts of Arunachal Pradesh. (UPSC PRELIMS: Arunachal-Assam border dispute) The Gajraj Corps, under which the exercise was held, handles major responsibilities which span from counterinsurgency to the Line of Actual Control in West Arunachal Pradesh including the Tawang area. (UPSC PRELIMS: India-China Tawang clash ) MUST READ: Kaiser-i-Hind: Arunachal’s State butterfly SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In which one of the following groups are all four countries members of G20? (2019) Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea Q.2) Consider the following countries : (2018) Australia Canada China India Japan USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4, 5 and 6 1, 3, 4 and 5 2, 3, 4 and 6 CU-Chayan portal Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, UGC launched the ‘CU-Chayan’ portal for faculty recruitment in Central varsities. About CU-Chayan portal:- CU-Chayan portal is a new platform to hire faculty members in central universities. The portal will provide a consolidated list of job openings across all 46 central universities under the Union Ministry of Education. (UPSC CSE: Governor’s Role in Universities) Central universities will still be responsible for advertising job openings, accepting applications, screening applicants, conducting interviews, and hiring faculty members, just as they did before. However, all of these tasks will be managed through the admin dashboard for each university on the portal. Process:- Applicants will find a consolidated list of openings across the central universities, personalized dashboards to help manage the application process, and filters such as location, designation, subject, experience, and education level to view openings that suit them. Benefits for Applicants and Universities:- Both applicants and universities will benefit from it as it provides a simple interface to apply for job openings. The portal will also throw up real-time data on vacancies, applications under consideration, and whether the reservation policy is being followed or not. (UPSC MAINS: reservation in education institutions) It will fast-track the recruitment process without centralizing the faculty hiring for the central universities. About UGC:- UGC came into existence in 1953. It became a statutory body by an Act of Parliament in 1956. Background:- UGC was formed in 1946 to oversee the work of the three Central Universities of Aligarh, Banaras and, Delhi. In 1947, the Committee was entrusted with the responsibility of dealing with all the then existing Universities. After independence, the University Education Commission was set up in 1948 under the Chairmanship of S. Radhakrishnan and it recommended that the UGC be reconstituted on the general model of the University Grants Commission of the United Kingdom. The UGC was formally established in November 1956, by an Act of Parliament. Objective: for the coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of teaching, examination and research in university education. The head office of the UGC is located in New Delhi. It is charged with coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of higher education. It provides recognition to universities in India. It disburses funds to such recognized universities and colleges. MUST READ: Common University Entrance Test (CUET) SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Q.2) Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to (2017) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes. Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings. Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme Star campaigners Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: The Election Commission of India (ECI) recently issued an advisory urging star campaigners to “maintain the dignity of the political discourse.” About Star Campaigners:- A star campaigner is a celebrity vote seeker in an election for a party. This person can be anyone, a politician or even a film star. There is no law governing who can or cannot be made a star campaigner. (UPSC PRELIMS: Election Commission) They are nominated by the concerned political parties specifying their constituencies and duration of the status. Terms and Conditions:- Numbers of Star Campaigners: A ‘recognised’ National or State party declared as such by the ECI can nominate a maximum of 40-star campaigners.(UPSC PRELIMS: What does it take to become a National Party in India?) An unrecognised political party can nominate a maximum of 20-star campaigners. Section 77 (b) of The Representation of People’s Act, 1951 says that most of the expenses incurred by the campaigner “shall not be deemed to be an expenditure in connection with the election”. In other words, all expenses will be borne by the respective political party. For example, expenses borne by star campaigners on account of travel by air or by any other means of transport shall not be deemed as expenditure in connection with the election. The manual to the Model Code of Conduct states that for the benefit of availing Section 77 (1) of The RP Act, a permit for the mode of transport for every star campaigner will be issued centrally and against their name. It is also mandatory for this permit to be stuck on a prominent and visible place on the vehicle. If a star campaigner campaigns specifically for one candidate:- If a candidate or her election agent shares the stage with a star campaigner at a rally, then the entire expenditure on that rally, other than the travel expenses of the star campaigner, is added to the candidate’s expenses. Even if the candidate is not present at the star campaigner’s rally, but there are posters with her photographs or her name on display, the entire expenditure will be added to the candidate’s account. This applies even if the star campaigner mentions the candidate’s name during the event. When more than one candidate shares the stage, or there are posters with their photographs, then the expenses of such rally/meeting are equally divided between all such candidates. Prime Minister as Star Campaigner:- The MCC guidelines say when a prime minister or a former prime minister is a star campaigner, the expenditure incurred on security including bullet-proof vehicles will be borne by the government and will not be added to the election expenses of the party or the individual candidate. (UPSC PRELIMS: Elections & MCC) However, if another campaigner travels with the prime minister, the individual candidate will have to bear 50% of the expenditure incurred on the security arrangements. MUST READ: Election Symbol SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. The law does not provide any time frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Dengue Fever Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recent studies by researchers at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) have explained how the dengue virus causes the Dengue Fever. About Dengue Fever:- IMAGE SOURCE: Dengue Fever INFO – Bing images Dengue Fever is a mosquito-borne tropical disease. It is caused by the dengue virus belonging to the Genus Flavivirus. It is transmitted by several species of female mosquito within the genus Aedes, principally Aedes aegypti. This mosquito also transmits chikungunya, yellow fever and Zika infection. (UPSC PRELIMS: Zika Virus Disease ) There are 4 distinct, but closely related, serotypes of the virus that cause dengue: DEN-1, DEN-2, DEN-3 and DEN-4. Symptoms:- Sudden high fever  severe headaches pain behind the eyes  severe bone, joint, and muscle pain, etc. Diagnosis and Treatment:- Diagnosis of dengue infection is done with a blood test. There is no specific medicine to treat dengue infection. Dengue Vaccine:- The dengue vaccine CYD-TDV or Dengvaxia was approved by the US Food & Drug Administration in 2019. It was the first dengue vaccine to get the regulatory nod in the US. (UPSC PRELIMS: Malaria Vaccine ) Dengvaxia is basically a live, attenuated dengue virus which has to be administered in people ages 9 to 16 who have laboratory-confirmed previous dengue infection and who live in endemic areas. Vaccine manufacturer Indian Immunologicals Limited (IIL) is developing India’s first Dengue vaccine and has received permission for a Phase-1 trial. The vaccine is being produced in collaboration with the National Institutes of Health in the US. MUST READ:  Tomato Flu SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing? (2013) Chikungunya Hepatitis B HIV-AIDS Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Economics of India’s Population Growth Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society and associated issues) Context: The annual State of World Population report 2023 by the UN Population Fund (UNFPA) stated that India’s population is expected to surpass that of China by the middle of this year at the latest. Key facts about India’s population: Fertility Decline According to National Family Health Survey (NFHS), fertility rate falling below the replacement level for the first time to 2.0 in 2021.dropped from 2.2 to 2.0. Only five States have a fertility rate above the replacement rate: Bihar (3), Meghalaya (2.9), Uttar Pradesh (2.4), Jharkhand (2.3), and Manipur (2.2) At the time of Independence, India’s fertility rate was six per woman, and it had taken 25 years to reach five, with the government launching the first ever family planning program in the world in 1952. India’s fertility further declined to four in the 1990s when Kerala became the first State in India to have a fertility rate below replacement. Increased use of contraception, more years of average schooling, better health care, and an increase in the mean marriage age of women are of the reasons behind the steady dip in fertility rate. Population vs Economic development: Starting point of this debate is Thomas Malthus’ argument in 1798. Malthusianism is the theory that population growth is potentially exponential while the growth of the food supply or other resources is linear, which eventually reduces living standards to the point of triggering a population decline. This event, called a Malthusian catastrophe. Since then, however, the world population has grown eight times to reach 8 billion. During the 1950s and 60s, “the general view of economists was that high birth rates and rapid population growth in poor countries would divert scarce capital away from savings and investment, thereby placing a drag on economic development. However, between the 1970s and 1990s, several studies “failed to detect a robust relationship between national population growth rates and per capita income growth”. The global view reverted in the 1990s when researchers again found a clear “negative association between population growth and economic performance”. During this time, World was also introduced to the concept of “demographic dividend”e., high economic growth when there is a bulge in the working-age population (roughly speaking, population between 15 and 65 years). Opportunities for India: A larger workforce: A growing population means a larger workforce, which, if trained and employed, can contribute to economic growth and development. Domestic market: A larger population can create a larger domestic market, which can drive economic growth by increasing demand for goods and services. Innovation and technological advancements: A larger population can provide a greater pool of knowledge and expertise, and a more diverse range of perspectives and ideas, which can lead to innovation and technological advancements. Investment in infrastructure: Population growth can create opportunities for investment in infrastructure, education, and health, which can further stimulate economic development. Cultural richness: A larger population can lead to cultural richness and diversity. With a diverse population comes a range of languages, traditions, and cultural practices, which can contribute to a vibrant and dynamic society. Diplomatic influence: A larger population can give a country greater diplomatic influence on the world stage. As one of the world’s most populous countries, India has significant diplomatic influence and can use its demographic size as a bargaining tool in international negotiations. Issues associated with over population: Strain on resources: A growing population can put a strain on natural resources, such as water, food, and energy. It can lead to environmental degradation, scarcity, and conflict. Unemployment: A larger population can create a mismatch between the supply and demand of jobs, leading to high unemployment rates, particularly among young people Poverty: Population growth can exacerbate poverty, particularly in rural areas and among marginalized communities. This can create social and economic inequality and limit access to education, healthcare, and other basic needs. Overcrowding: A larger population can lead to overcrowding, particularly in urban areas. This can create poor living conditions, increased pollution, and health hazards. Infrastructure: A growing population can put a strain on infrastructure, such as transportation, housing, and sanitation. This can lead to inadequate services and poor living conditions. Health: A larger population can increase the spread of disease and illness, particularly in areas with poor healthcare infrastructure. It can lead to public health crises and decreased life expectancy. Education: Population growth can put a strain on education systems, particularly in terms of providing quality education to all. This can limit social and economic mobility and contribute to inequality. Migration: A larger population can lead to migration, particularly to urban areas, which can create social and economic challenges, such as increased crime rates and inequality. Way Forward: Population growth constantly acts as a hurdle in effectively addressing the problem of poverty, hunger and malnutrition and in providing a better quality of health and education, with limited resources. It is, therefore, important to understand that in order to have a better future for all on a healthy planet, attainment of the SDGs is critical. Family planning is an effective tool to ensure a stable rise in the population, which in turn is crucial for the achievement of some of these SDGs. The Government at all levels — Union, State and local, citizens, civil societies as well as businesses — must take the responsibility to promote awareness and advocate the sexual and reproductive rights of women and encourage the use of contraception. This would go a long way in ensuring that every child who is born would prove to be an asset for the country, as all the research shows that investing in family planning and well-being measures have significant benefits over per Rupee spent vis-à-vis other investments. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT): It aims to create and foster a learning environment that enables participants to be leaders in international business with sensitivity towards society. It works under the Ministry of Finance Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the University Grants Commission (UGC): It is a statutory body The head office of the UGC is located in Hyderabad It provides recognition to universities in India. UGC was formed in 1946 to oversee the work of the three Central Universities of Aligarh, Banaras and, Delhi. Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding star campaigners in Indian elections: A ‘recognised’ National or State party declared as such by the ECI can nominate a maximum of 50-star campaigners. If a candidate or his/her election agent shares the stage with a star campaigner at a rally, then the entire expenditure on that rally, other than the travel expenses of the star campaigner, is added to the candidate’s expenses. when a prime minister or a former prime minister is a star campaigner, the expenditure incurred on security including bullet-proof vehicles will be borne by the government and will not be added to the election expenses of the party or the individual candidate. There is no law governing who can or cannot be made a star campaigner. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 4th May 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 3rd May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 4th May 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here