Posts

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Bar Council of India (BCI) Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: Recently, the Bar Council of India (BCI) has allowed foreign lawyers and law firms to practise law in India on a reciprocity basis. About the Bar Council of India (BCI):- It is a statutory body established by Parliament under the Advocates Act, of 1961. It performs the regulatory function by prescribing standards of professional conduct and etiquette and by exercising disciplinary jurisdiction over the bar. It also sets standards for legal education and grants recognition to Universities whose degrees in law will serve as qualifications for enrolment as an advocate. Historical Background:- In March 1953, the All India Bar Committee, headed by S. R. Das, submitted a report which proposed the creation of a bar council for each state and an all India bar council as an apex body. It was suggested that the all-India bar council would regulate the legal profession and set the standard of legal education. The Law Commission of India was assigned the job of assembling a report on judicial administration reforms. In 1961, the Advocates Act was introduced to implement the recommendations made by the ‘All India Bar Committee’ and ‘Law Commission’. The Bar Council was initially against allowing foreign lawyers and firms from practicing in India. However, based on the recommendations put forth in the Joint Consultative Conferences between BCI, State Bar Councils across the country and other stakeholders, the rules were changed. New Rules:- The Bar Council of India has released new rules and regulations for the registration of foreign lawyers and international law firms in India. Through the  Bar Council of India Rules for Registration and Regulation of Foreign Lawyers and Foreign Law Firms in India, 2022 these lawyers would be able to practice in non-litigious matters. The three major focus areas for these lawyers would be foreign law, international legal issues and arbitration matters. Areas where foreign lawyers and firms can practice:- Transactional work, corporate work such as joint ventures, mergers and acquisitions, intellectual property manners, drafting of contacts Provide legal advice and appear as a lawyer for a person, company, firm, corporation, trust, etc. which has its address in a foreign country. Provide legal advice and appear as a lawyer at bodies other than courts, tribunals, and boards, who are not legally entitled to take evidence on oath. Provide legal advice concerning the laws of the country of primary qualification and diverse legal issues. Registered lawyers and firms can open offices in India Form a partnership with one or more registered foreign lawyers and firms Foreign lawyers and foreign firms would not be allowed to practice in India without registering with the council first. Exception: However, this rule can be relaxed for the foreign lawyer or foreign law firm who are coming to India on a “fly in and fly out basis” for the purpose of giving legal advice to a client on foreign law or international legal issues. These lawyers or firms cannot have an office in India and practice law for more than 60 days in any period of 12 months. The registration fee for a foreign lawyer is $25,000 (approximately Rs 20.64 lakhs) and for foreign firms, the registration fee stands at $50,000 (approximately Rs. 41.28 lakhs). Significance:- This change in stance is expected to have significant implications for the Indian legal landscape. Foreign lawyers and law firms will now have the opportunity to offer their services in India. It will create competition and expose Indian law firms to global best practices. MUST READ: Digitisation of Court Records SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements. (2021) Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India. A High court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 McMahon Line Syllabus Prelims –Polity and International Relations Context: Recently, a bipartisan resolution has been introduced in the upper chamber of the US Congress reiterating that the US recognises the McMahon Line as the international boundary between China and India in Arunachal Pradesh. About McMahon Line:- IMAGE SOURCE: http://chinamatters.blogspot.com/2016/11/the-myth-of-mcmahon-line.html The McMahon Line serves as the de facto boundary between China and India in the Eastern Sector. It specifically represents the boundary between Arunachal Pradesh and Tibet, from Bhutan in the west to Myanmar in the east. China has historically disputed the boundary and claims the state of Arunachal Pradesh as part of the Tibetan Autonomous Region (TAR) Historical Background:- The McMahon Line was drawn during the Shimla Convention of 1914, officially described as the Convention Between Great Britain, China, and Tibet. The McMahon Line delimited the respective spheres of influence of Tibet and British India in the eastern Himalayan region in what is today India’s Northeast and northern Myanmar. The border in this region was undefined prior to the signing of the convention. The Shimla Treaty:- According to the Shimla Treaty, the McMahon Line is the clear boundary line between India and China. On behalf of India, the British rulers considered the Tawang of Arunachal Pradesh and the southern part of Tibet as part of India and which was also agreed by the Tibetans. Due to this, the Tawang region of Arunachal Pradesh became part of India. China’s stand on McMahon Line:- According to China, Tibet has always been a part of its territory, so the representatives of Tibet are not authorised to accept any agreement without Chinese consent. In 1950, China fully occupied Tibet. China neither approved nor accepted the McMahon Line. China argues that China was not involved in the Shimla Agreement, therefore the Shimla Agreement is not binding on it. India’s stand on McMahon Line:- India believes that when the McMahon Line was established in 1914, Tibet was an independent country, so it has every right to negotiate a border agreement with any country. When the McMahon Line was drawn, Tibet was not ruled by China. Therefore, the McMahon Line is the clear and legal boundary line between India and China. Even after the Chinese occupation of Tibet in 1950, the Tawang region remained an integral part of India. Current status of the McMahon Line:- India recognizes the McMahon Line and considers it to be the ‘Actual Line of Control (LAC)’ between India and China. China does not recognize the McMahon Line. This land dispute between India and China is in Tawang (Arunachal Pradesh), which China considers as the Southern part of Tibet. According to the Shimla Agreement, it is a part of the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh. MUST READ: India-China Tawang clash and India-China relations, a year after Galwan SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. “Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Barda Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: According to a recent report by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII), the Gujarat government has planned to translocate 40 adult and sub-adult lions to the Barda Wildlife Sanctuary. About Barda Wildlife Sanctuary: Barda Wildlife Sanctuary area is located in the state of Gujarat. It falls into two districts Porbandar and Jamnagar. This area was declared a sanctuary in 1979. It is characteristically abundant in floral diversity, which consists of a good number of medicinal plants. A very high percentage of rare and endangered plants occurring in the area is an important component of the sanctuary. The area falls into two erstwhile princely states of history i.e. Rana Barda, where Ranas of Porbandar ruled once upon a time and Jam Barda, where the rule of Jamsaheb of Jamnagar prevailed. Ethnic races such as Maldharis, Bharvads, Rabaris and Gadhvis live in this region of Saurashtra. Flora: Gorad, Babul, Dhav, Rayan, Ber, Jamun, Amli, Dhudhlo, Bamboo etc. Fauna: Sambar, chital and chinkara were present in the Sanctuary in the recent past and therefore they can be re-introduced. This would create a good prey base for a big carnivore like a leopard. MUST READ: Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements  (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 India’s first indigenous quadruped robot and exoskeleton Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, Hyderabad-based Svaya Robotics has developed India’s first indigenous quadruped (four-legged) robot and exoskeleton for the defence sector. About India’s first indigenous quadruped robot and exoskeleton:- It is part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative. It has been developed by the Hyderabad-based Svaya Robotics . It is India’s first indigenous quadruped (four-legged) robot and exoskeleton for the defence sector. India currently imports these robots from the US and Switzerland. The indigenous robots and wearable exoskeletons were developed in collaboration with the DRDO Labs, Research and Development Establishment (R&DE), Pune, and the Defence Bioengineering and Electromedical Laboratory (DEBEL), Bengaluru. Both are dual-use robots and have multiple use cases in industry and healthcare as well. Quadruped robots: These are four-legged robots . They can walk or run on uneven and rough terrains. They can carry 25 kg in payload and walk along with the soldier. Uses:- It is made for navigating in unstructured terrains to provide remote reconnaissance and inspection. Where soldiers have to navigate through unfavourable conditions, these robots can be used instead Exoskeleton: It is developed to suit Indian soldiers’ anthropometry and augment soldier strength for walking long distances. These active exoskeletons, when worn by soldiers, can carry heavy loads without expending much effort. MUST READ: Responsible Artificial Intelligence SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? (2020) Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units Create meaningful short stories and songs Disease diagnosis Text-to-speech conversion Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2, 4, and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices? (2019) Location identification of a person Sleep monitoring of a person Assisting the hearing impaired person Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Eurasian otter Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recent findings state that the first photographic records of the semi-aquatic carnivorous mammal indicate that some stretches of the Neeru stream, a tributary of the Chenab river, are still unpolluted. About Eurasian otter:- It is a semi-aquatic carnivorous mammal. Scientific Name — Lutra lutra Distribution:- It’s range covers parts of three continents: Europe, Asia, and Africa. Habitat: – It lives in a wide variety of aquatic habitats, including highland and lowland lakes, rivers, streams, marshes, swamp forests, and coastal areas. In the Indian sub-continent, Eurasian otters occur in cold hill and mountain streams. Smooth-coated are found all over India Asian small-clawed: found only in the Himalayan foothills, parts of the Eastern and southern Western Ghats Eurasian: Western Ghats and Himalayas. Conservation Status:- IUCN: Near threatened Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule II CITES  Appendix I MUST READ: Conservation of species SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon Frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray Chinned Minivet and White-throated Redstart are (2020) Birds Primates Reptiles Amphibians Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 The Smart Cities Mission Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, under the Smart Cities Mission, cities across the country were asked to submit proposals for projects to improve municipal services and to make their jurisdictions more liveable.  About The Smart Cities Mission:- It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched in 2015. It is under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. It covered 100 cities for the duration of five yearsstarting from the financial year (FY) 2015-16 to 2019-20. It aims to drive economic growth and improve the quality of life of peopleby enabling local development and harnessing technology as a means to create smart outcomes for citizens. Objective: To promote cities that provide core infrastructure and give a decent quality of life to its citizens, a clean and sustainable environment and application of Smart Solutions. Four pillars:- Social Infrastructure, Physical Infrastructure, Institutional Infrastructure, and Economic Infrastructure. Significance:- India is the world’s second-most populous nation. Urban areas are anticipated to house 40% of India’s people and contribute around 75% of India’s GDP by the year 2030. Status of the projects:- As of  March 2023, the 100 cities have issued work orders for 7,799 projects worth Rs 1.80 lakh crore. Out of these, 5,399 projects worth Rs.1.02 lakh crore have been completed, and the rest are ongoing. Only around 20 cities are likely to meet the June deadline; the rest will need more time. Cities selected in January and June 2018 have achieved 44% of their targets. Cities selected in 2016 in the second round are not much farther ahead with 46% completion. Shillong has completed just one of its 18 proposed projects. MUST READ: Smart cities and Academia Towards Action & Research (SAAR) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology (b)Ministry of Labour and Employment (c)NITI Aayog (d)Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India ? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Bumchu Buddhist Festival and Tashiding Monastery Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, Bumchu Buddhist Festival was held in Sikkim. About Bumchu Buddhist Festival:- Bumchu, the Tashiding holy water vase ritual, is a unique and important occasion that draws travellers from all over the world. Annual performances of this ancient ceremony are held at the Tashiding Monastery. The Bumchu festival commemorates a supernatural occurrence that took place in the 18th century under Chogyal Chakdor Namgyal. It is a time of intense delight and celebration in Sikkim. At the event, pilgrims travel to Tashiding from all around India as well as from close by nations like Bhutan, Nepal, and Sri Lanka. About Tashiding Monastery:- The Tashiding Monastery is one of the most sacred Buddhist pilgrimage sites. It is located in the western part of Sikkim. It is located on a hilltop overlooking the Rangeet River in Sikkim. It is one of the most sacred Buddhist pilgrimage sites. Guru Padmasambhava, better known as Guru Rinpoche, the great Buddhist guru who brought Buddhism to Tibet, blessed the location of the monastery. MUST READ: The Buddhist Circuit SOURCE: THE PRINT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to  (2021) dance forms of Northwest India musical instruments pre-historic cave paintings tribal languages Tectonic plates and Rifting Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recent studies show that Africa’s splitting plates could give birth to a new ocean, but with consequences. About Tectonic Plates: IMAGE SOURCE: https://oceanservice.noaa.gov/facts/tectonics.html Plate tectonics was a theory developed in the 1960s. It explains how major landforms on earth were created as a result of Earth’s subterranean movement. A tectonic plate or a lithospheric plate is a massive, irregularly shaped slab of solid rock, generally composed of both continental and oceanic lithosphere. Tectonic plates are sometimes subdivided into three categories: major (or primary) plates, minor (or secondary) plates, and microplates (or tertiary plates). Major plates of Earth:- African Plate      Antarctic Plate  Eurasian Plate   Indo-Australian plate North American Plate    Pacific Plate South American Plate Minor Plates of the Earth:- Cocos plate: Between Central America and the Pacific plate Nazca plate: Between South America and the Pacific plate Arabian plate: Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass Philippine plate: Between the Asiatic and Pacific plate Caroline plate: Between the Philippine and Indian plates (North of New Guinea) Fuji plate: North-east of Australia Juan De Fuca’s plate About Rifting:- Major geomorphological features such as fold and block mountains, mid-oceanic ridges, trenches, volcanism, earthquakes etc. are a direct consequence of the interaction between various Tectonic Plates (lithospheric plates). There are three ways in which the plates interact with each other. Divergence: In this kind of interaction, the plates diverge (move away from each other). Mid-ocean ridges (e.g. the Mid-Atlantic Ridge) are formed due to this kind of interaction. Here, the basaltic magma erupts and moves apart (seafloor spreading). Example: On continents, East African Rift Valley is the most important geomorphological feature formed due to the divergence of African and Somali plates. Convergence: In this kind of interaction, two lithospheric plates collide with each other. The zone of collision may undergo crumpling and folding, and folded mountains may emerge (orogenic collision). Himalayan Boundary Fault is one such example. When one of the plates is an oceanic plate, it gets embedded in the softer asthenosphere of the continental plate, and as a result, trenches are formed at the zone of subduction. Transcurrent Edge:- In this kind of interaction, two plates slide past each other. There is no creation or destruction of the landform but only the deformation of the existing landform. In oceans, transform faults are the planes of separation generally perpendicular to the mid-oceanic ridges. Example: San Andreas Fault (Silicon Valley lies dangerously close to the faultline) along the western coast of the USA SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2019) Sea                                    Bordering country Adriatic Sea                 Albania Black Sea                     Croatia Caspian Se                  Kazakhstan Mediterranean Sea    Morocco Red Sea                       Syria Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years. (2018) When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Internationalisation of the Indian Rupee Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: Recently Reserve Bank India Deputy Governor emphasizes the need for better rupee volatility management to deal with risks of internationalization. About Internationalisation of Indian Rupee: Currency internationalization is the widespread use of a currency outside the borders of its original country of issue. It refers to the process of making the Indian rupee a globally accepted currency, similar to other major currencies like the US dollar, Euro, and Japanese yen etc., This process aims to promote India’s economic growth and development by increasing the use of the rupee in cross-border transactions, foreign investment, and global trade. It requires the liberalization of India’s capital account, which means allowing free flow of capital in and out of the country without any restrictions. Present Status of Indian Rupee Currently, Indian rupee totals over 80 against USD. The first country to open a special Rupee Vostro account is Russia followed by Sri Lanka and Mauritius which are expected to use the Indian rupee trade settlement mechanism. A further assessment says that by 2040, the Rupee will challenge China’s Renminbi as the strongest global currency. Advantages of Internationalization of rupee Currency risk is reduced for Indian businesses when using the Rupee in international transactions. Protection from currency volatility improves business growth and lowers operating costs, increasing the likelihood that Indian companies will expand internationally. The requirement for maintaining foreign exchange reserves decreases. Reserves have an impact on the economy even though they help control exchange rate volatility and project external stability. India becomes less susceptible to outside shocks by reducing its reliance on foreign currency. For instance, excessive foreign currency liabilities of domestic businesses result in a de facto domestic tightening during phases of monetary tightening in the US and a strengthening dollar. The discomfort of reversing capital flows would be significantly lessened by reduced exposure to currency risk. The bargaining power of Indian business would increase as the rupee’s use increased, adding weight to the Indian economy and raising India’s stature and respect internationally. Challenges of Internationalisation of rupee: It requires integration with global financial markets, which can pose challenges in terms of regulatory compliance, market infrastructure, and investor protection. It is the primary challenge of internationalising the rupee as it can create risks for businesses and investors that operate in multiple currencies, leading to uncertainty and higher transaction costs. India’s financial markets are still relatively underdeveloped compared to other major economies, which can limit the range of products and services available to international investors. The rupee is not yet a widely traded currency, which means there is limited liquidity in global markets making it difficult for investors to buy and sell rupee-denominated assets, which can limit the attractiveness of the currency. It requires a supportive regulatory environment that balances the need for openness with the need for financial stability and regulatory oversight which is challenging to achieve, especially given the complexities of global financial markets. Steps taken for the Internationalisation of the Rupee Recently the RBI has introduced a mechanism to facilitate international trade in rupees. Enabling external commercial borrowings in Rupees (especially Masala Bonds). The Asian Clearing Union is also exploring a scheme of using domestic currencies for settlement. An arrangement, bilateral or among trading blocs, which offers importers of each country the choice to pay in domestic currency is likely to be favoured by all countries, and therefore, is worth exploring. Promotion of offshore rupee markets: The RBI has allowed Indian banks to participate in the offshore non-deliverable market for rupee derivatives, which has facilitated the development of offshore rupee markets. Currency swap agreements: The RBI has signed currency swap agreements with several countries, which allow for the exchange of rupee and foreign currency between the central banks of the two countries. Bilateral trade agreements: The government has signed several bilateral trade agreements with other countries, which has facilitated greater cross-border trade and investment and increased the use of the rupee in international transactions. Way Forward: Therefore, Any possibility of conversation on rupee internationalization must be backed by a sustained and stable position of the Indian Rupee. Scale, stability and liquidity can be achieved through strong economic fundamentals and a process-driven regulatory environment. Overall, increase in the international use of the Indian rupee will go a long way in positioning India as a more attractive destination for foreign investment and trade. Source: The Hindu Landfill Fires Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment) Context: The Kochi landfill site around Brahmapuram that caught fire earlier this month was a stark reminder that Indian cities need to be prepared for more such incidents as summer approaches. About Landfill: A landfill site, also known as rubbish dump, garbage dump, or dumping ground, is a site for the disposal of waste materials. It is the oldest and most common form of waste disposal. US Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has established specific guidelines regarding creation and management of the Landfills. But in India, landfills are managed under the new Solid Waste Management Rules (SWM), 2016. However, many of the guidelines are not adhered to rules. Landfill fires: Surface and Underground fires Surface fires: It involves recently buried or uncompacted refuse, situated on or close to the landfill surface in the aerobic decomposition layer. Surface fires generally burn at relatively low temperatures and are characterized by the emission of dense white smoke and the products of incomplete combustion. Underground fires: Underground fires in landfills occur deep below the landfill surface and involve materials that are months or years old. The most common cause of underground landfill fires is an increase in the oxygen content of the landfill, which increases bacterial activity and raises temperatures (aerobic decomposition). These so-called “hot spots” can come into contact with pockets of methane gas and result in a fire. Reasons Landfills fire: India’s municipalities have been collecting more than 95% of the waste generated in cities but the efficiency of waste-processing is 30-40% at best. Indian municipal solid waste consists of about 60% biodegradable material, 25% on-biodegradable material and 15% inert materials, like silt and stone. The openly disposed waste includes flammable material like low-quality plastics, which have a relatively higher calorific value. In summer, the biodegradable fraction composts much faster, increasing the temperature of the heap to beyond 70-80° C. Higher temperature + flammable material = a chance for the landfill to catch fire. Impact of Landfill Fires: Air Pollution: When a landfill fire burns, it releases harmful gases and particles into the air, including carbon monoxide, Sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, and volatile organic compounds (VOCs). These pollutants can cause respiratory problems, exacerbate asthma and other lung conditions, and contribute to smog and acid rain. Health impact: It causes health ailments in residents living nearby the landfill like sore throat, itchy eyes and breathing problems. Groundwater Contamination: Landfill fires can release toxic chemicals and heavy metals into the groundwater, which can contaminate nearby water sources and potentially harm aquatic ecosystems. Soil Contamination: Landfill fires can also release harmful chemicals and heavy metals into the soil, which can harm plant growth and contaminate crops. Economic Impact: Landfill fires can result in significant clean-up costs for local governments, as well as economic losses for nearby businesses and property owners. Landfill fire prevention Fire prevention can reduce property damage, injury, health, and environmental hazards of landfill fires. The cost of prevention is usually much less expensive than the cost of fighting and cleaning up a fire. Effective landfill management: Management measures include prohibiting all forms of deliberate burning, thoroughly inspecting and controlling incoming refuse, compacting refuse buried to prevent hot spots from forming, prohibiting smoking onsite, and maintaining good site security. Monitoring the emission of methane: If methane levels in or around the landfill become explosive, the landfill operator must take immediate steps to mitigate the danger. Converting Landfill Gas to Energy: The conversion of landfill gas to energy turns this landfill by-product into a marketable resource. The converted gas can be used to generate electricity, heat, or steam. Govt Initiatives to prevent Landfill fires Swachha Bharat Mission – Urban (SBM-U). Swaccha Survekshan: An annual survey of cleanliness, hygiene and sanitation in cities and towns across India is undertaken. It has been launched as a part of the SBM-U under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). Swachhata Hi Sewa Campaign: It has been launched for ensuring cleanliness through the various stakeholders’ engagement in the ‘Jan Andolan’. Compost Banao, Compost Apnao Campaign: It is a multi-media campaign launched by MoHUA on waste-to-compost under SBM-(U). Way Forward: While these measures can help reduce the fires’ damage, they’re far from ideal and not long-term solutions. The 4 R’s philosophy of Reducing, Reusing, Recycling, and Recovering Resources should be actively encouraged. The permanent and essential solution is to ensure cities have a systematic waste­ processing system where wet and dry waste are processed separately and their byproducts treated accordingly. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Which of the following are minor tectonic plate boundaries? Antarctic Plate Eurasian Plate Arabian plate Cocos plate Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only Q.2) Barda Wildlife Sanctuary is often mentioned in the news is in Rajasthan Assam Punjab Gujrat Q.3) With reference to the Bar Council of India (BCI), consider the following statements: It is a constitutional body established under the Advocates Act, of 1961. It performs the regulatory function by prescribing standards of professional conduct and etiquette and by exercising disciplinary jurisdiction over the bar. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 17th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 16th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – c Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 11] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 11 -> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Justice Deepak Verma Committee Syllabus Prelims –Polity and Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a high-powered committee, led by a former judge, was tasked with the procurement or welfare of wild animals by any rescue or rehabilitation centre or zoo. About the Justice Deepak Verma Committee :- It is set up under the chairmanship of former judge Justice Deepak Verma. Other Members of the Committee — Director General of Forest Head of Project Elephant Division (MoEFCC) Member Secretary (Central Zoo Authority of India) Chief Wild Life Warden(s) of the State(s) to which the issue relates will be co-opted as Members. Objective: The HPC was initially constituted to oversee the transfer of captive wild elephants from the north-eastern States and its ambit was restricted to Tripura and Gujarat. The jurisdiction has been expanded to cater to all wild animals in need of rehabilitation or rescue anywhere in India. Powers of the committee: The Committee may consider the request for approval, dispute, or grievance, concerning transfer or import into India or procurement or welfare of wild animals by any rescue or rehabilitation centre or zoo. State and Central authorities should report the seizure of wild animals or abandonment of captive wild animals to the committee. The committee shall be at liberty to recommend the transfer of ownership of captive animals or of seized wild animals to any willing rescue centre or zoo for their welfare, care, and rehabilitation MUST READ: Wildlife Protection and Environment Ministry reconstitutes Central Zoo Authority (CZA) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?(2020) Corbett Ranthambore Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Sunderbans Nanakshahi Sammat 555 Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, the Prime Minister greeted the Sikh community on commencement of Nanakshahi Sammat 555. About Nanakshahi Sammat 555:- It is a calendar system that was introduced by the Shiromani Gurdwara Parbandhak Committee (SGPC) in 2003. It is named after the founder of the Sikh religion, Guru Nanak Dev Ji to mark his  500th birth anniversary. It is a tropical solar calendar used in Sikhism. The reference epoch of the Nanakshahi calendar is the birth of Guru Nanak Dev, corresponding to the year 1469 CE. It is based on the “Barah Maha” (Twelve Months), a composition composed by the Sikh gurus reflecting the changes in nature conveyed in the twelve-month cycle of the year. The year begins with the month of Chet, with 1 Chet corresponding to 14 March. This year’s Nanakshahi calendar has been dedicated to the 200th anniversary of the martyrdom of Akali Baba Phula Singh, the 300th anniversary of the birth of Sardar Jassa Singh Ramgarh and the 100th anniversary of the Jaito front. MUST READ: Saka Panja Sahib SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following was given classical language status recently? (2015) Odia Konkani Bhojpuri Assamese Q.2) Consider the following languages: (2014) Gujarati Kannada Telugu Which of the above has/have been declared as ‘classical language/languages’ by the Government? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Exercise Bold Kurukshetra Syllabus    Prelims –Defense Context: The Singapore Army and Indian Army participated in the 13th edition of Exercise Bold Kurukshetra held recently. About Exercise Bold Kurukshetra:- IMAGE SOURCE: 14th India-Singapore Defence Policy Dialogue held | IASbaba Exercise Bold Kurukshetra is a bilateral military exercise between the Indian Army and the Singapore Army. The 13th edition of the exercise was held at Jodhpur Military Station, India. The exercise was first conducted in 2005. The 13th edition was hosted by the Indian Army and the exercise involved soldiers from the 42nd Battalion, Singapore Armoured Regiment, and an Armoured Brigade of the Indian Army. This joint exercise aimed to enhance cooperation, build a common understanding of mechanized warfare, combat emerging threats and adapt to evolving technologies. It involved an understanding of mechanized warfare in emerging threats and evolving technologies, developing interoperability. MUST READ: Bilateral Relations between India and Singapore SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In which one of the following groups are all four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina Mexico, South Africa, and Turkey. Australia Canada, Malaysia, and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and Vietnam Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea Q.2) Consider the following countries : (2018) Australia Canada China India Japan USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN ? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4, 5 and 6 1, 3, 4 and 5 2, 3, 4 and 6 Pre-arrest bail or Anticipatory Bail Syllabus     Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Supreme Court agreed to hear a petition filed by the Karnataka Lokayukta, challenging the pre-arrest bail granted to an MLA of Karnataka by the state High Court. About Pre-arrest bail or Anticipatory Bail:- Bail is the conditional release of a person from confinement or custody during investigation and trial. The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) defines a bailable offense as an offense that is shown as bailable in the First Schedule of the CrPC, or which is made bailable by any other law for the time being in force and a non-bailable offense means any other offense. The provision for anticipatory bail was introduced under Section 438 of the CrPC after the 41st Law Commission Report in 1969 recommended the need for a measure that protects against arbitrary violation of one’s personal liberty, such as when politicians detain their opponents in false cases. It protects individual liberty ( mentioned in Art. 21 of the Indian constitution). Its practice is the very essence of Art 22 (2) of the Indian constitution. Anticipatory Bail is envisaged under section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC). It enables the accused to approach a session court or High court seeking a direction to release him on bail in case he is arrested on a non-bailable offense. The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) differentiates between “bailable” and “non-bailable” offenses. It also defines three kinds of bail that can be granted — regular bail under Sections 437 and 439; interim bail or short-term bail which is given when regular or anticipatory bail application is pending before the court; and anticipatory or pre-arrest bail. Conditions for granting an Anticipatory bail:- Nature and gravity of the accusation Previous cases of applicant The court can impose certain terms and condition Restriction on travel abroad It denied a person can be arrested without a warrant MUST READ: The Bail Laws SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty? (2019) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers Absence of restraint Opportunity to do whatever one likes Opportunity to develop oneself fully ROOFTOP SOLAR SCHEME Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology, Government schemes Context: Recently the Union Power & NRE Minister announced that 3377 MW capacity has been allocated to States under the ROOFTOP SOLAR SCHEME. About ROOFTOP SOLAR SCHEME:- It is under the  Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). The ministry has announced Phase II of the scheme. Objectives:- To generate solar power through the installation of solar panels on the roof of houses. To achieve the final capacity of 40,000 MW from Rooftop Solar Projects by 2022. To promote the grid-connected SPV rooftop and small SPV power generating plants among the residential, community, institutional, industrial, and commercial establishments. To mitigate the dependence on fossil fuel-based electricity generation and encourage environment-friendly Solar electricity generation. To create an enabling environment for investment in the solar energy sector by the private sector, state government, and individuals. Implementation: This scheme is being implemented in the state by distribution companies (DISCOMs). Benefits: Under this scheme, the Ministry is providing a 40% subsidy for the first 3 kW and a 20% subsidy beyond 3 kW and up to 10 kW of solar panel capacity. Under Rooftop Solar Programme Phase-II:- A Central Financial Assistance (CFA) of up to 40% of the benchmark cost is provided for the installation of Rooftop Solar (RTS) projects upto 3 kW capacity and 20% for capacity beyond 3 kW and upto 10 kW for individual households in the residential sector. For Group Housing Societies/Residential Welfare Associations (GHS/RWA), CFA is limited to 20% of the benchmark cost for installation of an RTS plant of capacity up to 500 kW for the supply of power to common facilities. MUST READ: India’s solar power energy targets and Solar Energy in India SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Which one of the following is the purpose of `UDAY’, a scheme of the Government? (2016) Providing technical and financial assistance to start-up entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy Providing electricity to every household in the country by 2018 Replacing coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind, and tidal power plants over a period of time Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies Rare diseases Syllabus    Prelims –Science and technology Context: Rare diseases has been in news recently as a cause of health concern. About Rare diseases:- IMAGE SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES Rare diseases are a serious public health concern in India. It has an estimated burden of about 80 to 96 million cases reported annually. Moreover, 70-80% of rare diseases are of genetic nature and thus are asymptomatic. A rare disease is a disease that affects a small percentage of the population. Most rare diseases are genetic in origin and are present throughout a person’s life even if symptoms do not immediately appear but it usually appears early in life. About 30% of children with rare diseases may die before reaching their 5th birthday. As per National Consortium for Research and Development on Therapeutic for Rare Diseases, approximately 450 rare diseases have been identified and reported in India. 80% of all rare disease patients are affected by approximately 350 rare diseases. The most common rare diseases that have clinically actionable treatment regimens include Haemophilia, Thalassemia, Sickle-cell Anaemia and Primary Immuno Deficiency in children, auto-immune diseases, Lysosomal storage disorders such as Pompe disease, Hirschsprung disease, Gaucher’s disease, Cystic Fibrosis, Hemangiomas and certain forms of muscular dystrophies. MUST READ: National Policy for Rare Diseases, 2021 released SOURCE: THE HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements (2021) Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of the egg. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from the mother and not from the father. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following statements is not correct? (2017) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV. Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine. Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses is several times more than those infected with HIV. Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years. UN-Water Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: A global study published recently showed that 58 per cent of people from 31 countries are seriously concerned about freshwater shortages, whereas 30 per cent claim to be greatly impacted by it. About UN-Water:- UN-Water is a ‘coordination mechanism’. It coordinates the United Nations’ work on water and sanitation. There is no single United Nations Agency, Fund or Programme dedicated exclusively to water issues. Over 30 United Nations organizations carry out water and sanitation programmes because these issues run through all of the United Nations’ main focus areas. Composition: It is comprised of United Nations entities (Members) and international organizations (Partners) working on water and sanitation issues. Objective: UN-Water’s role is to ensure that Members and Partners ‘deliver as one’ in response to water-related challenges. Functioning:- UN-Water has three lines of work: Informing policy processes and addressing emerging issues Supporting monitoring and reporting on water and sanitation Building knowledge and inspiring people to act Members and Partners:- All activities outlined in UN-Water’s Work Programme are primarily implemented through its Members and Partners. UN-Water’s Members: are United Nations agencies, programmes and funds with a water-related mandate. UN-Water’s Partners: are international organizations, professional unions, associations or other civil society groups that are actively involved in water. MUST READ: Water Crisis  in India SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2020) 36% of India’s districts are classified as “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA). CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only India AI Roadmap Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: The Ministry of Electronics and IT has recently established a task force to draft a roadmap for the artificial intelligence ecosystem. The task force will focus on boosting research and facilitating tools for startups and IT companies. About Artificial Intelligence: Source: Granta Innovation It is the science and engineering of making intelligent machines, especially intelligent computer programs. It is related to the similar task of using computers to understand human intelligence, but AI does not have to confine itself to methods that are biologically observable. AI would not replace people but create new opportunities in various fields. It works on data, and if we could train our machines, it could do wonders for us in milliseconds by automating processes. AI is creating new opportunities which could not be achieved by traditional technology. Significance of Artificial Intelligence (AI) for India: Economic Growth: AI is expected to contribute significantly to India’s economic growth by creating new job opportunities, increasing productivity, and fostering innovation. Governance: AI can help in improving governance by increasing transparency, reducing corruption, and improving service delivery by better fraud detection, resource allocation, and decision-making. Healthcare: AI has the potential to revolutionize the healthcare sector by improving patient outcomes, increasing efficiency, and reducing costs through better disease diagnosis, drug development, and personalized treatment. Agriculture: AI can improve agricultural practices by optimizing crop yields, reducing waste, and increasing profitability through accurate weather predictions, soil analysis, and crop monitoring to help farmers make informed decisions. Education: AI can enhance the quality of education by providing personalized learning experiences, automating administrative tasks, and improving student outcomes. Smart homes, cities and infrastructure: Smart thermostats learn from our behaviour to save energy, while developers of smart cities hope to regulate traffic to improve connectivity and reduce traffic jams. Automobiles: While self-driving vehicles are not yet standard, cars already use AI-powered safety functions. The EU has for example helped to fund VI-DAS, automated sensors that detect possible dangerous situations and accidents. Navigation is largely AI-powered. Cybersecurity: AI systems can help recognise and fight cyberattacks and other cyber threats based on the continuous input of data, recognising patterns and backtracking the attacks. Fighting disinformation: Certain AI applications can detect fake news and disinformation by mining social media information, looking for words that are sensational or alarming and identifying which online sources are deemed authoritative. Speech Recognition: It is also known as automatic speech recognition (ASR), computer speech recognition, or speech-to-text, and it is a capability which uses natural language processing (NLP) to process human speech into a written format. Many mobile devices incorporate speech recognition into their systems to conduct voice search—e. Siri—or provide more accessibility around texting. Challenges of Artificial Intelligence (AI) Need for Massive Data Centres: AI requires massive computational capacity, which means more power-hungry data centres and a big carbon footprint. Skilled workforce: There is a shortage of skilled professionals in the AI industry in India and the demand for skilled professionals still outstrips the supply. Data quality and availability: The lack of standardization and structure in data sets, particularly in sectors like healthcare and education, can limit the effectiveness of AI solutions. Infrastructure: The availability of computing infrastructure is essential for the development and deployment of AI solutions and India needs to invest in improving its computing infrastructure to support the growing demand for AI solutions. Funding: Despite the potential benefits of AI, funding for AI startups and research in India is relatively low compared to other countries for which more funding is needed to support the development and growth of the AI industry in India. Ethical and social implications: AI can have significant ethical and social implications, such as bias, privacy concerns, and job displacement. Way Forward The NITI Aayog’s Report recognises that our digital future cannot be optimised for good without multi-stakeholder governance structures that ensure the dividends are fair, inclusive, and just.  NITI Aayog has decided to focus on five sectors that are envisioned to benefit the most from AI in solving societal needs: Healthcare Agriculture Education Smart cities and infrastructure Smart mobility and transportation. Therefore, AI can play a crucial role in driving India’s growth and development in various sectors, and the draft proposal by the Indian government is a step in the right direction.  The roadmap for the artificial intelligence ecosystem will help promote the development and adoption of AI in India and is expected to have a significant impact on the growth of the AI industry in the country. Source: Business Standard Same-sex marriages can rock societal values: Centre Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society and social Issues) Context: A recent petition in the supreme court on same-sex marriage was transferred to the Constitutional Bench of five judges. About Same-Sex Marriage: It is the practice of marriage between two men or between two women. Same-sex marriage has been regulated through law, religion, and custom in most countries of the world. As of 2023, marriage between same-sex couples is legally performed and recognized in 34 countries, constituting some 1.35 billion people (17% of the world’s population), with the most recent being Andorra. Government’s stance on same-sex marriages: The government has a stance that same-sex marriage is not compatible with the concept of an “Indian family unit“, which it said consists of “a husband, a wife, and children. It necessarily presupposes a biological man as a ‘husband’, a biological woman as a ‘wife’, and the children born out of the union between the two – who are reared by the biological man as a father and the biological woman as a mother” Despite the decriminalization of Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code, the petitioners cannot claim a fundamental right for same-sex marriage to be recognized under the laws of the country. Petitioner’s Arguments: Petitioners argued that the non-recognition of same-sex marriage amounted to discrimination that struck at the root of the dignity and self-fulfilment of LBTQ+ couples. It demanded that the Special Marriage Act, 1954 should grant same-sex couples the same protection it allowed inter-caste and inter-faith couples who want to marry. Legal status of same-sex marriage in India: Marriages in India are categorized under Hindu Marriage Act, Christian Marriage Act, Muslim Marriage Act, and Special Marriage Act. None of this permits marriage between same-sex couples. Various supreme court verdicts for the LGBTQ community: 2014: The Supreme Court of India laid the groundwork by giving legal recognition to non-binary or transgender persons as a “third gender.” 2017: It strengthened the right to privacy, and also recognized sexual orientation as an essential attribute of an individual’s privacy and dignity. 2018: The 2018 Navtej Singh Johar judgment decriminalised homosexuality, but it did not mention/legitimise same-sex marriage. The court, while decriminalising homosexuality, had never accepted same-sex marriage as part of the fundamental right to life and dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution. It decriminalized homosexual sex, overturning a British colonial-era law, and expanded constitutional rights for LGBTQ people. 2022: It instituted protections for what it called “atypical” families. It’s a broad category that includes single parents, blended families or kinship relationships — and same-sex couples. Such non-traditional manifestations of families are equally deserving of benefits under various social welfare legislation. Arguments in favour of legalising Same-Sex Marriage: Fundamental Right: Right to marry a person of one’s choice is a fundamental right guaranteed under the Article 21 of the Constitution of India. Members of the LGBTQ+ community have the same human, fundamental and constitutional rights as other citizens. The Special Marriage Act of 1954: It provides a civil form of marriage for couples who cannot marry under their personal law. Right to equality: The petitioners have argued that barring them from marriage violates their right to equality. Global practice: According to global think tank Council of Foreign Relations, same sex marriages are legal in at least 30 countries, including the United States, Australia, Canada and France. Arguments against Same Sex Marriage: Social Stigma: Apart from the harsh legal scenario, homosexuals face social stigma. Any instance of sexual relations between a couple of the same sex draws hatred and disgust. Intimacy of any sort is not approved of unless it is legitimized in the form of marriage where socially approved sexual access takes place. Patriarchal Society: Indian society is patriarchal which believes that heterosexual marriage was the norm throughout history and are “foundational to both the existence and continuance of the state. Rising activism: Campaigns for lesbian and gay rights taken on an increasingly radical character, arguing for an end to all forms of discrimination against homosexuality. Progeny Issues: Gay and lesbian couples are also not allowed to have children born with the help of an Indian surrogate mother. An LGBTQ+ person can apply to the Central Adoption Review Authority for adoption only as a single parent. Way Forward: Petitioners have argued that denying the community the same rights as heterosexual couples violates a clutch of fundamental rights on life and liberty including Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution and Article 16 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, to which India is a signatory. Legalizing same-sex marriages would have a profound bottom-up effect being felt in the social structure, starting from the individual level and couple level, followed by the family, community, and finally at the level of society. By legalising same-sex marriage, India can join the 30-odd countries which allow it, and lead from the front in Asia where only Taiwan has legalised it. As people’s relationships change, and society undergoes transformation, constitutional rights on freedoms and liberties must extend to every sphere, including a same-sex couple’s life. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following: Haemophilia Thalassemia Sickle-cell Anaemia Pompe disease Hirschsprung disease Which of the above are examples of rare diseases as per National Consortium for Research and Development on Therapeutic for Rare Diseases? 1 3 and 4 only 2 4 and 5 only 1 2 and 5 only 1 2 3 4 and 5 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding Rooftop Solar Programme: The scheme will be implemented in the states by distribution companies (DISCOMs). It is under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Anticipatory Bail is envisaged under section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC). The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) clearly differentiates between “bailable” and “non-bailable” offenses. Anticipatory Bail enables the accused to approach a session court or High court seeking a direction to release him on bail in case he is arrested on a bailable offense. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 16th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 16th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 10] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – ECONOMY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 10 ->Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 15th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Antiquities Abroad: Indian & International Laws Syllabus Prelims: Government schemes and policies What is antiquity? The Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972, implemented on April 1, 1976, defined “antiquity” as Any coin, sculpture, painting, epigraph or other work of art or craftsmanship; any article, object or thing detached from a building or cave; any article, object or thing illustrative of science, art, crafts, literature, religion, customs, morals or politics in bygone ages; any article, object or thing of historical interest” that “has been in existence for not less than one hundred years.” For “manuscript, record or other document which is of scientific, historical, literary or aesthetic value”, this duration is “not less than seventy-five years.” Under section 14(3) of the AATA, “Every person who owns, controls or is in possession of any antiquity” shall register such antiquity before the registering officer “and obtain a certificate in token of such registration.” So far, the National Mission on Monuments and Antiquities, launched in March 2007, has registered 3.52 lakh antiquities among the 16.70 lakh it has documented, to help in “effective check” of illegal activities. Government estimates: Around 58 lakh International Conventions The UNESCO 1970 Convention on the Means of Prohibiting and Preventing the Illicit Import, Export and Transfer of Ownership of Cultural Property defined “cultural property” as The property designated by countries having “importance for archaeology, prehistory, history, literature, art or science.” The illicit import, export and transfer of ownership of cultural property is one of the main causes of the impoverishment of the cultural heritage of the countries of origin of such property that international co-operation constitutes one of the most efficient means of protecting each country’s cultural property. After that, in 2000, the General Assembly of the UN and the UN Security Council in 2015 and 2016 also raised concerns on the issue. An INTERPOL report in 2019 said that almost 50 years after the UNESCO convention, “the illicit international traffic of cultural items and related offences is sadly increasingly prolific.” Indian Laws In India, Item-67 of the Union List, Item-12 of the State List, and Item-40 of the Concurrent List of the Constitution deal with the country’s heritage. Before Independence, an Antiquities (Export Control) Act had been passed in April 1947 to ensure that “no antiquity could be exported without license.” In 1958, The Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act was enacted. In 1971, Parliament saw an uproar over the theft of a bronze idol from Chamba and some important sandstone idols from other places. This, along with the UNESCO convention, prompted the government to enact The Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972 (AATA), implemented from April 1, 1976. The AATA states, “it shall not be lawful for any person, other than the Central Government or any authority or agency authorised by the Central Government in this behalf, to export any antiquity or art treasure… No person shall, himself or by any other person on his behalf, carry on the business of selling or offering to sell any antiquity except under and in accordance with the terms and conditions of a licence.” This licence is granted by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI). After the AATA was implemented, the Centre asked traders in antiquities and art objects to declare their possessions of antiquities by June 5, 1976, and individual owners by July 5, 1976. Provenance of an antiquity includes the list of all owners from the time the object left its maker’s possession to the time it was acquired by the current owner. How is ownership proved? The requesting Party shall furnish, at its expense, the documentation and other evidence necessary to establish its claim for recovery and return. The first thing in order to prove the ownership is the complaint (FIR) filed with the police. In India, the problem with missing antiquities is that in many cases, there is no FIR. But other proof, like details mentioned by reputed scholars in research papers etc., also work. Can India bring back antiquities? There are three categories to take note of: Antiquities taken out of India pre-independence Those which were taken out since independence until March 1976, i.e. before the implementation of AATA Antiquities taken out of the country since April 1976. For items in the first two categories, requests have to be raised bilaterally or on international fora. For instance, the Maharashtra government on November 10, 2022 announced it was working to bring back the sword of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj from London. This sword was given to Edward, the Prince of Wales (the later King Edward VII) by Shivaji IV in 1875-76. Several antiquities, from Vagdevi of Dhar (MP), to the Kohinoor diamond, to Amaravati marbles to the Sultanganj Buddha to antiquities related to Rani Laxmibai and Tipu Sultan, are currently abroad. Antiquities in the second and third categories can be retrieved easily by raising an issue bilaterally with proof of ownership and with the help of the UNESCO convention. News Source: Indian Express Promises of Monoclonal antibody tech Syllabus Prelims: Science & Technology About: Monoclonal antibody tech promises better disease prevention and control in Africa. They are used to address different kinds of diseases, not just infections. Monoclonal Antibody Lab-made copies of B cells that mimic the body’s immune system. The aim is to enable the production of proteins that are very specific to the foreign bodies called antigens. They’re called monoclonal because they are produced by single clone of the B cells. So, you can have the exact copies of the same protein produced many times over and this way they are called Mab MAb can be produced outside the body, but you have to focus on the type since what is produced in our bodies are of different types, hundreds of them. Whatever infection you have, there is an antibody produced in the body, but if we are producing it from outside, it has to be specific. MAb are used to address different kinds of diseases, not just infections. Cancer is not infection, but you can use monoclonal antibodies against it. To treat cancer, the standard method is chemotherapy — the use of drugs. But those drugs are usually cytotoxic. They kill everything — both the normal cells and the cancer cells. Sometimes, we give radiation; even radiation cannot choose which cells to kill. But MAb can target specific problems and attack those cells Autoimmune diseases are not infections, but you can use Mab. MAb can be used against infections like malaria or others as they are made to target anything that is interpreted as outside. Must Read: New hope for malaria vaccine News Source: Down to Earth Operation Trishul Syllabus Prelims: Internal Security In News: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) has extradited 33 fugitives involved in various criminal activities under its ‘Operation Trishul’ in the past one year. According to Interpol, Indian agencies are looking for 276 fugitives worldwide. Operation Trishul Operation Trishul has been instrumental in bringing fugitive criminals back to India one after the other. Under ‘Operation Trishul’, the CBI uses a three-pronged strategy to nab fugitives. In this, with the help of Interpol, criminals and proceeds of crime located abroad are traced and brought back. Strategy I: The investigative agency tracks down a fugitive with the help of Interpol. He must then extradite or extradite the wanted person from the country of his hiding. Strategy II: The CBI uses the Interpol Mechanism – STAR Global Focal Point Network, financial crime analysis files and other channels to trace the distribution of proceeds of crime through financial criminals to recover the proceeds of such crime. Can be taken through proper channels. Strategy III: To collect criminal intelligence on shell companies, fraudulent transactions, money mules and co-criminals worldwide and dismantle their supporting networks. This may be reported to law enforcement agencies of the concerned country through INTERPOL for appropriate action. Issues in India Lack of Domestic Tracking System: Theoretically there exists a system of tracking criminals worldwide – through Interpol Notices and the sharing of immigration databases of different countries – but there is no coordinated system or database for tracking criminals or wanted persons domestically. Criminals remain underground exploiting Indian Police system: In the absence of such domestic tracking system, it is relatively easy for criminals from one police station/jurisdiction to melt into the population in any other area, almost undetected. About Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 Fugitive Economic Offenders Act (FEOA) became a law on July 31, 2018. Objectives: To deter economic offenders from avoiding the process of Indian law by remaining outside the jurisdiction of Indian courts. To ensure that fugitive economic offenders return to India to face the action in accordance with law. Defining Fugitive economic offender (FEO): FEO is defined as an individual who has committed offences involving an amount of 100 crore rupees or more and has ran away from India to avoid criminal prosecution. Special Court: A special court will be established under the Prevention of Money-laundering Act, 2002 to declare a person as a Fugitive Economic Offender. Attachment of property: Special courts can direct the Central government to seize assets of fugitive economic offender including those that are proceeds of the crime. Appeal: Appeals against the orders of the special court will lie before the High Court. The Way Forward Nationwide Database: The creation of a nationwide database of wanted persons, which could be accessible for police agencies, the public and others (like passport and immigration authorities). The Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems and the National Intelligence Grid are efforts in the right direction, but more integration is desirable. National Notice System: A nation-wide system of ‘Wanted Persons Notices’, similar to Interpol Notices, is required, to help track fugitives domestically. Dedicated Units: Countries like the U.S. have functional inter-State extradition and fugitive tracking systems; India needs to set up such dedicated ‘fugitive tracking units’. Greater Coordination: There needs to be enhanced integration between immigration agencies, State police agencies, Interpol-New Delhi, the External Affairs Ministry and Home Ministry and central investigation agencies. Intelligence agencies also need to pool in. Bilateral Agreements for Sharing Database: India can plug its loophole by sharing its ‘wanted’ database or providing access to it to foreign embassies on a reciprocal basis or through treaties or arrangements. All this will help detect possible plans of criminals to abscond abroad. Specialised set up for International Collaboration: The entire gamut of activities pertaining to fugitives, from investigation to extradition, needs to be incorporated into a specialised set-up with an Integrated International Cooperation Division (IICD) at the top. The IICD should have linkages with proposed fugitive tracking units at the State level. This would ensure that requisite expertise and forward-and-backward linkages are created. Note: What is a red notice? A request to law enforcement worldwide to locate and provisionally arrest a person pending extradition, surrender, or similar legal action. Not an international arrest warrant. Restricted to use by law enforcement agencies. At present, globally 7012 public red notices are in circulation in which 211 are Indian nationals, the agency’s data revealed. They include five women. News Source: Hindustan Times Centre seeks ₹1.5 lakh cr. in final tranche of supplementary demands for grants for FY23 Syllabus Prelims: Budget; Constitutional Provisions In News: The government has sought a final tranche of supplementary demands for grants for 2022-23 from Parliament, amounting to a net cash outgo of about ₹1.5 lakh crore, primarily to provide for fertiliser subsidies, defence pensions and GST compensation. Types of Grants Supplementary Grant: When the amount authorised by the Parliament through the appropriation act for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be insufficient for that year. Additional Grant: When a need has arisen during the current financial year for additional expenditure upon some new service not contemplated in the budget for that year. Excess Grant: When money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted for that service in the budget for that year. It is voted by the Lok Sabha after the financial year. Before the demands for excess grants are submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting, they must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament. Vote of Credit: For meeting an unexpected demand upon the resources of India, when on account of the magnitude or the indefinite character of the service, the demand cannot be stated with the details ordinarily given in a budget. Hence, it is like a blank cheque given to the Executive by the Lok Sabha. Exceptional Grant: For a special purpose and forms no part of the current service of any financial year. Token Grant: When funds to meet the proposed expenditure on a new service can be made available by re-appropriation. A demand for the grant of a token sum (of Re 1) is submitted to the vote of the Lok Sabha and if assented, funds are made available. Reappropriation involves transfer of funds from one head to another. It does not involve any additional expenditure. Note: Supplementary, additional, excess and exceptional grants and vote of credit are regulated by the same procedure which is applicable in the case of a regular budget. Constitutional Provisions Article 115 pertains to supplementary, additional or excess grants. Article 116 of the Constitution pertains to Votes on account, Votes of credit and exceptional grants. News Source: The Hindu Mount Merapi volcano Syllabus Prelims: Geography In News: Mount Merapi in Indonesia erupted with avalanches of searing gas clouds and lava. The eruption had blocked out the sun and blanketed several villages with falling ash. No casualties have been reported. Merapi is the most active of more than 120 active volcanoes in Indonesia and has repeatedly erupted with lava and gas clouds recently. Geographically, Located on the border between the province of Central Java and the Special Region of Yogyakarta, Indonesia. The youngest in a group of volcanoes in southern Java. Situated at a subduction zone, where the Indo-Australian Plate is subducting under the Sunda Plate. About Volcanoes A volcano is an opening or rupture in the earth’s surface that allows magma (hot liquid and semi-liquid rock), volcanic ash and gases to escape. Movement of molten rock in the mantle, caused by thermal convection currents, coupled with gravitational effects of changes on the earth’s surface (erosion, deposition, even asteroid impact and patterns of post-glacial rebound) drive plate tectonic motion and ultimately volcanism. The volcanic eruption could have implications for the local and regional environment like earthquakes, landslides, lahars (mudflows), ash and thunderstorms. Factors that lead to volcanism: Plate Tectonics: The majority of volcanoes occur where two lithospheric plates converge and one overrides the other, forcing it down into the mantle to be reabsorbed. Ocean floor spreading: A major site of active volcanism is along the axis of the oceanic ridge system, where the plates move apart on both sides of the ridge and magma wells up from the mantle. Weak Earth Surface: Because of high pressure in the earth’s interior, the magma and gases escape with great velocity as the pressure is released through eruptions where opportunity is provided by weak zones along the earth’s surface. Faults: Whenever extreme pressure builds in the mantle, along fault lines an eruption is likely to happen next. The earthquakes, for instance, may expose fault zones through which magma may escape. Magma crystallization: Decreasing temperatures can cause old magma to crystallize and sink to the bottom of the chamber and this movement can force fresh liquid magma up and out – similar to dropping a brick in a bucket of water. A decrease in external pressure: A decrease in external pressure can trigger an eruption as it may minimize the volcano’s ability to hold back by increasing the pressures inside the magma chamber Plate movement: Volcanism may occur because of plate movement over a “hot spot” from which magmas can penetrate to the surface. Ex. Islands of Hawaii After-effects Climate and ecosystem due to volcanic activity The gases and dust particles thrown into the atmosphere during volcanic eruptions have influences on climate. Volcanoes have also caused global warming over millions of years during times in Earth’s history when extreme amounts of volcanism occurred, releasing greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. Even though volcanoes are in specific places on Earth, their effects can be more widely distributed as gases, dust, and ash get into the atmosphere. This is due to the atmospheric circulation patterns, eruptions in the tropics can have an effect on the climate in both hemispheres. Eruptions at mid or high latitudes only have an impact on the hemisphere they are within. Geology landscapes due to volcanic activity Volcanic eruptions can create new landforms, such as volcanic islands and mountains, and deposit layers of ash and lava, which can change the soil composition and fertility. Volcanic activity can also create new mineral deposits, such as gold, silver, copper and other metals, which can become an important resource for human civilization. These mineral deposits can form in different ways, for example, in the form of veins and lodes, as well as in the form of volcanic-hosted massive sulfide deposits. The volcanic ash and rock fragments can also change the albedo of the region, which can affect the regional climate. Volcanic activity can also create geothermal areas, which can be used for power generation and other forms of economic development. Additionally, volcanic landscapes often have unique biodiversity, with many endemic species found only in these regions. However, volcanic activity can also be hazardous to human settlements and can lead to destructive events such as volcanic eruptions, ashfall, lahars, and volcanic gas emissions. These events can cause significant damage to infrastructure, agriculture, and human health, and can lead to displacement of populations. Economic development and human settlements Volcanic activity and the formation of volcanic landscapes can have both positive and negative impacts on human settlement and economic development. While they can be inhospitable and hazardous to human habitation, they can also provide opportunities for economic development. For example, Volcanic ash and rock fragments can be used for construction and road building, and volcanic landscapes often have unique biodiversity which can be utilized for tourism and recreation. Volcanic landscapes can also contain geothermal resources which can be used for power generation and other forms of economic development. Volcanic eruptions can cause significant damage to infrastructure, agriculture, and human health, and can lead to displacement of populations. Additionally, the rugged terrain and harsh climate of volcanic landscapes can make it difficult for people to settle in these regions. Note: The name Merapi is a compound of Sanskrit Meru meaning “mountain” with Javanese “api” which means “fire”. Thus Merapi can be loosely translated as “Mountain of Fire” or “Fire Mountain”. News Source: Indian Express Carbon Footprint of India’s Marine Fisheries Syllabus Prelims: Economy – Animal Husbandry In News: India’s marine fisheries produced 1.32 tonnes of carbon dioxide (CO2) to produce one kilogram of fish in 2016, lower than the global average of 2 tonnes. This estimate covers emissions during the entire chain of operations of marine fisheries — from the construction of boats to retail. The usual Carbon Footprint Active fishing consumes more than 90 per cent of the fuel used in the sector, contributing 4,934 million kilograms of CO2 emissions annually. The country’s carbon emissions from the marine mechanised fisheries sector is 16.3 per cent, lower than the global level. Because they depend largely on human force. Large mechanised fishing boats were introduced in India in the late 1950s, but the fleet size is growing. Their number increased to 72,559 in 2010 from 6,708 in 1961. In 2010, these boats with inboard engines released 1.18 tonnes CO2 per kilogram of fish caught. Impacts on marine ecosystems Marine ecosystems are changing due to an increase in the intensity of cyclones, sea-level rise and the warming of the Indian Ocean. The diversity of species is changing. During coral bleaching, for example, reef-associated fish deplete. Researchers are trying to identify critical climate change control points in the value chain system. Based on this, they will make relevant interventions. The Way Forward We need to look at how fishing contributes to climate change and how India can reduce carbon emissions from the fishing sector. To find greener fishing methods to reduce carbon emissions. This includes optimising fuel usage and reducing fuel wastage. Note: What is Carbon Footprint? Carbon footprint is the amount of greenhouse gases-especially carbon dioxide-released into the atmosphere by a particular human activity. It is expressed as a weight of CO2 emissions produced in tonnes. It can be a broad measure or be applied to the actions of an individual, a family, an event, an organization, or even an entire nation. Carbon footprint includes direct emissions, such as from driving a car, as well as whatever emissions are required to consume any goods and services (indirect) Carbon footprint is different from ecological footprint. While the carbon footprint measures the emission of gases that contribute to global warming, the ecological footprint focuses on measuring the use of bio-productive space. Effects of Higher Carbon Footprint Increase in Carbon dioxide concentration in atmosphere causes Global Warming i.e Greenhouse gas effect Climate Change Melting of Polar Caps Depletion of resources: Due to changed Carbon concentration in biosphere Increasing Incidents of Severe Weather Changes in food supply About Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute: Established in the government of India on 3 February 1947 under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare Later, in 1967, it joined the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) family and emerged as a leading tropical marine fisheries research institute in the world Headquarters: Kochi, Kerala Mandate: Monitor and assess the marine fisheries resources of the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) including the impact of climate and anthropogenic activity and develop sustainable fishery management plans. Basic and strategic research in mariculture to enhance production. Act as a repository of geo-spatial information on marine fishery resources and habitats. Consultancy services; and human resource development through training, education and extension News Source: Down to Earth SIPRI Report on Global Arms Import Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Security) Context: According to Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) report, India is the world’s largest arms importer for the period between 2018-22. About SIPRI: It was founded in 1966 by the Swedish parliament as an independent research institute. Its main objective is to conduct research on issues related to international peace and security, including arms control, disarmament, and conflict resolution. It is funded by a combination of government grants, private donations, and project-based funding. SIPRI is based in Stockholm, Sweden, but has a global reach and influence, with its research and analysis informing policy decisions and public debates in many countries. Key highlights of the report: Credits: SIPRI report India’s Arms Imports and Exports: India is the biggest arms export market to Russia, France, and Israel and the second largest export market to South Korea. India was also the third largest market for South Africa which was ranked 21 in the list of arms exporters. For the same period, India remained the largest arms importer followed by Saudi Arabia, with Russia accounting for 45% of India’s imports followed by France (29%) and the US (11%). India was the third largest arms supplier to Myanmar after Russia and China accounting for 14% of its imports. India is now looking to become a significant exporter of defence equipment by aiming for $5 billion in exports and $22 billion in turnover by 2025. Reasons for Decrease in India’s Arms Imports: India’s slow and complex arms procurement process, Efforts to diversify its arms suppliers, Attempts to replace imports with major arms that are designed and produced domestically. Global Arms Transfers: The global level of international arms transfers decreased by 5.1%, imports of major arms by European states increased by 47% between 2013–17 and 2018–22 in the backdrop of the war in Ukraine. Challenges of arms imports: Dependence on foreign suppliers: India remains heavily dependent on foreign suppliers for its arms imports, which can make it vulnerable to supply disruptions, geopolitical tensions, and changing global dynamics. Slow and complex procurement process: India’s arms procurement process is often slow and complex, which can delay the acquisition of necessary weapons and equipment. Domestic arms production: India is also attempting to produce more of its own arms domestically, but this requires significant investments in infrastructure, technology, and skilled labor. Replacement of imports: India is seeking to replace some of its imports with domestically designed and produced arms, but this process can be slow and challenging. Diversification of suppliers: India is making efforts to diversify its arms suppliers to reduce its dependence on any one country, but this process can be difficult and time-consuming. Government of India Initiatives to  steps domestic arms production and reduce the country’s reliance on arms imports: Make in India programme: The Make in India initiative encourages domestic production of defence equipment, including fighter jets, submarines, and helicopters, by providing incentives for private sector investment in the defence industry. Defence Manufacturing Policy: The government has formulated a Defence Manufacturing Policy that aims to create an ecosystem for domestic defence manufacturing, enhance self-reliance, and reduce dependence on imports. Strategic Partnership Model: The Strategic Partnership (SP) Model is a policy framework that allows private sector companies to partner with foreign Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEMs) to produce defence equipment in India. Technology Transfer: The government is encouraging technology transfer from foreign OEMs to Indian companies, enabling the latter to manufacture and maintain sophisticated defence equipment domestically. Defence Innovation Fund: The Defence Innovation Fund (DIF) has been set up to provide financial support to start-ups and MSMEs working on innovative defence technologies. Defence Exports: The government is promoting exports of defence equipment to other countries, which not only helps Indian defence manufacturers to grow but also enhances India’s reputation as a global defence supplier. Defence Corridors: The government has announced the establishment of two defence corridors, one in Uttar Pradesh and the other in Tamil Nadu, to promote defence manufacturing in these regions. Must Read: Self-Reliance in Defence Sector of India Source: Hindustan Times States demand that lightning be declared a natural disaster Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Disaster Management) Context: Recently few States have demanded that “lightning” be declared as a “natural disaster” because deaths caused by it surpass any other disaster in India. Presently Cyclone, drought, earthquake, fire, flood, tsunami, hailstorm, landslide, avalanche, cloudburst, pest attack, frost, and cold waves are covered under the State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) which is 75% funded by the Centre. About Lightning: Source: Science Learning Hub It is the natural process of “an electrical discharge of very little duration and high voltage between a cloud and the ground or within a cloud,” accompanied by a bright flash, a loud sound, and occasionally thunderstorms. During a storm, colliding particles of rain, ice, or snow inside storm clouds increase the imbalance between storm clouds and the ground, and often negatively charge the lower reaches of storm clouds. Objects on the ground, like steeples, trees, and the Earth itself, become positively charged—creating an imbalance that nature seeks to remedy by passing current between the two charges. Cloud-to-ground lightning bolts are a common phenomenon with about 100 striking Earth’s surface every second. A typical cloud-to-ground lightning bolt begins when a step-like series of negative charges, called a stepped leader, races downward from the bottom of a storm cloud toward the Earth along a channel at about 200,000 mph (300,000 kph). Lightning Strikes in India: According to a newly published yearly report on lightning from the Lightning Resilient India Campaign (LRIC), India may have seen up to 18.5 million lightning strikes between April 2020 and March 2021. Each year, lightning claims the lives of more than 2,500 Indians. Madhya Pradesh had the highest number of lightning-related deaths (162), followed by Maharashtra (121), Gujarat (72), Bihar (70), Rajasthan (49), and Chhattisgarh (40). India has experienced 90,632 deaths due to lightning strikes between 1972 and 2019. The Accidental Deaths & Suicides in India 2021 report confirms that 40.4% of deaths due to natural disasters took place due to lightning. 77% of farmers are killed due to lightning as they work in agricultural fields during the Kharif cropping season in the monsoon period. Challenges of Lightning in India Lack of awareness: There is a lack of awareness among the general public about the dangers of lightning, which often leads to fatalities and injuries. Poor lightning protection infrastructure: Most buildings and structures in India are not equipped with lightning protection systems, making them vulnerable to lightning strikes. High mortality rate: Lightning strikes kill more than 2,000 people in India every year, making it one of the deadliest weather-related hazards in the country. Climate change: Climate change is expected to increase the frequency and intensity of thunderstorms, which could lead to more lightning strikes in the future. Limited resources: India has limited resources to invest in lightning protection infrastructure and research, which makes it challenging to mitigate the risks associated with lightning. Limited lightning data: There is limited data on lightning strikes in India, which makes it difficult to develop effective lightning protection policies and strategies. Government steps for disaster management National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA): It was established in 2005 to provide a comprehensive and integrated approach to disaster management in the country. State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs): Each state has a separate SDMA which works in coordination with the NDMA and other agencies to mitigate the impact of disasters. Disaster Management Act, 2005: The act provides a legal framework for the management of disasters in the country and lays down the responsibilities of various agencies and authorities and outlines the procedures for disaster management. National Disaster Response Force (NDRF): The NDRF is a specialized force created to respond to disasters and provide relief & rescue operations and comprises battalions stationed across the country. Early Warning Systems: The government has set up early warning systems for various disasters, such as cyclones, earthquakes, floods, and landslides. These systems use technology to provide timely warnings to people in the affected areas. National Disaster Management Plan (NDMP): It is a comprehensive plan developed by the government to address all aspects of disaster management, including prevention, mitigation, and response. Way Forward: Thus, the government should include lightning as a “natural disaster” to minimise lightning-related deaths. Mapping vulnerable populations with potential lightning hotspots, improving early warning systems, and installing lightning detection systems are critical measures. Therefore, the government should prepare a database related to lightning strikes, gender-wise lightning deaths, and occupation-wise fatalities at the district, state, and central levels for devising an action plan against lightning strikes. MUST READ: Cloud bursts Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Which of the following can be effects of increased carbon footprint in the atmosphere? Greenhouse gas effect Climate Change Melting of Polar Caps Depletion of resources Changes in food supply Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 2 4 and 5 only 2 4 and 5 only 1 3 and 4 only All of the above Q.2) Consider the following : Plate tectonics Ocean floor spreading Magma crystallization Which of the above factors causes volcanic activities? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Supplementary Grant is the amount that has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted for that service in the budget for that year. Exceptional Grant is a special purpose and forms no part of the current service of any financial year. Excess Grant is the amount authorised by the Parliament through the appropriation act for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be insufficient for that year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 15th March 2023 – Daily  Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 14th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 9] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – ECONOMY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 9 -> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Multi-Angle Imager for Aerosols missions(MAIA) Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: NASA recently announced that it is partnering with the Italian Space Agency ASI (Agenzia Spaziale Italiana) to build and launch the Multi-Angle Imager for Aerosols missions(MAIA). About Multi-Angle Imager for Aerosols missions(MAIA):- It is a joint mission between NASA and the Italian Space Agency ASI. The MAIA observatory is set to launch before the end of 2024. Aim: to investigate the health impacts of air pollution in the world’s most populated cities. It will consist of the PLATiNO-2 satellite, which will be provided by ASI, and a science instrument that will be built at NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL). It includes a push broom spectropolarimetric camera on a two-axis gimbal for multi-angle viewing, frequent target revisits, and inflight calibration. The observatory, ground-based sensors, and atmospheric models will all be used in the MAIA mission’s data collection and analysis. In order to better comprehend the connections that exist between aerosol pollutants and health issues such as adverse birth outcomes, cardiovascular and respiratory diseases, and premature deaths, researchers will combine MAIA measurements with population health records as part of the MAIA investigation. During the course of the three-year mission, MAIA will focus on 11 primary target areas that include: Los Angeles, Atlanta, Boston, Rome, Addis Ababa, Ethiopia, Barcelona, Spain, Beijing, Johannesburg, New Delhi, Taipei, Taiwan; and Tel Aviv. MUST READ: Mission Shakti and Aditya-L1 mission Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Satellites used for telecommunication relays are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when: (2011) The orbit is geosynchronous. The orbit is circular, The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth’s equator. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1, 2, and 3 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2,3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following pair is/are correctly matched? (2014) Spacecraft                                Purpose Cassini-Huygens           Orbiting Venus and transmitting data to the Earth Messenger                    Mapping and investigating the Mercury Voyager 1 and 2           Exploring the outer solar system Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 United Nations’ list of least developed countries Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context :  Bhutan’s graduation from the ‘Least Developed Country’ status was highlighted by recent reports. About United Nations’ list of  least developed countries:- IMAGE SOURCE: unctad.org It is released by the UNCTAD (United Nations Conference on Trade and Development). The list of LDCs is reviewed every three years by the Committee for Development Policy (CDP), a group of independent experts that report to the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of the United Nations. Following a triennial review of the list, the CDP may recommend, in its report to ECOSOC, countries for addition to the list or graduation from LDC status. LDCs will have to invest $485 billion annually to eradicate extreme poverty. LDCs will have to invest $462 billion annually to meet the target of achieving a 7% annual GDP growth. The level of LDC’s public expenditure will have to increase by 12.3% from the current 2.9% of GDP to reach major social and environmental targets of the Sustainable Development Goals. Least developing countries criteria:- The countries are measured on the basis of the following three parameters:- Income Criteria: The threshold for inclusion in this category of countries is an income of $1,018 or below. Human assets index (HAI): It consists of a health sub-index and an education sub-index. The thresholds for inclusion are a composite score of 60 or below. Economic and environmental vulnerability index: It consists of two sub-indices -an economic vulnerability sub-index and an environmental vulnerability sub-index. The thresholds for inclusion are a composite score of 36 or above. Concessions associated with LDC status include benefits in the areas of:- Development financing, notably grants and loans from donors and financial institutions. Multilateral trading system, such as preferential market access and special treatments. Technical assistance, notably, toward trade mainstreaming (Enhanced Integrated Framework) Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its members States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3, and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2017) The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Oscars award 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture and Environment and Ecology Context: India shines bright at the recently held Oscars 2023 ceremony. About Oscars:- The Oscars, also known as the Academy Awards, are widely considered to be one of the most prestigious awards in the film industry. The Oscars are decided by the voting members of the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences, which is made up of a relatively small group of industry professionals. As such, the nominees and winners are often determined by factors such as industry politics, personal relationships, and even campaigning and lobbying by studios and filmmakers. The Oscars 2023 was the 95th Academy Awards ceremony. Categories Under Which India Nominated for Oscars 2023:- Best Original Song Category – ”Naatu Naatu” from the movie RRR, which recently won Golden Globe. Best Documentary Short category – ‘‘The Elephant Whisperers”, directed by, Kartiki Gonsalves. Best Documentary Feature category – Shaunak Sen’s acclaimed ”All that Breathes.”. Categories Under Which India won Oscars 2023:- Best Original Song Category – ”Naatu Naatu” from the movie RRR. Naatu Naatu‘ is an Indian Telugu-language song from the movie ‘RRR’. The song was composed by M.M. Keeravani, lyrics of the song were written by Chandrabose and recorded by Rahul Sipligunj & Kaala Bhairava. Best Documentary Short category – ‘‘The Elephant Whisperers”, directed by, Kartiki Gonsalves. The duo of Kartiki Gonsalves and Guneet Monga have produced a stellar documentary named ‘The Elephant Whisperers’, the film has earned an Oscar for itself in the Oscars 2023. The bond between an orphaned baby elephant and a couple is the central theme of the documentary. Naatu Naatu was the first Indian win in the Best original song category, and Gonsalves the first Indian to win in the short documentary category. MUST READ :  ELEPHANT CONSERVATION Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)  With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements: (2020) The leader of an elephant group is a female The maximum gestation period can be 22 months An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 3, and 4 only Q.2)Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 International Panel of Experts on Sustainable Food Systems (IPES-Food) Report Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: The recent IPES report highlights the global hunger crisis amid high debt. About the International Panel of Experts on Sustainable Food Systems (IPES-Food) Report:- It is released by IPES-Food. IPES-Food is an independent panel of experts shaping debates on how to transition to sustainable food systems around the world. It is a diverse and independent panel of experts guided by new ways of thinking about research, sustainability, and food systems. Key Findings:- At least 21 countries including Afghanistan, Cameroon, Ethiopia, Haiti, Lebanon, Somalia, Sri Lanka, Sudan, and Zimbabwe were nearing catastrophic levels of both debt distress and rising hunger in 2022. The world’s poorest countries saw the costs of servicing their debt increase by 35 percent in 2022. 62 developing countries spent more on debt payments than on healthcare during the first year of the COVID-19 pandemic. In 2022, poorer countries paid 47 percent of external debt payments to private lenders, 12 percent to China, 14 percent to other governments, and the remaining 27 percent to multilateral institutions like the International Monetary Fund. Africa’s food import dependency has tripled in recent decades, leaving countries exposed to food price spikes like in 2022. Import dependencies, extractive financial flows, boom-bust commodity cycles, and climate-vulnerable food systems are combining to destabilize the finances of the world’s poorest countries. Concessions associated with LDC status include benefits in the areas of: Development financing, notably grants and loans from donors and financial institutions. Multilateral trading system, such as preferential market access and special treatments. Technical assistance, notably, toward trade mainstreaming (Enhanced Integrated Framework). MUST READ: Global Hunger Index Source: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements: (2021) The ‘Climate-Smart village’ approach in India is part of a project led by climate change, Agriculture, and food security (CCAFS), an international research programme. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’S research centers. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘’New York Declaration on Forests’’, which of the following statements is correct? (2021) It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014 It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests It is a legally binding international declaration It is endorsed by governments, big companies, and indigenous communities. India was one of the signatories at its inception Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 5 only 3 and 4 only 2 and 5 only Australia, United States, and United Kingdom (AUKUS) Alliance Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context:  AUKUS meet was held recently. About Australia, United States, and United Kingdom (AUKUS) Alliance:- It is a trilateral security partnership for the Indo-Pacific, between Australia, the UK, and the US (AUKUS). It is based on a shared commitment of its three members to deepen diplomatic, security, and defense cooperation in the Indo-Pacific. Under it, the U.S., and the U.K. will help Australia deploy nuclear-powered submarines in the Pacific region. The focus would be on protecting shared values and promoting security and prosperity in the Indo-Pacific region. Significance of AUKUS Alliance:- It will involve a new architecture of engagements across emerging technologies such as artificial intelligence, quantum technologies, cyber capabilities, and additional undersea capabilities. It will help Australia to acquire nuclear-powered submarines (SSNs) in cooperation with the UK & the US. AUKUS will contain the rise of China, particularly its rapid militarisation and aggressive behavior in the Pacific region, especially in and around the South China Sea. It also gives US focus for its post-Afghanistan tilt to Asia. The AUKUS deal seeks to address core US concerns of regional security, deterrence, and balance of power in the Indo-Pacific.  It will enhance Australia’s contribution to its other partnerships, including the QUAD. The Quad and AUKUS are distinct, yet complementary. MUST READ: QUAD Source:  THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is/are the consequence /consequences of a country becoming a member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’? (2018) It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Compassionate Appointment Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: In a recent judgment, the Supreme Court rejected some applications for ‘compassionate appointment’ that were filed by the dependents of deceased government employees in West Bengal. About Compassionate Appointment:- Background:- The concept of compassionate appointments can be traced to the Indian Constitution’s Article 39. Art 39 is under the Directive Principles of State Policy and talks about the right to livelihood. Compassionate Appointment aims to provide employment on compassionate grounds to the dependent family members of a government servant who dies in harness or retires on medical grounds, leaving the family without any source of sustenance. These appointments can only be made for “Group ‘C’ posts against the direct recruitment quota. Eligibility:- Compassionate appointments can extend to dependent family members of a government servant who:- Dies while in service (including death by suicide). Retired on medical grounds. The measure can also extend to the family members of an Armed Forces employee who:- Dies during service. Is killed in action. Is medically boarded out and is unfit for civil employment. The government servant must have been appointed on a “regular basis” and not on a daily wage, casual, apprentice, ad-hoc, contract, or reemployment basis. The deceased’s dependents can only be first[1]degree relations such as their spouse, son, or daughter (including adopted ones), etc. The applicant should also be eligible and suitable for the post. Appointment Authority: – Compassionate appointments are made by either the Joint Secretary in charge of administration in the Ministry or the Department concerned or the Head of the Department. They can also be made by the Secretary of a Ministry or Department in special cases. Supreme Court judgments:- In its decision, the apex court cited its rulings from 2008 and 2014 in the cases of “Mumtaz Yunus Mulani vs, the State of Maharashtra and State Bank of India vs. Surya Narain Tripathi” respectively, to say that “the existence of a policy issued by the State Government is a sine qua non for making appointments on the compassionate basis“. Observing the absence of a policy governing compassionate appointments the Court refused to grant the posts under local authorities in West Bengal. Moreover, the Court said that even if the policy existed, it would be of no use to consider the applications several years after they were filed. The Court also referred to a slew of its rulings from 1989 and 1994 in Sushma Gosain vs. Union of India and Umesh Kumar Nagpal vs. the State of Haryana respectively, to say that there shouldn’t be any delay in compassionate appointments and the same should be “provided immediately to redeem the family in distress”, provided that the government or public authority examines the financial condition of the deceased’s family and is satisfied that the family will not be able to meet the crisis. MUST READ : Fundamental Rights Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Under the Indian constitution concentration of wealth violates (2021) The Right to Equality The Directive Principles of State Policy The Right to Freedom The Concept of Welfare Q.2) With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements. (2021) Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India A High court in India has the power to review its own judgment as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Fluorescence Microscopy Syllabus    Prelims –Science and Technology About Fluorescence Microscopy:- Fluorescence microscope combines the magnifying properties of a light microscope with visualization of fluorescence. Fluorescence microscope is a type of light microscope that instead of utilizing visible light to illuminate specimens, uses a higher intensity (lower wavelength) light source that excites a fluorescent molecule called a fluorophore (also known as fluorochrome). Fluorescence: a phenomenon that takes place when the substances (fluorophore) absorb light at a given wavelength and emits light at a higher wavelength. Fluorescence microscopy combines the magnifying properties of the light microscope with fluorescence technology. Technique:- The setup consists of two plexiglass surfaces, an LED flashlight, three theatre stage-lighting filters, a clip-on macro lens, and a smartphone. The smartphone (with the lens attached) is placed on one surface that is suspended at a height (say, a foot above). The second sheet is placed below and holds the object. One of the stage-lighting filters is held between the flashlight and the object and the other two were held between the object and the smartphone. The sources of illumination were also LED flashlights emitting light of correspondingly different wavelengths. Applications:- Fluorescence microscope is one of the most powerful techniques in biomedical research and clinical pathology. Fluorescence microscope allows the use of multicolour staining, labelling of structures within cells, and the measurement of the physiological state of a cell. Fluorescence microscope helps in observing the texture and structure of coal. To study porosity in ceramics, using a fluorescent dye. To identify the Mycobacterium tuberculosis. MUST READ : India’s TB Elimination Programme Source: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, ‘Pronuclear Transfer” is used for (2020) Fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor sperm Genetic modification of sperm-producing cells Development of stem cells into functional embryos Prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring Adultery as misconduct and judicial musings Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently the Union Govt sought clarification from the Supreme Court on applicability of its judgement on Adultery on armed forces. About Adultery in India: Credits: Times of India Adultery is a voluntary sexual relationship between a married person and someone who is not their spouse. The Supreme Court of India decriminalized adultery more than four years ago in a landmark judgment, Joseph Shine versus Union of India in 2018. Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code (on adultery) along with Section 198 of the Criminal Procedure Code were held to be unconstitutional on the premise that these provisions were violative of Articles 14, 15 and 21 of the Constitution of India. This law made it a crime for a man to have sexual intercourse with the wife of another man without that man’s consent. The law treated women as the property of their husbands and did not provide for any punishment for women who committed adultery. Currently, in India, adultery is not considered a crime, but it can be a ground for divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, and the Special Marriage Act, 1954. In addition, adultery can be considered as ‘misconduct’ under the relevant Service Conduct Rules for government servants, including those in the armed forces. However, any disciplinary action taken by the employer must have a direct or indirect nexus with the employee’s duties, and cannot be arbitrary or infringe on their right to privacy. Important judicial pronouncements regarding Adultery The Indian Penal Code, 1860: Section 497 of the IPC dealt with adultery until it was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2018. Yusuf Aziz v. State of Bombay (1954): The case upheld the constitutional validity of Section 497 of the IPC, stating that the law did not discriminate against men and that the adultery law protected the sanctity of marriage. Sowmithri Vishnu v. Union of India (1985): The Supreme Court held that Section 497 of the IPC was violative of Articles 14 and 15 of the Constitution of India, as it only criminalized sexual intercourse with a married woman without the consent of her husband and did not punish women for adultery. Revathi v. Union of India (1988): In this case, the Supreme Court held that Section 497 of the IPC was discriminatory against women and violated the Constitution of India and observed that adultery is a private matter between adults and the state has no business to interfere. Joseph Shine v. Union of India (2018): The Supreme Court in this case declared Section 497 of the IPC unconstitutional and struck it down holding that the provision was archaic and violated the fundamental right to equality and personal liberty enshrined in the Constitution. Challenges of Adultery: With the decriminalization of adultery in India, employers are limited in their ability to discipline employees for their private affairs. The courts have provided some guidance on this issue, stating that misconduct must have some nexus with the employee’s duties in order to be subject to disciplinary action. There are cases in which allegations of adultery have directly or indirectly been used as a tool to hamper the employee’s ability to discharge their duties or maintain discipline within the workplace. Determining whether or not an act of adultery has a nexus with an employee’s duties can be a challenging task, particularly in cases where the alleged act is consensual and voluntary. There is ambiguity regarding whether the armed forces may still take disciplinary action for adulterous acts under their special legislations. Suggestive measures: Gender equality: Adultery is often seen as a crime committed by men against women, but women can also be perpetrators of adultery which can be reduced by empowering women. Legal reforms: The laws governing adultery in India have been widely criticized as being archaic and outdated which can be reformed to make it more equitable, with equal punishment for both men and women, and with provisions to prevent the misuse of the law. Education and awareness: Educating people about the importance of fidelity and the negative consequences of adultery could help to reduce its occurrence through schools, community organizations, and the media. Way Forward: The SC rulings clarifying the application of adultery laws in the armed forces highlights the need for a clear nexus between the adulterous act and the professional duties of the personnel. The government and armed forces should now focus on establishing guidelines and protocols to ensure that personal conduct does not affect the professional duties of their personnel, while respecting their private space and individual rights. Source: The Hindu The rise of the ESG regulations Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 4 (Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude) Context: Over the last decade, regulators and corporations around the world have embraced the idea of ESG (Environmental, Social and Governance). About ESG: ESG refers to three key factors considered by investors and stakeholders when evaluating a company’s sustainability and societal impact Environmental factors : It relate to a company’s impact on the natural environment, including energy use, greenhouse gas emissions, waste management, and resource consumption Social factors: It refer to a company’s impact on society, including relationships with employees, customers, suppliers, and communities Governance factors: It focus on a company’s management and decision-making structures, including board composition, executive compensation, and transparency. How ESG differs from CSR?   Image source: researchgate.net India has a robust corporate social responsibility (CSR) policy that mandates that corporations engage in initiatives that contribute to the welfare of society. This mandate was codified into law with the passage of the 2014 and 2021 amendments to the Companies Act of 2013 which requires: Companies with a net worth of Rs. 500 crore (approximately $60 million) or a minimum turnover of Rs. 1,000 crore (approximately $120 million) or a net profit of Rs. 5 crore (approximately $6,05,800) in any given financial year. Companies spend at least 2% of their net profit over the preceding three years on CSR activities. Significance of ESG: Companies demonstrating good ESG practices may benefit from reduced operational costs, better risk management, and enhanced reputation among consumers and investors Investors recognize the importance of ESG factors in evaluating long-term sustainability and profitability of companies Companies neglecting ESG considerations may face reputational damage, regulatory scrutiny, and increased operational costs. Many consumers and employees also consider ESG factors when making decisions about which companies to support or work for. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) revised the annual Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR). It was a notable departure from previous disclosure requirements. New disclosures range from greenhouse gas emissions to the company’s gender and social diversity. India has long had a number of laws and bodies regarding environmental, social and governance issues, including: the Environment Protection Act of 1986, quasi-judicial organisations such as the National Green Tribunal, a range of labour codes and laws governing employee engagement and corporate governance practices. Reserve Bank of India announced recently that it would be auctioning ₹80 billion ($981 million) in green bonds. Implications for Indian companies Compliance: In particular, compliance by Indian companies with the ESG regulations of the U.S., the U.K., the European Union and elsewhere will be critical if India is to take full advantage of the growing decoupling from China and play a more prominent role in global supply chains and the global marketplace overall. Due diligence: As Indian companies look to expand their ESG risk management, thorough due diligence will play a key role. This can include: looking at company records, interviewing former employees and making discreet visits to observe operations to ensure that the measures to comply with international ESG standards are in effect. Companies that wish to maximise their opportunities in the global economy need to embrace these new requirements and adjust their organisations accordingly. Way Forward: The evolution of ESG laws and regulations needs controls and disclosure that are a hallmark of contemporary ESG regulation. There is also a need to further bring legislation by the Indian government on ESG issues, which can be seen in India’s more active role in global climate forums and secure long-term growth in today’s business landscape. Thus Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) factors are increasingly important considerations for investors and stakeholders when evaluating the sustainability and societal impact of a company. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Which of the following short documentary has won Oscars award 2023 from India? The Elephant Whisperers Jallikattu All That Breathes Chhello Show Q.2) Which of the following countries is not part of AUKUS alliance which was in news recently? USA United Kingdom South Korea Australia Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Fluorescence Microscopy: Fluorescence microscope combines the magnifying properties of a light microscope with visualization of fluorescence. Fluorescence microscope allows the use of multicolour staining, labelling of structures within cells, and the measurement of the physiological state of a cell. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 14th March – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 13th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }