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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Start-ups, Women and Youth Advantage Through e-transactions (SWAYATT ), Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA-Bharat), National Cooperative Union of India (NCUI), and Small Farmers Agri Consortium (SFAC) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently,  the Government e-Marketplace (GeM) commemorated the success of the “SWAYATT” initiative. About Start-ups, Women and Youth Advantage Through e-transactions (SWAYATT ): SWAYATT”, is an initiative to promote Start-ups, Women, and Youth advantage through e-Transactions on the Government eMarketplace (GeM). Ministry: Ministry of Commerce & Industry The initiative to promote “Start-ups, Women and Youth Advantage Through e-transactions” (SWAYATT) on GeM was first launched in February 2019. This will bring together the key stakeholders within the Indian entrepreneurial ecosystem to the Government e-Marketplace the national procurement portal. About Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA-Bharat) : It is a federation of women-led institutions providing economic and social support to women in the informal economy. It is part of the national SEWA movement and was established in 1984. It emerged out of the need to address the SEWA movement’s challenges with geographical expansion and coordination. It is a family of SEWA organizations to further informal women workers’ rights, livelihoods, financial independence, education, health, and social security. SEWA organizes workers to achieve their goals of full employment and self-reliance through the strategy of struggle and development. About National Cooperative Union of India (NCUI): NCUI was established in 1929. It is an all-India Co-operative Institutes Association and was re-named National Co-operative Union of India in 1961. It is an apex Cooperative organization representing the entire Indian Cooperative Movement established in 1929. The Cooperative Education Field Project was introduced in Nagaland in 2002 with its Head Office in New Delhi. Objectives: to promote and develop the co-operative movement in India to educate, guide and assist the people in their efforts to build up and expand the co-operative sector NCUI membership is open to national and state-level co-operative organizations as well as multi-state co-operative societies. As of 30th June 2016, NCUI had 260 members, including, 17 National, 163 State, and 80 Multi-State Cooperatives. About Small Farmers Agri Consortium (SFAC): Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is an Autonomous Society promoted by the Ministry of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers’ Welfare, Government of India. It was registered under the Societies Registration Act XXI of 1860 in 1994. The Society is governed by a Board of Management which is chaired, ex-officio, by the hon’ble Union minister for Agriculture and Farmers Welfare as the President and the Secretary, Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare, Government of India, is the ex-officio Vice-President. SFAC is implementing the central schemes of the Government of India namely VCA, and EGCGS for the economic inclusion of small and marginal farmers in agribusiness activities. Society is a pioneer in organizing small and marginal farmers such as Farmer’s Interest Groups, Farmer’s Producers Organizations, and Farmer’s Producers Companies for endowing them with bargaining power and economies of scale. It provides a platform for increased accessibility and cheaper availability of agricultural inputs to small and marginal farmers and for establishing forward and backward linkages in supply chain management. Recently the Society has been entrusted with the task of implementing the critically important Delhi Kisan Mandi and National Agriculture Market Scheme on an e-platform to progressively free agricultural trade and offer price discovery to farmers. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 United Nations Committee on Economic, Social, and Cultural Rights Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: The representatives of fugitive ‘godman’ Nithyananda’s self-proclaimed country, the United States of Kailasa (USK), attended a discussion conducted by the United Nations Committee on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (CESCR) recently. About United Nations Committee on Economic, Social, and Cultural Rights: The Committee on Economic, Social, and Cultural Rights (CESCR) is the body of 18 independent experts that monitors the implementation of the International Covenant on Economic, Social, and Cultural Rights by its States parties. It was established under ECOSOC Resolution 1985/17 in 1985. All States parties are obliged to submit regular reports to the Committee on how economic, social, and cultural rights are being implemented. States must report initially within two years of accepting the Covenant and thereafter every five years.  The Committee examines each report and addresses its concerns and recommendations to the State party in the form of “concluding observations”. The Optional Protocol to the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, which entered into force in 2013, gives the Committee competence to receive and consider communications from individuals claiming that their rights under the Covenant have been violated. The Committee meets in Geneva and normally holds two sessions per year. Objectives : to carry out the monitoring functions assigned to the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) in Part IV of the Covenant. Drawing on the legal and practical expertise of its members. It also helps States in fulfilling their obligations under the Covenant by issuing specific legislative, policy, and other recommendations so that economic, social, and cultural rights are better protected. It seeks to: develop a constructive dialogue with State parties determine whether the Covenant’s norms are being applied in State parties assess how the implementation and enforcement of the Covenant could be improved Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1.In which one of the following groups are all four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey Australia, Canada, Malaysia, and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and Vietnam Indonesia, Japan, Singapore, and South Korea Q.2. Which of the following is/are the indicator/indicators used by IFPRI to compute the Global Hunger Index Report? Undernourishment Child stunting Child mortality Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only Q3. With reference to ‘The Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)’, consider the following statements : (2016) It is an organization of the European Union in working relation with NATO and WHO. It monitors the chemical industry to prevent new weapons from emerging. It provides assistance and protection to States (Parties) against chemical weapons threats. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Windsor Framework Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy, International Relations Context: Recently, the UK government reached a landmark deal with the European Union (EU) on post-Brexit trade rules that will govern Northern Ireland. About Windsor Framework: The ‘Windsor Framework’ will replace the Northern Ireland Protocol, which had proved to be among the thorniest of Brexit fall-outs, creating problems both economic and political. The Northern Ireland Protocol: The Northern Ireland Protocol is a trading agreement that was negotiated in 2020 between the U.K. and the E.U. Under the protocol, both the U.K. and E.U. agreed that the inspection of goods would be conducted between Great Britain and Northern Ireland. Northern Ireland remained in the EU single market, and trade-and-customs inspections of goods coming from Great Britain took place at its ports along the Irish Sea. Issues related to the Northern Ireland Protocol : The protocol has led to political division in Northern Ireland. The checks made trade between Great Britain and Northern Ireland cumbersome, with food products, especially, losing out on shelf life while they waited for clearance. Some taxation and spending policies of the UK government could not be implemented in Northern Ireland because of EU rules. The sale of medicines, too, was caught between different British and EU rules. Salient features of the Windsor Framework: The framework has two crucial aspects: Introduction of a green lane and red lane system – For goods that will stay in Northern Ireland and those that will go to the EU respectively. The Stormont Brake – it allows Northern Ireland lawmakers and London to veto any EU regulation they believe affects the region adversely. The two-lane system– British goods meant for Northern Ireland will use the green lane at the ports and will be allowed to pass with minimal paperwork and checks. Physical checks will be conducted if the goods are deemed suspicious, in place of the routine checks now. Goods destined for Ireland or the rest of the EU will have to take the red lane, with the attendant customs and other checks. Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1. With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2. The term ‘Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership’ often appears in the news in the context of the affairs of a group of countries known as : (2016) G20 ASEAN SCO SAARC Grievance Appellate Committee (GAC) portal Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology launched the Grievance Appellate Committee (GAC) portal. About Grievance Appellate Committee (GAC): The Grievance Appellate Committee (GAC) is established under the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 [“IT Rules”], made under the Information Technology Act, 2000. The IT Rules and GAC aim to ensure a Safe & Trusted and Accountable Internet for Indian users. The GAC is an online dispute resolution mechanism. The GAC deals with the appeals of users (Digital Nagriks) aggrieved by decisions of Grievance Officers of social media intermediaries and other intermediaries on complaints of users or victims against violation of the IT Rules and any other matters pertaining to the computer resources made available by the intermediaries. The Committee will try to respond to the user’s appeal within 30 days. Within 24 hours of receiving the complaint, this official is required to acknowledge it and offer a resolution within 15 days. It is required that complaints connected to crimes against women be handled within 24 hours in specific situations. About the GAC portal : It will be a virtual Digital platform that will operate only online and digitally The entire appeal process, from the filing of the appeal to the decision thereof, shall be conducted digitally through the new portal. The new portal lists detailed FAQs for the convenience of users. The appellants can track the status of their appeal through the Appellant Login window. GAC will upload its order on the portal, and the appellant will receive notification of the same by SMS and email. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1. With reference to the funds under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements is correct? (2020) MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 4 only Q.2. Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan is a national campaign to (2016) Rehabilitate the homeless and destitute persons and provide them with suitable sources of livelihood Release the sex workers from their practice and provide them with alternative sources of livelihood Eradicate the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitate the manual scavengers Release the bonded laborers from their bondage and rehabilitate them Decarbonizing India: Iron and Steel Sector report Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: A new report by the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) claims that India’s iron and steel sector can produce fewer emissions and increase its output at the same time. About Decarbonizing India: Iron and Steel Sector report: The iron and steel sector is a hard-to-abate sector in terms of greenhouse gas emissions, but it is an equally critical contributor to the economic development of the country. India is the second-largest producer of crude steel in the world and plans to almost triple its production by 2030 The report(Decarbonizing India: Iron and Steel Sector) was released by the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE). According to it India’s iron and steel sector can produce fewer emissions and increase its output at the same time. The analysis shows that it is possible to bring down carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions from our iron and steel sector drastically by 2030, while more than doubling India’s output of steel. emissions from crude steel production are estimated to grow to almost 2.5 times by 2030. This report provides a detailed insight into the GHG emissions of the iron and steel sector and its future emission scenarios for 2030 -the report provides, based on available information, unit and company-wise data on emissions, which will help design the road ahead. The report suggests a roadmap for the sector, highlighting the pathways for GHG emissions reduction. The assessment clearly finds there are huge opportunities to bend the carbon dioxide curve for this emission-intensive sector, but it will need planning, technology and adequate funds. About Iron and Steel Industry in India : India surpassed Japan as the second top steel producer in 2019. India was the world’s second-largest steel producer. China remains the world’s largest crude steel producer . India is the largest producer of sponge iron in the world and the 3rd largest finished steel consumer in the world after China & USA. The Government has taken various steps to boost the sector including the introduction of the National Steel Policy 2017 and allowing 100 per cent Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the steel sector under the automatic route. The  beginning of the Iron and steel industry was in 1907 with the setting up of the TISCO plant at Jamshedpur. The development of the Iron and Steel industry was envisaged during the first five-year plan (FYP), but it was during the second FYP that three integrated projects were started at Bhilai (with erstwhile USSR technical and financial support), Rourkela (with German assistance) and Durgapur (with U.K assistance) During the third FYP, the Bokaro steel plant was started (production started in 1972) Steel Authority of India (SAIL) Established in 1973, SAIL is a government undertaking and is responsible for the management of steel plants Distribution of Iron ores: The Chota Nagpur plateau is home to all of India’s major steel-making centres, which are spread across four states: West Bengal, Jharkhand, Orissa, and Chhattisgarh. Major Steel Industries  : TISCO -Jamshedpur, Jharkhand The Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel Plant -Bhadravati, Karnataka Bhilai Steel Plant – Chhattisgarh Rourkela Steel Plant-Odisha Durgapur Steel Plant- West Bengal Bokaro Steel Plant-Jharkhand Salem Steel Plant-Tamil Nadu Visakhapatnam Steel Plant- Andhra Pradesh MUST READ: Iron Ore Source: DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1. Steel slag can be the material for which of the following? (2020) Construction of base road Improvement of agricultural soil Production of cement Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2. Consider the following minerals: Bentonite Chromite Kyanite Sillimanite In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals? (2020) 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only Proton beam therapy Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recent studies talk about the inaccessibility of Proton beam therapy for many with cancer. About Proton beam therapy treatment: Proton therapy is a type of radiation therapy, that uses high-powered energy to treat cancer and some noncancerous tumors. Proton therapy is a newer type of radiation therapy that uses energy from positively charged particles (protons). Proton therapy has shown promise in treating several kinds of cancer. It may cause fewer side effects than traditional radiation since doctors can better control where the proton beams deliver their energy. Proton therapy accurately targets very specific locations, which may result in less damage to surrounding tissues while conventional radiation therapy is less targeted, and more “normal” cells in the region of a tumor may be damaged. Proton beam therapy is not one single type of treatment, but rather there are different types and methods. Advantages : Precise delivery with less long-term damage It may allow a ‘Higher Radiation Dose’ It causes less damage to surrounding tissues and fewer long-term risks Proton Beams are easier to control It can be well tolerated It can be used for inoperable Tumors Disadvantages It may miss cancer outside the radiation field. At the current time, proton beam therapy is roughly twice as expensive as conventional radiation therapy. Challenges with proton therapy include motion management and changes in anatomy that take place before and during treatment.11 Limited availability  of proton beam therapy centers. Applications: Proton therapy is sometimes used to treat: Brain tumors, various cancer types including breast cancer, Lymphoma, Pituitary gland tumors etc. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1. Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens. Q.2.  In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements: (2021) Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of the egg. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from the mother and not from the father. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Dengue and DNA vaccines Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science, and Technology Context: Recent research announced that India’s first and only DNA vaccine for dengue has shown promising results. About Dengue: Dengue is a vector-borne disease transmitted by the bite of an infected female Aedes Aegypti mosquito. The mosquito becomes infected when it feeds on the blood of a person infected with the virus. There are 4 serotypes of the virus that causes dengue. These are known as DEN-1, DEN-2, DEN-3, and DEN-4. Dengue cannot be spread directly from person to person. Most cases occur in tropical areas of the world, including the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, Southern China, Taiwan, the Pacific Islands, the Caribbean, Mexico, Africa, and Central, and South America. Symptoms include: High fever, Headache, Vomiting, Muscle and joint pains, Skin Rash The diagnosis of dengue infection is done with a blood test. WHO estimates 39 crore dengue virus infections per year, of which 9.6 crore show symptoms. About DNA Vaccines : DNA vaccines are often referred to as third-generation vaccines. They use engineered DNA to induce an immunologic response in the host against bacteria, parasites, viruses, and potentially cancer. The vaccines that are currently available to the global population include those for measles, mumps, rubella, seasonal influenza virus, tetanus, polio, Hepatitis B, cervical cancer, diphtheria, pertussis as well as several other diseases that are endemic to certain regions of the world. Working : DNA vaccines induce an adaptive immune response. The basic working principle behind any DNA vaccine involves the use of a DNA plasmid that encodes for a protein that originated from the pathogen in which the vaccine will be targeted. More specifically, these vaccines expose the immune system to the target pathogen elements, which allows the immune system to develop antibodies that can recognize and attack this infectious agent if the vaccinated host encounters this pathogen in the future. DNA Vaccine and COVID-19: In September 2021, India gave emergency authorization to the world’s first DNA vaccine for human use called ZyCoV-D. The vaccine was developed by the Zydus Cadila pharmaceutical company. It was approved for emergency use in adults and in children 12 and older. Advantages of DNA Vaccine: They can be developed quickly. They are easy to transport and store. It’s less expensive to make and purify large amounts of DNA from viruses or bacteria than to create traditional vaccines. Disadvantages of DNA Vaccines: Limited approvals: as of 2021, the FDA had approved the DNA vaccine only for use in certain animal diseases, such as West Nile Virus in horses and melanoma in dogs. More research into the use of DNA vaccines against COVID-19 and other diseases caused by viruses or bacteria is required. Scientists still do not properly understand much of the immune response caused by DNA vaccines. Limited data is available on their safety, possible side effects, and effectiveness. Source: DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: (2021) Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Indo-German Relations Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: Recently, German Chancellor Olaf Scholz came to India on a bilateral visit. Key outcomes of the bilateral meeting     Green and Sustainable Development Partnership (GSDP): GSDP is an umbrella partnership that provides political guidance and steer to robust ties in climate action and SDGs. Under this, Germany will place €10 billion in new and additional commitments under their development cooperation portfolio in India. India-Germany agreed on a vision statement to Enhance Cooperation in Innovation and Technology. Under the framework of the Inter-Governmental Agreement on ‘Cooperation in Scientific Research and Technological Development’, the two countries share a long history of cooperation in science and technology, research and innovation. Cooperation in Green Hydrogen: For this, the Indo-German Green Hydrogen Task Force was constituted in September 2022. Triangular Development Cooperation: India and Germany agreed to work on development projects in third countries. Both sides concluded agreements on “Digital Transformation, FinTech, IT, Telecom and Supply chains’ diversification”. Indo – German Bilateral Relations: Germany is one of India’s most important partners in Europe owing to the strength of bilateral relations, as also Germany’s key role in the EU. India was among the first countries to establish diplomatic ties with the Federal Republic of  Germany after the Second World War. On March 7, 2021, India and Germany marked the 70th anniversary of the establishment of diplomatic relations. Trade and economic relations: Germany is India’s largest trading partner in Europe, with a total trade of USD 21.07 Billion in 2020-21, occupying 17.4% of share in European Market. Germany is the 7th largest foreign direct investor in India since April 2000. Germany’s total FDI in India from 2000 until 2019 amounted to US$ 11.9 billion. Germany has a Bilateral Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA) with India via the EU. Multilateral Cooperation: Germany and India support each other on UNSC expansion within the framework of the G-4. Germany joined the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) in February 2020 and  participated in the first Governing Council meeting in March 2020. In April 2021, the German Federal Cabinet approved the signing of the amended framework agreement of the International Solar Alliance (ISA), and  thereby Germany’s accession to the ISA. Defence co-operation: India-Germany Defence Cooperation Agreement (2006) provides a framework for bilateral defence cooperation. Both the countries signed the Arrangement on Implementation of the Agreement, concerning Bilateral Defence Cooperation which enables both the countries to share classified information with each other Indian and German navy ships regularly conduct anti-piracy operations in the Indian ocean. The first ever Franco-Indian-German military exercise is expected to take place in 2024. Science and Technology: Bilateral Science and Technology cooperation is implemented under an Inter-Governmental Agreement on ‘Cooperation in Scientific Research and  Technological Development’ signed in May 1974. The Department of Science and Technology (DST) and the German Federal Ministry for Education and Research  (BMBF) are the nodal agencies for overall coordination. An apex Indo-German Committee on Science and Technology, established in 1994 coordinates the implementation of  cooperation and joint review of activities. Culture and Indian diaspora: The translation of Kalidas’s ‘Shakuntala’ in 1791 envisaged institution-based scientific research on sacred Indian texts for the  quest of Indian philosophy and literature. Max Mueller was the first scholar of Indo-European languages to translate and publish Upanishads and Rigveda. There are around 03 lakh (December 2021) Indian passport holders and Indian-origin people (about 1.60 lakh NRIs/Indian Passport holders and around  43,000 PIOs) in Germany. Issues associated with bilateral relations: Germany’s low trade: Germany’s trade with India is less than ten percent of its trade with china. Restrictive Policies: Germany has an advanced defence manufacturing comparable to that of France, but the defence exports are less than potential because of restrictive arms export policy Lack of a separate bilateral investment treaty between the two countries hampers the commercial potential between two countries. Germany is not confident about India’s trade liberalization measures; it bats for more liberal labour regulations. Way Forward: At present, in spite of various setbacks, the Indo-German relations have made a rapid stride. The ‘policy of benign neglect’ had changed into a more ‘vibrant partnership’. Indo-German cooperation should be based on a win win situation so that both countries can help each other in improving their economic, technological, defence and political position in the international arena. This is not a difficult task as Germany are India are “natural allies”. While Germany has surplus capital, modern technology and a demographic deficit, India has a deficit of capital, lacks modern technology and has exportable human capital. Source: The Hindu El Niño and La Niña Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Geography) Context: India is experiencing a colder winter than normal with the La Niña is going on for a record-breaking third consecutive year also known as the ‘Triple dip’ La Nina. Forecasts for the 2023 fall and winter are predicting that El Niño will occur with more than a 50% probability. About the El Niño, La Niña and ENSO: El Niño is the warming of seawater in the central-east Equatorial Pacific that occurs every few years. During El Niño, surface temperatures in the equatorial Pacific rise, and trade winds — east-west winds that blow near the Equator — weaken. Normally, easterly trade winds blow from the Americas towards Asia. Due to El Niño, they falter and change direction to turn into westerlies, bringing warm water from the western Pacific towards the Americas. It occurs every 3-6 years and lasts for about 9-12 months. It can cause droughts, flooding, and changes in temperature. It can lead to below-normal rainfall, which affects India’s agricultural sector. Outcomes of El Nino: Disruptions in the food chain: The phenomena of upwelling, where nutrient-rich waters rise towards the surface, is reduced under El Niño. This in turn reduces phytoplankton. Thus, fish that eat phytoplankton are affected, followed by other organisms higher up the food chain. Disruptions in the overall ecosystem: Warm waters also carry tropical species towards colder areas, disrupting multiple ecosystems. Alterations in wind and weather patterns: Since the Pacific covers almost one-third of the earth, changes in its temperature and subsequent alteration of wind patterns disrupt global weather patterns. El Niño causes dry, warm winters in Northern U.S. and Canada and increases the risk of flooding in the U.S. gulf coast and southeaster U.S. It also brings drought to Indonesia and Australia. About La Niña: La Niña sees cooler than average sea surface temperature (SST) in the equatorial Pacific region. Trade winds are stronger than usual, pushing warmer water towards Asia. It is a phenomenon that is the colder counterpart of El Niño. It occurs when ocean temperatures in the equatorial Pacific drop to lower-than-normal levels. Outcomes of La Nina: On the American west coast, upwelling increases, bringing nutrient-rich water to the surface. Pacific cold waters close to the Americas push jet streams — narrow bands of strong winds in the upper atmosphere — northwards. This leads to drier conditions in Southern U.S., and heavy rainfall in Canada. La Niña has also been associated with heavy floods in Australia. Two successive La Niña events in the last two years caused intense flooding in Australia, resulting in significant damage. ENSO Cycle: El Nino–Southern Oscillation (ENSO) is an irregularly periodic variation in winds and sea surface temperatures over the tropical eastern Pacific Ocean. Every three to seven years, the surface waters across tropical Pacific Ocean warm or cool by 1°C to 3°C, compared to normal. The warming phase of the sea temperature is known as El Nino and the cooling phase as La Nina. Thus, El Nino and La Nina are opposite phases of what is known as the El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) cycle. These deviations from normal surface temperatures can have large-scale impacts not only on ocean processes, but also on global weather and climate. Impact on Cyclone Formation and Monsoons in 2023 El Niño and Monsoon Deficit: A transition from La Niña winter to El Niño summer tends to produce a large monsoon deficit of around 15%. This means weaker pre-monsoon and monsoon circulations, and weaker vertical shear, which can favour enhanced cyclone formation. However, intrapersonal or sub seasonal variability in sea-surface temperature and winds also plays an important role in cyclogenesis over the northern Indian Ocean. Overall, the net effect is for cyclogenesis to be subdued in an El Niño year. Monsoon Deficit in 2023: If an El Niño state emerges by summer, India will likely have a deficit monsoon in 2023. Some research indicates that the Indian Ocean dipole may compensate for the negative effects of an El Niño, but it is not clear whether there is a robust relation between the dipole and the summer monsoon, nor whether the dipole will evolve in the “right” way this year. Vagaries of Monsoon: The pre-monsoon cyclones are susceptible to warming in the Arctic region and could affect the onset of the summer monsoon. The Bay of Bengal has been receiving freshwater from heavy rains and high river runoffs, which tend to sneak into the Arabian Sea, produce surface warming, and build up subsurface heat. These changes together may create favourable conditions for the formation of bigger and badder cyclones, especially if the circulation and the vertical shear are weak. Government steps to mitigate the impact of El Niño: Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY): It is a crop insurance scheme launched by the government to protect farmers from crop loss due to various natural calamities, including drought, floods, and other weather-related events. Mission Amrit Sarovar: It is a scheme of developing 75 ponds in each district by the government to help reduce the dependence on rainfall. Soil Health Card scheme: This scheme aims to promote soil testing and provide farmers with the necessary information to help farmers to better manage their crops during periods of drought or other weather-related events. National Food Security Mission (NFSM): It aims to increase the productivity of crops in rainfed areas through the adoption of better farming practices and the use of new technologies. National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas (NWDPRA): This project aims to promote sustainable watershed management practices in rainfed areas to improve soil moisture and water availability for crops during drought periods. National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS): This scheme provides financial assistance to farmers in case of crop loss due to natural calamities, including drought and other weather-related events. Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY): This scheme aims to promote agriculture development through various initiatives, including the development of rainfed agriculture and the use of modern technologies to improve crop productivity during drought periods. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana (PMKSY): It aims to promote efficient use of water resources in agriculture and increase water use efficiency to deal with drought and other weather-related events. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds. In the temperate Zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Major steel industry and state Bokaro Steel Plant –Chhattisgarh Bhilai Steel Plant – Jharkhand The Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel Plant – Karnataka Rourkela Steel Plant – Odisha How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched? One pair only Two pairs only Three pairs only All four pairs Q.2) which of the following country is the largest crude steel producer in the world? India USA China Russia Q.3) The Northern Ireland Protocol is often mentioned in the news related to Trade deal between the United Kingdom and The European Union Peace process between Ukraine and Russia Earthquake relief programme for Turkey and Syria None of the above Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 2nd March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 1st March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 2nd March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 1st March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Yellow River Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context:  A recent study has noted that the Chinese practice of building embankments is one of the reasons to blame for the devastating floods occurring in the “Yellow river”. About Yellow River: The Yellow River (Huang He) is the second longest river in China (after the Yangtze). It’s the fifth-longest river in the world. Source: The Bayankala Mountains on the Plateau of Tibet in western central China. Mouth: southern Bohai Sea Claims to fame: world’s muddiest major river, “China’s cradle (of civilization)” Provinces flowed through: Qinghai, Sichuan, Gansu, Ningxia, Inner Mongolia, Shaanxi, Shanxi, Henan, and Shandong Tributaries: Black River, White River, Tao River, Huangshui, Fen River, Luo River, Wei River. The name “Yellow River” comes from the huge amounts of “yellow” loess sediment it carries, which are eroded when it flows through the Loess Plateau. The Yellow River is not just an iconic river of China, but also the symbol of the Chinese spirit: bearing burdens (its sedimentation), adaptation (its course changes), and perseverance (its continual flow). Hukou Waterfall on it is the second-largest waterfall in China. Qinghai Lake on it is China’s biggest lake. Source: DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (2022) Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2021) Rivers Flows into 1. Mekong Andaman Sea 2. Thames Irish Sea 3. Volga Caspian Sea 4. Zambezi Indian Ocean Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 3 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only Q3. With reference to the Indus River system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of the which joins the Indus direct. Among the following, which one is such river that joins the Indus direct? (2021) Chenab Jhelum  Ravi Sutlej Right to be forgotten Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, a doctor brought up the ‘Right to be Forgotten’ in the Delhi High Court after a wrongful arrest in response to a fabricated FIR against him. About the Right to be forgotten: The Right to be Forgotten” is a right to have private information removed from the internet search engine, database, websites, or other public platforms. Origin: The Right to be Forgotten originates from the 2014 European Court of Justice after which  it was included in the EU’s General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) in addition to the right to erasure. The right is not recognized by a law or a statute in India explicitly. The courts have repeatedly held it to be endemic to the Right to Privacy under Article 21. The Supreme Court in K.S.Puttaswamy vs Union of India referred to the European Union Regulation of 2016 which recognized the right to be forgotten as an individual’s right to remove personal information from the system. However, the court also recognized that such a right can be restricted by the right to freedom of expression and information or for compliance with legal obligations. Related Laws : Section 43A of the IT Act, 2000 – says that organizations who possess sensitive personal data and fail to maintain appropriate security to safeguard such data may be obligated to pay damages to the affected person. IT Rules, 2021 – It does not include this right but lays down the procedure for filing complaints with the designated Grievance Officer to have content exposing personal information about a complainant removed from the internet. Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2022 under section 14 includes the concept of the “Right to be Forgotten”. Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements. (2021) Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India. A High court in India has the power to review its own judgment as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and proven misbehavior’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, of 1968. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of the total members of that House present and voting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 3 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 Heat Waves Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recent reports by the India Meteorological Department (IMD) describe the impact of heat waves. About Heat Waves: A Heat Wave is a period of abnormally high temperatures, more than the normal maximum temperature that occurs during the summer season in the North-Western parts of India. Heat Waves typically occur between March and June, and in some rare cases even extend till July. The extreme temperatures and resultant atmospheric conditions adversely affect people living in these regions as they cause physiological stress, sometimes resulting in death.  Criteria for Heat Waves given by the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD): Heat Waves need not be considered till the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C for Plains and at least 30°C for Hilly regions When the normal maximum temperature of a station is less than or equal to 40°C Heat Wave Departure from normal is 5°C to 6°C Severe Heat Wave Departure from normal is 7°C or more When the normal maximum temperature of a station is more than 40°C Heat Wave Departure from normal is 4°C to 5°C Severe Heat Wave Departure from normal is 6°C or more When the actual maximum temperature remains 45°C or more irrespective of the normal maximum temperature, heat waves should be declared.  Health Impacts of Heat Waves Heat Cramps: Ederna (swelling) and Syncope (Fainting), generally accompanied by fever below 39°C i.e.102°F. Heat Exhaustion: Fatigue, weakness, dizziness, headache, nausea, vomiting, muscle cramps, and sweating. Heat Stoke: Body temperatures of 40°C i.e. 104°F or more along with delirium, seizures, or coma. This is a potentially fatal condition. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Carbon monoxide Nitrogen oxide Ozone Sulfur dioxide Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are the cause(s) of acid rain? 1, 2 and 3 2 and 4 only 4 only 1, 3 and 4  Q.2)  In the Guidelines, statements: the context of WHO considers the Air Quality following (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and the annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only India Municipal Bond Index Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: India’s first-ever municipal bond index has been unveiled by the National Stock Exchange (NSE) recently. About India Municipal Bond Index: It is India’s firstmunicipal bond index. It was released by NSE Indices Ltd., an arm of the National Stock Exchange at  SEBI in Bengaluru. It will track the performance of all municipal bondsissued by Indian municipal corporations. It is aimed at tracking the performance of all municipal bondsissued in the country across maturities and investment-grade credit ratings. The Index comprises 28 municipal bonds from 10 different issuers, all of which were in the AA credit rating category. In the Union Budget session 2023, the government mentioned that it will be granting incentives to urban civic bodies for the improvement of their finances and creditworthiness. Municipal Bonds: It is a security issued by local governments in India or their associated bodies. They were first issued in India in 1997. It is issued to raise money to finance projects such as bridges, schools, hospitals, and the provision of household amenities that aim to achieve socio-economic development. The Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urbanization Transformation (AMRUT) and the Smart Cities Mission are two projects which have been funded by municipal  bonds. MUST READ:  National Stock Exchange of India Source:  THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? (2022) Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. IIGs provide protection to investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Convertible bonds, consider the following statements: (2022) As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Exercise Desert Flag Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Defense Context: India’s indigenously-made light combat aircraft Tejas will be participating in its first international multilateral air exercise — Exercise Desert Flag . About Exercise Desert Flag : Exercise Desert Flag is a yearly multinational warfare exercise held by the UAE Air Force. This is the eighth edition of the exercise. The Indian Air Force will be taking part with five LCA Tejas Light Combat Aircraft and two C-17 Globemaster III aircraft. Other participants in the exercise include air forces from France, Kuwait, Australia, the UK, Bahrain, Morocco, Spain, the Republic of Korea, and the USA. The objectives for the exercise were to expose coalition participating forces to large force employment, sharpen tactical capabilities, and enhance interoperability along with fostering closer relations between the participating forces. The  Indian Air Force (IAF)  participated in the exercise for the first time, in  Exercise Desert Flag-VI (2021). Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco Region along the Persian Gulf and the Horn of Africa The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea of areas Q.2)  Consider the following pairs: The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                              Turkey Amhara                                               Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                     Spain Catalonia                                             Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The  FATF suspended Russia’s membership over the Ukraine war recently. About The Financial Action Task Force (FATF): The FATF was established in 1989 and is based in Paris. It is the global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog. The inter-governmental body sets international standards that aim to prevent these illegal activities and the harm they cause to society. Members: 39 India is one of the members. The FATF President is a senior official appointed by the FATF Plenary from among its members. The terms of the FATF Presidency- two-years Current President: Mr. T.Raja Kumar (Singapore )  The FATF Plenary is the decision-making body of the FATF and meets three times per year. FATF has two lists: Grey List: Countries that are considered safe havens for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put on this list. This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist. Black List: Countries known as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put on the blacklist. These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities. Functions of  FATF : It works to generate the necessary political will to bring about national legislative and regulatory reforms in these areas. It sets international standards to ensure national authorities can effectively go after illicit funds linked to drugs trafficking, the illicit arms trade, cyber fraud, and other serious crimes. In total, more than 200 countries and jurisdictions have committed to implementing the FATF’s Standards as part of a coordinated global response to preventing organized crime, corruption, and terrorism. It researches how money is laundered and terrorism is funded, promotes global standards to mitigate the risks, and assesses whether countries are taking effective action. It  continuously monitors how criminals and terrorists raise, use, and move funds. It regularly publishes reports that raise awareness about the latest money laundering, terrorist financing, and proliferation financing techniques The FATF continuously strengthens its global standards to address new risks, such as the regulation of virtual assets, which have spread as cryptocurrencies gain popularity. It  monitors countries to ensure they implement the FATF Standards fully and effectively. It  holds countries to account that do not comply with the FATF Standards. If a country repeatedly fails to implement FATF Standards then it can be named a Jurisdiction under Increased Monitoring or a High-Risk Jurisdiction. Source: AIR Previous Year Questions Q.1) .“Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Structure of the Earth’s Interior Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recent studies have revealed new insights about Earth’s mantle. About Structure of the Earth’s interior : The Earth can be divided into one of two ways: mechanically or chemically. Mechanically ( or through the study of liquid states )– it can be divided into the lithosphere, asthenosphere, mesospheric mantle, outer core, and inner core. Chemically (or by composition), which is the more popular of the two, it can be divided into the crust, the mantle (subdivided into the upper and lower mantle), and the core (subdivided into the outer core, and inner core.) The Crust The Crust is the cold, fragile, and rock-based outer layer. There are two types of crust, each with unique physical and chemical characteristics: (i) continental crust; (ii) oceanic crust. Basalt lava flows are produced when magma under the seafloor erupts, forming the oceanic crust. The crust makes up about 0.5% of the earth’s mass and over 1% of its volume. The oceanic crust is 5 km thinner than the continental crust (about 30 km). Silica (Si) and Aluminum (Al) are the two main components of the crust. Mantle: The mantle is the layer beneath the crust. The Mohorovich Discontinuity is the separation between the crust and mantle. The mantle has a thickness of around 2900 km. Approximately 84% of the earth’s volume and 67% of its mass are made up of the mantle. It is primarily composed of silicon and magnesium. The density of the layer, which ranges from 3.3 to 5.4g/cm3, is greater than that of the crust. The entire crust and the topmost solid portion of the mantle comprise the Lithosphere. An extremely vicious, weakly elastic, ductile, deforming zone of the upper mantle, the asthenosphere (between 80 and 200 km), is located just beneath the lithosphere. Core: It is the layer that surrounds the earth’s core that is the deepest. Guttenberg’s Discontinuity divides the mantle from the core. It is also called NIFE since it contains nickel (Ni) and iron (Fe). Nearly 15% of the earth’s volume and 32.5 percent of its mass are made up of the core. The density of the earth’s core fluctuates around 5 and 14.5 g/cm3. The inner core and the outer core are the sub-layers that make up the Core. The inner core is solid, but the outer core is liquid (or semi-liquid). Source:  DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements: The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater. The amount of water I n polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years. (2018) When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Musical instruments Open in new window Syllabus    Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, Prime Minister spoke of several musical instruments and folk artists in his Mann ki Baat address. About musical instruments : Sursingar: Sursingar is a stringed instrument made of ivory and wood. This traditional instrument is found in various parts of North India. The strings of the instrument are usually four in number and made of brass or bronze, and are plucked with a metal pick. The Sursingar (along with the Rudra Veena and the Surbahar) usually accompanies Dhrupad, the genre of Hindustani vocal music which has a low, deep, and thoughtful pitch. Noted performers: Baba Allauddin Khan, Birendra Kishore Roy Choudhury, Shaukat Ali Khan, and Radhika Mohan Maitra. Karakattam: Karakattam is an ancient folk dance of Tamil Nadu in which performers in colorful saris dance with a pot (karakam) on their heads to invoke Mariamman, the goddess of the rain. This dance is categorized into two types: Aatta Karakam symbolizes joy and happiness and is mainly performed as entertainment.  Sakthi Karakam is performed only in temples as a spiritual offering. It involves three tiers of flower arrangements of different colors sitting on top of a container filled to the brim with either water, rice, or soil.  Other features:  blowing fire, inserting needles into eyes, and keeping balance while holding a bottle parallel to the ground on the performer’s back. Noted performers: V Durga Devi of Salem. Mandolin: It is a stringed instrument, usually with eight strings that are plucked with a pick. It  is a moderately sized instrument, smaller than the Veena, Sitar, or guitar, and was developed in Europe in the 18th century as an evolution of the older Mandora (Mandola). The instrument’s modern form and proportions were strongly influenced by its maker Pasquale Vinaccia of Naples (1806-82). The Mandolin has long been part of the Indian film music tradition, having been used by several great composers. Noted Performers:  late Uppalapu Srinivas, often known as ‘Mandolin’ Srinivas, Sajjad Hussain, Kishore Desai, Snehashish Mozumder, Pradipto Sengupta, and N S Prasad. MUST READ:  Ustad Bismillah Khan Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs : (2018) Crafts Heritage of Puthukkuli shawls Tamil Nadu Sujni embroidery Maharashtra Uppada Jamdani saris Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is /are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance, and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir, and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Science Day and the Raman Effect Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: In 1986, the Government of India, under then Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi, designated February 28 as National Science Day to commemorate the announcement of the discovery of the “Raman Effect”. This year’s edition is being celebrated under the theme of “Global Science for Global Wellbeing”, in light of India’s G20 presidency. About Sir Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman: Raman was born on 7 november 1888 in Tirucirapalli, Madras Presidency to Tamil Parents. He joined Indian Financial Service in Calcutta as Assistant Accountant General at the age of 19. In 1926, he established the Indian Journal of Physics as the first editor. In February 1928, Raman led an experiment with K.S. Krishnan, on the scattering of light, when he discovered what is called Raman Effect. He was the president of the 16th session of the Indian Science Congress in 1929. He won the 1930 Nobel Prize in Physics for his Raman Scattering and for the discovery of Raman Effect. He founded the Indian Academy of Sciences in 1934 and started publishing the proceedings of the Academy. He retired from IISc Bangalore in 1948 and established the Raman Research Institute in Bangalore in 1949. He was against the control of research programmes by the government such as the establishment of Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO), and the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR). About Raman Effect: Raman is the inelastic scattering of a photon by molecules which are excited to higher vibrational or rotational energy levels. It is also called Raman scattering. In simpler words, it is a change in the wavelength of light that occurs when a light beam is deflected by molecules. When a beam of light traverses a dust-free, transparent sample of a chemical compound, a small fraction of the light emerges in directions other than that of the incident (incoming) beam. Most of this scattered light is of unchanged wavelength. A small part, however, has wavelengths different from that of the incident light and its presence is a result of the Raman Effect. The Raman effect forms the basis for Raman spectroscopy which is used by chemists and physicists to gain information about materials. Spectroscopy is the study of the interaction between matter and electromagnetic radiation. Raman Spectroscopy: Raman Spectroscopy is a non-destructive chemical analysis technique which provides detailed information about chemical structure, phase and polymorphy, crystallinity and molecular interactions. It is based upon the interaction of light with the chemical bonds within a material. In this, a molecule scatters incident light from a high intensity laser light source. Most of the scattered light is at the same wavelength (or colour) as the laser source and does not provide useful information which is called Rayleigh Scatter. However, a small amount of light (typically 0.0000001%) is scattered at different wavelengths (or colours), which depend on the chemical structure of the analyte which is called Raman Scatter. Significance of the discovery: CV Raman’s discovery took the world by storm as it had deep implications far beyond Raman’s original intentions. As Raman himself remarked in his 1930 Nobel Prize speech, “The character of the scattered radiations enables us to obtain an insight into the ultimate structure of the scattering substance.” For quantum theory, in vogue in the scientific world at the time, Raman’s discovery was crucial. The discovery would also find its use in chemistry, giving birth to a new field known as Raman spectroscopy as a basic analytical tool to conduct non-destructive chemical analysis for both organic and inorganic compounds. With the invention of lasers and the capabilities to concentrate much stronger beams of light, the uses of Raman spectroscopy have only ballooned over time. This method has a wide variety of applications, from studying art and other objects of cultural importance in a non-invasive fashion to finding drugs hidden inside luggage at customs. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022) Cloud Services Quantum Computing Visible Light Communication Technologies Wireless Communication Technologies Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies do not change Gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in straight line Speed of light is always same New Delivery Mechanisms for Genetic Therapy Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: Recently, A biotech company called Aera Therapeutics has unveiled a type of protein nanoparticle that can be used to deliver all sorts of genetic medicines around the body. Key highlights of the report: Some methods avoid the delivery problem altogether by taking cells out of the body, editing them in a lab, and giving them back to the patient. But that strategy is lengthy, expensive and tough on patients. About Genetic Therapy: Gene therapy is a technique which uses Gene editing for the replacement of defective genes with healthy ones in order to treat genetic disorders. In simple terms, it is an experimental technique through which healthy genes are inserted into an individual or embryo to treat disease. A viral or bacterial vector (harmless) is used to carry a corrective gene into a patient’s cells, where the gene then directs the cell to produce the proteins necessary to treat the disease. Gene therapies can work by several mechanisms: Replacing a disease-causing gene with a healthy copy of the gene Inactivating a disease-causing gene that is not functioning properly Introducing a new or modified gene into the body to help treat a disease. Benefits of Gene Therapy: Treatment of Rare Diseases: Gene and cell-base gene therapy can help treat rare and debilitating diseases that have limited treatment options. Often, these rare inherited diseases result in disability or premature death. Studies have shown that Gene and Cell-based Gene Therapies have slowed or completely stopped the progression of rare diseases. Effectiveness: The advantage of gene therapy over traditional pharmacological approaches is that therapeutic benefits of Gene Therapy remain effective for a long period of time without the need of repeated interventions. A fundamental aspect of Gene Therapies is that they aim to treat the cause of the disease, not just the symptoms. Accuracy: It’s difficult to design specific medicines that influence specific proteins. However, with gene therapy it may be possible to design therapeutic agents that can influence any of body’s roughly 20,000 genes. Limitations of Genetic Therapy: The presently available genetic therapy technologies can only fix the genome in reachable parts of the body, and right now, reach is very limited. The liver, eyes and blood are the main places where cures might be possible. The fundamental issue with genetic medicines is that our bodies have evolved to keep bad things out of our cells. That’s great for staving off viruses or other pathogens, but also makes it incredibly hard to sneak a medicine in. Scientists have been stuck using the same kinds of packaging for technologies like mRNA or Crispr or DNA. They largely rely on viral vectors, which are basically hollowed out shells of a virus, and lipid nanoparticles, which can be thought of as fatty bubbles that encase genetic material. But they can only efficiently deliver to certain Zip codes – with a few exceptions, lipid nanoparticles’ routes are largely limited to the liver and eyes, for example. These have other limitations, for example how much cargo they can hold. Some genes for fixing the diseases are too big to fit inside a virus. It can be tough to squeeze the instructions for making Crispr tools into a usable lipid nanoparticle. Way Forward: The good side of genetic engineering needs to be promoted with appropriate checks and balances. From a research point of view, more studies need to be conducted to address the concerns of allergic and immune responses to GM food on a case-by-case basis. There is still immense potential to explore in the field like leveraging artificial intelligence (AI) for advancements in biological sciences. Genomic data can be developed more which will help in the development of biomedical sciences and viral sciences. The regulations need to refine more especially concerning labelling, ethical concerns, false advertising, etc. Source:  Live mint Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding India Municipal Bond Index: It is India’s first municipal bond index released by Bombay Stock Exchange Indices Ltd. It will track the performance of all municipal bonds issued by Indian municipal corporations. Smart Cities Mission scheme have been funded by municipal Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding Interior of the structure: The Mohorovich Discontinuity is the separation between the crust and mantle. Guttenberg’s Discontinuity divides the mantle from the core. Silica and Aluminum are the two main components of the crust. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) With reference to Indian art and culture, consider the following statements: Sursingar is a stringed instrument made of ivory and wood. Karakattam is an ancient folk dance of Kerala. Sakthi Karakam is performed only in temples as a spiritual offering. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 27th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 7th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 28th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Important Articles

[BHOPAL CENTRE] ‘INAUGURATION’ by Shri VISHVAS SARANG (Minister, Govt of Madhya Pradesh) on 4th March & ‘SEMINAR’ by SRUSHTI DESHMUKH GOWDA, IAS on 5th March 2023.

Dear StudentsWe are pleased to announce that we are officially inaugurating the Bhopal Centre on 4th March (Saturday). The Centre will be inaugurated by our esteemed Chief Guest Shri. Vishvas Narang. He is the Minister of Medical Education and Bhopal Gas Tragedy Relief & Rehabilitation, Govt. of Madhya Pradesh and MLA, Narela (Bhopal). SEMINAR on UPSC and MPPSC Preparation by SRUSHTI J. DESHMUKH GOWDA, IAS Even though, we are a newcomer to Bhopal, the kind of response we are getting right from the announcement of the centre at Bhopal has a heartwarming effect on us. Your love and trust in us have made us make a decision.We have decided to organize a Seminar at our Bhopal Centre on 5th March 2023 (Sunday) at 12 PM. The Seminar will be conducted by Mrs Srushti J. Deshmukh Gowda and Mohan Sir (Founder, IASbaba).Mrs. Srushti J. Deshmukh (AIR-5, 2018), hails from Bhopal and is currently posted in the Dindori district of Madhya Pradesh, India. She is the author of the Book ‘The Answer Writing Manual for UPSC Civil Services & State PSC Examinations’. Register For The Seminar The purpose of organizing this Seminar:- How to clear Civil Services in 1st Attempt? Make you understand the Philosophy, Structure and approach of UPSC Civil Services Exam. To send you back with certain takeaways that will become a part of your intellectual repository, that will streamline your UPSC preparation. To provide you a clear path to success Date & Venue Date & Time: 5th March (Sunday) @ 12 PM.Venue: IASbaba Bhopal Centre, 136, Near Vikramaditya College Zone -2, MP Nagar Bhopal, 462011, Madhya PradeshNote: Registrations are mandatory for attending the session since the seats are limited.Contact: 74896 41321 Register For The Seminar SUPER 100 SCHOLARSHIP TEST Based on the performance in the Scholarship Test, attractive discounts will be offered to students on the basis of the ranks they secure. Register For The Super-100 Scholarship Test Details of the Scholarship Test Date of the Scholarship Test: 5th March (SUNDAY) from 10 AMMode of Test:  The Test will be conducted ONLY in the Offline Mode at our Bhopal Centre.Eligibility: All the students will be eligible for the test. No pre-conditions. FREE Registrations!! (Please find the registration link below)Pattern & Syllabus: The Scholarship Test will be an Objective Test, along the lines of UPSC Prelims. Objective Test -100 MCQs from Current Affairs, General Awareness, and CSAT. Time Duration – 75 minutesMarking Scheme: Every correct answer gets +2 marks. There is a penalty of -0.67 for each incorrect answer. There is no penalty for unattempted questions.Last Date to Register: 4th March (Saturday) 2023 (by 6 PM) Register For The Super-100 Scholarship Test

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 27th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Bisphenol A Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and technology Context: Recent studies have reported that ‘Bisphenol A’, may shorten the life cycle  of a mosquito and lead to a population explosion. About Bisphenol A: Bisphenol A is a synthetically obtained colourless, crystalline organic compound that occurs in the solid phase belonging to the diphenylmethane group. It is soluble in organic solvents but poorly dissolves in water It is also used as eyewear glasses. It is a chemical is widely used to soften plastics, paints, and other products. It is known to impair reproduction and development in aquatic organisms. Its exposure is delayed larval development and pupation time in common fruit fly (Drosophila melanogaster). Uses of Bisphenol A : BPA polycarbonate plastics are very sturdy in nature and are used to make large variants of microwave-proof utensils.  It is used as a material for safety glasses, bulletproof windows and helmets. Bisphenol A acts as a component in epoxy resins that are very good coating agents and therefore is used for the protective coating of pipelines and to cover the inner surface of food cans. It is used in many medical devices such as heart-lung machines, incubators, artificial kidneys, dental fillers, and sealants. It is also used as eyewear glasses , due to their optical clarity. Environmental impacts of Bisphenol A: BPA can enter the environment directly through the leaching of chemicals or degradation of materials containing bisphenol A and may render the land unfertile and barren making it unsuitable for agriculture. It  affects the growth and reproduction of marine life. It causes endocrine effects in fish, amphibians, and reptiles. Adverse effects of Bisphenol A on human health: When ingested, the chemical disrupts the endocrine system by interfering with the hormones and affecting the brain and       prostate gland of foetuses, infants, and children. It can cause high blood pressure, diabetes and cardiovascular disease in adults. BPA is a xenoestrogen and mimics estrogen present in the body, thus exhibiting hormone-like properties. It can indirectly aid in the spread of vector-borne diseases in humans and animals. Source: DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2021) Low-density polyethylene Polycarbonate Polyethylene terephthalate Polyvinyl Chloride Q.2) “Triclosan” is considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following? (2021) Food preservatives Fruit-ripening substances Reused plastic containers Toiletries Olive Ridley turtles , Rushikulya river Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context : Recently, experts reported that suitable climatic and beach conditions are the reasons for the early mass nesting of Olive Ridley turtles. About Olive Ridley turtles: The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world. They are found to be inhabiting the warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian oceans. They are carnivores and feed mainly on jellyfish, shrimp, snails, crabs, molluscs, and a variety of fish and their eggs. The males and females grow to the same size. These turtles, along with their cousin the Kemps ridley turtle, are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada, where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs. The coast of Orissa in India is the largest mass nesting site for the Olive-ridley, followed by the coasts of Mexico and Costa Rica. The species is recognized as Vulnerable by the IUCN Red list. They lie in Scheduled 1 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 They are in Appendix I of the CITES. About Rushikulya river : It is one of the major rivers in Odisha and covers the entire catchment area in the districts of Kandhamal and Ganjam. The Rushikulya originates at an elevation of about 1000 meters from the Daringbadi hills of the Eastern Ghats. The tributaries of the Rushikulya River are Dhanei, Badanadi, and Baghua. It does not have any delta in its mouth region. This river is extremely rich in mineral wealth and some of the prime ones include-Lime stone, sand talc, grinding materials, black sand, and clay. This is one of the remote areas for mass nesting and is regarded as a site of Ridley Olive sea turtles. Source:        DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1)  Consider the following pairs: (2022) Wetland/Lake:                      Location Hokera Wetland                    Punjab Renuka Wetland                   Himachal Pradesh Rudrasagar Lake                  Tripura Sasthamkotta                       Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2)  Which of the following is a filter feeder? (2022) Catfish Octopus Oyster Pelican Caveat Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: Recently, the CJI reprimanded a student for filing a caveat in a petition seeking menstrual leave. About Caveat A caveat refers to a “formal notice requesting the court to refrain from taking some specified action without giving prior notice to the person lodging the caveat.” The person lodging the caveat is called a “caveator”. The term “caveat” is not expressly defined anywhere except in the Calcutta High Court’s 1978 ruling in the “Nirmal Chandra Dutta vs Girindra Narayan Roy” case. It is a precautionary measure taken against the grant of probate or letters of administration, as the case may be, by the person lodging the caveat. Section 148A of the Civil Procedure Code (CPC) , elaborating upon a caveat was inserted by the Amendment Act of 1976, after the Law Commission’s recommendation. Any person can lodge a caveat in a Court. The caveator or the person lodging is also required to serve a notice of the caveat by “registered post” to the person on whose plea they are lodging the application It was recently used in the  “Shailendra Mani Tripathi v. Union of India & Others”, a petition seeking menstrual leave for female students and working women across Indian institutions. Source: The Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1)  With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: (2022) Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company. Any public-minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Indian  Judiciary, consider the following statements. (2021) Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India. A High court in India has the power to review its own judgment as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: Recently,  a  Congress leader was booked under IPC sections including 153A, 505, and 295A. About Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC): Origin: In the pre-Independence Rangila Rasool case, the Punjab High Court had acquitted the Hindu publisher of a tract that had made disparaging remarks about the private life of the Prophet, and had been charged under Section 153A. Section 153A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) penalizes “promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony”. This is punishable with imprisonment up to three years, with a fine, or with both. The provision was enacted in 1898 and was not in the original penal code. Section 505, penalizes “statements conducing to public mischief” . The data from the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) show that the rate of conviction for Section 153A is very low. In 2020, the cases registered were  six times higher than the cases in 2014. However, the conviction rate in 2020 was 20.2%, suggesting that the process often becomes the punishment. Safeguards against misuse of Section 153 A: Sections 153A and 153B require prior sanction from the government for initiating prosecution. This is required before the trial begins, and not at the stage of preliminary investigation. To curb indiscriminate arrests, the Supreme Court laid down a set of guidelines in its 2014 ruling in Arnesh Kumar v State of Bihar. According to this, for offenses that carry a sentence of fewer than seven years, the police cannot automatically arrest an accused before investigation. In a 2021 ruling, the SC said that the state will have to prove intent for securing a conviction under Section 153A. Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to a such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Borthekera Open in new window Syllabus    Prelims – Science and technology Context: In recent studies, the medicinal plant commonly called Borthekera in Assamese was found to have cardioprotective potential. About  Borthekera:     Garcinia pedunculata, commonly called ‘Borthekera’ is  a medicinal plant found in  Assam. The tree is endemic to the south-eastern regions of Asia such as parts of Myanmar and north-eastern parts of India. It is traditionally forbidden for raw consumption. It has been found to protect from heart diseases. Uses of Borthekera : The administration of the dried pulp of its ripe fruit reduces cardiac hypertrophy indicators, oxidative stress, and heart inflammation. The sun-dried slices of the ripe fruit are used for culinary and medicinal purposes and are known to have therapeutic properties like anti-inflammatory, anthelmintic, antibacterial, antifungal, antidiabetic, hypolipidemic, nephroprotective, and even neuroprotective activity. Borthekera is a rich source of antioxidants. In Assam, such slices are used for preparing delicacies like “tenga diya masor jol” meaning Assamese sour fish curry. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? (2022) Alfalfa Amaranth Chickpea Clover Purslane (Kulfa) Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 3, and 4 only 1, 3, 5, and 6 only 2, 4, 5, and 6 only 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 Q.2) In nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil? (2021) Fern Lichen Moss Mushroom Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 4 only 2 only 2 and 3 1, 3 and 4 Q3. Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants? (2021) They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into the environment They may release Sulphur dioxide as a pollutant Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd.(NAFED) , Agricultural Produce & Livestock Market Committee (APMC ) and e-NAM Open in new window Syllabus   Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, a Nashik onion cultivator destroyed 200 quintals of ready-to-harvest crops, fearing bad returns. About National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd.(NAFED): National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd.(NAFED) was established in  1958. It is registered under the Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act. It was set up with the object to promote Cooperative marketing of agricultural produce to benefit the farmers. Agricultural farmers are the main members of Nafed, who have the authority to say in the form of members of the General Body in the working of Nafed. Objectives : to  facilitate, coordinate, and promote the marketing and trading activities of the cooperative institutions, partners, and associates in agricultural, other commodities, articles, and goods. to undertake or promote on its own or on behalf of its member Institutions or the Government or Government Organizations, Inter-State, and international trade and commerce. to act as an agent of any Government agency or cooperative institution, for the purchase, sale, storage, and distribution. to act as an insurance agent and to undertake all such work that is incidental to the same. to organize consultancy work in various fields for the benefit of the cooperative institutions. to undertake the manufacture of agricultural, machinery and implements, processing, packing, etc. to maintain transport units of its own or in collaboration with any other organization in India or abroad. to undertake marketing research and dissemination of market intelligence. to subscribe to the share capital and undertake business collaboration. to arrange for the training of employees of marketing/ processing/supply cooperative societies Additional Information: About Agricultural Produce & Livestock Market Committee (APMC ) The  Agricultural Produce & Livestock Market Committee was established under the provisions of the APLM Act. These are marketing boards set up by state governments to eliminate farmer exploitation by intermediaries The APMC laws in most states require farmers to sell a variety of goods in their neighbourhood mandis. A State is geographically divided into various units and markets (also known as Mandis) which are established in different places within the state. All food must be brought to market and auctioned off. Benefits of APMC : They safeguard the farmers from exploitation by creditors and other intermediaries. They provide storage facilities such as go-downs etc. to the farmers. They arrange for farmer markets so that the farmers could sell their produce to the consumers directly. They help in controlling price fluctuations. About National Agriculture Market or eNAM: eNAM platform is an online trading platform for agricultural commodities in India. It was launched in 2016 as a pan-India electronic trade portal linking agricultural produce market committees (APMCs) across all states. It was launched with the objective of integrating the existing Mandis into a “One Nation One Market” for agricultural commodities in India. It facilitates farmers, traders, and buyers with online trading in commodities. It provides for contactless remote bidding and mobile-based anytime payment for which traders do not need to either visit mandis or banks for the same. Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing e-NAM. It functions under the aegis of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare Source:  THE TIMES OF INDIA Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past? (2020) Minimum Support Price Government’s trading Government’s stockpiling Consumer subsidies Q3. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? (2020) Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Social Capital Development Free electricity supply to farmers Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system Setting up of cold storage facilities by the governments. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 5 only 1, 3, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, and 6 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Orangutans Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently , Orangutans smuggling was caught by authorities. About  Orangutans:   Orangutans are great ape’s native to the rainforests of Indonesia and Malaysia. They are now found only in parts of Borneo and Sumatra. They have proportionally long arms and short legs and have reddish-brown hair covering their bodies. Bornean and Sumatran orangutans differ a little in appearance and behavior. The Bornean orangutan is  estimated as Endangered as per IUCN status. The Sumatran are categorized as Critically Endangered as per IUCN status. The Tapanuli orangutan is the most endangered of all great apes. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon Frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray Chinned Minivet and White-throated Redstart are (2020) Birds Primates Reptiles Amphibians Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Cyberattacks Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Security) Context: Ransomwares have emerged as the most predominant of malicious cyberattacks worldwide. About Cyberattacks: Cyberattacks are unwelcome attempts to steal, expose, alter, disable or destroy information through unauthorized access to computer systems. Typically such forms of attacks to keep networks from functioning after encrypting data, are carried out by ransomware-seeking entities. In ransomware, the perpetrators demand hefty payments for the release of withheld data. Recent cases of ransomware attacks AIIMS Cyberattack: The ransomware attack was faced by the servers of India’s premium institute, the All India Institute of Medical Sciences. Nearly 40 million health records were compromised and it took over two weeks for the systems to be brought online. Cyberattack on Solar Industries Limited: A ransomware gang, BlackCat, breached the parent company of Solar Industries Limited, one of the Ministry of Defence’s ammunition and explosives manufacturers, and extracted over 2 terabytes of data. Overall data: Data shows that over 75% of Indian organisations have faced such attacks, with each breach costing an average of Rs.35 crores of damage. Reasons for increasing Cyberattacks: Increasing dependency on technology: As we grow faster, more and more systems are being shifted to virtual space to promote access and ease of use. However, the downside to this trend is the increased vulnerability of such systems to cyber-attacks. Asymmetric and covert warfare: Unlike, conventional warfare with loss of lives and eyeball-to-eyeball situations, cyber warfare is covert warfare with the scope of plausible deniability, i.e. the governments can deny their involvement even when they are caught. Therefore, cyber warfare has increasingly become the chosen space for conflict between nations. Lack of robust law enforcement mechanisms: India’s approach to cyber security has so far been ad hoc and unsystematic. Despite a number of agencies, policies and initiatives, their implementation has been far from satisfactory. Adverse relations with China: China is considered one of the world leaders in information technology. Therefore, it is expected to have capabilities to disable or partially interrupt the information technology services in another country. Combined with the recent border standoff and violent incidents between the armies of the two countries, the adversity in relations is expected to spill over to attacking each other’s critical information infrastructure. Asymmetric and covert warfare: Unlike conventional warfare with loss of lives and eyeball to eyeball situations, cyber warfare is covert warfare with the scope of plausible deniability, i.e. the governments can deny their involvement even when they are caught. Lack of International Coordination: International cooperation and consensus is missing in this field. Low digital literacy among the general public and digital gaps amongst nations create an unsustainable environment in the cyber domain. It is often reported that people are duped easily by click-baiting them into clicking interesting content, which often has malware attached to itself. Challenges associated with cyberattacks: Need of a cyber security policy: With cyber threats capable of undermining our critical infrastructure, industry and security, a comprehensive cyber security policy is the need of the hour. Scarcity of workforce: Most organisations lack the tools to identify cyberattacks, let alone prevent them. India also faces an acute scarcity of cybersecurity professionals. Nearly two-thirds would find it challenging to respond to a cybersecurity incident due to the shortage of skills within their team. India is projected to have a total workforce of around 3,00,000 people in this sector in contrast to the 1.2 million people in the United States. Digital Geneva Convention: Most of our organisations are private, and their participation remains limited in India’s cybersecurity structures. They would be advised to look at the Digital Geneva Convention, where over 30 global companies have signed a declaration to protect users and customers from cyber breaches and collaborate with like-minded intergovernmental and state frameworks. Need for a global framework: With most cyberattacks originating from beyond our borders, international cooperation would be critical to keeping our digital space secure. India’s Preparedness to Ensure Cybersecurity: Banning of unsafe apps: India had banned apps that posed a threat to security. India had banned many apps (mostly of Chinese origin), which were found to be unsafe for usage by Indian citizens. Awaited National cybersecurity strategy: Comprehensive plan in preparing & dealing with cyber-attacks (Pre, Post and During the attack). Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C): Launched in 2018, It is an apex coordination centre to deal with cybercrimes. Evolving Technology: Cyber attackers are continuously working on novel ways to sabotage the systems. CERT-In (Cyber Emergency Response Team, India): is an office within the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology of the Government of India. It is the nodal agency to deal with cyber security threats like hacking and phishing. It strengthens security-related defence of the Indian Internet domain. National Cyber Security Policy, 2013: The policy provides the vision and strategic direction to protect the national cyberspace. Cyber Swachhta Kendra: Launched in 2017, these helps users to analyse and keep their systems free of various viruses, bots/ malware, Trojans, etc. Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C): Launched in 2018, It is an apex coordination centre to deal with cybercrimes. Cyber Surakshit Bharat: It was launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) in 2018 with an aim to spread awareness about cybercrime and building capacity for safety measures for Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs) and frontline IT staff across all government departments. The Cyber Warrior Police Force: It was organised on the lines of the Central Armed Police Force in 2018. Personal Data Protection Bill: The bill mandates the strengthening of data infrastructure by private companies to safeguard the data of individuals. Information Technology Act, 2000 (Amended in 2008): It is the main law for dealing with cybercrime and digital commerce in India. National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC) was created under Section 70A of IT Act 2000 to protect Cyberinfrastructure. Way Forward: Human resource is crucial and there is an urgent need to create an informal Indian team of Cyber Warriors. The critical infrastructure managers should also be well trained in cyber warfare and well equipped with all the technologies for isolating viruses and attacks. There should be a reward for white hackers who can highlight their shortcomings. The managers and common mass must be made aware. There is a need to enhance the general awareness levels of the government installations as well as the general public to counter such threats. Separate wing under Army or Navy as Cyber Command on lines of US. The need of the hour is to come up with a futuristic National Cyber-Security Policy which allocates adequate resources and addresses the concerns of the stakeholders. Similarly, there is a need for quicker up-gradation of the existing infrastructure as information technology is a fast-evolving field and there is a need to stay ahead of the competition. Cooperation with G20: The G-20 summit this year in India, which will see participation by all the stakeholders driving the global levers of power, is a rare opportunity to bring together domestic and international engagement groups across the spectrum, and steer the direction of these consultations. India could try to conceptualise a global framework of common minimum acceptance for cybersecurity. Source: The Hindu India’s sticky Inflation Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: Last week, CSO released the inflation data, it showed that in January, India’s retail inflation surged by 6.5%. In other words, the general price level facing the consumers in January 2023 turned out to be 6.5% higher than the price level in January 2022; this is called a year-on-year (or y-o-y) growth rate. About Inflation:   Inflation refers to a sustained increase in the general price level of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. It is the rise in the prices of most goods and services of daily or common use, such as food, clothing, housing, recreation, transport, consumer staples, etc. Inflation measures the average price change in a basket of commodities and services over time. The opposite and rare fall in the price index of this basket of items is called ‘deflation’. Inflation is indicative of the decrease in the purchasing power of a unit of a country’s currency. This is measured in percentage. Measures of Inflation in India: In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation measures inflation. There are two main set of inflation indices for measuring price level changes in India the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and the Consumer Price Index (CPI). GDP deflator is also used to measure inflation. Significance of Inflation spike in recent times: The headline retail inflation rate was 7.4% in September 2022 but since then it was fast losing steam every month and fell to 5.7% in December. This moderation had convinced many to demand that the RBI should avoid raising interest rates — something the RBI did not do when it met on February 8. In fact, the RBI raised the repo rate the interest rate at which it lends money to the banking system by 25 basis points (100 basis points make up a full percentage point). RBI raises the repo rate when it believes that inflation is not in control. Higher interest rates drag down overall demand for goods and services by making loans costlier. Lower demand is expected to cool down inflation. The recent surge was also an unexpected event — most economists and observers expected inflation to rise by just 6% and it has renewed the apprehensions of the RBI raising the interest when it meets again in April. RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meets every two months to reconsider its monetary policy stance. As increase in interest rate, while doing its bit towards containing inflation, impacts on India’s economic growth. To be sure, there is a constant trade-off between maintaining price stability (read containing inflation) and boosting growth (which hopefully creates jobs and reduces unemployment) Therefore, if inflation stays persistently high (‘sticky’), it would necessitate the RBI to keep raising interest rates  or, at the very least, keep them at a high level for a longer period and, in doing so, hurt India’s economic recovery out of the twin shocks of the Covid pandemic and the Russia-Ukraine war. Reasons for recent Inflation trends: Inflation being sticky essentially means that inflation is taking longer than expected to fall. Essentially, higher food and fuel prices have seeped into the broader economy and made other things costlier. “A deeper dive into the core inflation basket suggests that firms continued to pass on higher input costs to consumers, while inflation is moderating in the services sector. Core goods inflation continued to inch up to 6% y-o-y in January from 7.5% in December and 7.1% six months back. Core services inflation, by contrast, has progressively been moderating from 5.5% in September to 5.0% in January Rise in food and fuel prices got increasingly generalised over ensuing months. This was reflected in highly elevated and sticky core inflation. Unprecedented input cost pressures got translated to output prices, particularly goods prices, in spite of muted demand conditions and pricing power. As the direct effects of the conflict waned and international commodity prices softened, the strengthening domestic recovery and rising demand enabled pass-through of pent-up input costs, especially in services, adding persistence to elevated inflationary pressures. However, for what it is worth, India is not the only country facing sticky inflation; many others such as the US and countries in the euro zone — are also struggling to extricate themselves from sticky inflation. Way Forward: Both the government and Reserve Bank of India try to tackle inflation with their policies which are known as Fiscal and Monetary Policies respectively. Fiscal policies correspond to tax related measures taken by government to control inflation (money supply). RBI through its various monetary policies limit the money supply by altering rates like CRR, Repo, Reverse Repo etc. Administrative measures taken by government like strengthening of Public Distribution System also plays a crucial role in curbing inflation. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the India economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. IIGs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding National Agriculture Market or eNAM: It was launched with the objective of integrating the existing Mandis into a “One Nation One Market” for agricultural commodities in India. Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing e-NAM. It functions under the aegis of the Ministry of Electronics and Communications. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd.(NAFED): It is registered under the Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act. Agricultural farmers are the main members of Nafed, who have the authority to say in the form of members of the General Body. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following rivers: Dhanei Badanadi Ken Which of the above is/are tributaries of Rushikulya river: 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 27th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 25th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) THE Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Modern Indian History Context: Recently, after objections, ICHR stopped singing the daily national anthem, and removed the images of Bharat Mata and Deen Dayal Upadhyaya. About THE INDIAN COUNCIL OF HISTORICAL RESEARCH (ICHR) : The Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR) is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Education, Government of India. It was established by the Ministry of Education & Social Welfare, Govt. of India (now, Ministry of Education) in 1972. ICHR was registered under the Societies Registration Act (Act xxi of 1860), an Act for the registration of Literary, Scientific and Charitable Societies in India. The primary aim and objective of the Indian Council of Historical Research are to promote and give directions to historical research and to encourage and foster objective and scientific writing of history. Some of the objectives of the Council: To foster objective and scientific writing of history such as to inculcate an informed appreciation of the country’s national and cultural heritage; To review the progress of historical research from time to time. To advise the Government of India on all such matters pertaining to historical research and training in history methodology as may be referred to it from time to time. To sponsor historical research programmes. To provide technical assistance for the formulation of historical research programmes by individuals or institutions. To promote publications of historical research of a high standard Generally, take all such measures as may be found necessary from time to time to promote historical research and its utilization in the country.  Functions: To provide fellowships and financial assistance to young teachers in colleges, universities and registered research organizations, To publish a biannual Journal – the Indian Historical Review, and another journal Itihas in Hindi. To maintain a large and expanding Library-cum-Documentation Centre with facilities of DELNET and J-STOR. To maintain two regional centres namely ICHR North-East Regional Centre (Guwahati) and ICHR Southern Regional Centre (Bangalore)  MUST READ :  About Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyay Source:  THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Who among the following is associated with ‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English? (2021) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Jawaharlal Nehru Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi Sarojini Naidu Kaziranga National Park Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has sought a “factual report” on the rhino population enumeration conducted in the Kaziranga National Park in March 2022. About Kaziranga National Park: Kaziranga National Park is a prestigious national park of India situated in the northeastern part of the country in the district of Golaghat and Nagoan in the state of Assam. It was created in the year of 1904. It was declared a National Park in 1974. It was declared a tiger reserve in 2007. Kaziranga was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO for its unique natural environment in the year of 1985. The park has been identified as an Important Bird Area by the Birdlife International Society as it is home to various species of migrating and inhabitant birds. It is situated on the banks of the river Brahmaputra. It is majorly known for the ‘big four’ species— Rhino, Elephant, Royal Bengal tiger, and Asiatic water buffalo. The National Highway 37 passes through it.  The Diphlu River runs through it.  The landscape is marked by: Tropical moist mixed deciduous forests and tropical semi-evergreen forests, tall grasses, open jungle, and short grasses . About the One -horned Rhino: The greater one-horned rhino (or “Indian rhino”) is the largest of the rhino species. It is found in Nepal, Bhutan, Pakistan and India. It is Vulnerable in the IUCN Red List and lies in Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act. It is in Appendix I of the  Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES): India is home to over 85 % population. It is found in UP, West Bengal and Assam. According to WWF data from 2012, Assam has 91 % of the total Rhino in India which is mainly concentrated in Kaziranga National Park, and Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary. Others include Manas Tiger Reserve, Orang Tiger Reserve and Laokhowa Reserved Forests There are five rhino species: Great One horned rhino- Vulnerable in the IUCN Red List. White rhinos – near threatened in the IUCN Red List. Black rhinos in Africa – critically endangered in the IUCN Red List. Javan rhino- Critically endangered in IUCN Red List. Sumatran rhinos- extinct. There are three species of rhino in Asia—Greater one-horned (Rhinoceros unicornis), Javan and Sumatran. Only the Great One-Horned Rhino is found in India. Also known as Indian rhino, it is the largest of the rhino species. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following animals (2021) Hedeghog Marmot Pangolin To reduce the chances of being captured by predators , which of the above organisms roll up /rolls up /protects its/their vulnerable parts ? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements: (2020) The leader of an elephant group is a female The maximum gestation period can be 22 months An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 3, and 4 only Neutral citation system Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Chief Justice of India (CJI) D Y Chandrachud announced that the Supreme Court will adopt a “neutral citation system” for its judgments. About the Neutral citation system : A case citation is an identification tag for a judgment that would contain a reference number, the year of the judgment, the name of the court that delivered that judgment, and a shorthand for the journal publishing the judgment. A neutral citation means that the court would assign its own citation — distinct from those given by traditional Law Reporters. For example: in the All-India Reporter (AIR), the citation is AIR 1973 SC 1461 Significance of a Neutral citation : With artificial intelligence (AI) enabling the translation of judgments and transcribing of court proceedings, a uniform citation is necessary. To ease the adjudicatory process. To avoid confusion arising out of one case being cited by different people in a number of different ways. Several High Courts including Delhi High Court have started a neutral citation format. Implementation : All 30,000 judgments are going to have neutral citations. The first tranche will be till January 1, 2023, then the other tranche will be till judgments from 2014 and then finally it will go back to 1950. Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements. (2021) Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India. A High court in India has the power to review its own judgment as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Agricultural and Process Food Export Development Authority (APEDA) and Gulfood 2023 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, the Agricultural and Process Food Export Development Authority (APEDA)  participated in the 28th edition of Gulfood 2023 held in UAE. About  the Agricultural and Process Food Export Development Authority (APEDA): It is a statutory body established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act passed by the Parliament in 1985. The Authority replaced the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC). Head Office: New Delhi It functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. APEDA also functions as the Secretariat to the National Accreditation Board (NAB) for the implementation of accreditation of the Certification Bodies under the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) for organic exports. Chairman – appointed by the Central Government. Functions : Development of industries relating to the scheduled products for export by way of providing financial assistance. Registration of persons as exporters of the scheduled products on payment of such fees as may be prescribed. Fixing standards and specifications for the scheduled products for the purpose of exports; Carrying out inspection of meat and meat products in slaughterhouses, processing plants, storage premises, conveyances, or other places Improving packaging of the Scheduled products; Improving marketing of the Scheduled products outside India. Promotion of export-oriented production and development of the Scheduled products. APEDA is mandated with the responsibility of export promotion and development of the following scheduled products: Fruits, Vegetables and their Products. Meat and Meat Products. Poultry and Poultry Products. Dairy Products. Confectionery, Biscuits, and Bakery Products. Honey, Jaggery, and Sugar Products. Cocoa and its products, chocolates of all kinds. Alcoholic and Non-Alcoholic Beverages. Cereal and Cereal Products. Groundnuts, Peanuts, and Walnuts. Pickles, Papads, and Chutneys. Guar Gum. Floriculture and Floriculture Products. Herbal and Medicinal Plants. De–oiled rice bran. Green pepper in brine. Cashew Nuts and Its Products. Basmati Rice has been included in the Second Schedule of the APEDA Act. APEDA has been entrusted with the responsibility of monitoring the import of sugar as well. About Gulfood 2023: The 28th edition of Gulfood 2023 which was held in the UAE. GULFOOD which is a platform that connects food and beverage sectors around the globe. The Indian pavilion at Gulfood 2023 is one of the largest pavilions at the show to cater food product exports to more than 125 countries participating in the event. More than 50 Indian exporters from different categories like women entrepreneurs, Start-ups, merchants, and manufacturers showcasing agricultural, dairy, pulses, and meat-based produce with a focus on Millet and its products through the APEDA pavilion, are being showcased. Over the years APEDA has participated in Gulfood and brought a strong contingent of suppliers from the Indian diaspora. Source:  PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past? (2020) Minimum Support Price Government’s trading Government’s stockpiling Consumer subsidies Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? (2020) Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Social Capital Development Free electricity supply to farmers Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system Setting up of cold storage facilities by the governments. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 5 only 1, 3, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, and 6 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Zebrafish Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, researchers, for the first time, have used the body’s own chemistry to develop electrodes in the tissues of zebrafish (a small freshwater fish). About Zebrafish : It is a tropical freshwater fish belonging to the minnow family (Cyprinidae) of the order Cypriniformes. Habitat: Native to rivers and streams of South Asia. It is a freshwater fish found in tropical and subtropical regions. The fish is native to South Asia’s Indo-Gangetic plains, where they are mostly found in the paddy fields and even in stagnant water and streams. Features: It is a popular aquarium fish. It is about 4 cm long and has dark-blue and silvery longitudinal stripes. IUCN Red List Status: Least concerned. Significance of Zebrafish: Zebrafish have the ability to heal their heart after injury through a regenerative process.  If part of their heart is removed, they can grow it back in a matter of weeks. Humans cannot regenerate their hearts upon myocardial damage and a person who suffered a heart attack cannot functionally heal the damaged heart muscle, resulting in reduced pumping efficiency. Till now, there is no treatment available to restore the damaged heart function in humans. Hence scientists have sought to decode the heart regeneration processes using this model animal. In May 2021, it was announced by researchers at the Queen’s University in Belfast, UK that the hibernation form known as induced torpor found in zebrafish will give radio-protective effects, that may be useful for interplanetary voyages Replicating hibernation may therefore protect astronauts against the harsh conditions of space flight Zebrafish have also been found to regenerate photoreceptor cells and retinal neurons following injury.  Source: DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperm of a prospective parent. A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage. Human-induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1, 2 and 3  Q.2) Which of the following are detritivores? (2021) Earthworms Jellyfish Seahorse Woodlice Select the correct answer using the code given below 1, 2, and 4 only 2, 3, 4, and 4 only 1, 3, and 5 only 1,2,3,4 and 5 Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework adopted recently, respects the rights of indigenous people regarding biodiversity. About Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework: The “Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework” (GBF) was adopted by the 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) to the UN Convention on Biological Diversity. It includes four goals and 23 targets to be achieved by 2030. COP 15 took place in Montreal, Canada. Through Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF), countries agreed to protect 30 percent of the planet by 2030. The countries pledged to achieve 23 targets to reverse ecosystem degradation under four overarching goals for the survival of the natural world. Under the Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF), countries also agreed to reduce harmful government subsidies worth 500 billion dollars annually, while vowing to identify subsidies that are harmful to biodiversity by 2025. Its other targets include reducing the use of pesticides by half and raising annual international financial flows from developed to developing countries to at least 20 billion dollars by 2025, and to at least 30 billion dollars by 2030. Impact on India: The Global Biodiversity Plan gives India legroom on farm subsidies. The GBF gives elbow space to India both in terms of continuing farm subsidies and pesticide use. About Nagoya Protocol: This protocol was established at the Convention on Biological Diversity. The Nagoya Protocol is an international agreement that aims to fairly and equitably distribute the advantages that result from the use of genetic resources. The procedure was approved in Nagoya, Japan, in 2010 and came into effect in 2014. The Nagoya Protocol has been ratified by 137 parties as of April 2022, including the European Union and 136 UN member states. India signed the Nagoya Protocol in 2011 and ratified it in October 2012. The ratification by India was done at the 11th Conference of Parties (COP) to the CBD, which was conducted in Hyderabad. Members are required under the protocol to implement procedures pertaining to compliance, benefit sharing, and access to genetic resources. Source: DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2)  Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat of the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only  2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5  Q.3) With reference to the ‘’New York Declaration on Forests’’, which of the following statements is correct? (2021) It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014 It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests It is a legally binding international declaration It is endorsed by governments, big companies, and indigenous communities. India was one of the signatories at its inception Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 5 only 3 and 4 only 2 and 5 only Missing Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The 17th Lok Sabha has completed three years and seven months of its term; however, the House has not elected a Deputy Speaker. Presiding officers of Lok Sabha: Speaker and Deputy Speaker: There are two presiding officers for the Lok Sabha, namely the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, who are elected by the members of the House. Constitutional provisions: Under Article 93 of the Constitution, as soon as the House meets after the election these two presiding officers are elected one after the other. Article 178 contains the corresponding position for Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of a state. Officers of Parliament: The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are described in the Constitution as officers of Parliament, which signifies their importance in the parliamentary system. About Deputy Speaker: Article 93 of Constitution of India: The House of the People shall, as soon as may be, choose two members of the House to be respective Speaker and Deputy Speaker thereof and, so often as the office of Speaker or Deputy Speaker becomes vacant, the House shall choose another member to be Speaker or Deputy Speaker, as the case may be. Election: In the Lok Sabha, the lower House of the Indian Parliament, both Presiding Officers – the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are elected from among its members by a simple majority of members present and voting in the House. Independent from Speaker: The Deputy Speaker is independent of the Speaker, not subordinate to him, as both are elected from among the members of the House. When he presides over a sitting, he has all the powers of a Speaker. Gaining importance: In addition to presiding over the House in the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker chaired committees both inside and outside of Parliament. Ensures continuity of Speaker’s office: The Deputy Speaker ensures the continuity of the Speakers office by acting as the Speaker when the office becomes vacant: Illness, or by death, or because of resignation or any other reason. When the Speaker’s post falls vacant, it is the Deputy Speaker who assumes all the powers of the Speaker and exercises both legislative powers and administrative powers. Presiding officer in specific cases: When a resolution for removal of the Speaker is up for discussion, the Constitution specifies that the Deputy Speaker presides over the proceedings of the House. A Deputy Speaker is also the ex-officio chairman of some committees by virtue of his position. From ruling party or opposition: In the case of the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, the position has varied over the years. Until the fourth Lok Sabha, the Congress held both the Speaker and Deputy Speakers positions. In the fifth Lok Sabha, whose term was extended due to the Emergency, an independent member, Shri G G Swell, was elected the Deputy Speaker. The tradition for the post of the Deputy Speaker going to the Opposition party started during the term of Prime Minister Morarji Desai’s government. Historical background of Deputy Speaker: The history of the office of Deputy Speaker goes back to the government of India Act of 1919 when he was called Deputy President as the Speaker was known as the president of the central legislative assembly. This tradition was continued after Independence, when a Deputy Speaker was elected to chair, besides the Speaker, the meetings of the Constituent Assembly (Legislative). The first Speaker was G V Mavlankar and the first Deputy Speaker was M Ananthasayanam Ayyangar who was elected by the Constituent Assembly (Legislative) on September 3, 1948. Later under the new Constitution, he was elected the first Deputy Speaker of the House of the people on May 28, 1952. Thereafter, every Lok Sabha had a Deputy Speaker who would be elected after a few days after the election of the Speaker. Power of Deputy Speaker: The Deputy Speaker has the same power as the Speaker when he presides over a sitting of the House. Similarly no appeal lies to the Speaker against a ruling given by the Deputy Speaker. So the Speaker is powerless in the matter of revising or overruling a decision of the Deputy Speaker. Under Article 95(1) of the Constitution, the Deputy Speaker gets all the powers of the Speaker when the office of the Speaker is vacant, so the Deputy Speaker can also determine the petitions relating to disqualification under the 10th Schedule of the Constitution. Although the Deputy Speaker gets to exercise these powers only in the absence of the Speaker his decisions are final and binding when he gives a ruling. In the eventuality of the Speaker remaining absent for a longer time due to illness or otherwise the government will have to grapple with the unpredictability of a ruling or an adverse decision by a Deputy Speaker who comes from the Opposition ranks. Need for Deputy Speaker: Unprecedented Move: It is quite unfortunate that the Deputy Speaker has not been appointed for more than two years now (for the first time in the history of independent India). Decreasing Discussion in recent times: Parliament is viewed as a temple of deliberation and discussion. But, in the recent Lok Sabha Monsoon session, there has been zero discussion on any policy issue. Falling productivity: In 2020-21, Lok Sabha functioned for 34 days while Rajya Sabha functioned for 33 days. It was the lowest ever in India. Winter session 2020 was not conducted completely. Even Budget Session 2021 was reduced by two weeks because of election campaigning. Hasty legislation: No bill was passed to the Parliamentary Committee. Every bill introduced in this Monsoon Session was passed within the same session. Surprisingly, 18 bills were passed in Lok Sabha with only one bill being discussed over 15 minutes. Issues associated with the role of Deputy Speaker: No specific timeline for Deputy Speaker’s appointment: Article 93 for Lok Sabha and Article 178 for state Assemblies state that these Houses “shall, as soon as may be”, choose two of its members to be Speaker and Deputy Speaker. The Constitution and the Assembly rules do not specify a time-frame for filling a vacancy in the post. Maintaining Neutrality: It would be unrealistic to expect a Presiding Officer to completely abjure all party considerations while functioning as there are structural issues regarding the manner of appointment of the Speaker and his/her tenure in office. Way Forward: The office of the Deputy Speaker is as important as the office of the speaker. The constitution has created this office for the smooth functioning of the house. Therefore, in the present circumstances, the post of Deputy Speaker is desirable to maintain neutrality and smooth functioning of the Parliament. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2017) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Genetic Information and Right to Privacy Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: Recently, the Supreme Court (SC) has held in a judgment that children cannot be subjected to DNA tests in each and every case to establish proof of infidelity. About Genetic Privacy: It is a term that seeks to prevent a third party from using a person’s genetic data without his permission. A person’s genes are the blueprint of his or her physical or biological being, personal life and information about the future, present and history. Other information that can be abstracted: alcoholism, depression, aggressiveness, sexual orientation, mental productivity etc. When a person’s genetic data is used for testing, medical purposes, or other purposes, his privacy should be protected. Genetic data is made up of a person’s deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and chromosomes. DNA sample sources: hair, teeth, blood etc. SC rulings on genetic information: Genetic information is personal and intimate. Thus, a child’s genetic information is part of his fundamental right to privacy. Children have the right to not have their legitimacy questioned before a court of law. DNA tests would harm the reputation and dignity of the mother. The children should not to be subjected to forensic/DNA testing during the divorce proceedings. Family courts should direct for a DNA test only in the situations where it is a last resort and in the interest of justice. Status of Genetic Privacy in India: In 2018, The Delhi High Court stated that discrimination in health insurance against people based on their genetic origin, in the absence of genetic test is unconstitutional. Genetic discrimination breaches Article 14, which guarantees equality before the law. In Justice KS Puttaswamy (Retd.) & Anr. v. Union of India, SC stated that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental Right under Article 21. Genetic discrimination in other countries: In 2008, the United States had passed the Genetic Information Non-discrimination Act (GINA), to protects people from genetic discrimination in health care and jobs. Council of Europe has adopted the Guidelines on the use of genetic knowledge for insurance purposes. Under Canada’s Genetic Non-discrimination Act, it is illegal for insurers or employers to request DNA testing or findings. Advantages of genetic information: Genetic information may disclose information about a disease, illness, or a person’s health status. It can make a person more aware of his or her health. A person can learn about his ancestors and distant relatives. One’s data can be used in medical research. If a person learns about his illness early on, he would be able to take more preventative steps to treat it. Disadvantages of genetic Information: Based on the profile available in the domain, genetic evidence can be fabricated in any crime scene through engineered DNA samples not taken from a real individual. Data such as person’s personal life, health, family members, and other private information when assessed by a third party can be misused. If such information is revealed, it can negatively impact individuals lives, such as discrimination from employers, insurance providers, the government, and others. UN Convention on the Rights of the Child: It is a treaty adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1989. It recognises a child as every human being under 18 years old. It is an international agreement that is legally binding on the members. It sets out the civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights of every child, regardless of their race, religion or abilities. It includes rights such as Right to Education, Right to Rest and Leisure, Right to Protection from Mental or Physical Abuse including Rape and Sexual Exploitation. It has been ratified by all members of the UN except for the United States. It is the most widely ratified human rights treaty in the history of the world. Way Forward: Thus with improvements in encryption, safe storage, and data transfer protocols, there may be potential to improve privacy protections technologically. From an ethical standpoint, it will be crucial to keep educating the public about the benefits and dangers of genetic testing and data sharing. It may entail activities to provide fair access to genetic testing and benefits as well as efforts to support transparency, openness, and accountability around the collection, use, and sharing of genetic data. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR): It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture. It is statutory body established under the Societies Registration Act 1980. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India’s biodiversity, consider the following statements: Assam has more than 90 % of the total Rhino in India. Only the Great One-Horned Rhino is found in India. One -horned Rhinos are listed under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Nagoya protocol: This protocol was established at the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity. India signed the Nagoya Protocol in 2011. Protocol is an international agreement that aims to fairly and equitably distribute the advantages that result from the use of genetic resources. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 25th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 24th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 25th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here