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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Hakki Pikkis Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs Context: Members of the Hakki Pikki tribal community from Karnataka are stuck in violence-hit Sudan. About Hakki Pikkis: Source:            Indian Express Hakki in Kannada means ‘bird’ and Pikki means ‘catchers’. They are a semi-nomadic tribe, traditionally of bird catchers and hunters. They are divided into four clans, called Gujaratia, Panwar, Kaliwala, and Mewaras. There was a hierarchy among the clans, with the Gujaratia at the top and the Mewaras at the bottom. They move in groups from place to place in search of livelihood. Hakki Pikki people are believed to hail originally from the bordering districts of Gujarat and Rajasthan. They arrived in Karnataka via Andhra Pradesh, as they still remember a place called “Jalapally” near Hyderabad as their ancestral home, where their forefathers lived for a considerable period. They are now spread across south India. Their population in Karnataka is 11,892, and they live majorly in Davangere, Mysuru, Kolar, Hassan, and Shimoga districts. Source:    Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above are correct? (CSP 2019) 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 SpaceX Starship Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: SpaceX’s Starship, the world’s biggest rocket, exploded during its first test-flight to space. About Starship: Source:           https://c.realme.com SpaceX’s Starship spacecraft and Super Heavy rocket – collectively referred to as Starship. It is the first stage, or booster, of the Starship launch system. Powered by 33 Raptor engines using sub-cooled liquid methane (CH4) and liquid oxygen (LOX). The Raptor engine is a reusable methane-oxygen staged-combustion engine that powers the Starship system Super Heavy is fully reusable and will re-enter Earth’s atmosphere to land back at the launch site. Starship spacecraft is the second stage of the Starship system. It is also capable of point-to-point transport on Earth, enabling travel to anywhere in the world in one hour or less. It is a fully reusable transportation system designed to carry both crew and cargo to Earth orbit, the Moon, Mars, and beyond. It is the world’s most powerful launch vehicle ever developed, capable of carrying up to 150 metric tons fully reusable and 250 metric tons expendable. Objectives the goal is to make Starship reusable and bring down the price to a few million dollars per flight. The eventual objective is to establish bases on the Moon and Mars and put humans on the “path to being a multi-planet civilization Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface. Q.2) The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to Voyager-2 New Horizons LISA Pathfinder Evolved LISA Global Food Policy Report 2023 Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently, the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI) published Global Food Policy Report, 2023 which said that investing in early warning systems is essential to save lives, livelihoods and money. Key highlights of the report: The report called for a more proactive response to food system shocks with a focus on three key areas: Crisis prediction and preparation Building resilience before and during crises Making crisis response supportive and inclusive of women, forced migrants and other vulnerable groups. It advocated for strengthening agrifood value chains to support livelihoods and food security during crises. It advised governments to maintain a business environment that fosters flexibility, and technical and financial innovation. In 2021, some 768 million people across the world were undernourished, according to the Food and Agriculture Organization’s State of Food Security and Nutrition Report. This was well above the 572 million reported in 2014. In 2022, the food insecurity was exacerbated by the Russia-Ukraine war and related spikes in food and fertiliser prices. In fact, the fertiliser prices rose by 199 per cent between May 2020 and the end of 2022, stated the World Economic Forum recently. As a result, there has been an increase in the number of people at risk due to food insecurity, hunger, and malnutrition. In 2022, as many as 205 million people in 45 countries experienced crisis-level acute food insecurity or worse, nearly double the number in 2016, the IFPRI report highlighted. International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI): It was established in 1975 and provides research-based policy solutions to sustainably reduce poverty and end hunger and malnutrition in developing countries. Headquarters: Washington, D.C It is a research centre of CGIAR, which is the world’s largest agricultural innovation network. Its research focuses on five strategic research areas: Fostering Climate-Resilient and Sustainable Food Supply Promoting Healthy Diets and Nutrition for Al Building Inclusive and Efficient Markets, Trade Systems, and Food Industry Transforming Agricultural and Rural Economies Strengthening Institutions and Governance Source:    DTE Exobiology Extant Life Surveyor (EELS) Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) is developing Snake-like Robot Exobiology Extant Life Surveyor (EELS). NASA plans to send EELS to Enceladus. About Exobiology Extant Life Surveyor (EELS): EELS is a mobile instrument system built to explore internal terrain structures, assess habitability and ultimately search for evidence of life. It aims to examine the moon’s surface and determine whether life is present. EELS architecture is a snake-like, self-propelled robot. It uses first-of-a-kind rotating propulsion units that act as tracks, gripping mechanisms, and propeller units underwater, enabling the robot to access a plume vent exit and follow it to its ocean source. It can traverse ocean-world-inspired terrain and fluidized media. Source:   Hindustan Times PSLV-C55 mission Syllabus Prelims: Science and Technology In News: Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is scheduled to launch the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle C55 (PSLV-C55) mission with Singapore’s TeLEOS-2 as primary satellite and Lumelite-4 as a co-passenger satellite. The PSLV-C55 mission has the PSLV Orbital Experimental Module (POEM), where the spent PS4 of the launch vehicle would be utilised as an orbital platform to carry out scientific experiments through non-separating payloads. This is the third time that PS4 will be used after satellite separation as a platform for experiments. TeLEOS-2 satellite Primary Satellite Support the satellite imagery requirements of various agencies within the government of Singapore. Carries a Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) payload. Provide all-weather day and night coverage, and be capable of imaging at 1m full-polarimetric resolution. Lumelite-4 satellite A co-passenger satellite An advanced 12U satellite developed for the technological demonstration of the high-performance space-borne VHF Data Exchange System (VDES). Aims to augment Singapore’s e-navigation maritime safety and benefit the global shipping community. About Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle(PSLV): PSLV is known as the ‘workhorse’ of ISRO. It is the third-generation launch vehicle of India. It is a four-staged launch vehicle with first and third stages using solid rocket motors and second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. It is the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages. News Source: The Hindu Sloth Bear Syllabus Prelims: Environment In News: A report has been sought after a sloth bear trapped in a well died during rescue operations in Kerala. About Sloth Bear Primarily eat termites and ants Routinely carry their cubs on their backs. Known as “Honey Bear” for their love for honey. Do not hibernate Found in: Sri Lanka, India, Bhutan and Nepal, predominantly in lowland areas. At least 90% of the present Sloth Bear range occurs in India. Sloth Bears have been extirpated from Bangladesh. Scientific Name: Melursus ursinus Habitat: A forest-dwelling member of the family Ursidae (comprises 8 species of bears) that inhabits tropical or subtropical regions of India and Sri Lanka. Threats: Habitat loss, poaching for body parts and are sometimes captured for use in performances or hunted because of their aggressive behavior and destruction of crops. Protection Status: IUCN Red List: Vulnerable CITES listing: Appendix I Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I Additional Information About IUCN Red List of Threatened Species It was established in 1964, by the IUCN and has evolved to become the world’s most comprehensive information source on the global extinction risk status of animal, fungus and plant species. The IUCN Red List is a critical indicator of the health of the world’s biodiversity. It uses a set of quantitative criteria to evaluate the extinction risk of thousands of species. It provides information about range, population size, habitat and ecology, use and/or trade, threats, and conservation actions that will help inform necessary conservation decisions. It is used by government agencies, wildlife departments, conservation-related NGOs, natural resource planners, educational organisations, students, and the business community. The Index is available for five groups: birds, mammals, amphibians, corals and cycads. About CITES Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) is part of a multilateral treaty that includes plant, animals and birds under varying categories of threat of extinction and which will be jointly protected by members of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). India is a signatory to CITES. News Source: Hindustan Times Kamakhya Temple Corridor Syllabus Prelims: Indian Culture In News: The government in Assam is planning to construct a corridor at the Kamakhya Temple in Guwahati on the lines of the Kashi-Vishwanath Temple Corridor in Varanasi. The project will transform the grandeur of this major ‘shakti peeth’ significantly while also improving the accessibility for differently abled and aged devotees and tourists manifold. About Kamakhya Temple: Located on Nilachal Hill in Guwahati, Assam Considered one of the oldest and sacred places of worship. Millions of pilgrims and tourists visit the temple every year, especially during the Ambubachi Mela held in June every year. Ambubachi Mela, is a four-day fair to mark the annual menstruation of the goddess One of 51 shaktipeeths or seat of Shakti followers, each representing a body part of Sati, Lord Shiva’s companion. The temple’s sanctum sanctorum houses the yoni — female genital — symbolised by a rock. Temple priests said the ritualistic fair celebrating the goddess’ period is one of the reasons why the taboo associated with menstruation is less in Assam compared to other parts of India. The attainment of womanhood of girls in Assam is celebrated with a ritual called ‘Tuloni Biya’, meaning small wedding. A centrepiece of Tantrik Shaktism cult in India Nilachala Style of Architecture: It had been modelled out of a combination of two different styles, namely, the traditional nagara or North Indian and saracenic or Mughal. The main temple is surrounded by individual temples dedicated to the ten Mahavidyas: Kali, Tara, Sodashi, Bhuvaneshwari, Bhairavi, Chhinnamasta, Dhumavati, Bagalamukhi, Matangi and Kamalatmika. News Source: Hindustan Times Coalition to Facilitate Cleaner Energy Transitions Syllabus Prelims: Environment In News: A transition to Net Zero by scaling up wind and solar energy projects would be significantly less damaging than other renewable pathways, stated a new report by non-profit World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and intergovernmental organisation International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA). The Report Stated Adopting the right mix of low-carbon technologies to meet energy demand can help stabilise global temperatures and protect ecosystems. Solar and wind energy-based transitions can help achieve global energy authority International Energy Agency’s standards of a power system capable of holding global temperature rise below 1.5 degrees Celsius. This United Nations-mandated Paris Agreement goal is a crucial threshold to avoid the most disastrous consequences of climate change. Though wind energy is often accused of its detrimental effect on bats and birds, its impact is minimal compared to other major energy technologies, such as fossil fuels, bioenergy and nuclear energy. Construction of other renewable energy projects, such as hydropower dams and associated reservoirs, often leads to the inundation of vast swathes of natural habitat and alters natural flow regimes and downstream habitats. Bioenergy, in all its forms, including biomass, biofuel and biogas, has a larger biodiversity impact per unit of energy than that of wind and solar. However, the consequence of bioenergy cannot be generalised as this depends on the feedstock involved. But in some instances, it added that bioenergy and hydropower could also provide local renewable energy options with relatively low impacts on nature, depending on the local conditions. Suggested Way Forward Urged governments to consider the impact on nature at the earliest stage by evaluating the renewable energy value chain (from sourcing material to disposal) and developing national regulatory schemes that require energy developers to contribute to national conservation targets. Fossil fuels lie at the heart of energy and climate crises, so a shift to renewable energy is the only way out. But the expanding renewable energy projects should consider their impacts on climate and biodiversity. Adopting a circular economy model prioritising material reuse can help avoid and minimise impacts on nature. Such models can contribute to nature-positive outcomes. Note: CLEANaction is a partnership of several non-profits and organisations like WWF, IRENA and BirdLife International formed to protect nature during energy transition. MUST READ: Carbon Trading Policy + India’s higher Climatic Targets News Source: Down To Earth Wastewater could be a future resource Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Environment) Context: Water quality and the availability of freshwater are serious concerns across the globe and threaten to disrupt life on the planet. India, too, has serious water woes, some of which were recently captured in an independent study by the Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW). The CEEW in its study Titled “Reuse of Treated Wastewater in India: Market Potential and Recommendations for Strengthening Governance”, has offered some pertinent solutions. Highlights of the CEEW Report: Using the Central Pollution Control Board’s 2021 data, the report reflected on the fact that India treats only 28 per cent of the total sewage it generates per day from its urban areas. Of the 72,368 million litres per day (mld) of sewage produced in these areas, only 20,236 mld is actually treated. Tier-1 and -2 cities, which make up 72 per cent of the urban population, produce an estimated 38,254 mld of sewage, of which only 30 per cent is actually treated. The report assessed that India will produce over 35,000 million cubic meters of wastewater by 2050, and currently, only 10 States have treated wastewater reuse policies. The CEEW researchers analysed — using Central Water Commission estimates — that 11 of the 15 major river basins are likely to face water stress by 2025. They felt it was “essential to explore alternative sources of water to address the demand-supply gap.” “Reusing treated wastewater for irrigation could have generated 28 million metric tonnes of fruit and vegetable produce and ₹96600 crore in revenue in 2021 alone. Using wastewater for irrigation in 2021 would have saved 1.3 million tonnes of greenhouse gas emissions and ₹5 crore in fertilizer use.” The “market value of treated wastewater in India will be ₹83 crores in 2025 and Rs ₹190 crore in 2050 if the mechanism to sell it to select sectors is developed.” About Waste Water: Wastewater is the polluted form of water generated from rainwater runoff and human activities and is also called sewage. It is typically categorized by the manner in which it is generated—specifically, as domestic sewage, industrial sewage, or storm sewage (stormwater). The excess nutrients thus generated cause eutrophication in the water body and gradual deterioration of the water quality. Eutrophication is the process of a water body becoming overly enriched with minerals and nutrients which induces excessive growth of algae or algal bloom, thereby, leading to oxygen depletion of the water body. Wastewater Management in India: Under Namami Gange Programme, around 164 Sewage Treatment Plants are being constructed worth Rs. 25000 crores that will help to treat around 5000 MLD of wastewater, resulting in major savings of freshwater resources. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, amended 1988 It was introduced to provide for the prevention and control of water pollution and the maintaining or restoring of the wholesomeness of water. It also provides for the establishment of boards for the control of water pollution. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977, amended 2003 It binds consumers who are carrying on an industry that falls within the provisions to affix meters for the purpose of assessing the quantity of water used in the act. Industries also have to include operations or processes or treatment and disposal systems which consume water or give rise to sewage effluent. Only one-third of India’s wastewater is currently treated, leading to the high burden of water-borne diseases. While urban water access is high on average, significant gaps remain across the country, and wastewater treatment remains stuck at the national average of around 33%. Large wastewater generators—Punjab, Maharashtra, Gujarat, and UP—can potentially treat 65-100% of their urban wastewater. Despite this, many populous states, such as Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, and Andhra Pradesh, have only enough installed capacity to treat less than half of their wastewater. Benefits of wastewater reuse: Reduce Water Bills Use Fewer Water Resources Irrigate the garden during drought or water restrictions Cut down the amount of pollution going into waterways Help save money on new infrastructure for water supplies and wastewater treatment Decrease demand on infrastructure for sewage transport, treatment, and disposal, allowing it to work better and last longer Challenges in India’s Wastewater Management A suitable wastewater treatment infrastructure is a prerequisite for effective wastewater management. In India, there is a severe dearth of this infrastructure. India’s present capacity for water treatment is only 27.3%, according to a recent assessment by the Central Pollution Control Board (March 2021). Many of India’s existing garbage treatment facilities are not even operational. They either require urgent maintenance and repairs, or they never took off. Water is designated as a State topic in Schedule 7 of the Indian Constitution, but it is expressly bound by the rules listed in the Union List. It gives the Parliament the ability to pass laws governing the development and regulation of interstate waters in the wider public interest. While the State still has the authority to create its own rules governing how water is used in the State, including for irrigation, drainage, embankments, water storage, and water supply. Due to the power disparities between the Centre and the States caused by these constitutional procedures, there is uncertainty regarding federal jurisdiction. The absence of duties and responsibilities for all parties involved that are clearly defined leads to either duplication of effort or truancy. According to the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts, local, rural and urban levels of water resource control are increasingly fragmented. Water governance must be recognised at all levels for the effective operation of policies and the general development of water bodies, even though a decentralised approach is required for better assessment and resolution of wastewater concerns. Way forward: Make a paradigm shift in policymaking: Wastewater needs to be recognised as an integral part of water resources and hence addressed in all water management-related policies. Invest in technological developments: Dedicated funds should be allocated for the research and development of wastewater treatment technologies, which can optimise resource efficiency. State Governments need to come out with a clear strategy for research and development in this sphere. Frame water quality standards: Water quality standards for both safe discharge and reuse need to be well defined. Establish institutional mechanisms: Urban local bodies should be empowered to formulate and adopt long-term, city-level wastewater reuse plans, with roles and responsibilities clearly defined with active engagement of end-user groups. Optimal use of financial resources: Targeted performance-based incentives should be provided for the operators/end-users of wastewater treatment plants and an effective pricing mechanism should be established, considering different categories of end-users and their paying abilities. Incorporating the public as a stakeholder: Responsible authorities should develop effective public outreach plans to build public confidence and develop responses for the successful implementation of wastewater reuse projects. Source:  The Hindu MUST READ: Water stress in India Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) The Global Food Policy Report 2023 recently released by UN Food and Agricultural Organization United Nations Development Programme International Food Policy Research Institute None of the above Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Kamakhya Temple: It is situated on Nilachal Hills in Assam It is regarded as one of the oldest of the Shakti Peethas in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle(PSLV): It is the third-generation launch vehicle of India. It is a five-staged launch vehicle It is the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 22nd April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 21st April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 22nd April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 42] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 42->Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) State of World Population (SOWP) Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs Context: The United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) has recently released its report- State of World Population (SOWP). Key highlights of the report: Source:              Hindustan Times The population of the world is 8,045 million. The largest share in population has age between 15- 64 years (65%), followed by the 10-24 years (24%) and above 65 years of age (10 %). China and India accounts for the largest populations in Asia, with more than 1.4 billion each in 2022. India is now the most populous country in the world, outstripping China’s population. The rate of global population growth has fallen and is less than 1 % since 2020. India’s demography: Age group: Source: Indian Express 68% belongs to the 15-64 years and 26% belongs to the 10-24 years. Result: India is one of the youngest countries in the world with 50% of its population below the age of 25. The fertility rate in India has been steadily dropping and is lower than 2.1 children per woman. Reason of decline: use of contraceptive methods, spacing of pregnancies, access to health care, impetus to family planning, increasing wealth and education. Life expectancy for men is 71 years, while it is lower for women at 74 years. Key projections: The global population could grow to around 8.5 billion in 2030, 9.7 billion in 2050 and 10.4 billion in 2100. Maximum increase till 2050 will be concentrated in: the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Egypt, Ethiopia, India, Nigeria, Pakistan, the Philippines and the United Republic of Tanzania. If India’s population continues to grow at the current pace, it would double from the present value in the next 75 years. Outlook for population growth Latest projections suggest that the rate of global population growth has fallen, and has been at less than 1 per cent since 2020. This is largely due to declining fertility. Around two thirds of people live in a country or area with a total fertility rate at or below 2.1 children per woman (also called “replacement fertility” rate or “zero-growth fertility” rate). In 1950 the global fertility rate stood at 5. Already 60% of the world’s population lives in a region where the fertility rate is below replacement level, up from 40% in 1990. Migration as driver of growth: It is international migration that is now the driver of growth in many countries, with 281 million people living outside their country of birth in 2020. Migration has also occurred due to war, famines, and other catastrophes. South Asia clocks some of the highest emigration trends, with India seeing an estimated net outflow of 3.5 million between 2010 and 2021. Pakistan has the highest net flow of migrants of 16.5 million during the same period. Birth rate: Despite the continuing decline in the average number of births per woman, the total annual number of births has remained stable at around 140 million since the late 1980s. It is due to the youthful age distribution of the global population. In 2021, 134 million babies were born worldwide. In the future, the number of new-borns is expected to slightly increase to reach 138 million annually between 2040 and 2045, despite the continuous decline in the average number of births per woman. In 2021, most births worldwide occurred in the two most populous regions—Asia and sub-Saharan Africa. Life Expectancy: One of the reasons for population growth globally flagged by the UNFPA has been that of increasing life expectancy. Fertility rates and mortality rates have been dropping in various parts of the world with better access to health care and improving standards of living. Life expectancy among men now stands at 71 years while among women it stands at 76 years. Globally, life expectancy reached 72.8 years in 2019, an increase of almost 9 years since 1990. Source:  Hindustan Times Must Read: Demographic Dividend R21 / Matrix-M Malaria Vaccine Syllabus Prelims: Science and Technology In News: After Ghana, Nigeria’s approval of malaria vaccine will help world achieve WHO goal of reducing malaria cases, deaths by 90% by 2030. About R21 / Matrix-M Malaria Vaccine: The R21, otherwise referred to as Matrix-M malaria vaccine, is the second vaccine ever developed for a disease. The first-ever malaria vaccine, RTS, S or Mosquirix was approved by the WHO in 2021. Since 2015, 9 countries have been certified by the WHO Director-General as malaria-free, including Maldives, Sri Lanka , Kyrgyzstan, Paraguay, Uzbekistan, Argentina, Algeria, China (2021) and El Salvador (2021). Initiatives to Curb Malaria Global Initiatives: The WHO has also identified 25 countries with the potential to eradicate malaria by 2025 under its ‘E-2025 Initiative’. WHO has initiated the High Burden to High Impact (HBHI) initiative in 11 high malaria burden countries, including India. Implementation of “High Burden to High Impact (HBHI)” initiative has been started in four states i.e. West Bengal and Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh. Indian Initiatives: The Government of India set a target to eliminate malaria in India by 2027. It developed a National Framework for Malaria Elimination (2016-2030) National Strategic Plan for Malaria Elimination for 5 years. Launched in 2017 It provided a roadmap to end malaria in 571 districts out of India’s 678 districts by 2022. Malaria Elimination Research Alliance-India (MERA-India) Established by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) Source:   DTE MUST READ:   CRISPR Biotechnology Previous Year Questions Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 YZ Ceti b Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Astronomers have detected a repeating radio signal from an exoplanet, YZ Ceti b, suggesting the presence of a magnetic field — one of the prerequisites for a habitable planet — around it. About YZ Ceti b: Source:    NASA It is a rocky, earth-sized exoplanet. It is a terrestrial exoplanet that orbits an M-type star. Its discovery was announced in 2017. Its mass is 0.7 Earths. It takes 2 days to complete one orbit of its star. It is 12 light-years from Earth. Source:  The Hindu Previous year Questions Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?  (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies do not change Gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in straight line Speed of light is always same National Technical Research Organisation (NTRO) Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The Central Government recently appointed former Special Protection Group (SPG) chief as the Chairman of the National Technical Research Organisation (NTRO). About National Technical Research Organisation (NTRO): It is a technical intelligence Agency under the National Security Advisor in the Prime Minister’s Office, India. It was formed in 2004 to strengthen the country’s national security apparatus. It is under the direct control of the Prime Minister’s Office and operates as an autonomous organization. Primary Objective: Gather technical intelligence, which involves intercepting and analyzing communications signals, imagery intelligence, and cyber intelligence. It also provides technical assistance to other intelligence agencies in the country, including the Intelligence Bureau and Research and Analysis Wing. It is responsible for maintaining a database of information related to technology and developing advanced tools and techniques for intelligence gathering. It also conducts research and development activities in the field of technical intelligence. NTRO is headed by a Chairman who reports directly to the Prime Minister of India. HQ: New Delhi, About Special Protection Group (SPG): It was formed in 1985 after the assassination of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi as an executive body on the recommendation of the Birbal Nath committee. Later on, it became a statutory body under Special Protection Group Act 1988. It is governed by the Cabinet secretariat of India. SPG chief is an officer of the rank of inspector-general. It is entrusted with the task of providing proximate security to the Prime Minister of India, the former Prime Minister and their immediate family members. Source:    India Today National Quantum Mission (NQM) Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: The Union Cabinet recently approved the ₹6,003 crore National Quantum Mission (NQM). About National Quantum Mission (NQM): NQM will fund research and development of quantum computing technology and associated applications. Led by: Department of Science and Technology The mission will have defined milestones that are expected to be achieved over the course of eight years (2023-24 to 2030-31). India is the sixth country to have a dedicated quantum mission after the US, Austria, Finland, France and China. Four thematic hubs, or T-Hubs, with a focus on quantum computing, communication, sensing and metrology, and materials and devices will be established in India’s leading academic and national R&D institutes. Objectives: Create intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 qubits in the next eight years. Establish satellite-based secure quantum communications between ground stations within India, as well as with other countries, covering a range of 2000 km. It will look to provide inter-city quantum key distribution over 2000 km. Multi-node quantum network with quantum memories. Help to advance atomic technology with highly sensitive magnetometers and precision atomic clocks that serve communication, navigation, and timing. Aid in designing and synthesising quantum materials, including superconductors, novel semiconductor structures, and topological materials for the fabrication of quantum devices. Source:   The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to “Software as a Service (SaaS)”, consider the following statements: SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022) Cloud Services Quantum Computing Visible Light Communication Technologies Wireless Communication Technologies Audit Quality Maturity Model (AQMM) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) recently launched the Audit Quality Maturity Model (AQMM) with the aim of enhancing the quality of audits and improving transparency. About Audit Quality Maturity Model (AQMM): It is a tool for the self-evaluation of audit firms & sole proprietors towards technologically driven mechanisms to increase operational efficiency. AQMM is an amalgamation of a well-researched set of Audit Quality Indicators (AQIs). It includes operations of the firm, viz. revenue budgeting and pricing, audit practice manual, budgeting of engagements, timesheet, use of technology adoption, quality control for engagements, Human Resource Management including resource planning and monitoring, performance evaluation and compensation, physical and IT infrastructure. The AQMM model is structured into 3 sections with a total score of 600 points, Practice Management (Operation); Human Resource Management; Practice Management -Strategic/Functional; Based on the score(s) obtained under each of the sections, the firm shall arrive at a level ranging from Level 1 to 4. While Level 1 depicts that the firm is very nascent, Level 4 indicates that the firm has made significant adoption of standards and procedures. About Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI): It is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament, viz. The Chartered Accountants Act, 1949. Mandate: Regulating the profession of Chartered Accountancy in the country; Formulation of Accounting Standards; and Prescription of Standard Auditing Procedures. It functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India. The affairs of the ICAI are managed by a Council which comprises of 40 members, of whom 32 are elected by the Chartered Accountants and the remaining 8 are nominated by the Central Government. Source:   Financial Express MUST READ:   NFRA Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What was the purpose of the Inter Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently? (2019) To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 crore or more To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are-under consortium lending Toque Macaque Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Sri Lanka confirmed China’s request for importing 1,00,000  Toque macaques. About  Toque Macaque: Source:  https://neprimateconservancy.org/toque-macaque/ It is a golden brown-coloured monkey. The toque macaque monkey is endemic to Sri Lanka . It spends a large amount of time in trees and lives in all types of forests Threats: habitat loss owing to the encroachment of plantations, and fuel wood collection. Other threats include shooting, snaring, and poisoning of the animals, as they are considered to be crop pests. Protection Status: It is protected internationally under CITES Appendix II. It is classified as Endangered on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) red list. Source:                The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Garbh-Ini programme Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the Indian scientists working in the Garbh-Ini programme have identified 19 single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs), or genetic markers, that are associated with preterm or premature birth. About Garbh-Ini programme: Source:     garbhinicohort.in It promotes Maternal and Child Health and develops prediction tools for preterm birth. Garbh-Ini is a cohort study of pregnant women initiated in May 2015 at the civil hospital in Gurugram, Haryana, India. It is an initiative under the Department of Biotechnology of the Union Ministry of Science and Technology as a collaborative interdisciplinary programme. This program is led by the Translational Health Science and Technology Institute (THSTI), NCR Biotech cluster, Faridabad. It is part of the Atal Jai Anusandhan Biotech Mission – Undertaking Nationally Relevant Technology Innovation (UNaTI). About single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP): It is the most common type of genetic variation among people. Each SNP represents a difference in a single DNA building block, called a nucleotide. For example, an SNP may replace the nucleotide cytosine (C) with the nucleotide thymine (T) in a certain stretch of DNA. Most commonly these are found in the DNA between genes. Significance: These help in predicting an individual’s response to certain drugs, susceptibility to environmental factors such as toxins, and risk of developing diseases. These can also be used to track the inheritance of disease-associated genetic variants within families. They can act as biological markers which help scientists locate genes that are associated with the disease. Source:    Indian Express MUST READ:    consequences-of-declining-fertility India-Russia Relations Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: Recently, the Inter-governmental Commission on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological and Cultural Cooperation meet was held between India and Russia. India-Russia Relations: Historical relationship: During that, Russia has mentioned the support of the Soviet Union for India’s sovereignty over the disputed territories of Kashmir and Portuguese coastal enclaves such as Goa. Even after the abrogation of Article 370 Russia still supports India’s claim over Kashmir. The USSR agreed to transfer technology to co-produce the Mikoyan-Gurevich MiG-21 jet fighter in India in 1962. But the USSR rejected a similar move to China. India signed the Indo-Soviet Treaty of Friendship and Cooperation in 1971 during the Bangladesh liberation war. Political Relations: The Annual Summit meeting between the Prime Minister of India and the President of the Russian Federation is the highest institutionalized dialogue mechanism in the strategic partnership between India and Russia. So far 20 Annual Summit meetings have taken place alternatively in India and Russia. Intergovernmental Commissions: There is regular high-level interaction between the two countries. The IRIGC (India-Russia Intergovernmental Commission): It is the main body that conducts affairs at the governmental level between both countries. Both countries are members of international bodies including the UN, BRICS, G20 and SCO. Two Inter-Governmental Commissions: One on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC), co-chaired by EAM and the Russian DPM, and Another on Military-Technical Cooperation (IRIGC- MTC) co-chaired by Russian and Indian Defence Ministers, meet annually. Trade and Economic Relations: It is clear by the revised targets of increasing bilateral investment to US $ 50 billion and bilateral trade to US $ 30 billion by 2025. Bilateral trade during April 2020-March 2021 amounted USD 8.1 billion. Indian exports amounted USD 2.6 billion while imports from Russia amounted USD 5.48 billion. India Russia Intergovernmental Commission for Trade, Economic, Scientific & Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC). India-Russia Strategic Economic Dialogue (IRSED) has been established for cooperation in the field of development of economic policy and to encourage regular interactions and cooperation between the two countries. India is contemplating an FTA/ CECA with the Eurasian Economic Union. India is keen to engage more closely with Russia and the CIS countries to further intensify our trade and economic cooperation with this region. Bilateral trade in services: Bilateral trade in services has remained stable during the last 5 years with trade balance in Russia’s favour. While in 2017, trade in services was USD 1095.4 million, it reduced slightly in 2018 to USD 999 million. The figure stands at USD 973.645 million for the year 2020. Investment: Russian investment in India in 2017 has reached 18bn USD and India’s total investment in Russia so far is 13 bn USD. The overall investment target of 30 bn USD that was set for 2025 has been already crossed. Investment cooperation has been envisaged in some priority sectors such as hydrocarbons, power, coal, nuclear power, fertilizers, IT, mineral and metallurgy, steel, pharmaceuticals, infrastructure projects amongst others. Defence and Security Relations: India-Russia military-technical cooperation has evolved from a buyer-seller framework to one involving joint research, development and production of advanced defence technologies and systems Joint Tri-Services Exercise ‘INDRA 2019’ between India and Russia was carried out simultaneously in Babina, Pune, and Goa in 2019. The joint military programmes between India and Russia include: BrahMos cruise missile programme 5th generation fighter jet programme Sukhoi Su-30MKI programme Ilyushin/HAL Tactical Transport Aircraft KA-226T twin-engine utility helicopters The military hardware purchased/leased by India from Russia includes: S-400 TRIUMF Kamov Ka-226 200 to be made in India under the Make in India initiative T-90S Bhishma INS Vikramaditya aircraft carrier programme S-400 air defence system Energy Security In Energy sector Russia has built nuclear reactors in India (Kudankulam reactors), adopted strategic vision in nuclear energy, offered oil, gas and investment opportunities in the fuel sector of Russia e.g. Sakhalin I etc. Both are extending civil nuclear cooperation to 3rd countries, e.g. Bangladesh. Science & Technology The Working Group on Science and Technology, the Integrated Long Term Programme (ILTP) and the Basic Science Cooperation Programme are the three main institutional mechanisms for bilateral Science and Technology cooperation. Science Academies of the two countries promote inter-academy exchanges. Space Exploration: Both sides cooperate in the peaceful uses of outer space, including satellite launches, GLONASS navigation system, remote sensing and other societal applications of outer space. An MoU ISRO and ROSCOSMOS on Joint Activities in the field of Human Spaceflight Programme was signed during the 19th Bilateral Summit. Significance of relationship for India: Balancing China: Russia organised a trilateral meeting among the foreign ministers of Russia, India and China following deadly clashes in Galwan valley. This shows that Russia can contribute in defusing tensions with China whose relations with India have come to an inflection point. Emerging New Sectors of Economic Engagement: mining, agro-industrial, and high technology, including robotics, nanotech, and biotech. India’s footprint in the Russian Far East and in the Arctic is set to expand. Connectivity projects may get a boost too. Combating Terrorism: India and Russia are working on Afghanistan. Similarly, both are calling for early formalisation of Comprehensive Convention on International terrorism. Support At Multilateral Forums: Russia has been a long standing supporter of India’s membership of the Nuclear Suppliers Group and Permanent Membership in an expanded UNSC. Way Forward: It is in the vital interest of both countries to ensure that the area which relates to the security and defence, civil nuclear energy and space among, is insulated from mutual differences in outlook on some geo-political issues and the pressures of other powers. India-Russia economic relations carry a lot of potential, but they need to be scaled up. Finding a new logic for the ‘special relationship’ remains a task in progress, and the leadership on both sides should pursue this with energy and enthusiasm. Source:    The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) The State of World Population (SOWP) 2022 report recently released by The United Nations Population Fund United Nations Development Programme NITI Aayog World Economic Forum Q.2) ‘E-2025 Initiative’ and High Burden to High Impact (HBHI) are the Initiatives of WHOs launched to eliminate Tuberculosis Malaria Dengue Polio Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the National Technical Research Organisation (NTRO): It is a technical intelligence Agency under the National Security Advisor in the Prime Minister’s Office, India. It was formed in 1985 after the assassination of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi on the recommendation of the Birbal Nath committee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 21st April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 20th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 21st April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 41] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. Attempt Day 41-> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th April 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Mission 50K-EV4ECO Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, SIDBI launched a new financing solution for electric vehicle space under the scheme ‘Mission 50K-EV4ECO’. About Mission 50K-EV4ECO:- Objective: to promote the growth and development of the value chain of India’s electric vehicle industry. It is expected to promote EV adoption and strengthen associated infrastructure in the country. The project prioritizes the uptake of 2-wheeler, 3-wheeler, and 4-wheeler EVs through direct and indirect lending. The objective of this scheme is to provide access to affordable financing for electric vehicles and to develop charging infrastructure, including battery swapping. The scheme is the precursor to the EVOLVE scheme by SIDBI-World Bank. It provides better financing terms and other solutions to address the issues faced in the EV ecosystem in India. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI):- SIDBI was set up in 1990, under an Act of the Indian Parliament. Headquarters: Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, India Chairman & Managing Director: Shri Sivasubramanian Ramann It acts as the Principal Financial Institution for the Promotion, Financing and Development of the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise (MSME) sector as well as for the coordination of functions of institutions engaged in similar activities. The Shares of SIDBI are held by the Government of India and twenty-two other institutions / public sector banks/insurance companies owned or controlled by the Central Government MISSION: To facilitate and strengthen credit flow to MSMEs and address both financial and developmental gaps in the MSME eco-system. VISION:- To emerge as a single window for meeting the financial and developmental needs of the MSME sector to make it strong, vibrant and globally competitive. To position SIDBI Brand as the preferred and customer-friendly institution and For enhancement of shareholder wealth and highest corporate values through a modern technology platform. SIDBI is implementing the PSIG programme funded by UKAid through Department for International Development (DFID), UK. SIDBI has been implementing the “Poorest States Inclusive Growth (PSIG) Program”. It is funded by UK Government through the Department for International Development (DFID), UK since April 2012. The program aimed at enhancing income and employment opportunities of the poor, especially women, in the four poorest States of Bihar, MP, Odisha and UP by enabling the target group to participate and benefit from wider economic opportunities and growth. The program has come to a successful end in March 2020. To take the PSIG legacy forward, Swavalamban Resource Facility (SRF) has since been launched within the P&D Vertical of the Bank. MUST READ: Deep-sea Mining for Building EV Batteries SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”? (2022) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country Ignoring the consequences of disastrous ecological while infrastructure development undertaking Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme Limited Purpose Clearing Corporation (LPCC) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, SEBI released guidelines on an upfront contribution by issuers for LPCC’s Settlement Guarantee Fund. About Limited Purpose Clearing Corporation (LPCC):- LPCC is an entity established by SEBI. It will undertake the activity of clearing and settlement of repo rate transactions. The new framework will come into force from May 1.  Under the framework, an amount of 0.5 basis points of the issuance value of debt securities per annum based on the maturity of debt securities will be collected by the stock exchanges and placed in an escrow account before the allotment of the debt securities. This amount is applicable on a public issue or private placement of debt securities. The stock exchanges would transfer the amounts so collected to the bank account of the LPCC within one working day of the receipt of the amount and inform the details of the same to the LPCC. The details of the amounts so collected would also be disclosed by the stock exchanges on their website.  LPCC would provide an illustration of the calculation of the amounts to be contributed by the eligible issuers. AMC Repo Clearing Limited (ARCL) has been granted recognition as LPCC by SEBI. ARCL:- It was incorporated in April 2021. It is recognized in principle by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) under Stock Exchanges and Clearing Corporations (SECC) Regulations, 2018.  ARCL is a Central Counter Party (CCP) offering clearing and settlement services to all trades executed on NSE and BSE under triparty repo in corporate debt securities with robust risk management along with a guarantee mechanism. The mechanism will be used to settle:- disputes between clearing members contention between the clearing members and their clients differences between the LPCC and its vendors disputes between clearing members or its clients and the LPCC. The disputes arising between clearing members of the LPCC will be settled by conciliation and/or by an arbitration panel consisting of three clearing members, other than the clearing members who are party to the dispute. The decision of the arbitration panel would be final and binding on the parties. In case a clearing member or the LPCC is not satisfied then the disputes would be resolved under the procedure laid down in the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. The eligible issuers would be notified by the LPCC as per its risk management policy, Significance: A well-functioning repo market contributes to the development of the debt securities market by way of boosting the liquidity of the underlying debt securities and allowing market participants to monetize their debt holdings without selling the underlying, thus meeting their temporary need for funds. MUST READ: Long-Term SOURCE: BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements: (2022) As there is an option to exchange the equity bond, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 City Nature Challenge Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: As per recent announcements, Delhi will take part in the City Nature Challenge for the first time in 2023. About City Nature Challenge:- It started in 2016 as a competition between Los Angeles and San Francisco, the City Nature Challenge (CNC) has grown into an international event, motivating people around the world to find and document wildlife in their own cities. It was Invented by community science staff, Lila Higgins at the Natural History Museum of Los Angeles County (NHM) and Alison Young and Rebecca Johnson at the California Academy of Sciences (CAS). It is run by the Community Science teams at the California Academy of Sciences and the Natural History Museum of Los Angeles County (NHM).  It is an international effort for people to find and document plants and wildlife in cities across the globe. It’s a competition where cities are in a friendly contest with each other to see who can make the most observations of nature, who can find the most species, and who can engage the most people. The first City Nature Challenge was an eight-day competition between Los Angeles and San Francisco, engaging residents and visitors in documenting nature to better understand urban biodiversity. MUST READ: Biodiversity Mainstreaming SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only National Panchayat Awards Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the President of India, Smt Droupadi Murmu presented the National Panchayat Awards. About National Panchayat Awards:- IMAGE SOURCE: National Panchayat Awards INFO – Bing images The National Panchayat Awards were given to the best-performing Panchayats by assessing their performance in the attainment of SDGs. These annual awards were first instituted in 2011. The Awardee Panchayats are awarded under various categories namely:- Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar (DDUPSVP) for the performance under individual LSDG themes Nanaji Deshmukh Sarvottam Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar (NDSPSVP) for the aggregate performance under all 9 LSDG themes and green initiative-related Special Categories Gram Urja Swaraj Vishesh Panchayat Puraskar Carbon Neutral Vishesh Panchayat Puraskar were felicitated by the dignitaries and the award money was transferred digitally to the Awardee Panchayats on this occasion. NIRNAY app:- National Initiative for Rural India to Navigate, InnovAte and Resolve PanchaYat decisions (NIRNAY), is a mobile application of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj. It is aimed at empowering rural communities during the National Conference. It provides easy access to critical information discussed during a Gram Sabha. It will be a game-changer for rural communities in India by acting as a means of verification of facts where necessary or in case of queries that may arise regarding the resolutions undertaken during the Gram Sabha. This would bring in more transparency and increase efficiency in the functioning of Panchayats, which play a vital role in decentralized participatory democracy. It is a significant step towards realizing the vision of ‘Minimum Government, Maximum Governance’ at the grassroots level. It is expected to accelerate the pace of rural transformation to achieve the vision of Gram Swaraj laid down by Mahatma Gandhi. MUST READ: E-PANCHAYAT FACILITY SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Carbon Offsetting Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Carbon Offsets came under fire as a way for companies to compensate for carbon emissions through eco projects elsewhere. About IMAGE SOURCE: How-Carbon-Offsets-Work-Infographic-Web.png (1600×1200) (sustainabletravel.org) Carbon Offsetting can be defined as the mitigation of carbon footprints through the development of alternative projects such as solar, wind, tidal energy or reforestation. Carbon footprint can be defined as the total amount of greenhouse gases produced to directly and indirectly support human activities, usually expressed in equivalent tons of carbon dioxide (CO2). There are two types of carbon footprinting which are given below:- Organisational: Emissions from all the activities across the organisation such as energy use, industrial processes and company vehicles. Product: Emissions over the whole life of a product or service, from the extraction of raw material and manufacturing rights through to its use and final reuse, recycling or disposal. Carbon Offsetting Working Mechanism:- Buying offsets is a way to “compensate” for environmental damage. The companies make a financial contribution to projects that reduce the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, and in exchange can keep polluting themselves. Examples of projects include planting trees and rewetting peatlands which store huge amounts of carbon in their soil. Using this logic, the FIFA World Cup in Qatar recently billed itself as climate-neutral. In recent years, the carbon offset industry has boomed. It is worth $2 billion (€1.87 billion) annually and is expected to grow five times that size by the end of the decade. After the concept’s invention in 1987, some international treaties such as the Kyoto Protocol have let industrialized countries use carbon credits, each of which is worth one ton of carbon, to keep within emissions limits. Offsetting in practice:- Offset projects can be broadly split into two categories: removals and avoidances. Removal: it describes actions which actively take carbon out of the air and store it permanently, such as by planting trees or direct air capture which is not technology available at scale. Avoidance: in this, offsets are from projects that stop the release of greenhouse gases, such as protecting trees from being logged. MUST READ:  Sequestration SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) What is blue carbon? (2021) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils The carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas Carbon present in the atmosphere Blastomycosis Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, the fungus Blastomyces killed 1 & infected 100 at a Michigan paper mill. About Blastomycosis:- IMAGE SOURCE: Blastomycosis | Outagamie County, WI Blastomycosis is an infection caused by a fungus called Blastomyces.  The fungus lives in the environment, particularly in moist soil and in decomposing matter such as wood and leaves.  In the United States, the fungus mainly lives in the midwestern, south-central, and southeastern states, particularly in areas surrounding the Ohio and Mississippi River valleys, the Great Lakes, and the Saint Lawrence River. People can get blastomycosis after breathing in the microscopic fungal spores from the air.  Although most people who breathe in the spores don’t get sick, some people will develop symptoms like fever and cough, and the infection can sometimes become serious if it is not treated. Symptoms:- Fever Cough Night sweats Muscle aches or joint pain Weight loss Chest pain Fatigue (extreme tiredness) Skin lesions; such as raised bumps, blisters, or ulcers Treatment:-  Itraconazole is a type of antifungal medication that is typically used to treat mild to moderate blastomycosis. Amphotericin B is usually recommended for severe blastomycosis in the lungs or infections that have spread to other parts of the body. Depending on the severity of the infection and the person’s immune status, the course of treatment can range from six months to one year. MUST READ: Mucormycosis SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens. Kudremukh Range Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Limited (KIOCL) has sought post-facto approval for submerging 700 acres of forest in the Kudremukh Range. About Kudremukh Range:- It is located in the Western Ghats in the Chikmagalur district of Karnataka. It got its name from its main peak, Kudremukh Peak (1892 metres), which has a marked similarity to the face of a horse. Kudremukh National Park, the second largest wildlife protected area in the Western Ghats, is located in these ranges. It is believed that Kudremukh served as a landmark for sailors on the western coast for over 2000 years. Kudremukh national park:- IMAGE SOURCE: Map showing the location of the Kudremukh mining area and sampling sites…. | Download Scientific Diagram (researchgate.net) The Kudremukh national park stretches from the Narasimha Parvat in the north to the Jamalabad Fort in the south. Kudremukh National Park covers the areas of three districts namely Dakshina Kannada, Udupi and Chikmagalur. It was established as a Reserved Forest in the year 1916. In 1987 it was declared a National Park. The Tunga, the Bhadra and the Nethravathi rivers originate from this national park. The famous Kadambi waterfalls are also located in the Kudremukh National Park. Key Feature: It has the single largest contiguous population of Lion Tailed Macaque (LTM) in the world, tropical wet evergreen forests, top three carnivores (Tiger, Leopard, and wild dogs) Fauna: tigers, wild dogs, leopards, Malabar giant squirrels, sloth bears, common langurs, gaur, sambar, barking deer, spotted deer and sloth bears. The Malabar whistling thrush, Malabar trogon, imperial pigeon, and great pied hornbill are among the 195 bird species found in the park. Flora: It has the least disturbed low-altitude wet evergreen forests and shola-grassland biome. Kudremukh represents one of the world’s major habitats and has tropical biological richness and is thus among one of the 34 biological hotspots of the world. MUST READ: Eco-sensitive Zones (ESZ) SOURCE: DECCAN HERALD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which one of the fo allowing protected areas are well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous. (2020) Kanha National Park Manas National Park Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary Civil Union and Concept of Marriage Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) Context: Recently The Supreme Court clarified that the hearing’s scope would be limited to developing a notion of a “civil union” that finds legal recognition under the Special Marriage Act. About Civil Union: A civil union (also known as a civil partnership) is a legally recognized arrangement similar to marriage, created primarily as a means to provide recognition in law for same-sex couples. Civil unions would be accompanied by rights such as inheritance rights, property rights, parental rights, employment benefits to spouses, joint parenting right to abstain from testifying against one’s partner — similar to the spousal privilege given under Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act. Difference between the Civil Union and Marriage: A civil union is a legal agreement between two individuals that provides them with some of the rights and benefits of a marriage, such as inheritance rights, tax benefits, and access to healthcare. Recognition: Civil unions were recognized solely by issuing states and not by federal law, whereas marriages were recognized both at the state and federal levels. Uniformity of Benefits: Couples in civil unions were not able to enjoy the benefits of being in a civil union uniformly across all states, due to variations in state laws. Spousal Privilege: Civil unions provided spousal privileges similar to those given under Section 122 of the Indian Evidence Act, whereas marriages automatically provided this privilege. Conversion: In the wake of the legalisation of same-sex marriages, several civil unions were converted into marriages. Legal Status of Civil Unions: A civil union is the legal status that provides same-sex couples specific rights and responsibilities normally conferred upon married couples. This means that same-sex couples who are in a civil union have access to legal protections and benefits that were previously unavailable to them. These rights are often similar to those conferred upon married couples, such as inheritance rights, employment benefits to spouses, joint parenting or joint ownership rights, and the right to abstain from testifying against one’s partner. Benefits of Civil Unions: Inheritance rights Employment benefits to spouses Joint parenting or joint ownership rights The right to abstain from testifying against one’s partner Countries that Allow Civil Unions for Same-Sex Couples: In the year 2015, the Supreme Court of the United States (SCOTUS) legalized same-sex marriages across the nation with its landmark ruling in “Obergefell v. Hodges” From 1993, couples in Norway enjoyed the right to enter into civil unions, which gave way to a new law 15 years later, allowing such couples to marry, adopt and undergo state-sponsored artificial insemination. Similarly, countries like Brazil, Uruguay, Andorra, and Chile had also recognized the right of same sex couples to enter into civil unions, even before they formally recognized their legal right to marriage. Additional Information: About Special Marriage Act of 1954: All marriages in India can be registered under the respective personal law Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, Muslim Marriage Act, 1954, or under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. The Special Marriage Act, 1954 is an Act of the Parliament of India with provision for civil marriage for people of India and all Indian nationals in foreign countries, irrespective of religion or faith followed by either party. The couples have to serve a notice with the relevant documents to the Marriage Officer 30 days before the intended date of the marriage. Applicability: Any person, irrespective of religion. Hindus, Muslims, Buddhists, Sikhs, Christians, Parsis, or Jews can also perform marriage under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Inter-religion marriages are performed under this Act. This Act is applicable to the entire territory of India and extends to intending spouses who are both Indian nationals living abroad. Source:  Indian Express MUST READ:  Legalising same sex marriage India- UAE Relations Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: India, the world’s second-largest food producer, is an essential partner in the UAE’s ambition to strengthen food security. The India-UAE food security partnership stands to benefit from multiple points of convergence. India- UAE Relations: Diplomatic: India and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) established diplomatic relations in 1972. UAE opened its Embassy in Delhi in 1972 and India opened its Embassy in Abu Dhabi in 1973. The traditionally strong bilateral relations enjoyed by India and UAE received impetus with the visit of PM Modi to UAE on 16-17 August 2015 that marked the beginning of a new strategic partnership between the two countries. Modi’s last visit to the UAE was in August 2019, when he received the UAE’s highest award, ‘Order of Zayed’. Economic and Commercial Relations: Trade, which was dominated by traditional items such as dates, pearl and fishes, underwent a sharp change after the discovery of oil in UAE. The real impetus, however, started after Dubai positioned itself as a regional trading hub by the early 1990s and about the same time, the economic liberalization process started in India. India-UAE trade is today around US$ 60 billion, making UAE, India’s third largest trading partner for the year 2018-19. UAE is the second largest export destination of India (after US) with an amount of over US$ 30 billion for the year 2018-19. For UAE, India was the second largest trading partner during 2018. UAE is the 10th biggest FDI investor for India. A consortium led by ONGC was awarded a 10 per cent stake in the Lower Zakum Concession in 2018.- first time that the Emirate awarded a stake in a functioning oil field to an Indian group. Energy Cooperation: The UAE is one of India’s key energy providers and remains committed to meeting India’s growing energy demand. India imported US $10.9 billion worth of crude oil from the UAE in 2019-20. The UAE is the first international partner to invest by way of crude oil in India’s Strategic Petroleum Reserves Program. The countries are also collaborating in the renewable energy sector as seen by mutual participation in the International Solar alliance. Defence and Security Cooperation: UAE Air Force Officers participated as Observers in Trilateral Air Exercise on Humanitarian Assistance & Disaster Relief (HADR) in 2018. Indian Navy Ships participated in the maiden IN-UAEN Bilateral Exercise in 2018 named Gulf Star 1. IN Ships have been regularly participating in IDEX/NAVDEX held in Abu Dhabi biennially. ‘Desert Eagle II’, a ten-day air combat exercise, was held in 2016 between the air forces of India and UAE. That New Delhi could turn to the UAE for help to deploy its mid-air refuellers for Rafale jets, and it agreed to extend the facility, is seen to reflect the close relationship that India and Abu Dhabi have built. Indian Community: The Indian expatriate community of approximately 3.4 million is the largest ethnic community in UAE constituting roughly about 35% of the country’s population. Significance of India-UAE relationship: Remittances to India: India had received over US $83 billion in remittances in 2020 which was one of the highest in the world. The remittances from the UAE in the first half of 2020 accounted for US $21 billion. Strategic considerations: The UAE, due to its strategic location, has emerged as an important economic centre in the world and is also a major re-export hub for India. Further good relations with the UAE are imperative to counter China’s influence in the Middle-east region. Security of the region: The Middle-east region is still witnessing a lot of conflicts in Syria, Iraq etc. Good relations with UAE are imperative to give India a core place in discussion surrounding the Middle-east region. Further UAE can support India in strengthening the security of the Indian ocean region especially along the western coast of Somalia that is prone to piracy. Gateway to Africa: Engagement with the UAE will pave the way for India to leverage UAE’s easy access to the African market and its various trade partners. This can help India to become a part of the supply chain especially in handlooms, handicrafts, textiles and pharma. Entry into regional groupings: UAE commands a significant respect in regional groupings like OIC (Organization of Islamic Cooperation). An improvement in relation will open India’s door for an OIC membership.   India’s Soft Power: Good relations with UAE is a sine qua non for enhancing India’s Soft power in the Middle-east region. A recent progression of it was witnessed in 2021 when both Abu Dhabi and Dubai celebrated Diwali. Challenges in the Ties: Recent Turbulence in relations: It is caused by the comments on Prophet Mohammed by Nupur Sharma and Naveen Kumar Jindal Balancing geopolitics: India with Iran (also played out over Yemen) and UAE with China. Energy pricing: As an OPEC country UAE is on the side of the debate, where India as a major oil consumer is arguing for a cap on prices- this has seen some heated words between oil ministers in the past India and UAE are yet to renegotiate their air services agreement, which has become a thorn in ties, because the UAE wants to increase the number of flights to India and the number of destinations, but India continues to cap these to protect Indian airlines. Treatment of Indian labour: This frequently flares up as Indians aren’t granted citizenship in the UAE, and conditions at Indian labour camps become a matter of concern. During the pandemic much of the labour to the gulf has had to return, and remittances are likely to be slashed in the next few years Treatment of minorities in India is becoming a big issue: After the CAA protests, social media controversies, now the Hijab Ban has raised concerns in Gulf countries, and the OIC issued a very strong statement. Legal Issues: Legal problems have in the past dampened foreign investments from coming to India. Checks and regulations are needed, better streamlining of the procedures and processes help in avoiding such problems. Way Forward: The UAE today is India’s closest partner in the Arab world and fortunately, there is enough resilience in bilateral ties to withstand the recent convulsions. It will continue to forge closer partnership in these areas, building on their close and friendly relations and historical people-to-people connect. India-UAE has a strong energy partnership which is now acquiring a new focus on renewable energy. It will take a sustained public diplomacy effort to further improve the relations Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Kudremukh national park is often mentioned in the news located in Rajasthan West Bengal Karnataka Odisha Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Blastomycosis: It is a fungal disease caused by Blastomyces The fungus lives in the environment, particularly in moist soil and in decomposing matter such as wood and leaves. It is an airborne disease Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the Limited Purpose Clearing Corporation (LPCC): LPCC is an entity established by RBI. It will undertake the activity of clearing and settlement of repo rate transactions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 20th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 19th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 20th April 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 40] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – HISTORY, ART AND CULTURE, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. Attempt Day 40-> Click Here

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[NATIONAL SCHOLARSHIP TEST on 5th MAY] EARN UPTO 100% SCHOLARSHIP!! | Baba’s Gurukul Foundation Course (Baba’s FC) 2024

Register Now For Free Some roads lead straight to your goals.While some may have a lot of twists and turns.Which one would you take?We will be upfront and tell you – that there are many roads that will lead you to the goal that you have decided for yourself.Many billboards around you will talk about it.Pamphlets will land at your desks.They will tell you all that you need to do.But very few will actually prepare you with the correct mindset to view this goal that you have set. Very few will guide you with the correct techniques and methods that will not shorten the length of your journey but will enhance the quality of this journey.And one such road that is available for you is the BABA’S GURUKUL FOUNDATION COURSE (FC) 2024.Especially if you are just starting out.Even if you have already started and lack correct mentorship and guidance, FC-2024’s doors are open for you.Because our vision is very clear – to turn the dream of an aspirant sitting in the remotest corner of India to get Rank 1 into reality.And if you have that vision for yourself – we are giving you a chance to earn your place in the program.With the NATIONAL SCHOLARSHIP TEST (NSAT) for BABA’s GURUKUL FOUNDATION COURSE (2024), you will not just set yourself up on the correct path right from the beginning but would also be accelerating your journey manifold. A sure-shot road to Mussoorie!IASbaba’s Guidance + Your Dedication = A rank in the Top 100! DETAILS ABOUT THE NATIONAL SCHOLARSHIP TEST (NSAT)Based on the performance in the Scholarship Test, attractive discounts will be offered to students on the basis of the ranks they secure.Date of the Scholarship Test: 5th May 2023 (FRIDAY) from 11 AM to 12:15 PMMode of Test:  The Test will be conducted only in the Online ModeEligibility: All the students will be eligible for the test. No pre-conditions. FREE Registration! (Please find the registration link below)Pattern & Syllabus: The Scholarship Test will be an Objective Test, along the lines of UPSC Prelims. Objective Test -100 MCQs from Current Affairs, General Awareness, and CSAT. Time Duration – 75 minutesMarking Scheme: Every correct answer gets +2 marks. There is a penalty of -0.67 for each incorrect answer. There is no penalty for unattempted questions.Last Date to Register: 4th May 2023 (by 4 PM)*Discretion lies with IASbaba on admission to this program. Register Now For Free ONLY ELIGIBILITY TO ATTEMPT THE TEST: An aspirant who is clear on their goals is willing to put in smart work and is ready to take the plunge to succeed in the first attempt itself.Because if selected, there’s no looking back!The last five years of this program have attracted students from different parts of the country (from 22 States) and the number of enrolments has been increasing year by year. SCORE OBTAINED SCHOLARSHIP PERCENTAGE > 90% Marks 100% 71-90% Marks 75% 51-70% Marks 50% 25-50% Marks 25% Are you ready to become the next aspirant with a rank among the Top 100 in the country? YES! REGISTER ME FOR THE SCHOLARSHIP TEST Contact Us:EMAIL ID: support@iasbaba.comMOBILE NO: 91691 91888Delhi: Plot 22-B, 3rd floor, Pusa Road, Bada Bazar Marg, Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi- 110060 Landmark: Above Dominos. Contact Number: 88264 90453Bengaluru: No.38, 3rd Cross, 1st Phase, 2nd Stage, 60 Feet Main Road, Chandra Layout, Attiguppe, Bengaluru, Karnataka 560040 Landmark: opposite BBMP Building. Contact Number: 96634 62015Lucknow: B-1/66, Sector J, Aliganj, Lucknow – 226024 Landmark: Near Mr Brown / Opp to Sahu Studio. Contact Number: 93357 40145Bhopal: 136, Near Vikramaditya College Zone -2, MP Nagar Bhopal, 462011, Madhya Pradesh. Contact Number: 74896 41321