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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 24th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG) and International Labour Organization (ILO) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – POLITY Context: Recently, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India , has been selected as External Auditor of the International Labour Organization in Geneva for a four-year term from 2024 to 2027. About CAG: CAG is an independent authority under the Constitution of India. The Constitution of India provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) in chapter V under Part V. He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. He is the guardian of the public purse. He acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament. Incumbent CAG of India: Shri Girish Chandra Murmu. Constitutional Provisions regarding the CAG: Article 148–151 , in  Part V of the constitution of India deals with the appointment, oath and conditions of service ,Duties and Powers of CAG. Article 279 – The calculation of “net proceeds” is ascertained and certified by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, whose certificate is final. Third Schedule – Section IV of the Third Schedule of the Constitution of India prescribes the form of oath or affirmation to be made by the Judges of the Supreme Court and the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India at the time of assumption of office. Sixth Schedule– According to this schedule, the District Council or Regional Council should be kept in such form as the CAG prescribes with the approval of the President. In addition, these bodies’ accounts are audited in such manner as CAG may think fit, and the reports relating to such accounts shall be submitted to the Governor who shall cause them to be laid before the Council. About International Labour Organization (ILO): It was established by the Treaty of Versailles in 1919. It is the only tripartiteN. agency. It brings together governments, employers and workers. Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland. It receivedthe Nobel Peace Prize in 1969 The eight-core conventions of the ILO are: Forced Labour Convention (No. 29) Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (No.105) Equal Remuneration Convention (No.100) Discrimination (Employment Occupation) Convention (No.111) Minimum Age Convention (No.138) Worst forms of Child Labour Convention (No.182) Freedom of Association and Protection of Right to Organised Convention (No.87) Right to Organise and Collective Bargaining Convention (No.98) India is afounding member of the ILO India has ratified six out of the eight-core/fundamental ILO conventions. These conventions are: Forced Labour Convention (No. 29) Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (No.105) Equal Remuneration Convention (No.100) Discrimination (Employment Occupation) Convention (No.111) Minimum Age Convention (No.138) Worst forms of Child Labour Convention (No.182) Key reports by ILO : World Employment and Social Outlook. Global Wage Report. Source:AIR Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2016) The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The third e-auction to offload wheat under Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic) took place recently. About OMSS: The government sells the excess stock of food grains in the open market through e-auctions through this scheme. The Food Corporation of India (FCI) on instructions from the Government, sells wheat and rice in the open market from time to time. The purpose of OMSS is to dispose of surplus stocks of wheat and rice held by FCI(Food Corporation of India)and to regulate the prices of wheat in the open market. FCI conducts weekly auctions for the OMSS for wheat on the platform of the National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange Limited (NCDEX). NCDEX – a commodity exchange platform in India that provides a platform for trading in various agricultural and other commodities. Source: AIR Previous Year Questions Q.1) The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus: (2019) Transportation cost only Interest cost only Procurement incidentals and distribution cost Procurement incidentals and charges for godowns Q.2) With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements: (2018) The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidized food grains. The eldest woman in a household, age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Shipping Industry in India Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, Union Minister for Ports, Shipping and Waterways  stressed upon reducing pollution intensity and evolve strategies to introduce renewable energy and green hydrogen in the shipping sector. About Shipping Industry in India : According to the Ministry of Shipping, around 95% of India’s trading by volume and 70% by value is done through maritime transport. India has 12 major and 205 notified minor and intermediate ports. Mumbai Port is India’s largest port by size. Tamil Nadu has the highest number of major ports in India. Krishnapatnam Port, is the deepest port in India . India is the sixteenth-largest maritime country in the world with a coastline of about 7,517 kms.  The Indian Government plays an important role in supporting the ports sector. It has allowed Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) of up to 100% under the automatic route for port and harbour construction and maintenance project India’s merchandise exports in FY22 were at US$ 417.8 billion, up 40% from the previous year. Indian ports received cumulative FDI inflow worth US$ 1.63 billion between April 2000-June 2021. Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) Special Economic Zone (SEZ) became the first of its kind operational port-based multi-product SEZ in India. APSEZ (Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone) plans to become the world’s largest private port company by 2030 and carbon neutral by 2025. India was ranked 44th in the Logistics Performance Index, a measure through which the World Bank ranks countries based on their logistics performance. Logistics Performance Index (LPI) : It is released by World Bank  India ranked 44th on the LPI in 2018 Government Initiative to boost Shipping Industry: The Sagarmala Programme – It is the flagship program of the Ministry of Shipping to promote port-led developmentin the country. It aims to modernize India’s Ports Source: AIR Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports. India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilizers, and machinery have decreased in recent years. India’s exports of services are more than its imports of services. India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit. Select the correct answer using the code given below: and 2 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 3, and 4 only Q.2) India’s ranking on the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking? (2016) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) World Economic Forum World Bank World Trade Organization (WTO) Khajuraho temples Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Art and culture Context: While Khajuraho is internationally recognized for its rich architectural grandeur of the Western Group of temples that UNESCO recognizes as world heritage, the districts of Chhatarpur and Panna have lesser-known destinations that can serve as model local tourist destinations. About Khajuraho Temples : The Temples of Khajuraho are a magnificent example of the Nagara style of templesas the temples consist of a sanctum, a narrow ante-chamber (antarala), a transept (mahamandapa), additional halls (ardha mandapa), a mandapa or nave and an ambulatory passage (Pradakshina-path) which is lighted by large windows. These are a collection of Hindu and Jain temples located in Madhya Pradesh. They are known for its ornate temples, was built by the Chandela rulers between 900 CE to 1130 CE. These are located in the Vindhya Mountain range. They  got the status of UNESCO’s World Heritage Site in 1986. Erotic imagery is very common in the Temples of Khajuraho. Sculptures of celestial nymphs with broad hips, heavy breasts and languishing eyes are commonly found in the Kandariya Mahadeva and Vishwanath Temple. These sculptures are believed to reflect the idea of female beauty and fertility. Other scenes depicted on the walls of the temples are a part of the Narathara (the human life cycle) signifying how sexual procreation and kamaare an essential aspect of human life. The major focus of the study of the Temples of Khajuraho have been on the sculptures. The walls of these temples have some of the best sculptures of the time, making Khajuraho a representation of excellent artistic features. It is believed that the temples constitute five different sets of sculptures: cult images the parivara, parsva and avarana devatas the apsaras and the surasundaris secular sculptures of miscellaneous themes (dancers, musicians, disciples and domestic scenes) mythical creatures (vyalas, sardula and other animals) The first mention of Khajuraho and its temples is in the accounts of Abu Rahyan al Biruni( 1022 CE) and Ibn Batuta (1335 CE). The carvings on them reflect the four goals of life in Hinduism, viz, dharma, kama, artha, moksha. One theory posits their construction can be understood as a part of the proliferation of the Siva-Sakti cult. The other theory is that the temples are a representation of thedevadasis who were once a major part of the temple activities. The Temples of Khajuraho are divided into three groups, the Western Group, the Eastern Group and the Southern Group. The Western Group: Chausath Jogini Temple-this temple stands on the low rocky eminence to the south west of the Sib-Sagar Kandariya Mahadeva Temple– Largest of all the temples in Khajuraho, it dates back to the 10th century CE. Devi Jagdamba Temple -this temple is now known by the name of Devi Jagdambaor the ‘Mother Goddess of the World’. Chitragupta or Bharatji’s Temple -This temple is dedicated to the Sun God (Surya), an image of the Sun God is enshrined within the sanctum, wearing high boots and driving a chariot of seven horses. Vishwanath Temple – Vishwanath, or the ‘Lord of the Universe’, is another name for Lord Shiva to whom this temple is dedicated. Laxmana Temple -also known as the Chaturbhuj Temple. It is popularly known for its innovation in the technique of architecture. The Eastern Group: Brahma Temple -situated on the banks of Khajuraho Sagar. Vamana Temple -situated on the north-east side of the Brahma Temple Ghantai Temple -this temple got its name from the bells suspended on chains which adorn the pillars of its portico. Parsawanatha Jain Temple – it is the largest of the Jaina temples. It is believed to be a shrine of Parsawanatha, the 22nd Jain Tirthankara. The Southern Group: Duladeo Temple – It is about a mile and a half away from the main Khajuraho Temples and was originally dedicated to the Siva Jatkari or Chaturbhuja Temple -situated near the Jatkari village, this temple faces west. It is dedicated to Lord Vishnu. About Chandela Dynasty: The Chandela Empire ruled central India from the tenth to the fourteenth centuries. Chandela were well known for their interest in art and architecture. Although followers of Shaivism, the Chandela were also said to have been inclined towards Vaishnavism and Jainismas well. About Panna Biosphere : The Panna Biosphere is located in the Panna and Chhatarpur districts of Madhya Pradesh. It  is situated in the Vindhya Mountain range in the northern part of Madhya Pradesh Ken River, a tributary of the Yamuna River, flows through the reserve. The ken-Betwa river interlinking projectwill be located within the tiger reserve. The region is also famous forPanna diamond mining. The Panna National Parkgot the status of  India’s 22nd tiger reserve in 1994. In 2011, it was notified as a Biosphere Reserve by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of tigersin the country followed by Karnataka and Uttarakhand. Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) Th Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference  to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Kalyana Karnataka Utsav Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently, For the first time, a mega event celebrating the region — the Kalyana Karnataka Utsav, is being  organized by the Government of Karnataka About  Kalyana Karnataka Utsav: The Kalyana Karnataka Utsav is been organized by the Government of Karnataka. It is the  first time, a mega event celebrating the region is being organized. Seven districts including Bidar, Raichur, Yadgir, Koppal, Kalaburagi, Vijayanagara, and Ballari are participating in the grand festival. The theme is focused on educational development and heritage. About Monuments at Kalaburagi : Kalaburagi is a place that housed several Sufi saints who lived to build communal harmony and teach humanity. The region was home to the 12th-century social reformer Basavanna, the 14th-century Sufi Khwaja Bandanawaz Gesudaraz, and the 19th-century saint Sharana Basaveshwara. The region, which was ruled by the Maurya’s, Rashtrakutas, Chalukyas, Bahmani’s, and Nizams, still holds much rich cultural heritage and wonders like The  Bahmani fort consists of a large Jama Masjid and one of the world’s longest cannons. the Haft Gumbaz, where the Bahmani kings were buried. The tomb of Firoz Shah Bahmani which is particularly well-known for its ornamentation with stucco-work and black stone carvings on the doors and windows. The Syed Khalilullah Husseini dargah complexwhich was inspired by Bahmani and Adil Shahi architecture.   There is also a small tomb of Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb’s daughter carved with white marble. The palaces of the last two Nizams, Mir Mahbub Ali Khan and his son Mir Osman Ali Khan are also located in the heart of Kalaburagi city and have a high influence of the Gothic style of structures with the addition of the architectural style of local Patel homes. Muhammad bin Yusuf Al-Hussaini, commonly known as Banda Nawaz Gaisu Daraz, was a HanafiMaturidi scholar and Sufi saint from India of the Chishti Orde Basavanna was a 12th-century philosopher, statesman, Kannada poet, and social reformer during the reign of the Kalachuri-dynasty king Bijjala I in Karnataka, India. He spread social awareness through his poetry, popularly known as Vachanaas. Basavanna rejected gender or social discrimination, superstitions, and rituals. He presided over the Sharana movement which attracted people from all castes. He is the first Kannadiga in whose honour a commemorative coin has been minted in recognition of his social reforms. He introduced new public institutions such as the Anubhava Mantapa, that welcomed men and women from all socio-economic backgrounds to discuss spiritual and mundane questions of life, in open. Taj-ud-din Firoz Shah also known as Firuz Shah Bahmani was the ruler of the Bahmani Sultanate from 1397 to 1422. Firuz Shah is considered an important ruler of the Bahmani Sultanate. He enlarged his realm and even conquered the Raichur Doabfrom the Vijayanagara kings. Mahboob Ali Khan was the youngest son of 5th Nizam Afzal-ud-Daulah. Mir Osman Ali Khan was the last Nizam of Hyderabad, a princely state in British India, and the second richest man in the world in his time. Source:   THE DECCAN HERALD Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following pairs: (2020) Parivrajaka — Renunciant and Wanderer Shramana — Priest with a high status Upasaka — Lay follower of Buddhism Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakavasi” sect belongs (2018) Buddhism Jainism Vaishnavism Shaivism Q.3) With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu’? (2014) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India It is an ancient style bronze and brass work still found in the southern part of the Coromandel area It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India Mohiniyattam Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Noted dancer Kanak Rele, who gave academic status to Mohiniyattam, passed away recently. About Mohiniyattam: It originated in the state of The dance is performed by women in honor of the Hindu god Vishnuin his incarnation as the enchantress Mohini. Mohiniyattamis characterized by graceful, swaying body movements with no abrupt jerks or sudden leaps. It belongs to the Lasya style which is feminine, tender, and graceful. The references to Mohiniyattam can be found in the texts Vyavaharamala written in 1709 by Mazhamagalam Narayanan Namputiriand in Ghoshayatra, written later by poet Kunjan Nambiar. Mohiniyattam is exclusively danced by women. The Classical dances recognized by the Government of India are: Bharatnatyam (Tamil Nadu)- Bharatanatyam has grown out of the art of dancers dedicated to temples, and was earlier known as Sadir or Dasi Attam. It is the first of India’s traditional dances to be refashioned as a theatre art. The musicians include at least one vocalist, a Mridangam (drum)-player, and a flutist or violinist or Veena (lute)-player. Kathak (North India)- It is the principal dance of northern India, and is widely practiced in Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Delhi, Madhya Pradesh, and even parts of western and eastern India. It is believed to be connected with the narrative art of Kathakaras or story-tellers. The music of traditional Kathak consists of the Thumri and other lyrical song-forms, and the essential musical instruments are the Tabla, Pakhawaj, and Sarangi. Kathakali (Kerala)- Kathakali or ‘story play’ took shape in Kerala in southern India in the seventeenth century under the patronage of the prince of Karnataka, who wrote plays for performance drawn from the epic Ramayana in Malayalam. Kathakali categorizes its characters according to their nature and employs make-up and costume to build them up as symbolic personalities. Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh)- It originated from Andhra Pradesh, where it grew largely as a product of Bhakti movement beginning in the 7th Century AD and derives its name from the village Kuchelapuram. Kuchipudi today is performed either as a solo, duet or a group presentation, but historically it was performed as a dance drama, with several dancers taking different roles. Odissi (Odisha)- It was performed as part of temple service by ‘meharis’ or female temple servants. The traditional dance was remodeled as a theatre art towards the middle of the twentieth century. The dancer is supported by a singer, a drummer who plays the Pakhawaj, flute and Sitar. Sattriya (Assam)- ‘Sattriya dance’ refers to the body of dance and danced drama developed in the sattras or monasteries of Assam since the sixteenth century, when the Vaishnava faith propagated by the saint and reformer Shankaradeva (1449-1586). Group dances are also common in traditional and modern Sattriya dance, and these may be prefaced with a brief musical ‘interlude’ on drums, the Gayan Bayan. Manipuri (Manipur)- It evolved in Manipur, is anchored in the Vaishnava faith of the Manipur valley. Manipuri dance is introverted and restrained compared to most other dances of India – the artist never establishes eye contact with the audience. The Pung, a drum, and flute are the principal instruments used in Manipuri dance. Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Deep-Sea Mining Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) and Environment Context: Recently, a study published in the journal Frontiers in Marine Science has warned that commercial deep-sea mining could pose a serious risk to ocean ecosystems. About Deep-Sea Mining: It refers to the extraction of minerals and other resources from the seabed, which can be found in large quantities in the deep ocean. These minerals include metals such as copper, nickel, cobalt, and rare earth elements, as well as valuable resources such as oil and gas. Despite the risks to ocean ecosystems, the Pacific Island nation of Nauru plans to start deep-sea mining, invoking a two-year rule inserted as a part of the UN Convention on Law of the Seas (UNCLOS). The “two-year rule” clause of the UNCLOS requires the ISA to put in place the governance infrastructure – the rules, regulations, and procedures governing the contours of deep-sea mining within two years of approval. India has been allotted a site of 75,000 square kilometers in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) by the UN International Sea Bed Authority for exploitation of polymetallic nodules. A fraction of that reserve can meet the energy requirement of India for the next 100 years, India’s Exclusive Economic Zone spreads over 2.2 million square kilometres. A manned submersible will be developed to carry three people to a depth of 6,000 meters in the ocean with a suite of scientific sensors and tools. Major types of deep-sea mining: Manganese nodule mining: This involves collecting nodules of manganese, iron, and other metals that are scattered on the ocean floor. Seafloor massive sulphide (SMS) mining: This involves extracting mineral deposits formed near hydrothermal vents, which can contain high concentrations of copper, zinc, and other metals. Cobalt crust mining: This involves collecting crusts of cobalt, nickel, and other metals that form on the surface of seamounts. Significance of Deep-Sea mining: Growing demand for minerals: It has the potential to provide a reliable and abundant supply of minerals the demand for which is rapidly increasing, driven by the growth of industries such as renewable energy, electric vehicles, and consumer electronics. Depletion of land-based resources: Deep-sea mining presents an opportunity to access new sources of valuable resources such as cobalt and rare earth metals which are essential to modern technology and industry but are becoming increasingly scarce on land. Strategic importance: Developing a domestic supply of these resources is seen as strategically important for India as many of the minerals and metals that are found in deep sea mining, such as cobalt and rare earth metals, are essential to national security and defence. Economic benefits: It has the potential to create jobs, stimulate economic growth, and generate revenue for governments and companies. Major Issues associated with the deep-sea mining: Environmental impacts: Mining operations can disturb and damage fragile deep-sea ecosystems, including coral reefs, hydrothermal vents, and other important habitats. Thermal pollution: The mining vehicles also generate sediment plumes that could smother the benthic species at the bottom of the ocean. Noise pollution: The process generates noise pollution that can overlap with the frequencies at which cetaceans communicate, causing auditory masking and behavioral changes in marine mammals. Regulatory gaps: There is currently a lack of international regulations governing deep-sea mining, which could lead to environmental harm and other negative impacts. Social and economic impacts: The potential benefits of deep-sea mining may not be evenly distributed, and could lead to social and economic disparities between different communities. Technological challenges: Deep-sea mining requires advanced technologies and equipment that are currently under development, and may not be cost-effective or efficient enough to make the practice commercially viable. Govt of Initiatives to promote deep sea mining: National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR): It was established in 2020 by the Ministry of Earth Sciences in Goa, which is tasked with exploring the country’s deep-sea mineral wealth. Draft Deep Seabed Mining Regulations, 2021: It has been formulated by the Indian government to provide a legal framework for the exploration and exploitation of mineral resources in the country’s exclusive economic zone (EEZ). International collaborations: The government is also considering setting up a nodal agency to regulate deep sea mining activities in the country, in line with the International Seabed Authority (ISA) and the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). Way Forward: Studies for understanding deep sea: To understand what species live in the deep sea, how they live, and how they could be affected by mining activities baseline studies are needed with more funds for training and educational programmes focused on improving our understanding of the deep sea. Environmental impact assessments: These assessments are also needed to ensure that the loss of biodiversity as a result of mining operations is properly accounted for in mining regulations set by authorities, well before any decision to mine is approved. The costs to the marine environment should be included in the financial and economic assessments conducted by mining companies. Enhanced regulation: The ISA is operating with the dual mandate of promoting the development of deep-sea minerals whilst ensuring that this development is not harmful to the environment. This challenging and conflicting mandate will require improved oversight by the international community – including government representatives and the general public – to ensure that marine life is adequately protected. To avoid possible conflicts of interest due to the dual mandate of ISA, the organization should consider divesting itself of some of its responsibilities, and placing them on independent entities. Mitigation: Current technologies may not be sufficient to avoid serious and lasting harm to the environment, including the loss of biodiversity. Mining operations strategies should be based on the avoidance of environmental impacts. This requires stringent and precautionary controls on the permissible extent and duration of mining operations to keep large parts of the seabed undisturbed. Minimising impacts should involve, among other things, improving mining equipment to reduce seafloor disturbance. Circular economy: The repair, recycling and reuse of products should be encouraged to help reduce the demand for raw materials from the deep sea. Enhancing product design to make use of less or alternative materials can also reduce the demand. Source: Down To Earth Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG): CAG is an independent authority under the Constitution of India. He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. According to Fifth schedule, the District Council or Regional Council should be kept in such form as the CAG prescribes with the approval of the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding temples of Khajuraho: They are a magnificent example of the Nagara style of temples architecture. These are a collection of Hindu and Buddhist temples at the Khajuraho. They got the status of UNESCO’s World Heritage Site in 1986. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) It originated in the state of Kerala. The dance is performed by women in honor of the Hindu god Vishnu in his incarnation as the enchantress Mohini. It is characterized by graceful, swaying body movements with no abrupt jerks or sudden leaps. It belongs to the Lasya style which is feminine, tender, and graceful. The references to this dance can be found in the texts Vyavaharamala written in 1709 by Mazhamagalam Narayanan Namputiri and in Ghoshayatra, written later by poet Kunjan Nambiar. It is exclusively danced by women. The above passage describes which of the following classical dances/ Kathakali Mohiniyattam Bharatanatyam Odissi Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 24th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  23rd February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

[CURRENT AFFAIRS] IAS UPSC REVAMPED Current Affairs Magazine JANUARY 2023

Archives Hello Friends,This is January 2023 of IASbaba’s REVAMPED Current Affairs Monthly Magazine. Current Affairs for UPSC Civil Services Examination is an important factor in this preparation.An effort towards making your Current Affairs for IAS UPSC Preparation qualitative. We hope you make the best use of it!This edition covers all Important current affairs issues that were in the news for the month of January 2023.Kindly leave your feedback in the comment section below on the new design and presentation of the magazine. We would love to hear from you Download The Magazine - January 2023 Important Topics Covered In The Magazine Includes: Judiciary in India Digitalization Self-Reliance in Defense National Green Hydrogen Mission Natural Farming Digital Economy World Economic Forum’s Global Risks Report 2023 UNESCO Heritage Sites in Maharashtra India-Egypt Relations And Much More.... Download The Magazine - January 2023 To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow-TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccountYOUTUBE – https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQFACEBOOK – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/Also, SUBSCRIBE to the WEBSITE Below, so that you don’t miss out on important posts!Thank YouIASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Teja chilli Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recently export demand for Teja variety of red chilli has gone up due to its culinary, medicinal and other wide-ranging uses. About Teja Chillies: Chilli was originally cultivated in North Mexico but is believed to be brought to India by the Portuguese. It is a fine variety of Guntur chilli. It is a fruit that belongs to genus Capsicum. Health benefits of Teja Chilli: Rich in Vitamins and Minerals like Copper, Potassium, Vitamin C, Vitamin B, Vitamin A. It is a powerful anti-oxidant. Studies suggest that it aids in weight loss. Clears congestion. Boosts mood and reduces pain. It has antibacterial properties that helps in curing skin infection. Decreases the risk of osteoporosis. Protects the body against prostate problems. Source:The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas office at Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements: Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree. Tamarind tree is endemic to south Asia. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2021) 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4 and 5 1, 3 and 4 1,2, 3 and 5 Dark galaxy Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, Italian researchers have discovered a Dark Galaxy or Invisible Galaxy using Atacama Large Millimeter Array (ALMA). About Dark Galaxy: It is termed invisible because the light emitted couldn’t be seen from the earth. The presence of the galaxy has been discovered using the gravitational lensing technique. Gravitational lensing technique: It is an effect of Einstein’s theory of general relativity – simply put, mass bends light. The gravitational field of a massive object will extend far into space, and cause light rays passing close to that object to be bent and refocused somewhere else. It is discovered as compact. It is young and has interstellar dust. It is forming new stars at the rate of 1000 times the Milky Way. Atacama Large Millimeter Array (ALMA): It is an international partnership of the European Southern Observatory (ESO), with U.S., Japan, Canada, Taiwan, Korea and Chile. It is the world’s largest ground-based facility for observations in the millimeter/submillimetre regime. It is a single telescope composed of 66 high precision antennas. It is located on the Chajnantor plateau, 5000 meters altitude in northern Chile. It allows scientists to unravel longstanding and important astronomical mysteries, in search of our Cosmic Origins. Source:  Livescience Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface. Q.2) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Extended Producer Responsibility Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: India’s Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) framework for used tyres, batteries, and revised rules for e-waste and plastics kindled interest among the G20 countries. About Extended Producer Responsibility: Extended producers’ Responsibilities is a globally recognized policy used as an effective tool to put the onus on the producers for efficient end of life waste management of the plastic, electronic and electrical equipment. The concept of EPR responsibility is based on three foundation principles: Pollution prevention approach Life cycle thinking, Polluter pay principle EPR responsibility makes it the responsibility of the producers not only to take back products for recycling but also to design better and longer life products to minimize the amount of waste generated. EPR in India: EPR responsibility Certificate: EPR responsibility Certificate is authorized by Central Pollution Control Board which is mandatory for Producers/Importers of the Electronic products. Under these rules, the producers have a responsibility to delegate this responsibility to the third party or specialized organizations which manufacturers can financially aid for proper waste management. EPR Responsibility Policies under E-Waste Management Rules: E-Waste (management and handling) Rules, 2016 adopted Extended Producers Responsibility for the first time in India. EPR responsibility under E-Waste (management) Rules, 2016 stipulates collection targets of E–Waste for producers. The producers are responsible for setting up collection centres for e-waste and financing and organizing a system for environmentally sound management of e-waste. The producers are required to have an arrangement with dismantlers and recyclers through either the Producers responsibility organization or the E-Waste exchange system. Marketing or selling any electronic equipment without EPR responsibility Authorization is considered a violation of the rules. EPR responsibility Policy under Plastic Waste Management Rules: The Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2022 provide guidelines for strengthening the circular economy of plastic packaging waste as well as promoting alternatives to plastic. Producers of waste are mandated to ensure that generation of plastic waste is minimized, and plastic waste is not littered and stored at the source, which is then handed over to local bodies or authorized agencies. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a :  (2022) Database created by coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 REAIM 2023 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, World’s first global summit on Responsible AI in the Military was organized in Netherlands. About REAIM: It brings together governments, corporations, academia, startups, and civil societies to raise awareness, discuss issues, and possibly, agree on common principles for deploying and using AI in armed conflicts. India wasn’t part of this summit. It was co-hosted by the Republic of Korea. Themes of REAIM: “ Myth busting AI: breaking down the characteristics of AI “. Aim: To put the topic of responsible AI in the military domain higher on the political agenda. To mobilise and activate a wide group of stakeholders to contribute to concrete next steps. To foster and increase knowledge by sharing experiences, best practices and solutions. Source: The Hindu Vinyl Chloride Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently Vinyl chloride – the chemical in several of the train cars that derailed and burned in East Palestine, Ohio– can wreak havoc on the human liver. About Vinyl Chloride: It is a colourless gas that burns easily. It is produced industrially for its commercial uses. It can’t occur naturally. Used primarily to make polyvinyl chloride (PVC). PVC is a hard plastic resin used to make a variety of plastic products, including pipes, wire and cable coatings, and packaging materials. It spread through inhaling contaminated air, tobacco smoke, drinking contaminated water, etc. Disease burden: rare forms of liver cancer, as well as primary liver cancer brain and lung cancers, lymphoma, and leukemia. Source:                  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2021) Low-density polyethylene Polycarbonate Polyethylene terephthalate Polyvinyl Chloride Q.2) “Triclosan” considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following? (2021) Food preservatives Fruit ripening substances reused plastic containers Toiletries KAVACH-2023 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Miscellaneous Context: Recently, the All-India Council for Technical Education and the Bureau of Police Research and Development Jointly Launched KAVACH-2023. About KAVACH-2023: It is a National Level Hackathon to tackle cyber threats and provide effective solutions. Hackathon: It is a competition in which participants use technology to achieve an objective. Aims: To identify innovative ideas and technological solutions for addressing the cyber security and cybercrime challenges of the 21st century. Conducted by: Ministry of Education’s Innovation Cell, All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE), Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D) and Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C). Objective: To challenge the country’s innovative minds to conceptualize frameworks focusing on cybersecurity issues while using artificial intelligence, machine learning, automation, big data and cloud computing. It includes 20 unique and important matters such as women’s safety apps, obscenity blocker solutions, phishing detection solutions, dark web crawlers, citizen safety apps and malware analysis tools. Source:  Indian Express System for Advance Manufacturing Assessment & Rating (SAMAR) and Electronic Maintenance Management System (e-MMS) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, Defense Minister of India has inaugurated e-MMS and SAMAR portal. About SAMAR and e-MMS: SAMAR serves as the standard by which defense manufacturing companies are evaluated for their competence. It is an outcome of the collaboration between DRDO and Quality Council of India (QCI). e-MMS was launched by Indian Air Force (IAF). It is one of the largest Maintenance Repair Overhaul (MRO) IT implementation in the world. It has been designed and developed by the Indian IT giant Wipro. It seeks to seamlessly connect squadrons, wings, commands, and Air headquarters after its implementation. It will transform IAF’s paper-based legacy maintenance system to an online system as it will be implemented in IAF’s hierarchy and functioning. It will help to monitor the operational availability of all fleets and systems in real time at various hierarchical levels. Source:  NewsOnAir New policy to help Indian communities displaced by coastal erosion Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Disaster Management) Context: The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) received the final inputs on the draft of India’s first national policy for the mitigation and rehabilitation of the people affected by river and coastal erosion. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs has directed NDMA to draft a policy based on the 15th Finance Commission’s report. About Disaster and its classification: Disaster is an undesirable catastrophe resulting from the forces that are largely beyond human control, strikes quickly with little or no warning, and causes or threatens serious disruption of life and property. For example, earthquake, tsunami, cyclone, flood, etc. Categories of Natural Disaster: Natural Disasters are broadly categorized as − Atmospheric Disasters, Terrestrial Disasters, Aquatic Disasters and Biological Disasters. Atmospheric disasters include blizzard, thunderstorm, lightning, tropical cyclone, tornado, drought, hailstorm, frost, heat wave, cold waves, etc. Terrestrial disasters include earthquake, volcanic eruption, landslide, avalanches, subsidence, etc. Aquatic disasters include flood, tidal waves, storm surge, tsunami, etc. Biological disasters include fungal, bacterial, and viral diseases (e.g. bird flu, dengue, etc.). About NDMA: National Disaster Management Authority is an apex body for disaster management in India. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India and has a Vice-Chairman, nine members, and a CEO. It was established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 and provides guidelines for disaster management to various agencies. It is responsible for preparing and implementing disaster management plans at national, state, and district levels. Major highlights of the policy: Allocations: 15th Finance Commission’s report allocates Rs 1,500 crore for 2021-26 for mitigation measures to prevent erosion under NDMF. Rs 1,000 crore allocated for resettlement of displaced people affected by erosion under NDRF for the same period. Both funds require state governments to contribute 25% of costs on a cost-sharing basis, except Northeastern states which only need to contribute 10% of state funds. NDMA to coordinate allocations and expenses under NDRF and NDMF for mitigation and rehabilitation. Implementation and institutional mechanisms: District disaster management authorities (DDMAs) to implement measures, aided by other district agencies and a specific panchayat-level committee. DDMA to prepare mitigation and rehabilitation plans and submit them to SDMAs for appraisal by NDMA and approval by home ministry’s high-level committee for disbursal of funds. DDMAs will be responsible for organizing, monitoring, and evaluating efforts under supervision of state and national counterparts. NDMA to consultant and emphasize the need for qualified disaster management professionals in all teams. Challenges and recommendations Policy addresses erosion-linked displacement but not displacement caused by deposition of eroded materials and soil piping. Financial allocation under policy not yet clear; funds currently allocated on first-come, first-serve basis for states. Population density should be considered during allocation. Hazard assessments carried out by central agencies should be made available to SDMAs in GIS formats. Policy recommends mapping of fallow areas for rehabilitation with input from affected and vulnerable communities. Significance of disaster management in India: Human lives are at stake: Disaster management can help reduce the loss of life and minimize the impact of disasters which leads to loss of life and property, and long-term health consequences. Climate change: Effective disaster management can help in mitigating the effects of climate change which has led to more frequent and severe natural disasters. Economic impact: Disaster management can help minimize the economic impact of disasters which have a significant impact on the economy, including loss of property and infrastructure, decreased productivity, and disrupted supply chains. Humanitarian assistance: Disaster management can help in coordinating relief efforts and ensuring that assistance reaches those who need it the most. Infrastructure: It can help in improving the resilience of infrastructure which are vulnerable to natural disasters such as roads, bridges, and buildings. Challenges of disaster management: Lack of preparedness: Despite frequent disasters, there is still a lack of preparedness at all levels of governance and society leading to delays in response time and inadequate resources to deal with disasters effectively. Population density: India is one of the most densely populated countries in the world, which can make evacuations and relief efforts more difficult during disasters. Climate change: With the increasing threat of climate change, India is experiencing more frequent and intense disasters, such as floods, droughts, and cyclones putting pressure on the country’s disaster management systems to adapt and respond effectively. Funding: Despite the increasing frequency and severity of disasters, funding for disaster management is often inadequate which often limit the resources available for preparedness, response, and recovery efforts. Lack of coordination: There is often a lack of coordination between different agencies involved in disaster management, such as the government, NGOs, and international organizations leading to duplication of efforts and inefficiencies. Poor infrastructure: Many areas in India lack basic infrastructure such as roads, bridges, and communication networks, making it difficult to reach affected areas during disasters. Way Forward: Disaster management in India faces various challenges, such as inadequate resources, poor infrastructure, limited awareness and education, weak institutional capacity, inadequate coordination and communication, and inadequate research and innovation. Therefore, steps such as continuous improvement and innovation in disaster management, based on the best available science, technology, and practices, and involving all stakeholders in a participatory and inclusive manner can go a long way in changing the scenario. Source: DownToEarth Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA): It is a statutory body established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. It is headed by the President of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Vinyl Chloride, a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? Low-density polyethylene Polyvinyl Chloride Polycarbonate Polyethylene terephthalate Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Atacama Large Millimeter Array (ALMA): It is an international partnership of the European Southern Observatory (ESO), with U.S., Japan and other countries. It is located on the Chajnantor plateau. It is the world’s largest ground-based facility for observations in the millimeter/submillimetre regime. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 18th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 18th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context:  The IEPFA is seeking applications from young students and scholars for its short-term internship programme which began recently. About IEPFA: IEPF is a statutory body under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, established under the Companies Act 2013. It administers the Investor Education and Protection Fund. IEPF Authority has undertaken a proactive approach to achieve its mandate of promoting investor education, awareness and protection. Its objective is to promote Investor Education, Awareness, and Protection. The Amounts credited to IEPF are maintained under the Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266 of the Constitution). Composition: Secretary Ministry of Corporate Affairs is the Chairperson of the Authority. The Joint Secretary Ministry of Corporate Affairs is the Chief Executive Officer of the Authority. The Authority is entrusted with the responsibility of administration of the Investor Education Protection Fund (IEPF), make refunds of shares, unclaimed dividends, matured deposits/debentures etc. to investors and to promote awareness among investors. The Authority has taken a 360 degree approach to sensitize stakeholders to include household investors, housewives, professionals, etc. across the country in rural and urban areas through direct investor awareness programmes, media campaign and engaging with other stakeholders with the common goal. In the urban and semi-urban areas the Authority organizes investor awareness programmes in association with the Institute of charted Accountants of India, Institute of Cost Accountants of India and Institute of Company Secretaries of India. In the rural areas the programmes are organised in collaboration with CSC e-governance Services Private Limited through the Common Service Centre (CSC’s) located in villages. Multilingual Information, Education and Communication booklets and films have been developed for creating awareness. A Joint Awareness campaign has been launched in association with Reserve Bank of India, Securities and Exchange Board of India & Department of Consumer Affairs. The IEPF is to be utilized for : The refund of unclaimed dividends , matured deposits, debentures , application money due for refund and interest thereon. Promotion of investor’s education, awareness and protection. Distribution of any disgorged amount among eligible and identifiable applicants for shares or debentures , shareholders, debenture-holders or depositors who have suffered loss due to wrong actions by any one person , in accordance with the ordered made by the court which had ordered disgorgement. SOURCE:   AIR Previous year Questions Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to “National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2018) It is an organ of NITI Aayog. It has a corpus of Rs. 4, 00,000 crores at present. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Special Rupee Vostro Accounts Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, government of India informed that Russian banks have opened Special Rupee Vostro Accounts (SRVA) with partner banks in India. About Special Rupee Vostro Accounts (SRVA): The SRVA is an additional arrangement to the existing system that uses freely convertible currencies. It works as a complimentary system to facilitate transactions that cannot be executed through the existing banking setup. About Vostro Accounts: A Vostro account is an account that domestic banks hold for foreign banks in the former’s domestic currency. In this, a foreign bank acts as an agent providing financial services on behalf of a domestic bank. It enables domestic banks to provide international banking services to their clients who have global banking needs. Domestic banks use Vostro accounts to facilitate transfers, conduct business transactions, accept deposits, and gather documents on behalf of the foreign bank. Significance: The system could reduce the “net demand for foreign exchange, the U.S. dollar in particular, for the settlement of trade flows” It will reduce the dependence on foreign currencies. It can make the country less vulnerable to external shocks. Ensure timely payments. This helps domestic banks to gain wider access to foreign financial markets and serve international clients without having to be physically present abroad. Vostro accounts are not restricted to banks, they can be used by other entities such as insurance companies and business entities to keep funds with another entity. When Vostro accounts are used by corresponding banks, the domestic bank can execute transfers, deposits, and withdrawals on behalf of the corresponding bank. Functioning : The framework entails three important components, namely, invoicing, exchange rate and settlement. Invoicing entails that all exports and imports must be denominated and invoiced in INR. The exchange rate between the currencies of the trading partner countries would be market-determined. The final settlement also takes place in Indian National Rupee (INR). Domestic importers are required to make payment in INR into the SRVA account of the correspondent bank against the invoices. Domestic exporters are to be paid the export proceeds in INR from the balances in the designated account of the correspondent bank of the partner country. Legal framework: All reporting of cross-border transactions are to be done in accordance with the extant guidelines under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999. Eligibility criteria of banks: Banks from partner countries are required to approach an authorised domestic dealer bank for opening the SRVA. The domestic bank would then seek approval from the apex banking regulator providing details of the arrangement. Domestic banks should ensure that the correspondent bank is not from a country mentioned in the updated Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Public Statement on High Risk & Non-Co-operative jurisdictions. Authorised banks can open multiple SRV accounts for different banks from the same country. Balances in the account can be repatriated in freely convertible currency and/or currency of the beneficiary partner country depending on the underlying transaction, that is, for which the account was credited. There are 3 types of accounts : Vostro, Nostro and Loro Accounts Vostro accounts -are maintained in the domestic currency. Nostro accounts- are maintained in foreign currency. A Loro account -is a current account that is maintained by one domestic bank for another domestic bank in the form of a third-party account, unlike nostro and vostro which is bilateral correspondence. The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA): It is a civil law dealing with foreign exchange market in India. Under it the Central Government can regulate the flow of payments to and from a person situated outside the country. Financial transactions concerning foreign securities or exchange cannot be carried out without the approval of FEMA. The Act empowers RBI to place restrictions on transactions from capital Account even if it is carried out via an authorized individual. SOURCE:   THE HINDU Previous year Questions Q.1) Rapid Financing Instruments” and “Rapid Credit Facilities” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2)  ‘European Stability Mechanism’, sometimes seen in the news, is an : (2016) the agency created by the EU to deal with the impact of millions of refugees arriving from the Middle East agency of the EU that provides financial assistance to eurozone countries agency of the EU to deal with all the bilateral and multilateral agreements on trade agency of the EU to deal with the conflicts arising among the member countries The New START Treaty Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently, the Russian President announced that Russia is suspending its participation in the New START. About New START: The name START comes from the original “Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty”, known as START-I, which was signed between the US and the erstwhile USSR in 1991, and came into force in 1994. It is a nuclear arms reduction treaty between the United States and the Russian Federation. It replaced the Treaty of Moscow (SORT), which was to expire in 2012. START-I, which capped the numbers of nuclear warheads and intercontinental ballistic missiles (ICBMs) that each side could deploy at 6,000 and 1,600 respectively, lapsed in 2009 and was replaced first by the Strategic Offensive Reductions Treaty (SORT or Treaty of Moscow), and then by the New START treaty. SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs : (2019) Sea Bordering country Adriatic Sea Albania Black Sea Croatia Caspian Sea Kazakhstan Mediterranean Sea Morocco Red Sea Syria Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1, 2, and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2018) The town is sometimes mentioned in the news Country Aleppo Syria Kirkuk Yemen Mosul Palestine Mazar-i-Sharif Afghanistan Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1 and 2 1 and 4 2 and 3 3 and 4 International Mother Language Day Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: The world celebrates International Mother Language Day on February 21, 2023. About International Mother Language Day: The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)celebrates 21st February as International Mother Language Day. It is celebrated to promote mother tongue-based multilingual education. The theme of the 2023 International Mother Language Day, is “Multilingual education – a necessity to transform education”. It was Bangladesh’s initiative to introduce the idea of International Mother Language Day to UNESCO. The United Nations agency initiated the International Decade of Indigenous Languages (2022-2032) . About  Languages in India: Indian Languages are classified into several groups, including the Indo-Aryan group, the Dravidian group, the Sino-Tibetan group, Austric, and others. Article 343 (1)of the Indian Constitution mentions that “the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script.” Part XVIIof the Indian constitution deals with the official languages of India from Article 342 to 351. There are 22 languageslisted under the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution namely Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Santhali, and Maithili. Recent studies show that tribal languages are moving towards extinction in India. Linguist experts say that the most threatened language is Majhi in Sikkim. Similarly, the Mahali language in eastern India, Koro in Arunachal Pradesh, Sidi in Gujarat, and Dimasa in Assam are facing extinction. There are 62 tribal groups in the state of Odisha, including 13 particularly vulnerable ones, literature but the education material is available only in Santali and Ho Only six tribal languages — Santali, Ho, Soura, Munda and Kui — have a written script in Odisha. SOURCE:  DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Q.2) The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to : (2015) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes determine the boundaries between states determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats protect the interests of all the border States Special Category Status Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context:  Recently , the Union Finance Minister announced that the Centre will not consider the demands for “special category status “ for any states About Special Category Status : It is a classification given by the Centre to assist development of states that face geographical and socio-economic disadvantages. Under this, the Central government extends financial assistance to states that are at a comparative disadvantage against others. There is no provision of SCS in the Constitution of India. The concept emerged in 1969 with the approval of the Gadgil formula in the Fifth Finance Commission in 1969.  The parameters required for Special Category Status: Must be economically backward with poor infrastructure. The states must be located in hilly and challenging terrain. They should have low population density and significant tribal population. Should be strategically situated along the borders of neighboring countries. First SCS was accorded in 1969 to Jammu and Kashmir, Assam and Nagaland. The 14th Finance Commission has done away with the ‘special category status’ for states, except for the North-eastern and three hill states. Presently, eleven states have the Special Category Status in the country including Assam, Nagaland, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Sikkim, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Uttarakhand, and Telangana. Benefits to States with SCS: The Centre pays 90% of the funds required in a centrally-sponsored scheme to special category status states as against 60% or 75% in case of other states, while the remaining funds are provided by the state governments. Preferential treatment in getting central funds. 30 percent of the Centre’s gross budget also goes to special category states. Unspent money does not lapse and is carried forward. Significant concessions are provided to these states in excise and customs duties, income tax and corporate tax. These states can avail the benefit of debt-swapping and debt relief schemes. SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA Previous Year Questions Q.1)  With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2019) From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is (2014) inclusive growth and poverty reductions inclusive and sustainable growth sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce unemployment faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth. Survey of India Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, the Centre officially released the National Geospatial Policy of India which allows any private agency to make high-resolution maps. About Survey of India: Survey of India, The National Survey and Mapping Organization of the country under the Department of Science & Technology. It is the oldest scientific department of the Indian government. It was established in 1767 to help consolidate the Indian territories of the British East India Company. Its assigned role as the nation’s Principal Mapping Agency. It is headquartered in Dehradun, Uttarakhand. It is India’s principal mapping agency and functions under the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Ministry of Science and                   Technology, Government of India. It provides base maps for expeditious and integrated development of the country by ensuring that all resources contribute to the progress, security, and prosperity of the nation for the present and the future. It is headed by the Surveyor-General of India. Source:  THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) The term ‘IndARC’ sometimes seen in the news, is the name of? (2015) an indigenously developed radar system inducted into Indian Defense India’s satellite to provide services to the countries of the Indian Ocean Rim a scientific establishment set up by India in the Antarctic region India’s underwater observatory to scientifically study the Arctic region Q.2) In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used? (2018) Mobile phone operations Banking operations Controlling the power grids Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Global Assessment of Soil Carbon in Grasslands Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: FAO(Food and Agricultural Organization) published its first Global Assessment of Soil Carbon in Grasslands. Key Findings: The study found that if the SOC content in the 0–30 cm depth layer of available grasslands increased by 0.3 percent after 20 years of the application of management practices that enhance soil organic carbon sequestration, 0.3 tonnes C/ha per year could be sequestered. Grasslands contain approximately 20 percent of the world’s SOC Grasslands have suffered losses because of human activities such as intensive livestock grazing, agricultural activities, and other land-use activities. Most of the world’s grasslands have a positive carbon balance, meaning the land is stable or well-maintained. About Grasslands: Grasslands are areas dominated by grasses. Distribution: Grasslands are found in areas having well-defined hot and dry, warm and rainy seasons. Grasslands can majorly be divided into two parts: Tropical Grasslands – Savannah, Campos, and Llanos Temperate Grasslands- Pampas, Prairie, Veld, Steppe, and Down Significance of Grasslands : Farmers who keep cattle or goats, as well as shepherds who keep sheep, are highly dependent on grasslands. Domestic animals are grazed in the ‘common’ land of the village. Fodder is collected and stored to feed cattle when there is no grass left for them to graze in summer. The grass is also used to thatch houses and farm sheds. The thorny bushes and branches of the few trees that are seen in grasslands are used as a major source of fuelwood. Nutrient cycling (biogeochemical cycles) Ecological succession or ecosystem development Distribution across the World : SOURCE :FAO Previous Year Questions Q.1) If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement? (2022) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation. Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive. 58 15 Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization. Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients. Q.2) The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions. (2021) Which of the following are such conditions? Burrowing animals and termites Fire Grazing herbivores Seasonal rainfall Soil properties Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 4 and 5 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 5 only Q.3) Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss? (2018) Hard and waxy leaves Tiny leaves Thorns instead of leaves Select the correct answer using the code given below 2 and 3 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 APJ Abdul Kalam SLV Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: India’s first hybrid rocket launched from Tamil Nadu’s Pattipulam. About APJ Abdul Kalam SLV: Martin Foundation in association with Dr APJ Abdul Kalam International Foundation and Space Zone India completed the project known as Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Satellite Launch Vehicle Mission 2023. It is India’s first hybrid sounding rocket by private players . The reusable rocket was made by the selected top 100 students, while the rest made the satellite. About Hybrid Rocket: is a type of rocket engine that combines features of both liquid-fueled and solid-fueled rockets. In a hybrid rocket, a solid fuel is burned in combination with a liquid or gaseous oxidizer to produce thrust. The solid fuel in a hybrid rocket is typically made of a polymer, such as hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene (HTPB), which is cast into a cylindrical shape and placed inside the rocket motor. They are generally simpler and less expensive to manufacture than liquid rockets. They are also safer than both liquid and solid rockets SOURCE :THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometers long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to (2020) Voyager-2 New Horizons LISA Pathfinder Evolved LISA Q.2) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements : (2018) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only None Q.3) With reference to India’s satellite launch  vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct.? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only India’s potential of blue economy Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: Recently, G20 Environmental and Climate Sustainability Working Group discussed issues of land degradation, blue economy and the circular economy. About Blue Economy: According to the World Bank, It is defined as the “sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth, improved livelihoods, and jobs while preserving the health of the ecosystem.” The blue economy offers coastal nations like India a huge socioeconomic opportunity to responsibly use ocean resources for societal benefit. The rise in demand of ocean-linked products such as seafood, energy generation, etc. has led to the growth of the blue economy globally, with estimated global turnover ranging between US$ 3-6 trillion annually. The concept began seeping into the consciousness of academics and policymakers after the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development in 2012. Significance of India’s Blue Economy: Below image shows Indian Marine Exports (in US$ Billions). India’s blue economy: It is a subset of the national economy comprising the entire ocean resources system and human-made economic infrastructure in marine, maritime, and onshore coastal zones within the country’s legal jurisdiction. India is strategically located between two important plug points called Strait of Hormuz and Strait of Malacca, through which most of trade in commercial shipping moves in the Indian Ocean. Coastal states and islands: With some 7,500 kilometres, India has a unique maritime position. Nine of its 29 states are coastal, and it’s geography includes 1,382 islands. Ports and Exclusive Economic Zone: There are nearly 199 ports, including 12 major ports that handle approximately 1,400 million tons of cargo each year. Besides, India’s Exclusive Economic Zone of over 2 million square kilometres has a bounty of living and non-living resources with significant recoverable resources such as crude oil and natural gas. Coastal settlements: The coastal economy sustains over 4 million fisherfolk and coastal communities. Govt of India Initiatives to promote sustainable blue economy: Sagarmala Project: Vision of the Sagarmala Programme is to reduce logistics cost for export-import and domestic trade with minimal infrastructure investment. Coastal Economic Zones: The government identifies CEZs in the National Perspective Plan for Sagarmala Programme. CEZs aims to promote exports by providing infrastructure and facilities to entrepreneurs to set up businesses and industries near Ports. Indian Ocean Rim Association: India has been taking active participation in the IORA for promotion of blue economy in Indian Ocean littoral states. Matsya Sampada Yojana: It is a flagship scheme for focused and sustainable development of the fisheries sector in the country. It will bring about the Blue Revolution by harnessing fisheries’ potential in a sustainable, responsible, inclusive and equitable manner. Polymetallic Nodules: India has received the sanction from International Seabed Authority for deep-sea mining in the Central Indian Ocean. Deep Ocean Mission: It was launched with an intention to develop technologies to harness the living and non-living resources from the deep-oceans. India-Norway Task Force on Blue Economy for Sustainable Development: It was inaugurated jointly by both the countries in 2020 to develop and follow up joint initiatives between the two countries. Way Forward: With its vast maritime interests, the blue economy occupies a vital potential position in India’s economic growth. It could well be the next multiplier of GDP and well-being, provided sustainability and socio-economic welfare are kept centre-stage. India should look to adopt the Gandhian approach of balancing economic benefits with sustainability for meeting the broader goals of growth, employment generation, equity and protection of environment. Source: Down To Earth     Child Marriage in India Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) Context: Activists working on ground suggest that the COVID-19 pandemic combined with poverty may have worsened the phenomenon of child marriage in India. About Child marriage: Child marriage can be described as a formal marriage or an informal union entered into by an individual before attaining the prescribed eligible age. The legally prescribed marriageable age in some jurisdictions is below 18 years, including India. Child marriage in India: Child marriage prevalence is generally defined as the percentage of women 20-24 years old who were married or in union before age 18. India is estimated to have over 24 million child brides. According to the National Family Health Survey, 40% of the world’s 60 million child marriages take place in India. According to the International Centre for Research on Women, India has the 14th highest rate of child marriage in the world, Eight States have a higher prevalence of child marriage than the national average — West Bengal, Bihar and Tripura top the list with more than 40% of women aged 20-24 years married below 18, according to NFHS data. In Kerala, women who got married before the age of 18 stood at 6.3% in 2019-20, from 7.6% in 2015-16. Reasons for child marriage in India: Customs and Traditions: Traditions like dowry put a lot of stress on the family because the parents have to give a lot of money, jewellery, land etc. for their daughter to get married. Generally the amount of dowry rises with age of the girl, so families prefer to marry their girls young. Poverty: Poor Families ‘sell’ their children through marriage to pay off debts or to get out of the cycle of poverty. Child marriage makes families poorer because young girls who get married won’t be educated or skilled enough to do well in the workforce. “Protecting” the Girl’s Sexuality: In some cultures, marrying a girl young is thought to “protect” the girl’s sexuality and the family’s honour. Security: Parents often marry their daughters off young to “secure” a good future for them. Abuse, rape, and other crimes against girls, as well as extreme poverty, can make parents turn to child marriage as a way to protect their daughters. Laxity in Implementation of Laws: Laws are not implemented stringently. In many cases the ages of the bride and groom aren’t checked at the time of registration of marriage. Many child marriages aren’t even registered. Discrimination based on gender: Child marriage is a manifestation of discrimination against girls and women. According to a UNICEF report on ‘Child Marriage and the Law’, “The discrimination often manifests itself in the form of domestic violence, marital rape, and deprivation of food, lack of access to information, education, healthcare, and general impediments to mobility”. Harmful impacts of Child Marriage: Child Rights Issues: Children who are forced to get married young lose their rights including the right to an education, the right to be safe from physical and mental violence, injury, or abuse, among others. Health Issues: According to NFHS-5, prevalence of child stunting is 35.5% in 2019-21. Premature Pregnancy: Most young brides don’t know much about contraception and don’t have easy access to reproductive health services. They get pregnant at a younger age and have more than one child before their mind and bodies are ready. Maternal Mortality: Girls under 15 are five times more likely to die during childbirth or pregnancy. The leading cause of death for girls ages 15 to 19 around the world is pregnancy-related deaths. Infant Mortality: Babies born to mothers younger than 20 have almost 75% higher death rates than babies born to mothers older than 20 years. The children who do make it are more likely to be born pre-mature and with a low birth weight. Illiteracy: Child brides are often taken out of school and not allowed to get further education. Research shows that child marriage and pregnancy are the biggest factors that keep girls from going to school. Intergenerational Cycle of Poverty: Child marriage negatively affects the economy and can lead to an intergenerational cycle of poverty. Girls and boys married as children more likely lack the skills, knowledge and job prospects needed to lift their families out of poverty. Early marriage leads girls to have children earlier and more children over their lifetime, increasing economic burden on the household. Teen Widows: In a society that allows child marriages, it is not unusual to find widows and divorcees under the age of 18. Laws and Policies to prevent child marriages: The Child Marriage Restraint Act of 1929: It is also known as the Sarda Act. It was a law enacted to restrain the practices of Child Marriage. Its main goal was to eliminate the evils placed on young girls who could not handle the stress of married life and to avoid early deaths. This act defined a male child as 21 years or younger and a female child as 18 years or younger. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act of 2006: Under this act, the marriageable age for a male is prescribed as 21 years and that of a female is 18 years. Child Marriage is prohibited in India as per the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006. Hindu Marriage Act, 1956: Under Hindu Marriage Act, there are no certain provisions for punishing the parents or people who solemnized the marriage. A girl can get the marriage annulled only if she wants to get married before attaining the age of fifteen years and she challenges the marriage before turning eighteen. Muslim Personal Law: Under the Muslim Laws, there is no bar to child marriage. The couple after marriage has an “option of puberty” known as Khayar-ul-bulugh in which they can repudiate the marriage after attaining the age of puberty. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012: which aim at protecting children from violation of human and other rights. A parliamentary standing committee is weighing the pros and cons of raising the age of marriage for women to 21, which has been cleared by the Union Cabinet. Way forward: The solution lies in empowering girls, creating proper public infrastructure and addressing societal norms. It should be ensured that Child Protection Committees and Child Marriage Prohibition officers are doing the job and community support groups should be activated. Such efforts can lead to Child Marriage Free Villages like in Odisha which now has over 12,000 such villages. Local gram panchayat members should be oriented to spread awareness on child marriage, not only that it is illegal to get a child married off before 18, but also the dangers to the child’s health and her offspring. There has been a rise in child marriages during the pandemic, but many have been prevented as well. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements Survey of India: It is the national survey and mapping organization of the country works under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. It is headquartered in Delhi. It is headed by the Surveyor-General of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.2) Consider the following pairs: Grasslands and location Savanna – Western Africa Pampas – Argentina Prairies – USA Down – New Zealand How many pairs given above is/are correct? One pair only Two pairs only Three pairs only All four pairs Q.3) Consider the following statements Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA): It is a statutory body established under the Companies Act 2013. It works under the Ministry of Education. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 23rd February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 22nd February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23rd February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) New cricket species Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: A new cricket species was discovered by researchers on the Ashoka University campus. About the Species: Hexacentrus ashoka is a genus of predatory katydids. In India, the genus Hexacentrus is represented by 7 species of which 6 are morphologically characterized while one is only acoustically characterized. Hexacentrusis the type genus of bush-crickets in the subfamily Hexacentrinae. Most species of this genus occur in Southeast Asiaand in Africa. About Crickets Crickets are divided into two groups- true crickets (ground and tree crickets) bush crickets/katydids. Crickets are nocturnal in nature. Bush crickets belong to an order called Orthoptera. This order includes species of grasshoppers and crickets. SOURCE: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following kinds of organisms: (2021) 1. Copepods 2. Cyanobacteria 3. Diatoms 4. Foraminifera Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans? 1 and 2 2 and 3  3 and 4 1 and 4 Q2. Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis BBNJ Treaty Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: A new round of negotiations on the much-awaited United Nations High Seas Treaty for conservation and sustainable use of marine biological diversity of areas beyond national jurisdiction (BBNJ) began in New York recently. About BBNJ Treaty : The “BBNJ Treaty”, also known as the “Treaty of the High Seas”. It is an international agreement on the conservation and sustainable use of marine biological diversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction. It encompasses the high seas, beyond the exclusive economic zones or national waters of countries. This new instrument is being developedwithin the framework of the UNCLOS. About UNCLOS( United Nations Convention for the Law of the Sea): UNCLOS  is an international agreement that establishes the legal framework for marine and maritime activities. The Convention which concluded in the year 1982 replaced the quad-treaty of 1958. It came into effect in the year 1994. It divides marine areas into 5 zones : Internal-waters Territorial seas Contiguous Zone Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) Continental shelf or High seas India has been a party to the convention since 1995. Source: DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’? (2022) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters. It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region. It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies at the North Pole and the South Pole. It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council. Q.2)  Consider the following statements. (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only  2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 DUSTLIK Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Defense Context – The 4th  INDO-UZBEKISTAN  joint military exercise ‘DUSTLIK’ commenced in Pithoragarh (Uttarakhand) recently. About DUSTLIK : It is a biennial training exercise held between the armies of India and Uzbekistan. The first edition of the joint military exercise took place in Tashkent, Uzbekistan in 2019. The exercise focuses on Counter Terrorism operations in semi-urban terrain under a United Nations Mandate. About Uzbekistan: Uzbekistan is a landlocked country in Central Asia. The capital of Uzbekistan is Tashkent. Uzbekistan lies mainly between two major rivers, the Syr Darya to the northeast and the Amu Darya to the southwest. Uzbekistan is bordered by  5 Asian nations namely: Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstanand Tajikistan, Afghanistan, and Turkmenistan. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2022) Azerbaijan Kyrgyzstan Tajikistan Uzbekistan Turkmenistan Which of the above has borders with Afghanistan? 1, 2, and 5 only 1, 2, 3, and 4 only 3, 4, and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                              Turkey Amhara                                               Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                     Spain Catalonia                                             Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs AUTISM SPECTRUM DISEASE Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science, and Technology Context: Recent studies probed the link between the  gut microbiome  and autism spectrum disorders. Key Findings: Investigations of the dynamic cross-talk between the gut microbiome and the host environment have revealed potential connections to ASD symptoms. Biological crosstalk :refers to instances in which one or more components of one signal transduction pathway affects another.  The gut microbiome is believed to have a big impact on immune modulation and metabolic activities in the human body. Immune modulation: refers to the efforts of the immune system to ensure its response is proportionate to a threat. About Autism Spectrum Disease: Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is the term for a group of neurodevelopmental disorders. It is characterized by difficulties in social interaction, verbal and nonverbal communication, and the presence of repetitive behavior and restricted interests. Signs of autism usually appear by age 2 or 3. Some associated development delays can appear as early as 18 months. There is no cure for autism. In 2008, the United Nations General Assembly unanimously declared 2ndApril as World Autism Awareness Day. About the Human microbiome: The collective genome of all micro-organisms contained within the human body, residing inside tissues and bio-fluids is called Human Microbiome. Most of them have either commensal (co-existing without harming humans) or mutualistic (each benefit from the other). These organisms play a key role in many aspects of host physiology such as : The metabolism of complex indigestible carbohydrates and fats to produce essential vitamins Maintaining immune systems and Acting as the first line of defense against pathogens. Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics : (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?(2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens. GST Council Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, the approval of the GST Appellate Tribunal was announced by the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council. About GST Council: The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 (122nd Amendment Bill), paved the way for the implementation of GST. The GST Council is a joint forum of the Centre and the states under Article 279-A of the constitution. Article 279-A. gives the President the authority to appoint a GST Council by executive order. The members of the Council include the Union Finance Minister (chairperson), and the Union Minister of State (Finance) from various states. As per Article 279, it is meant to “make recommendations to the Union and the states on important issues related to GST, like the goods and services that may be subjected or exempted from GST, model GST Laws”. It also decides on various rate slabs of GST. About GST Appellate Tribunal: The GST Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT) or simply the Appellate Tribunal is the second appeal forum under GST for any dissatisfactory order passed by the First Appellate Authorities, an application for revision of the same can be raised to the National Appellate Tribunal. The National Appellate Tribunal is also the first common forum to resolve disputes between the center and the states. Being a common forum, it is the duty of the GST Appellate Tribunal to ensure uniformity in the redressal of disputes arising under GST. Powers of the Appellate Tribunal under GST: As per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the GST Appellate Tribunal holds the same powers as the court and is deemed Civil Court for trying a case. The Appellate Tribunal has been granted the powers to hear appeals and to pass orders and directions, including those for the recovery of amounts due, for the enforcement of its orders, and for the rectification of mistakes. The Tribunal also has the power to impose penalties, revoke or cancel registrations, and take such other measures as may be necessary to ensure compliance with the GST laws. Jurisdiction of the Appellate Tribunal under GST: The jurisdiction of the Appellate Tribunal extends to all cases where an appeal has been filed against an order, decision, or direction of a lower authority under the GST laws. The Tribunal has the power to hear and resolve disputes related to the assessment of taxes, determination of liability, imposition of penalties, and other matters related to the implementation and interpretation of the GST laws. Constitution of the GST Appellate Tribunal The GSTAT has the following structure: National Bench: The National Appellate Tribunal is situated in New Delhi, and constitutes a National President (Head) along with 2 Technical Members (1 from the Centre and one State each). Regional Benches: On the recommendations of the GST Council, the government can constitute (by notification) an ‘N’ number of Regional Benches, as required. As of now, there are 3 Regional Benches (situated in Mumbai, Kolkata, and Hyderabad) in India, wherein each bench constitutes a Judicial Member and 2 Technical Members(for Centre and State each). State Bench and Area Bench: The Government, on the recommendations of the GST council, has notified a number of State Benches. Source: News on Air Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India? (2022) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India  Q.2) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (2017) It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 SEBI Open in new window Syllabus    Prelims – Governance Context: The Supreme Court asked the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and the government to produce the existing regulatory framework in place to protect investors from share market volatility. About SEBI (The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) : The Securities and Exchange Board of India was established as a statutory body in the year 1992. Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra Ministry: Ministry of Finance Chairperson: Ms. Madhabi Puri Buch The chairman is nominated by the Union Government of India. Two members, i.e., Officers from the Union Finance Ministry. One member from the Reserve Bank of India. The remaining five members are nominated by the Union Government of India, out of them at least three shall be whole-time members. About National Stock Exchange The National Stock Exchange is an Indian stock exchange headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra. The NSE was designated as a stock exchange in 1993. More than 2000 companies are listed on the NSE. The NSE’s Stock Index – NIFTY – represents the top 50 stocks on the stock exchange. About Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) The BSE is one of Asia’s oldest stock exchanges, with a long history of fast trading The BSE was registered as a stock exchange in 1957 . The Stock Index of the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) – SENSEX – provides the top 30 stock indexes. More than 5000 companies are listed on the BSE. Functions: Quasi-legislative – drafts regulations Quasi-judicial – passes rulings and orders Quasi-executive – conducts investigation and enforcement action SEBI is responsible for the needs of three groups: Issuers of securities Investors Market intermediaries Powers: To approve by−laws of Securities exchanges. To require the Securities exchange to amend their by−laws. Inspect the books of accounts and call for periodical returns from recognized Securities exchanges. Inspect the books of accounts of financial intermediaries. Compel certain companies to list their shares in one or more Securities exchanges. Registration of Brokers and sub-brokers Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements. (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Apple of Sodom Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: IIT-Madras recently uncovered a low-cost, eco-friendly emulsifier in the latex sap of a commonly found plant called the Apple of Sodom. About Apple of Sodom : Calotropis procera is commonly known as the Apple of Sodom. It is a species of flowering plant in the Milkweed family, Asclepiadaceae. It is native to West Africa as far south as Angola, North and East Africa, Madagascar, the Arabian Peninsula, Southern Asia, Indo-China region and Malaysia.  The green fruits contain a toxic milky sap that is extremely bitter and hardens into a soap-resistant gluey coating. Ayurvedic Health benefits of Apple of Sodom:- Ascites: Apply the latex of Sodom locally on the affected areas. Leprosy: Use the latex of Sodom plant on the affected skin. Ringworms: Apply the milky fluid of Sodom plant over infected skin. Stings: Locally apply the milk fluid of Sodom plant on the damaged skin. Deafness: Take a ripe yellow leaf of Sodom. Warm it. Squeeze the leaf juice drops in ears. Use it for 2 weeks. Caries: Apply the latex of Sodom on the affected teeth. Gastroenteritis: Roast the leaves of Sodom and apply locally. Health Benefits of Apple: Juice of the plant is poisonous it has been used as an infanticide in Africa. Both the bark and the latex are widely used as arrow and spear poisons. Latex is cardio toxic with the active ingredient being calotropin. All parts of plant are poisonous if ingested. Handling plant may cause skin irritation or allergic reaction Source:  THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements: (2022) It is a fungus. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the general difference between plant and animal cells? (2020) Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal cells do not Plant cells do not have plasma membranes unlike animal cells which do A mature plant cell has one large vacuole vacuoles Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Employees State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: At the 190th Meeting of ESI Corporation, the Ministry for Labour & Employment announced several decisions on strengthening social security for  Shram Jeevis. About ESIC: It is a state-run organization set up under the Employee State Insurance Act of 1948. It is responsible for overseeing the ESI plan. Ministry: The Ministry of Labour & Employment It provides socio-economic protectionto the worker population and immediate dependent or family covered under the ESI scheme. About ESI Scheme: The Employees’ State Insurance Scheme (ESI)is an integrated measure of social Insurance embodied in the Employees’ State Insurance Act, of 1948. It applies to factories and other establishments Road Transport, Hotels, Restaurants, Cinemas, Newspaper, Shops, and Educational/Medical Institutions wherein 10 or more persons are employed. The benefits of the ESI system are described below. Physical Disability Benefits Medical Benefits Maternity Benefits Dependent Benefit Unemployment Allowance. Sickness Benefit About Atal Beemit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana(ABVKY): It is a welfare measure being implemented by the Employee’s State Insurance (ESI) Corporation. It was introduced in This scheme aims to financially aid people who lost their jobs due to changing employment patterns and due to the Covid-19 pandemic. It offerscash compensation to insured persons when they are rendered unemployed. Source:  PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments, and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (2022) Central Statistics Office Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade Labour Bureau National Technical Manpower Information System Q.2) With reference to the casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements: (2021) All casual workers are entitled to employees Provident Fund Coverage All casual workers are entitled to regular working hours and overtime payment The government can by notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Solar Energy in India Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) and Environment Context: The Union budget increased allocation for the Production-linked incentive (PLI) scheme for high-efficiency solar modules. About Solar Panel and its working: A solar panel is a collection of photovoltaic (PV) cells that collect sunlight and convert it into electric current. When sunlight hits the semiconductor in the solar PV cell the energy from the light in the form of photons is absorbed. This energy absorption results in exciting a number of electrons, which then drift freely in the cell. The solar cell is specifically designed to create an electric field. This electric field forces the electrons to flow in a certain direction- towards the  electrical terminals that line the cell. This flow is known as an energy current, and the strength of the current is determined by how much electricity each cell can produce. Once the electrons reach terminals  the current is then directed into wires making the panel a source of electrical energy. Solar Energy potential in India: From less than 10 MW in 2010, India has added significant PV capacity over the past decade, achieving over 50 GW by 2022 . By 2030, India is targeting about 500 GW of renewable energy deployment, out of which ~280 GW is expected from solar PV. This calls for 30 GW of solar capacity every year until 2030. India’s current solar module manufacturing capacity is limited to around 15 GW per year rest is met through imports. An estimated 85 per cent of this import need is met by three countries China, alongside Vietnam and Malaysia. The value of solar imported since 2014 adds up to $12.93 billion, or Rs 90,000 crore. Advantages of Solar Energy in India: This is an inexhaustible source of energy and the best replacement to other non-renewable energies in India. Solar energy is environment friendly, hence it is very suitable for India as it is being one of the most polluted countries of the world. Solar energy can be used for variety of purposes like as heating, drying, cooking or electricity, which is suitable for the rural areas in India replacing other energy resources. It can also be used in cars, planes, large power boats, satellites, calculators and many more such items, just apt for the urban population. In an energy deficient country like India, where power generation is costly, solar energy is the best alternate means of power generation. Solar panels can be easily installed; hence it is quite inexpensive compared to other sources of energy. By 2012, a total of 4,600,000 solar lanterns and 861,654 solar-powered home lights were installed. Typically replacing kerosene lamps, they can be purchased for the cost of a few months’ worth of kerosene with a small loan. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy is offering a 30- to 40-percent subsidy of the cost of lanterns, home lights and small systems. Solar photovoltaic water-pumping systems are used for irrigation and drinking water. Challenges of solar energy manufacturing in India: Solar cell manufacturing needs a huge amount of capital. The cost of debt in India (11%) is highest in the Asia-Pacific region, while in China it is about 5%. Solar cell manufacturing is a complicated process that is technology intensive. Establishing state-of-the-art manufacturing facilities needs access to technology. It is unlikely that companies that have spent millions of dollars on R&D would make it easy for India to access the latest technologies easily or at a lower cost. Lack of an integrated set-up and the economies of scale (despite 100 per cent FDI in the renewable energy sector) translates into higher cost of domestic production Solar panel Manufacturing suffers from a huge raw material supply crunch. Silicon wafer, the most expensive raw material in the panel, is not manufactured in India. Solar cell technology sees upgrades every 8-10 months making manufacturing inefficient for new entrants. Govt. of India Initiatives: The govt. of India established a 19,500-crore production linked incentive (PLI) scheme on ‘national programme on high efficiency solar PV modules’, seeking to attract Rs 94,000-crore investment in the sector. Modified Special Incentive Package Scheme (M-SIPS) of Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology offers a 20-25 per cent subsidy for investments in capital expenditure for setting up a manufacturing facility. Atal Jyoti Yojana (AJAY): The AJAY scheme was launched in September 2016 for the installation of solar street lighting (SSL) systems in states with less than 50% of households covered with grid power (as per Census 2011). PM KUSUM: The scheme aims to add solar and other renewable capacity of 30,800 MW by 2022 with total central financial support of Rs. 34,422 Crores. Solar Park Scheme: The Solar Park Scheme plans to build a number of solar parks, each with a capacity of nearly 500 MW, across several states. SRISTI Scheme: Sustainable rooftop implementation of Solar transfiguration of India (SRISTI) scheme to promote rooftop solar power projects in India. National Solar Mission: It is a major initiative of the Government of India and State Governments to promote ecologically sustainable growth while addressing India’s energy security challenge. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at (2018) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi The Problems associated with the Data Protection Bill Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: A data protection law must safeguard and balance peoples’ right to privacy and their right to information, which are fundamental rights flowing from the Constitution. Key features of the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill: The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology has drafted a Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Bill. Significance of the bill: The purpose of the bill is to provide for the processing of digital personal data in a manner that recognises both the right of individuals to protect their personal data and the need to process personal data for lawful purposes. It is India’s first attempt to domestically legislate on the issue of data protection. The categories of Data created by the Bill are as follows: Personal data: Data from which an individual can be identified like name, address etc. No Data Mirroring is required. Individual consent will suffice. Sensitive personal data (SPD): Some types of personal data like as financial, health, sexual orientation, biometric, genetic, transgender status, caste, religious belief, and more. To be stored only in India. It can be processed abroad only under certain conditions including approval of a Data Protection Agency (DPA). Critical personal data: Anything that the government at any time can deem critical, such as military or national security data. Critical personal data must be stored and processed in India. Non-Personal Data: The Bill mandates fiduciaries to provide the government any non-personal data when demanded. The ‘data fiduciary’ may be a service provider who collects, stores and uses data in the course of providing such goods and services. Non-personal data refers to anonymised data, such as traffic patterns or demographic data. The previous draft did not apply to this type of data, which many companies use to fund their business model. Impact on Social Media Companies: Significant Data Fiduciaries (the fiduciaries with huge volume and processing sensitive data) have to develop their own user verification mechanism. It will reduce the anonymity of users and decrease trolling, fake news and cyberbullying. Exemptions for Data Processing without consent: They have been provided for reasonable purposes like Security of the state. Detection of any unlawful activity or fraud. Whistleblowing etc Creation of Independent Regulator: The Bill calls for the creation of an independent regulator Data Protection Authority, which will oversee assessments and audits and definition-making. Each company will have a Data Protection Officer (DPO) who will liaison with the DPA for auditing, grievance redressal, recording maintenance and more. The Bill proposes “Purpose limitation” and “Collection limitation” clause, which limit the collection of data to what is needed for “clear, specific, and lawful” purposes. Control Over Data: It also grants individuals the right to data portability and the ability to access and transfer one’s own data. The right to be forgotten is also given. With historical roots in European Union law, General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), this right allows an individual to remove consent for data collection and disclosure. Penalty – The Bill stated the penalties as: Rs 5 crore or 2 percent of worldwide turnover for minor violations and Rs 15 crore or 4 percent of total worldwide turnover for more serious violations. Also, the company’s executive-in-charge can also face jail terms of up to three years. Problems associated with the Bill: In conflict with RTI Act: The Bill is criticised for seeking to dilute the provisions of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, which has empowered citizens to access information and hold governments accountable. The RTI Act includes a provision to protect privacy through Section 8(1)(j). In order to invoke this section to deny personal information, at least one of the following grounds has to be proven. The information sought has no relationship to any public activity or public interest or is such that it would cause unwarranted invasion of privacy and the Public Information Officer is satisfied that there is no larger public interest that justifies disclosure. The proposed bill seeks to amend this section to expand its purview and exempt all personal information from the ambit of the RTI Act. In conflict with the Right to privacy: By empowering the executive to draft rules on a range of issues, the proposed Bill creates wide discretionary powers for the Central government and thus fails to safeguard people’s right to privacy. No autonomy for the Data Protection Board: The bill does not ensure autonomy of the Data Protection Board, the institution responsible for enforcement of provisions of the law. Given that the government is the biggest data repository, it was imperative that the oversight body set up under the law be adequately independent to act on violations of the law by government entities. Digital by design: The Bill stipulates that the Data Protection Board shall be ‘digital by design’, including receipt and disposal of complaints. As per the latest National Family Health Survey, only 33% of women in India have ever used the Internet. The Bill, therefore, effectively fails millions of people who do not have meaningful access to the Internet. Way Forward: Therefore the challenge lies in finding an adequate balance between the right to privacy of data principles and reasonable exceptions, especially where government processing of personal data is concerned.  The DPDP Bill needs to be suitably amended and harmonised with the provisions and objectives of the RTI Act. Given the rate at which technology evolves, an optimum data protection law design needs to be future proof — it should not be unduly detailed and centred on providing solutions to contemporary concerns while ignoring problems that may emerge going forward.  Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the constitution of India? (2021) Article 15 Article 19 Article 21 Article 29 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Employees State Insurance Corporation (ESIC): It is a state-run organization set up under the Employee State Insurance Act of 1948. It works under the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding stock market in India: The BSE is one of Asia’s oldest stock exchanges, with a long history of fast trading. Stock market in India is regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). The Chairman of SEBI is nominated by the Union Government of India. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.3) Consider the following countries: Kazakhstan Kyrgyzstan Mongolia Tajikistan Which of the above countries borders with Uzbekistan? 1 2 and 4 only 2 3 and 4 only 1 3 and 4 only All of the above Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 22nd February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 21st February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 22nd February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) NAVDEX 23 and IDEX 23 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Indian Naval Ship Sumedha reached Abu Dhabi, United Arab Emirates to participate in Naval Defence Exhibition – NAVDEX 23 and International Defence Exhibition – IDEX 23 About INS SUMEDHA: INS Sumedha is the third ship of the indigenously built Saryu class Naval Offshore Patrol Vessels (NOPV)which was commissioned into the Indian Navy in 2014. The ship has been designed and built by Goa Shipyard Limited. The first INS SUMEDHA was built in Goa and was commissioned in the Indian Navy in 2011. About NAVDEX 23 and IDEX 23: IDEX and NAVDEX, and the International Defense Conference are organized by the Abu Dhabi National Exhibitions Company (ADNEC), in cooperation with the Ministry of Defense and the General Command of the UAE Armed Forces. IDEX/NAVDEX takes place biennially. The exhibitions showcase the latest technologies and innovations in the global defense sector, support the growth of UAE’s defense industry, and forge new relationships between major international companies. IDEX is the only international defense exhibition and conference in the MENA (Middle East and North Africa region) region which includes countries like Algeria, Bahrain, Egypt, Iran, Iraq, Israel, Jordan, Kuwait, Lebanon, Libya, Morocco, Oman, Palestine, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, Syria, Tunisia, United Arab Emirates, and Yemen. About India and UAE Defense Relations: Desert Eagle II, a ten-day air combat exercise, was held between the air forces of India and UAE. The inaugural edition of the Indian & UAE Navy bilateral exercise GULF STAR-1 was conducted in March 2018. Source:  All India Radio Previous Year Questions Q.1) What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (2018) An Israeli radar system India’s indigenous anti-missile programme An American anti-missile system A defense collaboration between Japan and South Korea Q.2) With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fueled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one-ton nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2, and 3 Tamil-Brahmi script Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Artefacts with Tamil-Brahmi script unearthed at Keeladi to find a special place in the museum. About River Vaigai: Vaigai is a river in Tamil Nadu. The river is also referred to as Shiva Ganga in many places. The river originates in the Varusanadu Hills, the Periyar Plateau of the Western Ghats range. The river finally empties into the Palk Strait Its main tributaries are Suruliyaru, Mullaiyaru, Varaaga Nadhi, Manjalaru, Kottagudi, Kridhumaal and Upparu. The Vattaparai Falls are located on this river. About Tamil-Brahmi script: Tamil-Brahmi, was a variant of the Brahmi script in southern India. It was used to write inscriptions in the early form of old Tamil. The Tamil-Brahmi script has been paleographically and stratigraphically dated between the third century BCE and the first century CE. It constitutes the earliest known writing system evidenced in many parts of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, and Sri Lanka. It is also known as Tamizhi or Damili. About Brahmi script: Brahmi was the main script used in India since the 3rd century. The Ashokan inscriptions dating to the third century BCE used the Brahmi script, and are the earliest evidence of the use of Brahmi. It is the ancestor of the Brahmic family of scripts, which includes all Indian scripts, like Devanagari, Odia, Gujarati, Tamil, Telugu, etc from India, and some of the ancient scripts of Sri Lanka, Burma, and south-east Asian countries of Java, Sumatra, and Cambodia. James Prinsep was responsible for deciphering Brahmi in 1838. About Sangam Age: The period roughly between the 3rd century B.C. and 3rd century A.D. in South India (the area lying to the south of river Krishna and Tungabhadra) is known as Sangam Period. The Sangam literature includes Tolkappiyam, Ettutogai, Pattuppattu, Pathinenkilkanakku, and two epics named – Silappathikaram and Manimegalai. The first Sangam, held at then Madurai, was attended by gods and legendary sages but no literary work of this Sangam is available. The second Sangam was held at Kapadapuram, but all the literary works had perished except Tolkappiyam. The third Sangam at Madurai was founded by Mudathirumaran. It was attended by a large number of poets who produced voluminous literature, but only a few survived. Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs:  (2022) Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts                      Location in the State of Dhauli                                                              Odisha Erragudi                                                          Andhra Pradesh Jaugada                                                           Madhya Pradesh Kalsi                                                                 Karnataka How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs  Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct? (2022) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture. The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets. Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethics. Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational. National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization (NOTTO) Conference Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, the Union Ministry of Health & Family Welfare organized NOTTO Scientific Dialogue 2023. About NOTTO: National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization (NOTTO) is a National level organization set up under Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India. NOTTO would function as apex centre for All India activities of coordination and networking for procurement and distribution of Organs and Tissues and registry of Organs and Tissues Donation and Transplantation in the country. It lays down policy guidelines and protocols for various functions. Network with similar regional and state level organizations. It handles the dissemination of information to all concerned organizations, hospitals and individuals. Source:  PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens. Oder river Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: A new report by the European Union (EU), has confirmed that the ecological disaster that killed hundreds of tonnes of fish in the Oder river in 2022  was caused by toxic algal bloom . About River Oder: Oder River, is a river in east-central Europe. It is one of the most significant rivers in the catchment basin of the Baltic Sea, second only to the Vistula in discharge and length.  It is Poland’s second-longest river. The Oder rises in the Czech Republic and flows through western Poland, later forming the border between Poland and Germany. About Algal Blooms: An algal bloom is a rapid increase in the population of algae in an aquatic system. These are also called  ‘red tides They may occur in freshwater as well as marine environments. Algal Blooms deprive aquatic organisms of Sunlight and oxygen and negatively impact a variety of species that live below the water surface. Harmful Algal Blooms( HABs)- colonies of algae that grow out of control and produce toxic or harmful effects on people, fish, shellfish, marine mammals, and birds. Algal blooms in freshwater lakes and reservoirs are most commonly caused by blue-green algae (also known as cyanobacteria) whose growth is supported by Eutrophication (nutrient enrichment).  Another type of bloom that occurs nearly every summer along Florida’s Gulf Coast is caused by a species of dinoflagellate known as Karenia brevis. Algal Bloom Information Service: ABIS provides timely information on harmful algal blooms, which are detrimental to coastal fisheries, and water quality and also tend to induce respiratory problems within the coastal population from time to time. ISRO’s Oceansat-2 satellite launched in 2009 can cover larger areas and provide global ocean color. SOURCE:         The Hindu Previous Year Questions  Q.1) Which one of the lakes  West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?(2022) Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Q.2)  Consider the following kinds of organisms: ( 2021) Copepod Cyanobacteria Diatoms Foraminifera Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans? 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 and 4 1 and 4 Rhododendrons Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Rhododendrons carpet Darjeeling, Sikkim Himalayas. About Rhododendrons: Rhododendron is a large genus of flowering plants that are found mainly in the Eastern Himalayas, Western Himalayas, and Nilgiris. They are native to many regions of the world, including Asia, Europe, North America, and Australia. The species is found in varied habitats from subtropical forests to alpine shrubs, rhododendrons range from dwarf shrubs to large trees. Some plants of Rhododendron are evergreen while others are deciduous in nature. The species has been designated as the State tree of Uttarakhand. Darjeeling and Sikkim Himalayas are home to one-third (34%) of all Rhododendron types and comprise only 0.3% of India’s geographical area. Rhododendrons are indicator species. They are facing a high threat due to anthropological pressures and climate change. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements. (2022) It is a fungus. It grows in some Himalayan Forest areas. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? (2022) Alfalfa Amaranth Chickpea Clover Purslane (Kulfa) Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 3, and 4 only 1, 3, 5, and 6 only 2, 4, 5, and 6 only 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 Services trade restrictiveness index (STRI) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: India’s rank in the Services trade restrictiveness index (STRI) improved a notch to 47 from 48 among 50 countries surveyed by the Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). About STRI: The STRI provides a snapshot of services regulatory regimes to help policymakers to assess reform options. The index takes into consideration different sectors like road freight cover, air transport, government regulations, etc. It is a unique, evidence-based tool that provides information on regulations affecting trade in services in 22 sectors across all OECD member countries and Brazil, the People’s Republic of China, India, Indonesia, Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Peru, Singapore, South Africa, Thailand, and Vietnam. India’s performance on STRI: lowest scoring sectors (least restricted):  computer services, engineering services, sound recording, and road freight transport. highest scoring sectors (most restrictive): architecture service, rail freight transport, accounting services, and legal services. Government dominance: The railway sector in India is highly restrictive due to the dominance of the Indian government in it. Market access for foreigners: Market access to certain key service sectors remains prohibited for foreigners or is subjected to stringent conditions. About OECD: It is an inter-governmental economic organization, founded to stimulate the economic progress of the world. It was founded in 1961. Its  Headquarters are in Paris. It has 36 members. India is not a member but a key economic partner. Reports and Indices by OECD: International migration outlook, OECD better life index. Source:  Business Standard Previous Year Questions Q.1) ” Rapid Financing Instrument “and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to the “G-20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Polio Virus Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: The West Bengal government announced that it was introducing an additional dose of injectable polio vaccine as part of the Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP) for children. About Polio Virus: Polio is a crippling and potentially deadly viral infectious disease that affects the nervous system. Poliovirus can invade the central nervous system and as it multiplies, destroy the nerve cells that activate muscles, causing irreversible paralysis in hours There are three individual and immunologically distinct wild poliovirus strains: Wild Poliovirus type 1 (WPV1) Wild Poliovirus type 2 (WPV2) Wild Poliovirus type 3 (WPV3) All three strains can cause irreversible paralysis or even death. However, there are genetic and virological differences, which make these three strains separate viruses that must each be eradicated individually. The virus is transmitted by person-to-person mainly through the fecal-oral route or, less frequently, by a common vehicle (for example, through contaminated water or food). It largely affects children under 5 years of age. About Polio Vaccines: There is no cure, but it can be prevented through Immunization. There are two types of Vaccines for polio : Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV): given orally as a birth dose for institutional deliveries, then primary three doses at 6, 10, and 14 weeks and one booster dose at 16-24 months of age. Injectable Polio Vaccine (IPV): It is introduced as an additional dose along with the 3rd dose of DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis and Tetanus) under the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP). Global Polio Eradication Initiative (GPEI): The goal of the GPEI is to complete the eradication and containment of all wild, vaccine-related, and Sabin polioviruses, so no child suffers from paralytic poliomyelitis ever again. GPEI has helped countries to make huge progress in protecting the global population from this debilitating disease. GPEI’s four pillars include Routine Immunization, Supplementary immunization, Surveillance, and Targeted mop-up campaigns. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:(2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following : Bacteria Fungi Virus Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Sealed Cover Jurisprudence Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: The Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud firmly refused the ‘suggestions’ offered by the government in a sealed cover on the formation of a proposed committee to enquire into the Hindenburg report on the Adani Group About Sealed Cover Jurisprudence: It is a practice used by the Supreme Court and sometimes lower courts, of asking for or accepting information from government agencies in sealed envelopes that can only be accessed by judges. While a specific law does not define the doctrine of sealed cover, the Supreme Court derives its power to use it from Rule 7 of Order XIII of the Supreme Court Rules and Section 123 of the Indian Evidence Act of 1872. It is normally used in only one of two situations: ongoing investigations that are part of the police journal, and disclosure of confidential or private information. Important cases where have been used: 2014 BCCI reforms case, Bhima Koregaon case, Rafale fighter jet deal, National Register of Citizens (NRC) in Assam. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1)  Consider the following statements. (2022) Pursuant to the report of the H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. In India, the Parliament is vested with the power to make laws on Contempt of Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1, 2, and 4 only 3 and 4 only 3 only Q.2)  With reference to India, consider the following statements: Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Land Monetisation Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: To expedite the monetisation plans for government-owned land assets across the country, the National Land Monetisation Corporation (NLMC) has decided to rope in international property consultancy firms to help strategize and implement transactions from start to finish. About Land Monetisation: Land Monetisation means transferring the revenue rights of the asset (could be idle land, infrastructure, PSU) to a private player for a specified period of time. In such a transaction, the government gets in return an upfront payment from the private entity, regular share of the revenue generated from the asset, a promise of steady investment into the asset, and the title rights to the monetised asset. In the case of land monetisation of certain spaces like offices, it can be done through a Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT), a company that owns and operates a land asset and sometimes, funds income-producing real estate. Assets of the government can also be monetised through the Public Private Partnerships (PPP) model. Benefits of Land Monetisation: The monetisation of several lakh acres of the land pool with various central government agencies is expected to give a fillip to the Rs 111-trillion National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) in five years through FY25 and Gati Shakti connectivity projects, as well as the housing sector. The monetisation process aims to capture the real estate value of public land lying idle in monetary terms to improve or strengthen the finances of government bodies and local authorities. The 13th Finance Commission of India also underlined the importance of monetisation of land which has the potential for generating additional revenues from under-utilized prime lands of Public Sector Undertakings, Port Trusts, Airports, Railways, municipal corporations, etc. There is an estimate of the extent of land held by various government agencies in excess of 5 lakh hectares, of which, over 160,000 hectares are held across various airports, seaports, and railways. It allows certain State/ Centre funded projects to be created and financed from otherwise defunct assets or under-utilized land parcels. Challenges faced in Land Monetization Complex legal and regulatory framework: The legal and regulatory framework for land ownership, land use, and land development is often complex and varies by region, making it difficult for CPSEs to navigate the process of monetising their land. Lack of fast Dispute Resolution Mechanism: More than 60% of the litigation in India is land-related and these disputes need to be resolved in a time-bound manner for timely land monetisation. Meeting disinvestment targets: The success of NLMC will depend on the government’s ability to meet its disinvestment targets. The government has not been able to meet its targets in the past, which could affect the performance of the NLMC. Mapping the vacant lands: The estimation of surplus land may be a contentious issue in the absence of a clear land title, ongoing litigation, and encroachments. Ensuring adequate investment: Private players must invest adequately in the asset to ensure its growth and sustainability. The government needs to ensure that the private players are fulfilling their investment commitments. Market conditions: The value of land is dependent on market conditions, which can be volatile, and subject to fluctuations. Moreover, the vast difference between the state gazette valuation and market rate valuation can create problems. Use of PPPs: The use of PPPs as a monetisation model can pose challenges, as seen in the case of the Railways’ PPP initiative, which did not see much interest from private players. Suggestive Measures: Digitization of land records: It will bring transparency to the land records maintenance system, digitize maps and surveys, update all settlement records, and minimize the scope of land disputes. Ensure transparency and fairness: The selection of private players should be through a competitive bidding process to avoid the creation of a monopoly or duopoly in operating surplus government land. Improve the disinvestment process: The government needs to streamline its disinvestment process and meet its disinvestment targets to generate more revenue. This can be achieved by providing certainty to investors, and by setting realistic targets for disinvestment. Do it in phases: Multi-phased land monetization creates value for developers and investors and increases market appetite. This will make the land more attractive to potential buyers, resulting in higher value and better returns. Partner with the government: Partnering with the government in a PPP model to help cover the holding costs of the land and streamline project clearances. This will speed up the process and make it more efficient. While privatisation of PSBs and PSUs has faced challenges, monetisation of idle government land requires specialised skills and expertise. Thus, NLMC will have necessary technical expertise to professionally manage and monetize land assets on behalf of CPSEs and other government agencies. About National Land Monetisation Corporation: Introduced in the Union Budget 2021-22, NLMC is a wholly owned Government of India. The Board of Directors of NLMC will comprise senior Central Government officers and eminent experts to enable professional operations and management of the company. It falls under the Ministry of Finance and has been set up with an initial authorised share capital of Rs.5,000 crore and a paid-up capital of Rs.150 crore. NLMC is a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) that owns, holds, manages, and monetizes surplus land and assets of CPSEs under closure and the surplus non-core land assets of Government CPSEs under strategic disinvestment. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2017) It is an organ of NITI Aayog. It has a corpus of Rs. 4, 00,000 crore at present. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to ‘Financial Stability and Development Council’, consider the following statements : It is an organ of NITI Aayog. (2)It is headed by the Union Finance Minister. It monitors macroprudential supervision of the economy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2016) 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 India’s fortified food programme Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, a report “Do India’s Food Safety Regulator (FSSAI) and Indian Citizens Need Saving from (Foreign & Indian) Private Players Behind Food Fortification Initiatives?” was released. About Food Fortification: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) defines fortification as “deliberately increasing the content of essential micronutrients in a food so as to improve the nutritional quality of food and to provide public health benefit with minimal risk to health”. For example, adding iodine and iron to edible salt. Recent developments food fortification: The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution had launched a centrally sponsored pilot scheme on “Fortification of Rice and its Distribution under Public Distribution System (PDS)” for a period of three years beginning 2019-20 with a total budget outlay of Rs.174.64 crore. The pilot scheme focuses on 15 districts in 15 states. Under the scheme, the blending of rice is done at the milling stage. Maharashtra and Gujarat have started distribution of fortified rice under PDS in the Pilot Scheme. The Scheme is funded by the Government of India in the ratio of 90:10 in respect of North Eastern, hilly and island states and 75:25 in respect of the rest. Need of food fortification: According to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-4): 4% of children (6-59 months) are anaemic 1% women in the reproductive age group are anaemic 7% of children under 5 are underweight Also, It is estimated that 50-70% of these birth defects are preventable. One of the major causes is deficiency of Folic Acid. India has slipped to 101st position in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2021 of 116 countries, from its 2020 position of 94th. Thus, fortification is necessary to address deficiency of micronutrients or micronutrient malnutrition. Fortification of food in India: Currently government is promoting fortification in following 5 food items: Rice: Department of Food and Public Distribution (DFPD) has been running a “Centrally Sponsored Pilot Scheme on Fortification of Rice & its distribution through Public Distribution System”. The scheme was initiated in 2019-20 for a three-year pilot run. This scheme will run till 2023 and rice will be supplied to the beneficiaries at the rate of Re 1 per kilogram. Wheat: The decision on fortification of wheat was announced in 2018 and is being implemented in 12 states under India’s flagship Poshan Abhiyaan to improve nutrition among children, adolescents, pregnant mothers and lactating mothers. Edible oil: Fortification of edible oil, too, was made compulsory across the country by FSSAI in 2018. Milk: Fortification of milk was started in 2017 under which the National Dairy Development Board of India (NDDB) is pushing companies to add vitamin D. Benefits of food fortification: Prevent nutritional deficiency-induced ailments: A nutritional deficiency occurs when your body doesn’t get enough nutrients, such as rickets due to vitamin D deficiency, anaemia osteoporosis or reproductive and nervous system ailments due to zinc deficiency. The fortified food helps reduce rates of nutrient deficiency-related diseases. Beneficial in pregnancy: There is a link between zinc deficiency and high mortality and morbidity rates in mothers and new-borns. Folate deficiency can cause faulty neural development in babies in the womb. Consuming fortified food during pregnancy can lower the risks of numerous congenital deformities in babies and improves the mother and baby’s health. Fulfill dietary requirements: People who are strict vegetarians, vegans, lactose-intolerant, or other diet-related conditions have poor micronutrient levels, which causes various ailments. Adding fortified foods to your diet can fulfill your nutrients requirement and improves your overall health. Help in children’s growth and development: It is an evident-based fact that deficiency of iron, zinc, and vitamins A and D causes growth problems. Including fortified foods or micronutrient supplements in the growing phase have a positive physical and mental growth response among children. Helpful for elderlies: With aging, our digestive system absorbs fewer nutrients, causing a nutritional deficiency. Adding fortified food to the diet help maintain healthy nutrient levels for stronger bones, better digestion, and healthy organ functioning. Issues with food fortification: Loss of natural protective substances: Sometimes, fortification can have the opposite effect. Natural foods contain protective substances such as phytochemicals and polyunsaturated fat that are adversely affected by the process of blending micronutrients. Impact on foetal development: Consumption of excess iron by pregnant women can adversely affect foetal development and birth outcomes. These children have increased risk of contracting chronic diseases. High cost: The fortification expenditure of only the rice delivered through the social safety networks will cost the public exchequer about Rs 2,600 crores annually. Market-driven solution: The researchers are worried that the push towards fortification is more to help the industry than the people and is an international market driven solution and without any scientific logic. Impact on small industries: Fortification creates an assured market for multinationals. It could threaten the livelihoods of small units across India. Like, in case of rice and oil processing. No direct link between anaemia and iron deficiency: There is no direct link between anaemia and iron deficiency. Anaemia is high among poor children in the rural areas but iron deficiency is more among the urban and rich across the country. According to stalwarts of nutrition, food fortification is a cost-effective complementary strategy to address multiple micronutrient deficiencies. Thus, given its proven efficacy and cost-effectiveness, food fortification can help us in reducing micronutrient deficiencies and address overall health benefits. The intervention, carried out with precautions, is the key to the malnutrition issue which the nation continues to grapple with. Source:  Down To Earth Previous Year Question Q.1) In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be of practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture? (2020) Crop diversification Legume intensification Tensiometer use Vertical farming Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 3 only 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Polio Virus: It is a crippling and potentially deadly viral infectious disease that affects the nervous system. It is a communicable disease which can transmit from person to person. It largely affects children under 5 years of age. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) The Services trade restrictiveness index (STRI) is often mentioned in the news is released by World Bank Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development World Trade Organization Asian Development Bank Q.3) A recent report by the European Union (EU), has confirmed that the ecological disaster that killed hundreds of tonnes of fish in the Oder river in 2022  was caused by toxic algal bloom. In this context, the Oder river borders with which of the following countries? Poland and Germany Ukraine and Russia Germany and France Syria and Turkey Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 21st February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 20th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 21st February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here