[DAY 34] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!
Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 You can post your comments in the given format (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score Your score Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding Palliative Care: It is an approach that improves the quality of life of patients facing the problem associated with a life-threatening illness. Palliative Care is part of the ‘Mission Flexipool’ under National Health Mission (NHM). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Palliative care is also known as supportive care which is required in the terminal cases of Cancer, AIDS etc. and can be provided relatively simply and inexpensively. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Effective palliative care requires a broad multidisciplinary approach that includes the family and makes use of available community resources. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India constituted an expert group on Palliative care which submitted its report ‘Proposal of Strategies for Palliative Care in India’ in November, 2012. On the basis of the Report, an EPC note for 12th Five Year Plan was formulated. No separate budget is allocated for the implementation of National Palliative Care Program. However, the Palliative Care is part of the ‘Mission Flexipool’ under National Health Mission (NHM). (Hence statement 2 is correct) Incorrect Solution (c) Palliative care is also known as supportive care which is required in the terminal cases of Cancer, AIDS etc. and can be provided relatively simply and inexpensively. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Effective palliative care requires a broad multidisciplinary approach that includes the family and makes use of available community resources. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India constituted an expert group on Palliative care which submitted its report ‘Proposal of Strategies for Palliative Care in India’ in November, 2012. On the basis of the Report, an EPC note for 12th Five Year Plan was formulated. No separate budget is allocated for the implementation of National Palliative Care Program. However, the Palliative Care is part of the ‘Mission Flexipool’ under National Health Mission (NHM). (Hence statement 2 is correct) Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding Meningitis: It is an inflammation of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. Both Bacterial and Viral infections can cause Meningitis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Meningitis is an inflammation (swelling) of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. These membranes are called meninges. The most common causes of meningitis are viral and bacterial infections. Other causes may include: cancer fungi drug-induced reactions Transmission: Infections that cause meningitis can be spread through sneezing and coughing. (Hence option (c) is the correct answer) Symptoms: Common symptoms of meningitis are neck stiffness, fever, confusion or altered mental status, headaches, nausea and vomiting. Less frequent symptoms are seizures, coma and neurological deficits (for example hearing or vision loss, cognitive impairment, or weakness of the limbs). Types of meningitis caused by viruses or bacteria can have similar symptoms. Symptoms may be stronger in some types of meningitis than in others and require different treatment. Treatment and Prevention: Meningitis is a medical emergency. It is potentially fatal within 24 hours and requires urgent medical attention. Meningitis can vary in severity, appropriate treatment and care depending on the cause. Meningitis caused by bacteria requires immediate antibiotic treatment. Vaccines offer the best protection against common types of bacterial meningitis. Antibiotics for close contacts of those with meningococcal disease, when given promptly, decreases the risk of transmission. Hence both the statements are correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Meningitis is an inflammation (swelling) of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. These membranes are called meninges. The most common causes of meningitis are viral and bacterial infections. Other causes may include: cancer fungi drug-induced reactions Transmission: Infections that cause meningitis can be spread through sneezing and coughing. (Hence option (c) is the correct answer) Symptoms: Common symptoms of meningitis are neck stiffness, fever, confusion or altered mental status, headaches, nausea and vomiting. Less frequent symptoms are seizures, coma and neurological deficits (for example hearing or vision loss, cognitive impairment, or weakness of the limbs). Types of meningitis caused by viruses or bacteria can have similar symptoms. Symptoms may be stronger in some types of meningitis than in others and require different treatment. Treatment and Prevention: Meningitis is a medical emergency. It is potentially fatal within 24 hours and requires urgent medical attention. Meningitis can vary in severity, appropriate treatment and care depending on the cause. Meningitis caused by bacteria requires immediate antibiotic treatment. Vaccines offer the best protection against common types of bacterial meningitis. Antibiotics for close contacts of those with meningococcal disease, when given promptly, decreases the risk of transmission. Hence both the statements are correct. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following statements: Most of the bacteria in human body are harmless. More than one billion people worldwide suffer from fungus infections each year, which are widespread and prevalent. A virus can replicate itself and infect cells. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Bacteria The human body is inhabited by millions of tiny living organisms, which, all together, are called the human microbiota. Bacteria are microbes found on the skin, in the nose, mouth, and especially in the gut. We acquire these bacteria during birth and the first years of life, and they live with us throughout our lives. The human microbiota is involved in healthy growth, in protecting the body from invaders, in helping digestion, and in regulating moods. Some changes in the microbiota may occur during our growth, depending on the foods we eat, the environment in which we live, the people and animals that interact with us, or medicines that we take, such as antibiotics. The human microbiota helps us to keep us healthy, but sometimes these bacteria can also be harmful. We need to take good care of our microbiota to avoid the development of some diseases, such as obesity and asthma. We should eat healthy foods that contribute to the development of a healthy microbiota. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Fungi The fungal disease sometimes referred to as mycosis, is a condition brought on by fungi. More than one billion people worldwide suffer from fungus infections each year, which are widespread and prevalent. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Other animals can develop a variety of fungal illnesses, some of which can be transferred from animals to people. Fungal infections are quite common and rare as well- they can be categorized by site of infection, geography, and immuno-comprised target as well as in biological classification. Most common: Fungal nail infections Vaginal candidiasis or vaginal yeast infection Ringworm Candida infections of the mouth, throat, and esophagus Fungal diseases based on geographic location Blastomycosis- caused by moist soil fungus in US and Canada Cryptococcus Gattai infection- tropical and sub-tropical areas Para coccidioidomycosis- central and south America Coccidioidomycosis (valley fever)- southwestern US, Mexico, central and south America Histoplasmosis- due to bird or bat droppings. Virus Infected host cells (eukaryotic or prokaryotic) can be cultured and grown, and then the growth medium can be harvested as a source of the virus. Viruses replicate only within living cells. Some viruses are restricted in the kinds of cells in which they replicate, and a few have not yet been cultivated at all under laboratory conditions. However, most viruses are grown in cultured cells, embryonated hen’s eggs, or laboratory animals. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Incorrect Solution (b) Bacteria The human body is inhabited by millions of tiny living organisms, which, all together, are called the human microbiota. Bacteria are microbes found on the skin, in the nose, mouth, and especially in the gut. We acquire these bacteria during birth and the first years of life, and they live with us throughout our lives. The human microbiota is involved in healthy growth, in protecting the body from invaders, in helping digestion, and in regulating moods. Some changes in the microbiota may occur during our growth, depending on the foods we eat, the environment in which we live, the people and animals that interact with us, or medicines that we take, such as antibiotics. The human microbiota helps us to keep us healthy, but sometimes these bacteria can also be harmful. We need to take good care of our microbiota to avoid the development of some diseases, such as obesity and asthma. We should eat healthy foods that contribute to the development of a healthy microbiota. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Fungi The fungal disease sometimes referred to as mycosis, is a condition brought on by fungi. More than one billion people worldwide suffer from fungus infections each year, which are widespread and prevalent. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Other animals can develop a variety of fungal illnesses, some of which can be transferred from animals to people. Fungal infections are quite common and rare as well- they can be categorized by site of infection, geography, and immuno-comprised target as well as in biological classification. Most common: Fungal nail infections Vaginal candidiasis or vaginal yeast infection Ringworm Candida infections of the mouth, throat, and esophagus Fungal diseases based on geographic location Blastomycosis- caused by moist soil fungus in US and Canada Cryptococcus Gattai infection- tropical and sub-tropical areas Para coccidioidomycosis- central and south America Coccidioidomycosis (valley fever)- southwestern US, Mexico, central and south America Histoplasmosis- due to bird or bat droppings. Virus Infected host cells (eukaryotic or prokaryotic) can be cultured and grown, and then the growth medium can be harvested as a source of the virus. Viruses replicate only within living cells. Some viruses are restricted in the kinds of cells in which they replicate, and a few have not yet been cultivated at all under laboratory conditions. However, most viruses are grown in cultured cells, embryonated hen’s eggs, or laboratory animals. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Question 4 of 35 4. Question Consider following statements regarding H5N1 virus: It is a highly pathogenic subtype of avian influenza (AI), a virus that causes severe disease and death in birds. It can cause illness in humans and many other animal species. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) H5N1 is a highly pathogenic subtype of avian influenza (AI) that causes severe disease and death in birds. This subtype has caused a number of human infections through close contact with infected birds, or contaminated environments and is often fatal. It can cause illness in humans and many other animal species. A bird-adapted strain of H5N1, called HPAI A(H5N1) for highly pathogenic avian influenza virus of type A of subtype H5N1, is the highly pathogenic causative agent of H5N1 flu, commonly known as avian influenza (“bird flu”). It is enzootic (maintained in the population) in many bird populations, especially in Southeast Asia. (Hence both statements 1 and 2 are correct) Incorrect Solution (c) H5N1 is a highly pathogenic subtype of avian influenza (AI) that causes severe disease and death in birds. This subtype has caused a number of human infections through close contact with infected birds, or contaminated environments and is often fatal. It can cause illness in humans and many other animal species. A bird-adapted strain of H5N1, called HPAI A(H5N1) for highly pathogenic avian influenza virus of type A of subtype H5N1, is the highly pathogenic causative agent of H5N1 flu, commonly known as avian influenza (“bird flu”). It is enzootic (maintained in the population) in many bird populations, especially in Southeast Asia. (Hence both statements 1 and 2 are correct) Question 5 of 35 5. Question Which among the following cells has the ability to develop into any type of cell? a) Muscle cell b) Endodermal cell c) Ectodermal cell d) Stem cell Correct Solution (d) A stem cell is a cell with the unique ability to develop into specialized cell types in the body. (Hence option (d) is the correct answer) Blood stem cells are produced in the bone marrow and can become any kind of blood cell the body needs. Stem cells are constantly dividing and maturing into different types of blood cells, replacing older and worn-out blood cells in the body. They produce billions of new blood cells every day. If the stem cells cannot make enough new blood cells, many serious health problems can occur. These problems may include infections, anemia, or bleeding. Muscle cell A muscle cell is also known as a myocyte when referring to either a cardiac muscle cell (cardiomyocyte) or a smooth muscle cell, as these are both small cells. A skeletal muscle cell is long and threadlike with many nuclei and is called a muscle fiber. A muscle cell, known technically as a myocyte, is a specialized animal cell which can shorten its length using a series of motor proteins specially arranged within the cell. While several associated proteins help, actin and myosin form thick and thin filaments which slide past each other to contract small units of a muscle cell. These units are called sarcomeres, and many of them run end-to-end within a larger fiber called a myofibril. A single muscle cell contains many nuclei, which are pressed against the cell membrane. A muscle cell is a long cell compared to other forms of cells, and many muscle cells connect together to form the long fibers found in muscle tissue. Ectodermal cell The ectoderm is one of the primary layers of cells that exists in an embryo. The ectoderm cells differentiate into cells that form a number of external structures such as skin, sweat glands, skin sensor receptors, and hair follicles. Endodermal cells The endodermal cells generate only the lining of the digestive tube and its glands; mesodermal mesenchyme cells will surround this tube to provide the muscles for peristalsis. The ectoderm gives rise to the skin and the nervous system. The mesoderm specifies the development of several cell types such as bone, muscle, and connective tissue. Cells in the endoderm layer become the linings of the digestive and respiratory system, and form organs such as the liver and pancreas. Incorrect Solution (d) A stem cell is a cell with the unique ability to develop into specialized cell types in the body. (Hence option (d) is the correct answer) Blood stem cells are produced in the bone marrow and can become any kind of blood cell the body needs. Stem cells are constantly dividing and maturing into different types of blood cells, replacing older and worn-out blood cells in the body. They produce billions of new blood cells every day. If the stem cells cannot make enough new blood cells, many serious health problems can occur. These problems may include infections, anemia, or bleeding. Muscle cell A muscle cell is also known as a myocyte when referring to either a cardiac muscle cell (cardiomyocyte) or a smooth muscle cell, as these are both small cells. A skeletal muscle cell is long and threadlike with many nuclei and is called a muscle fiber. A muscle cell, known technically as a myocyte, is a specialized animal cell which can shorten its length using a series of motor proteins specially arranged within the cell. While several associated proteins help, actin and myosin form thick and thin filaments which slide past each other to contract small units of a muscle cell. These units are called sarcomeres, and many of them run end-to-end within a larger fiber called a myofibril. A single muscle cell contains many nuclei, which are pressed against the cell membrane. A muscle cell is a long cell compared to other forms of cells, and many muscle cells connect together to form the long fibers found in muscle tissue. Ectodermal cell The ectoderm is one of the primary layers of cells that exists in an embryo. The ectoderm cells differentiate into cells that form a number of external structures such as skin, sweat glands, skin sensor receptors, and hair follicles. Endodermal cells The endodermal cells generate only the lining of the digestive tube and its glands; mesodermal mesenchyme cells will surround this tube to provide the muscles for peristalsis. The ectoderm gives rise to the skin and the nervous system. The mesoderm specifies the development of several cell types such as bone, muscle, and connective tissue. Cells in the endoderm layer become the linings of the digestive and respiratory system, and form organs such as the liver and pancreas. Question 6 of 35 6. Question Which of the following best describes the Blastomycosis which was recently seen in the news? a) It is a fungal disease b) It is a bacterial disease c) It spreads through Mosquitoes d) None of these Correct Solution (a) Recently, at least one person died and around 100 were confirmed or suspected to be infected by blastomycosis in the United States. It is an infection caused by a fungus of the genus Blastomyces. It is found in moist soil and decomposing wood and leaves in the mid-western, south-central and south-eastern states of the US. Transmission: The microscopic spores from the fungus can get dispersed in the air and travel freely. Human beings can contract blastomycosis by inhaling the spores. It is not contagious between animals and people through the air. The symptoms of blastomycosis in animals are similar to the symptoms in humans. Symptoms: Fever, Cough, Breathing difficulty and muscle aches etc. Treatment: Itraconazole is a type of antifungal medication that is typically used to treat mild to moderate blastomycosis. Hence option (a) is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution (a) Recently, at least one person died and around 100 were confirmed or suspected to be infected by blastomycosis in the United States. It is an infection caused by a fungus of the genus Blastomyces. It is found in moist soil and decomposing wood and leaves in the mid-western, south-central and south-eastern states of the US. Transmission: The microscopic spores from the fungus can get dispersed in the air and travel freely. Human beings can contract blastomycosis by inhaling the spores. It is not contagious between animals and people through the air. The symptoms of blastomycosis in animals are similar to the symptoms in humans. Symptoms: Fever, Cough, Breathing difficulty and muscle aches etc. Treatment: Itraconazole is a type of antifungal medication that is typically used to treat mild to moderate blastomycosis. Hence option (a) is the correct answer. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Which of the following organizations recently launched “One Health Global Leaders Group on Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR)”? a) World Health Organization, UN Food and Agriculture Organization, and the International Organization on Animal Health. b) World Health Organization, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and the International Organization on Animal Health. c) World Health Organization, UN Food and Agriculture Organization, and the Ministry of Family Welfare d) World Health Organization, UN Environmental Programme, and the International Organization on Animal Health Correct Solution (a) Global Leaders Group on Antimicrobial Resistance The Global Leaders Group on Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR Leaders) consists of world leaders and experts from across sectors working together to accelerate political action on antimicrobial resistance (AMR). It was established in November 2020 following the recommendation of the Interagency Coordination Group (IACG) on Antimicrobial Resistance to strengthen global political momentum and leadership on AMR. The inaugural meeting of the Group took place in January 2021. One Health Global Leaders Group on Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) launched by United Nations Tripartite organizations. World Health Organization (WHO), UN Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), and the International Organization on Animal Health (OIE). (Hence, statement (a) is correct). The group performs an independent global advisory and advocacy role and works to maintain urgency, public support, political momentum and visibility of the AMR challenge on the global health and development agenda. India is a member of the Initiative. Incorrect Solution (a) Global Leaders Group on Antimicrobial Resistance The Global Leaders Group on Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR Leaders) consists of world leaders and experts from across sectors working together to accelerate political action on antimicrobial resistance (AMR). It was established in November 2020 following the recommendation of the Interagency Coordination Group (IACG) on Antimicrobial Resistance to strengthen global political momentum and leadership on AMR. The inaugural meeting of the Group took place in January 2021. One Health Global Leaders Group on Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) launched by United Nations Tripartite organizations. World Health Organization (WHO), UN Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), and the International Organization on Animal Health (OIE). (Hence, statement (a) is correct). The group performs an independent global advisory and advocacy role and works to maintain urgency, public support, political momentum and visibility of the AMR challenge on the global health and development agenda. India is a member of the Initiative. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Consider the following statements regarding National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC): It is the nodal agency in the country for disease surveillance, facilitating prevention and control of communicable diseases. It functions under the administrative control of Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) The National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) recently alerted states about smaller outbreaks for five diseases—typhoid, malaria, dengue, scrub typhus and hepatitis A. It is an institute under the Indian Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) The Director, an officer of the Public Health sub-cadre of Central Health Service, is the administrative and technical head of the Institute. History: The National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC), formerly National Institute of Communicable Diseases (NICD) had its origin as Central Malaria Bureau, established at Kasauli (Himachal Pradesh) in 1909 and following expansion was renamed in 1927 as the Malaria Survey of India. In view of the drastic reduction achieved in the incidence of malaria under National Malaria Eradication Programme (NMEP), Government of India decided to reorganize and expand the activities of the institute to cover other communicable diseases. Thus in 1963 the erstwhile MII was renamed as National Institute of Communicable Diseases (NICD) to shoulder these additional responsibilities. In year 2009, NICD transforms into National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) with a larger mandate of controlling emerging and re-emerging diseases. Headquarters: New Delhi. Functions: It functions as the nodal agency in the country for disease surveillance facilitating prevention and control of communicable diseases. (Hence statement 1 is correct) In coordination with the State Governments, NCDC has the capacity and capability for disease surveillance, outbreak investigation, and rapid response to contain and combat outbreaks. It also deals with Anti-Microbial Resistance (AMR), an emerging area of concern with far-reaching consequences. It also provides referral diagnostic support, capacity building and technical support to States/UTs in the country. Incorrect Solution (a) The National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) recently alerted states about smaller outbreaks for five diseases—typhoid, malaria, dengue, scrub typhus and hepatitis A. It is an institute under the Indian Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) The Director, an officer of the Public Health sub-cadre of Central Health Service, is the administrative and technical head of the Institute. History: The National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC), formerly National Institute of Communicable Diseases (NICD) had its origin as Central Malaria Bureau, established at Kasauli (Himachal Pradesh) in 1909 and following expansion was renamed in 1927 as the Malaria Survey of India. In view of the drastic reduction achieved in the incidence of malaria under National Malaria Eradication Programme (NMEP), Government of India decided to reorganize and expand the activities of the institute to cover other communicable diseases. Thus in 1963 the erstwhile MII was renamed as National Institute of Communicable Diseases (NICD) to shoulder these additional responsibilities. In year 2009, NICD transforms into National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) with a larger mandate of controlling emerging and re-emerging diseases. Headquarters: New Delhi. Functions: It functions as the nodal agency in the country for disease surveillance facilitating prevention and control of communicable diseases. (Hence statement 1 is correct) In coordination with the State Governments, NCDC has the capacity and capability for disease surveillance, outbreak investigation, and rapid response to contain and combat outbreaks. It also deals with Anti-Microbial Resistance (AMR), an emerging area of concern with far-reaching consequences. It also provides referral diagnostic support, capacity building and technical support to States/UTs in the country. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Which of the following statements regarding Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) is incorrect? a) It works under the Department of Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. b) Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) is the head of the department of the CDSCO of the Government of India. c) It is the Central Drug Authority for discharging functions assigned under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940. d) CDSCO along with state regulators, is jointly responsible for the grant of licenses to certain specialized categories of critical Drugs such as vaccines and sera, etc. Correct Solution (a) Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) has recently started conducting joint inspections of identified Drug Manufacturing Units along with the State Drugs Control Administration. It is the Central Drug Authority for discharging functions assigned to the Central Government under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940. (Hence statement 3 is correct) It works under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, CDSCO is responsible for – Approval of Drugs. Conduct Clinical Trials. Laying down the standards for Drugs. Control over the quality of imported Drugs in the country. Coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organizations. Further CDSCO along with state regulators, is jointly responsible for the grant of licenses to certain specialised categories of critical Drugs such as vaccines and sera, etc. (Hence statement 4 is correct) The Indian government has announced plans to subject all medical devices, including implants and contraception, to CDSCO scrutiny. Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI): DCGI is the head of the department of the CDSCO of the Government of India responsible for approval of licenses of specified categories of drugs such as blood and blood products, IV fluids, vaccines and sera in India. (Hence statement 2 is correct) DCGI also sets standards for the manufacturing, sales, import, and distribution of drugs in India. Incorrect Solution (a) Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) has recently started conducting joint inspections of identified Drug Manufacturing Units along with the State Drugs Control Administration. It is the Central Drug Authority for discharging functions assigned to the Central Government under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940. (Hence statement 3 is correct) It works under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, CDSCO is responsible for – Approval of Drugs. Conduct Clinical Trials. Laying down the standards for Drugs. Control over the quality of imported Drugs in the country. Coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organizations. Further CDSCO along with state regulators, is jointly responsible for the grant of licenses to certain specialised categories of critical Drugs such as vaccines and sera, etc. (Hence statement 4 is correct) The Indian government has announced plans to subject all medical devices, including implants and contraception, to CDSCO scrutiny. Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI): DCGI is the head of the department of the CDSCO of the Government of India responsible for approval of licenses of specified categories of drugs such as blood and blood products, IV fluids, vaccines and sera in India. (Hence statement 2 is correct) DCGI also sets standards for the manufacturing, sales, import, and distribution of drugs in India. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Consider the following statements regarding Monkey Pox Virus: It is a fungal zoonotic disease that occurs primarily in tropical rainforest areas of Central and West Africa. The first case of monkeypox in humans was recorded in 1970 in the Democratic Republic of Congo. Monkeypox can be eradicated using vaccine completely. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Recently, the World Health Organisation has declared the global monkeypox outbreak a ‘public health emergency of international concern’ (PHEIC). Monkeypox is a viral zoonotic disease that occurs primarily in tropical rainforest areas of Central and West Africa and is occasionally exported to other regions. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) Monkeypox virus is an enveloped double-stranded DNA virus that belongs to the Orthopoxvirus genus of the Poxviridae family. The first case of monkeypox in humans was recorded in 1970 in the Democratic Republic of Congo during a period of intensified effort to eliminate smallpox. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Scientists have so far discovered two distinct genetic groups of monkeypox virus—Central African and West African. Cause It is caused by monkeypox virus, a member of the Orthopoxvirus genus in the family Poxviridae. Monkeypox belongs to the same family of viruses as smallpox. But Smallpox had a higher fatality rate than monkeypox. Smallpox was declared eradicated worldwide in 1980. Symptoms Monkeypox is characterised by flu-like symptoms and swelling of the lymph nodes, which gradually progresses to a widespread rash all over the face and body. Transmission Monkeypox virus is mostly transmitted to people from wild animals such as rodents and primates, but human-to-human transmission also occurs. It spreads from one person to another via respiratory droplets. Treatment There is currently no specific treatment recommended for monkeypox. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Vaccination against smallpox was about 85% effective in preventing monkeypox. Thus, prior childhood smallpox vaccination may result in a milder disease course. Incorrect Solution (a) Recently, the World Health Organisation has declared the global monkeypox outbreak a ‘public health emergency of international concern’ (PHEIC). Monkeypox is a viral zoonotic disease that occurs primarily in tropical rainforest areas of Central and West Africa and is occasionally exported to other regions. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) Monkeypox virus is an enveloped double-stranded DNA virus that belongs to the Orthopoxvirus genus of the Poxviridae family. The first case of monkeypox in humans was recorded in 1970 in the Democratic Republic of Congo during a period of intensified effort to eliminate smallpox. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Scientists have so far discovered two distinct genetic groups of monkeypox virus—Central African and West African. Cause It is caused by monkeypox virus, a member of the Orthopoxvirus genus in the family Poxviridae. Monkeypox belongs to the same family of viruses as smallpox. But Smallpox had a higher fatality rate than monkeypox. Smallpox was declared eradicated worldwide in 1980. Symptoms Monkeypox is characterised by flu-like symptoms and swelling of the lymph nodes, which gradually progresses to a widespread rash all over the face and body. Transmission Monkeypox virus is mostly transmitted to people from wild animals such as rodents and primates, but human-to-human transmission also occurs. It spreads from one person to another via respiratory droplets. Treatment There is currently no specific treatment recommended for monkeypox. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Vaccination against smallpox was about 85% effective in preventing monkeypox. Thus, prior childhood smallpox vaccination may result in a milder disease course. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Which of the following are the applications of CRISPR Technology? Genetic sequence of disease-causing organisms can be altered to make them ineffective. Diseases and disorders including some forms of cancer caused by an undesired genetic mutation can be fixed. Till date genes of plants cannot be edited to make them pest resistant. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) technology works in a simple way — it locates the specific area in the genetic sequence which has been diagnosed to be the cause of the problem, cuts it out, and replaces it with a new and correct sequence that no longer causes the problem. The technology replicates a natural defense mechanism in some bacteria that uses a similar method to protect itself from virus attacks. Because the entire process is programmable, it has a remarkable efficiency, and has already brought almost miraculous results. There are a whole lot of diseases and disorders, including some forms of cancer, that are caused by an undesired genetic mutation. These can all be fixed with this technology. (Hence statement 2 is correct) There are vast applications elsewhere as well. Genetic sequence of disease-causing organisms can be altered to make them ineffective. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Genes of plants can be edited to make them withstand pests, or improve their tolerance to drought or temperature. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Incorrect Solution (b) The CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) technology works in a simple way — it locates the specific area in the genetic sequence which has been diagnosed to be the cause of the problem, cuts it out, and replaces it with a new and correct sequence that no longer causes the problem. The technology replicates a natural defense mechanism in some bacteria that uses a similar method to protect itself from virus attacks. Because the entire process is programmable, it has a remarkable efficiency, and has already brought almost miraculous results. There are a whole lot of diseases and disorders, including some forms of cancer, that are caused by an undesired genetic mutation. These can all be fixed with this technology. (Hence statement 2 is correct) There are vast applications elsewhere as well. Genetic sequence of disease-causing organisms can be altered to make them ineffective. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Genes of plants can be edited to make them withstand pests, or improve their tolerance to drought or temperature. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following statements regarding Alzheimer’s disease. It is a progressive heart disorder that typically affects older people. It affects the ability to perform day-to-day activities of human. Alzheimer’s disease can be treated using vaccines. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive brain disorder that typically affects people older than 65. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) When it affects younger individuals, it is considered early onset. The disease destroys brain cells and nerves, and disrupts the message-carrying neurotransmitters. Eventually, a person with Alzheimer’s loses the ability to perform day-to-day activities. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Symptoms include memory loss, difficulty in completing familiar tasks, confusion with time or place, problems in speaking and writing, decreased or poor judgment, and changes in mood and personality. Alzheimer’s disease is also the most common cause of dementia — which is a syndrome and not a disease in itself, and whose symptoms include loss of memory, thinking skills, problems with language, changes in mood and deterioration in behaviour. Treatment: There is no cure for Alzheimer’s, because its exact causes are not known. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Most drugs being developed try to slow down or stop the progression of the disease. Incorrect Solution (a) Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive brain disorder that typically affects people older than 65. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) When it affects younger individuals, it is considered early onset. The disease destroys brain cells and nerves, and disrupts the message-carrying neurotransmitters. Eventually, a person with Alzheimer’s loses the ability to perform day-to-day activities. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Symptoms include memory loss, difficulty in completing familiar tasks, confusion with time or place, problems in speaking and writing, decreased or poor judgment, and changes in mood and personality. Alzheimer’s disease is also the most common cause of dementia — which is a syndrome and not a disease in itself, and whose symptoms include loss of memory, thinking skills, problems with language, changes in mood and deterioration in behaviour. Treatment: There is no cure for Alzheimer’s, because its exact causes are not known. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Most drugs being developed try to slow down or stop the progression of the disease. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following statements: Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a viral infection of the reproductive tract. Majority of cervical cancer is due to HPV. India has recently developed its first human papillomavirus vaccine. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Cervavac, a vaccine developed by the Serum Institute of India (SII), has recently acquired market authorization from the Drugs Controller General of India (DGCI). It is India’s first Quadrivalent Human Papillomavirus Vaccination (qHPV) designed to protect women from cervical cancer. Cervical cancer is a prevalent sexually transmitted infection. It is a type of cancer that occurs in the cells of the cervix, the lower part of the uterus that connects to the vagina. It is mostly caused by long-term infection with particular forms of HPV. It is the second most prevalent cancer form and the second leading cause of cancer death in women of reproductive age (15-44). Hence all the statements are correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Cervavac, a vaccine developed by the Serum Institute of India (SII), has recently acquired market authorization from the Drugs Controller General of India (DGCI). It is India’s first Quadrivalent Human Papillomavirus Vaccination (qHPV) designed to protect women from cervical cancer. Cervical cancer is a prevalent sexually transmitted infection. It is a type of cancer that occurs in the cells of the cervix, the lower part of the uterus that connects to the vagina. It is mostly caused by long-term infection with particular forms of HPV. It is the second most prevalent cancer form and the second leading cause of cancer death in women of reproductive age (15-44). Hence all the statements are correct. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Consider the following statements regarding Artificial insemination and In-Vitro Fertilization: In-Vitro Fertilization technique introduces previously selected semen into the woman’s uterus that has been prepared by stimulating ovulation. Artificial insemination technique consists of retrieving a woman’s eggs to be fertilised in the laboratory. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect In Vitro Fertilization- This technique consists of retrieving a woman’s eggs to be fertilised in the laboratory and later introducing the obtained embryos inside the uterus. Artificial insemination- This technique introduces previously selected semen into the woman’s uterus that has been prepared by stimulating ovulation. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect In Vitro Fertilization- This technique consists of retrieving a woman’s eggs to be fertilised in the laboratory and later introducing the obtained embryos inside the uterus. Artificial insemination- This technique introduces previously selected semen into the woman’s uterus that has been prepared by stimulating ovulation. Question 15 of 35 15. Question Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The strength of inactivated vaccines tends to wear off over time, resulting in less long-lasting immunity. Hence multiple doses are required to provide long-lasting immunity. Live-attenuated vaccines cannot be administered to persons with impaired immune response system. In a recombinant vaccine, only a protein from disease causing organism that generates protective immune response is inserted into gene of another cell. a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Test explained Incorrect Test explained Question 16 of 35 16. Question With reference to advancement in technology, consider the following statements: Viruses can be cultured without living cells. Fungi can be cultured only in natural medium. Bacteria can be cultured both naturally and artificial mediums. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Bacteria and Fungi can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium. Whereas viruses require a living host cell for replication. Viruses replicate only within living cells. Some viruses are restricted in the kinds of cells in which they replicate, and a few have not yet been cultivated at all under laboratory conditions. Infected host cells (eukaryotic or prokaryotic) can be cultured and grown, and then the growth medium can be harvested as a source of the virus. (Hence statement 1 and 2 are incorrect and 3 is correct) Incorrect Solution (a) Bacteria and Fungi can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium. Whereas viruses require a living host cell for replication. Viruses replicate only within living cells. Some viruses are restricted in the kinds of cells in which they replicate, and a few have not yet been cultivated at all under laboratory conditions. Infected host cells (eukaryotic or prokaryotic) can be cultured and grown, and then the growth medium can be harvested as a source of the virus. (Hence statement 1 and 2 are incorrect and 3 is correct) Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following with respect to E.coli bacteria: coli bacteria are found in the gut of some animals. Most types of E. coli are harmless. They help in keeping the digestive tract healthy. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct E. coli (Escherichia coli), is a type of bacteria that normally lives in your intestines. It’s also found in the gut of some animals. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Most types of E. coli are harmless and even help keep your digestive tract healthy. But some strains can cause diarrhea if you eat contaminated food or drink fouled water. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Most types of E. coli are harmless and even help keep your digestive tract healthy. But some strains can cause diarrhea if you eat contaminated food or drink fouled water. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct E. coli (Escherichia coli), is a type of bacteria that normally lives in your intestines. It’s also found in the gut of some animals. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Most types of E. coli are harmless and even help keep your digestive tract healthy. But some strains can cause diarrhea if you eat contaminated food or drink fouled water. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Most types of E. coli are harmless and even help keep your digestive tract healthy. But some strains can cause diarrhea if you eat contaminated food or drink fouled water. Hence, statement 3 is correct. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following: Antimicrobials are medicines used to prevent and treat infections in humans, animals and plants. Medical procedures, such as surgery, cancer chemotherapy, and organ transplantation, will not be affected by antimicrobial resistance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Antimicrobials – including antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals and antiparasitics – are medicines used to prevent and treat infections in humans, animals and plants. Hence, statement 1 is true. Without effective tools for the prevention and adequate treatment of drug-resistant infections and improved access to existing and new quality-assured antimicrobials, the number of people for whom treatment is failing or who die of infections will increase. Medical procedures, such as surgery, including caesarean sections or hip replacements, cancer chemotherapy, and organ transplantation, will become riskier. Hence, statement 2 is not true. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Antimicrobials – including antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals and antiparasitics – are medicines used to prevent and treat infections in humans, animals and plants. Hence, statement 1 is true. Without effective tools for the prevention and adequate treatment of drug-resistant infections and improved access to existing and new quality-assured antimicrobials, the number of people for whom treatment is failing or who die of infections will increase. Medical procedures, such as surgery, including caesarean sections or hip replacements, cancer chemotherapy, and organ transplantation, will become riskier. Hence, statement 2 is not true. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Consider the following with respect to Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA): It is a neurological condition caused by a defect in the SMN1 gene. There are broadly three types of SMA depending on the age at which weakness starts and severity of weakness. SMA Type 1 being most severe. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1,2,3 Correct Spinal Muscular Atrophy is a neurological condition caused by a defect in the SMN1 gene. Normally, every person is born with a gene called SMN1 which produces a protein called SMN protein, in many cells in our body. This protein is essential for normal functioning of nerve cells in the spinal cord called the ‘anterior horn cells’. The anterior horn cells control the skeletal muscles essential for all our movements (of limbs, neck, back, breathing and swallowing etc,). However, absence of SMN1 gene causes reduction in the amount of SMN protein produced in anterior horn cells. The reduced quantity of SMN protein causes gradual death of anterior horn cells, and thus progressive weakness of muscles of limbs, trunk and breathing and swallowing muscles. Depending on the age of child and severity of SMA, the speed with which the muscles become weaker varies. There are broadly three types of SMA depending on the age at which weakness starts and severity of weakness, with type 1 being most severe. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1,2,3 Correct Spinal Muscular Atrophy is a neurological condition caused by a defect in the SMN1 gene. Normally, every person is born with a gene called SMN1 which produces a protein called SMN protein, in many cells in our body. This protein is essential for normal functioning of nerve cells in the spinal cord called the ‘anterior horn cells’. The anterior horn cells control the skeletal muscles essential for all our movements (of limbs, neck, back, breathing and swallowing etc,). However, absence of SMN1 gene causes reduction in the amount of SMN protein produced in anterior horn cells. The reduced quantity of SMN protein causes gradual death of anterior horn cells, and thus progressive weakness of muscles of limbs, trunk and breathing and swallowing muscles. Depending on the age of child and severity of SMA, the speed with which the muscles become weaker varies. There are broadly three types of SMA depending on the age at which weakness starts and severity of weakness, with type 1 being most severe. Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following statements: Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes. Common cold is mostly caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Adenoviruses are medium-sized, nonenveloped viruses with an icosahedral nucleocapsid containing a double-stranded DNA genome. Retroviruses (Rv) are double-stranded RNA viruses that integrate in to host the chromosome, and thus provide ‘permanent’ transfer of genes to a cell. Adenoviruses are common viruses that typically cause mild cold- or flu-like illness. Adenoviruses can cause illness in people of all ages any time of year. HIV is classified as a retrovirus because it contains reverse transcriptase. Retroviruses are a family of viruses that are grouped together based on how they are structured and how they replicate within a host. Besides human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the virus that causes AIDS, there two other retroviruses that can cause human illness. One is called human T-lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1) and the other is called human T-lymphotropic virus type 2 (HTLV-II). Both of these viruses are transmitted between people through sexual contact, infected blood or tissue exposure, or during pregnancy or childbirth from an infected person to their child. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Adenoviruses are medium-sized, nonenveloped viruses with an icosahedral nucleocapsid containing a double-stranded DNA genome. Retroviruses (Rv) are double-stranded RNA viruses that integrate in to host the chromosome, and thus provide ‘permanent’ transfer of genes to a cell. Adenoviruses are common viruses that typically cause mild cold- or flu-like illness. Adenoviruses can cause illness in people of all ages any time of year. HIV is classified as a retrovirus because it contains reverse transcriptase. Retroviruses are a family of viruses that are grouped together based on how they are structured and how they replicate within a host. Besides human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the virus that causes AIDS, there two other retroviruses that can cause human illness. One is called human T-lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1) and the other is called human T-lymphotropic virus type 2 (HTLV-II). Both of these viruses are transmitted between people through sexual contact, infected blood or tissue exposure, or during pregnancy or childbirth from an infected person to their child. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements regarding Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR): It forms the easternmost limit of the Himalayan Terai forests in India. It is the only tiger reserve in Jharkhand. It is surrounded by the Royal Chitwan National Park of Nepal in the north. Its vegetation is dominated by the moist mixed deciduous forest. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR) forms the easternmost limit of the Himalayan Terai forests in India. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is situated in the Gangetic plains bio-geographic zone of the country. The forest of this region has a combination of bhabar and terai tracts. Rivers Gandak, Pandai, Manor, Harha, Masan, and Bhapsa flow through various parts of the reserve. It is the only tiger reserve in the West Champaran district of Bihar. Palamu Tiger Reserve is the only tiger reserve in Jharkhand. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It is surrounded by the Royal Chitwan National Park of Nepal in the north. Hence statement 3 is correct. Its vegetation is dominated by the moist mixed deciduous forest. Hence statement 4 is correct. It also includes open-land vegetation, sub-mountainous semi-evergreen formations, freshwater swamps, riparian fringes, alluvial grasslands, high hill savannahs, and wetlands. Incorrect Solution (c) Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR) forms the easternmost limit of the Himalayan Terai forests in India. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is situated in the Gangetic plains bio-geographic zone of the country. The forest of this region has a combination of bhabar and terai tracts. Rivers Gandak, Pandai, Manor, Harha, Masan, and Bhapsa flow through various parts of the reserve. It is the only tiger reserve in the West Champaran district of Bihar. Palamu Tiger Reserve is the only tiger reserve in Jharkhand. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It is surrounded by the Royal Chitwan National Park of Nepal in the north. Hence statement 3 is correct. Its vegetation is dominated by the moist mixed deciduous forest. Hence statement 4 is correct. It also includes open-land vegetation, sub-mountainous semi-evergreen formations, freshwater swamps, riparian fringes, alluvial grasslands, high hill savannahs, and wetlands. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements about the Strait of Gibraltar: It is a narrow waterway separating Europe from Asia. It is bordered by Morocco in the north. It connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Atlantic Ocean. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) The Strait of Gibraltar is a narrow waterway separating Europe from Africa. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is one of the busiest waterways in the world. Approximately 300 ships cross the Strait every day, about one ship every 5 minutes. It is bordered by Spain and the British Overseas Territory of Gibraltar in the north. It is bordered by Morocco and the Spanish exclave of Ceuta in the south. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Its depth ranges from 300 to 900 meters, and it forms a significant gap between the high plateau of Spain and the Atlas Mountains of Northern Africa. It connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Atlantic Ocean. Hence statement 3 is correct. An important port located on the strait is the Moroccan port of Tanger-Med, near Tangier. Incorrect Solution (a) The Strait of Gibraltar is a narrow waterway separating Europe from Africa. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is one of the busiest waterways in the world. Approximately 300 ships cross the Strait every day, about one ship every 5 minutes. It is bordered by Spain and the British Overseas Territory of Gibraltar in the north. It is bordered by Morocco and the Spanish exclave of Ceuta in the south. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Its depth ranges from 300 to 900 meters, and it forms a significant gap between the high plateau of Spain and the Atlas Mountains of Northern Africa. It connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Atlantic Ocean. Hence statement 3 is correct. An important port located on the strait is the Moroccan port of Tanger-Med, near Tangier. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements about Reindeers: They are known to see ultraviolet light. They are spotted in Europe, Asia, and North America. They are classified as critically endangered on the IUCN List. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Reindeers are known to see ultraviolet light. It helps them to spot predators whose white fur is more visible in UV light. Hence statement 1 is correct. They can use their nose to warm the air they breathe in before it enters their lungs. They are spotted in Europe, Asia, and North America. Hence statement 2 is correct. Both male and female reindeer grow antlers. However, male reindeer antlers tend to be twice as big. They are herbivores that are found in polar and arctic climates. They are classified as vulnerable on the IUCN List. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Note: Researchers have discovered that the more time reindeer spend ruminating, the less time they spend in non-rapid eye movement (non-REM) sleep. It might help reindeer get enough sleep during the summer months when food is abundant and reindeer feed almost 24/7. Incorrect Solution (b) Reindeers are known to see ultraviolet light. It helps them to spot predators whose white fur is more visible in UV light. Hence statement 1 is correct. They can use their nose to warm the air they breathe in before it enters their lungs. They are spotted in Europe, Asia, and North America. Hence statement 2 is correct. Both male and female reindeer grow antlers. However, male reindeer antlers tend to be twice as big. They are herbivores that are found in polar and arctic climates. They are classified as vulnerable on the IUCN List. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Note: Researchers have discovered that the more time reindeer spend ruminating, the less time they spend in non-rapid eye movement (non-REM) sleep. It might help reindeer get enough sleep during the summer months when food is abundant and reindeer feed almost 24/7. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements: Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act of 2016 includes mental illness, cerebral palsy, and muscular dystrophy as types of disabilities. India has ratified the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities. The subject of ‘relief of the disabled and unemployable’ is specified in the union list of the seventh schedule of the Indian constitution. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act of 2016 includes mental illness, cerebral palsy, autism, chronic neurological conditions, speech and language disability, thalassemia, hemophilia, sickle cell disease, multiple disabilities including deaf blindness, acid attack victims, Parkinson’s disease, and muscular dystrophy as types of disabilities. Hence statement 1 is correct. It increases the quantum of reservations for people suffering from disabilities from 3% to 4% in government jobs and from 3% to 5% in higher education institutes. Every child with a benchmark disability between the age group of 6 and 18 years shall have the right to free education. “Person with a disability” means a person with long-term physical, mental, intellectual, or sensory impairments which, in interaction with barriers, hinder his full and effective participation in society equally with others. India has ratified the United Nations Convention on Rights of Persons with Disability in 2007. Hence statement 2 is correct. It was adopted in 2006, and defines persons with disabilities as those “who have long-term physical, mental, intellectual or sensory impairments which in interaction with various barriers may hinder their full and effective participation in society on an equal basis with others”. The subject of ‘relief of the disabled and unemployable’ is specified in the state list of the seventh schedule of the Indian constitution. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Article 41 of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) states that the State shall make effective provisions for securing the right to work, education, and public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement, within the limits of its economic capacity and development. Incorrect Solution (b) Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act of 2016 includes mental illness, cerebral palsy, autism, chronic neurological conditions, speech and language disability, thalassemia, hemophilia, sickle cell disease, multiple disabilities including deaf blindness, acid attack victims, Parkinson’s disease, and muscular dystrophy as types of disabilities. Hence statement 1 is correct. It increases the quantum of reservations for people suffering from disabilities from 3% to 4% in government jobs and from 3% to 5% in higher education institutes. Every child with a benchmark disability between the age group of 6 and 18 years shall have the right to free education. “Person with a disability” means a person with long-term physical, mental, intellectual, or sensory impairments which, in interaction with barriers, hinder his full and effective participation in society equally with others. India has ratified the United Nations Convention on Rights of Persons with Disability in 2007. Hence statement 2 is correct. It was adopted in 2006, and defines persons with disabilities as those “who have long-term physical, mental, intellectual or sensory impairments which in interaction with various barriers may hinder their full and effective participation in society on an equal basis with others”. The subject of ‘relief of the disabled and unemployable’ is specified in the state list of the seventh schedule of the Indian constitution. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Article 41 of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) states that the State shall make effective provisions for securing the right to work, education, and public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement, within the limits of its economic capacity and development. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements regarding Huntington’s Disease (HD): It is a hereditary neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the progressive breakdown of nerve cells in the brain. It is caused by a mutation in the huntingtin gene (HTT), leading to the production of a defective form of the huntingtin protein. Its symptoms include involuntary movements, cognitive decline, and emotional disturbances. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Huntington’s Disease (HD) is a hereditary neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the progressive breakdown of nerve cells in the brain. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is caused by a mutation in the huntingtin gene (HTT), leading to the production of a defective form of the huntingtin protein. Hence statement 2 is correct. Its symptoms include involuntary movements, cognitive decline, and emotional disturbances. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is currently incurable and treatment cannot reverse its progression or slow it down. However, healthcare providers can offer medications to help with certain symptoms. Incorrect Solution (c) Huntington’s Disease (HD) is a hereditary neurodegenerative disorder characterized by the progressive breakdown of nerve cells in the brain. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is caused by a mutation in the huntingtin gene (HTT), leading to the production of a defective form of the huntingtin protein. Hence statement 2 is correct. Its symptoms include involuntary movements, cognitive decline, and emotional disturbances. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is currently incurable and treatment cannot reverse its progression or slow it down. However, healthcare providers can offer medications to help with certain symptoms. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements: Bikaji Cama established the Paris Indian Society with co-founders Munchershah Burjorji Godrej and S.R. Rana. Sucheta Kriplani founded the All-India Mahila Congress and was the first woman Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh. Kanaklata Barua led a group of freedom fighters called Mukti Bahini during the Swadeshi Movement. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Bikaji Cama (1861-1936) established the Paris Indian Society with co-founders Munchershah Burjorji Godrej and S.R. Rana. Hence statement 1 is correct. She actively participated in the Indian freedom movement and advocated for Swaraj (self-rule). Sucheta Kriplani (1908-1974) founded the All India Mahila Congress in 1940 to advocate women’s rights and empowerment. She was the first woman Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh. Hence statement 2 is correct. She worked closely with Mahatma Gandhi during the tumultuous time of the Partition riots, accompanying him to Noakhali in 1946. Kanaklata Barua (1924-1942) led a group of freedom fighters called Mukti Bahini during the Quit India Movement. She died during a procession to unfurl the Tricolour at Gohpur police station on September 20, 1942. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) Bikaji Cama (1861-1936) established the Paris Indian Society with co-founders Munchershah Burjorji Godrej and S.R. Rana. Hence statement 1 is correct. She actively participated in the Indian freedom movement and advocated for Swaraj (self-rule). Sucheta Kriplani (1908-1974) founded the All India Mahila Congress in 1940 to advocate women’s rights and empowerment. She was the first woman Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh. Hence statement 2 is correct. She worked closely with Mahatma Gandhi during the tumultuous time of the Partition riots, accompanying him to Noakhali in 1946. Kanaklata Barua (1924-1942) led a group of freedom fighters called Mukti Bahini during the Quit India Movement. She died during a procession to unfurl the Tricolour at Gohpur police station on September 20, 1942. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements about Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSC): These are formed in very cold conditions over polar regions and within the troposphere. These clouds provide a surface for chemical reactions where benign forms of chlorine are converted into reactive, ozone-destroying forms. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSC) are formed in very cold conditions over polar regions and within the stratosphere, around 12-19 miles (19-31km) high, far above our normal clouds. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. These clouds are made of smaller ice particles than those that form more common clouds. These small particles help to scatter light in a different way, which gives them their unique appearance. The frequency of these clouds is often a harbinger of ozone depletion, as they play a crucial role in stratospheric chemistry. These clouds provide a surface for chemical reactions where benign forms of chlorine are converted into reactive, ozone-destroying forms. Hence statement 2 is correct. They also remove nitrogen compounds that would otherwise moderate the destructive impact of chlorine on the ozone layer. Incorrect Solution (b) Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSC) are formed in very cold conditions over polar regions and within the stratosphere, around 12-19 miles (19-31km) high, far above our normal clouds. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. These clouds are made of smaller ice particles than those that form more common clouds. These small particles help to scatter light in a different way, which gives them their unique appearance. The frequency of these clouds is often a harbinger of ozone depletion, as they play a crucial role in stratospheric chemistry. These clouds provide a surface for chemical reactions where benign forms of chlorine are converted into reactive, ozone-destroying forms. Hence statement 2 is correct. They also remove nitrogen compounds that would otherwise moderate the destructive impact of chlorine on the ozone layer. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements about the Bhoomi Rashi Portal: It is an e-governance initiative of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. It intends to expedite the process of land acquisition for National Highways. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The Bhoomi Rashi Portal is an e-governance initiative of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Hence statement 1 is correct. It acts as a single-point platform for the online processing of land acquisition notifications to accelerate highway infrastructure development projects in India. It intends to expedite the process of land acquisition for National Highways. Hence statement 2 is correct. This portal would enhance the efficiency of the land acquisition process, ensure transparency and accountability, and result in the e-transfer of benefits directly to the accounts of the beneficiaries. Incorrect Solution (c) The Bhoomi Rashi Portal is an e-governance initiative of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Hence statement 1 is correct. It acts as a single-point platform for the online processing of land acquisition notifications to accelerate highway infrastructure development projects in India. It intends to expedite the process of land acquisition for National Highways. Hence statement 2 is correct. This portal would enhance the efficiency of the land acquisition process, ensure transparency and accountability, and result in the e-transfer of benefits directly to the accounts of the beneficiaries. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements about Divya Kala Mela: It is a unique event showcasing the products and craftsmanship of Divyang entrepreneurs and artisans from across the country. It is organised by the Ministry of Culture through the National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC). Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Divya Kala Mela is a unique event showcasing the products and craftsmanship of Divyang entrepreneurs and artisans from across the country. Hence statement 1 is correct. It aims to strengthen the economic empowerment of Divyangjan and provide a bigger platform for marketing and showcasing the products and skills of Divyangjan. It is organised by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan), Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJ&E) through the National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC). Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (a) Divya Kala Mela is a unique event showcasing the products and craftsmanship of Divyang entrepreneurs and artisans from across the country. Hence statement 1 is correct. It aims to strengthen the economic empowerment of Divyangjan and provide a bigger platform for marketing and showcasing the products and skills of Divyangjan. It is organised by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan), Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJ&E) through the National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC). Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements about Kanheri Caves: The name Kanheri occurs in the Nasik inscription of the Satavahana ruler Vasisthiputra Pulumavi. The earliest reference of Kanheri is ascribed to Megasthenes who visited India during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya. They are located within the forests of the Sanjay Gandhi National Park. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Kanheri Caves are a group of caves and rock-cut monuments located on the western outskirts of Mumbai. The name Kanheri is derived from ‘Kanhagiri’ in Prakrit. The name Kanheri occurs in the Nasik inscription of the Satavahana ruler Vasisthiputra Pulumavi. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Kanheri caves comprise more than 110 different rock-cut monolithic excavations and are one of the largest single excavations in the country. The earliest reference to Kanheri is ascribed to Fa-Hein who visited India during 399-411 CE. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Kanheri Caves flourished under the patronage of Satavahana, Traikutakas, Vakatakas, and Silaharas. They are located within the forests of the Sanjay Gandhi National Park. Hence statement 3 is correct. Note: Grey Francolin (Ortygornis pondicerianus) was reported inside the Sanjay Gandhi National Park (SGNP) of Mumbai. Grey Francolin is a ground-dwelling bird known for its distinctive calls and cryptic plumage. They are carnivores (insectivores) and herbivores (granivores). Incorrect Solution (b) Kanheri Caves are a group of caves and rock-cut monuments located on the western outskirts of Mumbai. The name Kanheri is derived from ‘Kanhagiri’ in Prakrit. The name Kanheri occurs in the Nasik inscription of the Satavahana ruler Vasisthiputra Pulumavi. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Kanheri caves comprise more than 110 different rock-cut monolithic excavations and are one of the largest single excavations in the country. The earliest reference to Kanheri is ascribed to Fa-Hein who visited India during 399-411 CE. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Kanheri Caves flourished under the patronage of Satavahana, Traikutakas, Vakatakas, and Silaharas. They are located within the forests of the Sanjay Gandhi National Park. Hence statement 3 is correct. Note: Grey Francolin (Ortygornis pondicerianus) was reported inside the Sanjay Gandhi National Park (SGNP) of Mumbai. Grey Francolin is a ground-dwelling bird known for its distinctive calls and cryptic plumage. They are carnivores (insectivores) and herbivores (granivores). Question 31 of 35 31. Question (1/9), (1/3), 1, ?, 9. What number should fill the Question mark? a) (2/3) b) 3 c) 3/9 d) 6 Correct Solution (b) This is a multiplication series; each number is 3 times the previous number. Incorrect Solution (b) This is a multiplication series; each number is 3 times the previous number. Question 32 of 35 32. Question The difference of two numbers is 1365. On dividing the larger number by the smaller, we get 6 as quotient and the 15 as remainder. What is the smaller number? a) 270 b) 295 c) 240 d) 360 Correct Solution (a) Let the smaller number be x Then larger number = (x + 1365) ∴ x + 1365 = 6x + 15 ⇒ 5x = 1350 ⇒ x = 270 ∴ Smaller number = 270 Incorrect Solution (a) Let the smaller number be x Then larger number = (x + 1365) ∴ x + 1365 = 6x + 15 ⇒ 5x = 1350 ⇒ x = 270 ∴ Smaller number = 270 Question 33 of 35 33. Question In a race of 200m, B can give a start of 10m to A and C can give a start of 20m to B. The start that C can give to A in the same race is? a) 27m b) 30m c) 25m d) 29m Correct Solution (d) B : A = 200 : 190 C : B = 200 : 180 = C/A = (C/B)*(B/A) = (200/180)*(200/190) = 200/171 ∴ C can give to A, a start of (200 – 171) m = 29 m Incorrect Solution (d) B : A = 200 : 190 C : B = 200 : 180 = C/A = (C/B)*(B/A) = (200/180)*(200/190) = 200/171 ∴ C can give to A, a start of (200 – 171) m = 29 m Question 34 of 35 34. Question Find the HCF of (3125-1) and (335-1) a) 312-1 b) 35-1 c) 34-1 d) None of these Correct Solution (b) The solution of this question is based on the rule, The HCF of (am – 1) and (an – 1) is given by (aHCF of m, n – 1) Thus for this question the answer is (35 – 1) Since, 5 is the HCF of 35 and 125. Incorrect Solution (b) The solution of this question is based on the rule, The HCF of (am – 1) and (an – 1) is given by (aHCF of m, n – 1) Thus for this question the answer is (35 – 1) Since, 5 is the HCF of 35 and 125. Question 35 of 35 35. Question Prof. Suman takes a number of quizzes for a course. All the quizzes are out of 100. A student can get an A grade in the course if the average of her scores is more than or equal to 90. Grade B is awarded to a student if the average of her scores is between 87 and 89 (both included). If the average is below 87, the student gets a C grade. Ramesh is preparing for his last quiz, and he realizes that he must score a minimum of 97 to get an A grade. After the quiz, he realizes that he will score 70, and he will just manage a B. How many quizzes did Prof. Suman take? a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9 Correct Solution (d) Let the number of quizzes before the last quiz be x. Let the average score of Ramesh be n. According to the question, ((nx+97)/x) = 9090x – nx = 97…….(1) And, ((nx+70)/x) = 8787x – nx = 70……..(2) Subtract both equations 3x = 27x = 9 Hence, the number of quizzes is 9. Incorrect Solution (d) Let the number of quizzes before the last quiz be x. Let the average score of Ramesh be n. According to the question, ((nx+97)/x) = 9090x – nx = 97…….(1) And, ((nx+70)/x) = 8787x – nx = 70……..(2) Subtract both equations 3x = 27x = 9 Hence, the number of quizzes is 9. window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3631', init: { quizId: 3631, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"32097":{"type":"single","id":32097,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32098":{"type":"single","id":32098,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32099":{"type":"single","id":32099,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32102":{"type":"single","id":32102,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32104":{"type":"single","id":32104,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32105":{"type":"single","id":32105,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32106":{"type":"single","id":32106,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32109":{"type":"single","id":32109,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32111":{"type":"single","id":32111,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32113":{"type":"single","id":32113,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32114":{"type":"single","id":32114,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32115":{"type":"single","id":32115,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32116":{"type":"single","id":32116,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32118":{"type":"single","id":32118,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32121":{"type":"single","id":32121,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32123":{"type":"single","id":32123,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32124":{"type":"single","id":32124,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32127":{"type":"single","id":32127,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32128":{"type":"single","id":32128,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32130":{"type":"single","id":32130,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32132":{"type":"single","id":32132,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32134":{"type":"single","id":32134,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32137":{"type":"single","id":32137,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32138":{"type":"single","id":32138,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32139":{"type":"single","id":32139,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32141":{"type":"single","id":32141,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32142":{"type":"single","id":32142,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32145":{"type":"single","id":32145,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32148":{"type":"single","id":32148,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32151":{"type":"single","id":32151,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32154":{"type":"single","id":32154,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32156":{"type":"single","id":32156,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32157":{"type":"single","id":32157,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32160":{"type":"single","id":32160,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32162":{"type":"single","id":32162,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba