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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

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[SCHOLARSHIP TEST] SUPER 100 – Scholarship Test for Prelims Exclusive Program (PEP) 2023

Hello Everyone, Wish you all a very Happy New Year 2023. Thank you for an amazing response on our Prelims Exclusive Program (PEP) 2023 - Prelims Mentorship Program. PEP 2023 is meant for aspirants preparing for UPSC 2023. To know more details about the Program -> CLICK HERE The Scholarship Test for ‘Super  100’- PEP 2023 is going to be conducted on 18th January 2023, in the Online Mode and Offline Mode (Bangalore and Delhi). The Last day to register for Super 100 is 17th January 2023 (by 6 PM) TO REGISTER FOR ‘SUPER 100’ ->CLICK HERE 1. So what is Super 100? Super 100 is a Scholarship Test conducted for PEP 2023. Based on the performance in the Test, 1-20 Ranks Free of cost 21-60 Ranks 50% discount 61-100 Ranks 25% discount Please Note, the Scholarship Test will be held in ONLINE MODE and OFFLINE MODE (in Bangalore & Delhi). After you are selected for the scholarship test, you can avail of the PEP programme either in Offline Mode or Online Mode. 2. What is the Syllabus for Super 100?  All the students will be eligible for the test. No pre-conditions. FREE Registration !! (Please find the registration link below) The Scholarship Test will have two parts - Objective Static & Current Affairs Test – 50 MCQs Objective CSAT Test – 50 MCQs 3. What are the Total Marks and Duration of the Test? The total marks on the test will be 200. Duration of the Test: 100 Minutes Time Slot: 11 AM - 12:40 PM TO REGISTER FOR ‘SUPER 100’ ->CLICK HERE 4. Important Dates with regard to Super 100? The Test (Objective Type) will be held on 18th January 2023. The last Date to Register is 17th January 2023 (by 6 PM). 5. How to Register for SUPER 100? TO REGISTER FOR ‘SUPER 100’ ->CLICK HERE The last date to register for SUPER 100 is 17th January 2023 (by 6 PM). IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO FOLLOW FOR TAKING THE TEST ONLINE: The login credentials will be sent to the registered email address by 9 PM on 17th January. All other instructions about the test will be in the same email. IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO FOLLOW FOR TAKING THE TEST OFFLINE: Arrive at the centre 10 minutes before the Scholarship Test starts. It is mandatory to wear Masks and use Sanitizer in the Test Centre. Without Masks, you will not be allowed to take the test. Social distancing will be strictly followed. To Know More about PEP, Special Discounts & Payment Details  -> CLICK HERE FOR ANY QUERIES (Related to PEP 2023) You can reach us on Email id: support@iasbaba.com Mobile No:  91691 91888 (Please call between 10 am – 6 pm ONLY) Office Address: BANGALORE CENTRE: IASbaba Gurukul Centre: 4th Floor, Opposite Chandra Layout Bus Depot, Nagarbhavi 1st Stage, Chandra Layout, Attiguppe, Bengaluru-560040. Landmark: Opposite to Chandra Layout Bus Depot / Above SBI Bank Delhi Centre: Plot 22-B, 3rd floor, Pusa Road, Bada Bazar Rd, New Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi – 110060. Landmark: Above Dominos   Thank You IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Viscose Staple Fibre Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The Association of Man-made Fibre Industry of India (AMFII) has appealed to the Union Finance Ministry to accept the recommendations of the Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR) on levy of anti-dumping duty (ADD) on imports of Viscose Staple Fibre from Indonesia. About The Association of Man-made Fibre Industry of India (AMFII) The AMFII was set up in 1951 as “The Rayon Manufacturers’ Association”. In 1959, its name was changed to “Association of Man-Made Fibre Industry of India” to include all the modern Man-Made Fibres of 20th Century origin thereby expanding its scope and membership. Thus, the Membership of the AMFII varied from time to time and included both Synthetic and Cellulosic Man-Made Fibres and Filament Yarn Manufacturers. On 29th April 1987, the AMFII was registered as a Private Limited Company under section 25 A of the Companies Act 1956. It was also registered under section 12 of the Income Tax Act as an organization for charitable purpose for “advancement of an object of general public utility”. The main object of the Association is to help the man-made fibre industry in India to formulate general policy on production and development of the industry. The Association also acts as a liaison body on behalf of the industry and communicates with the Chambers of Commerce and other public bodies within and outside India, with a view to promote and protect the man-made fibre industry and trade. The Association has its Registered Office in Mumbai. It has a Branch Office in New Delhi. About Viscose Staple Fibre: Viscose Staple Fiber (VSF), is a natural and biodegradable fiber which has characteristics that are similar to cotton. Due to its versatility, VSF is widely used for manufacturing Apparels Home textiles Dress materials Knitted wear and Non-woven applications. About Anti-Dumping Duty: Anti-dumping is a protectionist tariff, imposed by a domestic government on foreign imports that are at a price lower than the price it normally charges in its own home market. Anti-dumping duty is imposed as a remedy to the distortive trade which arises due to the dumping of goods. The use of anti-dumping measures as an instrument of fair competition is permitted by the World Trade Organisation. Where dumping occurs, the WTO allows the government of the affected country to take legal action against the dumping country as long as there is evidence of genuine material injury to industries in the domestic market. The Government must show that dumping took place, the extent of the dumping in terms of costs, and the injury or threat to cause injury to the domestic market. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India? (2022) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India Q3.) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Rajmata Jijau Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Art and Culture Context: Recently, the Prime Minister of India has paid tributes to Rajmata Jijau on her Jayanti. About Jijabai Bhonsle (12 January 1598 – 17 June 1674): Jijabai was born to Mahalasabai Jadhav and Lakhuji Jadhav of Deulgaon, near Sindkhed, in present-day Maharashtra. Jijabai was married at an early age to Shahaji Bhosle. She was the mother of Shivaji, founder of the Maratha Empire. She died at Pachad village near Raigad Fort. Role and Contributions of Jijabai Bhonsle: She managed her husband’s Jagir in Pune and developed it. Mentored a great person like Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj. She taught Shivaji about swarajya and raised him to be a warrior. She also renovated Kevareshwar Temple and Tambadi Jogeshwari Temple. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: King                         Dynasty Nannuka              Chandela Jayashakti            Paramara Nagabhata II       Gurjara-Pratihara Bhoja                    Rashtrakuta How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following statements: It was during the reign of Iltutmish that Chengiz Khan reached the Indus in pursuit of the fugitive Khwarezm prince. It was during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq that Taimoor occupied Multan and crossed the Indus. It was during the reign of Deva Raya II of Vijayanagara Empire that Vasco da Gama reached the coast of Kerala. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Lantana Camara Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Weeding out the invasive tropical American shrub, Lantana camara, appears to alter the composition of bird species in a forest, according to a new study conducted in Central India. About Lantana Camera: Lantana camara (common lantana) is a species of flowering plant within the verbena family (Verbenaceae), native to the American tropics. Lantanas arrived in India as a decorative shrub during British colonial period but quickly took over several ecosystems as an invasive plant. The shrub can spread on the forest ground, climb over trees a creeper and entangle with other native plants with ease. It is a very adaptable species, which can inhabit a wide variety of ecosystems. Once it has been introduced into a habitat it spreads rapidly between 45ºN and 45ºS and more than 1,400 metres (4,600 feet) in altitude. MUST READ: Invasive Species Source:  DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ? (2022) Cotton Rice Sugarcane Wheat Q.2) If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication? (2020) A licence is required to cultivate that plant Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances It is a Genetically Modified crop plant Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem Human Rights Watch report Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, The World Report 2023 of Human Rights Watch (HRW) said that Indian authorities had intensified and broadened their crackdown on activist groups and the media through 2022. Highlights of the report: According to the Hindu nationalist Bharatiya Janata Party-led government used abusive and discriminatory policies to repress Muslims and other minorities. The HRW said authorities across India arrested activists, journalists, and other critics of the government on what it called “politically motivated” criminal charges, including that of terrorism. It added that they also misused laws forbidding forced religious conversions to target Christians, especially from Dalit and Adivasi communities. On Jammu and Kashmir, the HRW said that even after three years of dilution of Article 370, the government continued to restrict free expression, peaceful assembly, and other basic rights there. It added that rights groups were harassed by Indian authorities throughout the country through tax raids, the use of the Foreign Contributions Regulation Act, and other allegations of financial irregularities. About Human Rights Watch: Human Rights Watch (HRW) is an international non-governmental organization headquartered in New York City. It conducts research and advocacy on human rights. The group pressures governments, policymakers, companies, and individual human rights abusers to denounce abuse and respect human rights. It often works on behalf of refugees, children, migrants, and political prisoners. In 1997, Human Rights Watch shared the Nobel Peace Prize as a founding member of the International Campaign to Ban Landmines. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Ebola Disease Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Uganda recently declared the end of the Ebola disease outbreak caused by Sudan ebolavirus. About Ebola Disease: Ebola spreads through EBOV (Ebola virus) which is a virus belonging to the Filoviridae family of viruses. It is mainly found in animals. Ebola is a virus that causes severe inflammation and tissue damage throughout the body. It is known as a haemorrhagic fever virus, because it can cause problems with the clotting system of the body and lead to internal bleeding, as blood leaks from small blood vessels. Six different species of the virus have been found, but only four are known to cause disease in humans. Ebola is spread through direct contact with body fluids ― blood, saliva, sweat, tears, mucus, vomit, faeces, breast milk, urine and semen of people infected with it. It is also spread by touching things that have been contaminated with these fluids. The virus is named after the Ebola river (Republic of Congo ) — as a village situated on its bank witnessed the first instance of the viral outbreak in 1976. Treatment: A vaccine for Ebola was approved by the Food and Drug Administration in 2019. It is a one-dose shot that protects against the variant of the Ebola virus that has caused the most serious outbreak so far. This vaccine is not likely to be effective against the Ebola Sudan strain that caused a 2022 outbreak in Uganda. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q,1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics : Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Makar Sankrant and Lohri Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Culture About: Lohri is celebrated on the last day of Paush month (12-13 January) In Punjab. Generally, after Lohri farmers start cutting their winter crops. About Makar Sankrant Makar Sankranti is a festival day in the Hindu calendar, in reference to the deity Surya (sun). Makar Sankranti is observed according to solar cycles. It is held normally on the 14th of January, or a day before or after. In certain regions celebrations can go on for even four days and vary a lot in the rituals. It marks the – first day of sun’s transit into the Makara (Capricorn), marking the end of the month with the winter solstice and the start of longer days. It is also celebrated as a harvest Festival. Different names of the same festival Makar Sankranti – Odisha, Maharashtra-Goa, Andhra-Telengana, Kerala and most of north India Paush Parbon –  Bengal Pongal – Tamil Nadu Pongal is celebrated with the distribution of new crop “Shankarai Pongal” which is basically rice cooked in milk and jiggery distributed as a Prasadam. Bhogali Bihu –  Assam The farmers of Assam celebrate and cherish the efforts of cultivation. It marks the beginning of Assamese New Year. Assamese celebrate Bihu thrice a year, which signify the distinct cycles of farming – Bhogali/Magh Bihu (January), Bohag/Rongali Bihu (April), and Kongali Bihu (October). Lohri – Punjab and Jammu Maghi – Haryana and Himachal Khichdi Parwa –  parts of Bihar, Jharkhand and Uttar Pradesh News Source: News on AIR PM SVANidhi scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Governance In News: Under the PM SVANidhi scheme loans worth around 4,606 crore rupees have been disbursed to over 45 lakh beneficiaries. Has provided a platform for financial inclusion by facilitating the street vendors to carry out digital transactions. Has enabled the onboarding of 9,326 street vendors on food delivery platforms. About the Scheme Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs launched a scheme PM Street Vendor’s Atma Nirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) to empower Street Vendors by not only extending loans to them, but also for their holistic development and economic upliftment. The scheme intends to facilitate collateral free working capital loans of up to INR10,000/- of one-year tenure, to approximately 50 lakh street vendors, to help resume their businesses in the urban areas, including surrounding peri-urban/rural areas. The PM SVANidhi scheme offers incentives in the form of: Interest subsidy @ 7% per annum on regular repayment of loan Cashback upto INR1200/- per annum on undertaking prescribed digital transactions Eligibility for enhanced next tranche of loans Close to 2 million applications have been received under this scheme, of which 752191 have been sanctioned, and 218751 loans have already been disbursed. Eligibility Criteria: The PM SVANidhi scheme is available to all street vendors who are engaged in vending in urban areas as on or before March 24, 2020. The eligible vendors are identified as per following criteria: Street vendors in possession of Certificate of Vending/Identity Card issued by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs). The vendors, who have been identified in the survey but have not been issued Certificate of Vending/Identity Card; Provisional Certificate of Vending would be generated for such vendors through an IT based Platform. ULBs are encouraged to issue such vendors the permanent Certificate of Vending and Identification Card immediately and positively within a period of one month Street Vendors, left out of the ULB led identification survey or who have started vending after completion of the survey and have been issued Letter of Recommendation (LoR) to that effect by the ULB/Town Vending Committee (TVC). The vendors of surrounding development/peri-urban/rural areas vending in the geographical limits of the ULBs and have been issued Letter of Recommendation (LoR) to that effect by the ULB/TVC. About New Extension: Extension of lending period till December 2024; Introduction of 3rd loan of upto ₹50,000 in addition to 1st & 2nd loans of ₹10,000 and ₹20,000 respectively. To extend ‘SVANidhi Se Samriddhi’ component for all beneficiaries of PM SVANidhi scheme across the country. News Source: News on AIR Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Governance In News: Telecom Regulatory Authority of India has released a Consultation Paper on Telecommunication Infrastructure Sharing, Spectrum Sharing and Spectrum Leasing. Objective: To promote optimum resource utilization among the licensees – it is proposed to allow sharing of all kinds of telecom infrastructure and network elements among all categories of service providers. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) It is a statutory body, established in 1997 by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997 It is headed by a chairman and not more than two full-time members and not more than two part-time members. TRAI is administered through a secretariat headed by a secretary. It comes under Ministry of Communications and Broadcasting. The TRAI Act was amended by an ordinance, effective from 24 January 2000, establishing a Telecommunications Dispute Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) to take over the adjudicatory and disputes functions from TRAI. TDSAT was set up to adjudicate any dispute between a licensor and a licensee, between two or more service providers, between a service provider and a group of consumers, and to hear and dispose of appeals against any direction, decision or order of TRAI. TRAI has brought out the Mycall app, MySpeed app and Do not disturb (DND 2.0) apps to ensure that there is transparency between what consumers are paying for and what telecom operators are promising to provide at a certain rate. Ensures welfare of citizens: to create and nurture conditions for growth of telecommunications in India to enable the country to have a leading role in the emerging global information society. to provide a fair and transparent environment that promotes a level playing field and facilitates fair competition in the market. issue orders and directions on various subjects such as tariffs, interconnections, quality of service, Direct To Home (DTH) services and mobile number portability. to regulate telecommunication services, adjudicate disputes, dispose appeals and protect the interest of the service providers as well as consumers. To establish standards for Quality of Services (QoS) and supervise how service providers share revenue To conduct periodical surveys to ensure that telecom service providers are acting in the best interest of consumers and are opening in compliance with universal service obligations. Recommend government or the license providers on Efficient management of available spectrum, the introduction of new service provider, Revocation of license for non-compliance, Technological improvements in the services and so on. Connecting the dots: 5G: Roadblocks & Way Ahead Need for reforms in Telecom Sector India’s Waterways and its Potential Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Infrastructure In News: PM Modi unveils inland waterways projects worth over Rs 1000 crore to increase transport, trade & tourism in eastern India. He flagged off World’s Longest River Cruise-MV Ganga Vilas at Varanasi. Declared that this is the decade of transformation of infrastructure in the country. Potential of Waterways in India India has great potential in waterways transport. In 2014 there were only five waterways in the country now this number is 111 and around two dozen are functional and transportation of cargo has increased triple times. The inland water transport is a cheap, fuel-efficient, environment-friendly mode with a higher employment generation potential and is suitable for heavy and bulky goods. But, the share of inland water transport in total transport in India is only around 3.5 per cent. Status of inland water transport: The Government of India is working to develop inland waterways as an alternative mode of transport in the country, which is cleaner and cheaper than both road and rail transport. There are 111 National Waterways in the country today, after 106 waterways were declared as National Waterways, adding to the list of 5 existing NW, in 2016. Some of the National Waterways in the country are already operational/navigable and are being used for transportation. Some of these include Ganga system, Brahmaputra system, etc. The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is working on developing the new National Waterways and enhancing their navigational potential. As per the feasibility reports completed so far, 36 NWs have been found to be technically viable. Out of these 36 NWs, developmental activities have been initiated on the following 8 NWs in 2017-18. Exploring the untapped potential: RIS (River Information system) has been implemented in some places where RIS is a combination of tracking and meteorological equipment with specialized software designed to optimize traffic and transport processes in inland navigation. Moving a step ahead towards ensuring optimum use of National Waterways, the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) also launched a portal LADIS – Least Available Depth Information System. The Jal Marg Vikas Project (JMVP), for capacity augmentation of navigation on National Waterway-1 (NW-1), has also been approved. New integrated systems are being developed wherein the waterway will form part of a larger multi-modal transport network having linkage with the Eastern Dedicated Rail Freight Corridor and also with the area’s existing network of highways. Economic benefits due to expansion of waterways: A well-coordinated inland waterways network could bring a fundamental alteration in the logistics scenario of the country. It represents a ready-built infrastructure network, which can be utilised without any further capital investment. Waterways do not involve challenges associated with land acquisition, which has always been a sensitive issue, causing time and cost overruns of numerous projects. The significant investment which India needs to build its roads/highways infrastructure network can be conserved through increased utilisation of the waterways. Waterways are a cheaper mode of transportation vis-à-vis the available alternatives, significantly reducing the point-to-point cost of goods transportation. As per a recent study of the Integrated National Waterways Transportation Grid, one litre of fuel will move 24 tons through one kilometre on road, 95 on rail and 215 kilometres on inland water transport. Movement of goods and passengers through inland waterways would necessitate setting up large number of landing and loading/unloading points. This has the potential to open up large and accessible hinterland for supply of goods which can be transported at a lower cost. Implementation of the national waterways network is, however, fraught with challenges like –  There is seasonal fall in water levels particularly rain-fed rivers of peninsular India which are almost dry during summer. Less flow of water due to diversion of water for irrigation. Hard for even steamboats to sail. Example: Ganga. Reduced navigability due to siltation, waterfalls and cataracts in rivers and salinity in coastal rivers. Dredging carried out to maintain a minimum depth of water may negatively affect the aquatic ecosystem, and entry of saline water into creeks in coastal areas. Lack of Public Funds: The financing requirement for NWs is huge and open-ended. Heavy investment will be needed to procure equipment, including dredgers, shipping vessels, and barges of different sizes. Disinterest by Private Players: Even after liberalisation and economic reforms, there has been very less active participation from private players in this sector. The channel draft of the national waterways is not uniform at 2 meters throughout the year, as is required. Some of these rivers are seasonal and do not offer navigability through the year. Around 20 out of the 111 identified national waterways have reportedly been found unviable. Further, all the identified waterways require intensive capital and maintenance dredging, which could be resisted by the local community on environmental grounds, including displacement fears, thereby posing implementation challenges. Way Forward As every riverine system is unique and presents diverse challenges, separate studies based on a detailed micro-level review to assess viability need to be done for each, before taking up implementation. An effective waterways network would necessitate drawing up a well-coordinated strategy on lines of complementarity between the national network and other waterways, not declared as such, as well as between waterways and roadways/railways. The said strategy should closely look into the various undercurrents, including competing uses/needs, possible local resistance and also work closely and in coordination with local governments for quick and successful implementation of this important national project. Map of important inland waterways [Source: Inland Waterways Authority of India] Image source: Maps of India Source: Centre and State powers over Water Resources Linking Rivers Need for stronger mental health strategy Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, the 5th Global Mental Health Summit, cosponsored by more than a half-dozen mental health organizations, was held in Chennai in December 2022 to discuss mental health in the context of human rights, ethics, and justice. It emphasized the importance of mental health and issued a call to action against society’s general neglect and, in particular, the governments at the federal and state levels. About Mental Health: It is a state of mental well-being that enables people to cope with the stresses of life, realize their abilities, learn well and work well, and contribute to their community. The World Health Organization (WHO) defines health as ” a state of physical, mental, social and spiritual well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity”. WHO defines mental health as mental well-being in which an individual realizes his or her own abilities, can cope with the normal stresses of life, can work productively and is able to contribute to his or her community. In this sense, mental health is the foundation for individual well-being and the efficient operation of a community. It is a basic human right. And it is crucial to personal, community, and socio-economic development. Types of Mental Disorders: Causes of Mental Illness: Individual psychological and biological factors such as emotional skills, substance use and genetics can make people more vulnerable to mental health problems. associated with them have had a detrimental effect on mental well-being Early adverse life experiences, such as trauma or a history of abuse (for example, child abuse, sexual assault, witnessing violence, etc.) Exposure to unfavourable social, economic, geopolitical and environmental circumstances – including poverty, violence, inequality and environmental deprivation – also increases people’s risk of experiencing mental health conditions. Over the past two years, the pandemic-led lockdowns and the uncertainties lead mental illness Use of alcohol or drugs Having feelings of loneliness or isolation. Issues and Concerns associated with mental illness: Mental health problems have been growing rapidly over the last few decades. In 2015, the GOI carried out a National Mental Health Survey — 2015-16 to assess the prevalence of mental health in the country. The report showed mental disorders at 10.6 per cent among above 18-year-olds, 16 per cent among the productive age group of 30-49-year-olds — and lifetime morbidity affecting 150 million people with one per cent reporting high suicidal risk. The human resources and treatment facilities are woefully low. For policymakers, mental health is a low priority. Such poor policy attention is often ascribed to indifference among bureaucrats and politicians. Designing a policy is the most challenging piece of policy-making. National Mental Health Survey The Government of India conducted a National Mental Health Survey — 2015-16 in 2015 to assess the prevalence of mental health in the country. According to the report, mental disorders affect 10.6 percent of people over the age of 18, 16 % of people in the productive age group of 30-49 years old, and 150 million people have lifetime morbidity, with one percent reporting a high suicidal risk. Even so, human resources and treatment facilities are woefully inadequate. Madhya Pradesh 0.05 psychiatrists per lakh people, and the treatment gap in India is approximately 80%. In 2019, the Union government allocated Rs 600 crore to tertiary institutions such as NIMHANS and medical college psychiatry departments, leaving only Rs 40 crore for the District Mental Health Programme and other community-based initiatives, despite an estimated need of over Rs 93,000 crore investment to address this massive morbidity. Only Rs 2.91 crore of the pitiable sum of Rs 40 crore was spent. Need of Mental Health Policy Without the active participation of community leaders, implementation among the poorest and most marginalized, particularly criminalized groups, would have been impossible. Despite the fact that the central government fully funded the central sector program, each intervention was developed with active participation and dialogue among the states and, more importantly, the affected constituencies. A similar approach is required when developing a good, implementable mental health strategy. It is so intertwined with the type of society we live in — the pressures and stress caused by poverty and growing inequalities of opportunity, the frustrations of joblessness, the judgmental and discriminatory environment due to social barriers of caste, gender, religion, and so on are powerful triggers — that if completely unaddressed, the ailment can recur despite medication. The limitations of the biomedical approach and confining patients in hospitals are now recognized and supported by evidence. Mental health is even more complicated than HIV/AIDS because mental disorders are not a one-time ailment that can be cured with certain medications. Government of India Initiatives: The Government has developed comprehensive Training Modules for Healthcare Providers to deal with Post COVID Mental Health Issues to equip Doctors, Nurses, paramedical healthcare workers, community health workers and other frontline workers with knowledge and skills to provide psychosocial support to those affected by post COVID mental health issues. the Government has announced a “National Tele Mental Health Programme” in the Budget of 2022-23, to further improve access to quality mental health counselling and care services in the country. As mandated by the Mental Healthcare Act, of 2017, mental healthcare services have been integrated into general healthcare services like National Health Mission, PMSSY, Rashtriya Kishore Swasthya Karyakram, AYUSHMAN Bharat, PMJAY, etc. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding The Association of Man-made Fibre Industry of India (AMFII): AMFII was registered as a Private Limited Company under section 25 A of the Companies Act 1956 The Association also acts as a liaison body on behalf of the industry and communicates with the Chambers of Commerce The Association has its Registered Office in Delhi Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) The term “ Lantana Camara ” often mentioned in news, is related to Native plant species Malware Invasive plant species A bug Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Ebola Disease: It is a fungal disease It is mainly found in animals It is spread through direct contact with body fluids ― blood, saliva, sweat, tears, mucus, vomit, faeces, breast milk, urine and semen of people infected with it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 14th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 13th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) United Nations Institute for Water, Environment and Health (UNU-INWEH) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: A report was recently released by United Nations Institute for Water, Environment and Health (UNU-INWEH) that stated that world will lose 26% storage by 2050 to trapped sediment. About UNU-INWEH: UNU-INWEH was established in 1996 as subsidiary body of the United Nations University (UNU) institutes and an academic arm of the UN. Its operations are secured through long-term host-country and core-funding agreements with the Government of Canada. The Institute is located in Hamilton, Canada; its facilities are supported by McMaster University. It specializes on water for development, working, primarily with countries in the Global South, and addressing water issues of global significance. It is the UN Think Tank on Water created by the UNU Governing Council. UNU-INWEH is the only Institute in UNU that focuses entirely and solely on water issues. It is also the only entirely water-focused UN entity in Canada. UNU-INWEH is linked to key processes in the UN system, and represents the entire UNU in UN-Water – a cross-agency group in the UN and international partners working on water and sanitation issues globally. Important findings of the report: About 50,000 large dams across the world will lose 24-28 % water storage capacity by 2050 due to sediment trapped in them. These water reservoirs have already lost about 13-19 % capacity to sedimentation. Sedimentation is caused when a river carrying eroded soil is blocked by a dam at its watershed. Sediment helps to maintain the aquatic ecosystem. Poor management Sedimentation can lead to nutritional disbalances causing eutrophication, damages in habitations downstream, choke of dam and turbine system. Shallow water formed due to sedimentation also reduces the recreational value of the reservoirs. United Kingdom, Panama, Ireland, Japan and Seychelles will experience highest water storage losses by 2050 losing between 35% and 50% of their original capacities. Bhutan, Cambodia, Ethiopia, Guinea and Niger will be five least-affected countries losing less than 15 % by 2050. Dredging can be costly and only temporary. Dredging- to clear the mud from the bottom of a river, canal, etc. using a special machine. Major highlights of the report in the Asia-Pacific region: Asia has 35,252 large dams, making it the world’s most heavily dammed region. Region has 60% of the world’s population and water storage is crucial for sustaining water and food security. In 2022, region will lose 13% of its initial dam storage capacity. It will lose nearly a quarter (23%) of initial storage capacity by 2050. Loss of storage capacity of Japan’s 3,052 dams is most acute in the region. India’s Central Water Commission reported in 2015 that- Among 141 large reservoirs that are over 50 years old, one-quarter had already lost at least 30% of their initial storage capacity. UNU-INWEH estimates that India’s 3,700 large dams will have lost on average 26% of their initial total storage by 2050. China, world’s most heavily dammed nation has lost about 10% of its storage and will lose a further 10% by 2050. Source:  DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organisation. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”? (2022) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country Ignoring the consequences disastrous ecological while infrastructure development undertaking Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme Golden Globes Award Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Miscellaneous Context: Recently, Naatu Naatu song from SS Rajamouli’s epic movie RRR, won the Best Original Song in the 80th Golden Globe Awards. About the Golden Globes Award: The Awards are accolades bestowed by the Hollywood Foreign Press Association (HFPA). It started in 1944, recognizing excellence in both American and international film and television. There are 105 members of the HFPA. The eligibility period for the Golden Globes corresponds to the calendar year (from January 1 through December 31). Naatu Naatu is the first Asian song to win the Golden Globe honour. AR Rahman was the first Indian to win a Golden Globe award in Best Score category for the film Slumdog Millionaire, a 2008 British drama film by Danny Boyle. The Hollywood Foreign Press Association (HFPA): HFPA or Hollywood Foreign Press Association is the organisation behind the awards. HFPA is a non-profit outfit made up of journalists and photographers on the entertainment beat in different media like newspapers, magazines, books, radio, and TV broadcasting in the United States. As the word ‘foreign’ implies, most of the members of HFPA are non-US citizens. At the time of writing this, HFPA consists of 105 members from 55 countries. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards: Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements are not correct? (2021) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000: American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award. The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others. Which of the above statements are correct? (2021) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.3) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Indian skimmer Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Around 250 Indian Skimmers, which has been included in the IUCN Red list of endangered species, were sighted in Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary in a day during the Asian Waterbird Census-2023. About Indian Skimmer: The Indian skimmer also known as Indian scissors-bill (Rynchops albicollis) is one of the three species that belong to the skimmer genus Rynchops. They are mainly found in rivers or estuaries. It is found in southern Asia, where it is patchily distributed and declining in numbers. Distribution: At present, the last strongholds of the Indian Skimmer are India and Bangladesh. IUCN status: Endangered Source:             The Hindu Defence Acquisition Council Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) accorded Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for three capital acquisition proposals amounting to ₹4,276 crore. It includes Helicopter launched Nag (HELINA), Very Short-Range Air Defence Systems (VSHORAD) and BrahMos cruise missile launcher and Fire Control System (FCS) for naval ships. About DAC: DAC is the highest decision-making body in the Defence Ministry for deciding on new policies and capital acquisitions for the three services – Army, Navy and Air Force, and the Indian Coast Guard. The Defence Acquisition Council is headed by the Defence Minister. Members: Minister of State for Defence, Chief of Army Staff, Chief of Naval Staff, Chief of Air Staff, Defence Secretary, Secretary Defence Research and Development, Secretary Defence Production, Chief of Integrated Staff Committees HQ IDS, Director General (Acquisition, Dy. Chief of Integrated Defence-Staff Member Secretary. It was formed, after the Group of Ministers recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post Kargil War (1999). About HELINA Missiles Missile is developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). It is helicopter-launched version of the Nag Anti-Tank Guided Missiles (ATGM). Air Force variant of NAG missile is known as ‘Dhruvastra’. It’s a third generation ‘fire-and-forget’ class missile. It can be mounted on Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH). Features of HELINA Missiles: Missile system has all- weather day and night operational capabilities. It can defeat battle tanks with conventional amour as well as explosive reactive amour (ERA). Missile can engage targets both in direct hit mode as well as top attack mode. Top attack mode: It requires to climb sharply after launch and travel at a certain altitude then plunge on the top of the target. Direct hit mode: It travels at a lower altitude directly striking the target. About Very Short-Range Air Defence Systems (VSHORAD): It is designed and developed indigenously by DRDO’s Research Centre Imarat (RCI), Hyderabad, in collaboration with DRDO laboratories and Indian Industry Partners. It meant to kill low altitude aerial threats at short ranges. India has been in talks with Russia since 2018 to procure the Igla-S air defence missiles at a cost of $1.5 billion under the VSHORAD programme in a bid to replace the Russian Igla-M systems. Features of VSHORAD: It is a man portable Air Defence System (MANPAD). It is a robust and quickly deployable system, which will strengthen India’s air defence capabilities. Missile is propelled by a dual thrust solid motor—incorporates many novel technologies including miniaturized Reaction Control System (RCS) and integrated avionics. Source: Indian Express White Tufted Royal Butterfly Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Economy Context: A team of butterfly observers have recently found White Tufted Royal Butterfly, a rare butterfly species at Kalliyad in Kannur. The species had earlier been spotted in Agasthyakoodam in 2017 and the Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary in 2018. About White Tufted Royal Butterfly: It is protected under Schedule 2 of the Wildlife Protection Act 1972. Its wingspan is just 32-40 mm. Its larvae feed on Scurrula parasitica, a plant belonging to the Loranthaceae family. It is also known as Pratapa deva. It is found in Indomalayan realm. There are eight species of this butterfly where 2 are common and others rare. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider National Commission for Protection of Child Rights Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity In News: National Commission for Protection of Child Rights is celebrating its 18th Foundation Day. A Quiz was launched by the Commission on the occasion of National Youth Day (Swami Vivekananda Jayanti) to create awareness among children about child rights. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights The Commission is a statutory body constituted under Section 3 of the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005 It aims to protect the child rights and other related matters in the country. The Commission is further mandated to monitor the proper and effective implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012; Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 and Right to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009. In one of the functions laid down under Section 13 of the CPCR Act, 2005, the Commission has been assigned with the function to examine and review the safeguards provided by or under any law for the time being in force for the protection of child rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation. The Commission also has the powers of Civil Court trying a suit under Section 14 of CPCR Act, 2005 and Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. It works under the aegis of Ministry of Women and Child Development Source: PIB Previous Year Question Q1) Consider the following statements: (2017) The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only CII Bio-Energy Summit Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: The Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas & Housing and Urban Affairs was addressing the 11th edition of CII Bio-Energy Summit. India has increased the ethanol blending in petrol from 1.53% in 2013-14 to 10.17% in 2022. setting up 2G refineries to make ethanol from Parali (Panipat) and Bamboo (Numaligarh) with the twin objective of reducing pollution along with achieving energy security goals is another milestone in this direction. Green Hydrogen Policy with a production target of 5 million tonnes by 2030 and aims to produce 4 MT Green Hydrogen annually & accrue Rs. 1 lakh crore of cumulative fossil fuel import savings by 2030. The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) CII is a non-government, not-for-profit, industry-led and industry-managed organization It was founded in 1895 It has 9000 members from the private as well as public sectors, including SMEs and MNCs, and an indirect membership of over 300,000 enterprises from 286 national and regional sectoral industry bodies. With 62 offices, including 10 Centres of Excellence, in India, and 8 overseas offices in Australia, Egypt, Germany, Indonesia, Singapore, UAE, UK, and USA, as well as institutional partnerships with 350 counterpart organizations in 133 countries, CII serves as a reference point for Indian industry and the international business community. Aim: It works to create and sustain an environment conducive to the development of India, partnering Industry, Government and civil society, through advisory and consultative processes. Functions: CII charts change by working closely with Government on policy issues, interfacing with thought leaders, and enhancing efficiency, competitiveness and business opportunities for industry through a range of specialized services and strategic global linkages. It also provides a platform for consensus-building and networking on key issues. CII assists industry to identify and execute corporate citizenship programmes. Partnerships with civil society organizations carry forward corporate initiatives for integrated and inclusive development across diverse domains including affirmative action, livelihoods, diversity management, skill development, empowerment of women, and sustainable development, to name a few. Source: PIB Local Bubble Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: Researchers from the Center for Astrophysics (CfA) | Harvard & Smithsonian have generated a 3D magnetic map of the cavity called Local Bubble. Local Bubble: It is a 1,000-light-year-wide cavity or a superbubble. Local Bubble is thought to have originated from supernovae roughly 14 million years ago.  (Supernova is a cosmic explosion occurring when stars meet their end) Other superbubbles also exist in the Milky Way – Superbubbles are comparable to holes in Swiss cheese – Supernova explosions blow holes in the cheese and new stars form around these holes Significance: Superbubbles trigger the formation of new stars and planets and influence the overall shapes of galaxies Star-forming regions occur along the bubble’s surface. About the study: Mechanisms powering the formation and expansion of the Local Bubble are not well-understood Further, there is little information on how magnetic fields likely impact the bubble and local star formation. To generate a magnetic map of the Local Bubble, Gaia and Planck were used — space-based observatories launched by the European Space Agency (ESA) Gaia was used to identify the location and local concentration of cosmic dust. This helped them trace the boundaries of the Local Bubble. Planck provided information on the magnetic alignment of cosmic dust. This alignment can indicate the orientation of the magnetic field acting on the dust particles, allowing the researchers to generate a 3D magnetic field orientation on the surface of the Local Bubble It is expected to improve the 3-D map’s accuracy with technology and a clearer understanding of the Local Bubble Source: DTE Previous Year Question Q.1) Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of universe? (2012) Detection of microwaves in space Observation of redshift phenomenon in space Movement of asteroids in space Occurrence of supernova explosions in space code Which of the following statements are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1, 3 and 4 None of the above Basmati Rice Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: In a bid to promote the business around basmati rice, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) notified standards for basmati rice based on parameters such as average size of grains and their elongation ratio after cooking, to be enforced from August 1, 2023. It has set the maximum limits for moisture, amylose content, uric acid, damaged grains and presence of non-basmati rice. About the standards: The standards are applicable to brown basmati rice, milled basmati rice, parboiled brown basmati rice and milled parboiled basmati rice. Aim – To establish fair practices in trade of basmati and to protect consumer interest To ensure the basmati rice sold in the market has the characteristic fragrance identified with this variety and is free from artificial fragrances and colouring. Basmati Rice: Basmati rice is cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of the Indian subcontinent. The specific agro-climatic conditions, processing techniques such as harvesting and ageing are said to make this rice unique. In India, rice grown in specific parts of Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Delhi, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir can be labelled as basmati. Basmati rice is exported out of India and had an annual forex earning of Rs 25,053 crore during 2021-22. India accounts for two-thirds of the global supply of basmati rice Basmati rice is just one of the thousands of rice varieties available in India. However, this fragrant rice has invited the most controversy. In 2020, India’s application for a geographical indication tag recognised in the European Union market was put on hold after Pakistan opposed the move. A patent contested in 2000 by Centre for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), (India’s premier science and industry organisation) said the term ‘basmati’ could be used only for rice grown in India and Pakistan. In 2001, a final decision ensured that the US company could no longer use basmati in their name. GI Tag: A GI tag is primarily given to an agricultural, natural or a manufactured product (handicrafts and industrial goods) originating from a definite geographical territory. Typically, such a name conveys an assurance of quality and distinctiveness, which is essentially attributable to the place of its origin. GI tag in India is governed by Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999. It is issued by the Geographical Indications Registry (Chennai). This tag is valid for a period of 10 years following which it can be renewed. Benefits of GI Tag: It provides legal protection to Indian Geographical Indications thus preventing unauthorized use of the registered GIs by others. It promotes economic prosperity of producers of goods produced in a geographical territory. The GI protection in India leads to recognition of the product in other countries thus boosting exports. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI): Aim: FSSAI has been created for laying down science based standards for articles of food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import to ensure availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption. About: It is an autonomous, statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 (FSS Act). The Act aims to establish a single reference point for all matters relating to food safety and standards, by moving from multi- level, multi-departmental control to a single line of command. Ministry: Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. It comprises a Chairperson and twenty two members out of which one – third are to be women. The Chairperson of FSSAI is appointed by the Central Government. The primary responsibility for enforcement is largely with the State Food Safety Commissioners. Source DTE Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to pre-packed items in India, it is mandatory to the manufacturer to put which of the following information on the main label, as per the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labelling) Regulation, 2011? (2016) List of ingredients including additives Nutrition information Recommendations, if any, made by the medical profession about the possibility of any allergic reaction Vegetarian/non-vegetarian Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only 1 and 4 only India’s Cultural Renaissance – Kashi Tamil Sangamam Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Art and Culture) Context: The month-long Kashi Tamil Sangamam, which showcased Tamil culture, heralded a new era where ancient Indian traditions intermingle with one another and are revitalized with the help of modern practices so that they contribute to cultural and economic growth. It gave a rich cultural context to India’s mission to become a developed country by 2047. The event carried forward our tradition of Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat. About Kashi Tamil Sangamam: The Kashi Tamil Sangamam commemorates a variety of characteristics of the North and South of India’s shared history and culture. The overarching goal is to strengthen the bonds between the peoples of the North and the South by bringing their respective knowledge systems and cultural traditions closer together. It is being put on by the Ministry of Education in association with the Government of Uttar Pradesh and other ministries including Culture, Textiles, Railways, Tourism, Food Processing, Information and Broadcasting, etc. The project is in line with the National Education Policy (NEP), which places a strong emphasis on fusing the richness of Indian Knowledge Systems with contemporary knowledge systems by the year 2020. The program’s two implementing organisations are IIT Madras and Banaras Hindu University (BHU). Ancient links associated with the Sangamam: Kashi, one of the oldest living cities in the world, and Tamil Nadu, where people proudly speak the world’s oldest language, are towering pillars of ancient Indian civilization. Both have rich, old arts, music, craftsmanship, philosophy, spirituality, and literary traditions. Since ancient times, higher education in Southern India was not considered complete without a visit by the scholar to Kashi. People from Rameswaram would take a dip in the Koti Teertha (in the temple) before visiting Kashi for darshan, and they would bring back water (Ganga) from Kashi for abhiseka at the temple in Rameswaram. The government’s initiative to build the landmark Kashi Vishwanath corridor, which connects the Jyotirlinga with the Ganga, embellishes traditions with a touch of modernity for the benefit of residents and visitors. Cultural Significance: In order to construct a temple for Lord Shiva, King Parakrama Pandya of the area around Madurai in the 15th century travelled to Kashi (Uttar Pradesh) and brought back a lingam. He took a break under a tree while travelling back, but when he tried to move on, the cow carrying the lingam stood still. When Parakrama Pandya realised that this was the Lord’s intention, he put the lingam in the area, which later became known as Sivakasi, Tamil Nadu. The Pandyas had constructed the Kasi Viswanathar Temple for devotees who could not go to Kashi at what is now Tenkasi in southern Tamil Nadu, near to the state’s border with Kerala. Overall Significance of the Sangamam: Integrating Heritage: The Sangamam created a unique platform to rediscover and integrate our heritage and ancient knowledge with modern thought, philosophy, technology, and craftsmanship. This creates a new body of knowledge and fosters innovations that will help our artisans, weavers, entrepreneurs, and traders. For instance, Varanasi is well known for Banarasi silk saris, and Kancheepuram, for its shimmering silk saris. Weavers and entrepreneurs from both regions have a lot to gain from interacting with each other and from their exposure to modern practices of branding, quality control, marketing, product consistency, the use of modern machinery, and value addition. Facilitation through government policies: The Sangamam was in step with the entire spectrum of this government’s policies. These policies accord top priority to accelerating development with a focus on the welfare of the poorest of the poor, love for Indian culture, and promoting local industries and handicrafts. One District One Product: The government is strongly promoting the One District One Product scheme that will take Indian products to the world market. The Prime Minister of India is a brand ambassador for these products and gifts them to world leaders. Traditional wooden toys of Varanasi are getting more export inquiries and are being showcased in international business exhibitions. Traditional products: Traditional products will also get a big boost from other government initiatives such as the Open Network for Digital Commerce and the Government e-Marketplace. The need to focus on textiles sector: Potential of the textile sector: The textile sector, which has great job-creating potential, is a key part of our mission to become a developed country by 2047. India’s textiles market is expected to grow at a CAGR of 12-13% to nearly $2 trillion by 2047, while exports from the sector are expected to grow at double digits. Textiles Conclave: The government organized a ‘textiles conclave’ during the Sangamam. Several eminent personalities of different segments of the textile industry from Tamil Nadu and Kashi shared their experiences and exchanged ideas at a session on Amrit Kaal Vision 2047. They were excited and confident about the government’s vision of raising textiles exports to $100 billion by 2030 and creating new opportunities in the sector. 5F formula: 5F formula (farm, fibre, fabric, fashion, foreign) will accelerate growth in the sector and transform the lives of farmers and weavers. Kashi and Tamil Nadu have a key role to play to achieve this vision. Technical textile: The government is also encouraging technical textiles, which have phenomenal potential. These products include functional textiles that are used in vehicles, protective clothing, bulletproof vests, and construction. Man-made fibre, also an area of focus, has great potential for growth and exports. Way Forward: Around 2 lakh people visited the campus of the Banaras Hindu University which hosted cultural shows and a popular exhibition that highlighted Tamil products and cuisine. The Sangamam has ignited a new cultural zeal in India and whetted the country’s appetite for more. The Sangamam is the beginning of India’s cultural renaissance that is not limited to the bonding of Tamil Nadu and Kashi. It will also extend to all cultures across this Bharathabhoomi  and make this country Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam. Source:  The Hindu Swami Vivekananda Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 1 Indian Society, GS 4 lessons from lives of social reformers Context: January 12 2023 marks the 161st birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda It is observed as National Youth Day. His message of love, compassion and universal acceptance is as relevant today as it was when he first delivered it over a hundred years ago. Swami Vivekananda: Named Narendra Nath Datta, Swami Vivekananda was an Indian monk who is known for his intellectual contributions to the field of religion. A chief disciple of Ramakrishna Paramhansa, Vivekananda is known to have introduced Hindu philosophies of Yoga and Vedanta to the western world. He is remembered as the founder of the Ramakrishna Mission and the Ramakrishna Math. His best known presence in the West is his speech at the Parliament of the world’s religions in 1893 where he introduced the basic concepts of Hinduism to an international audience. After this session at Chicago, Vivekananda toured around several parts of USA and UK, spreading philosophies on religion. The aspect of Hinduism that Vivekananda represented is known as ‘neo-Vedanta’ which is an interpretation of Hinduism through a Western esoteric lens. He died on July 4, 1902, while he was meditating. Subhas Chandra Bose had once remarked that Vivekananda was the “maker of modern India.” Books: Raja Yoga Karma Yoga Meditation and Its Methods Vedanta: Voice of Freedom Lectures on Bhagavad Gita My India: The India Eternal Powers of The Mind My Master Essentials of Hinduism Living at the Source My Idea of Education Work and Its Secret To the Youth of India Pearls of Wisdom Women of India Life after Death The East and the West Religion of Love About his teachings: Spiritual primacy is the central theme of Vivekananda’s teachings, through which human beings can succeed in every sphere of their lives. Reason he premises his philosophy, ideas and life work on the premise of reason and urges people, especially the youth, to never let go of reason. Three instruments of knowledge that he propounded are instincts, reason, and inspiration Vedantic Humanism There is only one Self in the universe. There is only one Existence. The entire universe is a manifestation of the absolute One. Religious acceptance was important and not tolerance because tolerance comes out of a superiority complex. The most desirable path for self-realisation was the selfless service of man. Each and every chore of your life should be done with divinity. External rituals of religion are of secondary importance but the spiritual essence of a religion should be preserved and accepted. Divinity within ourselves He asserted that each soul is potentially divine and the goal of human beings should be to manifest this divinity within, which can be done by controlling nature, external and internal. Means of attaining Moksha from worldly pleasure and attachment Karma Yoga, Bhakti Yoga, Raja Yoga Karma Yoga Emphasising the importance of work, he said that God can be attained through work. A lot of people fritter away a great amount of their energies because they are oblivious to the secret of work Karma Yoga teaches how to employ to the maximum advantage all our energies in our work. Karma-Yoga teaches how to work for work’s sake, unattached to the results. Bhakti Yoga Bhakti Yoga teaches that love is a vital element of all human beings. It teaches how to love bereft of any ulterior motives All love is expansion, all selfishness is contraction. Raja Yoga Raja Yoga opens up the psychological way to union with God. More the power of concentration, the more knowledge is acquired. For example, a chemist who works in her laboratory, concentrating all the powers of her mind, bringing them into one focus, and throwing them onto the elements; the elements stand analysed and thus her knowledge comes. Faith in oneself All knowledge, power, purity, and freedom are in oneself If you think yourselves weak, weak you will be; if you think yourselves strong, strong you will be Not shy away from taking responsibility for their actions Significance of his teachings: He emphasised on the importance of Religious acceptance He emphasised that religion is a topic of experience and peace can only last if people understand the real meaning of religion, practise it in their daily lives and feel one with it. He preached that the essential unity of all human beings can be realised are unconditional love for all, judicious detachment, and expansion of self through service of fellow humans despite any sectarian difference He taught to not shy away from taking responsibility for one’s actions Education was the primary means for empowering the people – to equip people for the struggle for life, to bring out strength of character, a spirit of philanthropy, and the courage of a lion. His vision also gave rise to the idea of Antyodaya – Until the upliftment of the last poor person in the country is ensured, development is meaningless. Swami Vivekananda combined thinking of different religions, communities and traditions to inspire liberation from inertia. Way forward: Government of India sanctioned a “Value Education Project” of the Ramakrishna Mission to help to inculcate in children a moral compass and a value system against the tide of commercialism and consumerism that is sweeping our societies. The Government has embarked on the mission of building a united, strong and modern India to fulfil the vision of the great thinkers like Vivekananda. Such as “Ek Bharat, Shreshtha Bharat”, following the principle of “Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas”. Source Indian express Baba’s Explainer – Ozone Hole Recovery Ozone Hole Recovery Syllabus GS-2: International Organisations GS-3: Basic Science; Environmental Conservation Context: The ozone ‘hole’, once considered to be the gravest danger to planetary life, is now expected to be completely repaired by 2066. Read Complete Details on Ozone Hole Recovery Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Recently in News, “Gaia and Planck” are space-based observatories, launched by which of the following: European Space Agency (ESA) National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) Virgin Galactic SpaceX Q.2) With reference to ‘Basmati Rice’, consider the following statements? Only India has a Geographical Indication (GI) tag for Basmati Rice. It is grown in Himalayan foothills of India. Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Institute for Water, Environment and Health (UNU-INWEH): It is an academic arm of the World Bank. The Institute is located in Hamilton, Canada and its facilities are supported by McMaster University. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 13th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 12th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - Ozone Hole Recovery

 ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-2: International Organisations GS-3: Basic Science; Environmental Conservation Context: The ozone ‘hole’, once considered to be the gravest danger to planetary life, is now expected to be completely repaired by 2066. How was Ozone layer damaged? Ozone, chemically a molecule having three Oxygen atoms, or O3, is found mainly in stratosphere (10 -50 km from the Earth’s surface). It is critical for planetary life, since it absorbs ultraviolet rays coming from the Sun. UV rays are known to cause skin cancer and many other diseases and deformities in plants and animals. Therefore, Ozone layer acted as Earth’s natural sunscreen. In the 1980s, scientists began to notice a sharp drop in the concentration of ozone. This drop was much more pronounced over the South Pole. This thinning of the ozone layer over Antarctica came to be known as the ozone hole. Scientists had figured out that the chief cause of ozone depletion was the use of a class of industrial chemicals that contained chlorine, bromine or fluorine. The most common of these were the chlorofluorocarbons, or CFCs, that were used extensively in the air conditioning, refrigeration, paints, and furniture industries. The ozone hole over Antarctica is the biggest during the months of September, October, and November. What is MONTREAL PROTOCOL and how has it improved the situation? The ozone hole has been steadily improving since 2000, thanks to the effective implementation of the Montreal Protocol. Montreal protocol is an international environmental treaty for phasing out of production and consumption of Ozone Depleting Substances, which came into force in 1987. It has been reported that nearly 99 per cent of the substances banned by the Montreal Protocol have now been eliminated from use, resulting in a slow but definite recovery of the ozone layer. It is the first treaty in the history of the United Nations to achieve universal ratification. t is a time-bound process that is subjected to phase down the use of harmful Ozone-depleting substances in different timetables by developed and developing countries. There is a specific responsibility of all the member parties to control the ODS trade, phase out the groups of ODS, report annual data, and control the import and export of the depletion. Though Developed and developing countries are equal contributors, they have differentiated responsibilities. Under the Montreal Protocol, developing countries were not bound to cut down ODs if they had a high domestic need. The developing countries have also given technical assistance as per the suggestion by the UN. In order to help the developing countries with the provision of the Protocol, the Multilateral fund was established in 1991. UNEP, UNIDO, UNDP, and the Work bank were responsible for implementing the Fund activities. It assisted the developing countries that have a per capita ODS consumption of less than 0.3 kg The Protocol is governed by the Meeting of the parties. These parties are aided by the Ozone Secretariat. The Ozone Secretariat is based in Nairobi at the UNEP headquarters. Outcome of Montreal Protocol The latest scientific assessment has said that if current policies continued to be implemented, the ozone layer was expected to recover to 1980 values by 2066 over Antarctica, by 2045 over the Arctic, and by 2040 for the rest of the world. What is Kigali Amendment to Montreal protocol? Parties to the Montreal Protocol, under the Kigali Amendment, will phase down production and consumption of Hydrofluorocarbons, commonly known as HFCs. The Montreal Protocol, effective from 1989, is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances (especially chlorofluorocarbons (CFC)) that are responsible for ozone depletion. HFC were introduced as non-ozone depleting alternative to CFC such as R-12 and hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFC) such as R-21. While HFCs do not deplete the stratospheric ozone layer, they have high global warming potential ranging from 12 to 14,000, which have adverse impact on climate. Recognizing the growth in use of HFCs, especially in Refrigeration and Air-conditioning sector the Parties to the Montreal Protocol, reached another agreement in 2016 in Kigali, Rwanda to add HFCs to the list of controlled substances and approved a timeline for their gradual reduction by 80-85 per cent by the late 2040s. All amendments and adjustments of the Montreal Protocol, prior to the Kigali Amendment have Universal support. It has divided the signatory parties into three groups- The first group consists of rich and developed economies like USA, UK and EU countries who will start to phase down HFCs by 2019 and reduce it to 15% of 2012 levels by 2036. The second group consists of emerging economies like China, Brazil as well as some African countries who will start phase down by 2024 and reduce it to 20% of 2021 levels by 2045. The third group consists of developing economies and some of the hottest climatic countries like India, Pakistan, Iran, Saudi Arabia who will start phasing down HFCs by 2028 and reduce it to 15% of 2024-2026 levels till 2047. It also has a provision for a multilateral fund for developing countries for adaptation and mitigation. The phase down of HFCs is expected to Prevent the emission of up to 105 million tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent of greenhouse gases Avoid up to 0.5 degree Celsius of global temperature rise by 2100, while continuing to protect the ozone layer. India and Montreal Protocol India became a Party to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer on 19 June 1992 and since then has ratified the amendments to the Montreal Protocol and has successfully met the phase out targets of all the Ozone Depleting Substances as per the Montreal Protocol Schedule. As per Kigali agreement, India will complete its phase down of HFCs in 4 steps from 2032 onwards with cumulative reduction of 2024-2026 levels by 10% in 2032 20% in 2037 30% in 2042 85% in 2047. Can the Montreal protocol model be used to tackle Climate Action? The success of the Montreal Protocol in repairing the ozone hole is often offered as a model for climate action. It is argued that emissions of greenhouse gases can also similarly be curtailed to arrest rapidly rising global temperatures. The use of ODSs, though extensive, was restricted to some specific industries. Their replacements were readily available, even if at a slightly higher cost initially. The impact of banning these ozone-depleting chemicals was therefore limited to these specific sectors. The case of fossil fuels is very different. Emission of carbon dioxide is inextricably linked to the harnessing of energy. Almost every economic activity leads to carbon dioxide emissions. The emissions of methane, the other major greenhouse gas, comes mainly from agricultural practices and livestock. The impact of restraining greenhouse gas emissions is not limited to a few industries or economic sectors, but affects the entire economy, and also has implications for the quality of life, human lifestyles and habits and behaviours. Climate change, no doubt, is a far more difficult and complex problem than dealing with ozone depletion. Main Practice Question: What is the significance of Census? What is the implication of delay in 2021 census? Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Paigah Tombs complex Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Art and Culture Context: The necropolis (a large, designed cemetery with elaborate tomb monuments) of noblemen dating from the Asaf Jahi era known as Paigah Tombs complex in Hyderabad is set to be restored with funding by the U.S. Ambassadors Fund for Cultural Preservation. About Paigah Tombs complex: Paigah Tombs or Maqhbara Shams al-Umara, are the tombs belonging to the nobility of Paigah family, who were fierce loyalists of the Nizams. The Paigah tombs are among the major wonders of Hyderabad State which known for their architectural excellence. These tombs are 200 years old which represent the final resting places of several generations of the Paigah Nobles. One of the best examples of Indo Saracenic architecture, the tombs presents a beautiful blend of Asaf Jah and Rajputani style of architecture. Built of white marble, Paigah tombs captivate visitors with intricately designed interiors. Paigahs who married daughters of the Nizams were the highest ranking nobles in princely state of Hyderabad, after the family of Nizams. Paigahs were the only noble family who were permitted by the Sultan to have their private army. These tombs are magnificent structures, decorated in stucco work, and represent the Mughal, Greek, Persian, Asaf Jahi, Rajasthani and Decani style of architecture. Stucco or render is a construction material made of aggregates, a binder, and water. Stucco is applied wet and hardens to a very dense solid. It is used as a decorative coating for walls and ceilings, exterior walls, and as a sculptural and artistic material in architecture. The famous ‘Jali’ work makes it even more attractive. Each Tomb has been designed differently, ensuing a unique style and design. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts                      Location in the State of Dhauli                                                                     Odisha Erragudi                                                            Andhra Pradesh Jaugada                                                            Madhya Pradesh Kalsi                                                                       Karnataka How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: It is a circular temple built during the reign of Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2021) 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Delegated Legislation Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: Recently, the majority ruling of the Supreme Court upheld the validity of the delegated legislation in the Centre’s 2016 decision on demonetisation. About Delegated Legislation: Parliament routinely delegates certain functions to authorities established by law since every aspect cannot be dealt with directly by the lawmakers themselves. This delegation of powers is noted in statutes, which are commonly referred to as delegated legislation. The delegated legislation would specify operational details, giving power to those executing the details. Regulations and by-laws under the legislation are classic examples of delegated legislation. In 1973, the Supreme Court ruling explains the concept as: “The practice of empowering the Executive to make subordinate legislation within a prescribed sphere has evolved out of practical necessity and pragmatic needs of a modern welfare State”. Delegation of power in the demonetisation case Section 26(2) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 essentially gives powers to the Centre to notify that a particular denomination of currency ceases to be legal tender. A 1959 landmark ruling in Hamdard Davakhana v Union of India, the Supreme Court had struck down the delegation of powers on the grounds that it was vague. Supreme Court’s recent opinion on Delegation of powers: The majority verdict held that since the delegation of power is to the Centre which is anyway answerable to the Parliament, the delegation power cannot be struck down. In case the Executive does not act reasonably while exercising its power of delegated legislation, it is responsible to Parliament who are elected representatives of the citizens for whom there exists a democratic method of bringing to book the elected representatives who act unreasonably in such matters. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following statements: Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 3 only Q.2) With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only World Hindi Day 2023 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: On 10th January every year, World Hindi Day is celebrated to mark the anniversary of first time Hindi was spoken in the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA). About Hindi Language: The word Hindi came from a Persian word ‘Hind’, which means the land of the Indus River. Spoken Hindi has 4 varieties: High Hindi, Nagari Hindi, Literary Hindi, and standard Hindi. The earliest form of Hindi was called ‘Apabhramsa’, which was an offspring of Sanskrit. In 400 AD, poet Kalidas wrote Vikramorvashiyam in Apabhramsa. It is the third most spoken language in the world after English and Mandarin (Chinese). It belongs to Indo-Aryan language, widely spoken in Northern part of India. Mauritius, Fiji, Guyana, Suriname, Trinidad and Tobago and Nepal also have Hindi speaking population. Hindi written in Devanagari script is to be the official language of the Union. The other official language of the state is English since 1965. World Hindi Day (Vishwa Hindi Diwas): The purpose is to create awareness about the Indian language and promote it as a global language around the world. Indian Ministry of External Affairs celebrates this day every year since 2006. World Hindi Conference is observed every three years to spread awareness about the leading scholars and contributors to the language. First World Hindi Conference was organised in 1975. On this day, President of India presents the Rajbhasha awards to people for their contribution towards Hindi language. Hindi Diwas is celebrated on September 14 annually. It marks the birthday of Beohar Rajendra Sinha, who is also regarded as the main person behind making Hindi the official language of India. Source: Indian Express Zebrafish Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: According to a recent study by Agharkar Research Institute (ARI), Pune, a protein found in the backbone of zebrafish can have potential therapeutic implications. About Zebrafish: The zebrafish is a freshwater fish belonging to the member of the minnow family of fish. It is a popular aquarium fish. Zebrafish typically inhabit moderately flowing to stagnant clear water of quite shallow depth in streams, canals, ditches, oxbow lakes, ponds and rice paddies. Native to South Asia where it is found in India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal and Bhutan. The zebrafish is an important and widely used vertebrate model organism in scientific research, for example in drug development, in particular pre-clinical development. It is also notable for its regenerative abilities and has been modified by researchers to produce many transgenic strains. Significance of new study: A protein found in the backbone of zebrafish plays a positive role in disc maintenance and promotes regeneration in aged discs between vertebrae. This protein of zebrafish can have potential therapeutic implications to promote regeneration in degenerated human discs. In humans, discs degenerate naturally, leading to many related health concerns, including low back, neck, and appendage pain. Currently, only symptomatic treatments for disc degeneration are available, including pain relievers or anti-inflammatories. In severe cases, disc replacement or disc fusion surgery is performed. Transparent Embryo: Zebrafish are useful because the embryo is transparent, it develops outside of its mother, and its development from eggs to larvae happens in just three days. Faster development: The other main advantage is that they develop incredibly fast. So from a single cell the day they’re born, they will have a head, and a tail, and a beating heart within 24 hours. By 72 hours their brains are working, and fins and trunk are twitching, and by five days old they are swimming around and they’re hunting and they’re fully viable organisms. This is perfect essentially for both geneticists and developmental biologists. Source:  PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider National Youth Festival Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and culture In News: Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate the 26th National Youth Festival in Hubballi, Karnataka with the theme being “Viksit Yuva – Viksit Bharat”. National Youth Festival: The programme is being held on National Youth Day, which is celebrated on the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda, to honour and cherish his ideals, teachings, and contributions. The National Youth Festival is held every year to provide exposure to our talented youth at the national level, along with galvanising them towards nation-building. It brings diverse cultures from all parts of the country on a common platform and unites the participants in the spirit of Ek Bharat, Shreshtha Bharat. The Festival will witness the Youth Summit, which will witness plenary discussions on five themes stemming from G20 and Y20 events. These include the Future of Work, Industry, Innovation, and 21st Century Skills; Climate Change and Disaster Risk Reduction; Peace building and Reconciliation; Shared future-youth in democracy and governance; and Health & Well-being. Competitive events will include folk dances and songs and will be held to provide an impetus to local traditional cultures. Non-competitive events will include Yogathon which aims to mobilise close to 10 lakh people to do Yoga. Eight indigenous sports and martial arts will also be presented during the event by national level performers. Other attractions include Food Festival, Young Artist Camp, adventure sports activities, special Know Your Army, Navy, and Air Force camps, among others. Source: Newsonair RuPay Debit Cards and BHIM UPI Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: Union Cabinet gave its nod to the incentive scheme for the promotion of RuPay Debit Cards and low-value BHIM-UPI transactions. About the scheme: The scheme has a financial outlay of INR 2600 crore. The decision will help in building a robust digital payment system. RuPay Debit Cards: It is the first of its kind global card payment network of India It was conceived and launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) in 2012. The name, derived from ‘Rupee and Payment’, emphasises India’s very own initiative for Card payments. It has wide acceptance at ATMs, POS devices and e-commerce websites across India. It is a highly secure network that protects against anti-phishing. It fulfils RBI’s vision of initiating a ‘cashless economy’ by establishing a domestic, open and multilateral system of payments. It facilitates electronic payment at all Indian banks and financial institutions. NPCI maintains ties with Discover Financial, JCB to enable RuPay card scheme to gain international acceptance RuPay cards are issued by more than 1100 banks including public sector banks, private, regional banks and cooperatives. Its 10 core promoter banks include SBI, PNB, Canara bank, BOB, Union Bank of India, Bank of India, ICICI Bank, HDFC bank, Citibank and HSBC BHIM UPI: Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a payment app that lets you make simple, easy and quick transactions using Unified Payments Interface (UPI). Pioneered and developed by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), BHIM has been launched in 2016 to bring in Financial Inclusion to the nation and a digitally empowered society. One can make direct bank payments to anyone on UPI using their UPI ID or scanning their QR with the BHIM app. One can also request money through the app from a UPI ID. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) NPCI is an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India. It is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a robust Payment and Settlement Infrastructure in India. Considering the utility nature of the objects of NPCI, it has been incorporated as a “Not for Profit Company under the provisions of Section 25 of Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of Companies Act 2013) It aims to provide infrastructure to entire banking system in India for physical as well as electronic payment and settlement systems. The Company is focused on bringing innovations in the retail payment systems through the use of technology for achieving greater efficiency in operations and widening the reach of payment systems. Initiatives With Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) National Financial Switch (NFS) Cheque Truncation System (CTS) Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS) Initiatives in pipeline RuPay Credit Card National Common Mobility Card Tap & Go and Electronic Toll Collection. Source: Newsonair Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements: (2018) BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Indo-Pacific Economic Framework Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations In News: Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal has said that an official level discussion on Indo-Pacific Economic Framework will be held in India India and US have also finalised dates for the next Commercial Dialogue and the CEO Forum meeting to be held in India this year. Indo-Pacific Economic Framework: In 2022, the United States launched the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) with Australia, Brunei Darussalam, Fiji, India, Indonesia, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam (together these countries represent 40% of world GDP) It aims to ensure – Connected Economy, Resilient Economy, Clean Economy and Fair Economy It has four pillars Trade Supply Chains Clean Energy, Decarbonization, and Infrastructure Tax and Anti-Corruption It is a significant step toward establishing free and fair trade with nations that share the same values of a rule-based international order and a transparent economic system. The IPEF is designed to be flexible, meaning that IPEF partners are not required to join all four pillars. Significance for India: India’s economic engagement with the Indo-Pacific countries has been through bilateral trade agreements, rather than joining a trade block because of the concerns about tariffs and cheap imports that would threaten the competitiveness of local producers. However, the IPEF offers India a large opportunity to become a technology leader in the region, especially in two areas- semiconductor supply chains, and clean energy. India can be the destination for new investment such as in the semiconductor sector. The Quad framework can be applied in the supply chain network that US technology, Japanese capital, Australia’s logistics, and Indian production could fill the vacuum created by the countering domination of China. Source: Newsonair Preservation of Ozone Hole Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Geography) and GS 3 (Environment) Context: A recent United Nations scientific assessment report has suggested that the ozone hole is now expected to be completely repaired by 2066. About Ozone Layer: The ozone layer is a layer of the stratosphere, the second layer of the Earth’s atmosphere. The stratosphere is the mass of protective gases clinging to our planet. The Ozone layer is present in Earth’s atmosphere (15-35 km above Earth) in the lower portion of the stratosphere and has relatively high concentrations of ozone (O3). The ozone layer normally develops when a few kinds of electrical discharge or radiation splits the 2 atoms in an oxygen(O2) molecule, which then independently reunite with other types of molecules to form ozone. Ozone is only a trace gas in the atmosphere – only about 3 molecules for every 10 million molecules of air. It is critical for planetary life, since it absorbs ultraviolet rays coming from the Sun. UV rays are known to cause skin cancer and many other diseases and deformities in plants and animals. Important outcomes of the Report: Major achievements of the Montreal Protocol: Actions taken under the Montreal Protocol continued to decrease atmospheric abundances of controlled ozone-depleting substances (ODSs) and advance the recovery of the stratospheric ozone layer. The atmospheric abundances of both total tropospheric chlorine and total tropospheric bromine from long-lived ODSs have continued to decline since the 2018 Assessment. New studies support previous Assessments in that the decline in ODS emissions due to compliance with the Montreal Protocol avoids global warming of approximately 0.5 — 1 °C by mid-century compared to an extreme scenario with an uncontrolled increase in ODSs of 3 – 3.5% per year. Actions taken under the Montreal Protocol continue to contribute to ozone recovery. Recovery of ozone in the upper stratosphere is progressing. Total column ozone (TCO) in the Antarctic continues to recover, notwithstanding substantial interannual variability in the size, strength, and longevity of the ozone hole. TCO is expected to return to 1980 values around 2066 in the Antarctic, around 2045 in the Arctic, and around 2040 for the near-global average (60°N–60°S). Compliance with the 2016 Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol, which requires phase down of production and consumption of some hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), is estimated to avoid 0.3 – 0.5°C of warming by 2100. About Montreal Protocol The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion. It was agreed on 16 September 1987, and entered into force on 1 January 1989. Since then, it has undergone nine revisions including the latest one in 2016 (Kigali). On 1 January 2019 the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol came into force. Under the Kigali Amendment countries promised to reduce the use of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by more than 80% over the next 30 years. Future Policy Considerations under the protocol: If ODS feedstock emissions as currently estimated were to be eliminated in future years, the return of mid-latitude Equivalent Effective Stratospheric Chlorine (EESC) to 1980 abundances could be advanced by almost 4 years. Eliminating future emissions of methyl bromide (CH3Br) from quarantine and pre-shipment applications currently allowed by the Montreal Protocol would accelerate the return of mid-latitude EESC to 1980 abundances by two years. Emissions of anthropogenic very short-lived chlorine substances, dominated by dichloromethane (CH2Cl2), continue to grow and contribute to ozone depletion. A 3% reduction in anthropogenic N2O emissions, averaged over 2023–2070, would lead to an increase in annually averaged global TCO of about 0.5 DU over the same period. Global emissions of long-lived HFC-23, which are largely a by-product of HCFC-22 production, are as much as eight times larger than expected and are likely to grow unless abatement increases during HCFC-22 production or feedstock use of HCFC-22 decreases. Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer It is a Multilateral Environmental Agreement that was agreed upon at the 1985 Vienna Conference and entered into force in 1988. It is one of the most successful treaties of all time in terms of universality. It has been ratified by 197 states (all UN members as well as the Niue, Holy See and the Cook Islands) as well as European Union. It acts as a framework for the international efforts to protect the ozone layer. These are laid out in the accompanying Montreal Protocol. Concerns associated with depletion of Ozone layer: Replacements available: The use of ODSs, though extensive, was restricted to some specific industries. Their replacements were readily available, even if at a slightly higher cost initially. The impact of banning these ozone-depleting chemicals was therefore limited to these specific sectors. With some incentives, these sectors have recovered from the initial disruption and are thriving again. Carbon footprints: Emission of carbon dioxide is inextricably linked to the harnessing of energy. Almost every economic activity leads to carbon dioxide emissions. Even renewable energies, like solar or wind, have considerable carbon footprints right now, because their manufacturing, transport, and operation involves the use of fossil fuels. Greenhouse gas emissions: The emissions of methane, the other major greenhouse gas, comes mainly from agricultural practices and livestock. The impact of restraining greenhouse gas emissions is not limited to a few industries or economic sectors, but affects the entire economy, and also has implications for the quality of life, human lifestyles and habits and behaviours. Govt of India’s Efforts and Achievements Montreal Protocol: India has played a proactive role in the phase-out of production and consumption of Ozone Depleting Substances. India phased out Chlorofluorocarbons, Carbon tetrachloride, Halons, Methyl Bromide and Methyl Chloroform for controlled uses as on 1 January 2010, in line with the Montreal Protocol schedule. India is among the countries which has stated that the country’s sustainable development will be such that net zero is achieved by 2070. Phasing out of Hydrochlorofluorocarbons: Currently, Hydrochlorofluorocarbons are being phased out as per the accelerated schedule of the Montreal Protocol. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons Phase-out Management Plan (HPMP) Stage – I has been successfully implemented from 2012 to 2016 and Hydrochlorofluorocarbons Phase-out Management Plan (HPMP) Stage – II is under implementation since 2017 and will be completed by 2023. Stage III of the HPMP, the last of the HPMPs to phase out remaining HCFCs, will be implemented from 2023 – 2030. The phase-out of HCFCs in all manufacturing sectors, comprising refrigeration and air-conditioning manufacturing sectors, will be completed by 1.1.2025 and the activities relating to the servicing sector will be continued till 2030. Kigali Amendment: India played a key role in the finalization of the Kigali Amendment. After ratifying the same in September 2021, the central government is working towards developing a national strategy, in close consultation with the industry stakeholders, for phasing down Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). Greenhouse Gas (GHG) emissions: The study on reduction of Greenhouse Gas (GHG) emissions through phase-out of Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS) was carried out by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). It estimates that the reduction of GHG emissions due to phase-out of ODS till 2022 is 465 million tonne CO2 equivalent. It is expected that the reduction of GHG emissions till 2030 is expected to be 778 million tonnes of CO2 equivalent. India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP): The goal is to provide socio-economic and environmental benefits related to reduced refrigerant use, climate change mitigation and Sustainable Development Goals over the period 2037-38. This will significantly contribute to India’s climate action in achieving the net zero emissions by 2070, through the ‘Panchamrita’, committed by the Prime Minister of India, at the Climate Change Conference of Parties in 2021. Research and Development: The Environment Ministry will soon be entering into collaboration with eight Indian Institutes of Technology (Bombay, Roorkee, Hyderabad, Kanpur, Guwahati, Banaras, Madras and Delhi) to promote research and development of chemicals with low global warming potential, including blends. Way Forward: The world is facing a climate crisis because of wasteful use of energy, calling for adopting the mantra of L.I.F.E (Lifestyle for Environment) which was coined by the Prime Minister of India. The mantra is in line with the concept of sustainable lifestyle, encouraging us to adopt mindful and not mindless consumption and utilization of resources. Source: The Hindu Digital Economy Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Economy Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently launched the pilot for its digital rupee — India’s very own digital currency. The pilot covers select locations in a closed user group (CUG) comprising about 15,000 customers and merchants across the country such as Mumbai, New Delhi, Bengaluru and Bhubaneswar. So far, four banks — State Bank of India, ICICI Bank, Yes Bank and IDFC First Bank – are part of the first phase of the pilot. E-RUPEE Project: Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) or e-rupee is an initiative of the RBI. The CBDC is legal tender issued by the RBI in digital form, which can be transferred electronically from one holder to another. It is the same as a fiat currency and it is exchangeable one-to-one with government-issued money. Simply put, the digital rupee is the same as a banknote or coin that we use daily, only it is in a digital form. E-rupee will be issued in the same denominations as paper currency and coins. It will be distributed through intermediaries, i.e, banks. To send or receive digital money, a digital wallet is a must. Users can link their wallet to their bank accounts and load them and use digital money for individual payments or at the merchant shops. These digital wallets offered by the participating banks are stored on mobile phones and devices. E-rupee transactions can be both person to person (P2P) and person to merchant (P2M). For P2M transactions, such as shopping, there will be QR codes at the location. Users will be able to withdraw digital tokens from banks in the same way they currently withdraw physical cash. Users will be able to keep the digital tokens in the digital wallet These digital tokens can be spent online or in person, or transfer them via an app. Like a person making a cash transaction above a certain threshold needs to submit his or her PAN. The same rule will apply to the digital rupee. Significance/Objective Faster since it requires no intermediation of banks. Providing instant transfer of funds for the customer. No requirement of settlement for the banks or ecosystem participants Saving on cost of printing, transporting and storing currencies and coins that can be rationalised through e-Re. Financial inclusion and formalising the digital consumption of money. E-Re is also targeted at those who don’t have a bank account, but can use digital currencies similar to a pre-paid mobile recharge card. Difference between E-rupee and UPI: Digital rupee is a store of value like currency, while UPI is just an overlay infrastructure on top of any form of store of value like bank accounts (which have normal currency), prepaid instruments, credit cards, etc. No intermediation of banks – UPI or NEFT or RTGS must go through a bank while in the case of the e-Rupee, the money gets transferred from one wallet to another Anonymity – The transactions via digital rupee are more anonymous than the current digital transactions including UPI, NEFT, RTGS (can be easily tracked since involves intermediary banks) Holding limit – SBI has allowed Rs 1 lakh holding limit for the wallet while upper limit per UPI transaction is Rs 2 lakh. Process – When we pay in UPI, the amount is deducted from bank account, while on payment using e-rupee, the amount is deducted from digital wallet. Settlement risk – exists in UPI since it works on settlement basis between two banks and at the backend it takes about a day for settlements among banks to conclude. Cheaper – e-Re usage of cash does not involve any charges. UPI is free now, but could become chargeable going ahead. Issues in E-rupee: Anonymity – In digital currency, even though the transactions are recorded in the centralised ledger, it is anonymous as the owner of the wallets are not known to the government or intermediaries in the ecosystem While UPI is a bank-to-bank payment mode, there is a transaction or audit trail it leaves. Cannibalisation of UPI – UPI works on a settlement basis between two banks; at the backend, it takes about a day for inter-bank settlements to conclude. Hence there is a settlement risk in UPI Delay in transactions – If there is a delay in a transaction or if it fails, customers prefer paying using other digital payment modes, which are currently faster Practical problems – A customer who paid using e-rupee is later unable to make the CBDC transaction Success depends on Acceptability by large and reciprocal number of users. Established ease of use of UPI – From a customer perspective, whether merchant or retail, UPI has established ease of use. Therefore, e-Re needs to prove that it is equally user-friendly with sound technology and data privacy provisions, to lure users. Digital theft such as hacking and virus attacks, which could deter some people. Cultural and social mind-set in the country, which leads to greater use of physical currency, is also a hinderance. Measures to enhance digital economy: Digital infrastructure and connectivity including regular maintenance and upgrades An improvement of just 6% on connectivity will cover more than 99% of the population with at least 3G services. Securing and maintaining the infrastructure Policy changes – evaluate existing policies and practices to reduce conflicting regulatory roadblocks that impede the growth of the digital economy. continue to improve data accessibility and relax data localization policies World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business ranking must be continuously improved, particularly in reducing red tape and encouraging cross-border trade Skilling and capacity building – upskilling its labor force and improving the quality of education at all levels Improving the quality of digital services will require action and cooperation from both the private and public sectors. Structural reforms such as a reduction of 40% in the market entry barriers to FDI in infrastructure, an improvement of 13% on the indicator for FDI regulations, and improvement of 43% in market competition in the e-retail sector can facilitate market competition across industries and help India close the gaps with the G20 median, unlocking inclusive digital economic growth. Increase in access to e-payment platforms by 17% will help close the gender and urban rural gaps, facilitating digital development among hard-to-reach and less-developed regions. Participation of private sector – For example, Reliance Jio’s strategy of bundling virtually free smartphones with mobile-service subscriptions has spurred innovation and competitive pricing. Data costs have plummeted by more than 95 percent since 2013 As a result, mobile data consumption per user grew by 152 percent annually—more than twice the rates in the United States and China Way forward: The digital economy can contribute up to 20% or $1 trillion of India’s $5 trillion economy vision. But in developed countries, they have been spending ~1.2% of their GDP on digital infrastructure. The Indian government too needs to acknowledge digital infrastructure as a fundamental transformational area and give it the same importance it gives to physical infrastructure, where 80% of its investment goes. Source Indian express Baba’s Explainer – Pakistan’s Economic Crisis Pakistan's Economic Crisis Syllabus GS-2: India and its neighbourhood GS-3: Economy & challenges Context: Currently, Pakistan sits on the verge of economic collapse with its hopes pinned on getting concessions from the IMF on the Extended Fund Facility (EFF) established in 2019, as well as getting help from friendly nations in the form of long-term loans or donations. At the International Conference on Climate Resilient Pakistan (ICCRP) that began in Geneva Pakistan’s Prime Minister, Shehbaz Sharif, made a desperate plea for help. Read Complete Details on Pakistan’s Economic Crisis Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) National Youth Festival is held on the birth anniversary of which of the following? Swami Vivekananda Subhash Chandra Bose P. J. Abdul Kalam Bhagat Singh Q.2) With reference to ‘RuPay Cards’, consider the following statements? It can be used at ATMs and POS devices but not on e-commerce platforms. It has been developed by the Reserve Bank of India. Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Paigah Tombs complex: They are the tombs belonging to the nobility of Paigah family, who were fierce loyalists of the Nizams. Built of granite marble, Paigah tombs captivate visitors with intricately designed interiors. Paigahs were the only noble family who were permitted by the Sultan to have their private army. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 12th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 11th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - Pakistan's Economic Crisis

 ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-2: India and its neighbourhood GS-3: Economy & challenges Context: Currently, Pakistan sits on the verge of economic collapse with its hopes pinned on getting concessions from the IMF on the Extended Fund Facility (EFF) established in 2019, as well as getting help from friendly nations in the form of long-term loans or donations. At the International Conference on Climate Resilient Pakistan (ICCRP) that began in Geneva Pakistan’s Prime Minister, Shehbaz Sharif, made a desperate plea for help. What is happening in Pakistan? Pakistan’s economy is in dire straits with very high inflation very low foreign exchange reserves high indebtedness and a weak external position. rising unemployment While the Pakistan economy has been doing badly for quite some time, the floods of 2022 caused unprecedented damage to the country with critical infrastructure destroyed and millions displaced. Deemed to be a consequence of climate change, the floods inflicted an estimated loss of $3 billion on the country, caused over 1,700 deaths, and displaced 8 million people. Also, Global lenders like the International Monetary Fund (IMF) are refusing to disperse further funds. In 2019, Pakistan had come to an agreement with the IMF about an EFF worth $6 billion, which was later increased to $7 billion. In November 2022, the IMF refused to release a pending payment of $1.18 billion due to the government’s unwillingness to meet certain demands including assurances from Pakistan on increasing energy rates, imposing more taxes, and artificial control over the exchange rate. What is the forex crunch that Pakistan is currently in? Currently, the country is in the midst of a severe cash crunch with its foreign exchange reserves in the State Bank of Pakistan (SBP) depleting to $5.576 billion during the week ended on Dec 30, 2022. According to data released by Pakistan’s central bank, the reserves are less than half of what they were a year ago and at an 8-year low. Along with another $5.8 billion held by commercial banks, the forex reserves are just about adequate to pay for 3 weeks of imports to the country. As Pakistan still reels from the effect of the 2022 floods, servicing foreign debt and paying for crucial commodities such as medicine, food, and energy are among its chief concerns. However, Pakistan is scheduled to pay $8.3 billion to external lenders over the first three months of 2023. Without any relief, the country is set to default on these payments. What is the situation of the people there? As its leaders try to rally global support, ordinary citizens have been suffering. With massive spikes in prices of food products and other essentials, Pakistan recorded an inflation rate of around 24.5% in December. This number was even higher in rural Pakistan, close to 29% Prices of perishable food items have soared by nearly 56%. Wheat, a staple in the Pakistani diet, has seen prices increase by 57%. The nation could no longer sustain its energy consumption. In order to save energy government has taken measures like Ordering shopping centres to close at 8 pm local time, and marriage halls and restaurants by 10 pm. 20% of government employees have been asked to work from home. What is the way ahead? Pakistan Prime Minister stated that the people of Pakistan were “doubly victimised” by climate disasters and “morally bankrupt” global financial systems. “This system routinely denies middle-income countries of debt relief and concessional relief needed to invest in resilience against natural disasters” Currently, Pakistan has its hopes pinned on getting concessions from the IMF on the Extended Fund Facility (EFF) established in 2019, and getting help from friendly nations in the form of long-term loans or donations. Pakistan has also received funding pledges from US, France, Saudi Arabia, China, and Japan, with the Asian Development Bank and Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank also promising help. Help could potentially come from China, Pakistan’s “all-weather friend”. Main Practice Question: Recent times have witnessed economic crisis in neighbouring countries of Sri Lanka and Pakistan. What do you think are the learnings for India from these crisis? Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - Geospatial Policy

 ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. GS-3: Indian Economy Context: The government notified the 2022 National Geospatial Policy on December 28, 2022, for implementation with immediate effect. What is geo-spatial data? Geospatial data is data about objects, events, or phenomena that have a location on the surface of the earth. The location may be static in the short-term, like the location of a road, an earthquake event, or dynamic like a moving vehicle or pedestrian, the spread of an infectious disease. Geospatial data combines location information, attribute information (the characteristics of the object, event, or phenomena concerned), and often also temporal information or the time at which the location and attributes exist. Geo-spatial data has now become imperative for the government in planning for infrastructure, development, social development, natural calamities as well as the economy with more and more sectors relying heavily on this data. The past decade has seen an increase in the use of geo-spatial data in daily life with various apps such as food delivery apps like Swiggy or Zomato, e-commerce like Amazon or even weather apps. What was the erstwhile policy on geo-spatial data? There are strict restrictions on the collection, storage, use, sale, dissemination of geo-spatial data and mapping under the current regime driven by internal as well as external security concerns.  Private companies need to navigate a system of permissions from different departments of the government (Home, defence, etc.) to be able to collect, create or disseminate geo-spatial data. Why does the government want to de-regulate geo-spatial data? This system of acquiring licenses or permission has delayed projects for both private companies and government agencies. The deregulation eliminates the requirement of permissions as well as scrutiny, even for security concerns. Indian companies now can self-attest, conforming to government guidelines without actually having to be monitored by a government agency. There is also a huge lack of data in the country which impedes planning for infrastructure, development and businesses which are data-based. The mapping of the entire country, that too with high accuracy, by the Indian government alone could take decades. Therefore, opening up the sector and incentivising the private sector will speed up the process of mapping. Large amounts of geo-spatial data are also available on global platforms, which makes the regulation of data that is freely available in other countries, untenable. Deregulation entails Geospatial data that used to be restricted will now be freely available in India for Indian companies. They will no longer be subject to restrictions nor do they require prior approvals before they collect, generate, prepare, disseminate, store, publish, update digital geospatial data and maps within the territory of India. What is the latest geospatial policy? The new Geospatial Policy will replace the National Map Policy, 2005. It aims to strengthen the location-centric industry to support the information economy. It uses guidelines for acquiring and producing geospatial data and related services including maps. The policy a “step in the right direction”, because geospatial data was so far tightly controlled by the government. The policy is more like liberalisation of geospatial industry. The National Geospatial Policy lists the following targets to be achieved before 2035. High resolution geospatial survey of inland waters and sea surface topography of shallow/deep seas to support Blue Economy. Survey and mapping of sub-surface infrastructure in major cities and towns. National Digital Twin of major cities and towns. Geospatial Knowledge Infrastructure (GKI) underpinned by Integrated Data and Information Framework (by 2030). Enhance capabilities, skills and awareness to meet future need. (by 2030). It also aims to support innovation and creation in the field, “bridging the geospatial data divide”. It seeks to create long-term, sustainable geospatial information management through capacity development and education programmes. What are the merits of new policy? Increase Competitiveness in sector: So far, there was no clear policy, and private sector was unsure of what can and cannot be done in the geospatial field, the policy recognises the importance of the geospatial industry and sends a signal to market to elicit private participation. By liberalising the system, the government will ensure more players in the field, competitiveness of Indian companies in the global market While the Survey of India (SoI) will play the lead role in maintaining high resolution/high spatial accuracy maps, actual collection and collation of data will be increasingly done with private sector participation. Increased Investment and boost to Economy: The government also expects an increase in investment in the geo-spatial sector by companies, and also an increase in export of data to foreign companies and countries, which in turn will boost the economy Make in India: The policy emphasises the importance of locally available and locally relevant maps and geospatial data. Democratisation of Data: The government hopes that the policy will encourage open standards, open data and platforms. The policy is structured to contribute towards the democratisation of data. Evidence-based Policy making: This will ensure that more accurate data is available to both the government to formulate plans and administer its programmes. Maps and accurate geospatial data are crucial for national infrastructure projects such as linkages of rivers, creation of industrial corridors and deploying smart power systems. Boost to Start-ups: Liberalisation of the mapping industry and democratization of existing datasets will spur domestic innovation and enable Indian companies to compete in the global mapping ecosystem by leveraging modern geospatial technologies. Ease of doing business: Liberalisation in the field has the potential to support the government’s ease of doing business policy for the policy remove the erstwhile licence raj in the geospatial industry Aids in Urban Governance: The policy also aims at creating national digital twins of cities and towns, an exercise that is believed to play a big role to play in the sustainability of our cities. Better Quality of Data for E-commerce Industry: The e-commerce and delivery industry will be one of the main beneficiaries of deregulation in the field of geospatial data in India as more private player participation in geospatial fields leads to better quality of data. Enhanced Accountability: Google Maps is the one providing (geospatial) data to many but they are not completely answerable to Indian authorities. Locally produced maps will enable government to have better control over firms. Also, using data from Google Maps is expensive, and open data is not always reliable. Employment generation: The move will unlock tremendous opportunities for the country’s private sector, public sector, and research institutions, to drive innovations and build scalable solutions which will in turn generate employment With the National Geospatial Policy, the government aims to employ geospatial technology and data towards achieving Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). Main Practice Question: Analyse the new 2022 National Geospatial Policy with regard to its implications to the economy. Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }