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[DAY 9] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – ECONOMY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 9 -> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Multi-Angle Imager for Aerosols missions(MAIA) Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: NASA recently announced that it is partnering with the Italian Space Agency ASI (Agenzia Spaziale Italiana) to build and launch the Multi-Angle Imager for Aerosols missions(MAIA). About Multi-Angle Imager for Aerosols missions(MAIA):- It is a joint mission between NASA and the Italian Space Agency ASI. The MAIA observatory is set to launch before the end of 2024. Aim: to investigate the health impacts of air pollution in the world’s most populated cities. It will consist of the PLATiNO-2 satellite, which will be provided by ASI, and a science instrument that will be built at NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL). It includes a push broom spectropolarimetric camera on a two-axis gimbal for multi-angle viewing, frequent target revisits, and inflight calibration. The observatory, ground-based sensors, and atmospheric models will all be used in the MAIA mission’s data collection and analysis. In order to better comprehend the connections that exist between aerosol pollutants and health issues such as adverse birth outcomes, cardiovascular and respiratory diseases, and premature deaths, researchers will combine MAIA measurements with population health records as part of the MAIA investigation. During the course of the three-year mission, MAIA will focus on 11 primary target areas that include: Los Angeles, Atlanta, Boston, Rome, Addis Ababa, Ethiopia, Barcelona, Spain, Beijing, Johannesburg, New Delhi, Taipei, Taiwan; and Tel Aviv. MUST READ: Mission Shakti and Aditya-L1 mission Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Satellites used for telecommunication relays are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when: (2011) The orbit is geosynchronous. The orbit is circular, The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth’s equator. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1, 2, and 3 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2,3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following pair is/are correctly matched? (2014) Spacecraft                                Purpose Cassini-Huygens           Orbiting Venus and transmitting data to the Earth Messenger                    Mapping and investigating the Mercury Voyager 1 and 2           Exploring the outer solar system Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 United Nations’ list of least developed countries Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context :  Bhutan’s graduation from the ‘Least Developed Country’ status was highlighted by recent reports. About United Nations’ list of  least developed countries:- IMAGE SOURCE: unctad.org It is released by the UNCTAD (United Nations Conference on Trade and Development). The list of LDCs is reviewed every three years by the Committee for Development Policy (CDP), a group of independent experts that report to the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of the United Nations. Following a triennial review of the list, the CDP may recommend, in its report to ECOSOC, countries for addition to the list or graduation from LDC status. LDCs will have to invest $485 billion annually to eradicate extreme poverty. LDCs will have to invest $462 billion annually to meet the target of achieving a 7% annual GDP growth. The level of LDC’s public expenditure will have to increase by 12.3% from the current 2.9% of GDP to reach major social and environmental targets of the Sustainable Development Goals. Least developing countries criteria:- The countries are measured on the basis of the following three parameters:- Income Criteria: The threshold for inclusion in this category of countries is an income of $1,018 or below. Human assets index (HAI): It consists of a health sub-index and an education sub-index. The thresholds for inclusion are a composite score of 60 or below. Economic and environmental vulnerability index: It consists of two sub-indices -an economic vulnerability sub-index and an environmental vulnerability sub-index. The thresholds for inclusion are a composite score of 36 or above. Concessions associated with LDC status include benefits in the areas of:- Development financing, notably grants and loans from donors and financial institutions. Multilateral trading system, such as preferential market access and special treatments. Technical assistance, notably, toward trade mainstreaming (Enhanced Integrated Framework) Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its members States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3, and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2017) The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Oscars award 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture and Environment and Ecology Context: India shines bright at the recently held Oscars 2023 ceremony. About Oscars:- The Oscars, also known as the Academy Awards, are widely considered to be one of the most prestigious awards in the film industry. The Oscars are decided by the voting members of the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences, which is made up of a relatively small group of industry professionals. As such, the nominees and winners are often determined by factors such as industry politics, personal relationships, and even campaigning and lobbying by studios and filmmakers. The Oscars 2023 was the 95th Academy Awards ceremony. Categories Under Which India Nominated for Oscars 2023:- Best Original Song Category – ”Naatu Naatu” from the movie RRR, which recently won Golden Globe. Best Documentary Short category – ‘‘The Elephant Whisperers”, directed by, Kartiki Gonsalves. Best Documentary Feature category – Shaunak Sen’s acclaimed ”All that Breathes.”. Categories Under Which India won Oscars 2023:- Best Original Song Category – ”Naatu Naatu” from the movie RRR. Naatu Naatu‘ is an Indian Telugu-language song from the movie ‘RRR’. The song was composed by M.M. Keeravani, lyrics of the song were written by Chandrabose and recorded by Rahul Sipligunj & Kaala Bhairava. Best Documentary Short category – ‘‘The Elephant Whisperers”, directed by, Kartiki Gonsalves. The duo of Kartiki Gonsalves and Guneet Monga have produced a stellar documentary named ‘The Elephant Whisperers’, the film has earned an Oscar for itself in the Oscars 2023. The bond between an orphaned baby elephant and a couple is the central theme of the documentary. Naatu Naatu was the first Indian win in the Best original song category, and Gonsalves the first Indian to win in the short documentary category. MUST READ :  ELEPHANT CONSERVATION Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)  With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements: (2020) The leader of an elephant group is a female The maximum gestation period can be 22 months An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 3, and 4 only Q.2)Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 International Panel of Experts on Sustainable Food Systems (IPES-Food) Report Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: The recent IPES report highlights the global hunger crisis amid high debt. About the International Panel of Experts on Sustainable Food Systems (IPES-Food) Report:- It is released by IPES-Food. IPES-Food is an independent panel of experts shaping debates on how to transition to sustainable food systems around the world. It is a diverse and independent panel of experts guided by new ways of thinking about research, sustainability, and food systems. Key Findings:- At least 21 countries including Afghanistan, Cameroon, Ethiopia, Haiti, Lebanon, Somalia, Sri Lanka, Sudan, and Zimbabwe were nearing catastrophic levels of both debt distress and rising hunger in 2022. The world’s poorest countries saw the costs of servicing their debt increase by 35 percent in 2022. 62 developing countries spent more on debt payments than on healthcare during the first year of the COVID-19 pandemic. In 2022, poorer countries paid 47 percent of external debt payments to private lenders, 12 percent to China, 14 percent to other governments, and the remaining 27 percent to multilateral institutions like the International Monetary Fund. Africa’s food import dependency has tripled in recent decades, leaving countries exposed to food price spikes like in 2022. Import dependencies, extractive financial flows, boom-bust commodity cycles, and climate-vulnerable food systems are combining to destabilize the finances of the world’s poorest countries. Concessions associated with LDC status include benefits in the areas of: Development financing, notably grants and loans from donors and financial institutions. Multilateral trading system, such as preferential market access and special treatments. Technical assistance, notably, toward trade mainstreaming (Enhanced Integrated Framework). MUST READ: Global Hunger Index Source: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements: (2021) The ‘Climate-Smart village’ approach in India is part of a project led by climate change, Agriculture, and food security (CCAFS), an international research programme. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’S research centers. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘’New York Declaration on Forests’’, which of the following statements is correct? (2021) It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014 It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests It is a legally binding international declaration It is endorsed by governments, big companies, and indigenous communities. India was one of the signatories at its inception Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 5 only 3 and 4 only 2 and 5 only Australia, United States, and United Kingdom (AUKUS) Alliance Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context:  AUKUS meet was held recently. About Australia, United States, and United Kingdom (AUKUS) Alliance:- It is a trilateral security partnership for the Indo-Pacific, between Australia, the UK, and the US (AUKUS). It is based on a shared commitment of its three members to deepen diplomatic, security, and defense cooperation in the Indo-Pacific. Under it, the U.S., and the U.K. will help Australia deploy nuclear-powered submarines in the Pacific region. The focus would be on protecting shared values and promoting security and prosperity in the Indo-Pacific region. Significance of AUKUS Alliance:- It will involve a new architecture of engagements across emerging technologies such as artificial intelligence, quantum technologies, cyber capabilities, and additional undersea capabilities. It will help Australia to acquire nuclear-powered submarines (SSNs) in cooperation with the UK & the US. AUKUS will contain the rise of China, particularly its rapid militarisation and aggressive behavior in the Pacific region, especially in and around the South China Sea. It also gives US focus for its post-Afghanistan tilt to Asia. The AUKUS deal seeks to address core US concerns of regional security, deterrence, and balance of power in the Indo-Pacific.  It will enhance Australia’s contribution to its other partnerships, including the QUAD. The Quad and AUKUS are distinct, yet complementary. MUST READ: QUAD Source:  THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) What is/are the consequence /consequences of a country becoming a member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’? (2018) It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Compassionate Appointment Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: In a recent judgment, the Supreme Court rejected some applications for ‘compassionate appointment’ that were filed by the dependents of deceased government employees in West Bengal. About Compassionate Appointment:- Background:- The concept of compassionate appointments can be traced to the Indian Constitution’s Article 39. Art 39 is under the Directive Principles of State Policy and talks about the right to livelihood. Compassionate Appointment aims to provide employment on compassionate grounds to the dependent family members of a government servant who dies in harness or retires on medical grounds, leaving the family without any source of sustenance. These appointments can only be made for “Group ‘C’ posts against the direct recruitment quota. Eligibility:- Compassionate appointments can extend to dependent family members of a government servant who:- Dies while in service (including death by suicide). Retired on medical grounds. The measure can also extend to the family members of an Armed Forces employee who:- Dies during service. Is killed in action. Is medically boarded out and is unfit for civil employment. The government servant must have been appointed on a “regular basis” and not on a daily wage, casual, apprentice, ad-hoc, contract, or reemployment basis. The deceased’s dependents can only be first[1]degree relations such as their spouse, son, or daughter (including adopted ones), etc. The applicant should also be eligible and suitable for the post. Appointment Authority: – Compassionate appointments are made by either the Joint Secretary in charge of administration in the Ministry or the Department concerned or the Head of the Department. They can also be made by the Secretary of a Ministry or Department in special cases. Supreme Court judgments:- In its decision, the apex court cited its rulings from 2008 and 2014 in the cases of “Mumtaz Yunus Mulani vs, the State of Maharashtra and State Bank of India vs. Surya Narain Tripathi” respectively, to say that “the existence of a policy issued by the State Government is a sine qua non for making appointments on the compassionate basis“. Observing the absence of a policy governing compassionate appointments the Court refused to grant the posts under local authorities in West Bengal. Moreover, the Court said that even if the policy existed, it would be of no use to consider the applications several years after they were filed. The Court also referred to a slew of its rulings from 1989 and 1994 in Sushma Gosain vs. Union of India and Umesh Kumar Nagpal vs. the State of Haryana respectively, to say that there shouldn’t be any delay in compassionate appointments and the same should be “provided immediately to redeem the family in distress”, provided that the government or public authority examines the financial condition of the deceased’s family and is satisfied that the family will not be able to meet the crisis. MUST READ : Fundamental Rights Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Under the Indian constitution concentration of wealth violates (2021) The Right to Equality The Directive Principles of State Policy The Right to Freedom The Concept of Welfare Q.2) With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements. (2021) Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India A High court in India has the power to review its own judgment as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Fluorescence Microscopy Syllabus    Prelims –Science and Technology About Fluorescence Microscopy:- Fluorescence microscope combines the magnifying properties of a light microscope with visualization of fluorescence. Fluorescence microscope is a type of light microscope that instead of utilizing visible light to illuminate specimens, uses a higher intensity (lower wavelength) light source that excites a fluorescent molecule called a fluorophore (also known as fluorochrome). Fluorescence: a phenomenon that takes place when the substances (fluorophore) absorb light at a given wavelength and emits light at a higher wavelength. Fluorescence microscopy combines the magnifying properties of the light microscope with fluorescence technology. Technique:- The setup consists of two plexiglass surfaces, an LED flashlight, three theatre stage-lighting filters, a clip-on macro lens, and a smartphone. The smartphone (with the lens attached) is placed on one surface that is suspended at a height (say, a foot above). The second sheet is placed below and holds the object. One of the stage-lighting filters is held between the flashlight and the object and the other two were held between the object and the smartphone. The sources of illumination were also LED flashlights emitting light of correspondingly different wavelengths. Applications:- Fluorescence microscope is one of the most powerful techniques in biomedical research and clinical pathology. Fluorescence microscope allows the use of multicolour staining, labelling of structures within cells, and the measurement of the physiological state of a cell. Fluorescence microscope helps in observing the texture and structure of coal. To study porosity in ceramics, using a fluorescent dye. To identify the Mycobacterium tuberculosis. MUST READ : India’s TB Elimination Programme Source: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, ‘Pronuclear Transfer” is used for (2020) Fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor sperm Genetic modification of sperm-producing cells Development of stem cells into functional embryos Prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring Adultery as misconduct and judicial musings Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently the Union Govt sought clarification from the Supreme Court on applicability of its judgement on Adultery on armed forces. About Adultery in India: Credits: Times of India Adultery is a voluntary sexual relationship between a married person and someone who is not their spouse. The Supreme Court of India decriminalized adultery more than four years ago in a landmark judgment, Joseph Shine versus Union of India in 2018. Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code (on adultery) along with Section 198 of the Criminal Procedure Code were held to be unconstitutional on the premise that these provisions were violative of Articles 14, 15 and 21 of the Constitution of India. This law made it a crime for a man to have sexual intercourse with the wife of another man without that man’s consent. The law treated women as the property of their husbands and did not provide for any punishment for women who committed adultery. Currently, in India, adultery is not considered a crime, but it can be a ground for divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, and the Special Marriage Act, 1954. In addition, adultery can be considered as ‘misconduct’ under the relevant Service Conduct Rules for government servants, including those in the armed forces. However, any disciplinary action taken by the employer must have a direct or indirect nexus with the employee’s duties, and cannot be arbitrary or infringe on their right to privacy. Important judicial pronouncements regarding Adultery The Indian Penal Code, 1860: Section 497 of the IPC dealt with adultery until it was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2018. Yusuf Aziz v. State of Bombay (1954): The case upheld the constitutional validity of Section 497 of the IPC, stating that the law did not discriminate against men and that the adultery law protected the sanctity of marriage. Sowmithri Vishnu v. Union of India (1985): The Supreme Court held that Section 497 of the IPC was violative of Articles 14 and 15 of the Constitution of India, as it only criminalized sexual intercourse with a married woman without the consent of her husband and did not punish women for adultery. Revathi v. Union of India (1988): In this case, the Supreme Court held that Section 497 of the IPC was discriminatory against women and violated the Constitution of India and observed that adultery is a private matter between adults and the state has no business to interfere. Joseph Shine v. Union of India (2018): The Supreme Court in this case declared Section 497 of the IPC unconstitutional and struck it down holding that the provision was archaic and violated the fundamental right to equality and personal liberty enshrined in the Constitution. Challenges of Adultery: With the decriminalization of adultery in India, employers are limited in their ability to discipline employees for their private affairs. The courts have provided some guidance on this issue, stating that misconduct must have some nexus with the employee’s duties in order to be subject to disciplinary action. There are cases in which allegations of adultery have directly or indirectly been used as a tool to hamper the employee’s ability to discharge their duties or maintain discipline within the workplace. Determining whether or not an act of adultery has a nexus with an employee’s duties can be a challenging task, particularly in cases where the alleged act is consensual and voluntary. There is ambiguity regarding whether the armed forces may still take disciplinary action for adulterous acts under their special legislations. Suggestive measures: Gender equality: Adultery is often seen as a crime committed by men against women, but women can also be perpetrators of adultery which can be reduced by empowering women. Legal reforms: The laws governing adultery in India have been widely criticized as being archaic and outdated which can be reformed to make it more equitable, with equal punishment for both men and women, and with provisions to prevent the misuse of the law. Education and awareness: Educating people about the importance of fidelity and the negative consequences of adultery could help to reduce its occurrence through schools, community organizations, and the media. Way Forward: The SC rulings clarifying the application of adultery laws in the armed forces highlights the need for a clear nexus between the adulterous act and the professional duties of the personnel. The government and armed forces should now focus on establishing guidelines and protocols to ensure that personal conduct does not affect the professional duties of their personnel, while respecting their private space and individual rights. Source: The Hindu The rise of the ESG regulations Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 4 (Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude) Context: Over the last decade, regulators and corporations around the world have embraced the idea of ESG (Environmental, Social and Governance). About ESG: ESG refers to three key factors considered by investors and stakeholders when evaluating a company’s sustainability and societal impact Environmental factors : It relate to a company’s impact on the natural environment, including energy use, greenhouse gas emissions, waste management, and resource consumption Social factors: It refer to a company’s impact on society, including relationships with employees, customers, suppliers, and communities Governance factors: It focus on a company’s management and decision-making structures, including board composition, executive compensation, and transparency. How ESG differs from CSR?   Image source: researchgate.net India has a robust corporate social responsibility (CSR) policy that mandates that corporations engage in initiatives that contribute to the welfare of society. This mandate was codified into law with the passage of the 2014 and 2021 amendments to the Companies Act of 2013 which requires: Companies with a net worth of Rs. 500 crore (approximately $60 million) or a minimum turnover of Rs. 1,000 crore (approximately $120 million) or a net profit of Rs. 5 crore (approximately $6,05,800) in any given financial year. Companies spend at least 2% of their net profit over the preceding three years on CSR activities. Significance of ESG: Companies demonstrating good ESG practices may benefit from reduced operational costs, better risk management, and enhanced reputation among consumers and investors Investors recognize the importance of ESG factors in evaluating long-term sustainability and profitability of companies Companies neglecting ESG considerations may face reputational damage, regulatory scrutiny, and increased operational costs. Many consumers and employees also consider ESG factors when making decisions about which companies to support or work for. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) revised the annual Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR). It was a notable departure from previous disclosure requirements. New disclosures range from greenhouse gas emissions to the company’s gender and social diversity. India has long had a number of laws and bodies regarding environmental, social and governance issues, including: the Environment Protection Act of 1986, quasi-judicial organisations such as the National Green Tribunal, a range of labour codes and laws governing employee engagement and corporate governance practices. Reserve Bank of India announced recently that it would be auctioning ₹80 billion ($981 million) in green bonds. Implications for Indian companies Compliance: In particular, compliance by Indian companies with the ESG regulations of the U.S., the U.K., the European Union and elsewhere will be critical if India is to take full advantage of the growing decoupling from China and play a more prominent role in global supply chains and the global marketplace overall. Due diligence: As Indian companies look to expand their ESG risk management, thorough due diligence will play a key role. This can include: looking at company records, interviewing former employees and making discreet visits to observe operations to ensure that the measures to comply with international ESG standards are in effect. Companies that wish to maximise their opportunities in the global economy need to embrace these new requirements and adjust their organisations accordingly. Way Forward: The evolution of ESG laws and regulations needs controls and disclosure that are a hallmark of contemporary ESG regulation. There is also a need to further bring legislation by the Indian government on ESG issues, which can be seen in India’s more active role in global climate forums and secure long-term growth in today’s business landscape. Thus Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) factors are increasingly important considerations for investors and stakeholders when evaluating the sustainability and societal impact of a company. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Which of the following short documentary has won Oscars award 2023 from India? The Elephant Whisperers Jallikattu All That Breathes Chhello Show Q.2) Which of the following countries is not part of AUKUS alliance which was in news recently? USA United Kingdom South Korea Australia Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Fluorescence Microscopy: Fluorescence microscope combines the magnifying properties of a light microscope with visualization of fluorescence. Fluorescence microscope allows the use of multicolour staining, labelling of structures within cells, and the measurement of the physiological state of a cell. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 14th March – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 13th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 8] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. Attempt Day 8 -> Click Here

मासिक पत्रिका दिसंबर 2022 – हिन्दी IASbaba सामयिकी

Archives Hello Friends,This is दिसंबर/December 2022 of IASbaba’s REVAMPED Current Affairs Monthly Magazine. Current Affairs for UPSC Civil Services Examination is an important factor in this preparation.An effort towards making your Current Affairs for IAS UPSC Preparation qualitative. We hope you make the best use of it!This edition covers all Important current affairs issues that were in news for the month of दिसंबर/December2022.Kindly leave your feedback in the comment section below on the new design and presentation of the magazine. We would love to hear from you! Download The Magazine - दिसंबर/December 2022 Important Topics Covered In The Magazine Includes: ChatGPT Private Member’s Bill for Women’s Reservation. DNA Technology Regulation Bill Ratnagiri’s pre-historic rock art GAGAN (GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation) Role of Micro Financial Institutions in financial Inclusion State of Finance for Nature report PM SVANIDHI SCHEME And Much More.... Download The Magazine - दिसंबर/December 2022 To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow-TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccountYOUTUBE – https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQFACEBOOK – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/Also, SUBSCRIBE to the WEBSITE Below, so that you don’t miss out on important posts!Thank YouIASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) India, Brazil, South Africa (IBSA) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations  Context : A recent report highlighted that  India, Brazil, South Africa can play vital role in reforming digital governance. About IBSA :- CREDITS : ibsa-trilateral.org IBSA brings together India, Brazil, and South Africa, three large democracies and major economies from three different continents, facing similar challenges. Background : Its genesis can be traced back to the decades of efforts by countries and groupings working together to ensure South-South solidarity such as the Bandung conference in 1955, the Non-Aligned Movement in 1961, the G77 grouping, UNCTAD, the Buenos Aires Plan of Action 1978, and the 2009 Nairobi declaration. Formation : The grouping was formalized and named the IBSA Dialogue Forum when the Foreign Ministers of the three countries met in Brasilia in June 2003 and issued the Brasilia Declaration. Five IBSA Leadership Summits have been held so far. The 5th IBSA Summit was held in Pretoria in October 2011. India convened the 6th IBSA summit under the theme “Democracy for Demography and Development” in 2021. IBSA does not have a headquarters or a permanent executive secretariat. IBSAMAR (IBSA Maritime Exercise) Cooperation in IBSA is on three fronts: first, as a forum for consultation and coordination on global and regional political issues second, trilateral collaboration on concrete areas/projects and third, assisting other developing countries by taking up projects in the latter through IBSA Fund. The IBSA facility for poverty and hunger alleviation (IBSA Fund) was established jointly by India, Brazil, and South Africa in March 2004. The IBSA Visiting Fellowships Program was instituted, with the financial support of the Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India in 2016 MUST READ : BRICS Source: THE HINDU Previous Year Questions Q.1)The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of: (2015) ASEAN (b)BRICS OECD WTO Q.2) With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements: The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman (PM VIKAS) scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy and Government schemes Context: Recently, the Prime Minister addressed a  Post Budget Webinar on ‘PM Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman. About Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman (PM VIKAS) scheme :- The launch of PM Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman scheme was announced  in the Union Budget 2023. PM Vishwakarma Kaushal Samman scheme is a new scheme for artisans and craftsmen. Objectives: – improving skills of artisans ensuring easy credit help them in brand promotion so that their products reach the market quickly. seeks to handhold artisans and people associated with small businesses. to develop traditional artisans and craftsmen while preserving their rich traditions. MUST READ : SAMARTH scheme  and PM SVANidhi scheme Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Landslide Atlas of India Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography and Science and Technology Context: Recently, ISRO released the Landslide Atlas of India. About Landslide:- Landslide is a rapid movement of rock, soil, and vegetation down the slope under the influence of gravity. Landslides are caused due to three major factors: geology, morphology, and human activity. Causes of landslide:- Rainfall and Snowfall- The occurrence of heavy or continuous rainfall may lead to heavy landslides in the areas of steep slopes where National Highways and roads have been constructed. Earthquakes and Volcanic Eruptions-Earthquakes are the most important cause of landslides in the folded mountainous areas. In India, Landslides are more frequent in the folded mountains of the Tertiary Period, like the Himalayas. Mining, Quarrying and Road cutting- The continuous extraction of coal, minerals, and stones from the mines and quarries and the development of roads by cutting the steep slopes in the folded mountains create conducive conditions for the occurrence of landslides. Loading by construction of houses- The unplanned growth of towns and cities in the hilly areas without testing soil and rocks in also an important cause of landslides. Deforestation- Deforestation and other human activities also induce landslides. Landslide-Prone Areas in India:- Himalayan tract, hills/mountains in sub-Himalayan terrains of North-east India, Western Ghats, the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu Konkan . About Landslide Atlas of India:- CREDITS : researchgate.net It is a database of landslide-prone regions of India based on events during 1998 – 2022. It is created by  the National Remote Sensing Centre, ISRO Department of Space, Government of India In addition to aerial images, high-resolution satellite images captured using ResourceSat-1 and 2, etc., were used to study the landslides. This Atlas provides the details of landslides present in Landslide provinces of India The database covers landslide-vulnerable regions in 17 states and 2 UTs of India in the Himalayas and Western Ghats. The database includes three types of landslide inventory – seasonal, event-based, and route-wise for the 1998-2022 period. The technology used: Satellite data of high to very high resolution such as IRS-1D PAN+LISS-III, Resourcesat-1, 2 and 2A LISS-IV Mx, Cartosat-1 and 2S, data from International satellites (Sentinel-1&2, Pleiades and WorldView) and Aerial images were used in the mapping of landslides. Vulnerability Ranking: The database was used to rank 147 districts in 17 states and 2 UTs of India for their exposure to landslides in terms of key socio-economic parameters. Steps taken by the government:- The Geological Survey of India (GSI) has done a national landslide susceptibility mapping for 85% of the entire 4,20,000 square km landslide-prone area in the country. The areas have been divided into different zones according to the propensity of the disaster. NDMA Guidelines for Landslides – Landslide Hazard, vulnerability and Risk Assessment Multi – Hazard Conceptualization Landslide Remediation practice Research and Development, monitoring, and early warning Knowledge network and management Capacity building and Training Public awareness and Education Emergency preparedness and response Regulation and Enforcement MUST READ : National Landslide Susceptibility Mapping (NLSM) programme and Joshimath Crisis Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6, and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2) In which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used? (2015) Assessment of crop productivity Locating groundwater resources Mineral exploration Telecommunications Traffic studies Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1, 2, and 3 only 4 and 5 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 MSME Competitive (LEAN) Scheme Open in new window Syllabus    Prelims – Government schemes Context: Union Minister for MSME launched the MSME Competitive (LEAN) Scheme recently. About MSME Competitive (LEAN) Scheme:- It is implemented by the Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises, Government of India.  E- Certificate towards participation under the scheme will be issued by MoMSME after completion of Basic Level, Intermediate Level, and Advanced Level. Aim: It aims to enhance their productivity, efficiency, and competitiveness by reduction of wastage in processes, inventory management, space management, energy consumption, etc. OBJECTIVES: – Reduction in: rejected rates, product and raw material movements and the Product Cost Optimization of: space utilization, resources like Water, Energy, Natural Resources etc. Enhancement of: quality in process and product, production & export capabilities, workplace safety, knowledge & skills sets, innovative work culture, Social & environmental accountability, profitability, introduction & awareness to industry 4.0 and Digital Empowerment Components of Schemes: – Industry Awareness Programmes/Workshop: MSMEs will be made aware of the Scheme through Nationwide awareness programmes. Training Programmes: Stakeholders like the MSME Officers, Assessors and Consultants will be trained Handholding: MSMEs will be provided handholding towards the implementation of Lean Tools and Techniques at three different levels – Basic, Intermediate, and Advanced. Benefits/Incentives: Graded incentives will be announced by the Ministry of MSME for MSMEs for encouraging MSME units’ participation under the scheme. The PR campaign, Advertising & Brand Promotion: For popularizing the Lean Scheme, nationwide publicity will be done. Digital Platform: Lean Scheme process will be e-enabled through a single window digital platform. Under the scheme, MSMEs will implement LEAN manufacturing tools like 5S, Kaizen, KANBAN, Visual workplace, Poka Yoka etc under the able guidance of trained and competent LEAN Consultants Eligibility:- All MSMEs registered with the UDYAM registration portal. Common Facilities Centres (CFCs) under SFURTI (Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries) Micro & Small Enterprises under the Cluster Development Program (MSE-CDP) Schemes. MUST READ: MSME Sustainable (ZED) Certification Scheme and Finance-Related Problems of MSME Sector Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Recognition of the Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to (2017) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels. (b)Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes. (c)Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings. (d)Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme. Q.2) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at (2016) bringing small entrepreneurs into the formal financial system providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating particular crops providing pensions to old and destitute persons funding the voluntary organizations involved in the promotion of skill development and employment generation National Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction (NPDRR) and Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Government initiatives Context: Recently, the Prime Minister inaugurated the  3rd Session of the National Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction. About the National Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction (NPDRR):- It was constituted by the Government of India through a resolution in 2013. It is  chaired by the Union Home Minister and the Minister of State in charge of Disaster Management in the Ministry of Home Affairs. The Vice-Chairman of, the National Disaster Management Authority is the Vice-Chairperson of the NPDRR. The First Session of NPDRR was organized on the theme of “Mainstreaming DRR in Development: From Risk to Resilience” in New Delhi in 2013. OBJECTIVES:- The National Platform aims to bring together the whole range of India’s disaster risk community from Government, Parliamentarians, Mayors, Media, International Organizations, NGOs, local community representatives, scientific and academic institutions and corporate businesses, etc. Functions:- To review the progress made in the field of disaster management from time to time. To appreciate the extent and manner in which the Disaster Management Policy has been implemented by the Central and State Governments, and other concerned agencies. To advise on coordination between the Central and State Governments/UT Administrations, local self-governments, and civil society organizations for Disaster Risk Reduction. To advise suo-moto or on a reference made by the Central Government or any other State Government or a Union territory Administration on any question pertaining to disaster management. To review the National Disaster Management Policy. About Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar:- It is an award to recognize and honor the invaluable contribution and selfless service rendered by individuals and organizations in India in the field of disaster management. Administered By: National Disaster Management Authority under the  Ministry of Home Affairs. The award is announced every year on 23rd January, the birth anniversary of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose. The award carries a cash prize of Rs. 51 lakhs and a certificate in the case of an institution and Rs. 5 lakhs and a certificate in the case of an individual. Eligibility:- Only Indian nationals and Indian institutions can apply for the award. The nominated individual or institution should have worked in any area of disaster management like Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Rescue, Response, Relief, Rehabilitation, Research, Innovation, or early warning in India.  Winners of 2022 Award in the field of Disaster Management:- Gujarat Institute of Disaster Management (GIDM): established in 2012, the Gujarat Institute of Disaster Management (GIDM) has been working to enhance the disaster risk reduction (DRR) capacity of Gujarat. Professor Vinod Sharma: a senior professor at the Indian Institute of Public Administration and Vice-Chairman of the Sikkim State Disaster Management Authority, was the founder co-ordinator of the National Centre of Disaster Management, now known as the National Institute of Disaster Management. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2)One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is (2020) The final goal of a stateless society Class struggle Abolition of private property Economic determinism North Pole and South Pole Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology and Geography Context: Sea ice levels on both poles marked a record low, according to the recent reports of the United Nations meteorological agency. About the North Pole:- CREDITS The geographic North Pole is the northern point of Earth’s axis of rotation. The North Pole is the northernmost point on Earth. Its latitude is 90 degrees north, and all lines of longitude meet there. The North Pole is found in the Arctic Ocean. It is  constantly shifting pieces of sea ice. The North Pole is much warmer than the South Pole. This is because sits at a lower elevation (sea level) and is located in the middle of an ocean, which is warmer than the ice-covered continent of Antarctica. In fact, the North Pole experiences only one sunrise (at the March equinox) and one sunset (at the September equinox) every year. The North Pole is not part of any nation. Ecosystem: Polar bears (Ursus maritimus), Arctic foxes (Vulpes lagopus), and other terrestrial animals rarely migrate to the North Pole. About the South pole:-   CREDITS The South Pole is the southernmost point on Earth. Its latitude is 90 degrees south, and all lines of longitude meet there (as well as at the North Pole). The South Pole is located in Antarctica. It experiences only one sunrise (at the September equinox) and one sunset (at the March equinox) every year. From the South Pole, the sun is always above the horizon in the summer and below the horizon in the winter. This means the region experiences up to 24 hours of sunlight in the summer and 24 hours of darkness in the winter. Due to plate tectonics, the exact location of the South Pole is constantly moving. The habitat is far too harsh for most organisms to survive. MUST READ: India’s operational research stations at the South Pole Source: DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’? (2022) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters. It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region. It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies at the North Pole and the South Pole. It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council. Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 MOON TIME ZONE Open in new window Syllabus Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology  Context : Recently, the European Space Agency highlighted the the need of a universal timekeeping system for the moon . About MOON TIME ZONE:- Objective:  to streamline contact among the various countries and entities, public and private, that are coordinating trips to and around the moon. Background:- The Moon has its own day and night cycle, which lasts about 29.5 Earth days. Currently, the time on the Moon is measured using Universal Time Coordinated (UTC), which is the same timekeeping system used on Earth. However, since the Moon’s day is much longer than Earth’s day, it would be difficult to use UTC for day-to-day activities on the Moon. To address this issue, scientists and researchers have proposed creating a lunar time zone that would be based on the Moon’s day and night cycle. BENEFITS:- This would make it easier for lunar settlers to keep track of time and coordinate activities. Having a lunar time zone would also make it easier for scientists and researchers to conduct experiments and collect data on the Moon. It would also help to prevent confusion and errors that could arise from using different timekeeping systems on Earth and the Moon. CHALLENGES:- Time on Earth is precisely tracked by atomic clocks, but synchronizing time on the moon is tricky because clocks run faster there, gaining around 56 microseconds, or millionths of a second, per day. It would also be difficult to establish a consistent time zone for the entire Moon, given that the terrain and lighting conditions vary widely across its surface. Any timekeeping system on the Moon would need to be able to account for the Moon’s irregular rotation and movement. About Chandrayaan-1:-  Chandrayaan-1, India’s first mission to the moon. It was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in 2008. Its collection of sensors included NASA’s Moon Mineralogy Mapper (M3), an imaging spectrometer that supported the finding of water trapped in lunar minerals. The orbiter also discharged an impactor that was purposefully sent at the Moon, scattering debris that the science equipment on board, orbiting spacecraft analyzed. Findings: Data from the Mineralogy Mapper (M3), one of the instruments on Chandrayaan-1, indicates the presence of hematite at the lunar poles. Hematite -is a mineral which is a form of iron oxide, or rust, produced when iron is exposed to oxygen and water. Chandrayaan-1 Moon data indicates that the moon’s poles are home to water that scientists are trying to decipher. MUST READ :  Findings of Chandrayaan-2 and Chandrayaan-3 Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) Satellites used for telecommunication relays are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when: (2011) The orbit is geosynchronous. The orbit is circular, The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth’s equator. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1, 2, and 3 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2,3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following pair is/are correctly matched? (2014) Spacecraft                          Purpose Cassini-Huygens           Orbiting Venus and transmitting data to the Earth Messenger                     Mapping and investigating the Mercury Voyager 1 and 2          Exploring the outer solar system Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Adenovirus Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology About Adenovirus :- The adenoviruses are common pathogens of humans and animals. Adenovirus causes wide variety of illness in humans ranging from gastrointestinal infections to common cold. The main target for adenoviruses in humans is the respiratory tract. Adenovirus are a common cause of viral infections in all age groups. There are more than 50 types of adenoviruses that can cause disease in humans. Adenovirus is a double-stranded DNA virus . Adenoviruses can be transmitted from one infected person to another through physical contact,coughing and sneezing or touching a contaminated object or surface. The disease can also be caused by contaminated water or through an infected person’s faeces. Common symptoms: – Respiratory (cough, fever, fast breathing, wheezing, sore throat) Pneumonia Diarrhea amog others. MUST READ : Incovacc Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes. Common cold is sometimes caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following: (2021) Bacteria Fungi Virus Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Digital India Act, 2023 Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: The Union government outlined the Digital India Act, 2023 which is a broad overhaul of the decades-old Information Technology Act, 2000. Main objective of the Digital India Bill: The Digital India Bill aims to ensure that the internet in India is open, free from user harm and criminality and that there is an institutional mechanism of accountability. The legislation will cover emerging technologies, algorithms of social media platforms, artificial intelligence, and user risks, as well as the diversity of the internet and the regulation of intermediaries. Provisions under Digital India Act 2023: Freedom of Expression: Social media platforms’ own moderation policies may now be reduced to constitutional protections for freedom of expression and Fundamental speech rights. Recent amendment to the IT Rules, 2021 says that platforms must respect users’ free speech rights. Three Grievance Appellate Committees have now been established to take up content complaints by social media users. These are now likely to be subsumed into the Digital India Act. Online Safety: The Act will cover Artificial Intelligence (AI), Deepfakes, cybercrime, competition issues among internet platforms, and data protection. The government put out a draft Digital Personal Data Protection Bill in 2022, which would be one of the four prongs of the Digital India Act, with the National Data Governance Policy and amendments to the Indian Penal Code being others, along with rules formulated under the Digital India Act. New Adjudicatory Mechanism: A new “Adjudicatory Mechanism” for criminal and civil offenses committed online would come into place. Safe Harbour: The government is reconsidering a key aspect of cyberspace — ‘safe harbour’, which is the principle that allows social media platforms to avoid liability for posts made by users. The term has been reined in recent years by regulations like the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021, which require platforms to take down posts when ordered to do so by the government, or when required by law. Constitutional and legal Protection: Fundamental speech rights (Art 19) cannot be violated by any platform. However, social media platform’s own moderation policies may violate constitutional protections for freedom of expression. There is certainly a case that can be made that weaponization of disinformation is not the same as free speech, and that needs to be addressed. IT Rules, 2021: It says that platforms must respect users’ free speech rights. Three Grievance Appellate Committees have now been established to take up content complaints by social media users. Since the appellate committee portal’s launch, seventeen appeals have already been filed. The need for a New Act: Since the IT Act of 2000 was enacted, there have been many revisions and amendments (IT Act Amendment of 2008, IT Rules 2011). However, because the IT Act was originally designed only to protect e-commerce transactions and define cybercrime offenses, it did not deal with the nuances of the current cybersecurity landscape adequately nor did it address data privacy rights. Without a complete replacement of the governing digital laws, the IT Act would fail to keep up with the growing sophistication and rate of cyber-attacks. The new Digital India Act also envisages to act as catalysts for Indian economy by enabling more innovation, more startups, and at the same time protecting the citizens of India in terms of safety, trust, and accountability. Way forward Regulation of hate speech and disinformation on the Internet is a must and intermediaries, including digital news media and social media platforms, have an accountable role to play. Currently, there are more than 760 million internet users in the country and this is to touch 1.2 billion in coming years. Though the internet is good and aids in connectivity, there are several user harms around it. Therefore, it is essential to bring in laws that will provide new frames on the rights and duties of the citizens and also speaks about the obligation to collect data. MUST READ:  Need for safety on Digital Space Source:  Indian Express India-Australia Relations Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: The Australian Prime Minister (PM) on his visit, India and Australia signed an Audio-visual co-production agreement. The two Prime Ministers also discussed a range of domains to improve India-Australia relations. Key highlights of the visit: Australia wants to work with India and build a relationship in the areas of culture, economics, and security. Both countries signed memorandums of understanding (MoUs) for sports and audio-visual co-production agreements, and they also talked about the terms of reference for the Solar Taskforce between India and Australia. India was worried about the damage done to Hindu temples in Australia by people who support the Khalistan government. In reply, Australia agreed to protect and keep safe the Indian community in Australia. Bilateral relations: Historical Perspective: Australia and India for the first time established diplomatic relations in the pre-Independence period, when the Consulate General of India was first opened as a Trade Office in Sydney in 1941. India-Australia relations touched a historic low when the Australian Government condemned India’s 1998 nuclear tests. In 2014, Australia signed a Uranium supply deal with India, the first of its kind with a country that is a non-signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty, in recognition of India’s “impeccable” non-proliferation record. Bilateral Trade:   India is the 5th largest trade partner of Australia with trade in goods and services at A$ 29 billion representing 3.6% share of the total Australian trade in 2017-18, with export at A$ 8 billion and import at A$ 21 billion. Defence: AUSINDEX: The first-ever Bilateral Maritime Exercise, AUSINDEX, was conducted in Visakhapatnam (Bay of Bengal) in September 2015. Exercise Pitch Black: In 2018, the Indian Air Force participated for the first time in the Exercise Pitch Black in Australia. Exercise of the Australian Navy: INS Sahyadri participated in Kakadu, the biennial exercise of the Australian Navy held in 2018, in which 27 nations participated. AUSTRAHIND: The 4th edition of AUSTRAHIND (Special Forces of Army Exercise) was held in recently. Joint military exercises: In 2023, India, Japan, and the US will all take part in the “Malabar” exercises, which will be held in Australia. India has been invited to join the Talisman Sabre exercises in 2023. Multilateral Cooperation: Both are members of the Quad, Commonwealth, Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA), ASEAN Regional Forum, Asia Pacific Partnership on Climate and Clean Development, and have participated in the East Asia Summits. Both countries have also been cooperating as members of the Five Interested Parties (FIP) in the World Trade Organization context. Australia is an important player in Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) and supports India’s membership of the organisation. Cooperation on Clean Energy: In February 2022, countries signed a Letter of Intent on New and Renewable Energy for cooperation to reduce the cost of renewable energy technologies, including ultra low-cost solar and clean hydrogen. India announced Australian Dollars(AUD) 10 million for Pacific Island Countries under the International Solar Alliance (ISA). Both the countries committed to USD 5.8 million to the three-year India-Australia Critical Minerals Investment Partnership. Indian Diaspora: The Indian community in Australia continues to grow in size and importance, with a population of nearly half seven lakhs. India is now the third-largest source of immigrants to Australia, after the UK and New Zealand and the largest source of skilled professionals for Australia. There is a constant flow of students and tourists from India. Challenges in India-Australia Relations: China’s Discontent: China is unhappy with the growing security cooperation between Australia and India. The Chinese government responded to the Quadrilateral dialogue by issuing formal diplomatic protests to its members, calling it “Asian NATO”. India’s stand on the Russia-Ukraine crisis: Australia has criticized the Russian invasion of Ukraine and sided with the U.S. and western countries. However, India has refrained from criticizing Russia over the issue. This can create differences in bilateral discourse and the functioning of QUAD. Coal mine controversy: There was controversy over the Adani coal mine project in Australia, with some activists protesting against it, which created a strain in the relationship between the two countries. Visa issues: There have been concerns over visa restrictions for Indian students and professionals seeking to work in Australia. No Free Trade Agreement: Both nations have been interacting and communicating with each other for decades but have failed to create a consensus on a Free trade agreement. Lack of Uranium Supply: The progress on uranium supply has been very low, despite efforts from both sides. In 2017, Australia had sent its first uranium shipment to India but that was cited as “a small sample of uranium” transferred “purely for testing purposes”. Violence with Indian Diaspora: Attacks on Indian Diaspora and temples in the recent past by Khalistan supporters have been an issue of strain. Way Forward: On the whole, The India–Australia strategic partnership has seen impressive advancements in the last few years, but its potential and promise are yet to be fully realised. Hence, the need of dedicated attention and political leadership from both capitals to become more than a work in progress going forward. MUST READ:  India-Australia Critical Minerals Investment Partnership Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Which of the following recently released the Landslide Atlas of India? Ministry of Home Affairs NITI Aayog Ministry of Earth Sciences National Remote Sensing Centre, ISRO Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar: It is an award to recognize and honor the invaluable contribution and selfless service rendered by individuals and organizations in India in the field of Science and Technology. The award is administered by the National Disaster Management Authority under the Ministry of Home Affairs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the National Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction (NPDRR): It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India It is a statutory body The Vice-Chairman of, the National Disaster Management Authority acts as the Vice-Chairperson of the NPDRR. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’13th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 11th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[DAY 7] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.Attempt Day 7 -> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th March 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Integrated-Disease-Surveillance-Programme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology and Governance (Polity) Context:  Recently ,the Union Health Ministry gave a statement that it is keeping a close watch on the Seasonal Influenza situation, through the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme network on a real-time basis. About Integrated-Disease-Surveillance-Programme :- The Integrated Disease Surveillance Program (IDSP) was initiated with assistance from the World bank, in the year 2004. The Programme continued during the 12th Plan (2012–17) under National Health Mission It works under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The Central Surveillance Unit (CSU) at the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC), receives disease outbreak reports from the States/UTs on weekly basis.  The surveillance data is collected on three specified reporting formats, namely “S” (suspected cases), “P” (presumptive cases), and “L” (laboratory confirmed cases) filled by Health Workers, Clinicians, and Laboratory staff respectively. Objective:- To strengthen/maintain a decentralized laboratory-based IT-enabled disease surveillance system for epidemic-prone diseases. to monitor disease trends and to detect and respond to outbreaks in the early rising phase through trained Rapid Response Teams (RRTs). Key Features:- Integration and decentralization of surveillance activities through the establishment of surveillance units at the Centre, State, and District levels. Human Resource Development – Training of State Surveillance Officers, District Surveillance Officers, Rapid Response Team, and other Medical and Paramedical staff on principles of disease surveillance. Use of Information Communication Technology for collection, collation, compilation, analysis, and dissemination of data. Strengthening of public health laboratories. Inter sectoral Co-ordination for zoonotic disease About H3N2 Flu :- The flu is a respiratory illness that’s caused by the influenza virus. There are four types of influenza viruses: A, B, C, and D. Influenza A, B, and C can spread to humans. However, only influenza A and B cause the seasonal epidemics of respiratory illness that occur every year. Influenza A viruses are classified according to both their HA and NA subtypes. Some influenza A subtypes include H1N1 (sometimes known as swine flu) and H3N2. The H3N2 virus was first discovered in humans in 1968. Symptoms of H3N2: Cough, runny or congested nose, sore throat, headache, body aches and pains, fever, chills, fatigue, diarrhea AND vomiting. Treatment:- Common antiviral prescriptions for Influenza A include: zanamivir (Relenza) oseltamivir (Tamiflu) peramivir (Rapivab) Vaccine for H3N2:- An H1N1, H3N2, and influenza B strain are included in the trivalent vaccine, while an extra influenza B strain is included in the quadrivalent vaccine. MUST READ:  India’s healthcare sector and Marburg virus disease (MVD) Source: AIR Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3, and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following statements is not correct? (2017) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV. Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine. Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses is several times more than those infected with HIV. Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years. National-Startup-Advisory-Council Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The sixth meeting of the National Startup Advisory Council (NSAC) is to be held soon. About National-Startup-Advisory-Council: It was constituted by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT). It works under the Minister of Commerce and Industry It advises the government on measures needed to build a strong ecosystem for nurturing innovation and startups in the country to drive sustainable economic growth and generate large scale employment opportunities. Composition of the Council: Chairman: Minister for Commerce & Industry. Convener of the Council: Joint Secretary, Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. Ex-officio Members: Nominees of the concerned Ministries/Departments/Organizations not below the rank of Joint Secretary. Non-official members, to be nominated by the Central Government. MUST READ: 1st meeting of National Startup Advisory Council (NSAC) and 28 non-official members nominated to the National Startup Advisory Council Source: AIR Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statement is/are correct? (2016) Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mimeusemia ceylonica and Kalakkad–Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (KMTR) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Rare moth species Mimeusemia ceylonica has been spotted recently after 127 years. About Mimeusemia ceylonica :- Mimeusemia ceylonica is a moth species belonging to the subfamily Agaristinae and family Noctuidae. The species was last sighted 127 years ago at Trincomalee in Sri Lanka in 1893. It was first described in 1893 by George Hampson, an English entomologist. It was rediscovered during a moth survey conducted at the Agasthyamalai Community-based Conservation Centre (ACCC) situated in the buffer zone of KMTR, Tirunelveli district in 2020. It was again spotted at the Vallanaadu Blackbuck Sanctuary in the Thoothukudi district in 2022. About Kalakkad–Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (KMTR):- CREDITS : www.wpsi-india.org The Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (KMTR) is in Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari District of Tamil Nadu It was declared as the “First Tiger Reserve of Tamil Nadu” and the 17th Tiger Reserve of the country. It  was established in 2010. It is registered under Tamil Nadu Societies Registration Act 1975. Objective: focusing on the management of Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve for the conservation of biodiversity. KMTR consists of the core area consisting of two adjacent sanctuaries namely Kalakad Wildlife Sanctuary, Mundanthurai Tiger Sanctuary in Tirunelveli District, and part of Veerapuli and Kilamalai Reserve Forests in Kanyakumari District. Mundanthurai Tiger Sanctuary was declared as Nation’s first Tiger Sanctuary in 1962. Kalakad Wildlife Sanctuary was established in 1976 primarily for the conservation of Lion Tailed Macaque The river Thamirabarani originates from this tiger reserve. The reserve is also known as the “River Sanctuary” with as many as 14 rivers originating from this Tiger Reserve. Vegetation: This region has got vegetation types that gradually change from dry thorn forest to dry deciduous. Fauna — Lion Tailed Macaque, Nilgiri Tahr, Nilgiri Pipit, Grey Headed Bulbul, Blue Winged Parakeet, etc. MUST READ: Importance of Tiger Conservation and Amrabad Tiger Reserve Source: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon Frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray Chinned Minivet and White-throated Redstart are (2020) Birds Primates Reptiles Amphibians Q.2) Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve? (2019) Neyyar, Peppara, and Shendurney Wildlife sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam, and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram, and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve E fuels Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology and Science and technology About E fuels:- CEDITS : www.bellona.org Its production is based on the extraction of hydrogen by means of an electrolysis process that breaks down water (e.g. seawater from desalination plants) into its components of hydrogen and oxygen. This hydrogen is then combined with the carbon dioxide filtered from the air to form methanol. The methanol is then converted into gasoline using ExxonMobil-licensed technology. The fuel shall be used in any cars. They are made by storing electrical energy from renewable sources in chemical bonds of liquid of gas fuels. For this process and further production steps, electricity is required. These are the emerging class of carbon-neutral fuels. They are also called Synthetic fuels. They are seen as an alternative to biofuels. They are made by storing electrical energy from renewable sources in chemical bonds of liquid or gas fuels. E Fuels can make a climate-neutral contribution in all sectors where conventional fuels are currently used (e.g. transport or heating in buildings). They can solve two challenges of the energy transition: the problems of storing and transporting renewable energies. Other Electro fuels:- E-diesel is created from carbon dioxide, electricity, and water with a process powered by renewable energy. E-gasoline is a liquid octane fuel. It is a carbon-neutral fuel and  is free from sulfur and benzene. MUST READ: Ethanol blending and fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEV) Source: HINDUSTAN TIMES Previous Year Questions Q.1) According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels? (2020) Cassava Damaged wheat grains Groundnut seeds Horse gram Rotten potatoes Sugar beet Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 5, and 6 only 1, 3, 4, and 6 only 2, 3, 4, and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the (2020) the long-term damage was done by a ton of CO2, emissions in a given year requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to living in a new place contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth World Wide Fund for Nature and the report Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: A Recent study reported that over 170 trillion plastic particles are floating in the oceans. Key highlights  of the study :- Oceans across the world are polluted by a growing plastic smog composed primarily of microplastics, according to the study. Egypt, Nigeria, and South Africa are the largest contributors to plastic leakage on the continent. Algeria and Morocco joined the list of top 20 coastal countries contributing to marine plastic pollution, said a 2022 report by World Wide Fund for Nature. India: the waste dumped in the south Asian seas daily is generated from 60 major Indian cities, according to UNEP. Policy interventions so far:- In 1988, the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships added Annex V, which established legally-binding agreements among 154 countries to end the discharge of plastics from naval, fishing, and shipping fleets. These interventions were followed by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea in 1982 and the Convention on the Prevention of Marine Plastic by Dumping of Wastes and other Matter in 1972. In 1991, the Plastic Industry Trade Association launched ‘Operation Clean Sweep’ with the goal of zero loss of plastic pellets, powders, and flakes from factories with decreasing pellet ingestion in biota observed. About World Wide Fund for Nature:- It is an international non-governmental organization. It is working in the field of wilderness preservation and reduction of human impact on the environment. It was established in 1961. It is headquartered in Gland, Switzerland. It is the world’s leading conservation organization and works in more than 100 countries. WWF aims to stop the degradation of the planet’s natural environment and build a future in which humans live in harmony with nature. Currently, its work is organized around these six areas: food, climate, freshwater, wildlife, forests, and oceans. Publications:  Living Planet Report, every two years since 1998. MUST READ : Microplastics Source: DOWN TO EARTH Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements: (2022) Its fibers can be blended with wool and cotton fibers to reinforce their properties. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 1 and 4 2 and 3 Q.2) Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following? (2021) Brakes of motor vehicles Engines of motor vehicles Microwave stoves within homes Power plants Telephone lines Select the correct answer using the code given below 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 2, and 4 only 3, 4, and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Democratic Decentralisation Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: 2023 is the 30th anniversary of the passing of the 73rd and 74th Amendments. These amendments are made in the constitution in order to promote the democracy at grassroot level. About decentralisation in India: Democratic decentralization is the process of devolving the functions and resources of the state from the centre to the elected representatives at the lower levels so as to facilitate greater direct participation of citizens in governance. A major step towards decentralisation was taken in 1992 and the Constitution was amended to make the third-tier of democracy more powerful and effective. The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 has added a new part IX. The Amendment envisages the Gram Sabha as the foundation of the Panchayat Raj System to perform functions and powers entrusted to it by the State Legislatures. It provides for a three tier Panchayat Raj System at the village, intermediate and district levels. Significance of Decentralisation: It was the creation of an idealistic imagined space that would be above politics; that would free it from the usual give and take and contests of politics. Local government would be held to a higher standard than other tiers of governance. For example, we take partisanship and competition to be central to politics elsewhere. But somehow, we expected panchayats to be this font of consensus (some states give incentives for election by consensus). And, it has to be said, there was no serious demand side push for decentralisation. The 73rd and 74th amendments did achieve a lot: In some areas, they led to the state acquiring a distinct presence on the ground; they gave millions of citizens identities as representatives; they provided a conduit for sharing power; they created deliberative spaces, led to the creation of new norms, especially around the participation of women and a churn in local elites They slowly built up local capacities, and led to a wide range of functions being devolved to local government. Key issues associated with local govt: Local governments remain hamstrung and ineffective; mere agents to do the bidding of higher level governments. Democracy has not been enhanced in spite of about 32 lakh peoples’ representatives being elected to them every five years, with great expectation and fanfare. The constraint lies in the design of funding streams that transfer money to local governments. The volume of money set apart for them is inadequate to meet their basic requirements. Much of the money given is inflexible; even in the case of untied grants mandated by the Union and State Finance Commissions, their use is constrained through the imposition of several conditions. There is little investment in enabling and strengthening local governments to raise their own taxes and user charges. Local governments do not have the staff to perform even basic tasks. Furthermore, as most staff are hired by higher level departments and placed with local governments on deputation, they do not feel responsible to the latter; they function as part of a vertically integrated departmental system. The current Union government has further centralised service delivery by using technology, and panchayats are nothing more than front offices for several Union government programmes. Criminal elements and contractors are attracted to local government elections, tempted by the large sums of money now flowing to them. They win elections through bribing voters and striking deals with different groups. Suggestive Measures: Democratic decentralisation is barely alive in India and to curb existing issues gram Sabhas and wards committees in urban areas have to be revitalised. Consultations with the grama sabha could be organised through smaller discussions where everybody can really participate. Even new systems of Short Message Services, or social media groups could be used for facilitating discussions between members of a grama sabha. Local government organisational structures have to be strengthened. Panchayats are burdened with a huge amount of work that other departments thrust on them, without being compensated for the extra administrative costs. Local governments must be enabled to hold State departments accountable and to provide quality, corruption free service to them, through service-level agreements. India’s efforts in decentralisation represent one of the largest experiments in deepening democracy. We can keep track of corrupt local government representatives; at the higher level Given diverse habitation patterns, political and social history, it makes sense to mandate States to assign functions to local governments. Way Forward Gram Sabhas and wards committees in urban areas have to be strengthened in order to achieve the objective of people’s participation in real terms. Maximum efforts should be made towards recruitment and appointment of support and technical staff to ensure the smooth functioning of panchayats. A comprehensive mechanism should be adopted for taxation at the local levels as without local taxation, Gram Panchayats cannot be held accountable. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj should monitor the release and expenditure of Finance Commission grants in order to ensure that there is no delay in their release. It should also be ensured that the allotted grants are utilised in a proper and effective manner. Panchayats should be encouraged to carry out local audits at regular intervals so that Finance Commission grants are not delayed. Source: Indian Express Corruption in India Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) GS 4 (Ethics, Integrity and Aptitude) Context: The impact of corruption is especially heavy on common citizens and even more on poorer and vulnerable persons in communities. About Corruption: Corruption refers to misusing public power for personal gain. It can be done by an elected politician, civil servant, journalist, administrator of a school, or anyone in authority. Apart from public corruption, we also have private corruption between individuals and businesses. Thus, the corruption definition applies to different forms. Corruption Statistics in India The annual Kroll Global Fraud Report noted that India has among the highest national incidences of corruption (25%). The same study also noted that India reports the highest proportion reporting procurement fraud (77% as well as corruption and bribery (73%). India has the highest rate of bribery and use of personal links to access public services such as healthcare and education in Asia, according to a survey released by global civil society Transparency International. India is in the 85th position among 180 countries in the Corruption Perception Index, 2021. It uses a scale of 0 to 100, where 0 is highly corrupt and 100 is very clean. Reasons for Corruption: Personal gains and self-preservation: The corrupt want to accumulate power and wealth, which they believe will perpetuate their lineage in the world meeting self-preservation and existential needs. Criminality of outcomes: Public money is siphoned off and welfare schemes do not reach the beneficiaries. It borders on criminality when poor people are forced to shell out money for jobs, education, and even primary healthcare. Allocation of national resources to cronies for a price creates economic disparities, destroys level playing fields, discourages free markets and competition, and deters foreign investors. Low rate of conviction: The progress of investigations and rate of conviction in high-profile cases initiated by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) and Enforcement Directorate (ED) do not inspire much confidence in the public to believe that there has been any substantive change in this situation. Corruption during elections: Economists and political pundits believe that it will not be possible to eradicate corruption till a solution can be found for funding of elections. Legitimising political donations was a minuscule beginning. The much-maligned Electoral Bonds (EBs) was a step in the right direction. Though far from fool proof, it is certainly a cleaner method of mobilising funds rather than black money transferred through hawalas. Changing nature of Corruption: Since liberalisation in India, the nature of corruption has become more complex. With technological development, there are opportunities to prevent corruption but also areas where corruption can be much more difficult to trace, particularly in fields like cryptocurrency. Government Initiatives: Indian government has constituted a Special Investigation Team (SIT) on black money. It has enacted a comprehensive and more stringent new law – the Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015. There’s also a Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Amendment Act, 2016, which empowers the authorities to attach and confiscate Benami properties. Law enforcement agencies such as CBI have done a great deal to reduce corruption. Right To Information Act, 2005: The intent behind the enactment of the Act is to promote transparency and accountability in the working of Public Authorities. Prevention of Corruption Act: The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted to combat corruption in government agencies and public sector businesses in India. Amendment to the Act: As the Prevention of Corruption Act saw limited success in preventing corruption in Government departments and prosecuting and punishing public servants involved in corrupt practices, an amendment was enacted (Amendment Act) and brought into force in 2018. The Amendment Act attempted to bring the Prevention of Corruption Act in line with United Nations Convention against Corruption 2005, which was ratified by India in 2011. Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014: The Act seeks to protect whistleblowers, i.e. persons making a public interest disclosure related to an act of corruption, misuse of power, or criminal offence by a public servant. It is provided by the Right To Information Act, of 2005, and it has been an important weapon for whistleblowers in previous years. The RTI Act, 2005 is also called a ‘twin sister’ of whistleblowing. The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013: The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 provided for the establishment of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for States. The Lokayukta is an anti-corruption authority constituted at the state level. It investigates allegations of corruption and maladministration against public servants and is tasked with the speedy redressal of public grievances. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas (Amendment) Bill, 2016: The Bill amends the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 in relation to the declaration of assets and liabilities by public servants. It requires a public servant to declare his assets and liabilities, and that of his spouse and dependent children. Way Forward: Corruption encourages dysfunctionality in government, perpetrates economic inefficiency and can be a serious threat to national security. The problem is complex and there cannot be a “one size fits all” solution. There must be different strokes for different people as it were. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding National-Startup-Advisory-Council: It was constituted by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT). Chairman of the council is secretary for Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) The Kalakkad–Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve is in Kerala Karnataka Andhra Pradesh Tamil Nadu Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding World Wide Fund for Nature (WWFN): It is an international inter-governmental organization. It is headquartered in Gland, Switzerland. It aims to stop the degradation of the planet’s natural environment and build a future in which humans live in harmony with nature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 11th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 10th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th March 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions To take the Test Click Here