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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Legal Aid Defense Counsel System (LADCS) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: Recently the Chief Justice of Telangana High Court said that newly introduced system of Legal Aid Defense Counsel System (LADCS) should help under-trial prisoners belong to marginalised and weaker sections of the society. About the Legal Aid Defence Counsel System: It will provide free legal assistance to the accused in custody and the defendants in criminal cases in line with the public defence system. It would come to the rescue of the needy, for and distressed persons in the State. A team of select lawyers will fight cases for the defendants for free, on the lines of the office of public prosecutors. The LADCS lawyers will receive monthly salary and would not handle other cases. The legal aid is being offered at pre-arrest, remand, trial and appellate stages in criminal matters to the accused or convicts coming under section 12 of the Legal Services Act-1987. About National Legal Services Authority: Constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. While the Chief Justice of India is the Patron-in-Chief, the second senior most judge of the Supreme Court of India is the executive chairperson of the Authority. In every State, State Legal Services Authority has been constituted to give effect to the policies and directions of the NALSA and to give free legal services to the people and conduct Lok Adalats in the State. The State Legal Services Authority is headed by Hon’ble the Chief Justice of the respective High Court. Constitutional Provisions: Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides that State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disability. Articles 14 and 22(1) also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity to all. Objectives of Legal Services Authorities: Provide free legal aid and advice. Spread legal awareness. Organize Lok Adalats. Promote settlements of disputes through Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) Mechanisms. Various kinds of ADR mechanisms are Arbitration, Conciliation, Judicial settlement including settlement through Lok Adalat, or Mediation. Provide compensation to victims of crime. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 3 only Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Rann of Kutch Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: The first G20 Tourism Working Group Meeting recently held in Kutch region of Gujarat. About Rann of Kutch: It is a large area of salt marshes that span the border between India and Pakistan. It is located mostly in the Kutch district of Gujarat, with a minor portion extending into the Sindh province of Pakistan. It is divided into the Great Rann and Little Rann. The Great Rann of Kutch is the larger portion of the Rann. It extends east and west, with the Thar Desert to the north and the low hills of Kutch to the south. The Indus River Delta lies to the west in southern Pakistan. The Little Rann of Kutch lies southeast of the Great Rann, and extends southwards to the Gulf of Kutch. The climate of the ecoregion is Temperatures average 44 °C during the hot summer months, and can reach highs of 50 °C. During the winter the temperature can drop to or below freezing. The Rann of Kutch is the only large flooded grasslands zone in the Indomalayan realm. The Indomalayan realm is one of the eight biogeographic realms. It extends across most of South and Southeast Asia and into the southern parts of East Asia. The Little Rann of Kutch is home to the Indian wild ass (khur). The area has desert on one side and the sea on the other enables various ecosystems, including mangroves and desert vegetation. The history of the Rann of Kutch began with early neolithic settlements. It was later inhabited by the Indus Valley civilization as well as the Maurya and Gupta empires of India. Kutch Desert: Kutch Desert covers a vast area to the north of India and northwest by Sindh (Pakistan), west and southwest by the Arabian Sea, and to the northeast by Rajasthan. The Rann of Kachchh comprises a unique example of Holocene sedimentation. It is connected to the Arabian Sea through Kori Creek in the west and the Gulf of Kachchh in the east, and is very close to sea level. The Wild Ass Wildlife Sanctuary, situated in the Indian state of Gujarat, is the largest wildlife sanctuary in the country. It is spread in the entire area of the little Rann of Kutch where small grass-covered areas, known as baits, forms the flora and is an important source to support the fauna of the region. Source: NewsOnAir Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Peak                                              Mountains Namcha Barwa                     Garhwal Himalaya Nanda Devi                           Kumaon Himalaya Nokrek                                   Sikkim Himalaya Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? (2022) 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea of areas Anatolian Plate Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recently an earthquake of magnitude 7.8 struck Turkiye, one of the most seismically active regions in the Mediterranean and the world. About the Anatolian Plate: Turkiye (the Turkish/Anatolian plate) sits between three major tectonic plates: African, Arabian and Eurasian. The Anatolian Plate is a continental tectonic plate comprising most of the Anatolia (Asia Minor) peninsula (and the country of Turkey). To the east, the East Anatolian Fault, a left lateral transform fault, forms a boundary with the Arabian Plate. To the south and southwest is a convergent boundary with the African Plate. The Anatolian plate is divided into three major fault zones: North Anatolian Fault Zone (NAFZ), East Anatolian Fault Zone (EAFZ), South Eastern Anatolian Thrust Zone (SAT) Collisions between the Arabian and African plates with Eurasia typically result in earthquakes. Modified Mercalli Intensity Scale It is a seismic intensity scale used for measuring the intensity of shaking produced by an earthquake. It describes the effects of an earthquake on human beings, natural structures and industrial installations in a given region. The scale is designated in roman numerals. Source: DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                               Turkey Amhara                                               Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                     Spain Catalonia                                             Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) With references to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and khatu are the names of  (2021) Glaciers Mangrove areas Ramsar sites Saline lakes Green Deal Industrial Plan Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently , the European Union revealed the “Green Deal Industrial Plan” that aims to cut red tape and provide massive subsidies in a bid to support and expand its green industry. Regulatory Framework: By regulatory framework, the Green Deal Industrial Plan seeks to formulate a strategy for the “Net-Zero Industry Act.” This will not only simplify rules for traders to trade and operate freely but will expedite the process of trade permits and insurance for green projects, such as renewable energy generation arrays, carbon capture and renewable hydrogen production facilities. Faster funds arrangement: The rules will be relaxed to facilitate easier investment and raising of funds for the EU’s 27 governments to operate and work on clean energy projects. The proposal has been formulated to help European (Non-rich) by offering subsidies and allowing the usage of existing EU funds. Enhancement of skills: The ‘Green Deal Industrial Plan’ aims to create a “Net-Zero Industry Academies” that will provide up-skilling and re-skilling programmes in strategic industries. Trade improvement: The deal plan also emphasizes on the significance of free and open trade and aims to further ‘develop EU’s network of Free Trade Agreements and other forms of cooperation with partners to support the green transition.” USA’s Inflation Reduction Act (IRA): It is a landmark United States federal law which aims to curb inflation by reducing the deficit, lowering prescription drug prices, and investing into domestic energy production while promoting clean energy. Source: Indian Express Muons Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently researchers are examining the fortress wall of Xi’an, an ancient city in China, by using tiny outer space particles called Muons that can penetrate hundreds of meters of stone surfaces. These particles have helped them find small density anomalies, which are potential safety hazards, inside the wall. Muons are subatomic particles raining from space. They are created when the particles in Earth’s atmosphere collide with cosmic rays. These particles resemble electrons but are 207 times as massive. Therefore, they are sometimes called “fat electrons”. Because muons are so heavy, they can travel through hundreds of meters of rock or other matter before getting absorbed or decaying into electrons and neutrinos. In comparison, electrons can penetrate through only a few centimeters. Muons are highly unstable and exist for just 2.2 microseconds. Muography – Applications It is conceptually similar to X-ray but capable of scanning much larger and wider structures, owing to the penetration power of muons. Apart from archaeology, Muography has found use in customs security, internal imaging of volcanoes and others. Around 2015, scientists used the technique to look inside the Fukushima nuclear reactors after the 2011 earthquake and tsunami in Japan. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2) With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units Create meaningful short stories and songs Disease diagnosis Text-to-speech conversion Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2, 4, and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Operation Sadbhavana Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Defence Context: As part of ‘Operation SADBHAVANA’, Indian Army is undertaking multiple welfare activities in remote areas of Union Territory (UT) of Ladakh. About Operation Sadbhavana: Operation Sadbhavana (Goodwill) is a unique humane initiative undertaken by Indian Army in the Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh to address aspirations of people affected by terrorism, sponsored and abetted by Pakistan. As part of ‘Operation SADBHAVANA’, Indian Army is undertaking multiple welfare activities such as running of Army Goodwill Schools, Infrastructure Development Projects and Education Tours for the children living in remote areas of Union Territory (UT) of Ladakh. To improve the standard of education and to provide them with quality education, Indian Army is presently running seven (07) Army Goodwill Schools (AGS) under ‘Operation SADBHAVANA’ in Ladakh Region. Some of the objectives achieved through ‘Operation SADBHAVANA’ are national integration tours, women empowerment, employment generation, education and development activities towards nation building. ‘Operation SADBHAVANA’ projects are selected after taking local aspirations into consideration, in conjunction with local civil administration and it is ensured that there is no duplicates with projects of civil administration. Source:  PIB Sickle cell disease (SCD) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Finance Minister recently announced government’s plan to launch a mission to eliminate sickle cell anaemia by 2047. It is a group of inherited red blood cell disorders. In someone who has SCD, the hemoglobin is abnormal, which causes the red blood cells to become hard and sticky and look like a C-shaped farm tool called a “sickle.” The sickle cells die early, which causes a constant shortage of red blood cells. Also, when they travel through small blood vessels, they get stuck and clog the blood flow. This can cause pain and other serious complications (health problems) such as infection, acute chest syndrome and stroke. SCD is a genetic condition that is present at birth. It is inherited when a child receives two genes—one from each parent—that code for abnormal hemoglobin. A blood test can determine whether you have SCD or sickle cell trait. SCD can also be diagnosed before a baby is born. SCD can only be cured by bone marrow or stem cell transplantation. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics : Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 ChatGPT and the AI challenge Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: There is a great deal of speculation about how the recently launched ChatGPT will impact a huge number of human job roles, from customer service to computer programming. About ChatGPT:   ChatGPT is a prototype dialogue-based AI chatbot capable of understanding natural human language and generating impressively detailed human-like written text. It is the latest evolution of the GPT – or Generative Pre-Trained Transformer – family of text-generating AIs. It is trained using a machine learning technique called Reinforcement Learning from Human Feedback (RLHF). It can simulate dialogue, answer follow-up questions, admit mistakes, challenge incorrect premises and reject inappropriate requests. Core function of ChatGPT: Like other language models, Chat-GPT is designed to generate human-like text based on the input it receives. It is trained on a large text dataset and can generate a wide range of responses to various prompts and questions. This helps them mimic speech patterns while dispatching encyclopedic knowledge. Basically, that means that it is a computer program that can understand and “talk” to us in a way that is very close to conversing with an actual human. A very clever and knowledgeable human at that, who knows around 175 billion pieces of information and is able to recall any of them almost instantly. Although the core function of a chatbot is to mimic a human conversationalist, ChatGPT is versatile. For example, it can write and debug computer programs, to compose music, teleplays, fairy tales, and student essays; to answer test questions . Significance of Chat GPT Increased productivity: Having Chat GPT implemented can help businesses improve their efficiency, allowing them to provide better and faster service to their clients. Increased Accuracy: As more data is gathered and the model is fine-tuned on specific tasks, the generated text is expected to increase in both its accuracy and its coherence. Quick responses: With ChatGPT you can be sure of quick responses. GPT can promptly respond to incoming messages. It makes real-time conversations a breeze. Reduced Expenses: Providing support and customer care using ChatGPT can be accomplished at a very reasonable cost. Having ChatGPT will allow businesses to hire a smaller number of customer care personnel to handle client inquiries, which in turn will lower the overhead costs of the firm. Support for Various Languages: ChatGPT is beneficial for individuals and businesses who wish to communicate with speakers of other languages, as Open AI works on models that support several languages. Limitations: It may generate incorrect information, and create “biased”. It could give “plausible-sounding but incorrect or nonsensical” It can sometimes overuse certain phrases. The chatbot displayed clear racial and sexist biases. The chatbot gives answers which are grammatically correct and read well– though some have pointed out that these lack context and substance, which is largely true. Ethical concerns associated with ChatGPT: Malicious and Dangerous Coding: Some users have been experimenting with the chatbot’s potential to carry out malicious actions. It has been claimed by several users that malicious and dangerous coding is generated by the Chatbot despite their claims to be amateurs. Plagiarism Chokepoint: Plagiarism in academics is not a new issue, but ChatGPT has altered how AI is utilized to produce original writing. It is difficult to identify plagiarized information as a result. Teachers and academicians have also expressed concerns over ChatGPT’s impact on written assignments. Creation of Biased Data/information: One concern is the potential for bias in the generated code, as the training data used to create the code generator may contain biases that are reflected in the generated code. Curtailing the Job Opportunity: There is a concern that the use of code generators could lead to the loss of jobs for human programmers. Generation of Phishing Email: ChatGPT is set up to reject requests to write phishing emails or malicious code but in actual sense ChatGPT is producing an outstanding phishing email. Way Forward: Anticipating possible futures requires engagement with the opportunities and challenges flagged by ChatGPT. Elon Musk wrote that “ChatGPT is scary good. we are not far from dangerously strong AI”. Thus,  Current requirement is mapping out and planning for the changes that will be required in the education system, labour codes and new commodities that are bound to emerge as a result. Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation Which of the following given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022) Cloud Services Quantum Computing Visible Light Communication Technologies Wireless Communication Technologies Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding National Legal Services Authority: It is constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. The Chief Justice of India is the Patron-in-Chief of the authority. The State Legal Services Authority is headed by the Chief Justice of the respective High Court. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) The wild ass wildlife sanctuary is located in Rajasthan Kerala Gujrat Andhra Pradesh Q.3) Which of the following organizations recently launched “ Green Deal Industrial Plan ”  to cut red tape and provide massive subsidies in a bid to support and expand its green industry ? International Monetary Fund World Bank European Union United Nations Environment Programme Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 7th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s Economic Survey Summary 2022-23

Archives Hello Friends,Hope the preparation is in full swing. At this point of time focus more and more on revision. Be sincere in your effort and do not fear the examination. This is the time when your composure and calmness matter the most. Your dealing with the same will decide the strength of your readiness for the examination.We present the Economic Survey 2022-23.Download The IASbaba’s Economic Survey 2022-23 SummaryIt is prepared considering the relevance and importance of Prelims and Mains.Kindly leave your feedback in the comment section below on the presentation of the economic survey. We would love to hear from youWork hard. All the best. Download The IASbaba’s Economic Survey 2022-23 Summary To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow-TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccountYOUTUBE – https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQFACEBOOK – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/Thank YouIASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Indian Development and Economic Assistance Scheme (IDEAS) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: India delivers fifty more buses to Sri Lanka at Presidential Secretariat premises under Economic Assistance Scheme of Indian govt. About the scheme: Under this scheme, Government supported Export and Import Bank of India (Exim Bank) Lines of Credit (LoCs) are made available to developing countries for support of developmental and other projects as recommended by Ministry of External Affairs (MEA). It promotes India’s political, economic and strategic interests besides building a positive image of India abroad. Do You Know? The IDEA Scheme initially known as the India Development Initiative had its genesis in the announcement made by Finance Minister in the Union Budget for 2003-04. EXIM Bank Exim Bank was established by the Government of India, under the Export-Import Bank of India Act, 1981 as a purveyor of export credit, mirroring global Export Credit Agencies. Exim Bank serves as a growth engine for industries and SMEs through a wide range of products and services. This includes import of technology and export product development, export production, export marketing, pre-shipment and post-shipment and overseas investment. Exim Bank extends Lines of Credit (LOCs) to overseas financial institutions, regional development banks, sovereign governments and other entities overseas, to enable buyers in those countries to import developmental and infrastructure projects, equipment, goods and services from India, on deferred credit terms. Source: NewsOnAir Previous Year Questions Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following:  (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) The Chairman of public sector banks are selected by the  (2019) Banks Board Bureau Reserve Bank of India Union Ministry of Finance Management of concerned bank Sant Ravidas Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History Context: Sant Ravidas birth anniversary About Sant Ravidas: Ravidas, or Raidas, was an Indian mystic poet-saint of the bhakti movement and founder of the Ravidassia religion during the 15th to 16th century CE. He is venerated as a guru (teacher) in the modern regions of Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana. He was a poet, social reformer and spiritual figure. The life details of Ravidas are uncertain and contested. He was born in Varanasi into untouchable leather-working Chamar caste. He valued the worship of a formless God. Ravidas’s devotional Verses were included in the Sikh scriptures known as Guru Granth Sahib. The Panch Vani text of the Dadupanthi tradition within Hinduism also includes numerous poems of Ravidas. He taught removal of social divisions of caste and gender, and promoted unity in the pursuit of personal spiritual freedom. Along with Kabir, he was one of the most noted disciples of Bhagat Ramanand. 41 verses of Bhakta Ravidas are incorporated into Sikh’s religious book, Adi Granth. He was vocal against the varna (caste) system He imagined an egalitarian society called Begumpura, means “land without sorrow” His disciples came to be known as Ravidas-panthis and followers came to be known as Ravidassias. He also mentioned ‘Sahaj’, a mystical state where there is a union of the truths of the many and the one. About Ravidassias: The Ravidassias are a Dalit community of whom the bulk — nearly 12 lakhs — live in the Doaba region. The Dera Sachkhand Ballan, their largest dera with 20 lakh followers worldwide, was founded in the early 20th century by Baba Sant Pipal Das. Once closely connected with Sikhism, the dera severed these decades-old ties in 2010, and announced they would follow the Ravidassia religion. The announcement was made on Guru Ravidas Jayanti in Varanasi. From 2010, the Dera Sachkhand Ballan started replacing the Guru Granth Sahib with its own Granth, Amritbani, carrying 200 hymns of Guru Ravidas, in Ravidassia temples and gurdwaras. Source:   NewsOnAir Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts: Nettipakarana Parishishtaparvan Avadanashataka Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina texts  (2022) 1,2 and 3 2 and 4 only 1,3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following pairs: Parivrajaka — Renunciant and Wanderer Shramana — Priest with a high status Upasaka — Lay follower of Buddhism Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (2020) 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Visva-Bharati University Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History Context: Visva-Bharati University will soon get the ‘heritage’ tag from UNESCO to take the distinction of world’s first living heritage university. About the university: It was founded by Rabindranath Tagore in 1921. Until Independence, it was a college and the institution was given the status of Central University in 1951 through a central Act. Its first vice-chancellor was Rathindranath Tagore, the son of Rabindranath Tagore. The second vice-chancellor was grandfather of another Nobel Laureate economist Amartya Sen. In 1922, Visva-Bharati was inaugurated as a Centre for Culture with exploration into the arts, language, humanities, music. About Rabindranath Tagore Rabindranath Tagore was a Bengali poet, novelist, and painter, who was born in Calcutta on May 7, 1861 and was highly influential in introducing Indian culture to the west. He was also referred to as ‘Gurudev’, ‘Kabiguru’, and ‘Biswakabi’. He was the first non-European to receive the Nobel Prize for his work on Gitanjali in 1913. In 1915, Tagore was awarded knighthood by the British King George V. However, in 1919, following the Jallianwalla Bagh massacre he renounced his Knighthood. Rabindranath Tagore was a good friend of Mahatma Gandhi and is said to have given him the title of Mahatma. He gave the national anthems for two countries, India and Bangladesh. He inspired a Ceylonese student of his, to pen and compose the national anthem of Sri Lanka. Tagore believed in open-air education and had reservations about any teaching done within four walls. This was due to his belief that walls represent the conditioning of the mind. Tagore did not have a good opinion about the Western method of education introduced by the British in India; on this subject, Tagore and Gandhiji’s opinion matched. So, he devised a new system of learning in Visva-Bharati which allowed students to continue their course till the student and his teacher both are satisfied. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolor Indian National Flag here. Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of Andhra region from here. Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here. Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up headquarters of Theosophical Society first here. Q.2) Wellesley established the Fort William College at Calcutta because (2020) he was asked by the Board of Directors at London to do so he wanted to revive interest in oriental learning in India he wanted to provide William Carey and his associates with employment he wanted to train British civilians for administrative purpose in India NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) satellite Open in new window Syllabus  Prelims – Science and Technology Context: An earth-observation satellite jointly developed by NASA and ISRO that will help study Earth’s land and ice surfaces in greater detail is all set to be shipped to India as per the sources. About NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) satellite NISAR is a joint Earth-observing mission between NASA and the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) with the goal to make global measurements of the causes and consequences of land surface changes using advanced radar imaging. The mission is targeted to launch in 2024. NASA is providing the mission’s L-band synthetic aperture radar, a high-rate communication subsystem for science data, GPS receivers, a solid-state recorder and payload data subsystem. ISRO is providing the spacecraft bus, the S-band radar, the launch vehicle and associated launch services. The NASA-ISRO SAR (NISAR) Mission will measure Earth’s changing ecosystems, dynamic surfaces, and ice masses providing information about biomass, natural hazards, sea level rise, and groundwater, and will support a host of other applications. NISAR will observe Earth’s land and ice-covered surfaces globally with 12-day regularity on ascending and descending passes, sampling Earth on average every 6 days for a baseline 3-year mission. Synthetic aperture radar (SAR) It refers to a technique for producing fine-resolution images from a resolution-limited radar system. It requires that the radar be moving in a straight line, either on an airplane or, as in the case of NISAR, orbiting in space. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface. Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies do not change Gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in straight line Speed of light is always same Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha Evam Uttham Mahabhiya (PM KUSUM) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The deadline for a key scheme by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy to install 30,000 MW solar power capacity in rural India by 2022, has now been pushed to March 2026. About the scheme: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has launched the PM KUSUM Scheme for farmers for installation of solar pumps and grid connected solar and other renewable power plants in the country. The scheme will open a stable and continuous source of income to the rural land owners for a period of 25 years by utilization of their dry/uncultivable land. The scheme would ensure that sufficient local solar/ other renewable energy-based power is available for feeding rural load centres and agriculture pump-set loads, which require power mostly during the day time. The Scheme consists of three components: Component A: 10,000 MW of Decentralized Ground Mounted Grid Connected Renewable Power Plants of individual plant size up to 2 MW. Component B: Installation of 17.50 lakh standalone Solar Powered Agriculture Pumps of individual pump capacity up to 7.5 HP. Component C: Solarization of 10 Lakh Grid-connected Agriculture Pumps of individual pump capacity up to 7.5 HP. Source:  The Hindu Asia’s largest helicopter manufacturing facility Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Science and Technology Context: Asia’s largest helicopter manufacturing facility in Karnataka’s Tumkur. About It is also a new greenfield helicopter factory. This helicopter factory is Asia’s largest helicopter manufacturing facility and will initially produce Light Utility Helicopters (LUHs). LUH is an indigenously designed and developed 3-ton class, single-engine multipurpose utility helicopter with the unique feature of high maneuverability. This facility will enable India to meet its entire requirement of helicopters indigenously and will attain the distinction of enabling self-reliance in helicopter design, development and manufacture in the country. Source:  Indian Express The North Star Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Amid demands by the Opposition for a discussion on the row surrounding the Adani Group, Vice President said Parliament is the “North Star” of democracy and everyone is required to work in accordance with rules. About the North Star: Polaris, also known as the North Star or the Pole Star, is a very bright star (around 2500 times more luminous than our sun) placed less than 1° away from the north celestial pole. Its position and brightness have made humans use it for navigation since late antiquity. It is a part of the constellation Ursa Minor and is around 323 light-years away from Earth. Since Polaris lies nearly in a direct line with the Earth’s rotational axis above the North Pole, it stands almost motionless in the night sky, with all the stars of the northern sky appearing to rotate around it. This makes it an excellent fixed point from which to draw measurements for celestial navigation. The elevation of the star above the horizon gives the approximate latitude of the observer and in the northern hemisphere. If one can see Polaris one can always tell which way is north (and, by extension, which ways are south, east and west). Upon crossing the equator to the South, the North Star is lost over the horizon and hence stops being a useful navigational aid. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the: (2022) First half of the month of June Second half of the month of June First half of the month of July Second half of the month of July Q.2) On 21st June, the Sun (2019) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn Ordnance Factory Board (OFB) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Defence Context: To enhance functional autonomy, efficiency and unleash new growth potential and innovation in Ordnance Factories, the Government of India has decided to convert the production units of Ordnance Factory Board into 7 Defence Public Sector Undertakings. About OFB: It is an umbrella body for the ordnance factories and related institutions and is currently a subordinate office of the Ministry of Defence (MoD). It consists of 41 factories, 9 Training Institutes, 3 regional marketing centres and 5 regional controllers of safety. Headquarters: Kolkata Significance: A major chunk of the weapon, ammunition and supplies for not just armed forces but also paramilitary and police forces comes from the OFB-run factories. Production: Production includes Civilian and military-grade arms and ammunition, explosives, propellants and chemicals for missile systems, military vehicles, armored vehicles, optical devices, parachutes, support equipment, troop clothing and general store items. Source:   PIB Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to visible light communication (VLC) technology, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780nm VLC is known as long-range optical wireless communication VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth VLC has no electromagnetic interference Select the correct answer using the code given below 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only Challenges to secure India’s Land Borders Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Security Issues) Context: India’s significant border challenge is that it has contested borders with Pakistan and China and both of them have a strategic nexus directed against India. About India’s borders: India’s borders are unique due to the variety of terrains through which these borders pass, namely deserts, mountains, glaciers and forests. It is obvious that managing such large borders in diverse terrain conditions poses myriad challenges. India shares borders with the countries as follows: Bangladesh:70 kms running along West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Pakistan: 3323 kms running along Gujarat, Rajasthan, Punjab, Union Territory of Jammu & Kashmir and Union Territory of Ladakh. China: 3488 kms running along Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and Union Territory of Ladakh. Nepal: 1751 kms running along Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim. Bhutan: 699 kms running along Sikkim, West Bengal, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. Myanmar: 1643 kms running along Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram. Afghanistan: 106 kms running along Union Territory of Ladakh India’s Border disputes With Pakistan: On the borders: Barely two months after Independence, Pakistani fighters invaded Jammu and Kashmir, leading to the first of four wars the two countries have since fought. The Kashmir region is often dubbed as one of the most militarized places in the world. POK is Pakistan Occupied Kashmir which refers to the region in Kashmir which is under control of Pakistan. Issue of Drugs: Drugs smuggling from Pakistan is another major challenge for our paramilitary forces and state police. Punjab, a strategic border state, has been the target of drug smuggling for many years now. Terrorism: Terrorism emanating from territories under Pakistan’s control remains a core concern in bilateral relations. With China: It is along the LAC with China that India faces the toughest border challenge. India has disputed borders with China in Ladakh, Middle Sector, and in Arunachal Pradesh. Despite many levels of talks, very little progress has been made to resolve the dispute. China is using the dispute against India, whom it sees as its competitor in Asia, to moderate its strategic behaviour and advance its national goals and aspirations. China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC): The CPEC is a collection of infrastructure projects that have been under construction throughout Pakistan beginning 2013. The CPEC is part of China’s larger Belt and Road Initiative. India has protested the project from its inception since it passes through large chunks of Pakistan-occupied Kashmir. India-Nepal and India- Bhutan Border Management Challenges The region is comparatively peaceful and the matters of security in the region are handled by the SSB (Sashastra Seema Bal). However, peaceful and open borders come with several challenges. Both Nepal and Bhutan are landlocked. The border posts with India serve as their entry point for essential supplies. Any use of force can seriously hamper bilateral relations. The disputed areas with Nepal involve the Kalapani and the Susta regions. India-Bangladesh Border Management Challenges The 1971 war separated the east Pakistan region and resulted in the creation of Bangladesh. The region is manned by the Border Security Force. This border faces a severe refugee crisis. The influx of Rohingya minorities from West Bengal is a cause of concern. Malaria is another concern that the on-ground troops face. The marshy swamps are nearly inhospitable and infested with anopheles’ mosquitoes. Further, the rugged topography and the constantly shifting course of the river Brahmaputra create security concerns. Cattle smuggling has also been rampant along the border, there were instances when security forces had to use legitimate force to cool off the situation and apprehend the culprits. India’s chicken neck corridor at Siliguri in west Bengal acts as the only source of connectivity between mainland India and the Northeastern region through the land. This narrow strip of land is thus strategically important and hence security forces have to deploy a considerable amount of force to ensure the security of the region. India’s strategy to tackle its border disputes Deployment of troops & surveillance: The Indian Army and the BSF are deployed in multiple layers to form an anti-infiltration grid. The border fence and deployment of other surveillance devices has helped in reducing infiltrations. The surgical strikes launched by our armed forces in the wake of terrorist attacks supported by Pakistan’s ISI have succeeded in sending the message of firm resolve to deal with the menace of terrorism and proxy wars. Construction activities: As part of the strategy to secure the borders as also to create infrastructure in the border areas of the country, several initiatives have been undertaken by the Border Management Division. These include: Construction of fence, floodlighting, roads, Border Out Posts (BOPs), Company Operating Bases (COBs) and Deployment of technological solutions along the India-Pakistan, India-Bangladesh, India-China, India-Nepal, India-Bhutan and India-Myanmar borders. Other: Projects like Trans-Arunachal Highway will help in mounting an effective and speedy response against an aggression by the China. The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) completed more than 100 projects in border areas, the majority of which were close to the border with China. India is speeding up work on the Nimu-Padam-Darcha axis which is going to help troops move to Ladakh from other parts of the country. However, this will take time; until then we have to be prepared to deal with its aggression along LAC in an ‘Armed Coexistence’ scenario. Need for northeast settle disputes: The maximum area of ​​the Northeast is surrounded by countries like China, Myanmar, Bangladesh, from which India has a dispute. India is connected to the northeast by the Siliguri corridor, a very narrow area. Thus, North East including Siliguri is a very strategic region for India. Therefore maintaining peace is very important aspect in the region. The people of the Northeast are extremely isolated and backward from pre- independence. After independence, disputes need to be resolved to reduce the trust deficit of the people there, to develop and establish peace there. It is essential to achieve the true essence of fraternity described in the Constitution of India. Peace in the North-East will save India’s resources which can be used for international border management and welfare projects. Recommendations For better border management: The principle of ‘Single Point Control’ Or “One-Force-One-Border” principle must be followed if the borders are to be effectively managed. Divided responsibilities never result in effective control The advances in surveillance technology, can help to maintain a constant vigil along the LAC and make it possible to reduce physical deployment as and when modern surveillance assets can be provided on a regular basis to the formations deployed forward. Similarly, the availability of a larger number of helicopter units will enhance the quality of aerial surveillance and the ability to move troops to quickly occupy defensive positions when it becomes necessary. The recent nomination of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) as the national-level counterinsurgency force should enable the other central para-military forces (CPMFs) like BSF and ITBP to return to their primary role of better border management. It is also recommended that all Para-military forces managing unsettled borders should operate directly under the control of the army. There should be lateral induction from the army to the para-military forces so as to enhance their operational effectiveness. External threats to India’s security are not the only border management issue dealt with at present by the national security apparatus. In recent past, India’s rate of growth has far outpaced that of most of its neighbors and this has generated problems like mass migrations into India. Way Forward: Government should resolve pending border disputes with the neighboring countries, as they later become matters of national-security threat. The border-guarding force should not be distracted from its principal task and deployed for other internal security duties. For  example ITBP, a force specifically trained for India- China border should not be used in the Naxalite-infested areas. It is felt that the responsibility for unsettled and disputed borders, such as the LoC in J&K and the LAC on the Indo-Tibetan border, should be that of the Indian Army while the BSF should be responsible for all settled borders. Developing Infrastructure-accelerated development of infrastructure along the border, especially to wean the border population from illegal activities. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Exim bank: It was established by the Government of India, under the Export-Import Bank of India Act, 1981. It extends Lines of Credit (LOCs) to overseas financial institutions, regional development banks, sovereign governments and other entities overseas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following statements is not correct with regard to saint Ravidas: He was the founder of the Ravidassia religion during the 15th to 16th century CE He advocated for the worship of a formless God His disciples came to be known as Ravidas-panthis and followers came to be known as Ravidassias. All statements are correct Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha Evam Uttham Mahabhiya (PM KUSUM): It was launched recently by the Ministry of Power The scheme would ensure renewable energy-based power is available for feeding rural load centres and agriculture pump-set loads Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 6th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 4th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – c Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 4th February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Angel Tax Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, the Finance Bill, 2023, has proposed to amend Section 56(2) VII B of the Income Tax Act, related to Angel tax. About Angel Tax: A term used to refer to the income tax payable on the capital raised by unlisted companies. It is levied on the capital raised via the issue of shares from an Indian investor. This tax predominantly affects start-ups and the angel investments they attract. It derives its genesis from section 56(2) (viib) of the Income Tax Act, 1961. Section 56(2) (viib) in the IT act: Introduced by the finance act, 2012 It taxes any investment, received by any unlisted Indian company, valued above the fair market value by treating it as income. The investment in excess of fair value is characterized as ‘Income from other sources. If the fair market value of a start-up share is Rs 50 apiece, and in a subsequent funding round they offer it to an investor for Rs 60, then the difference of Rs 10 would be taxed as income. Proposed changes For Angel Tax exemptions: The government has exempted investments made by the domestic investors in companies approved by an inter-ministerial panel from Angel Tax. Criteria for exemption: The paid-up capital and share premium of the startup should not exceed Rs. 10 crores after issuing shares. The startup should procure the fair market value certified by a merchant banker. The investor should have a minimum net worth of Rs. 2 crores and the average income in the last 3 financial years should not be less than Rs. 50 lakhs. For foreign Investors: New changes include foreign investors, meaning that when a start-up raises funding from a foreign investor, that too will now be counted as income and be taxable. Foreign investors are a key source of funding for the start-ups and have played a big role in increasing the valuation. Significance of provision: The provision aims to deter the generation and use of unaccounted money through the subscription of shares of a closely held company at a value that is higher than the fair market value of the firm’s shares. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Solomon Islands Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: The United States opened an embassy in the Solomon Islands recently in its latest move to counter China’s push into the Pacific. About Solomon Islands: Solomon Islands is an island country consisting of six major islands and over 900 smaller islands in Oceania. Capital city Honiara, is located on the largest island, According to the World Risk Report 2021, the island state ranks second among the countries with the highest disaster risk worldwide. More than 90% of the islanders are ethnic Melanesians, but there has been intense and bitter rivalry between the Isatabus on Guadalcanal, the largest island, and migrant Malaitans from the neighbouring island. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                              Turkey Amhara                                              Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                    Spain Catalonia                                            Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following countries: Azerbaijan Kyrgyzstan Tajikistan Uzbekistan Turkmenistan Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan? (2022) 1, 2 and 5 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Sacred Shaligram Stones Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Art and Culture Context: Two sacred Shaligram stones, weighing 31 tonnes and 15 tonnes, arrived in Ayodhya in Uttar Pradesh. The stones are expected to be used for constructing the idols of Lord Ram and Janaki at the Ram Temple. About Shaligram Stones: Shaligram stones are fossils of ammonite, which is a type of mollusc that lived between 400 million and 65 million years ago. Shaligram stones date specifically from the Early Oxfordian to the Late Tithonian Age near the end of the Jurassic Period some 165-140 million years ago. It is mostly found in riverbeds or banks of the Kali Gandaki, a tributary of the Gandaki River in Nepal. This stone is revered by Hindus who believe it to be a representation of Lord Vishnu. The stone is considered to have divine powers and is seen as a symbol of good luck and prosperity. Significance: Lord Ram is believed to be the reincarnation of Lord Vishnu, and the use of the Shaligram stone symbolises the connection between the two gods. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts                      Location in the State of Dhauli                                                                      Odisha Erragudi                                                           Andhra Pradesh Jaugada                                                            Madhya Pradesh Kalsi                                                                         Karnataka How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pair Q.2) With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: It is a circular temple built during the reign of Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2021) 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Project ELLORA Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Research Joint Parliamentary Committee ers at the Microsoft Research (MSR) lab in India have been working towards creating Project ELLORA. About Project ELLORA: The project aims to bring ‘rare’ Indian languages online. It is also known as Enabling Low Resource Languages that was launched in 2015. It is a digital resource for Indian languages that do not have enough presence online. Some of the languages that’s its researching includes: Gondi, Mundari, and Idu Mishmi. Gondi: It is a South-Central Dravidian language spoken by Gond tribes. It is spoken in Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. It is written in Devanagari and Telugu scripts. Mundari: It belongs to Austroasiatic language family spoken by the Munda tribes. It is spoken in Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal. Scripts: Mundari bani. It is written in the Devanagari, Odia, Bengali, and Latin writing systems. Idu Mishmi: It is spoken in Arunachal Pradesh and in Tibet Autonomous Region, China. It uses the Tibetan script and Idu Azobra script. It is also known as Sulikata, Midu, Mindri and Mithu. Source: Indian Express Joint Parliamentary Committee Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: The Opposition joined hands to demand a probe either by a Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC), headed by the Supreme Court or monitored by the Chief Justice of India, into the allegations of fraud and stock manipulation against the Adani Group. About Joint Parliamentary Committee: A Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) is set up by the Parliament for a special purpose, like for the detailed scrutiny of a subject or Bill. It has members from both the Houses and from both the ruling parties and the opposition. Members of the JPC are decided by the Parliament. There is no fixed number of members in the committee. It is dissolved after its term ends or its task has been completed. The recommendations made by the committee are in recommendatory in nature not binding on the government. Powers of the committee: A JPC can obtain evidence of experts, public bodies, associations, individuals or interested parties suo motu or on requests made by them. If a witness fails to appear before a JPC in response to summons, his conduct constitutes a contempt of the House. Ministers are not generally called by the committees to give evidence. However, with the permission of the Speaker, the JPC can seek information on certain points from ministers and call the ministers. The JPC can take oral and written evidence or call for documents in connection with a matter under its consideration. The Joint Parliamentary Committees are formed till date include the following cases: Bofors scandal (1987) Harshad Mehta Stock market scam (1992) Ketan Parekh share market scam (2001) Soft drink pesticide issue (2003) 2G spectrum case (2011) VVIP Chopper scam (2013) Land Acquisition (2015) NRC (2016) Personal Data Protection Bill (2019) Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model? (2021) As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the parliament to legislate is limited. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Rashtriya Gokul Mission Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Government schemes and policies In News: The scheme will continue till 2025-26 with an allocation of Rs.2400 crore. About Rashtriya Gokul Mission The “Rashtriya Gokul Mission” aims to conserve and develop indigenous breeds in a focused and scientific manner. The potential to enhance the productivity of the indigenous breeds of India through professional farm management and superior nutrition is immense, for this it is essential to promote conservation and development of indigenous breeds. The Rashtriya Gokul Mission is a focussed project under National Programme for Bovine Breeding and Dairy Development. The Mission will be implemented with the objectives to: Development and conservation of indigenous breeds Undertake breed improvement programme for indigenous cattle breeds so as to improve the genetic makeup and increase the stock; Enhance milk production and productivity; Upgrade nondescript cattle using elite indigenous breeds like Gir, Sahiwal, Rathi, Deoni, Tharparkar, Red Sindhi Distribute disease-free high genetic merit bulls for natural service. News Source: PIB One District One Product(ODOP) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Governance About: One District One Product Scheme is an initiative that is seen as a transformational step forward towards realizing the true potential of a district, fuel economic growth, and generate employment and rural entrepreneurship, taking us to the goal of AtmaNirbhar Bharat. This scheme is basically a Japanese business development concept, which gained prominence in 1979. It is aimed at promoting a competitive and staple product from a specific area to push sales and improve the standard of living of the local population. Over time, it has been replicated in other Asian countries as well. In India, Uttar Pradesh government was the first state of India to launch the concept of One District One Product in 2018. Components of the Scheme:  Identify one product per district based on the potential and strength of a district and national priorities Develop a cluster for that product in the district which is capable of producing a world-class product with quality, scalability, and a brand Provide market linkages Address bottlenecks for exporting these products Support local exporters/manufacturers to scale up manufacturing Find potential buyers outside India with the aim of promoting exports Promoting manufacturing & services industry in the District Generate employment in the District GIS One District One Product (ODOP) Digital Map of India: By The Ministry of Food Processing The digital ODOP map provides detailed information about ODOP products to all states and facilitates the stakeholders. The digital map also has indicators for tribal, SC, ST, and aspirational districts. It will enable stakeholders to make concerted efforts for its value chain development. Few products identified include: Uttar Pradesh The ancient and nutritious ‘Kala namak’ rice of Siddharthanagar The rare technique of wheat-stalk craft, handicraft in Bahraich The famous chikankari and zari-zardozi work garments Banana fibre of Kushinagar, Banana of Kaushambi, Jaggery of Ayodhya, Aamla of Pratapgarh, Pulses of Balrampur and Gonda, Desi ghee of Auraiya, Wooden toys of Chitrakoot Wooden artifacts of Saharanpur, Basti, Bijnor, Rae Bareli The horn and bone work that uses the remains of dead animals rather than living ones, making it a nature-friendly replacement for ivory. Sunahri Kand: To support the production of horticultural items under the “One District One Product (ODOP)” scheme and provide better nutrition to school children Rajasthan: Blue Pottery (Jaipur) and MarkhanaMarbels (Nagaur) Maharashtra: Wine from the Nashik valley  Karnataka:  The hilly district in Malnad region of Karnataka is known for its coffee production and accounts for 30-40% of the total coffee production in India. It is also nicknamed the ‘coffee cup’ of India. In Chikkamagaluru, spices were earmarked, while pineapples were chosen in Shivamogga district. Other products included are Kalaburagi (red gram), Mandya (jaggery), Vijayapura (lemon), Haveri (mango), Gadag (Byadagi chillies), Bidar (ginger), Ballari (fig), Mysuru (bananas), and Koppal (guava). News Source: PIB What is the Paris Club? Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: International Affairs In News: The Paris Club, an informal group of creditor nations, will provide financial assurances to the International Monetary Fund on Sri Lanka’s debt. The Paris Club It is a group of mostly western creditor countries that grew from a 1956 meeting in which Argentina agreed to meet its public creditors in Paris. Objective is to find sustainable debt-relief solutions for countries that are unable to repay their bilateral loans. It describes itself as a forum where official creditors meet to solve payment difficulties faced by debtor countries. All 22 are members of the group called Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). The members are: Australia, Australia, Belgium, Canada, Denmark, Finland, France, Germany, Ireland, Israel, Japan, Netherlands, Norway, Russia, South Korea, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, the United Kingdom and the United States. How has Paris Club been involved in debt agreements? Since its beginnings, the Paris Club has reached 478 agreements with 102 different debtor countries. Since 1956, the debt treated in the framework of Paris Club agreements amounts to $ 614 billion. It operates on the principles of consensus and solidarity. Any agreement reached with the debtor country will apply equally to all its Paris Club creditors. A debtor country that signs an agreement with its Paris Club creditors, should not then accept from its non-Paris Club commercial and bilateral creditors such terms of treatment of its debt that are less favourable to the debtor than those agreed with the Paris Club. The role of the Paris Club over time: The Paris group countries dominated bilateral lending in the last century, but their importance has receded over the last two decades or so with the emergence of China as the world’s biggest bilateral lender. News Source: Indian Express No bar on contesting two seats in one poll Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Elections In News: The Supreme Court has refused to set aside a provision in the election law that allows candidates to contest polls from two constituencies simultaneously. Why: SC feels that it is a policy matter and an issue concerning political democracy. Hence, it is for the Parliament to take a call. Background: The petition filed by advocate Ashwini Upadhyay, represented by senior advocate Gopal Sankaranarayanan, had sought the court to declare Section 33(7) of the Representation of People Act invalid and ultra vires. Like one-person-one-vote, one-candidate-one-constituency is the dictum of democracy. Section 33(7) of the Act allows a person to contest a general election or a group of by-elections or biennial elections from two constituencies. But the court chose to leave the issue to the wisdom of the Parliament. In 2018, the government had objected to the petition in court. It had argued that law cannot curtail the right of a candidate to contest elections and curtail the polity’s choice of candidates. The government had further told the Supreme Court that one-candidate-one-constituency restriction would require a legislative amendment. It had supported Section 33 (7). Before the amendment, candidates could contest from any number of constituencies. The government had said the restriction to two constituencies was reasonable enough, and there was no need to change the law now. The Election Commission had, in an affidavit in 2018, supported the petition. It had informed the Supreme Court that it had proposed an amendment to Section 33(7) in July 2004. There have been cases where a person contests election from two constituencies, and wins from both. In such a situation he vacates the seat in one of the two constituencies. The consequence is that a by-election would be required from one constituency involving avoidable expenditure on the conduct of that bye-election. Conclusion: Law should be amended to provide that a person cannot contest from more than one constituency at a time. A candidate should deposit an amount of ₹5 lakh for contesting in two constituencies in an Assembly election or ₹10 lakh in a general election. The amount would be used to cover the expenses for a by-election in the eventuality that he or she was victorious in both constituencies and had to relinquish one. News Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Indigenous tribal language and script Gondi – Telugu Mundari – Mundari bani Idu Mishmi – Idu Azobra How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched? None One pair only Two pairs only All three pairs Q.2) Consider the following countries: Australia Switzerland China Russia India Which of the above are part of Paris Club of Nations? 1 2 and 5 only 1 3 and 4 only 1 2 and 4 only 2 3 and 5 only Q.3) Consider the following pairs: Famous product and region Markhana marbles – Pune Kala namak – Siddharth Nagar Byadagi chillies – Gadag How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ? None One pair only Two pairs only All three pairs Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 4th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 3rd February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 4th February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

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[NEW COURSE] PRELIMS PINNACLE - Your Roadmap to Success in UPSC Prelims 2023 - Starts 13th February

PRELIMS PINNACLE Your Definite Roadmap to Success in Prelims 2023 Every successful aspirant has been through this ordeal.Late nights under the night lamp. Countless cups of chai/coffee. The fear of not even crossing the first stage of the exam. The peer pressure. The dream to fulfill their parents’ wishes — the desire to reach the top. But they did not have ONE thing that you have. IASbaba’s Prelims Pinnacle Course - 2023 If you are thinking that it is just like the n numbers of crash courses out there in the market, then you need to read this. How normal it is to make you cram 1000 different things without rest? How normal it is to make you study EVERYTHING on the planet without giving you time to absorb it? If you are thinking that it is just like the n numbers of crash courses out there in the market, then you need to read this.But luckily, those days are gone…. Although we wouldn’t like to brag we have been a differentiator here right from the beginning.If you have been following IASbaba, you must have observed something: each course we build is truly in response to our students’ wishes and requirements. The same goes for Prelims Pinnacle Course 2023. Prelims Pinnacle Course 2023: Your Definite Roadmap to Success in Prelims 2023 Prelims is near. Time is less. But let us not forget that with the right approach, one can easily hope to clear the Prelims stage. This is where we come into the picture. Let’s tell you how we are going to help you clear Prelims 2023 successfully: Comprehensive HQ Video Lectures, covering the entire prelims syllabus - Static Subjects & Current Affairs Detailed but Crisp Handouts for Easy Revision High-Quality Prelims Tests covering Static Subjects, CSAT, and Current Affairs Regular live doubt-clearing sessions by faculty Exclusive Focus on Current Affairs & CSAT If you have sincerely attempted all the tests and learned the concepts therein, your chances of success in Prelims increase manifold.And that’s what is the FIRST step to the Ladder – CRACKING PRELIMS; if you want to reach the next level. Download The Schedule Read Complete Details -> Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 3rd February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Genetic Sequence of 4 Indian cows by the IISER Bhopal Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Scientists at the Bhopal chapter of the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research have unravelled for the first time the genetic makeup of native Indian cow breeds Kasargod Dwarf, Kasargod Kapila, Vechur, and Ongole. About genome sequencing: A genome is a complete set of genetic instructions which are present in an organism in its DNA. Sequencing is the sequence of occurrences of the four nucleotide bases i.e., adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (T). The human genome is made up of over 3 billion of these genetic letters. The whole genome can’t be sequenced all at once because available methods of DNA sequencing can only handle short stretches of DNA at a time. While human genomes are made of DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid), a virus genome can be made of either DNA or RNA (Ribonucleic acid). Genome sequencing is a technique that reads and interprets genetic information found within DNA or RNA. About the Cow Breeds: Kasargod Dwarf It is originated in the mountain range of Kasaragod district, Kerala They are known for their excellent milking ability and give mineral-rich milk with a high feed-to-milk ratio. One among the four prime dwarf cattle in India- Kasargod Dwarf, Malnad Gidda, Punganur and Vechur Cattle. Kasargod Kapila Native to Karnataka and Kasaragod. They possess golden hide of shining texture, golden eyes, and nose. Voluntarily shed their horns annually It contains a substance named “Go-rochana” and possess rare medicinal qualities according to ancient literature and traditional healers. Vechur Smallest cattle breed in the world. Rare breed of Bos indicus cattle in Kerala. Listed on the Food and Agriculture Organization’s World Watch List of Domestic Animal Diversity. Ongole Breed of cattle family Bos indicus in Andhra Pradesh. Known for their toughness, rapid growth rate, and natural tolerance to tropical heat and disease resistance. This breed is Famous for its bulls commonly used in bullfights in Mexico and East Africa. Source: Times of India Previous Year Question Q.1) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. Amrit Bharat Station Scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, 15 railway stations under Tiruchi Division Railway Division were selected to be developed under the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme. About Amrit Bharat Station Scheme: The Union Ministry of Railways launched Amrit Bharat Station Scheme in December 2022 to modernize over 1,000 small stations over the coming years. The scheme will subsume all previous redevelopment projects where work is yet to begin. Key features for these proposed stations: provisions for roof top plazas, longer platforms, ballastless tracks; and 5G connectivity. Other Facilities Planned under this Scheme Smooth access by widening of roads, properly designed signages, dedicated pedestrian pathways, well planned parking areas, improved lighting. High level platforms(760-840 mm) shall be provided at all categories of stations. Provide good cafeteria/retail facilities. Space shall also be created for Executive Lounges and places for small business meetings. Drainage of platform areas. Ceremonial flags may be provided at appropriate space in the station. Special amenities for the disabled. Gradual shift to sustainable and environmentally friendly solutions as per availability of funds and condition of existing assets is considered. Source: The Hindu Judicial Majoritarianism Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: As the recent majority judgment of the Supreme Court on demonetisation comes under criticism, the minority judgment by J. Nagarathna is being hailed for its challenge to the RBI’s institutional acquiescence to the Central government. About Judicial Majoritarianism: As opposed to standard matters heard by Division Benches consisting of two judges, numerical majorities are of particular importance to cases which involve a substantial interpretation of constitutional provisions. In such cases, Constitutional Benches, consisting of five or more judges, are set up in consonance with Article 145(3) of the Constitution. Such Benches usually consist of 5, 6, 9, 11 or even 13 judges. This is done to facilitate decision-making by ensuring numerical majorities in judicial outcomes. Article 145(5) of the Constitution: It states that no judgment in such cases can be delivered except with the concurrence of a majority of the judges but that judges are free to deliver dissenting judgments or opinions. Differences among the judges and methodological fallacies: Any differences in judicial decisions can be attributed to a difference in either the methodology adopted and the logic applied by the judges. The differences can also be attributed to the judges’ own ‘judicial hunches’ which may be an outcome of their subjective experiences, outlook, and biases. In such circumstances, it is entirely possible that the majority may fall into either methodological fallacies and errors or be limited by their ‘judicial hunch’ respectively. In such situations, a meritorious minority decision, irrespective of the impeccability of its reasoning receives little weightage in terms of its outcomes. For example: The dissenting opinion of Justice H.R. Khanna in A.D.M. Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976) upholding the right to life and personal liberty even during situations of constitutional exceptionalism. Dissenting opinion of Justice Subba Rao in the Kharak Singh v. State of U.P. (1962) case upholding the right to privacy which received the judicial stamp of approval in the K.S. Puttaswamy v. UOI (2017) case. Dissenting opinions: The rate of judicial dissent at the height of the Emergency in 1976 was a mere 27% as opposed to 10.52% in 1980. The rate of dissent where the Chief Justice was a part of the Bench was lower than in those cases where the Chief Justice was not on the Bench. Such situations call into question the efficiency and desirability of head-counting procedures for a judicial determination on questions of national and constitutional importance. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India? (2021) Article 14 Article 28 Article 32 Article 44 Q.2) With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India. A High court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Gujarat International Finance Tec-City - International Financial Services Centre (GIFT IFSC) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The Union Budget has proposed several measures to enhance business activities at Gujarat International Finance Tec-City – International Financial Services Centre (GIFT IFSC). A subsidiary of EXIM Bank for trade re-financing would be established at GIFT IFSC and IFSCA Act would be amended for statutory provisions for arbitration, ancillary services, and avoiding dual regulation under SEZ Act. About International Financial Services Centre Authority: IFSCA is a statutory body established in 2020 under the International Financial Services Centres Authority Act, 2019 to ensure inter-regulatory coordination within the financial sector. Headquarters: At GIFT City, Gandhinagar in Gujarat. Prior to the establishment of IFSCA, the domestic financial regulators, namely, RBI, SEBI, PFRDA and IRDAI regulated the business in IFSC. The IFSCA is a unified authority for the development and regulation of financial products, financial services and financial institutions in the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) in India. The main objective of the IFSCA is to develop a strong global connect and focus on the needs of the Indian economy as well as to serve as an international financial platform for the entire region and the global economy as a whole. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) ‘Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following:  (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) In India, the Central Bank’s function as the “lender of last resort” usually refers to which of the following? (2021) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 3 only Reverse-flipping Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Economic Survey 2022-23 has suggested measures like simplifying ESOP taxation, and easier corporate laws like in the US and Singapore to accelerate reverse-flipping among startups, namely moving domicile back to India. About Flipping and Reverse-flipping: Flipping is the process of transferring entire ownership of an Indian company to an overseas entity. It is generally accompanied by a transfer of all intellectual property and data owned by an Indian company. Reverse Flipping is the process of shifting the domicile of those companies back to India who flipped earlier. Companies reverse flip because of easy access to capital from private equity and venture capital, changes in rules regarding round-tripping, and the growing maturity of India’s capital market. Reasons for Flipping: Flipping happens at the early stage of the startups, driven by commercial, taxation and personal preferences of founders and investors. Some companies decide to ‘flip’ because the major market of their product is offshore. Sometimes, investor preferences like access to incubators drive the companies to ‘flip’ as they insist on a particular domicile. For easy access to capital from private equity and venture capital, changes in rules regarding round-tripping, and the growing maturity of India’s capital market. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if Price of its substitute increases Price of its complement increases The good is an inferior good and income of the consumers increases Its price falls Which of the above statements are correct? (2021) 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 3 Additional surveillance mechanism (ASM) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Economy In News: The National Stock Exchange (NSE) placed Adani Enterprises, Adani Ports, and Ambuja Cements under the additional surveillance mechanism (ASM) in the wake of accusations of stock manipulation and fraud levelled against the group by New York-based short seller Hindenburg Research. Additional surveillance mechanism (ASM): The ASM was introduced in 2018 with the intention to protect investors from market volatility and unusual changes in share price. It is placed on securities with surveillance concerns based on objective parameters viz. Price / Volume variation, Volatility etc. in addition to other surveillance measures. The shortlisting of securities for placing in ASM is based on criteria that are jointly decided by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and exchanges, covering the parameters of “high low variation, client concentration, PE, close to close price variation, market capitalisation, volume variation, delivery percentage, and number of unique PANs”. An ASM shortlisting signals to investors that the stocks have seen unusual activity. The shortlisting of securities under ASM is purely on account of market surveillance and it should not be construed as an adverse action against the concerned company / entity. National Stock Exchange (NSE) NSE was incorporated in 1992. It was recognised as a stock exchange by SEBI in 1993 and commenced operations in 1994 NSE was the first exchange in India to implement electronic or screen-based trading NSE is counted as one of the world’s largest exchanges and a catalyst for driving India’s economic growth. The products on the Exchange are organized into 3 asset classes for trading:  Capital market for the listing and trading of equities, fixed income securities and the derivatives market. Source: Indian express Previous Year Question Q1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through demat account can invest in ‘Treasury Bills’ and ‘Government of India Debt Bonds’ in primary market. The ‘Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching’ is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The ‘Central Depository Services Ltd.’ is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given below is/are correct? 1 Only 1 and 2 Only 3 Only 2 and 3 Only Asiatic Black Bear Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: The Kashmir Valley has bucked the trend of Asiatic black bear attacks on humans rarely reported throughout the animal’s global range. Asiatic Black Bear Scientific name – Ursus thibetanus It is also called Himalayan bear, Tibetan bear, or moon bear It has a glossy black (sometimes brownish) coat with a whitish mark shaped like a crescent moon on the chest. Its long, coarse neck and shoulder hair forms a modified mane. It is omnivorous, eating insects, fruit, nuts, bees and honey, small mammals, and birds as well as carrion. It occasionally attacks domestic animals. They are generally nocturnal, sleeping in caves or tree hollows during the day During the summer the Asiatic black bear lives mainly in forested hills and mountains at elevations up to 3,600 metres (11,800 feet). Becoming fat by fall, it spends the winter at elevations of 1,500 metres (5,000 feet) or less and may sleep for much of the time. An adult male weighs 100–200 kg (220–440 pounds), a female about half as much; its length averages about 130–190 cm (51–75 inches), in addition to a 7–10-cm (3–4-inch) tail. Asiatic black bears may live as long as 25 years in the wild and up to 39 years in captivity. IUCN status – Vulnerable All Indian Bear species are listed under Appendix I in CITES and Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. This provides complete protection to the species from hunting and trade. Distribution Afghanistan; Bangladesh; Bhutan; Cambodia; China; India; Iran, Islamic Republic of; Japan; Korea, Democratic People’s Republic of; Korea, Republic of; Lao People’s Democratic Republic; Myanmar; Nepal; Pakistan; Russian Federation; Taiwan, Province of China; Thailand; Viet Nam Reproduction Males and females become sexually mature between ages three and four. Mating occurs between June and October, and pregnancies typically produce two cubs some seven to eight months later. Sources: The hindu Previous Year Question Q1) consider the following statements: (2019) Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Deep Ocean Mission Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance In News: In the Union Budget 2023-24, Deep Ocean Mission has been allocated Rs 600 crore Deep Ocean Mission: It aims to explore marine biodiversity for the sustainable use of resources It is overseen by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) It includes myriad of activities such as a manned submersible, ship-building, exploration and conservation of deep-sea biodiversity and identification of mineral deposits in the deep ocean A manned submersible will be developed to carry three people to a depth of 6,000 metres in the ocean In 2016, India was awarded a 15-year contract to explore an area of 75,000 square kilometres for mining polymetallic nodules from the Central Indian Ocean Basin at depths of 5,000-6,000 metres. The other components of the mission include developing ocean climate change advisory services and designing offshore Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) powered desalination plants. Significance Oceans are storehouses of food, energy, minerals, and medicines. It also modulates weather and climate. Deep-sea mining involves extracting ores rich in cobalt, manganese, zinc and other rare metals from the sea floor. They contain critical minerals needed to build batteries for electric vehicles and renewable energy capacity, smartphones and laptops. Source: DTE Qaumi Waqf Board Taraqqiati Scheme (QWBTS) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Qaumi Waqf Board Taraqqiati Scheme (QWBTS) Implemented by The Ministry of Minority Affairs through the Central Waqf Council (CWC) Under this scheme, a dedicated online portal has been developed. This dedicated online portal is the Waqf Assets Management System of India (WAMSI) for computerization, digitization of records of Waqf properties and Geographic Information System (GIS) mapping of Waqf properties to prevent encroachment. The Waqf property details on WAMSI have been entered by the respective State Waqf Boards (SWBs). As per Section 40 of the Waqf Act 1995 (as amended in 2013) the State Waqf Board is empowered to decide any question which arises as to whether a particular property is a Waqf property or not or whether a Waqf is a Sunni Waqf or a Shia Waqf. The decision of the Board on a question, unless revoked or modified by the Tribunal, be final. Central Waqf Council (CWC) Vision Protection, Retrieval & E-monitoring of Auqaf under the provision of The Waqf Act Proactive role in protection development of Auqaf & to work closely with the State Waqf Boards to improve their functioning. About It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Minority Affairs. It was set up in 1964 as per the provision given in the Waqf Act, 1954 as Advisory Body to the Central Government on matters concerning the working of the Waqf Boards and the due administration of Auqaf. The Council has been empowered to advise the Central Government, State Governments and State Waqf Boards. It will now issue directives to the boards/ State Government to furnish information to the Council on the performance of the board particularly on their financial performance, survey, revenue records, encroachment of Waqf properties, Annual and Audit report etc The 12th Council was constituted in 2019 Composition The Council consists of Chairperson – Union Minister In charge of Waqf Such other members, not exceeding 20 in number, as may be appointed by the Government of India. Presently Union Minister of Minority Affairs is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Central Waqf Council. Major functions To monitor the implementation of the provisions of Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2013 in States and UTs. To render legal advice on protection and retrieval of the Waqf Properties and for removal of encroachment etc. To implement the Scheme for Development of Urban Waqf Properties & Identification of potential Waqf land for development by National Waqf Development Corporation Ltd. To undertake awareness programmes to promote the interest of the Council and to sensitize the Waqf institutions about their new roles and responsibilities. Source: PIB India-USA relations Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 International Relations Context: The talks between India’s National Security Advisor Ajit Doval and his American counterpart Jake Sullivan have concluded with the announcement of a new road map for deeper military and techno-economic cooperation between the two countries. The bilateral Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technologies (iCET) could lend a new strategic depth and breadth to the expanding engagement between India and the United States. The idea was first mooted in the meeting between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and President Joe Biden on the margins of the Tokyo summit of the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad) in 2022 Bilateral relations The U.S.-India strategic partnership is founded on shared values including a commitment to democracy and upholding the rules-based international system. The United States and India have shared interests in promoting global security, stability, and economic prosperity through trade, investment, and connectivity. India and the United States cooperate closely at multilateral organizations, including the United Nations, G-20, Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Regional Forum, International Monetary Fund, World Bank, and World Trade Organization. India is an ASEAN dialogue partner, an Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development partner, and an observer to the Organization of American States. Together with Australia and Japan, the United States and India convene as the Quad to promote a free and open Indo-Pacific and provide tangible benefits to the region. India is also one of twelve countries partnering with the United States on the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) to make our economies more connected, resilient, clean, and fair. India is a member of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA), at which the United States is a dialogue partner. Political relations President Biden and Prime Minister Modi have participated in multiple engagements of the Quad Leaders mechanism with Japan and Australia The 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue between the U.S. Secretaries of State and Defense and their Indian counterparts is the premier recurring dialogue mechanism between the United States and India. The United States hosted the fourth 2+2 Dialogue in 2022. The United States welcomed India joining the UN Security Council in 2021 for a two-year term and supports a reformed UN Security Council that includes India as a permanent member. Various working groups – Civil Space Working Group, the Education and Skills Development Working Group, Trade Policy Forum, Defense Policy Group, and Counternarcotics Working Group. Economic relations In 2021, overall U.S.-India bilateral trade in goods and services reached a record $157 billion. The United States is India’s largest trading partner and most important export market. Indian companies seek to increase their presence in U.S. markets and at the end of 2020, Indian investment in the United States totaled $12.7 billion, supporting over 70,000 American jobs. USA accounts for 16 percent in the exports of goods exports and 50 percent of IT and BPO services. Major items of exports to USA are apparels, diamonds, marine products and footwear – These industries are labour intensive and hence will pave the way for more employment opportunities in the sectors Environment India and USA launched the “Climate Action and Finance Mobilization Dialogue (CAFMD)”. Under the Climate and Clean Energy Agenda 2030 partnership It was launched at the Leaders’ Summit on Climate in 2021 In 2021, the United States joined the International Solar Alliance headquartered in India In 2022 the United States Agency for International Development (USAID) Administrator Samantha Power became Co-chair of the Governing Council of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) where India is a permanent co-chair. In 2021, The India-USA Strategic Clean Energy Partnership (SCEP) was launched in accordance with the US – India Climate and Clean Energy Agenda 2030 Partnership announced by both countries at the Leaders’ Summit on Climate Technological The Indo-US Science and Technology Forum (IUSSTF) – is a bi-national autonomous organization established to promote cooperation in Science, Technology and Innovation has continued to play an important role in strengthening cooperation in this field. The iCET involves collaboration in a range of areas including quantum computing, semiconductors, 5G and 6G wireless infrastructure, and civilian space projects such as lunar exploration. It will be monitored and driven from the PMO in Delhi and the White House in Washington GE Aerospace has applied for an export licence for jet engine production and phased transfer of technology to Indian entities. ISRO and NASA are working together to realize a joint microwave remote sensing satellite for Earth observation, named NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR). Defence and Security The Defense Policy Group (DPG) provides a platform for a comprehensive review of defense dialogues/mechanisms. The last DPG was held in 2021. The defense procurement activities are monitored through the Defense Production and Procurement Group (DPPG) In August 2022, a U.S. Navy Ship (USNS) Charles Drew visited in Chennai for repairs and allied services. This was the first ever repair of a U.S. Navy ship in India. US designating India as “Major Defence Partner,” a status unique to India, India is now at par with its closest allies. There is a new panorama for elevated Indo-US cooperation, like signing of Defence Technologies and Trade Initiative (DTTI), BECA, COMCASA, LEMOA etc The signing of Communication Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA) –  paved the way for supply of equipment with transfer of technology. The decision to start exchanges between US Naval Forces Central Command (NAVCENT) and Indian navy was another milestone for strengthening maritime cooperation in the Western Indian Ocean. Bilateral exercises include: Yudh Abhyas (Army); Vajra Prahar (Special Forces), a tri-services exercise– Tiger Triumph (inaugurated in 2019). India joined the multilateral Combined Maritime Force (CMF) based in Bahrain, as an Associate Partner in 2022. S. participated in India’s multilateral Exercise Milan 2022. Indian Diaspora The 3.5-million-plus strong Indian American community is an important ethnic group in the U.S., accounting for about 1% of the total population in the country Almost 21% of total international students in the U.S. are Indians. In 2022 close to 82000 student visas were issued in India, mostly for graduate (Masters) programs The nearly 200,000 Indian students in the United States contribute $7.7 billion annually to the U.S. economy. With two Indian Americans occupying high level posts of Governor and several representatives of the people, the Indian Diaspora has assimilated into their adopted country and is acting as a catalyst to forge closer and stronger ties between India and the U.S. An MOU has been signed in June 2016 to facilitate India’s joining of the Global Entry Programme for expedited immigration for eligible Indian citizens at U.S. airport Suggestion for future Enhance cooperation in emerging technologies and artificial intelligence (AI) as data regulation, information sharing, and privacy protection become increasingly salient issues crucial to the preservation of national security. Strengthen coordination multilaterally and on international issues, including prioritising two multilateral strategic dialogues that have gained prominence in recent years—i.e., the Quad and the West Asian Quad or I2U2. Pursue greater cooperation on counterterrorism, including coordinating strategies for managing a Taliban-led Afghanistan and leading multilateral efforts to apply pressure on the Pakistani military-intelligence complex to abandon support for terrorist groups such as the Taliban and Haqqani Network, and Kashmir-focused groups like Jaish-e-Mohammed and Lashkar-e-Taiba. Strengthen and integrate Global Value Chains(GVCs), using FDI in each other’s economies to strengthen bilateral trade and integrate GVCs as well as incentivise multinational corporations to participate in these initiatives. Seek greater coordination between line ministries working on cybersecurity, especially identifying relevant counterparts on specific issues. Embed security and defence issues into their emerging technology agenda, focusing for instance on identifying common principles for defence applications of artificial intelligence. Way forward In recent years, exigencies such as the COVID-19 pandemic have redirected the relationship to a forward-looking assessment of regional and global geopolitics The sectors that will be key to shaping the arc of a strong Indo-US relationship in the years ahead are the following: emerging technologies; national security and defence cooperation; counterterrorism; and trade. Source: Indian express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) consider the following statements: Asiatic black bear is naturally found in India only. Asiatic black bear lives up to 25 years of age. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to ‘Additional surveillance mechanism (ASM)’, which of the following statements is/are correct? It aims to protect investors from market volatility It is jointly decided by Reserve Bank of India and Exchanges. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following pairs: Indigenous cattle breed and  state Kasargod Dwarf – Tamil Nadu Vechur Cattle – Kerala Ongole Cattle – Telangana Malnad Gidda – Maharashtra How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched? One pair only Two pairs only Three pairs only All four pairs Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 3rd February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 2nd February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 3rd February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here