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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Follow on Public Offering Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Adani Enterprises recently said it has decided not to go ahead with its ₹20,000-crore follow-on public offer (FPO) and will return the proceeds to investors. About Follow on Public Offering: FPO is a follow up to the initial public offering. It is also known as a follow-on public offer which is the issuance of shares after the company has been listed on the stock exchange. In other words, an FPO is an additional issuance of shares while an IPO is simply the first issuance. Companies usually announce FPOs to raise equity or reduce debt. Types Of FPO Diluted FPO: There is dilution in the ownership of existing shareholders. Here, the company decides to issue new shares to the public which increases the total number of shares outstanding. When there is an increase in the number of shares, the ownership percentage of existing shares decreases since newly issued shares will also represent a certain proportion of ownership in the company. Non-Diluted FPO: There is no dilution in ownership of existing shareholders because no new shares are issued. The shares which are offered to the public are shares that are held by non-public shareholders. Usually, these shareholders are Promoters, Directors of the company, or Pre-IPO investors. Difference between Initial Public O vs FPO Meaning: IPO is the first issuance of shares by a company while an FPO is the issuance of shares by a company so they can raise additional capital after its IPO. Price: In an IPO, the price is either fixed or variable as a range, while in an FPO the price is dependent upon the number of shares as they increase or decrease and is market-driven. Share Capital: In an IPO the share capital increases because the company decides to issue fresh capital to the public for its listing. Value: IPOs are oftentimes more expensive to carry out than FPOs. The reason FPOs are cheaper is that the value of the company listing its shares is getting diluted further. Risk: IPOs are considered to be riskier than FPOs. Status of the company: A company that is unlisted issues an IPO while a company that is already listed issues an FPO. Source: BusinessToday Previous Year Questions Q.1) What is the importance of the term “Interest Coverage Ratio” of a firm in India? It helps in understanding the present risk of a firm that a bank is going to give a loan to. It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a firm that a bank is going to give a loan to. The higher a borrowing firm’s level of Interest Coverage Ratio, the worse is its ability to service its debt. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly? Certificate of Deposit Commercial Paper Promissory Note Participatory Note Biotin Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently dermatologists in Delhi have cautioned users that there is no scientific evidence to prove usage of biotin for healthy hair and nail growth. About Biotin (Vitamin B7): It is a water-soluble vitamin that helps the body metabolize fats, carbohydrates, and protein. Water-soluble vitamins are not stored in the body, so daily intake is necessary. The human cells cannot synthesize vitamin B7. However, bacteria in the body can produce biotin, and the vitamin is present in numerous foods. Sources of Biotin: Red meat, eggs, seeds, and nuts. Deficiency of Biotin can cause: Hair loss, scaly, red rash around the eyes, nose, mouth, and genitals, Depression, Lethargy, Hallucinations, loss of control of bodily movements, known as ataxia, Weakened immune function, Increased risk of bacterial and fungal infections Lab Grown Diamonds Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: During her Budget speech, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced the government’s move to focus on lab-grown diamonds. About Lab Grown Diamonds (LDG): Lab grown diamonds are diamonds that are produced using specific technology which mimics the geological processes that grow natural diamonds. They are not the same as diamond simulants. LDGs are chemically, physically and optically diamond and thus are difficult to identify as lab grown. While materials such as Moissanite, Cubic Zirconia (CZ), White Sapphire, YAG, are diamond simulants that simply attempt to look like a diamond, they lack the sparkle and durability of a diamond and are thus easily identifiable. However, differentiating between an LDG and an Earth Mined Diamond is hard, with advanced equipment required for the purpose. Uses of LGDs: LDGs are most often used for industrial purposes, in machines and tools. Their hardness and extra strength make them ideal for use as cutters. Pure synthetic diamonds have high thermal conductivity, but negligible electrical conductivity. This combination is invaluable for electronics where such diamonds can be used as a heat spreader for high-power laser diodes, laser arrays and high-power transistors. As the Earth’s reserves of natural diamonds are depleted, LDGs are slowly replacing the prized gemstone in the jewellery industry. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022) Cloud Services Quantum Computing Visible Light Communication Technologies Wireless Communication Technologies Q.2) Consider the following statements: Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme (EIACP) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme (EIACP) organised a ‘National workshop on LiFE’ in association with National Museum of Natural History, a subordinate office of Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. About Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme (EIACP): Environmental Information System (ENVIS) was renamed as EIACP (Environmental Information, Awareness, Capacity Building and Livelihood Programme). ENVIS came into existence as a plan programme in 1983. It serves as a single-stop web-enabled repository of comprehensive environmental information with collection, collation, storage, retrieval and dissemination of the same through a nationwide network of ENVIS Hubs and ENVIS Resource Partners (RPs). About National Museum of Natural History: The National Museum of Natural History (NMNH), New Delhi was established in 1972. The museum functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change, Government of India. It is an institution devoted to environmental education, derives its strength principally from theme-based exhibition galleries, experiential resource centers and Out-Reach Activities, with the intention to depict the country’s rich natural heritage and natural history (Geology, Botany and Zoology). Objectives of NMNH: To develop the NMNH in the country’s capital to achieve the highest level of quality to promote environmental education on a national level To develop Regional Offices (Regional Museum of Natural History) in various regions of the country in order to extend its activities at the regional/local levels To develop museum-based educational projects at the level so as to help school curriculum on environmental education To develop environmental education resource materials (such as audio-visual aids, low-cost teaching aids, school loan kits, etc.) to promote environmental education To undertake research (musicological and collection based) consonant with the scope and resources of the museum To extend professional help to other agencies/organizations regarding natural history collections/museums To develop national and international cooperation/collaboration with other organizations/professional bodies/museums related to natural history/environmental education. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q,1) Consider the following statements: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the Urban forests. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (2021) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1 Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct. Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct. Grand Slam Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Miscellaneous Context: Recently, Novak Djokovic win 10th Australian Open and 22nd grand slam title. About Grand Slam: It is the achievement of winning all 4 most important annual tennis events played in 4 countries. It includes Australian Open in mid-January, the French Open from around late May to early June, Wimbledon in June–July, and the US Open in August–September. They offer the most ranking points, prize money, public and media attention, the greatest strength and size of field, and greater number of “best of” sets for men, which is 5. Australian and United States tournaments are played on hard courts while French on clay, and Wimbledon on grass courts. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000: American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award The award was received by Formula One players so far. Roger Federer received this award the maximum number of times compared to others. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship: The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Privilege Motion Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: A breach of privilege motion moved against senior BJP MLA and Deputy Leader of the Opposition led to an uproar in the Rajasthan Assembly recently, with Speaker announcing that a decision on the motion will be taken shortly. About Privilege Motion: All Members of Parliament (MPs) enjoy rights and immunities, individually and collectively, so that they can discharge their duties and functions effectively. Any instance when these rights and immunities are disregarded by any member of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha is an offence, called ‘breach of privilege’, which is punishable under the Laws of Parliament. Article 105 of the Constitution expressly mentions two privileges, that is, freedom of speech in Parliament and right of publication of its proceedings. Apart from the privileges as specified in the Constitution, the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, provides for freedom from arrest and detention of members under civil process during the continuance of the meeting of the House or of a committee thereof and forty days before its commencement and forty days after its conclusion. Applicability: The Constitution also extends the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committee These also include the Attorney General of India. The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the President who is also an integral part of the Parliament. Article 361 of the Constitution provides for privileges for the President. Role of the Lok Sabha Speaker and Rajya Sabha Chairperson: The speaker of Lok Sabha and the Chairperson of Rajya Sabha are the first levels of scrutiny of a privilege motion in the two Houses of Parliament. They can either take a decision on the privilege motion or can also refer it to the privileges committee of Parliament. Once the Speaker or the House Chairperson gives consent under Rule 222, the concerned member is allowed to explain himself or herself. Rules Governing Privilege: Rule No 222 in Chapter 20 of the Lok Sabha Rule Book and correspondingly Rule 187 in Chapter 16 of the Rajya Sabha rulebook governs privilege. Rules say that a member may, with the consent of the Speaker or the Chairperson, raise a question involving a breach of privilege either of a member or of the House or a committee thereof. Privilege Committee: The Speaker of Lok Sabha nominates a committee of privileges consisting of 15 members of parliament from each party. While the Rajya Sabha committee has 10 members. The Speaker may also allow a half-hour debate on the report by the committee before passing orders or directing that the report be tabled before the House. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following statements: A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 PM CARES Fund Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Economy PM CARES Fund About PM CARES Fund: Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations Fund (PM CARES Fund) is set up as a public charitable trust  under the Registration Act, 1908 in 2020. It is not created under the Constitution or any law made by the Parliament or the state The fund is administered on an honorary basis by Additional Secretary/ Joint Secretary, in charge of the PM CARES Fund in the PMO. The Prime Minister’s Office provides administrative and secretarial support to the Trustees . The fund consists entirely of voluntary contributions from individuals/organizations and does not get any budgetary support. Donations to PM CARES Fund would qualify for 80G benefits for 100% exemption under the Income Tax Act, 1961. Donations to PM CARES Fund will also qualify to be counted as Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) expenditure under the Companies Act, 2013 PM CARES Fund has also got exemption under the FCRA and a separate account for receiving foreign donations has been opened. PM CARES Fund accepts donations and contributions from individuals and organizations based in foreign countries. This is consistent with respect to Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF). PMNRF has also received foreign contributions as a public trust since 2011. PM CARES Fund is audited by an independent auditor The Head Office of the Fund is Prime Minister’s Office, New Delhi. Constitution of the Trust : Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the PM CARES Fund Minister of Defence, Minister of Home Affairs and Minister of Finance, Government of India are ex-officio Trustees of the Fund. Any person appointed a Trustee shall act in a pro bono capacity. Objectives: To undertake and support relief or assistance of any kind relating to a public health emergency or any other kind of emergency, calamity or distress, either man-made or natural, creation or upgradation of healthcare or pharmaceutical facilities, other necessary infrastructure, funding relevant research or any other type of support. To render financial assistance, provide grants of payments of money or take such other steps as may be deemed necessary by the Board of Trustees to the affected population. Source: Indian express Universal Periodic Review Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International relations In News: Sri Lanka has concluded its Review under the 4th Cycle of the Universal Periodic Review (UPR) in Geneva Universal Periodic Review The Universal Periodic Review was established by the General Assembly of the United Nations (UNGA) in 2006 It is a State-driven voluntary peer-review process which provides the opportunity for each State to declare the steps taken at the national level to improve the human rights situation at that State and to fulfil their human rights obligations. The goal of UPR is the improvement of the human rights situation in every country The UPR also aims to provide technical assistance to States and enhance their capacity to deal effectively with human rights challenges and to share best practices in the field of human rights among States and other stakeholders. The reviews are conducted by the UPR Working Group which consists of the 47 members of the Council Any UN Member State can take part in the discussion/dialogue with the reviewed States. Each State review is assisted by groups of three States, known as “troikas”, who serve as rapporteurs. The selection of the troikas for each State is done through a drawing of lots following elections for the Council membership in the General Assembly. Sources: Newsonair MISHTI scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance In News: In the Union Budget 2023-24 presented on Wednesday (February 1), Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced a new MISHTI scheme. MISHTI scheme Building on India’s success in afforestation, ‘Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes’, MISHTI, will be taken up for mangrove plantation along the coastline and on salt pan lands, wherever feasible, through convergence between MGNREGS, CAMPA Fund and other sources. Why mangroves? Mangrove forests — consisting of trees and shrub that live in intertidal water in coastal areas — host diverse marine life. They also support a rich food web, with molluscs and algae-filled substrate acting as a breeding ground for small fish, mud crabs and shrimps, thus providing a livelihood to local artisanal fishers. They act as effective carbon stores, holding up to four times the amount of carbon as other forested ecosystems Mangrove forests capture vast amounts of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and their preservation can both aid in removal of carbon from the atmosphere and prevent the release of the same upon their destruction. Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC) Launched at the 27th session of Conference of Parties (COP27) UN climate summit, with India as a partner. An initiative led by the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and Indonesia, the Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC) includes India, Sri Lanka, Australia, Japan, and Spain. It seeks to educate and spread awareness worldwide on the role of mangroves in curbing global warming and its potential as a solution for climate change. The current state of the mangroves South Asia houses some of the most extensive areas of mangroves globally, while Indonesia hosts one-fifth of the overall amount. India holds around 3 per cent of South Asia’s mangrove population. Besides the Sundarbans in West Bengal, the Andamans region, the Kachchh and Jamnagar areas in Gujarat too have substantial mangrove cover. Source: Indian express Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: On the occasion of India’s presidency of the G-20, through the theme ‘One Earth, One Family, One Future’, a one-day workshop on Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) and Madhya Pradesh Farm Gate App is being organized with the aim of encouraging the sense of global unity and increasing the participation of women in the field of agriculture. Representatives of NABARD and APEDA will provide information about various schemes Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Agriculture Infra Fund (AIF) is a financing facility launched in 2020 for creation of post-harvest management infrastructure and community farm assets. Under this scheme, Rs 1 lakh crore is to be disbursed by financial year 2025-26 and the interest subvention and credit guarantee assistance will be given till the year 2032-33. It gives 3% interest subvention, credit guarantee support through CGTMSE for loan of up to Rs.2 crore and facility of convergence with other Central and State Govt. Scheme AIF is providing all around financial support to the farmers, Agri-entrepreneurs, farmer groups like Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs), Self Help Groups (SHGs),  Joint Liability Groups (JLGs) etc. and many others to create post-harvest management infrastructure and build community farming asset throughout the country. NABARD NABARD came into existence in 1982 by transferring the agricultural credit functions of RBI and refinance functions of the then Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC). Consequent to the revision in the composition of share capital between Government of India and RBI, NABARD today is fully owned by Government of India. It is an apex regulatory body for overall regulation of regional rural banks and apex cooperative banks in India. It is under the jurisdiction of Ministry of Finance, Government of India. The bank has been entrusted with “matters concerning policy, planning, and operations in the field of credit for agriculture and other economic activities in rural areas in India”. NABARD is active in developing and implementing financial inclusion. The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) It is a statutory body, established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act passed by the Parliament in 1985. The Authority replaced the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC). Functions Development of industries relating to the scheduled products for export by way of providing financial assistance or otherwise for undertaking surveys and feasibility studies, participation in enquiry capital through joint ventures and other reliefs and subsidy schemes; Registration of persons as exporters of the scheduled products on payment of such fees as may be prescribed; Fixing of standards and specifications for the scheduled products for the purpose of exports; Carrying out inspection of meat and meat products in slaughter houses, processing plants, storage premises, conveyances, or other places where such products are kept or handled for the purpose of ensuring the quality of such products; Improving of packaging of the Scheduled products; Improving of marketing of the Scheduled products outside India; Training in various aspects of the industries connected with the scheduled products; Source PIB Previous Year Question Q1) With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct? It is an organ of NITI Aayog. It has a corpus of Rs. 4, 00,000 crore at present. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Urban farming Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Agriculture, GS1 Urbanisation Context: A new draft policy by Delhi-based research non-profit People’s Resource Centre, says some 60 per cent of Delhi’s demand for meat is fulfilled by city-grown produce, as is 25 per cent of its milk and 15 per cent of its vegetable needs. Yet policies on land use and farming in the National Capital do not acknowledge the role of cultivation and distribution of food in urban areas India is rapidly urbanising and is estimated to host 50 per cent of its population in cities by 2050.  Hence, there needs to be increased focus on urban farming The “Draft Citizen’s Policy for Urban Agriculture in Delhi” It was submitted to the Delhi government in 2022 It aims to provide a holistic framework for urban farming. It recommends building on existing practices, promoting residential and community farming through rooftop and kitchen gardens, allocating vacant land for agricultural use, creating a market, developing policies for animal rearing and spreading awareness. These recommendations are crucial to ensure food security for urban communities. Urban agriculture Urban and peri-urban agriculture (UPA) can be defined as practices that yield food and other outputs through agricultural production and related processes (transformation, distribution, marketing, recycling) taking place on land and other spaces within cities and surrounding regions. It involves urban and peri-urban actors, communities, methods, places, policies, institutions, systems, ecologies and economies, largely using and regenerating local resources to meet changing needs of local populations while serving multiple goals and functions. Need and Significance Rapid urbanisation, population explosion and climate change increases the risk of food shortage – A 2017 study published in the International Journal on Emerging Technologies. 50 per cent of women and children in urban areas are anaemic due to lack of adequate nutrition – 2010 report by M S Swaminathan Research Foundation, Chennai. Both studies recommend urban agriculture Globally, in 2020, the UN Food and Agriculture Organization acknowledged that urban and peri urban farming can contribute to local food and nutritional needs, enable jobs and reduce poverty. Our cities already suffer from high population density, unaffordable housing, improper waste disposal, water scarcity most of the year and flooding during the rains, pollution and attendant illnesses, food and nutritional insecurity and urban poverty, among others. Indian scenario Noting the critical need for a paradigm shift in urban planning, 2022-23 budget speech announced the decision to set up a high-level committee to steer the required changes in urban policy, planning, capacity building and governance. Given the current context and future exigencies, this presents an opportune moment to critically engage with urban land-use planning (ULP), especially urban and peri-urban agriculture (UPA), as one of the essential elements of sustainable urbanisation. In 2008, Pune’s civic administration launched a city farming project to train and encourage people to take up farming on allocated land. Kerela had been food dependent until 2012 when the state government launched a vegetable development programme to encourage gardening in houses, schools, government, and private institutions. According to Kerala State Planning Board, vegetable production rose from 825,000 tonnes in 2011-12 to 1.3 million tonnes in 2014-15. Similarly, in 2014, the Tamil Nadu government introduced a “do-it-yourself” kit for city dwellers to grow vegetables on rooftops, houses and apartment buildings under its Urban Horticulture Development Scheme. Since 2021, Bihar encourages terrace gardening in five smart cities through subsidy for input cost. Challenges Absence in Planning – Agriculture, mostly associated with rural practice, hardly finds a place in urban planning guidelines. For instance, India’s Urban and Regional Development Plans Formulations and Implementation (URDPFI) guidelines mention agriculture while preparing city plan Policy lacunae – The recently released draft Master Plan of Delhi for 2041, does not acknowledge the role of the practice. It aims to divide 8,000 hectares of land along the Yamuna into two sub-zones and restrict human activity or settlement in areas directly adjacent to the river. Rapid development is a hindrance. Citing the example of Jaunti village in Delhi, where the Green Revolution began – It has become an ‘urban village’, making its land non-agricultural. Farmers cannot avail benefits under any agricultural schemes such as crop insurance. Environmental degradation – Excessive use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides in urban farms can lower produce and soil quality. Scalability – Kitchen gardening or small-scale community farming cannot sustain the large population, but can act as a cushion to protect urban residents from inflation, vulnerabilities of weather or crises such as COVID-19 Suggestion for future Integration is key – While such initiatives are welcome, their impact cannot be expected to be widespread without a strong policy for urban farming. For instance, Pune’s 2008 initiative failed to take off due to poor interest from people and the government. Viability of urban agriculture. Farming in cramped urban spaces marred by water scarcity and pollution is not easy. A 2016 paper titled Future of Urban Agriculture in India by the Hyderabad-based Institute for Resource Analysis and Policy mentions that in Delhi, Hyderabad, Ahmedabad and Chennai, wastewater is directly or indirectly used for urban farming. Hydroponics, a method of soilless farming that uses nutrient solutions to sustain plants, offers a cleaner approach. Compared to commercial farming, hydroponics requires 90 per cent lesser water, which can be reused. One can grow more plants in the space given,” she says. However, she admits that markets for such initiatives are still niche and at a nascent stage. Prioritise estimation of waste management capacity, build infrastructure for it and regulate industrial installations to this capacity.  Adequate political will for financial inputs and enforcement of regulations will be essential for often fund-starved urban administrations and for curbing violations of environmental norms. International best practises As per World Economic Forum informs that Singapore is already producing almost 10 per cent of its food through rooftop farming while conventional farming is done only on 1 per cent of its land. Public spaces are landscaped to grow vegetables and fruits in raised beds, containers or vertical frames. These, besides generating income, also extend positive externalities to the neighbourhood through clean and green environment, nutrition and cultural connect To promote urban farming, governments must recognise informal practices and link them with agricultural schemes. Way forward; It is an appropriate time to introspect and transform the way we produce and consume. With climate change, there is a greater need for localising nourishment of humans to prevent starvation and overcome nutritional deficiency Apart from governments, citizens and professionals from the field of architecture, planning, agriculture, social sciences and private developers need to cross-learn and co-create productive green urbanism for a resilient future. Source: DTE Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Recently in news, MISHTI scheme is related to which of the following Upliftment of marginalised sections like street vendors Upskilling minority communities to reduce industry-academia mismatch Mangrove plantation along the coastline None of the above Q.2) With reference to ‘Agriculture Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct? It is a scheme of Ministry of Finance It includes start-ups along with Self Help Groups (SHG) Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution explicitly mentions about the privileges of members of the Parliament? Article 72 Article 105 Article 102 Article 211 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 2nd February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 1st February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – a Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 2nd February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 1st February 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Spider Pulsar Systems Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, Scientists have discovered the first gamma-ray eclipses from a special type of binary star system by using NASA’s Fermi Gamma-ray Space Telescope. About Spider Pulsar Systems: Spider pulsars got their name due to the similarity of customs with some species of spiders. They are formed from binary star systems in which one of the components is much more massive than the other. It evolves much faster, explodes like a supernova and turns into a neutron star. It is this super-dense object that begins to pull a matter from the companion that resembles the habits of spiders of the genus Latrodectus, in which the female eats the male after mating. Two varieties of binary systems containing pulsars were named after these arthropods. Black widows: Binary pulsar systems, in which the mass of a companion star is less than 5 % of the solar one. Redback: Binary pulsar systems, in which the mass of a companion star is from 10 to 50 % of the solar. About Fermi Gamma-ray Space Telescope (FGST): It is operated by National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) FGST was formally known as formerly called the Gamma-ray Large Area Space Telescope (GLAST). It is a space observatory being used to perform gamma-ray astronomy observations from low Earth orbit. Its main instrument is the Large Area Telescope (LAT), with which astronomers mostly perform an all-sky survey studying astrophysical and cosmological phenomena such as active galactic nuclei, pulsars, other high-energy sources, and dark matter. Source: Hindustan Times Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface. Q.2) The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to  (2020) Voyager-2 New Horizons LISA Pathfinder Evolved LISA Economic Survey 2022-23 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance and Economy Context: The Union Finance Minister, recently tabled the Economic Survey for the Financial Year 2022-23, after the President’s address, on the first day of the Union Budget Session 2023-24. The Economic Survey said that India’s economic recovery from the pandemic is complete and the economy is expected to grow in the range of 6% to 6.8% in the coming financial year 2023-24. About Economic Survey: The Economic Survey is a detailed report of the state of the national economy in the financial year that is ending. It is prepared by the Economic Division of the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) under the guidance of the Chief Economic Advisor. Once prepared, the Survey is approved by the Finance Minister. The first Economic Survey was presented for 1950-51 and until 1964, it was presented along with the Budget. For the longest time, the survey was presented in just one volume. Between 2010-11 and 2020-21, the survey was presented in two volumes. Economic Survey 2022 reverted back to a single volume format. Even though it comes just a day before the Budget, the assessment and recommendations carried in the survey are not binding on the Budget. About Chief Economic Advisor (CEA): The chief economic advisor, is equivalent to the rank of Secretary in the hierarchy, advises the government on economic matters. He scripts the Economic Survey of India which is presented in Parliament by the finance minister. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following? (2021) Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks. Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks Increase in the banking habit of the people Increase in the population of the country Grievance Appellate Committees (GACs) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, Central Govt established three Grievance Appellate Committees based on the recently amended Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 (IT Rules, 2021). About Grievance Appellate Committees: It is a critical piece of overall policy and legal framework to ensure that the Internet in India is Open, Safe and Trusted and Accountable. The GAC will be a virtual Digital platform that will operate only online and digitally – wherein the entire appeal process, from filing of appeal to the decision thereof, shall be conducted digitally. The need for GAC was created due to large numbers of grievances being left unaddressed or unsatisfactorily addressed by Internet Intermediaries. To create a culture of responsiveness amongst all Internet Platforms and Intermediaries towards their consumers. Users will have the option to appeal against decision of the grievance officer of the social media intermediaries and other online intermediaries before this new appellate body. The Committee will endeavour to address the user’s appeal within a period of 30 days. The online platform will be operational in one month of this notification of the Grievance Appellate Committee, i.e. from 1st March 2023. Periodic reviews of GACs and reporting and disclosures of GAC orders will also be part of the process. Source:  PIB Pallas's Cat Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: First time, Pallas’s cat has been discovered on Mount Everest in the Sagarmatha National Park in Nepal. About Pallas’s Cat: The Pallas’s cat (Otocolobus manul ), also known as the manul, is a small wild cat with long and dense light grey fur. Its rounded ears are set low on the sides of the head. It is well camouflaged and adapted to the cold continental climate in its native range, which receives little rainfall and experiences a wide range of temperatures. The Pallas’s cat has rounded rather than vertical slit pupils, a unique feature among small cats. It has been recorded across a large areal extent, albeit in widely spaced sites in the Caucasus, Iranian Plateau, Hindu Kush, parts of the Himalayas, Tibetan Plateau, Altai-Sayan region and South Siberian Mountains. It inhabits rocky montane grasslands and shrublands, where the snow cover is below 15–20 cm (6–8 in). It finds shelter in rock crevices and burrows, and preys foremost on lagomorphs and rodents. The female gives birth to between two and six kittens in spring. Conservation Status: IUCN: Least concern CITES: Appendix II About Sagarmatha National Park Sagarmatha is an exceptional area with dramatic mountains, glaciers and deep valleys, dominated by Mount Everest, the highest peak in the world (8,848 m) in the Solu-Khumbu district of Nepal. The park is home to several rare species such as the snow leopard and the red panda. A well-known destination for mountain tourism SNP was gazetted in 1976 and with over 2,500 Sherpa people living within the park has combined nature and culture since its inception. The carefully preserved natural heritage and the dramatic beauty of the high, geologically young mountains and glaciers were recognized by UNESCO with the inscription of the park as a world heritage site in 1979. Source Down To Earth Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements: It is a fungus. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon Frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray Chinned Minivet and White-throated Redstart are  (2020) Birds Primates Reptiles Amphibians Finance Commission Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The government will soon kick off the process to set up the Sixteenth Finance Commission, with the Finance Ministry likely to notify the terms of references for the constitutional body, tasked with recommending the revenue sharing formula between the Centre and States and their distribution among States, towards the latter half of this year. About Finance Commission: The Finance Commission is a Constitutionally mandated body that is at the centre of fiscal federalism. It is constituted by the President Article 280 of the Constitution, Its core responsibility is to evaluate the state of finances of the Union and State Governments, recommend the sharing of taxes between them, lay down the principles determining the distribution of these taxes among States. Its working is characterised by extensive and intensive consultations with all levels of governments, thus strengthening the principle of cooperative federalism. Its recommendations are also geared towards improving the quality of public spending and promoting fiscal stability. The First Finance Commission was constituted vide Presidential Order under the chairmanship of Shri K.C. Neogy on 6th April 1952. The Fifteenth Finance Commission was constituted on 27 November 2017 against the backdrop of the abolition of Planning Commission (as also of the distinction between Plan and non-Plan expenditure) and the introduction of the goods and services tax (GST), which has fundamentally redefined federal fiscal relations. Core Responsibilities: It is the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to— the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or maybe, divided between them and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds; the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India; the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State; the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State; any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound finance. The Commission determines its procedure and has such powers in the performance of its functions as Parliament may by law confer on them. Source:                          The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) In India, the Central Bank’s function as the “lender of last resort” usually refers to which of the following? (2021) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 3 only Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)? (2017) It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 only 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only ACIC CBIT Open in new window Syllabus Prelims –Economy In News: Dr. Chintan Vaishanv, Mission Director, Atal Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog inaugurated ACIC-CBIT centre. ACIC-CBIT hosted the first Startup 20X event in the form of talks from four startup founders working in different areas ranging from infrastructural development, millet manufacturing, mental health and upskilling rural innovators. Startup Policy Forum called Startup 20X has been conceptualized to democratize the basis of startups and startup ecosystems around the world to have a say in the Global Startup Policy making. About ACIC CBIT Aim: ACIC-CBIT has been established with an aim to build a community innovation and entrepreneurship ecosystem to nurture innovators and startups of unserved and underserved regions. ACIC believes and mandates the creation of a strong community innovation ecosystem to include expert mentors; access to infrastructural support such as maker space; funding facilitation; building capacities through training and mentoring. ACIC CBIT Foundation Sectoral Areas and Targeted SDGs: Sectoral Focus Areas Health-tech AI/ML/IoT Based Smart Engineering Products Renewable Energy & Environmental Sustainability Targeted SDGs: Good Health & Well-being (Goal 03 in UN SDGs) Industry Innovation & Infrastructure (Goal 09 in UN SDGs) Sustainable Cities and Communities (Goal 11 in UN SDGs) Startups and Innovators supported till date by ACIC-CBIT 37 innovators supported  Out of 37 start ups supported, 12 are female led About Atal Innovation Mission (AIM): AIM is the Government of India’s endeavor to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship. Its objective is to serve as a platform for the promotion of world-class innovation hubs, grand challenges, start-up businesses, and other self-employment activities, particularly in technology-driven areas. Source PIB Previous Year Question Q1) What does venture capital mean? (2014) A short-term capital provided to industries A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries Consumer price index – Industrial workers Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: The All-India CPI-IW for December, 2022 decreased by 0.2 points and stood at 132.3 (one thirty two point three) points. On 1-month percentage change, it decreased by 0.15 per cent with respect to previous month compared to decrease of 0.24 per cent recorded between corresponding months a year ago. At centre level, Lucknow and Nasik recorded a maximum decrease of 1.9 points each. Faridabad recorded a maximum increase of 3.3 points followed by Nagpur and Tiruneveli with 3.0 and 2.4 points respectively. CPI-IW The Labour Bureau, an attached office of the Ministry of Labour & Employment, has been compiling Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers every month on the basis of retail prices collected from 317 markets spread over 88 industrially important centres in the country. The index is compiled for 88 centres and All-India and is released on the last working day of succeeding month. Base year – 2016 The maximum downward pressure in current index came from Food & Beverages group contributing 0.52 percentage points to the total change. Year-on-year inflation for the month stood at 5.50 per cent compared to 5.41 per cent for the previous month and 5.56 per cent during the corresponding month a year before. Similarly, Food inflation stood at 4.10 per cent against 4.30 per cent of the previous month and 5.93 per cent during the corresponding month a year ago. Sources: PIB Previous Year Question Q1) Consider the following statements: (2020) The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI). The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Thalattosuchian Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography In News: Scientists have uncovered a new thalattosuchian—an ancient “cousin” of modern-day crocodiles—which could be the oldest of its kind ever discovered. Thalattosuchian It is an ancient “cousin” of modern-day crocodiles—which could be the oldest of its kind ever discovered. The fossils uncovered on the Jurassic Coast in the United Kingdom include part of the head, backbone, and limbs of Turnersuchus hingleyae. Due to their relatively long, slender snouts, it is likely that they would have looked similar to the currently living gharial crocodiles. Gharial crocodiles are usually found in the major river systems of Northern India. Though thalattosuchians’ skulls looked similar to gharial crocodiles, they were constructed differently. The region of the skull housing jaw muscles was particularly large in the species, suggesting that they had enlarged jaw muscles that made fast bites possible. This would have been useful considering that most of their prey were probably fast-moving fish and cephalopods like squids and octopuses. The newly-discovered fossils of Turnersuchus hingleyae represent the only complete Thalattosuchian of its age and date back to the early Jurassic, Pliensbachian period, which was about 185 million years ago Thalattosuchians and other crocodile-like animals could have originated around 15 million years farther than Turnersuchus. No expedition has found Thalattosuchians in Triassic rockets yet, which means that there is a ghost lineage. This means there is a group that existed, but they do not yet have fossil evidence. Until the discovery of the latest fossil, this ghost lineage extended from the end of the Triassic period till the Toarcian period. But now, it has been reduced by a few million years. Source: Indian express NIPUN bharat mission Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance In News: Two-day workshop for Samagra Shiksha, Kerala (SSK) Thiruvananthapuram district block resource centre (BRC) personnel in connection with implementation of the NIPUN Bharat Mission began at Neyyattinkar NIPUN bharat mission: Aim The NIPUN Bharat Mission, being implemented through the Samagra Shiksha aims at identifying the limitations in foundational reading skills with comprehension and writing and doing basic mathematical operations of students in Class 3 and addressing them About National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy mission under Ministry of Education The mission’s target is to ensure that every Class 3 student has foundational literacy and numeracy by the 2026-27 academic year. NIPUN Bharat focuses on transforming the monotonous education system into an integrated, enjoyable, all-inclusive and engaging. It instructs teachers or educators to prepare a study plan that develops the students’ literary and basic language skills. A district-level task force has been constituted to implement the mission successfully in the district and coordinate activities. Surveys carried out at the national level have found that children who were in Class 1 at the start of COVID-19 and are now in Class 3 experience learning gaps. Major initiatives Constitution of National Steering Committee for the implementation of NIPUN Bharat Mission Development of Vidya Pravesh Guidelines and Module for Grade I Launch of NISHTHA-FLN for teachers and school heads of preschool to Grade V Launch of NISHTHA ECCE for-master trainers/ resource persons for training of preschool teachers/Anganwadi workers Conduct of Foundational Learning Study (FLS) Creation of DIKSHA FLN portal for availability of FLN resources Conduct of 100 Days Reading Campaign Development of Guidelines for Parent Participation in Home-based Learning during School Closure and Beyond Dvelopment of Guidelines for Community Engagement in Foundational Learning; Training of Academic Task Force (ATF) and District Task Force Members (DTFs) National Conference on Initiatives in Foundational Learning: Voices from the Ground to exchange best practices, share status and understand challenges Continuous tracking and monitoring (monthly, quarterly, annually) of the mission implementation in all the states and UTs. Source The hindu Previous Year Question Q1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Gender gap in education Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 1 Women empowerment, GS 2 Development in social sectors Context: Crucial gains made in closing the gender gap across different undergraduate programmes suffered a setback in the pandemic year, according to the latest All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) released by the Education Ministry on Sunday. The number of women for every 100 men enrolled across different Bachelor’s programmes dropped in the academic year 2020-21. For instance, a year after the gender gap in BCom closed in 2019 — there were as many women as there were male students — the AISHE report for 2020-2021 showed that this gain was lost in the subsequent year that was marred by large-scale disruptions due to the pandemic. Positive Findings GER is a statistical measure to determine the number of students enrolled in undergraduate, postgraduate and research-level studies within the country and is expressed as a percentage of the population in the 18-23 years age group. The GER for women is more than the GER for men – a trend that has been on since 2017-18. Gender Parity Index (GPI), the ratio of female GER to male GER, has increased from 1 in 2017-2018 to 1.05 in 2020-21. At the postgraduate level, the only programme which has seen a hike in the number of women per 100 men is MCom – from 186 women in 2019 to 198 in 2020-21. Negative Findings From 100 women per 100 men who registered for the BCom programme in 2019, the enrollment for women fell to 94 for every 100 men in 2020 — a dip that takes the enrollment figures closer to what it was in 2016 (93 women per 100 male students). Similar drops were witnessed in other programmes too, including medicine where, from 110 women for every 100 men in MBBS in 2019-20, there are now 100 women in 2020-21. Other undergraduate programmes such as pharmacy, which came close to plugging the gender gap in 2019 — 93 women for 100 men — saw a drastic drop to 66 women in 2020-21. Undergraduate programmes such as nursing and education, which have traditionally had more women participation, also witnessed a significant fall in numbers for women – from 385 in nursing and 215 in education (for every 100 men) in 2019-20, to 308 and 185 women, respectively, in 2020-21. The gender gap in undergraduate programmes such as computer science, business administration, pharmacy, technology and law – which have always had a gender skew in favour of men – continues to be large. According to the latest survey, the total student enrollment in higher education went up from 3.85 crore in 2019 to about 4.13 crore in 2020-21, an increase of nearly 29 lakh. Out of the total enrolled, 51.3% or 2.12 crore are male and 48.7% are women. Overall, the Gross Enrollment Ratio (GER) in higher education for the age group of 18 to 23 years is 27.3% as against 25.6 % in 2019-20. At the postgraduate level, too, the number of women pursuing business administration, science, technology and commerce has gone down in 2020-21 as compared to 2019-2020. Programmes like business administration and technology at the post-graduation level continue to be male bastions. During 2020-21, the number of universities increased by 70 and the number of colleges increased by 1,453. Significance of gender-balanced education Gender-equitable education systems can contribute to reductions in school-related gender-based violence and harmful practices, including child marriage and female genital mutilation. Education increases the likelihood that women will look after their own wellbeing along with that of their family. Educated women in rural areas are more likely to participate in decision-making and are less likely to suffer from domestic violence. Education gives women access to better economic opportunities, provides empowerment and enables women to have control over their lives and exert influence in society. Each extra year of a mother’s schooling reduces the probability of infant mortality by 5-10 per cent. Challenges Poverty means women and girls in many parts of the world are still forced to spend hours a day doing chores, fetching water and caring for relatives and boys sent over girls with limited funds Gender gap widens with progressive levels of education owing to greater barriers to schooling that girls face due to social norms and deeply ingrained gender stereotypes correlated with biological factors such as adolescence A tradition and culture of not valuing girls education Cultural notions about careers appropriate for women have traditionally held back their mobility Unsafe roads leading to schools, lack of sanitation facilities like toilets with running water in schools Lack of security in schools: Dramatically highlighted by Malala Yousafzai, shot by the Taliban on her way to school for speaking out about education rights, and the kidnapping this year of 276 school girls by the militant Islamist movement Boko Haram and the resulting Bring Back Our Girls campaign. Sexual violence and discrimination and are not allowed to continue school if they become pregnant or forced into child marriage. Lack of a regulatory framework, inadequate funding, poor quality and no legislation for universal access to early childhood education continue to serve as bottlenecks in India. Lack of female role models Suggestions Gender-transformative education in early childhood and gender equity is a guiding principle in the National Curriculum Framework. A multifaceted approach to creating gender-equal environments, an approach that includes policies and practices that help fathers be equal caregivers to their children, gender-equal programmes in schools and communities, and lots of fun, gender equal content for children. The WEF looked at four major verticals to assess gender gap in a country — economic participation, political participation, health and education levels. Longitudinal studies estimate that every dollar invested in ECE yields over a thousand dollars in return, proving that benefits outweigh costs by an incredible margin. The foundations for a right education must thus be established, not just by ensuring universal enrolment in early childhood education but by also focusing on how preschools impart an education that eliminates gender stereotypes and therefore, erases the gender gap. Government schemes Beti Bachao Beti Padhao – is a central government scheme that saves the girl child from social problems such as gender-based abortions and advance child education around the country. Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana –  is a Government of India backed savings scheme designed for parents of girl children – to set up a trust for their child’s eventual schooling and marriage expenses. CBSE Udaan scheme for girls is implemented by the Central Board of Secondary Education, under the Ministry of Human Resources Development – to increase the student enrolment of girls in prestigious engineering and technical colleges across India. National Scheme of Incentive to Girls for Secondary Education – is a pan India scheme operated by the Department of Education and Education – for the benefit of girls in the disadvantaged classes of India. Once a qualifying student has been chosen, Rs. 3000 will be deposited as a fixed deposit on her behalf. This balance can be withdrawn with interest after the pupil has passed the class 10 exam and has reached the age of 18 years. Way forward Thirteen per cent of India’s population is between 0- 6 years old. If these children are exposed to gender-equal environments, they can potentially bring about significant change. Amartya Sen maintains that “if we continue to leave vast sections of the people of the world outside the orbit of education, we make the world not only less just, but also less secure”. Source: Indian express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to Consumer price index – Industrial workers, consider the following statements It is released by Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance It considers 2001 as its base year for calculations Which of the following statements are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) The word ‘Thalattosuchian’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to fossils of a kind of crocodile an early human species a cave system found in South India a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Finance Commission of India: It is constituted by the President Article 279 of the Constitution. The First Finance Commission was constituted vide Presidential Order under the chairmanship of Shri N K Singh in 1952. The Fifteenth Finance Commission was constituted in 2017 against the backdrop of the abolition of Planning Commission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 1st February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 31st January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Important Articles

[OFFICIAL ANNOUNCEMENT] UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination Notification, 2023 Released – 1105 Vacancies

Dear Friends, To download the notification of the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2023, CLICK BELOW LINK Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2023 Notification - DOWNLOAD How to Apply The process has completely changed from the previous years. Candidates must take note of this. Candidates are required to apply Online by using the website https://upsconline.nic.in It is essential for the applicant to register himself/herself first at the One Time Registration (OTR) platform, available on the Commission’s website, and then proceed for filling up the online application for the examination. OTR has to be registered only once in a lifetime. This can be done anytime throughout the year. If the candidate is already registered, he/she can proceed straightway to filling up the online application for the examination. In case, the candidate wants to effect any change in his/her OTR profile, it shall be allowed only once in the lifetime after the registration at the OTR platform. The online Applications can be filled up to 21st February 2023 till 6:00 PM. The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks before the commencement of the examination. Candidates (excepting Female/SC/ST/Persons with Benchmark Disability Candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay the fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees One Hundred only). All female candidates and candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled Tribe/ Persons with Benchmark Disability categories are exempted from payment of the fee. No fee exemption is, however, available to OBC/EWS candidates and they are required to pay the prescribed fee in full. Complete details can be found in the Official Notification of UPSC  -> Click Here Points To Consider The OBC candidates applying for CSE-2023 must produce OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) certificate based on the income for the Financial Year (FY) 2019-2020, 2020-2021 and 2021-2022 and issued on/after 01.04.2022 (after the completion of FY 2021-22) but not later than the closing date of the application for Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination-2023 i.e. 21st Feb 2023. A candidate will be eligible to get the benefit of the Economically Weaker Section reservation only in case the candidate meets the criteria issued by the Central Government and is in possession of the requisite Income & Asset Certificate based on income for Financial Year (FY) 2021-2022 and issued on/after 01.04.2022 (after the completion of FY 2021-22) but not later than the closing date of the application for Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination-2023 i.e. 21st Feb 2023. Age Limit General – 32 Years OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) – 35 Years SC/ST – 37 Years Number of Attempts (Subject to Age Limit) General- 6 OBC- 9 PwBD- 9 SC/ST- Unlimited Attempts Vacancies The number of vacancies to be filled through the examination is expected to be approximately 1105 which includes 37 vacancies reserved for Persons with Benchmark Disability Category. The final number of vacancies may undergo change after getting a firm number of vacancies from Cadre Controlling Authorities. Reservations will be made for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, the Economically Weaker Sections and Persons with Benchmark Disability in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the Government. Scheme and subjects for the Preliminary examination The Examination shall comprise two compulsory Papers of 200 marks each. Both the question papers will be of the objective type (multiple choice questions) and each will be two hours in duration. The General Studies Paper-II of the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination will be a qualifying paper with minimum qualifying marks fixed at 33%. Paper I – (200 marks) Duration: Two hours Current events of national and international importance. History of India and Indian National Movement. Indian and World Geography-Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World. Indian Polity and Governance-Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc. Economic and Social Development-Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc. General issues on Environmental ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Change – that do not require subject specialization. General Science Paper II-(200 marks) Duration: Two hours Comprehension; Interpersonal skills including communication skills; Logical reasoning and analytical ability; Decision-making and problem-solving; General mental ability; Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude, etc.) (Class X level), Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc. — Class X level)

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 1st February 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions To take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s Think Learn Perform (TLP - Phase 1) 2023 - UPSC Mains Answer General Studies Paper 2 Questions [1st February, 2023] – Day 66

For Previous TLP (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE Hello Everyone,  TLP being an integral formula for success for many toppers over the years including Rank 1 is no secret. In their ‘must to-do' list for the UPSC Civil Services Mains Examination, TLP by far occupies the first place. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the actual Mains. You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, we will post 3 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (12 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year we have integrated the TLP free answer writing page in the main website itself, unlike in previous years. So all the answers should be posted under the questions for the evaluation. Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. To Know More about TLP  -> CLICK HERE For Schedule  -> CLICK HERE Note: Click on Each Question (Link), it will open in a new tab and then Answer respective questions! 1. Discuss the role of India in promoting regional stability and security through its participation in the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO).  शंघाई सहयोग संगठन (एससीओ) में अपनी भागीदारी के माध्यम से क्षेत्रीय स्थिरता और सुरक्षा को बढ़ावा देने में भारत की भूमिका पर चर्चा करें। 2.Evaluate the impact of regional groupings such as SAARC and BIMSTEC on India's engagement with its neighbors and suggest ways to enhance their effectiveness. अपने पड़ोसियों के साथ भारत के जुड़ाव पर सार्क और बिम्सटेक जैसे क्षेत्रीय समूहों के प्रभाव का मूल्यांकन करें और उनकी प्रभावशीलता को बढ़ाने के तरीके सुझाएं। 3.At a time when Pakistan is facing a severe economic crisis, what should be India’s strategy towards Pakistan? Do you think Pakistan’s call for dialogue and engagement should be taken on a serious note by India? Critically comment. ऐसे समय में जब पाकिस्तान गंभीर आर्थिक संकट का सामना कर रहा है, भारत की पाकिस्तान के प्रति क्या रणनीति होनी चाहिए? क्या आपको लगता है कि भारत द्वारा बातचीत और जुड़ाव के लिए पाकिस्तान के आह्वान को गंभीरता से लिया जाना चाहिए? समालोचनात्मक टिप्पणी करें। P.S.: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other's answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best :)

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 31st January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Asiatic Golden Cat Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: For the first time, photos of melanistic Asian golden cat were captured through camera traps in West Bengal’s Buxa Tiger Reserve (BTR). In India, the melanistic morph has been earlier reported from north-eastern states including Sikkim, Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. About Asiatic Golden Cat: The Asian golden cat (Catopuma temminckii ) is a medium-sized wild cat native to the Northeastern Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia and China. The Asian golden cat’s scientific name honours Coenraad Jacob Temminck and is also called Temminck’s cat and Asiatic golden cat. Asian golden cats, known as the “fire cat” in Thailand and Burma, and as the “rock cat” in parts of China, are of a medium size and stocky build. Asian golden cats are solitary and territorial. Once considered nocturnal, a radio-tracking study showed them to be diurnal and crepuscular. Asian golden cats are carnivores, often eating small prey like Indochinese ground squirrel, small snakes and other reptiles, muntjacs, rodents, birds, and young hares. Asian golden cats are polygynous, which means that one male gets exclusive mating rights with multiple females. There appears to be no breeding season for the Asian golden cat, but from April to June no births occur. After gestation of about 81 days, 1 to 3 kittens are born. Kittens are weaned when they are 6 months old and they reach independence as early as 9 months, the average being 12 months. Female Asian golden cats reach sexual maturity between 18 and 24 months, males maturing at 24 months. Conservation Status: IUCN: Near threatened Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I About Buxa Tiger Reserve: Buxa Tiger Reserve (BTR) lies in Alipurduar sub-division of Jalpaiguri district of West Bengal. Its northern boundary runs along the international border with Bhutan. The Sinchula hill range lies all along the northern side of BTR and the Eastern boundary touches that of the Assam State. National Highway No.31 C roughly runs along its southern boundary. It is the eastern most extension of extreme bio-diverse North-East India and represents highly endemic Indo-Malayan region. The fragile “Terai Eco-System” constitutes a part of this Reserve. The Phipsu Wildlife Sanctuary of Bhutan is contiguous to North of BTR. Manas National Park lies on east of BTR. BTR, thus, serves as international corridor for elephant migration between India and Bhutan. Some of the endangered species found in BTR are Indian Tiger, Asian Elephant, Leopard cat, Bengal florican, Regal python, Chinese Pangolin, Hispid hare, Hog deer etc. Source:                            Hindustan Times Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Consider the following animals Hedgehog Marmot Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts? (2021) 1 and 2 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 Food Safety and Standards Authority of India Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) notified FSSAI (Finance) Regulations, 2023. About Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI): It has been established under Food Safety and Standards , 2006 which consolidates various acts and orders that have hitherto handled food related issues in various Ministries and Departments. FSSAI has been created for laying down science based standards for articles of food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import to ensure availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India is the Administrative Ministry for the implementation of FSSAI. The Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) are appointed by Government of India. The Chairperson is in the rank of Secretary to Government of India. Headquarters: Delhi About FSSAI (Finance) Regulations, 2023: Food Safety and Standards Authority of India Fund was established and will be audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General annually. The FSSAI shall maintain this Fund. Financial receipts will include grants made to the FSSAI by the Central government and sums realized by way of fees, penalties, and statutory charges. It establishes a Finance Committee. Composition of Financial Committee include: Chairman: Executive Director-Finance of FSSAI 2 members: nominated by the FSSAI A representative from the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Established the Chief Financial Authority: He/she is the CEO of FSSAI. He will develop financial report formats and present it to the Finance Committee. It will outline the Authority’s financial and cash position, and adherence to the budget. The accounts of the Authority shall be audited by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India or any other person appointed by them on their behalf annually. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2021) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Nobles Helen Butterfly Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology The Noble’s Helen, recorded from the Namdapha National Park, is disappearing from its previously known ranges in Myanmar, China, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia and Vietnam. About Noble’s Helen Butterfly: The Noble’s Helen, closest to Papilio antonio from the Philippines and characterised by a large dorsal white spot, was once common in the montane forest at moderate elevations in northern Thailand. This species of swallowtail butterfly has also been reported from the Myanmar, Yunnan and Hubei regions of China, Laos, Cambodia and Vietnam. Butterflies are considered vital indicators of the state of biodiversity and key ecosystem functions. Noble’s Helen with a wingspan of 100-120 mm was initially thought to be an aberration of Papilio Helenus, though the former has an extra white spot in the dorsum of the forewing. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider National Institute of Biologicals (NIB) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently Health Minister virtually inaugurates National Summit on Quality of Biologicals. NIB is playing a vital role in ensuring that only quality biological products reach the health system, thereby strengthening our Hon’ble Prime Minister’s mission of ensuring quality health and wellness for all. About National Institute of Biologicals: It was set up in 1992 as apex autonomous institute under the administrative control of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It is performing primary statutory function of Quality Control of Biologicals. e.g., Insulin, erythropoietin, blood products, diagnostic kits. About Biological: Biological therapeutics, also referred to as Biologicals, are those class of medicines which are grown and then purified from large-scale cell cultures of bacteria or yeast, or plant or animal cells. Biologicals are a diverse group of medicines which includes vaccines, growth factors, immune modulators, monoclonal antibodies, as well as products derived from human blood and plasma. What distinguishes biologicals from other medicines is that these are generally proteins purified from living culture systems or from blood, whereas other medicines are considered as ‘small molecules’ and are either made synthetically or purified from plants. Key difference between biologicals and other medicines: biologicals are generally proteins purified from living culture systems or from blood. Other medicines are considered as ‘small molecules’ and are either made synthetically or purified from plants. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics : Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Bird flu Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and technology In News: Bird flu, a virus not known to spread easily among mammals, led to the culling of 50,000 minks in Spain. The findings indicated at least one mutation in the virus’ genome, which may make mammal-to-mammal infection easier. It is possible the minks were infected via seabirds in Galicia, a region in Spain, carrying the H5N1 virus since they were kept in an open cage and possibly interacted with the wild birds Bird flu Avian influenza or bird flu refers to the disease caused by infection with avian (bird) influenza (flu) Type A viruses H5N1. These viruses naturally spread among wild aquatic birds worldwide and can infect domestic poultry and other bird and animal species. Bird flu viruses do not normally infect humans. However, sporadic human infections with  bird flu viruses have occurred. Typically, mammals catch the avian influenza directly from infected birds, through the consumption of bird droppings or preying on infected animals. However, within-mammal transmission was uncharacteristic of the virus until now. Poultry birds across Europe, Asia, Africa and North America have been victim to the highly infectious strain of the avian influenza virus. The virus H5N1 is evolving and may be gaining pandemic potential as its mutation is the same mutation that was recorded in the gene of the 2009 pandemic swine-origin influenza A (H1N1) virus. Source: DTE Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2017) In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by ‘the same mosquito that transmits dengue. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases? (2015) AIDS Bird flu Dengue Swine flu UNESCO Heritage Sites in Maharashtra Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Art and Culture Ellora Caves Situated in Aurangabad district, the Ellora Caves are just awe-inspiring. The complex features 34 caves, of which 17 are Hindu caves, 12 are Buddhist caves, and 5 are Jain caves. This is also the place where the renowned Kailasa Temple exists, and is full of intricate rock carvings. The primary attraction of Ellora is Kailash Temple (cave16) is the most remarkable, and is one of the main attractions that lure visitors to Ellora Caves. The caves were granted UNESCO World Heritage Site status in 1983 Elephanta Caves This is another UNESCO World Heritage Site in Maharashtra, which is a must-visit and highlights the peace and ideology reflected by Buddhism. These caves are a network of sculpted caves, and is the oldest historic site The Portuguese colonists first discovered the caves and named them Elephanta Caves after spotting elephant statues on the caves. There are a total of seven caves that date back between the 5th and 8th centuries, and were listed as heritage sites in 1987. Ajanta Caves It comprises a group of 30 rock-cut caves, and are also known for their murals. Home to famous Buddhist religious art, this site serves as a great example of ancient Indian art. There are a total of 29 caves here, which are all divided into periods, denoting the time when they were built. If reports are to go by, they were carved between the 2nd century BCE through CE 650, and feature various stories from the Jataka tales. It was declared a World Heritage Site in 1983. Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus Earlier, it was known as the Victoria Terminus, and was completed in 1888. Its construction started in 1878 while its Victorian Gothic Revival architecture stands out amid the hustle bustle of Mumbai. Spread across a 2.85 hectare area, this place remains extremely busy almost all the time. It’s a historic railway station, which was added to the list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 2004. This 133-year-old heritage building is not only one of the biggest, but also one of the busiest railway stations in India. Victorian Gothic & Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai The Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Bombay will offer you a collection of 19th century Victorian neo-Gothic public buildings and 20th century art deco buildings in the Fort area of Mumbai. The large edifices serve as relics from a different time, which are so spectacular that they will leave you awed. You can find these buildings around the Oval Maidan. Sources: TOI Previous Year Question Q.1) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora river. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of Chambal river. Pandu-lena Cave shrines lie in the gorge of Narmada river. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of Godavari river. Project 39A Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Polity In News: Even as the Supreme Court has called for reforming death penalty sentencing, trial courts awarded 165 death sentences in 2022, the highest in over two decades, according to the Annual Death Penalty Report, 2022. The report will be released on Monday by Project 39A This shift has been sharply influenced by the extraordinary sentencing of 38 persons to death in Ahmedabad in a single bomb blast case, representing the largest number of persons sentenced to death in a single case since 2016 Project 39A It is a criminal reforms advocacy group with the National Law University, Delhi. It is inspired by Article 39-A of the Indian Constitution, a provision that furthers the intertwined values of equal justice and equal opportunity by removing economic and social barriers Project 39A aims to trigger new conversations on legal aid, torture, forensics, mental health in prisons, and the death penalty, using empirical research to re-examine practices and policies in the criminal justice system The dismal state and sometimes the absence of record-keeping in the police, prisons and courts along with multiple barriers to accessing records/ data complicates criminal justice research in India. Source: Indian Express Mandatory Minimum Sentencing Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Polity In News: A CJI Chandrachud-led bench of the Supreme Court decided to examine a petition challenging the constitutional validity of Section 376 DB of the Indian Penal Code. This section describes the punishment for gangrape of a minor under 12 years of age, to the extent that it prescribes a ‘minimum mandatory sentence’ of life imprisonment for the remainder of the convict’s life and even death. Mandatory minimum sentencing: The concept of mandatory minimum sentencing refers to “a sentence which must be imposed without leaving any discretion to the court”. It means a quantum of punishment which cannot be reduced below the period fixed – the Apex court held in its 2016 ruling in ‘Mohd Hashim vs State Of UP And Others’. Essentially, this predetermines the minimum punishment or sentence for certain offenses which are considered to be more serious than others, with a view to ensure justice and not let the perpetrator of such an offense go unpunished. No matter what the unique, individual circumstances of the offender or the offense might be, the court must mandatorily award this minimum period of sentencing for the offenses which prescribe it. What provisions award a mandatory sentence A concept that comes primarily from the Canadian and American legal systems; in India, such sentences are prescribed for all sexual offenses under the Prevention of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act except the offense of sexual harassment Under Section 8 of the POCSO Act, a punishment of 3-5 years has been prescribed for offenses under Section 7 which deals with offenses of sexual assault against children. However, imposing the minimum punishment in such cases is mandatory. When the legislature has prescribed a minimum sentence without discretion, the same cannot be reduced by the courts. In such cases, imposition of minimum sentence, be it imprisonment or fine, is mandatory and leaves no discretion to the court,” the Supreme Court reiterated in its 2019 ruling in ‘State Of Madhya Pradesh vs Vikram Das’. However, it was first in the year 1983, following nationwide protests in the wake of the Supreme Court’s 1978 ruling acquitting two policemen for the rape of a 16-year-old Adivasi girl in ‘Tukaram And Ors v. State Of Maharashtra’ that the Criminal Law Amendment Act Of 1983 was passed. The 1983 amendment was the first instance of ‘mandatory minimum punishment’ being prescribed, with seven years for general rapes and ten years for aggravated cases which could include rapes of minors below 12 years, and pregnant women, while the maximum punishment or life imprisonment for both was stipulated as 14 years. Years later, in 2012, following the brutal gangrape and death of a medical student in Delhi, the demand for more stringent rape laws with stricter punishments gained widespread momentum. This resulted in the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, of 2013, which expanded the definition of ‘rape’ beyond penetration to include insertion of objects, anal sex, and oral sex. The 2013 reforms also updated the definition of ‘life imprisonment’ to mean the entire remainder of the convict’s life and introduced a minimum sentence of 20 years for gang rape. Following this, even the death penalty could be meted out to those repeatedly indulging in such offenses. What are the arguments for and against? The proponents of minimum mandatory sentencing say that it limits the scope for judicial discretion and arbitrariness, thereby enhancing the cause of justice. It is also believed that it acts as a deterrent for serious or harsh offenses by ensuring that the perpetrator doesn’t go unpunished. On the other hand, critics say that this leads to overcrowding of prisons and is unfair as the convict’s mitigating circumstances, such as if they are a first-time offender or the sole breadwinner in the family, are often overlooked. Moreover, such provisions can often have unintended consequences as judges might feel the prescribed punishment to be excessively stringent in such cases and acquit the accused altogether Source: Indian Express Indus Waters Treaty Open in new window Syllabus Mains: GS 1 (Geography) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: The government’s decision to issue notice to Pakistan, calling for negotiations to amend the Indus Waters Treaty, must be considered carefully. About Indus Water Treaty: Indus River System is a Himalayan river system and is one of the largest river basins in the world. The Indus River, also known as Sindhu river, is a part of one of the most fertile regions of the Indian sub-continent and the world. The main tributaries of the Indus River form the Indus River System, which includes Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Satluj. History of the Indus Waters Treaty: The Indus river basin has six rivers – Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Sutlej, originating from Tibet and flowing through the Himalayan ranges to enter Pakistan, ending in the south of Karachi. In 1947, the line of partition, aside from delineating geographical boundaries for India and Pakistan, also cut the Indus river system into two. Initially, the Inter-dominion accord of May, 1948 was adopted, where both countries, after meeting for a conference, decided that India would supply water to Pakistan in exchange for an annual payment made by the latter. This agreement however, soon disintegrated as both the countries could not agree upon its common interpretations. In 1951, in the backdrop of the water-sharing dispute, both the countries applied to the World Bank for funding of their respective irrigation projects on ​​Indus and its tributaries, which is when the World Bank offered to mediate the conflict. Finally in 1960, the World Bank mediated agreement was reached between the two countries and the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) was signed by former Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and then President of Pakistan, Ayyub Khan. Key provisions of the Indus Waters Treaty Water Sharing Provisions: The treaty prescribed how water from the six rivers of the Indus River System would be shared between India and Pakistan. The three western rivers—Indus, Chenab and Jhelum—were allotted to Pakistan for unrestricted use. The three Eastern rivers—Ravi, Beas and Sutlej—were allocated to India for unrestricted usage. Thus by provisions of treaty 80% of the share of water or about 135 Million Acre Feet (MAF) went to Pakistan while India left with the rest 33 MAF or 20% of water for its usage. Administrative provisions: It required both the countries to establish a Permanent Indus Commission constituted by permanent commissioners on both sides. The commission will serve as a forum for exchange of information on the rivers, for continued cooperation and as the first stop for the resolution of conflicts. Operational provisions: Although Pakistan has rights over the waters of Jhelum, Chenab and Indus. Annexure C of the treaty allows India certain agricultural uses. Annexure D allows India to build ‘run of the river‘ hydropower projects (projects not requiring live storage of water). India needs to share information on the project design or alterations made to it with Pakistan who can raise objections or can reserve its concern within 3 months. India is allowed to have a minimum storage level on the western rivers – meaning it can store up to 3.75 MAF of water for conservation and flood storage purposes. Dispute resolution mechanism: The IWT provides a three-step dispute resolution mechanism, under which First, “Questions” on both sides can be resolved at the Permanent Commission, or can also be taken up at the inter-government level. Disputes/differences unresolved on the first level can be taken to the World Bank who appoints a Neutral Expert (NE) to come to a decision. Eventually, if either party is not satisfied with the NE’s decision or in case of “disputes” in the interpretation and extent of the treaty, matters can be referred to a Court of Arbitration. Annulment provisions: The treaty does not provide a unilateral exit provision to either country. It is supposed to remain in force unless both the countries ratify another mutually agreed pact. Criticisms: Internationally, the Treaty is seen as one of the most successful cases of conflict resolution but between the two countries, it has seeded dissatisfaction and conflicts regarding its interpretation and implementation. The treaty is highly technical leading to far-ranging divergences between the two countries in terms of interpretations. For example, the treaty says that storage systems can be built but to a limited extent. However, the technical details make it difficult to conclude under what circumstances projects can be carried out. Another concern is the tense political relations between the two countries. From the Indian point of view: The basic dissatisfaction is that the treaty prevents it from building any storage systems on the western rivers, even though it allows building storage systems under certain exceptional circumstances. From Pakistan’s point of view:  Due to its suspicions, stays aware of every technical aspect of the project and deliberately tries to get it suspended. The matter is further aggravated by the fact that the western rivers lie in the disputed region of Jammu and Kashmir, a subject of a tussle between both since independence. Recent developments: Indian government in January 2023 notified Pakistan of its intent to modify the IWT. It says this extreme step is due to Pakistan’s intransigence over objections to two Indian hydropower projects in Jammu and Kashmir: the 330MW Kishanganga hydroelectric project (Jhelum) and the 850MW Ratle hydroelectric project (Chenab). India has argued since 2006, when the objections began, that the projects were within the treaty’s fair water use. However, Pakistan has refused to conclude negotiations with India in the bilateral mechanism — the Permanent Indus Commission (PIC) of experts that meets regularly — and has often sought to escalate it. As a result, the World Bank appointed a neutral expert, but Pakistan pushed for the case to be heard at The Hague. India has objected to this sequencing, as it believes that each step should be fully exhausted before moving on to the next. While India was able to prevail over the World Bank to pause the process in 2016, Pakistan persisted, and since March 2022, the World Bank has agreed to have both a neutral expert and a Court of Arbitration (CoA) hear the arguments. India attended the hearings with the neutral expert last year, but has decided to boycott the CoA at The Hague that began its hearing recently. Way Forward: In the last six decades the Indus Waters Treaty has been one of the most successful water-sharing endeavours in the world today. However, there is a need to update certain technical specifications and expand the scope of the agreement to address climate change. Therefore there is a need to renegotiate the treaty terms, update certain technical specifications and expand the scope of the agreement to address demands of the two countries amid the rising climate crisis. Source:  The Hindu OBC Subcategorization Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Polity and Social Justice Context: The Justice G. Rohini-led commission for the sub-categorisation of other backward classes (OBCs) has now been given yet another extension in its tenure by the President This is the 14th extension in tenure that the commission has been given. About the commission The commission was formed in October 2017 It was initially given 12 weeks to finish the task of sub-categorising the nearly 3,000 castes within the OBC umbrella and recommend division of the 27% OBC quota among them equitably As part of its work, the commission had identified dominant caste groups among all OBC communities in the Central list, finding that a small group of dominant OBC communities were crowding out a large number of communities from the 27% OBC quota. Consequently, the commission decided to divide all OBC communities into four broad categories, with the largest share of the quota pie going to the group that has historically been deprived of OBC quota as a result of being pushed out by dominant OBC groups. Commission’s terms of reference: To examine the extent of inequitable distribution of benefits of reservation among the castes or communities included in the broad category of OBCs with reference to such classes included in the Central List. To work out the mechanism, criteria, norms and parameters in a scientific approach for sub-categorisation within such OBCs. To take up the exercise of identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of OBCs and classifying them into their respective sub-categories. A fourth term of reference was added on January 22, 2020. To study the various entries in the Central List of OBCs and recommend correction of any repetitions, ambiguities, inconsistencies and errors of spelling or transcription. What is sub-categorisation of OBCs? The idea is to create sub-categories within the larger group of OBCs for the purpose of reservation. OBCs are granted 27% reservation in jobs and education under the central government, this has been a legal debate for other reservation categories too In 2022, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court reopened the debate on sub-categorisation of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes for reservations. For OBCs, the debate arises out of the perception that only a few affluent communities among the over 2,600 included in the Central List of OBCs have secured a major part of the 27% reservation. The argument for creating sub-categories within OBCs is that it would ensure “equitable distribution” of representation among all OBC communities. It was to examine this that the Rohini Commission was constituted on October 2, 2017 Need for subcategorization Due to inequalities and further inequalities within unequal entities. Reservation in jobs and education did address socio-economic disparities in India to some degree, but, the benefits of reservation have not been distributed equitably Large segments of the weaker sections and backward classes continue to have no access to quality education or meaningful employment. The relatively rich and dominant sections among the backward castes have tended to take up a disproportionately larger share of the reservation pie. Failure in effectively preventing large sections of the creamy layer from taking advantage of the quota system to the detriment of the poorer sections among their own caste groups. To ensure a more equitable distribution of reservation benefits by further differentiating caste groups coming under backward classes on the basis of their levels of social and economic backwardness. Lacunae in categorisation of the creamy layer led to the need to differentiate among the caste groups. Vote-bank politics has caused prioritising of caste-based categorisation over income-based differentiation to identify reservation beneficiaries. The reservation pie is limited, and no group, whether rich or poor, dominant or subservient, can hope to gain except at the expense of another socio-economic category. Findings of the commission In 2018, the Commission analysed the data of 1.3 lakh central jobs given under OBC quota over the preceding five years and OBC admissions to central higher education institutions, including universities, IITs, NITs, IIMs and AIIMS, over the preceding three years. The findings were: 97% of all jobs and educational seats have gone to just 25% of all sub-castes classified as OBCs; 24.95% of these jobs and seats have gone to just 10 OBC communities; 983 OBC communities — 37% of the total — have zero representation in jobs and educational institutions; 994 OBC sub-castes have a total representation of only 2.68% in recruitment and admissions. Total number of Group A to Group C employees (including safai karmacharis) was 5.12 lakh  – Of these, 17.70% are SC, 6.72% ST, 20.26% OBC (Other Backward Classes), and 0.02% EWS (Economically Weaker Sections). In Group-A, the highest tier among these, the representation of SCs is just 12.86%, of STs 5.64% and of OBCs 16.88%. Reservation for these communities is 15%, 7.5% and 27% respectively. Challenges Disruptions caused by COVID-19 pandemic. Different states census underway – Bihar government is in the middle of its caste-based survey in the State and the Uttar Pradesh government is in the process of conducting a fresh survey to assess the need for OBC reservation in its local body elections, with other States like Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra also looking to form panels to implement OBC reservation in local body polls. Government lacks information for data enumeration of OBC Data from 2011 Socio-Economic Caste Census were never made public. Enumeration of OBC data is administratively complex and the information lacks completeness and accuracy since the State and Central list of OBCs are distinct. It may lead to breach of apex court’s 50-per-cent ceiling, since many communities have sought separate reservations at the State and Central levels across India. Way forward According to 2018 data, just ten OBC communities have taken the 25 per cent of reserved central jobs and institutional seats. Also, 97 per cent of the reserved jobs and seats have gone to 25 per cent of OBC sub-castes. Hence, there is a need to re-establish equity and the task has been handed over to Rohini Commission Once completed, the report by Justice G Rohini commission is also likely to undergo judicial review Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) H5N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases? AIDS Bird flu Dengue Swine flu Q.2) With reference to mandatory sentences in judicial system, consider the following statements: The concept is originally Canadian. In India, such sentences are prescribed for all sexual offenses under the Prevention of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act including the offense of sexual harassment. Which of the above statements are incorrect? Only 1 Only 2 Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding National Institute of Biologicals: It was set up in 1992 as apex autonomous institute under the administrative control of Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. It is performing primary statutory function of Quality Control of Insulin, erythropoietin, blood products, diagnostic kits. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 31st January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 30th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; } For a dedicated peer group, Motivation & Quick updates, Join our official telegram channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccount Subscribe to our YouTube Channel HERE to watch Explainer Videos, Strategy Sessions, Toppers Talks & many more…

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 31st January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions To take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s Think Learn Perform (TLP - Phase 1) 2023 - UPSC Mains Answer General Studies Paper 2 Questions [31st January, 2023] – Day 65

For Previous TLP (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE Hello Everyone,  TLP being an integral formula for success for many toppers over the years including Rank 1 is no secret. In their ‘must to-do' list for the UPSC Civil Services Mains Examination, TLP by far occupies the first place. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the actual Mains. You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, we will post 3 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (12 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year we have integrated the TLP free answer writing page in the main website itself, unlike in previous years. So all the answers should be posted under the questions for the evaluation. Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. To Know More about TLP  -> CLICK HERE For Schedule  -> CLICK HERE Note: Click on Each Question (Link), it will open in a new tab and then Answer respective questions! 1. Evaluate the impact of institutional measures such as the Right to Information Act and the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act on enhancing transparency and accountability in the public sector. सार्वजनिक क्षेत्र में पारदर्शिता और जवाबदेही बढ़ाने पर संस्थागत उपायों जैसे सूचना का अधिकार अधिनियम और लोकपाल और लोकायुक्त अधिनियम के प्रभाव का मूल्यांकन करें। 2. Analyze the role of civil services in promoting democratic values and practices and suggest ways to improve their performance in this regard. लोकतांत्रिक मूल्यों और प्रथाओं को बढ़ावा देने में सिविल सेवाओं की भूमिका का विश्लेषण करें और इस संबंध में उनके प्रदर्शन को बेहतर बनाने के तरीके सुझाएं। 3. Analyze the challenges faced by the civil services in promoting transparency and accountability in governance and suggest ways to overcome them. प्रशासन में पारदर्शिता और उत्तरदायित्व को बढ़ावा देने में सिविल सेवाओं के सामने आने वाली चुनौतियों का विश्लेषण करें और उन्हें दूर करने के उपाय सुझाएं। P.S.: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other's answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best :)

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 30th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Lake Chad Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: A report by Refugees International, a humanitarian organisation has highlighted the dangerous link between climate change and conflict in countries like Cameroon, Chad, Niger and Nigeria in the Lake Chad Basin. Shrinking natural resources due to adverse weather are heightening tensions across communities and displacing people. Around 3 million people have been displaced and an additional 11 million need humanitarian assistance. About Lake Chad: The Lake Chad is a vast area of fresh water located in the middle of sand dunes which covers territories in 4 countries: Nigeria, Cameroon, Niger and Chad. Palaeography informs us that the Lake Chad has been constantly evolving with respect to the environmental conditions. It is an endorheic lake fed mainly by the Logone Chari and Komadougou watercourses. This ecosystem contains a great variety of wet zones which include open water, polders, temporary or permanent ponds, some of them being rich in natron. Around the lake, sand deserts and water meet in a complex network of meanders which are sometimes cultivated. Receding waters in dry season expose wide floodplains on the banks of the lake. They shelter water plants such as papyrus and spirulina but also numerous animal species such as the migratory birds, which use these plains as resting areas. The Chad Basin National Park (Lake Chad Nigeria Section) is located between Borno and Yobe states in the extreme north-eastern corner of Nigeria. The Park is generally described as being in the conventional basin of the famous but rapidly shrinking Lake Chad. The Chad Basin remains the only existing stronghold of Giraffe and Ostrich in Nigeria. The Lake Chad environment presents an exceptional mosaic of plant formations forming as many biotopes, oasis and wet zones of international importance. The Lake Chad and its islands, maintain their natural morphology which gorges this cultural landscape on which human communities developed. The Chad Basin National Park shares the same ecosystem with the Waza National Park in the Republic of Cameroon to the east. Its Wetlands and Oases are very important in the mitigation of the desertification process in north-eastern Nigeria and the overall conservation management efforts of the Chad Basin as a whole. The natural values are almost identical to those of the Okavango Delta, the Lakes of Ounianga and the Kenya Lake System in the Great Rift Valley in Africa; but they are also comparable to those of the West Lake Cultural Landscape of Hangzhou in China and the Ahwar of Southern Iraq. Source: DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Q.2) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea of areas National Commission for Women Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The Hon’ble President of India will address the 31st Foundation Day of the National Commission for Women in Delhi on January 31st, 2023. The theme of the programme is ‘Sashakt Nari Sashakt Bharat’ aimed at acknowledging and celebrating the stories of women who have excelled and paved their journey to leave a mark. About National Commission for Women: The National Commission for Women was set up as a statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. National Commission for Women (NCW) is entrusted with- Reviewing the Constitutional and Legal safeguards for women; Recommending remedial legislative measures; Facilitating redressal of grievances and Advising the Government on all policy matters affecting women. Membership: Members of the NCW include- A Chairperson, committed to the cause of women, to be nominated by the Central Government. Five members to be nominated by the Central Government from amongst persons of ability, integrity and standing who have had experience in law or legislation, trade unionism, management of an industry potential of women, women’s voluntary organizations (including women activist), administration, economic development, health, education or social welfare; A Member-Secretary to be nominated by the Central Government NCW is responsible for investigating and examining all matters relating to the safeguards provided for women under the Constitution and other laws. NCW presents its reports to the Central Government, annually and at such other times as the Commission may deem fit, reports upon the working of those safeguards. Source: PIB Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance and Economy Context: The Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA), a think tank under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India launched today the third batch of IICA Valuation Certificate Program (IVCP) – the Gold Standard in Valuation Education. About Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs: IICA was registered as a society on September 12, 2008 under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. An autonomous institute, IICA works under the aegis of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs to deliver opportunities for research, education, and advocacy. It is also a think tank that curates a repository of data and knowledge for policy makers, regulators as well as other stakeholders working in the domain of corporate affairs. Set up as the premier organization that aims at providing astute and credible intellectual leadership in corporate regulation, governance and running sustainable businesses, IICA is a think-tank, capacity building and service delivery institute. Its objective is to continuously improve the quality of all corporate financial reporting in India. IICA Valuation Certificate Program (IVCP) is a flagship course by IICA that has earned the distinction of ‘Gold Standard in Valuation Education’. Launched in 2019, 250+ participants from diverse backgrounds have registered for the course with average experience of 20+ years. The course is recognized by International Valuation Standards Council (IVSC) and is recommended by Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) to all Registered Valuers (RVs), Department of Financial Services (DFS) to all Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and Financial Institutions (FIs) and Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) to all Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs). International Valuation Standards Council: The IVSC is a not-for-profit organisation that acts as the global standard setter for the valuation profession, serving the public interest. The IVSC is overseen by a Board of Trustees which includes former finance ministers, leading financial and securities regulators, heads of valuation professional organisations and standard-setting bodies. Independent technical boards of international experts are appointed to lead the development of the IVS. There are more than 180 member organisations of the IVSC, operating in 137 countries worldwide including India. The IVSC is headquartered in London, UK. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India was established on 1st October, 2016 under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (Code). It is a unique regulator: regulates a profession as well as processes. It has regulatory oversight over the Insolvency Professionals, Insolvency Professional Agencies, Insolvency Professional Entities and Information Utilities. It writes and enforces rules for processes, namely, corporate insolvency resolution, corporate liquidation, individual insolvency resolution and individual bankruptcy under the Code. It has also been designated as the ‘Authority’ under the Companies (Registered Valuers and Valuation Rules), 2017 for regulation and development of the profession of valuers in the country. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks in India, consider the following statements: They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. They can issue equity shares and preference shares. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1996 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Methane Emissions Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Microsoft co-founder Bill Gates has invested in an Australian climate technology start-up that aims to curtail the methane emissions of cow burps, according to a report in the BBC. About Methane: Methane (CH4) is a hydrocarbon that is a primary component of natural gas. Methane is also a greenhouse gas (GHG), so its presence in the atmosphere affects the earth’s temperature and climate system. Methane (CH4) is a colourless, odourless and highly flammable gas. Methane is the second most abundant anthropogenic GHG after carbon dioxide (CO2), accounting for about 20 percent of global emissions. China, the United States, Russia, India, Brazil, Indonesia, Nigeria, and Mexico are estimated to be responsible for nearly half of all anthropogenic methane emissions. Because methane is both a powerful greenhouse gas and short-lived compared to carbon dioxide, achieving significant reductions would have a rapid and significant effect on atmospheric warming potential. Sources of Methane: Globally, 50 to 65% of total methane emissions come from the following human-caused activities: Raising livestock: Ruminants such as cows, sheep, goats, and buffaloes have a special type of digestive system that allows them to break down and digest food that non-ruminant species would be unable to digest. Livestock emissions (from manure and gastroenteric releases) account for roughly 32 per cent of human-caused methane emissions. Leaks from natural gas systems Landfills and waste from homes and businesses Agriculture is the predominant source. Paddy rice cultivation in which flooded fields prevent oxygen from penetrating the soil, creating ideal conditions for methane-emitting bacteria – accounts for another 8 per cent of human-linked emission. Consequences of Methane: Potency: Methane is about 80 times more powerful at warming the atmosphere than carbon dioxide over a 20-year period. Ozone formation: Methane also contributes to the formation of ground-level ozone a hazardous air pollutant and greenhouse gas. Global warming: Methane has accounted for roughly 30 per cent of global warming since pre-industrial times and is proliferating faster than at any other time since record keeping began in the 1980s. Global and Indian Initiatives to tackle Methane Emissions India Greenhouse Gas Program: This Program is an industry-led voluntary framework aiming to help Indian companies monitor progress towards measurement and management of GHG emissions using tools and methodologies from WRI’s (World Resources Institute) GHG Protocol. Harit Dhara: The Harit Dhara is an anti-methanogenic feed supplement prepared from the Natural Phyto-sources. It is found very effective in reducing the enteric methane emission upto 17% to 20% when incorporated in the livestock feed. Methane Alert and Response System: UNEP’s International Methane Emissions Observatory launched the Methane Alert and Response System (MARS) at COP27, a new initiative to accelerate implementation of the Global Methane Pledge by transparently scaling up global efforts to detect and act on major methane emissions sources. Global Methane Initiative: It was launched in 2004. It is an international public-private initiative that advances cost-effective, near-term methane abatement and recovery and use of methane as a valuable energy source in three sectors: biogas (including agriculture, municipal solid waste, and wastewater), coal mines, and oil and gas systems. It focuses on collective efforts and a cost-effective approach to reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions and increase energy security, enhance economic growth, improve air quality and improve worker safety. GMI includes 46 Partner Countries, which together represent approximately 75 percent of the world’s estimated man-made methane emissions. Active involvement by private sector entities, financial institutions, and other non-governmental organizations is essential to build capacity, transfer technology, and promote private investment. Global Methane Pledge: The Global Methane Pledge was launched at COP26 in November 2021 to catalyse action to reduce methane emissions. Led by the United States and the European Union, the Pledge now has 111 country participants who together are responsible for 45% of global human-caused methane emissions. By joining the Pledge, countries commit to work together in order to collectively reduce methane emissions by at least 30% below 2020 levels by 2030. Source:                  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ? (2022) Cotton Rice Sugarcane Wheat Q.2) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a :  (2022) Database created by coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Mughal Gardens Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Medieval History In News: The iconic Mughal Gardens at the Rashtrapati Bhavan (President’s House) in Delhi have been renamed. “The collective identity of all the gardens at Rashtrapati Bhavan will be ‘Amrit Udyan’. The gardens will open to the public on January 31 About Mughal Gardens In Babur Nama, Babur says that his favourite kind of garden is the Persian charbagh style (literally, four gardens). The charbagh structure was intended to create a representation of an earthly utopia – jannat – in which humans co-exist in perfect harmony with all elements of nature. Defined by its rectilinear layouts, divided in four equal sections, these gardens can be found across lands previously ruled by the Mughals. From the gardens surrounding Humanyun’s Tomb in Delhi to the Nishat Bagh in Srinagar, all are built in this style – giving them the moniker of Mughal Gardens. A defining feature of these gardens is the use of waterways, often to demarcate the various quadrants of the garden. These were not only crucial to maintain the flora of the garden, they also were an important part of its aesthetic. Fountains were often built, symbolising the “cycle of life. The gardeners of the Rashtrapati Bhavan have kept alive the tradition of nurturing the defining feature of the gardens — the multitude of rose varieties. They include Adora, Mrinalini, Taj Mahal, Eiffel Tower, Scentimental, Oklahoma (also called Black Rose), Black Lady, Blue Moon and Lady X. There are also roses named after personalities: Mother Teresa, Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Abraham Lincoln, Jawahar Lal Nehru, and Queen Elizabeth — not to forget Arjun and Bhim. The ingenious gardeners also introduced new, exotic varieties of flowers like birds of paradise, tulips and heliconia in 1998. For instance, C Rajagopalachari, the last Governor General of India, made a political statement when during a period of food shortage in the country, he himself ploughed the lands and dedicated a section of the garden to foodgrains. Today, the Nutrition Garden, popularly known as Dalikhana, stands in that spot, organically cultivating a variety of vegetables for consumption at the Rashtrapati Bhavan. President R Venkatraman added a cactus garden (he just liked cacti) and APJ Abdul Kalam added many theme-based gardens: from the musical garden to the spiritual garden. History of Mughal gardens In 1911, the British decided to shift the Indian capital from Calcutta to Delhi. About 4,000 acres of land was acquired to construct the Viceroy’s House with Sir Edwin Lutyens being given the task of designing the building on Raisina Hill. Lutyens’ designs combined elements of classical European architecture with Indian styles, producing a unique aesthetic that defines Lutyens’ Delhi till date. Lady Hardinge, the wife of the then Viceroy, urged planners to create a Mughal-style garden. It is said that she was inspired by the book Gardens of the Great Mughals (1913) by Constance Villiers-Stuart as well as her visits to the Mughal gardens in Lahore and Srinagar. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait? (2019) Humayun Akbar Jahangir Shah Jahan Jatar Duel Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Art and Culture In News: An ancient terracotta temple in West Bengal’s Sundarbans, which has survived the ravages of time for a millennia, is now facing a very modern threat. The impact of climate change, especially the increase in air salinity, is gradually eroding the temple walls Jatar Duel: Jatar Deul is an eleventh century structure, which is located at Raidighi in South 24 Parganas and it is only a few kilometres from the sea. Jatar Deul is a Shiva temple and is the tallest standing temple in the Sundarbans on the bank of the river Moni There are a number of oral legends on why the temple is called Jatar Deul. The temple has a curvilinear tower similar to temple architecture of the Nagara order of Odisha temples The temple is 98 feet high and it stands at a vacant site. Jatar Deul is traditionally connected to an inscription, no longer traceable, by one Raja Jayantachandra, purported to have been issued in 975 AD. the temple had considerable architectural merit and closely resembled Siddhesvara Temple at Bahulara, near Onda in Bankura district, on plan, elevation and decorative motifs the temple is datable to the 10th or 11th century AD on the basis of its architecture. An expert on West Bengal temples says that the temple was more likely to have been built around the beginning of the 13th century based on its architectural features. Amphan, the tropical cyclone that ravaged coastal West Bengal, particularly the Sundarbans, in May 2020, had destroyed three trees at Jatar Deul, further exposing the temple to the gusty salt-laden coastal winds. Sources: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1)With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: It is a circular temple built during the reign of Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 Only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Manipurs Heimang Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Economy Manipur’s heimang By September, Bunches of creamy white flowers adorn the heimang trees (Rhus chinensis) that grow widely across Manipur and the other northeastern states. The flowers stand out against the green leaves of the deciduous tree, aptly earning them the nickname of ‘September beauty’. And by November and December, they transform into deep red cherry-like fruits with glandular velvety hair which have been used for centuries as food and medicine. The spherical fruit has a citrus-like tartness and, though tiny, it is packed with nutrients such as polyphenols, flavonoids and antioxidants. Traditional healers of Manipur, who are called the maibas or maibis, prescribe heimang for common gastro-intestinal problems like diarrhoea and dysentery. They recommend eating the water-soaked fruit for indigestion and stomach ulcer. The healers say that the fruit is also useful in the treatment of kidney diseases and urinary stones. A study, conducted in vitro (experiments involving glassware, like test tubes), states that extracts of the heimang fruit inhibits the formation of calcium oxalate crystals (which make the most common type of kidney stones) and of experimentally induced urinary stones. Other parts of the heimang tree such as its leaves (including the abnormal growths or galls on them), roots, stem and bark are also found to have preventive and therapeutic effects. Apart from diarrhoea and dysentery, compounds derived from these tissues can be used in the treatment of ailments such as rectal and intestinal cancer, diabetes mellitus, sepsis, oral diseases and inflammation, The plant has compounds that are good for the teeth as it prevents the enamel from losing minerals Compounds isolated from the stem of the heimang tree can significantly suppress HIV-1 activity in vitro, reduce post-meal increase of blood glucose, prevent high cholesterol and protect the genetic material. HIV-1 is one of the two subtypes of the human immunodeficiency virus and is more widespread. Local communities in the state also use heimang leaves to prepare a herbal shampoo called chinghi by boiling them with rice water. After cooling, the preparation is sieved using a muslin cloth and the clear liquid is used as shampoo. It can be stored for two to three days. oil produced from the fruit and seed has beneficial unsaturated fatty acids and phytochemicals and is a good ingredient to use in dietary food and nutrition supplements. In China, heimang is called yán fu mu; yán means salt in Mandarin. In ancient China, certain communities used to add the fruit to food for its salty taste. It is still used by the Hani community that lives in the Naban River Watershed National Nature Reserve. The sour taste of the fruit, attributed to the presence of organic acids such as malic acid, citric acid and ascorbic acid, makes its use versatile. It is used to flavour meats, vegetables and even desserts. Traditionally, it is mixed with jaggery to make a nutritious and digestive candy. It is also dried and powdered to be used as a flavouring. Some simply boil the fruit in water and consume the decoction as herbal tea. To ensure year-round availability of the fruit for use in tea or as souring agents, fresh heimang fruits are dried and stored. Source: DTE Ladakh Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Geography In News: A day ahead of his five-day climate fast came to a close, Ladakhi innovator Sonam Wangchuk claimed that he had been placed under house arrest at his institute and denied entry by the police to Khardung La. Ladakh Ladakh, large area of the northern and eastern Kashmir region, northwestern Indian subcontinent. Administratively, Ladakh is divided between Pakistan (northwest), as part of Gilgit-Baltistan, and India (southeast), as part of Ladakh union territory (until October 31, 2019, part of Jammu and Kashmir state); in addition, China administers portions of northeastern Ladakh. Ladakh covers about 45,000 square miles (117,000 square km) and contains the Ladakh Range, which is a southeastern extension of the Karakoram Range, and the upper Indus River valley. Ladakh is one of the highest regions of the world. Its natural features consist mainly of high plains and deep valleys. The high plain predominates in the east, diminishing gradually toward the west. In southeastern Ladakh lies Rupshu, an area of large, brackish lakes with a uniform elevation of about 13,500 feet (4,100 metres). To the northwest of Rupshu lies the Zaskar Range, an inaccessible region where the people and the cattle remain indoors for much of the year because of the cold. Zaskar is drained by the Zaskar River, which, flowing northward, joins the Indus River below Leh. In the heart of Ladakh, farther to the north, cultivation by means of manuring and irrigation is practiced by farmers living in valley villages at elevations between about 9,000 and 15,000 feet (2,750 and 4,550 metres). Leh, the most accessible town of Ladakh, is an important trade centre located 160 miles (260 km) east of Srinagar. Climate and Vegetation The climate of Ladakh is cold and dry. Average annual precipitation is roughly 3 inches (80 mm); fine, dry, flaked snow is frequent and sometimes falls heavily. Vegetation is confined to valleys and sheltered spots, where a stunted growth of tamarisk (genus Tamarix) shrubs, furze (also called gorse; spiny plants of the legume family), and other plants supply much-needed firewood. The principal products are wheat, barley, millet, buckwheat, peas, beans, and turnips. Woolen cloth and other textiles are the primary manufactures. Festivals Hemis Festival Thiksey, Karsha and Spituk Gustor Dosmochey Festival Matho Nagrang Festival Stok Guru Tsechu Festival Phyang Tsedup Festival Yuru Kabgyat Festival Losar (New Year) Celebration Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council, Leh LAHDC, Leh was constituted in accordance with the Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council Act, 1995. The Council came into being with the holding of elections on August 28,1995. The democratic constitution of the Council has heralded democratic decentralization of planning process with the involvement of people at the grass root level. Source: Indian express Prioritise trade pact with GCC Open in new window Syllabus Mains: GS 2 (International Relations) Context:  Despite the Gulf region being home to the largest Indian expatriate community with long-standing relations, its enormous economic potential remains unexplored. India is currently facing a trade deficit with Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) nations. India’s trade deficit with GCC soared from $13.4 billion in 2016-17 to $66.8 billion in 2021-22. Mutually beneficial trade pact with GCC may become the solution to India’s current deficit problem. About GCC: The Cooperation Council for the Arab States of the Gulf, known as the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), is a regional and economic union established in 1981. Members: Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates Headquarters: Riyadh, Saudi Arabia. The official language is Arabic. It aims to achieve unity among its members based on their common objectives and their similar political and cultural identities, which are rooted in Arab and Islamic cultures. Out of 32 million non-resident Indians (NRIs), nearly half are estimated to be working in GCC countries. According to World Bank, India got $87 billion in foreign remittances in 2021. A noticeable portion came from the GCC nations. India- Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) Significance of GCC: GCC provides for India’s energy security, while India ensures their food security. India and the GCC need to go beyond the traditional Free Trade Agreement (FTA) and include investments and services as a part of a comprehensive economic partnership. Under the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA), Indian merchandise got preferential market access to the UAE on over 97 % of its tariff lines accounting for 99 % of India’s exports to the UAE in value terms largely for labour-intensive exports. Early and effective implementation of CEPAs will provide a boost to India and GCC countries. The GCC pact aims to boost economic ties between the two regions. This pact can help India to balance the trade deficit with GCC countries and will provide a market for Indian exports. Economic and Commercial Relations India’s old, historical ties with the GCC States, coupled with increasing imports of oil and gas, growing trade and investment, and the presence of approximately 6.5 million Indian workers in the region, are of vital interest to India. The Gulf countries provide an excellent market potential for India’s manufactured goods and services, especially in project services exports. Around 10 million Indians live across the Gulf, sending remittances of about $45 billion annually on average, according to certain estimates. According to a World Bank report, India was the largest recipient of remittances in the world in 2021, receiving around $87 billion, approximately 50 percent of which came from the Gulf. According to India’s Ministry of Commerce showed that India’s exports to the GCC countries in 2021-22 increased to about USD 44 billion as against USD 27.8 billion in 2020-21, a growth of over 58 percent. This accounted for 10.4 percent of India’s total exports in 2021-22. On the import front, India witnessed a rise of 85.8 percent compared to 2020-21, with total imports summing up to USD 110.73 billion, accounting for 18 percent of India’s total imports. Strategic Relations: From a strategic point of view, India and GCC share the goal of political stability and security in the region. The common political and security concerns of India and GCC include cross-border terrorism in the Gulf region and South Asia. The emerging common security perceptions create further opportunities for GCC-India cooperation in the future. The GCC States are going through important changes and transformations; the process of understanding and integration is coming of age. Along with it the areas for cooperation are also widening beyond investments, trade and commerce, and sharing & development of human resources to security. India-GCC Industrial Conference: The first GCC-India Industrial Conference was held in Mumbai in February 2004, the second was held in Muscat in March 2006, the third was held in Mumbai in May 2007 and the fourth was held at King Abdullah Economic City, Jeddah in November 2015. India- GCC Free Trade Agreement: India and GCC signed a Framework Agreement for enhancing and developing economic cooperation between the two sides in New Delhi in August 2004. Two rounds of talks for finalizing aspects like tariff rules, rules of origin, etc have been held. The India-GCC FTA is under negotiation. India’s trade with other GCC countries: Saudi Arabia: At a total volume of USD 42.9 billion in 2021-22, Saudi Arabia was India’s fourth-largest trading partner. Imports from Saudi Arabia were the fourth largest at USD 34.1 billion (7%), up 50% from the previous year. Most of it was crude oil. It was India’s fifth-largest trading partner in 2021-22 at USD 34.3 billion. UAE: The UAE was India’s third-largest trading partner in 2021-2022, and the second-largest for both exports (USD 28 billion) and imports (USD 45 billion) when these are counted individually. Qatar accounts for 41% of India’s total natural gas imports. For Oman, India was the 3rd largest (after UAE and China) source for its imports and the 3rd largest market (after UAE and Saudi Arabia) for its non-oil exports in 2019. India-Qatar Start-Up Bridge: The Vice President launched the “India-Qatar Start-Up bridge” that aims to link the start-up ecosystems of the two countries. India has emerged as the 3rd largest ecosystem for startups globally, with over 70,000 registered Startups. India is home to 100 unicorns with a total valuation of over USD 300 billion. Way Forward: India needs to focus on long-term plans for economic cooperation with GCC, beyond oil, GCC countries are also revolutionizing green energy. India can promote its green hydrogen mission in cooperation with GCC countries. Other projects including renewable energy, higher education, technological innovation, smart cities, and space commerce are the areas GCC and India can diversify their cooperation. Source: The Hindu Self-reliance in defence Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Science and Technology Context: Aatmarnirbharta” (self-reliance) and “Nari Shakti” (women power) were the two themes on display at the Republic Day parade on Thursday — by many of the marching contingents as well as the different tableaux. India ranks fourth among 12 Indo-Pacific nations in self-reliant arms production capabilities, according to a study released this month by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI), a widely respected independent resource on global security. China tops the list, Japan is second, South Korea is in third place, and Pakistan is at number 8. Need for self-reliance In the last five years, India has been the world’s top arms importer with a 15 per cent global share of imports. Nearly 50 per cent of the capital acquisition budget is spent on imports. This excludes many “indigenous” items assembled by Ordnance Factories (OFs) and Defence Public Sector Units (DPSUs) where a high percentage of raw materials and sub-systems are imported. In 1995, a committee under APJ Abdul Kalam, the then scientific advisor to the defence minister, had recommended that India should improve its indigenisation content from 30 per cent to 70 per cent by 2005. Although no official data exists, the self-reliance in defence production is still estimated to be less than 35 per cent. About 90 per cent of domestic defence manufacturing is currently done in the public sector, by the 9 DPSUs and 39 OFs. Since 2001, when private participation was allowed in defence sector, 222 letters of intents and industrial licences have been issued to around 150 firms. Of these, only 46 firms have commenced production so far. Current status Globally, 80 per cent of components, aggregates and assemblies of complex weapon systems and aircraft are made by MSMEs. In India, more than 6,000 MSMEs are currently supplying components and sub-assemblies to the DPSUs, OFs, DRDO and private firms. The defence manufacturing sector currently employs more than 2 lakh people in India. This size of military industrial workforce is similar to nations like the UK and France, which are the top defence manufacturers. The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), chaired by the defence minister, has approved procurement of equipment for more than Rs 1,17,830 crore during the UPA-II regime. Another Rs 1,50,000 crore worth of approvals have been given by DAC under the NDA government. A modelling of 35 selected projects cleared by DAC, along with their likely dates of induction — from 2012 to 2023 — has been done by a foreign manufacturer. The government policy now aims to achieve 70 per cent indigenisation in defence products by 2027. This translates into an Indian defence market of Rs 87,000 crore by 2022 and Rs 1,65,000 crore by 2027. It presents a huge opportunity to the DPSUs, foreign manufacturers, Indian private players and MSMEs. Challenges Low R&D; investment Historically, India has not invested enough in the national research and development (R&D;) effort. As per data collated by the World Bank, India has been able to allocate only 0.66 per cent of GDP (2018) towards R&D;, while the world average is 2.63 per cent. The comparable individual R&D; allocation (per cent of GDP) for some other nations is as follows: Israel 5.44; USA 3.45; Japan 3.26; Germany 3.14; China 2.4; and Turkey 1.09. Low domestic competence Regrettably, India does not yet have the domestic competence to fully design and manufacture any significant combat weapon/platform and is dependent on the foreign supplier for the critical components that lie at the core of the combat index of the equipment in question. Limitation of the industry Unlike other sectors, defence industry is a monopsony in which the single buyer, the government, is also the authority laying down procurement policies. This makes active government support essential for private defence manufacturers, a fact borne out by the experience of countries — the US, Israel, Brazil and France — where private defence industry has flourished. Import dependence Thus, while it is commendable that India is now going to manufacture the C295 transport aircraft in a collaboration with AirBus, France, the reality is that the engine, avionics, landing gear, etc, will come from abroad and the integration will be done by the Indian entity. Composite combat and manufacturing capabilities have not been reviewed and honed appropriately. Thus, while India now claims that it will soon become a major arms exporter, the composition of such inventory leans towards the “soft” category (clothing, helmets, surveillance equipment). India missed the industrial design and manufacturing bus, a national competence demonstrated by nations like South Korea and China, over the last five decades. Technological advances have made the design and manufacture of the semiconductor chip the new currency of national prosperity and military power. The US and China are now locked in intense competition in this domain and India is yet to acquire a profile that would be deemed relevant. Paradoxically, Indian brain power is very visible in the global semiconductor/chip fabrication effort but more at the lower end of the food chain, often as employees of the global venture capitalists. Indigenous initiatives iDEX Launched in April 2018, iDEX aims to achieve self – reliance and foster innovation and technology development in Defence and Aerospace by engaging Industries including MSMEs, start-ups, individual innovators, R&D; institutes and academia DefExpo 2022 held in Gandhinagar, Gujarat drew attention to the need for India to acquire the appropriate degree of “aatmanirbharata” (self-reliance) in the defence sector and the arduous path ahead. Commissioning of the indigenously-designed and built aircraft carrier INS Vikrant The firing of an SLBM (submarine-launched ballistic missile) from the INS Arihant The radical decision to award the manufacture of a military transport aircraft (C 295) to a major private sector entity The conclusion of a deal with Russia to manufacture a Kalashnikov-type light weapon/small arms in India. The induction of the Hindustan Aeronautics Limited-made Light Combat Helicopter Prachand into the Indian Air Force in 2022 The indigenous 105-mm Indian Field Guns (IFG) replaced the Army’s British-era 25-pounder guns — which traditionally offered the symbolic 21-gun salute The Army’s mechanised column comprised three MBT Arjun MK-I, one Nag Missile System (NAMIS), two BMP 2/2K, three Quick Reaction Fighting Vehicles (QRFV), two K-9 Vajra Self Propelled Howitzer Guns, one Brahmos missile, two 10m Short Span Bridges, a Mobile Microwave Node and Mobile Network Centre, and two Akash missile systems. The Navy’s tableau showcased a woman air crew of Dornier aircraft (flying overhead), highlighting the all-women crew of a surveillance sortie undertaken last year The new indigenous Nilgiri class ship, a Dhruv helicopter deploying marine commandos, and three models of autonomous unmanned systems being developed under IDEX-Sprint Challenge. Women in defence As many as 108 women officers in the Army are set to be cleared for the rank of Colonel (selection grade) by January 22 by a special selection board, which will make them eligible to command units and troops in their respective arms and services for the first time. At republic day parade, Both the Navy and the IAF contingents were led by women officers – Lt Cdr Disha Amrith and Sqn Ldr Sindhu Reddy respectively. The Assam Rifles marching contingent had an equal number of men and women personnel. The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) also had an all-women contingent led by Assistant Commandant Poonam Gupta. A team of “Daredevils”, motorcycle riders from the Corps of Signals, was co-led by a woman officer. Women also occupied pride of place in many of the 23 tableaux that were part of the parade this year, including those of Kerala, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Tripura. Women riders are a part of the camel contingent of the Border Security Force (BSF) Women officers have been inducted into all branches of the Navy, and they will be eligible for permanent commission in the future. Women officers can command shore-based units and, as they join the service and become eligible for permanent commission, they would be able to command ships and air squadrons. The IAF has opened all branches for women officers, including the fighter stream and the new weapon systems branch. All major countries including the United States, United Kingdom, Russia, and Israel, allow women in command positions of their national armed forces. Way forward Even as India aspires to become a $5-trillion economy, it is evident that it faces many national security inadequacies. The high dependency index on foreign suppliers (traditionally the former USSR now Russia) for major military inventory items is stark. This dependency induces a macro national vulnerability and dilutes India’s quest for meaningful and credible strategic autonomy. meaningful indigenisation and credible “aatmanirbharta” calls for sustained funding support, fortitude and an ecosystem that will nurture this effort Source: Indian express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1)With reference to Jatar Duel situated near Sundarbans, consider the following statements: It is based on Nagara style of temple architecture. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. It is traditionally connected to an inscription by Raja Jayantachandra issued in 975 AD. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Zanskar range is situated to the South of Great Himalayan Range South of Kargil North of Nubra Valley North of Kailash range Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs (IICA): IICA was registered as a society on September 12, 2008 under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. IICA works under the aegis of the Ministry of Finance to deliver opportunities for research, education, and advocacy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 30th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 28th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – c Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; } For a dedicated peer group, Motivation & Quick updates, Join our official telegram channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccount Subscribe to our YouTube Channel HERE to watch Explainer Videos, Strategy Sessions, Toppers Talks & many more…