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IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 4th November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   GLOBAL TUBERCULOSIS REPORT  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: The World Health Organization (WHO) released its Global TB Report 2024. Background: – Globally, 82 lakh people were newly diagnosed with TB in 2023 – the highest number recorded since WHO began global TB monitoring in 1995 — making it the leading infectious killer again, surpassing Covid-19 in 2023. India continues to have the highest burden of the disease, accounting for more than a quarter of the global cases. Key takeaways TB is caused by an organism called mycobacterium tuberculosis, which mainly affects the lungs, but can also impact other parts of the body. TB spreads through the air when an infected individual coughs, sneezes, or speaks. According to the Global TB Report 2024, India saw a slight decline in the estimated number of tuberculosis cases and deaths in 2023. India had an estimated 28 lakh TB cases in 2023, accounting for 26% of the global cases. And, there were estimated 3.15 lakh TB-related deaths, accounting for 29% of the deaths globally. The report also said the gap between the estimated number of cases and the number of people actually getting diagnosed has been closing. India reported 25.2 lakh cases in 2023, increasing from 24.2 lakh the previous year. India’s effort in eliminating TB Although the elimination of tuberculosis is one of the sustainable development targets to be achieved by 2030 by the world, India has set a target for 2025. The national strategic plan 2017-2025 sets the target for India to report no more than 44 new TB cases or 65 total cases per lakh population by 2025. In India, the government offers free medicines for TB treatment, which is essential as the medicines can be expensive and the therapy may continue for as long as two years. One of the big challenges with tuberculosis treatment is the long duration for which people have to take medicines. The government has been working on devising innovative ways to ensure compliance such as pill boxes that track and remind the patient to take medicine as well as introducing shorter courses of treatment. An online Ni-kshay portal has been set up to track the notified TB cases. The government also launched a community engagement program where Ni-kshay Mitras can adopt TB patients and provide them with monthly nutritional support. Newer drugs such as Bedaquiline and Delamanid for the treatment of drug-resistant TB have been included in the government’s basket of drugs provided to free TB patients. Source: Indian Express NEPAL PM OLI PICKS CHINA FOR 1ST BILATERAL VISIT  Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: Nepal Prime Minister K P Sharma Oli is likely to undertake an official visit to China next month, his first bilateral, four months after he took over as head of the new government replacing the Left coalition government led by Pushpa Kamal Dahal (Prachanda). Background: – Oli completed 100 days in office last week and has now directed officials to update him on the progress of projects underway in Nepal by China along with Belt and Road Initiative. Key takeaways Oli’s China visit is seen as a visible break from the ‘tradition’ of the new Nepali PM undertaking his first trip to India. Oli’s visit to China is scheduled at a time when the two biggest coalition partners in the government — Nepali Congress and Oli-led Communist Party of Nepal-Unified Marxist Leninist— are at odds over the conditions of executing projects under China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI). While the Nepali Congress is firm that BRI projects should be accepted only under grants, the CPN-UML supports projects with loans from China’s Exim bank. Nepal and India have a unique relationship. The open border, shared culture, economic interdependence and deep-rooted people-to-people relationship make bilateral ties special. India is Nepal’s largest trading partner, the top-source country for tourists, the only supplier of petroleum products and the largest source of total foreign investment. India also provides transit for almost all of Nepal’s third-country trade and accounts for a significant share of inward remittances from pensioners, professionals and labourers working in India. It has always been the first responder during disasters and emergencies in Nepal. Source: Indian Express MAJOR CHALLENGES FACED BY INDIAN CITIES  Syllabus Mains – GS 2 & GS 3 Context: World Cities Day (October 31) was observed recently. Background: – The theme for this year’s World Cities Day is ‘Youth Climate Changemakers: Catalysing Local Action for Urban Sustainability’ Key takeaways India’s urbanisation trajectory differs from the cities in the Global North. In Western countries, urbanisation followed industrialisation, which created jobs that absorbed rural labour. Their urbanisation was sustained also because of massive economic transfers from colonies. Economist Utsa Patnaik has highlighted that India alone contributed over $45 trillion to England’s economy during colonial rule. In contrast, India’s urbanisation is largely driven by economic distress, resulting in “poverty-driven urbanisation,” with both rural-to-urban and urban-to-urban migration. During the COVID-19 pandemic, the strain on urban planning became apparent, as reverse migration trends highlighted gaps in infrastructure. What are urban challenges in India? The main challenges Indian cities face include inadequate spatial planning, climate change, massive migration, growing inequality and social segregation, and governance limitations. Urban planning agencies have struggled due to two main issues. First, spatial and temporal plans are outdated and fail to accommodate population growth. Since the 1980s, deindustrialisation has led to job losses in cities like Ahmedabad, Delhi, Surat, and Mumbai. Many workers displaced by this trend moved to peri-urban areas, where they live in overcrowded conditions. Currently, 40% of India’s urban population resides in slums. Second, plans often focus on capital growth rather than people’s needs, leading to a lack of local ownership and engagement in the planning process. Similarly, climate change severely impacts Indian cities. Cities face severe pollution and are increasingly subject to urban flooding and “heat island effects.” Additionally, urbanisation was once believed to be neutral regarding social and religious dynamics, but Indian cities are increasingly segregated along these lines. Inequality is widening, with exclusive developments catering to the wealthy while millions lack basic housing. For instance, DLF’s “The Dahlias” project in Gurugram offers apartments starting at ₹100 crore, a stark contrast to the two crore urban Indians without shelter. Most city jobs (around 90%) are in the informal sector. Despite the 74th Constitutional Amendment, most Indian cities remain controlled by undemocratic bodies. Though cities have elected representatives, they rarely control urban planning, which is often outsourced to parastatals and private entities. For example, less than three of the 18 functions outlined in the 12th Schedule have been universally transferred to urban governments, and cities receive a mere 0.5% of the GDP in intergovernmental transfers. Source: The Hindu ADITYA-L1 MISSION  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: The first science result from the Aditya-L1 mission, India’s first scientific mission dedicated to studying the Sun, is out. Background: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched Aditya-L1 on September 2, 2023, from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota. Key takeaways Scientists who developed Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) onboard Aditya-L1 precisely estimated the onset time of a coronal mass ejection that erupted on the Sun on July 16. VELC is the spacecraft’s primary payload. VELC was developed by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIAp), Bengaluru. The Sun is a very active object and often spews vast quantities of plasma in violent eruptions called coronal mass ejections (CMEs). Observation of the CMEs as they originate on the Sun and understanding their plasma characteristics is one of the major science goals for VELC. About Aditya L1 Aditya-L1 is India’s first space mission dedicated to studying the Sun. Type: It is a solar observatory mission that will orbit around the Lagrange Point 1 (L1), located approximately 1.5 million kilometers from Earth, between Earth and the Sun. Primary Goals: Study the Sun’s outermost layers, including the photosphere, chromosphere, and corona. Observe solar phenomena like solar flares, coronal mass ejections (CMEs), and solar wind to understand their impact on Earth’s space environment. Payloads: Aditya-L1 carries seven payloads, including: Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC): For studying the solar corona. Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT): Observes the photosphere and chromosphere. Plasma Analyser Package for Aditya (PAPA) and Aditya Solar Wind Particle Experiment (ASPEX): Study solar winds and particle emissions. Significance of L1 Point Constant Solar Observation: The L1 point is about 1.5 million kilometers from Earth  in the direction of the Sun. It allows for continuous, uninterrupted observation of the Sun without the interference of Earth’s shadow. Stable Orbit: The L1 point is a position in space where the gravitational forces of the Earth and the Sun balance each other. This enables the spacecraft to remain in a  stable orbit with minimal fuel consumption for station-keeping. Source: The Hindu SOCIOECONOMIC DETERMINANTS OF RURAL POVERTY  Syllabus Mains – GS 1, GS 2 & GS 3 Context: With over 80 per cent of the world’s poor living in Sub-Saharan Africa and South Asia, India is among the countries with the largest number of the world’s poor, found the 2024 Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) report. Background: – The report also stated that almost 84 per cent of the world’s poor live in rural areas and they are poorer than their counterparts in the urban areas. In the case of India, rural poverty has been a persistent issue for policymakers. Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) The MPI, developed by Sabina Alkire and James Foster and adopted by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in 2010, measures deprivation across health, education, and standard of living, and not monetary poverty. National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) in collaboration with the UNDP and Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI), developed a National Multidimensional Poverty Index to monitor multidimensional poverty at national, state, and district levels in the country. In January this year, NITI Aayog released a discussion paper titled Multidimensional Poverty in India since 2005-06 which claims that the country has seen a significant decline in multidimensional poverty from 29.17 per cent in 2013-14 to 11.28 per cent in 2022-23. The discussion paper sends a positive message that India is on its way to achieve Sustainable Development Goal 1.2 of “halving multidimensional poverty by 2030”. The paper also notes rural India has seen a larger decline in multidimensional poverty. Between 2015-16 and 2019-21, poverty in rural India decreased from 32.59 per cent to 19.28 per cent, while urban poverty fell from 8.65 per cent to 5.27 per cent. Rural poverty: Disparities and deprivations Rural poverty, which refers to poverty in rural areas, is characterised by factors including poor living conditions, heavy reliance on agriculture, landlessness and limited access to basic services. In addition, the rural poor are often affected by social constraints stemming from caste, gender, and ethnicity, which can limit social mobility and access to opportunities. For instance, the 2018 National Sample Survey (NSS) on education highlighted significant disparities, with rural literacy at 73.5 per cent compared to 87.7 per cent in urban areas. Also, the 76th round of the NSS underlined notable differences in access to basic services. About 29 per cent of rural households lack access to toilets, in contrast to nearly 4 per cent in urban areas; and more than 40 per cent of rural households do not have drinking water facilities within the home, compared to 20 per cent in urban areas. Around 65 per cent of India’s population lives in rural areas, but a disproportionately high percentage – about 90 per cent – of the nation’s poor reside in rural areas. The Periodic Labour Force Survey data shows that around 59 per cent of the rural workers are engaged in agriculture and allied activities. Among agricultural workers, there is a disparity in the incidence of poverty based on whether a worker is a cultivator or a casual wage worker. The incidence of poverty is much higher among agricultural labourers than cultivators. Among the rural non-agricultural workers, the type of non-agricultural work is important. Self-employment in non-farm work or precarious and casual non-farm work like in construction may not lead to poverty reduction. Another way of understanding rural poverty is by looking at access to land and land ownership. Data reveals that the small (1-2 hectares of land) and marginal (less than 1 hectare) farming households are the most affected and poor groups. India is also the only country in South Asia where poverty is significantly higher among female-headed households as compared to male-headed households. Around 19.7 per cent of female-headed households are poor in India while 15.9 per cent of male-headed households are poor. Hence, along with regional factors, gender, caste, and religion are also important determinants in understanding poverty in India. For instance, studies have found that both Scheduled Tribes and Scheduled Castes in India contribute more to multidimensional poverty than their population share. While rural poverty has been a persistent issue for Indian policymakers, the country has also seen significant rural-urban migration. As of 2020-21, about one-third of India’s total population is migrants. Migrants form 34.6% of the total population in urban areas. This has led to growing debates on “urbanisation of poverty”. Source: Indian Express COASTAL FLOODING  Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: A study paper, published in the journal Frontiers in Forests and Global Change has reported that a rising sea and coastal flooding could actually enhance the resilience of some coastal tree species while being detrimental to others. Background: – Global warming is raising sea levels and making flooding more common in some areas. Researchers have held both these effects among others responsible for discouraging the growth of plants of many tree species in coastal areas. But the new study has called for a pause in this thinking. Coastal Flooding: It is a sudden and abrupt inundation of a coastal environment caused by a short-term increase in water level due to a storm surge and extreme tides. The magnitude and extension depend on the coastal topography, storm surge conditions, and broader bathymetry of the coastal area. Causes of Coastal Flooding: Rising sea levels due to global warming increase the frequency and intensity of coastal flooding. As per the UN’s Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change, 2014, there is a high degree of certainty that sea levels will rise by between 28 – 98cm by 2100, with the most likely rise being 55cm by 2100. Storm surges are short-term changes in sea levels caused by events such as tsunamis and cyclones one of the leading causes for coastal flooding. Cyclones, storms, and tsunamis can exacerbate coastal flooding, leading to severe damage and loss of life and property. Construction of infrastructure, such as ports and resorts, in coastal areas can increase vulnerability to flooding. The combination of rising seas and more powerful storms accelerates erosion, causing the loss of beaches and wetlands that act as natural buffers. Deforestation and erosion of coastal ecosystems can weaken natural barriers against flooding. Impacts of Coastal Flooding: It results in significant loss of life and property damage, particularly in densely populated areas. Infrastructures like roads, bridges, etc. can be severely damaged leading to disruption of essential services. Industries such as tourism, fisheries, and agriculture suffer due to flooding, with coastal regions facing direct losses from halted operations, reduced productivity, and damaged assets. Persistent flooding can force communities to relocate leading to internal migration straining urban infrastructure and potential social conflicts in destination areas. Coastal ecosystems, such as mangroves and coral reefs, can be severely impacted by flooding, leading to a loss of biodiversity. Government Initiatives for Coastal Management: MISHTI Initiative is a government-led initiative aimed at increasing the mangrove cover along the coastline and on saltpan lands. The National Centre for Sustainable Coastal Management aims to promote integrated and sustainable management of the coastal and marine areas in India for the benefit and well-being of the traditional coastal and island communities. Integrated Coastal Zone Management Plan is a process for the management of the coast using an integrated approach, regarding all aspects of the coastal zone, including geographical and political boundaries, in an attempt to achieve sustainability. The Coastal Regulation Zone notification was issued in 1991 under the Environmental Protection Act of 1986, by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to regulate activities in coastal areas of India. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Aditya-L1 mission? Aditya-L1 is India’s first mission dedicated to the study of the Sun. The Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC), the mission’s primary payload, is designed to study the L1 Lagrange point. Aditya-L1 aims to provide continuous observations of solar phenomena, including solar flares, coronal mass ejections (CMEs), and solar wind. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q2.) Consider the following statements: India accounts for more than one-quarter of the global TB cases according to Global Tuberculosis (TB) Report 2024 India has set a target to eliminate TB by 2025, ahead of the global target of 2030. TB is caused by an organism called mycobacterium tuberculosis, which mainly affects the lungs, but can also impact other parts of the body. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q3.) World Cities Day is observed on (a) 30th October (b) 31st October (c) 2nd November (d) 1 st November Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  4th November 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  2nd November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  b Q.2) – a Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 4th November 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   AYUSHMAN BHARAT PRADHAN MANTRI JAN AROGYA YOJANA (AB - PMJAY)  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: On October 29 (Ayurveda Day), Prime Minister Modi launched Ayushman Vaya Vandana health cards under the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY) to provide health coverage to people aged 70 years and above, regardless of their income and economic status. Background: – Everyone age 70 or more will be entitled to a cover of Rs 5 lakh annually, shared within the family. This means if there are two elderly beneficiaries in the household, the cover will be split among them. Ayushman Bharat Yojana The Ayushman Bharat Yojana, also known as the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY), is a health insurance scheme launched by the Government of India in 2018. Its primary aim is to provide comprehensive health coverage of up to ₹5 lakh per family per year. It connects the public and private health sectors into a one-nation, one-system. PMJAY is for inpatient secondary and tertiary care. The program goes even further by covering pre and post-hospitalization expenses, ensuring a more comprehensive healthcare experience. Outpatient services are not a part of the scheme. The scheme targets families identified through the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) data. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme and states will have to contribute 40% to the cost of the scheme. Extension of AB-PMJAY to elderly Elderly members (age 70 and more) of families that are already covered by their economic status will get a top-up cover of Rs 5 lakh — to be used only for the elderly. Those who are already covered under other government health schemes like the Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS), Ex-Servicemen Contributory Health Scheme, etc will have the option of choosing either Ayushman Bharat or continuing with their existing coverage. People who are covered under the Employees State Insurance Corporation (ESIC), however, will be eligible to have both their existing cover and Ayushman Bharat. This is because premiums for ESIC are paid by the insured and their employer, not the government. Significance of extending AB-PMJAY to senior citizens: With increasing lifespans and an increasing number of people ageing in the next three decades, a fifth of India is likely to be over the age of 70 by 2050. There is a need for far-reaching changes in welfare policies to tackle this demographic transition. Older Indians are much more likely to be hospitalised and to stay in hospitals for longer. According to the India Ageing Report 2023, the elderly remain largely uncovered by any health scheme. Just over 20% of India’s population above the age of 60 is currently covered by any government schemes. Women make up the larger share of the elderly population — a survey by NITI Aayog found that 58% of the elderly are women, and 54% among them are widows. It is significant for a country where out-of-pocket expenditure (OOPE) on health is often a reason for crushing poverty. A Niti Aayog position paper, released in January, recognised that with families becoming increasingly nuclear, ease of access and quality of care will be crucial determinants in the health-seeking behaviour of senior citizens. Source: Indian Express DANA, THE WEATHER PATTERN THAT CAUSED FLASH FLOODS IN SPAIN  Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: Millions have been affected in Spain due to torrential rain. Flash floods caused by the immense deluge have led to the death of at least 64 people in the eastern Spanish region of Valencia. Background: – The primary cause of the intense rain is likely an annual weather phenomenon known as a “gota fría,” or cold drop. It is also sometimes called a “DANA,” the acronym for “depresión aislada en niveles altos,” or isolated depression at high altitudes. Key takeaways DANA or cold drop takes place when cold air descends over the warm waters of the Mediterranean Sea. This results in atmospheric instability, causing hotter, moist air on the surface of the sea to rise quickly, leading to the formation of dense, towering cumulonimbus clouds in a matter of hours. These clouds then dump heavy rain in parts of Spain. The weather pattern’s occurrence is related to the polar jet stream — a fast-moving wind current at high levels of the troposphere (the lowest layer of Earth’s atmosphere) which circulates from west to east and separates the cold polar air from the warm tropical air. Often, a pocket of cold air gets separated from the polar jet stream and collides with the warmer air over the Mediterranean Sea, which results in DANA. The phenomenon is a common occurrence in Spain and usually coincides with the onset of autumn and spring in the western Mediterranean. Source: Indian Express LiDAR  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Scientists have detected a lost Mayan city, hidden for centuries by the dense Mexican jungle, using LiDAR. Background: – In recent years, LiDAR has also shown potential as a tool of archaeological discovery. LiDAR allows researchers to study much larger swathes of land quickly in the comfort of a home or lab. What is LiDAR? LiDAR, or Light Detection and Ranging, is a  remote sensing technology that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure ranges (or variable distances) to Earth. These light pulses—combined with other data recorded by the airborne system — generate precise, three-dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and its surface characteristics. Two types of lidar are topographic and bathymetric. Topographic lidar typically uses a near-infrared laser to map the land, while bathymetric lidar uses water-penetrating green light to also measure seafloor and riverbed elevations. How does LiDAR work? LiDAR instrumentation comprises a laser, a scanner, and a GPS receiver. Airplanes and helicopters are the most commonly used platforms for acquiring lidar data over broad areas. The rapidly firing laser travels to the ground where it hits vegetation, building, and various topographic features. This light is reflected or scattered, and recorded by the LiDAR sensor. The system calculates the light pulses’ two-way travel time to arrive at the distance between the terrain and the sensor. It processes this information with Global Positioning System (GPS) and Inertial Measurement System (IMS) data, to create an elevation map of Earth. LiDAR data is initially collected as a “point cloud” of all individual points reflected from everything on the surface, including structures and vegetation. But the specifics of how much light energy was returned to the sensor allows further identification of different features, such as vegetation, buildings, etc. For example, tree canopies, however dense they may be, allow some light to pass through and hit the ground. The LiDAR data can be further refined to produce what scientists call a “bare earth” Digital Elevation Model, in which structures and vegetation are stripped away. Source: Indian Express ZEROING IN ON METHANE DIPLOMACY  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: From November 11 to 22, leaders will gather in Baku, Azerbaijan, for the 29th Conference of Parties (COP29) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). The host, Azerbaijan, has put forward an action agenda, which includes pledges to increase battery storage capacity six-fold, dramatically expand electricity networks, and cut methane emissions from organic waste. Background: The Baku meet is an opportunity for India to fast-track its efforts in reducing methane emissions. Key takeaways Methane’s Climate Impact: Methane accounts for approximately 30% of global warming since the pre-industrial era. Global Warming Potential: Methane is 28 times more potent than CO₂ on a 100-year timescale and 84 times more potent on a 20-year timescale, making methane reduction critical for immediate climate impact. Methane’s detrimental effects go beyond its impact on climate change. Fires at waste dumpsites, for example, can cause significant spikes in air pollution. In 2022, a two-week fire at Delhi’s Bhalswa dumpsite led to particulate matter concentrations reaching 30% to 70% above baseline levels. International Cooperation: The U.S. and China, despite geopolitical tensions, have prioritized methane mitigation as a shared concern. At COP28, held in Dubai (November-December 2023), the U.S., China, and UAE sponsored a summit focusing on methane and non-CO₂ emissions. China released its first national plan on methane emissions, focusing on capacity building without setting specific reduction targets. India’s Methane Emissions: India ranks as the third-largest emitter of anthropogenic methane globally, following China and the U.S. The 2016 Biennial Update Report to the UNFCCC estimates India’s methane emissions at 409 million tons of CO₂-equivalent, with contributions from: Agriculture (74%), Waste (14%), Energy (11%), Industrial processes (1%). Challenges for India: India’s agriculture sector, specifically rice cultivation and livestock, is the dominant source of methane emissions, making sector-wide reductions challenging. Hesitation in signing the Global Methane Pledge (targeting a 30% reduction in emissions from 2020 levels by 2030) due to agriculture’s central role in India’s economy. Technical Challenges in Data Collection: Emissions data in India, especially for methane from waste, face challenges in quality and accuracy. Satellite monitoring in cities like Delhi and Mumbai has shown that actual emissions could be 50-100% higher than estimates. Opportunities for India: India can leverage international efforts to secure sector-specific financing and capacity-building support, especially in waste management. Domestic Initiatives in Waste Management: Indore Model: Implements citywide organic waste sorting and a biomethane plant that fuels city buses. GOBARdhan Scheme: Incentivizes the use of cattle waste to produce clean energy, especially in rural areas. Agricultural Sector Initiatives: National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA): Promotes climate-resilient practices, including methane reduction techniques in rice cultivation. National Livestock Mission: Implements methane-mitigation practices, such as green fodder production and chaff cutting, to reduce emissions from livestock. Source: The Hindu AI PLUS AND MINUS  Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: In what has been proclaimed as a “super election year”, with 72 countries going to polls worldwide, the potential impact of AI (artificial intelligence) on democracy is a major concern. Background: – Given the rapid rise of deepfakes and AI-driven misinformation, robust and enforceable regulations are needed to ensure the safe integration of AI in electoral processes and protect democratic integrity. Key takeaways Benefits of AI in Electoral Processes: Efficiency in Administrative Processes: AI can streamline tasks like voter registration, ballot processing, and logistics, reducing errors and saving time. Fraud Detection: AI algorithms can identify patterns and anomalies, detecting potential electoral fraud, which can reinforce electoral integrity. Combating Disinformation: AI can identify and flag misleading content on social media, helping reduce the spread of false information. Enhanced Voter Engagement: Chatbots and AI tools can provide real-time information on registration, polling locations, and voting procedures, making elections more accessible and inclusive. Challenges Posed by AI in Elections: Algorithmic Bias: AI systems trained on biased data can replicate and worsen existing biases, risking disenfranchisement of vulnerable communities. Privacy Risks: AI requires access to vast personal data, creating risks around data misuse, political manipulation, and identity theft. Lack of Transparency: Complex AI algorithms often function as “black boxes,” making it difficult to understand decision-making processes, impacting accountability and trust. AI-Driven Disinformation: AI can generate sophisticated fake news and deepfakes, which can manipulate public opinion and spread misinformation. Global and Regional Efforts for AI Regulation: United Nations: The UN adopted a resolution in March 2024, backed by over 120 nations, calling for “safe, secure, and trustworthy” AI systems. European Union: The EU’s Artificial Intelligence (AI) Act, set for implementation in 2026, focuses on balancing innovation with accountability. Act complements the EU’s broader regulatory agenda, including the Code of Practice on Disinformation, which mandates political ad monitoring, and the Digital Services Act. AI Regulation in India: While the Information Technology Act, 2000, governs online platforms, the Election Commission of India (ECI) oversees communications during elections. Since India currently lacks AI-specific legislation, the rise of deepfakes has heightened demands for regulation. Reports from July 2024 suggest the Ministry of Electronics and IT is drafting AI-specific legislation, which may include requirements for labeling AI-generated content to enhance transparency. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Which of the following statements about Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY) is/are correct? AB-PMJAY provides comprehensive health insurance coverage of up to Rs 5 lakh per family per year, covering both inpatient and outpatient services. The scheme covers families identified through the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) data. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q2.) The weather pattern known as DANA, which causes flash floods in Spain, occurs due to which of the following atmospheric conditions? (a) Interaction between polar air descending and warm, moist air over the Mediterranean Sea, causing rapid cloud formation (b) Sudden drop in ocean temperatures near the equator, leading to cyclonic activity in the Mediterranean region (c) High atmospheric pressure over the Atlantic Ocean, causing cold air to condense over the Iberian Peninsula (d) Presence of the Indian Ocean Dipole, resulting in abnormal rainfall across Europe   Q3.) Which of the following best describes the principle on which LiDAR technology operates? (a) Emission of radio waves to measure distance and density of various surface objects (b) Use of X-rays to map sub-surface geological features (c) Transmission of pulsed laser light to measure distances and map the Earth’s surface in high detail (d) Detection of ultraviolet light to study atmospheric composition Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  2nd November 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  1st November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  a Q.2) – a Q.3) – a

IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 1st November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   GREEN FIRECRACKERS  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ENVIRONMENT Context: Delhi earned the tag of the world’s most polluted city on Friday after firecrackers were burst on the occasion of Diwali on Thursday despite a blanket ban in the national capital. Background: – At 6 am on Friday, the Air Quality Index (AQI) was recorded at 359, which falls in ‘very poor’ category, according to CPCB. Key takeaways Green crackers are eco-friendly fireworks developed as a solution to the air and noise pollution caused by traditional firecrackers. They are designed to emit fewer pollutants and are developed with an emphasis on reducing the harmful effects of conventional crackers. Both green crackers and traditional crackers cause pollution. However, the difference is that green crackers cause 30 per cent less air pollution as compared to traditional ones. Green crackers do not contain harmful chemicals like arsenic, lithium, or barium, which are found in conventional firecrackers and are responsible for high emissions of sulfur oxides, nitrogen oxides, and particulate matter. Use of alternative chemicals and a reduced level of aluminum, which cuts down on the emission of particulate matter (PM). The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CISR) has developed ‘green firecrackers’ to combat pollution. According to the CSIR-National Environmental Engineering Research Institute, green crackers must have a reduction in the size of the shell, elimination of ash usage, reduced usage of raw materials in the composition, and/or use of additives as dust suppressants to reduce particulate matter, SO2, and NO2 emissions. These ‘green firecrackers’ have types like SWAS (safe water releaser), SAFAL (safe minimal aluminium), and STAR (safe thermite cracker). SWAS is a safe water releaser, which suppresses the dust released by releasing water vapour in the air. It does not comprise potassium nitrate and sulphur and the particulate dust released will reduce approximately by 30 per cent. SAFAL is safe minimal aluminium which has minimum usage of aluminium, and used magnesium instead. It ensures a reduction in sound in comparison to traditional crackers. STAR is a safe thermite cracker, which does not comprise potassium nitrate and sulphur, and emits reduced particulate matter disposal and reduced sound intensity. Source: Indian Express DIGITAL ARREST  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: indians lost Rs 120.30 crore in “digital arrest” frauds in the first quarter of this year alone, government cybercrime data shows. Background: – According to the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), which monitors cybercrime at the central level through the Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C), digital arrests have of late become a prevalent method of digital fraud. Key takeaways Digital arrests refer to a type of cybercrime where scammers impersonate law  enforcement officials to extort money from victims by threatening them with  arrest. How the Scam Works Initial Contact: Scammers contact victims via phone calls, text messages, or socialmedia, posing as officials from agencies like the police, Central Bureau of  Investigation (CBI), or the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). False Accusations: Victims are falsely accused of crimes such as money  laundering, tax evasion, or cybercrime. Intimidation: Scammers use threats of arrest or legal action to instill fear in their victims. Video Call Impersonation: Scammers may arrange a video call, impersonating  officials and using official-looking backgrounds to appear legitimate. Demand for Payment: Victims are pressured to pay a fine or bribe to avoid arrest or legal consequences. Data Theft: Scammers may also attempt to steal personal information, such as  bank account details or passwords. Many of those carrying out these frauds are based in three contiguous southeast Asian countries: Myanmar, Laos and Cambodia. According to I4C, there are four types of scams which are on the rise— digital arrest, trading scam, investment scam (task based) and romance/dating scam. Source: Indian Express THE BURGEONING EXPENDITURE OF ELECTIONS  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: According to the Centre for Media Studies (CMS), the total expenditure by various political parties for the general election to Lok Sabha this year was around ₹1,00,000 crores. Background: – Urgent reforms are needed to address the burgeoning cost of election expenditures which threaten foundational principles of democracy. Key takeaways What are the limits in India? The election expenditure limit for candidates is ₹95 lakh per Lok Sabha constituency in larger States and ₹75 lakh in smaller States. With respect to Legislative Assemblies, they are ₹40 lakh and ₹28 lakh for larger and smaller States respectively. These limits are set, from time to time, by the Election Commission (EC). There are no limits on the expenditure of political parties during elections. What are international standards? In the U.S., the financing for elections happens primarily by contributions from individuals, corporations, and political action committees (PAC). Out of the estimated expenditure in the November 2024 election cycle, around $5.5 billion is estimated to be spent on the presidential election. This humungous raise is due to large donations. In the U.K., a political party is allowed to spend £54,010 for each constituency they contest. There are also limits placed on candidates’ spending during the campaign. It translates, per constituency, to an average of £46-49,000 during the long campaign period (beginning five months before the full term of the House of Commons ends) and £17-20,000 during the short campaign period after elections are announced. What are the challenges? Elections across democracies have become expensive. Such increased expenditure that is met primarily through large donations creates an unholy nexus between the elected representatives and donors. This also acts as an entry barrier into electoral politics for many well-meaning citizens. In India, candidates from all major political parties breach the election expenditure limits. Further, there are no limits on political party spending during elections. The official expenditures declared by the BJP and Congress for the 2019 election were ₹1,264 crores and ₹820 crores, respectively. However, according to a report by the CMS, ₹50,000 crore was spent by various parties during the 2019 election. The CMS has estimated that spending during the 2024 election by various political parties was close to ₹1,00,000 crores. Such inflated election expenditure fuels corruption, resulting in a vicious cycle. What can be possible reforms? The Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998) and the Law Commission report (1999) have advocated for State funding of elections. Simultaneous elections are touted as a panacea for addressing the issue of rising expenditures. However, there are challenges on account of principles of federalism and constitutional amendments to this idea. It must be noted that this mechanism may rein in campaign and publicity expenditure to some extent. However, without curbing the illegal distribution of cash to voters, any form of simultaneous election will not have a significant impact on election expenditure. Certain practical steps to create a level playing field regarding election expenditure can be implemented. These are based on the EC’s 2016 report on ‘Proposed Electoral Reforms’. Firstly, the law must be amended to explicitly provide that ‘financial assistance’ by a political party to its candidate should also be within the candidate’s prescribed election expenditure limits. Secondly, there should be a ceiling on political party expenditures. This may be kept at not more than the expenditure ceiling limit provided for a candidate multiplied by the number of candidates of the party contesting the election. Finally, additional judges may be appointed in High Courts for the speedy disposal of election-related cases, which would act as a deterrent against violating these norms. Source: The Hindu MELANISTIC TIGERS  Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: A tigress from the Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve, Maharashtra, was sent to the Similipal Tiger Reserve so as to diversify the genetic pool of the tiger population in Odisha. Background: It is part of a plan by the Odisha government to tackle inbreeding in the tiger population that has resulted in increasing numbers of the once elusive black tigers or pseudo-melanistic tigers. Key takeaways What are pseudo-melanistic tigers? As far as appearances go, pseudo-melanistic (pseudo: false; melanistic: dark coloured) tigers appear to have a black coat with white and orange stripes occasionally peaking through. The most recent sighting of the black tiger was in 2017-18 in the Similipal Tiger Reserve. How do the tigers get their colours? The pseudo-melanistic tiger is a colour variant of the Bengal tiger. Its strange coat is a result of a mutation in a particular gene. A comparison between tiger populations showed that apart from the Similipal population, the mutation of the gene is extremely rare. The only other black tigers that have been found beyond the Similipal population are in captivity—Nandankanan Zoological Park at Bhubaneswar and Arignar Anna Zoological Park at Chennai—whose ancestry could be traced back to the Similipal population. The prevalence of this particular mutation is abnormally high in the Similipal Tiger Reserve population. Why are the mutations more common in Similipal? A majority of the tigers found in Odisha are in the Similipal Tiger Reserve. The All Odisha Tiger Estimation (AOTE-2023-24) says a total of 30 tigers were found in Odisha’s forests of which 27 of them are in Similipal. Of these 27, atleast 13 adult tigers were found to be pseudo-melanistic. No other wild habitat in the world has pseudo-melanistic tigers. To find out why the concentration of pseudo-melanistic tigers is so high, researchers dug further. The Similipal tiger population is cut off from the other populations by a great distance and has been isolated for an extended period of time. This has led to inbreeding in an already small founding population leading to higher chances of the mutated gene being passed down. The study also attributed the phenomenon of genetic drift which suggests that a mutation may appear in high frequency or die out all together depending on pure chance. Source: The Hindu GLOBAL VALUE CHAINS (GVCS)  Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: Proposed U.S. rules on Chinese-connected car tech and Israel’s pager attacks indicate the changing focus of global supply chains — from resilience to security. Background: – While the COVID-19 pandemic shifted the focus from efficiency (just in time) to resilience (just in case), developments in September 2024 indicate that another shift is underway in how supply chains are envisioned and operationalised — this time towards security (just to be secure). Global Value Chains (GVCs): It consists of intricate production networks that are fragmented across multiple firms and countries for cost optimization and to achieve production efficiency. Countries can participate in GVCs by engaging in either backward or forward linkages. Significance/Benefits of GVCs: GVCs can increase economic growth, especially in developing countries, by attracting foreign direct investment (FDI), creating jobs, and enhancing exports. It also makes them part of the global economy. GVCs can boost inclusive and sustainable growth by streamlining economic systems. GVCs create a path for countries and firms to focus on their strengths and specialize in specific stages of production, leading to cost savings and increased efficiency. GVCs help countries create specialized industries for specific stages of the value chain. GVCs provide access to global markets which in turn enables firms to reach a wider customer base. Countries participating in GVCs can benefit from technology transfer, as they engage with more technologically advanced partners. Issues/Concerns/Challenges related to GVCs: GVCs may widen economic gaps between countries since the gains from GVC participation are not distributed equally across and within countries. GVC participation increases the domestic economy’s exposure—albeit not necessarily its ability to cope with—external shocks. GVCs create strong links in price formation, implying that inflation in one country is more likely to spill over to its direct and indirect trading partners. MSMEs across the world, especially in developing countries, face significant impediments with the entry of global firms and the associated competition in local markets. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Which of the following statements about Green Crackers is/are correct? Green Crackers emit significantly less pollution compared to conventional crackers by using a lesser amount of polluting chemicals. Green firecrackers have types like SWAS (safe water releaser), SAFAL (safe minimal aluminium), and STAR (safe thermite cracker). Green Crackers are certified by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) for environmental safety. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) Consider the following statements regarding “Digital Arrest” scams: These scams involve impersonation of law enforcement officials to extort money by threatening victims with arrest. Scammers contact victims exclusively through video calls and use official-looking backgrounds to appear legitimate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) With reference to pseudo-melanistic tigers, consider the following statements: Pseudo-melanistic tigers are a genetic variant of Bengal tigers and are characterized by darker stripes that make them appear black. This mutation is common in all major tiger reserves in India. Genetic drift and inbreeding are possible reasons for the high prevalence of pseudo-melanistic tigers in Similipal Tiger Reserve. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  1st November 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  31st October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  c Q.2) – a Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 1st November 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 31st October 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   REMEMBERING THE ‘IRON MAN OF INDIA’  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: National Unity Day is celebrated in India on 31st October. It was introduced by the Government of India in 2014. The day is celebrated to mark the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. Background: – Vallabhbhai Jhaverbhai Patel, famously known as Sardar Patel was the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home minister of India. Patel was a leader of the Indian National Congress and played a significant role in India’s struggle for freedom. Key takeaways Early Life and Role in the Freedom Movement Born on October 31, 1875, in Nadiad, Gujarat, Patel initially pursued a career in law. Inspired by Gandhi, he joined the independence movement. Notably, his leadership in the Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928, where farmers protested against increased taxes, earned him the title “Sardar” (leader). Sardar Patel’s contribution to uniting India As the first Home Minister of independent India, Sardar Patel played a crucial role in unifying and shaping the nation. At the time of independence, the British presented the challenge of declaring the Indian princely states as independent under the Indian Independence Act of 1947. The issue of the princely states was complex and challenging to resolve. When the British announced their departure, many princes believed it was the perfect moment to declare their independence. Additionally, there were others who found themselves in a struggle between India and Pakistan. However, through his diplomatic efforts, Patel secured the accession of the princely states, aligning these regions with the nation’s constitutional framework. Patel adopted various approaches based on the situation; he offered friendly advice in some cases, persuaded rulers to see reason in others, and even used force in the case of Hyderabad. He was valued for his political astuteness and pragmatic skills, which were essential in bringing together the more than 500 royal territories into the fold of the Indian union. Sardar Patel’s contribution to administration Along with the monumental task of unifying India, the Iron Man of India, Patel also played a crucial role in reinforcing the steel frame of India — the All India Services. He was instrumental in the establishment of the modern all-India services system. For this he is remembered as the “patron saint of India’s civil servants”. Sardar Patel’s Contribution to Constitution As the chairman of the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities, and Tribal and Excluded Areas of the Constituent Assembly, Patel played a key role in shaping important sections of the Constitution concerning fundamental and minority rights. Source: Indian Express ‘PINK TICKET’ REPORT  Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: A recent report on the free public bus transport for women in Delhi shows a positive picture. Background: – Titled ‘Riding The Justice Route’, the report was released by Greenpeace India on Tuesday, the fifth anniversary of the Delhi government’s ‘pink ticket’ policy that made commuting on public buses free for women, after surveying the participants and assessing the impact of the scheme on their lives. Key takeaways As per the report, one in four women have started using buses after travel was made fare-free. After the scheme’s introduction, 23 per cent of women have started using buses at least four times a week, and 15 per cent of women, who rarely or never used buses before the scheme, now use them regularly. When it comes to challenges faced by women, the survey says that a little less than 50 per cent of women bus users feel “mostly safe” while travelling to the bus stop, waiting there, and riding a bus. The survey also suggests that 77 per cent of women feel unsafe while travelling by bus after 5 pm and two in three women find the lighting at the bus stop inadequate. Frequency also remains a challenge as 87 per cent of the women reported waiting more than 10 minutes, while a good 13 per cent waited more than 30 minutes for the bus. The impact of the scheme on the perception of women towards public transport across income groups is noteworthy. After the ‘pink ticket’ was introduced, 88 per cent of women surveyed perceived the scheme as impactful in promoting bus use among women. Source: Indian Express UNITED NATIONS RELIEF AND WORKS AGENCY FOR PALESTINE REFUGEES IN THE NEAR EAST (UNRWA)  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT AFFAIRS Context: Israel’s parliament passed two Bills to ban the United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees In The Near East (UNRWA) from operating in Israel and the Palestinian territories. The Knesset also voted to designate UNRWA a terrorist organisation, cutting all ties with the agency. Background: – The UNRWA was established in 1949 to provide aid to Palestinians who were forced to leave their homes during the 1948 Arab-Israeli war. Israel has argued that the UNRWA’s role is obsolete, and its work is an impediment to a peace settlement. However, critics have blamed Israel’s own actions, such as not meaningfully recognising the foundation of a Palestinian state, as having perpetuated the longstanding conflict. Key takeaways What is the UNRWA, and what role does it play? UNRWA is mandated by the UN General Assembly to serve ‘Palestine refugees’. This term was defined in 1952 as any person whose “normal place of residence was Palestine during the period 1 June 1946 to 15 May 1948 and who lost both home and means of livelihood as a result of the 1948 conflict. Palestine refugees are persons who fulfil the above definition and descendants of fathers fulfilling the definition. In addition, the UN Assembly has also mandated UNRWA to offer services to certain other persons who require humanitarian assistance, on an emergency basis as and when required, in UNRWA fields of operations. Notably, the Assembly has mandated the Agency to provide services to persons in the region who are currently displaced and in serious need of continued assistance as a result of the 1967 and subsequent hostilities. These persons are not registered as Palestine refugees. Only the UN General Assembly can change the mandate of UNRWA, the definition of a Palestine refugee and whom the Agency is mandated to serve. UNRWA began operations on May 1, 1950. It operates in Gaza and the Israeli-occupied West Bank, as well as in Lebanon, Syria, and Jordan — where Palestinian refugees took shelter after their expulsion. An estimated 5.9 million Palestinian refugees — most of whom are descendants of the original refugees — currently access the UNRWA’s services. The UN agency is funded mostly by voluntary contributions from donor states such as the United States, Germany, the European Union, etc. It also gets a limited subsidy from the UN, which is used only for administrative costs. UNRWA employs some 30,000 Palestinians. More than 200 of its staff members have been killed in Israeli attacks over the past year. So why has Israel acted against the UNRWA? Israel has also accused some of UNRWA’s 13,000 employees in Gaza of participating in the October 7, 2023 attacks on Israel by Hamas. Although UNRWA fired nine employees after an investigation, it has denied that it aids armed groups on purpose — the agency has been sharing the list of its employees with Israel for a long time. What are the two Bills that Israel has passed? One of the Bills bars UNRWA from operating any representative office, providing any service, or conducting any activity, directly or indirectly, in Israel’s sovereign territory. The second Bill cuts all ties between government employees and UNRWA, and takes away the legal immunities of the agency’s staff. Together, the Bills are likely to stop UNRWA from operating in Gaza and the West Bank as Israel controls access to both these Palestinian territories. They could also force the agency to relocate its headquarters from East Jerusalem. What can be the impact of these measures? Since the beginning of the war, almost all of Gaza’s 2 million people have been reliant on UNRWA for basic necessities, including food, water, and hygiene supplies. Along with the Palestinian Red Crescent, UNRWA handles almost all UN aid distribution in the territory. In the West Bank, UNRWA currently provides services for 19 refugee camps, more than 90 schools, and several health services, including prenatal care. Source: Indian Express UNPAID WORK  Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: The invisibility of women’s contributions to the economy through unpaid care work, parenting, and domestic responsibilities has been a growing topic of research and discussion. Background: While the System of National Accounts has included household production in Gross Domestic Product (GDP) calculations since 1993, it has notably excluded unpaid care work. Key takeaways Data reveal that women not in the labour force spend over seven hours daily on unpaid domestic and care work. Employed women closely follow, dedicating 5.8 hours to similar tasks. In contrast, unemployed men spend less than four hours, while employed men contribute only 2.7 hours daily. This stark contrast underscores the significant burden of unpaid labour borne by women. Globally, there is a growing effort to recognise and value unpaid work, as countries increasingly understand its significant economic contributions. In 2016, the United Nations integrated this focus into its Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly in SDG 5, which emphasises achieving gender equality and empowering women. SDG Target 5.4 seeks to recognise and value unpaid care and domestic work through supportive policies and shared household responsibilities, particularly in low and middle-income countries by 2030. Economic value of unpaid work Unpaid work in India contributes approximately 7.5% of the country’s GDP, according to a 2023 State Bank of India report. Addressing this imbalance could have substantial economic implications. Research indicates that enhancing women’s participation in the labour force could boost India’s GDP by as much as 27%. To harness this potential for economic growth, it is vital to create policies that recognise and value unpaid work, encouraging gender equity in the workforce and boosting India’s overall productivity. Source: The Hindu FERTILIZER IMPORTS  Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: With the crisis continuing in Ukraine and Gaza, experts and policymakers are concerned about further increases in the prices of the components used for making petroleum-based chemical fertilizers. Background: – The Agriculture Minister of Uttar Pradesh recently complained that the State has the stock of fertilizers for only 10 more days. The sowing of winter rabi crops has started and fertilizers such as Diammonium phosphate (DAP) and NPK [Nitrogen, Phosphorus, and Potassium] are essential for its growth. Key takeaways What is the current import fertilizer import scenario? Standing Committee of Parliament on Chemicals and Fertilizers tabled a report expressing concern that the production capacity of fertilizers does not commensurate with its demand/requirement and, therefore, the gap between demand and supply is met through imports. According to the report, about 20% of the domestic requirement of urea, 50-60% of the domestic requirement of DAP, and 100% of the domestic requirement of Muriate of Potassium (MOP, or Potash) is met through imports. What is the situation in Ukraine and Gaza? There is no stability in fertilizer markets due to the situations in Ukraine and Gaza. Impact of the conflicts on oil prices will spill over to the by-products such as fertilizers. According to an answer provided in Lok Sabha, in 2018-19, 2019-20, and 2020-21, India’s fertilizer imports were mostly from countries such as China, Russia, Saudi Arabia, UAE, Oman, Iran and Egypt. The worsening situation could impact imports from these regions. What can India do? India has to enhance its fertilizer production capacity and shift its farming systems to reduce dependence on imported fertilizers while making better use of the existing fertilizers. Suggestions such as using nano urea, shifting to natural farming, and enhancing the capacity of fertilizer factories have also been made. The Standing Committee of Parliament also pointed out the need for policy initiatives aimed at creating an environment that would facilitate investments in the public, co-operatives, and private sectors engaged in the manufacturing and marketing of fertilizers. Commenting on the new investment policy, implemented in 2012, to streamline fertilizer production, the committee said it is satisfying to note that six new Urea plants have since been set up each having an annual production capacity of 12.7 LMT thereby adding Urea production capacity of 76.2 LMT per annum. Source: The Hindu UNIFIED PAYMENTS INTERFACE (UPI)  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has approved Paytm to onboard new UPI users, subject to adherence to all procedural guidelines and circulars, according to the company. Background: The move is expected to come as a relief to Paytm, which had suffered a blow following the Reserve Bank of India’s restrictions earlier this year on associate company Paytm Payments Bank Limited (PPBL) in onboarding new UPI users on the Paytm app. Unified Payments Interface (UPI): It was developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) in 2016 and built over Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) infrastructure. It powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile application (of any participating bank), merging several banking features e.g., transfer of funds, etc. It is designed to enable peer-to-peer inter-bank transfers through a single two-click factor authentication process. Features of Unified Payments Interface (UPI): It simplifies transfers using the recipient’s UPI ID, be it a mobile number, QR code, or Virtual Payment Address, eliminating account numbers. Earlier, only the deposited amount could be transacted through the UPI System. But now using the credit line on UPI enables pre-sanctioned credit lines from banks via UPI. It eliminates the need to enter bank details or other sensitive information each time a customer initiates a transaction. It enhances cross-operability, enabling 24/7 transactions. It uses technologies like the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) and the Aadhaar-Enabled Payment System (AEPS) to ensure that payments between accounts go smoothly. The users can both send and receive money offline through any compatible device that supports Near Field Communication (NFC) using UPI Lite X. UPI Tap and Pay allows NFC-enabled QR codes at merchants to complete payments, with a single tap without entering the PIN. Concerns/Issues/Challenges associated with UPI: Expanding UPI to accommodate a global user base will require adhering to data protection, financial laws, and regulations of different countries posing regulatory and compliance challenges. The recent Parliamentary panel’s report, titled ‘Digital Payment and Online Security Measures for Data Protection’ highlighted that foreign entities like PhonePe and Google Pay dominate the Indian fintech sector. For example, the market share of PhonePe is 46.91% and Google Pay is 36.39% in terms of the transaction volume in October-November 2023, whereas for BHIM UPI it is 0.22%. UPI faces various threats by cybercriminals who may exploit vulnerabilities in the system or use social engineering techniques to gain access to sensitive information leading to financial losses. UPI poses a significant challenge for cross-border transactions that includes managing currency conversion and exchange rates while facilitating payments and loading money into the wallet. UPI remains a barrier to its widespread adoption especially among individuals with a lack of familiarity with digital payments, leading to financial fraud. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees (UNRWA): The UNRWA was established in 1949 to provide aid and services to Palestinian refugees displaced due to the 1948 Arab-Israeli war. The UN agency is funded mostly by voluntary contributions from donor states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Only 1  Only 2  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) Consider the following statements about Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: Sardar Patel was instrumental in the integration of princely states into the Indian Union after Independence. He was India’s first Home Minister and was also given the title “Iron Man of India”. The Statue of Unity, dedicated to Sardar Patel, is located on the banks of the Yamuna River in Delhi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Only 1 and 2 Only 2 and 3  Only 1 and 3  All 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) Consider the following statements about the Unified Payments Interface (UPI): UPI allows users to make peer-to-peer inter-bank transfers through a two-click factor authentication process. UPI Lite X enables users to make offline payments using Near Field Communication (NFC) technology. UPI transactions can only be done with deposited funds and do not support pre-sanctioned credit lines from banks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Only 1 and 2 Only 1 and 3  Only 2 and 3  Only 1 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  31st October 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  30th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  a Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 31st October 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 30th October 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   EUTHANASIA  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Union Health Ministry has released draft guidelines on withdrawing or withholding medical treatment in terminally ill patients. Background: – The draft guidelines have not gone down well among a section of the medical fraternity, citing concerns that it exposes doctors to legal scrutiny and puts them under stress. Key takeaways Euthanasia refers to the practice of an individual deliberately ending their life, oftentimes to get relief from an incurable condition, or intolerable pain and suffering. Euthanasia, which can be administered only by a physician, can be either ‘active’ or ‘passive’. Active euthanasia involves an active intervention to end a person’s life with substances or external force, such as administering a lethal injection. Passive euthanasia refers to withdrawing life support or treatment that is essential to keep a terminally ill person alive. In 2011, the Supreme Court for the first time recognised the legality of passive euthanasia in the case of Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug v Union of India. After being sexually assaulted by a ward attendant of Mumbai’s KEM Hospital in 1973 and suffering a brain injury in the process, nurse Aruna Shanbaug was left in a ‘persistent vegetative state’. A petition was filed in SC in 2009, seeking an end to the life-supporting treatment the hospital was providing to Shanbaug, arguing that she should be allowed to die peacefully. The court, while ruling out passive euthanasia in this case, held that Shanbaug was still alive as she did not require life support. However, the court recognised the legality of passive euthanasia. In 2018, the Supreme Court recognised the legality of ‘passive euthanasia’ for terminally-ill patients, holding that the ‘right to die with dignity’ forms a part of the right to life under Article 21. The court also laid down guidelines for passive euthanasia, both in cases where the patient left an ‘advance directive’ or a ‘living will’ and in cases where no such directive was left behind. For long there was no dedicated legislation in India on withholding/ withdrawing life-sustaining treatment. However, the Supreme Court’s judgment, and now the draft guidelines, make it clear that withholding/ withdrawing life-sustaining treatment is legal in India under a defined framework. Withholding or withdrawing life-sustaining treatment refers to discontinuing life-sustaining medical interventions such as ventilators and feeding tubes, etc., when these no longer help the condition of the patient or prolong their suffering.  The withholding or withdrawal of life-sustaining treatment also includes ‘do-not-attempt-resuscitation’ orders. It is crucial to note that when a do-not-attempt-resuscitation order is in place, every effort should be made to continue treating the underlying condition of the patient. The order is limited to not initiating resuscitation efforts. Life-sustaining treatments are medical treatments that artificially replace bodily functions essential to the life of the person. These interventions are withheld or withdrawn with the intention of providing comfort care, allowing the underlying illness to take its course while providing symptomatic relief. Source: Indian Express CENSUS NEXT YEAR, DELIMITATION SOON AFTER  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: The government is set to conduct the much-delayed Census next year, and to complete the process by 2026. Following the completion of the Census, the government will go ahead with delimitation, for redrafting of constituencies. Background: – Delimitation would have its own share of problems, with the South worried about the impact on its political share in a Parliament where a disproportionate number of seats will be from the North due to its heavily populated states. Key takeaways In 2002, the Atal Bihari Vajpayee govt had delayed delimitation by 25 years via the 84th Amendment, saying this would be carried out only after “the relevant figures for the first Census taken after the year 2026 have been published”. This meant delimitation to be carried out after the 2031 Census. However, as per sources, the government now plans to begin the delimitation process by 2027 and finish it within a year, so that the next Lok Sabha elections (in 2029) can be done post-delimitation. Although there is demand by various quarters that caste enumeration be included in the Census, the government has not been able to finalise a formula for it. The amendments required for a delimitation process include changes to Article 81 (which defines the composition of the Lok Sabha), Article 170 (composition of Legislative Assemblies), Article 82, Article 55 (deals with the presidential election process for which value of each vote in the electoral college is decided on the population basis), Articles 330 and 332 (covering reservation of seats for the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies, respectively). Source: Indian Express INDIA CANNOT PHASE OUT COAL LIKE THE UK  Syllabus Mains – GS 2 & GS 3 Context: UK’s last coal-based generation plant at Ratcliffe-on-Soar was taken off the grid. Background: – The UK has made some progress in the decarbonisation of the power sector though it hasn’t got rid of carbon footprints completely. It is highly dependent on gas which is half as dirty as coal. Key takeaways The UK government has been pursuing a policy of closing down coal mines since the 1990s for reasons other than climate change — mainly political. In 2015, the government decided to completely phase out all coal-based plants by 2025 — the deadline was later advanced to 2024. To get rid of coal-based generation, the government relied on market drivers and regulatory interventions. UK have increased the cost of carbon dioxide emissions. The government also introduced mandatory use of carbon capture and storage for all new coal-based plants. These measures ensured that coal-based generation became unprofitable. UK also had cheap gas as an alternative to coal. Equally important is the fact that UK has already peaked its electricity generation and is now on the way down, both in terms of total generation and also in per capita terms. Generation in 2000 was 377 billion units (BUs) and it was down to 286 BUs in 2023. Similarly, per capita electricity consumption came down from 6 megawatt hours (MWHs) in 2000 to 4.1 MWHs in 2023. There was thus enough excess capacity to phase out coal-based generation. Another point merits consideration. The UK imports a fair amount of electricity. The UK was not dependent on domestic coal-based generators and the country could easily fill the gap through imports. Can India follow in the UK’s footsteps? India’s demand for power is still growing and has not peaked. So the country need to add to its installed capacity every year. India does not have access to cheap gas to substitute coal. Several issues have crippled the growth of the hydro sector. The nuclear sector contributes less than 3 per cent to the electricity mix. Growth in renewable generation may look spectacular but its far less than what is required to meet the demand in 2030. So, India needs to rely on coal. The country is delaying the retirement of coal-based plants and wants them to operate beyond the tenure of the power purchase agreements — usually 25 years. Guidelines on environment norms were issued in 2015 and over time, they have been relaxed to accommodate more coal-based generation. This is exactly the reverse of what was done in the UK where norms became more and more stringent. India’s track record in installing flue-gas desulfurisers (FGDs) is very bad — less than 5 per cent of the identified capacity in the central sector has installed FGDs. Amongst the state sector generators, not a single plant has installed FGDs. Source: Indian Express GREENHOUSE GAS BULLETIN  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ENVIRONMENT Context: World Meteorological Organization (WMO) released the Greenhouse Gas Bulletin No. 20. Background: The Greenhouse Gas Bulletin reports on greenhouse gas concentrations, rather than on emission levels. The Greenhouse Gas Bulletin complements the UN Environment Programme’s Emissions Gap report. Both were published ahead of COP29 in Baku, Azerbaijan. Key takeaways The Greenhouse Gas Bulletin has been published annually since 2004. The publication presents the latest analysis of observations from the WMO Global Atmosphere Watch (GAW) Programme on concentrations of long-lived greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. The Bulletin reports globally averaged surface mole fractions of carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and nitrous oxide (N2O). It compares these values to those of the previous year and pre-industrial levels. Additionally, it provides insights into changes in radiative forcing — the warming effect on the atmosphere by long-lived greenhouse gases and details the contribution of individual gases to this effect. The Greenhouse Gas Bulletin is released yearly to inform the United Nations Climate Change negotiations, the annual Conference of the Parties (COP). Key findings of latest bulletin The globally-averaged surface concentration of CO2 reached 420.0 parts per million (ppm), methane 1934 parts per billion and nitrous oxide 336.9 parts per billion (ppb) in 2023. These values are 151%, 265% and 125% of pre-industrial (before 1750) levels. In 2023, the increase in CO₂ levels was driven by three main factors: large amounts of CO₂ released from wildfires, a possible decline in how much CO₂ forests can absorb, and persistently high CO₂ emissions from fossil fuels due to human and industrial activities. During El Niño years, greenhouse gas levels tend to rise because drier vegetation and forest fires reduce the efficiency of land carbon sinks. Given the extremely long life of CO2 in the atmosphere, the temperature level already observed will persist for several decades even if emissions are rapidly reduced to net zero. The last time the Earth experienced a comparable concentration of CO2 was 3-5 million years ago, when the temperature was 2-3°C warmer and sea level was 10-20 meters higher than now. Source: WMO COMPREHENSIVE NUCLEAR-TEST-BAN TREATY ORGANIZATION (CTBTO)  Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL Context: On October 5, two earthquakes struck Iran’s Semnan province, sparking rumours of a nuclear test. This fuelled uncertainty across West Asia but the claims were promptly refuted by the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO) Background: – CTBTO monitors nuclear activities to detect any possible nuclear tests. It has established an International Monitoring System (IMS) to ensure that no nuclear explosion goes undetected. About CTBTO The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO) was established under the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT), adopted in 1996 by the United Nations General Assembly. The CTBT bans all nuclear test explosions everywhere, by everyone, and for all time. Adherence to the Treaty is nearly universal, with 187 States Signatories and 178 ratifying states. However, to enter into force, the Treaty must be ratified by all 44 States listed in its Annex 2, for which nine ratifications are still required. CTBTO Headquarters: Located in Vienna, Austria. Verification Regime: The CTBTO has a comprehensive International Monitoring System (IMS) comprising: Seismic monitoring stations to detect underground tests. Hydroacoustic sensors for underwater tests. Infrasound sensors for atmospheric tests. Radionuclide stations to detect nuclear particles in the air. India has not signed or ratified the CTBT, and is not a member of the CTBTO. India initially participated in negotiating the CTBT, but later walked away from the negotiations. India believes the CTBT’s current format is discriminatory. Source: New Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO), consider the following statements: The CTBTO was established under the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT). India is a full member of the CTBTO and contributes to its International Monitoring System (IMS). The CTBTO’s headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) With reference to the World Meteorological Organization’s Greenhouse Gas Bulletin, consider the following statements: The Greenhouse Gas Bulletin reports on both greenhouse gas concentrations and emission levels of short term climate pollutants to provide a complete picture of atmospheric changes. In 2023, the global average surface concentration of carbon dioxide (CO₂) reached its highest recorded level at 420 parts per million (ppm). During El Niño years, greenhouse gas concentrations tend to increase due to a reduction in the effectiveness of land carbon sinks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) With reference to euthanasia and the legal framework in India, consider the following statements: Passive euthanasia was first legally recognized in India by the Supreme Court in the Aruna Shanbaug case. Active euthanasia is legal in India. The Supreme Court has ruled that the ‘right to die with dignity’ is a part of the right to life under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  30th October 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  25th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  b Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 30th October 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 29th October 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

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