[DAY 36] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!
Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 You can post your comments in the given format (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score Your score Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following statements about the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council of India: It is a constitutional body chaired by the Union Finance Minister. Every decision of this Council shall be taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting. In the Voting procedure, the Central Government will have 2/3rd of the votes, while all the state governments have 1/3rd voting power. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect GST Council of India was established with 101st amendment act. It is chaired by Finance Minister. The decisions in the council are take in accordance with the principle of voting of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting. The votes of all the state governments combined shall have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast in that meeting and that of central government is one-thirds. Note: GST COUNCIL: Chairperson: Union Finance Minister OTHER MEMBERS: The Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance. The Minister in charge of Finance or Taxation or any other. Minister nominated by each State Government. The GST Council shall make recommendations to the Union and the States on: Taxes, cesses and surcharges which may be subsumed in the goods and services tax. The goods and services that may be subjected to, or exempted from the goods and services tax. The threshold limit of turnover below which goods and services may be exempted from goods and services tax. The rates including floor rates with bands of goods and services tax. Any special rates to raise additional resources during any natural calamity or disaster; Special provision to the States of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Jammu and Kashmir, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect GST Council of India was established with 101st amendment act. It is chaired by Finance Minister. The decisions in the council are take in accordance with the principle of voting of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting. The votes of all the state governments combined shall have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast in that meeting and that of central government is one-thirds. Note: GST COUNCIL: Chairperson: Union Finance Minister OTHER MEMBERS: The Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance. The Minister in charge of Finance or Taxation or any other. Minister nominated by each State Government. The GST Council shall make recommendations to the Union and the States on: Taxes, cesses and surcharges which may be subsumed in the goods and services tax. The goods and services that may be subjected to, or exempted from the goods and services tax. The threshold limit of turnover below which goods and services may be exempted from goods and services tax. The rates including floor rates with bands of goods and services tax. Any special rates to raise additional resources during any natural calamity or disaster; Special provision to the States of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Jammu and Kashmir, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following remedial measures in the context of Centre-State Relations in India: There must be a permanent Inter-State Council to solve the federal issues. The mandatory consulting with the Chief Minister in the appointment of state Governor. The institution of All-India Services should be further strengthened and some more much services should be created. Which one of the following commissions has prescribed the above-given measures to smoothen the relationship between the Centre and State? a) Rajamannar Committee b) Sarkaria Commission c) Punchhi Commission d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission Correct Solution (b) SARKARIA COMMISSION: In 1983, the Central Government appointed a 3-member committee on Centre- state relations headed by R.S Sarkaria. A permanent inter-state Council called the Inter- Governmental Council should be set up under Article 263. National Development Council to be revamped as National Economic and Development Council. Article 356 should be used very sparingly, in extreme cases as a last resort when the entire available alternative fails. The institution of All-India Services should be further strengthened and some more much services should be created. The residuary powers of taxation should continue to remain with the parliament, while the other residuary powers should be placed in the concurrent lists. The centre should consult the states before marking a law on a subject of the concurrent list. Consulting with the Chief minister in the appointment of state governor. The zonal councils should be constituted afresh and reactivated to promote the spirit of federalism. PUNCHHI COMMISSION: They are planning to implement of the mega projects like the inter-linking of rivers. The role is to promoting effective devolution of powers and autonomy to Panchayati Raj Institution and Local Bodies under the sixth schedule of the constitution. Adopting approaches and policies based on positive discrimination in favour of backward states. The need and relevance of separate taxes on the production and on the sales of goods and services subsequent to the introduction of value added taxes regime. RAJMANNAR COMMITTEE: An inter-state Council should be set up immediately and Finance Commission should be made a permanent body. Planning Commission should be disbanded and its place should be taken by a statutory body. Article 356, 357 and 365 (dealing with the president rule) should be omitted. Certain subjects of the union list and concurrent should be transferred to the state list. The residuary powers should be allocated to the states. Incorrect Solution (b) SARKARIA COMMISSION: In 1983, the Central Government appointed a 3-member committee on Centre- state relations headed by R.S Sarkaria. A permanent inter-state Council called the Inter- Governmental Council should be set up under Article 263. National Development Council to be revamped as National Economic and Development Council. Article 356 should be used very sparingly, in extreme cases as a last resort when the entire available alternative fails. The institution of All-India Services should be further strengthened and some more much services should be created. The residuary powers of taxation should continue to remain with the parliament, while the other residuary powers should be placed in the concurrent lists. The centre should consult the states before marking a law on a subject of the concurrent list. Consulting with the Chief minister in the appointment of state governor. The zonal councils should be constituted afresh and reactivated to promote the spirit of federalism. PUNCHHI COMMISSION: They are planning to implement of the mega projects like the inter-linking of rivers. The role is to promoting effective devolution of powers and autonomy to Panchayati Raj Institution and Local Bodies under the sixth schedule of the constitution. Adopting approaches and policies based on positive discrimination in favour of backward states. The need and relevance of separate taxes on the production and on the sales of goods and services subsequent to the introduction of value added taxes regime. RAJMANNAR COMMITTEE: An inter-state Council should be set up immediately and Finance Commission should be made a permanent body. Planning Commission should be disbanded and its place should be taken by a statutory body. Article 356, 357 and 365 (dealing with the president rule) should be omitted. Certain subjects of the union list and concurrent should be transferred to the state list. The residuary powers should be allocated to the states. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Which one of the following statements is not correct? a) The President can delegate some executive functions of the centre to the state with the state’s consent. b) The Governor can delegate some executive functions of the state to the centre with the centre’s consent. c) The Parliament can delegate some executive functions of the centre to the state without the state’s consent. d) The State legislature can delegate its executive powers to the Centre without its consent. Correct Solution (d) State legislature cannot delegate its executive powers to Centre without the consent of Centre. MUTUAL DELEGATION BETWEEN CENTRAL AND STATE GOVERNMENTS: The Constitution provides for inter-government delegation of executive functions in order to mitigate rigidity and avoid a situation of deadlock. Accordingly, the President may, with the consent of the state government, entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the Centre. Conversely, the governor of a state may, with the consent of the Central government, entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the state. This mutual delegation of administrative functions may be conditional or unconditional. The Constitution also makes a provision for the entrustment of the executive functions of the Centre to a state without the consent of that state. But, in this case, the delegation is by the Parliament and not by the president. Thus, a law made by the Parliament on a subject of the Union List can confer powers and impose duties on a state, or authorise the conferring of powers and imposition of duties by the Centre upon a state (irrespective of the consent of the state concerned). Notably, the same thing cannot be done by the state legislature. From the above, it is clear that the mutual delegation of functions between the Centre and the state can take place either under an agreement or by legislation. While the Centre can use both the methods, a state can use only the first method. MUTUAL DELEGATION OF POWER BY ARTICLE 258 President can delegate the central government’s executive power to the state government with the consent of state government. Example: Centrally sponsored scheme Parliament can delegate central government’s executive power to the state government even without the consent of state government. This is because Rajya sabha represents states in parliament. Governor can delegate state government’s executive power to the central government with the consent of central government. State legislature cannot delegate such power as Centre’s representation is not in states. Incorrect Solution (d) State legislature cannot delegate its executive powers to Centre without the consent of Centre. MUTUAL DELEGATION BETWEEN CENTRAL AND STATE GOVERNMENTS: The Constitution provides for inter-government delegation of executive functions in order to mitigate rigidity and avoid a situation of deadlock. Accordingly, the President may, with the consent of the state government, entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the Centre. Conversely, the governor of a state may, with the consent of the Central government, entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the state. This mutual delegation of administrative functions may be conditional or unconditional. The Constitution also makes a provision for the entrustment of the executive functions of the Centre to a state without the consent of that state. But, in this case, the delegation is by the Parliament and not by the president. Thus, a law made by the Parliament on a subject of the Union List can confer powers and impose duties on a state, or authorise the conferring of powers and imposition of duties by the Centre upon a state (irrespective of the consent of the state concerned). Notably, the same thing cannot be done by the state legislature. From the above, it is clear that the mutual delegation of functions between the Centre and the state can take place either under an agreement or by legislation. While the Centre can use both the methods, a state can use only the first method. MUTUAL DELEGATION OF POWER BY ARTICLE 258 President can delegate the central government’s executive power to the state government with the consent of state government. Example: Centrally sponsored scheme Parliament can delegate central government’s executive power to the state government even without the consent of state government. This is because Rajya sabha represents states in parliament. Governor can delegate state government’s executive power to the central government with the consent of central government. State legislature cannot delegate such power as Centre’s representation is not in states. Question 4 of 35 4. Question Arrange the Following committee/commission in a Chronological order which were setup to examine the Centre-State relations in India? Sarkaria Commission Administrative Reforms Commission under Morarji Desai Rajamannar Committee Punchhi Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 2,4,1,3 b) 1,3,2,4 c) 3,4,2,1 d) 2,3,1,4 Correct Solution (d) Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 1983 1966 1969 2007 In 1983, the central government appointed a commission on centre-state relations under the chairmanship of R.S. Sarkaria to examine and review the centre and states in all the spheres and recommend appropriate changes and measures. The central government appointed Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) in 1966 under Moraji Desai to examine the various issues in Centre-state relations. In 1969, the state government appointed a new committee under the chairman of P V Rajmannar to examine the entire question of centre-state relations and to suggest amendments so as to secure utmost autonomy to the states. It is the recent commission on 2007 under the Madan Mohan Punchhi to look into the issues of centre-state relations in view the sea-changes that have taken place in the polity and economy of India. Incorrect Solution (d) Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4 1983 1966 1969 2007 In 1983, the central government appointed a commission on centre-state relations under the chairmanship of R.S. Sarkaria to examine and review the centre and states in all the spheres and recommend appropriate changes and measures. The central government appointed Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) in 1966 under Moraji Desai to examine the various issues in Centre-state relations. In 1969, the state government appointed a new committee under the chairman of P V Rajmannar to examine the entire question of centre-state relations and to suggest amendments so as to secure utmost autonomy to the states. It is the recent commission on 2007 under the Madan Mohan Punchhi to look into the issues of centre-state relations in view the sea-changes that have taken place in the polity and economy of India. Question 5 of 35 5. Question With reference to the distribution of legislative powers between Centre and states in India, consider the following statements: The division of legislative powers in the constitution follows the scheme of Government of India act, 1935. The states have exclusive powers to make laws for matters listed in the state list of the Seventh Schedule in all the situations If a law made by the state on concurrent list subjects receives President’s assent, it cannot be overturned by the Parliament subsequently. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Division of legislative power under seventh schedule in the constitution follows similar pattern of 3 lists division of government of India act 1935. States have the power to legislate on state lists under normal circumstances but parliament and even the president can legislate on state lists under extraordinary circumstances. Centre law prevails over state law in the concurrent list according to article 254 entailing doctrine of repugnancy but when the state legislature gets the assent of president in certain circumstances the state law prevails over the concurrent list in that circumstances. But Parliament can overturn it. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Division of legislative power under seventh schedule in the constitution follows similar pattern of 3 lists division of government of India act 1935. States have the power to legislate on state lists under normal circumstances but parliament and even the president can legislate on state lists under extraordinary circumstances. Centre law prevails over state law in the concurrent list according to article 254 entailing doctrine of repugnancy but when the state legislature gets the assent of president in certain circumstances the state law prevails over the concurrent list in that circumstances. But Parliament can overturn it. Question 6 of 35 6. Question With respect to the Zonal Councils, which one of the following statements is correct? a) These are Constitutional bodies established by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act. b) It is headed by the Prime Minister of India. c) They are only a deliberative and advisory bodies. d) There are 4 zones in the country and there is a Zonal Council for each zone. Correct Solution (c) Zonal Councils: Zonal Councils are statutory body established by the State Reorganisation act of 1956. This act divides the country into 5 zones (East, West, North, South and Central). It is headed by Home Minister of the Central Government. It is aimed at promoting cooperation and coordination between states and Union Territories. It is only a deliberative and advisory body. COMPOSITION OF THE ZONAL COUNCIL: Chairman- The Union Home Minister Vice Chairman- The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time. Members- Chief Minister and two other Ministers as nominated by the Governor from each of the States and two members from Union Territories included in the zone. FUNCTIONS: Zonal Council may discuss and make recommendations with regard to: Any matter of common interest, among the states, in the field of economic and social planning; Any matter concerning border disputes, linguistic minorities or inter-state transport; Any matter connected with or arising out of, the re-organization of the states. Incorrect Solution (c) Zonal Councils: Zonal Councils are statutory body established by the State Reorganisation act of 1956. This act divides the country into 5 zones (East, West, North, South and Central). It is headed by Home Minister of the Central Government. It is aimed at promoting cooperation and coordination between states and Union Territories. It is only a deliberative and advisory body. COMPOSITION OF THE ZONAL COUNCIL: Chairman- The Union Home Minister Vice Chairman- The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time. Members- Chief Minister and two other Ministers as nominated by the Governor from each of the States and two members from Union Territories included in the zone. FUNCTIONS: Zonal Council may discuss and make recommendations with regard to: Any matter of common interest, among the states, in the field of economic and social planning; Any matter concerning border disputes, linguistic minorities or inter-state transport; Any matter connected with or arising out of, the re-organization of the states. Question 7 of 35 7. Question With reference to the North-Eastern Council (NEC), which of the following statements is/are correct? It comprises both Governors and Chief Ministers of all North Eastern States as its members. The Union Minister of Home Affairs is the Vice Chairman of NEC. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The NEC Act 1971 was amended in 2002. The ‘North-Eastern Areas’ now means the area comprising the eight states of Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, and Mizoram. Thus, NEC comprises eight states. The Council comprises of Governors and Chief Ministers of constituent States and three members to be nominated by the President as per Clause (iii) of Section 3 of the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 1971. Minister of State (Independent Charge) Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) is the Vice Chairman of NEC. Note: North Eastern Council (NEC): NEC was constituted as a statutory body under the NEC Act 1971. It was constituted for securing the balanced development of North Eastern Areas comprising of seven states -Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura, The NEC Act 1971 was amended in 2002. The ‘North-Eastern Areas’ now means the area comprising the eight states of Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, and Mizoram. Thus, NEC comprises eight states. The Council comprises of Governors and Chief Ministers of constituent States and three members to be nominated by the President as per Clause (iii) of Section 3 of the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 1971. The North Eastern Council is the nodal agency for the economic and social development of the North Eastern Region. Composition: Chairperson- Union Home Minister (ex-officio) Vice Chairperson- Minister of State (Independent Charge) Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) Members- Governor and Chief Minister of eight states. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The NEC Act 1971 was amended in 2002. The ‘North-Eastern Areas’ now means the area comprising the eight states of Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, and Mizoram. Thus, NEC comprises eight states. The Council comprises of Governors and Chief Ministers of constituent States and three members to be nominated by the President as per Clause (iii) of Section 3 of the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 1971. Minister of State (Independent Charge) Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) is the Vice Chairman of NEC. Note: North Eastern Council (NEC): NEC was constituted as a statutory body under the NEC Act 1971. It was constituted for securing the balanced development of North Eastern Areas comprising of seven states -Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura, The NEC Act 1971 was amended in 2002. The ‘North-Eastern Areas’ now means the area comprising the eight states of Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, and Mizoram. Thus, NEC comprises eight states. The Council comprises of Governors and Chief Ministers of constituent States and three members to be nominated by the President as per Clause (iii) of Section 3 of the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 1971. The North Eastern Council is the nodal agency for the economic and social development of the North Eastern Region. Composition: Chairperson- Union Home Minister (ex-officio) Vice Chairperson- Minister of State (Independent Charge) Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) Members- Governor and Chief Minister of eight states. Question 8 of 35 8. Question With reference to the power of parliament to legislate on state list under Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: Parliament can make laws on state lists if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting, declaring that such a law is for the national interest. The parliament must legislate within one year of the passing of that resolution by Rajya Sabha. Once the parliament passes a law under Article 249, the state loses its law-making power on that matter. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Article 249 empowers Parliament to legislate even on matters in the state list, provided not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in the Rajya Sabha, the council of states, pass a resolution declaring that such legislation is necessary or expedient in the national interest. The resolution remains in force for one year. It can be renewed any number of times but not exceeding one year at a time. The laws cease to have effect on the expiration of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force. So, parliament must legislate within one year of passing of that resolution by Rajya Sabha. This provision of parliament to legislate in state list does not restrict the power of a state legislature to make laws on the same matter. But, in case of inconsistency between a state law and a parliamentary law, the latter is to prevail. Note: SPECIAL POWERS OF RAJYA SABHA: Due to its federal character, the Rajya Sabha has been given two exclusive or special powers that are not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha: It can authorise the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State List (Article 249). It can authorise the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both the Centre and states (Article 312). An analysis of the above points makes it clear that the position of the Rajya Sabha in our constitutional system is not as weak as that of the House of Lords in the British constitutional system nor as strong as that of the Senate in the American constitutional system. Except in financial matters and control over the council of ministers, the powers and status of the Rajya Sabha in all other spheres are broadly equal and coordinate with that of the Lok Sabha. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Article 249 empowers Parliament to legislate even on matters in the state list, provided not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in the Rajya Sabha, the council of states, pass a resolution declaring that such legislation is necessary or expedient in the national interest. The resolution remains in force for one year. It can be renewed any number of times but not exceeding one year at a time. The laws cease to have effect on the expiration of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force. So, parliament must legislate within one year of passing of that resolution by Rajya Sabha. This provision of parliament to legislate in state list does not restrict the power of a state legislature to make laws on the same matter. But, in case of inconsistency between a state law and a parliamentary law, the latter is to prevail. Note: SPECIAL POWERS OF RAJYA SABHA: Due to its federal character, the Rajya Sabha has been given two exclusive or special powers that are not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha: It can authorise the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State List (Article 249). It can authorise the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both the Centre and states (Article 312). An analysis of the above points makes it clear that the position of the Rajya Sabha in our constitutional system is not as weak as that of the House of Lords in the British constitutional system nor as strong as that of the Senate in the American constitutional system. Except in financial matters and control over the council of ministers, the powers and status of the Rajya Sabha in all other spheres are broadly equal and coordinate with that of the Lok Sabha. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Which of the following councils were created under the provisions of article 263 of the Indian Constitution? Central Council of Health North-East Council Central Council of Local Government and Urban Development Central Council of Indian Medicine Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 3 only d) 2 and 4 only Correct Solution (a) Under the above provisions of Article 263, the president has established the following councils to make recommendations for the better coordination of policy and action in the related subjects: Central Council of Health. Central Council of Local Government and Urban Development. Four Regional Councils for Sales Tax for the Northern, Eastern, Western and Southern Zones. The Central Council of Indian Medicine and the Central Council of Homoeopathy were set up under the Acts of Parliament. The North-Eastern Council was created by a separate Act of Parliament—the North-Eastern Council Act of 1971. INTER-STATE COUNCILS: Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect coordination between the states and between Centre and states. Thus, the President can establish such a council if at any time it appears to him that the public interest would be served by its establishment. He can define the nature of duties to be performed by such a council and its organisation and procedure. Even though the president is empowered to define the duties of an interstate council, Article 263 specifies the duties that can be assigned to it in the following manner: enquiring into and advising upon disputes which may arise between states; investigating and discussing subjects in which the states or the Centre and the states have a common interest; and making recommendations upon any such subject, and particularly for the better co-ordination of policy and action on it. The council’s function to enquire and advice upon inter-state disputes is complementary to the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction under Article 131 to decide a legal controversy between the governments. The Council can deal with any controversy whether legal or non-legal, but its function is advisory unlike that of the court which gives a binding decision. Incorrect Solution (a) Under the above provisions of Article 263, the president has established the following councils to make recommendations for the better coordination of policy and action in the related subjects: Central Council of Health. Central Council of Local Government and Urban Development. Four Regional Councils for Sales Tax for the Northern, Eastern, Western and Southern Zones. The Central Council of Indian Medicine and the Central Council of Homoeopathy were set up under the Acts of Parliament. The North-Eastern Council was created by a separate Act of Parliament—the North-Eastern Council Act of 1971. INTER-STATE COUNCILS: Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect coordination between the states and between Centre and states. Thus, the President can establish such a council if at any time it appears to him that the public interest would be served by its establishment. He can define the nature of duties to be performed by such a council and its organisation and procedure. Even though the president is empowered to define the duties of an interstate council, Article 263 specifies the duties that can be assigned to it in the following manner: enquiring into and advising upon disputes which may arise between states; investigating and discussing subjects in which the states or the Centre and the states have a common interest; and making recommendations upon any such subject, and particularly for the better co-ordination of policy and action on it. The council’s function to enquire and advice upon inter-state disputes is complementary to the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction under Article 131 to decide a legal controversy between the governments. The Council can deal with any controversy whether legal or non-legal, but its function is advisory unlike that of the court which gives a binding decision. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Suppose, two of the Indian states request the Parliament to enact a law on a matter in the state list and the Parliament accepts their request. In this context, which one of the following statements will hold true as per the Constitution? The law applies only to these two states and cannot be adopted by any third state. If the two states want to repeal the law passed by the parliament they cannot do so on their own. This provision of the constitution has not been used so far in the Indian Constitutional history since 1950. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect When the legislatures of two or more states pass resolutions requesting the Parliament to enact laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament can make laws for regulating that matter. A law so enacted applies only to those states which have passed the resolutions. It cannot be applied to any other states that do not request the parliament. However, any other state may adopt it afterwards by passing a resolution to that effect in its legislature. Such a law can be amended or repealed only by the Parliament and not by the legislatures of the concerned states. The state legislature ceases to have the power to make a law with respect to that matter. This provision of the constitution has been used. Some examples of laws passed under the above provision are Prize Competition Act, 1955; Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972; Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; Urban Land (Ceiling and Regulation) Act, 1976; and Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect When the legislatures of two or more states pass resolutions requesting the Parliament to enact laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament can make laws for regulating that matter. A law so enacted applies only to those states which have passed the resolutions. It cannot be applied to any other states that do not request the parliament. However, any other state may adopt it afterwards by passing a resolution to that effect in its legislature. Such a law can be amended or repealed only by the Parliament and not by the legislatures of the concerned states. The state legislature ceases to have the power to make a law with respect to that matter. This provision of the constitution has been used. Some examples of laws passed under the above provision are Prize Competition Act, 1955; Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972; Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; Urban Land (Ceiling and Regulation) Act, 1976; and Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994. Question 11 of 35 11. Question In the context of Centre-State relations in India, if a particular Subject is not listed in any of the lists of the Seventh Schedule, then what would be the best option to make law on such subject? a) Only Parliament can enact a law in this regard as it is the exclusive jurisdiction under the Union List. b) Only States are empowered to pass legislation in this regard. c) Both Centre and states are empowered to pass legislation in this regard as it is the common subject. d) The Parliament shall pass a law in this regard because it is a residuary subject. Correct Solution (d) A subject not specifically mentioned in any of the three lists comes under the Residuary Powers of the Union under entry 97 of the Union List. Only the government of the Union trough Parliament has the powers to render law on Residuary Subjects. These subjects are e-commerce, Computer software and so on. After the constitution was established, these subjects came into use which doesn’t come in any list. Incorrect Solution (d) A subject not specifically mentioned in any of the three lists comes under the Residuary Powers of the Union under entry 97 of the Union List. Only the government of the Union trough Parliament has the powers to render law on Residuary Subjects. These subjects are e-commerce, Computer software and so on. After the constitution was established, these subjects came into use which doesn’t come in any list. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Under Article 371-J, the President is empowered to provide that the Governor of Karnataka would have special responsibility for- The establishment of a separate development board for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region. Making a provision that a report on the working of the board would be placed every year before the State Legislative Assembly. The equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the region. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The establishment of a separate development board for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region. Making a provision that a report on the working of the board would be placed every year before the State Legislative Assembly. The equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the region. Note: Under Article 371-J, the President is empowered to provide that the Governor of Karnataka would have special responsibility for- The establishment of a separate development board for Hyderabad-Karnataka region Making a provision that a report on the working of the board would be placed every year before the State Legislative Assembly The equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the region The reservation of seats in educational and vocational training institutions in the region for students who belong to the region 5. The reservation in state government posts in the region for persons who belong to the region. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The establishment of a separate development board for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region. Making a provision that a report on the working of the board would be placed every year before the State Legislative Assembly. The equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the region. Note: Under Article 371-J, the President is empowered to provide that the Governor of Karnataka would have special responsibility for- The establishment of a separate development board for Hyderabad-Karnataka region Making a provision that a report on the working of the board would be placed every year before the State Legislative Assembly The equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the region The reservation of seats in educational and vocational training institutions in the region for students who belong to the region 5. The reservation in state government posts in the region for persons who belong to the region. Question 13 of 35 13. Question The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 reorganizes the state of Jammu and Kashmir into: The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir without a legislature. The Union Territory of Ladakh with a legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 reorganizes the state of Jammu and Kashmir into- The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 reorganizes the state of Jammu and Kashmir into- The Union Territory of Ladakh without a legislature. Note: The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 reorganizes the state of Jammu and Kashmir into- The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature, and The Union Territory of Ladakh without a legislature. The Union Territory of Ladakh will comprise Kargil and Leh districts. The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir will comprise the remaining territories of the existing state of Jammu and Kashmir. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 reorganizes the state of Jammu and Kashmir into- The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 reorganizes the state of Jammu and Kashmir into- The Union Territory of Ladakh without a legislature. Note: The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 reorganizes the state of Jammu and Kashmir into- The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature, and The Union Territory of Ladakh without a legislature. The Union Territory of Ladakh will comprise Kargil and Leh districts. The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir will comprise the remaining territories of the existing state of Jammu and Kashmir. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Consider the following statements regarding special provisions for Nagaland: The Governor of Nagaland shall have special responsibility for law and order in the state so long as internal disturbances caused by the hostile Nagas continue. A regional council consisting of 35 members should be established for the Tuensang district of the state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Governor of Nagaland shall have special responsibility for law and order in the state so long as internal disturbances caused by the hostile Nagas continue. In the discharge of this responsibility, the Governor, after consulting the Council of Ministers, exercises his individual judgement and his decision is final. This special responsibility of the Governor shall cease when the President so directs. A regional council consisting of 35 members should be established for the Tuensang district of the state. PROVISIONS FOR NAGALAND: Article 371-A makes the following special provisions for Nagaland: The Acts of Parliament relating to the following matters would not apply to Nagaland unless the State Legislative Assembly so decides: religious or social practices of the Nagas; Naga customary law and procedure; administration of civil and criminal justice involving decision according to Naga customary law; and ownership and transfer of land and its resources. The Governor of Nagaland shall have special responsibility for law and order in the state so long as internal disturbances caused by the hostile Nagas continue. In the discharge of this responsibility, the Governor, after consulting the Council of Ministers, exercises his individual judgement and his decision is final. This special responsibility of the Governor shall cease when the President so directs. The Governor has to ensure that the money provided by the Central Government for any specific purpose is included in the demand for a grant relating to that purpose and not in any other demand moved in the State Legislative Assembly. A regional council consisting of 35 members should be established for the Tuensang district of the state. The Governor should make rules for the composition of the council, manner of choosing its members, their qualifications, term, salaries and allowances; the procedure and conduct of business of the council; the appointment of officers and staff of the council and their service conditions; and any other matter relating to the constitution and proper functioning of the council. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Governor of Nagaland shall have special responsibility for law and order in the state so long as internal disturbances caused by the hostile Nagas continue. In the discharge of this responsibility, the Governor, after consulting the Council of Ministers, exercises his individual judgement and his decision is final. This special responsibility of the Governor shall cease when the President so directs. A regional council consisting of 35 members should be established for the Tuensang district of the state. PROVISIONS FOR NAGALAND: Article 371-A makes the following special provisions for Nagaland: The Acts of Parliament relating to the following matters would not apply to Nagaland unless the State Legislative Assembly so decides: religious or social practices of the Nagas; Naga customary law and procedure; administration of civil and criminal justice involving decision according to Naga customary law; and ownership and transfer of land and its resources. The Governor of Nagaland shall have special responsibility for law and order in the state so long as internal disturbances caused by the hostile Nagas continue. In the discharge of this responsibility, the Governor, after consulting the Council of Ministers, exercises his individual judgement and his decision is final. This special responsibility of the Governor shall cease when the President so directs. The Governor has to ensure that the money provided by the Central Government for any specific purpose is included in the demand for a grant relating to that purpose and not in any other demand moved in the State Legislative Assembly. A regional council consisting of 35 members should be established for the Tuensang district of the state. The Governor should make rules for the composition of the council, manner of choosing its members, their qualifications, term, salaries and allowances; the procedure and conduct of business of the council; the appointment of officers and staff of the council and their service conditions; and any other matter relating to the constitution and proper functioning of the council. Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following pairs with respect to the financial relations between Centre and State: Article Distribution of Tax Revenue 1. Article 268 Taxes levied by the Centre but collected and appropriated by theStates 2. Article 269 Taxes levied and collected by the Centre but distributed between the Centre and the States. 3. Article 270 Taxes levied and collected by the Centre but assigned to the States. How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? a) None of the pairs b) One pair only c) Two pairs only d) Three pairs only Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Article 268- Taxes levied by the Centre but collected and appropriated by the States Article 269- Taxes levied and collected by the Centre but assigned to the States. Article 270- Taxes levied and collected by the Centre but distributed between the Centre and the States. Note: The 80th Amendment Act of 2000 and the 88th Amendment Act of 2003 changed the way tax revenues were distributed between the federal government and the states. Article 268: The Centre imposes taxes, while the states are in charge of collecting them. It contains a variety of duties and tax revenues, including: Stamp duty is charged on bills of exchange, promissory notes, insurance policies, checks, stock transfers, and other documents The collected duties levied by any state (inside the state) are given to the state rather than to the Consolidated Fund of India The centre imposes a service tax, but the states collect and appropriate it (Article 268-A) (now outlawed amid GST) Article 269: Taxes levied and collected by the federal government but distributed to state. This category includes the following taxes: Various tariffs were levied on the sale or purchase of commodities (other than newspapers) in the course of interstate commerce or trade Various tariffs on products sent in the course of interstate trade or commerce All of these taxes’ net proceeds do not go into the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI). According to the principles established by the Parliament, they are assigned to the involved states Article 269- A: Imposition and collection of Goods and Services Tax in line with interstate trade or commerce. The Centre imposes and collects the Goods and Services Tax (GST) on supplies made in the course of interstate trade or commerce However, this tax is split between the Centre and the States in the manner proposed by Parliament based on the GST Council’s recommendations Furthermore, the Parliament has the authority to develop standards for establishing the site of supply and when commodities or services, or both, are supplied in the course of interstate trade or commerce Article 270: Taxes imposed and collected by the Centre but distributed amongst the Centre and the States proportionately. This category comprises all taxes and duties referred to in the Union List except the following: Articles 268, 269, and 269-A deal with duties and taxes (mentioned above). Article 271 imposes a surcharge on taxes and duties (mentioned below). Any tax imposed for a specified purpose. The President, on the recommendation of the Finance Commission, prescribes the method for distributing the net earnings of all these taxes and duties (FCs). Article 271-Surcharges on certain taxes and duties for purposes of the centre. Articles 269 and 270 of the Constitution provide that the Parliament may impose surcharges on taxes and duties at any time (mentioned above). The Centre receives all of the profits from such surcharges. In other words, the states aren’t paying any of the levies. This fee is not applicable to the Goods and Services Tax (GST). To put it another way, the GST will not be subject to this surcharge. State Government Taxes: Taxes of this nature are entirely the responsibility of the governments. They are 18 in number and are included on the State List. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Article 268- Taxes levied by the Centre but collected and appropriated by the States Article 269- Taxes levied and collected by the Centre but assigned to the States. Article 270- Taxes levied and collected by the Centre but distributed between the Centre and the States. Note: The 80th Amendment Act of 2000 and the 88th Amendment Act of 2003 changed the way tax revenues were distributed between the federal government and the states. Article 268: The Centre imposes taxes, while the states are in charge of collecting them. It contains a variety of duties and tax revenues, including: Stamp duty is charged on bills of exchange, promissory notes, insurance policies, checks, stock transfers, and other documents The collected duties levied by any state (inside the state) are given to the state rather than to the Consolidated Fund of India The centre imposes a service tax, but the states collect and appropriate it (Article 268-A) (now outlawed amid GST) Article 269: Taxes levied and collected by the federal government but distributed to state. This category includes the following taxes: Various tariffs were levied on the sale or purchase of commodities (other than newspapers) in the course of interstate commerce or trade Various tariffs on products sent in the course of interstate trade or commerce All of these taxes’ net proceeds do not go into the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI). According to the principles established by the Parliament, they are assigned to the involved states Article 269- A: Imposition and collection of Goods and Services Tax in line with interstate trade or commerce. The Centre imposes and collects the Goods and Services Tax (GST) on supplies made in the course of interstate trade or commerce However, this tax is split between the Centre and the States in the manner proposed by Parliament based on the GST Council’s recommendations Furthermore, the Parliament has the authority to develop standards for establishing the site of supply and when commodities or services, or both, are supplied in the course of interstate trade or commerce Article 270: Taxes imposed and collected by the Centre but distributed amongst the Centre and the States proportionately. This category comprises all taxes and duties referred to in the Union List except the following: Articles 268, 269, and 269-A deal with duties and taxes (mentioned above). Article 271 imposes a surcharge on taxes and duties (mentioned below). Any tax imposed for a specified purpose. The President, on the recommendation of the Finance Commission, prescribes the method for distributing the net earnings of all these taxes and duties (FCs). Article 271-Surcharges on certain taxes and duties for purposes of the centre. Articles 269 and 270 of the Constitution provide that the Parliament may impose surcharges on taxes and duties at any time (mentioned above). The Centre receives all of the profits from such surcharges. In other words, the states aren’t paying any of the levies. This fee is not applicable to the Goods and Services Tax (GST). To put it another way, the GST will not be subject to this surcharge. State Government Taxes: Taxes of this nature are entirely the responsibility of the governments. They are 18 in number and are included on the State List. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements: Article 371-E of the Constitution of India contains special provisions with respect to Sikkim. The 38th Constitutional Amendment Act made Sikkim a full-fledged state of the Indian Union. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Article 371-E empowers the Parliament to provide for the establishment of a Central University in the state of Andhra Pradesh. Article 371-F of the Constitution of India contains special provisions with respect to Sikkim. The 36th Constitutional Amendment Act made Sikkim a full-fledged state of the Indian Union. Articles 371 to 371-J in Part XXI of the Constitution of India contain special provisions for twelve states: Maharashtra Andhra Pradesh Telangana Sikkim Mizoram Arunachal Pradesh Gujarat Nagaland Assam Manipur Goa Karnataka Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Article 371-E empowers the Parliament to provide for the establishment of a Central University in the state of Andhra Pradesh. Article 371-F of the Constitution of India contains special provisions with respect to Sikkim. The 36th Constitutional Amendment Act made Sikkim a full-fledged state of the Indian Union. Articles 371 to 371-J in Part XXI of the Constitution of India contain special provisions for twelve states: Maharashtra Andhra Pradesh Telangana Sikkim Mizoram Arunachal Pradesh Gujarat Nagaland Assam Manipur Goa Karnataka Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following statements: The Governor of Arunachal Pradesh shall have special responsibility for law and order in the state. The Arunachal Pradesh Legislative Assembly is to consist of not less than 50 members. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Governor of Arunachal Pradesh shall have special responsibility for law and order in the state. In the discharge of this responsibility, the Governor, after consulting the Council of Ministers, exercises his individual judgement and his decision is final. This special responsibility of the Governor shall cease when the President directs. The Legislative Assembly of Arunachal Pradesh should consist of not less than 30 members. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Governor of Arunachal Pradesh shall have special responsibility for law and order in the state. In the discharge of this responsibility, the Governor, after consulting the Council of Ministers, exercises his individual judgement and his decision is final. This special responsibility of the Governor shall cease when the President directs. The Legislative Assembly of Arunachal Pradesh should consist of not less than 30 members. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Under Article 371, the President is authorized to provide that the Governor of Maharashtra would have special responsibility for: The establishment of separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada and the rest of Maharashtra. Making a provision that a report on the working of these boards would be placed every 5 years before the State Legislative Assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The establishment of separate development boards for (i) Vidarbha, Marathwada and the rest of Maharashtra, (ii) Saurashtra, Kutch and the rest of Gujarat. Making a provision that a report on the working of these boards would be placed every year before the State Legislative Assembly. Note: Under Article 371, the President is authorized to provide that the Governor of Maharashtra and that of Gujarat would have special responsibility for- The establishment of separate development boards for (i) Vidarbha, Marathwada and the rest of Maharashtra, (ii) Saurashtra, Kutch and the rest of Gujarat; Making a provision that a report on the working of these boards would be placed every year before the State Legislative Assembly; The equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the above-mentioned areas, and An equitable arrangement providing adequate facilities for technical education and vocational training and adequate employment opportunities in the state services in respect of the above-mentioned areas. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The establishment of separate development boards for (i) Vidarbha, Marathwada and the rest of Maharashtra, (ii) Saurashtra, Kutch and the rest of Gujarat. Making a provision that a report on the working of these boards would be placed every year before the State Legislative Assembly. Note: Under Article 371, the President is authorized to provide that the Governor of Maharashtra and that of Gujarat would have special responsibility for- The establishment of separate development boards for (i) Vidarbha, Marathwada and the rest of Maharashtra, (ii) Saurashtra, Kutch and the rest of Gujarat; Making a provision that a report on the working of these boards would be placed every year before the State Legislative Assembly; The equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the above-mentioned areas, and An equitable arrangement providing adequate facilities for technical education and vocational training and adequate employment opportunities in the state services in respect of the above-mentioned areas. Question 19 of 35 19. Question With respect to the National Integration Council (NIC), consider the following statements: The council of national integration primarily sets its objective not to stand with any internal conflict against religious freedom. It helps to implement such policies and principles to maintain the harmony for which the country will stand together. It emphasizes the privileges of common citizenship. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The council of national integration primarily sets its objective not to stand with any internal conflict against religious freedom, any injustice in the political, economic, and social things. NIC helps to implement such policies and principles to maintain the harmony for which the country will stand together. National integration also helps to formulate appropriate community activities and programs to bring peer-to-peer sentiment. It also emphasizes the privileges of common citizenship. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The council of national integration primarily sets its objective not to stand with any internal conflict against religious freedom, any injustice in the political, economic, and social things. NIC helps to implement such policies and principles to maintain the harmony for which the country will stand together. National integration also helps to formulate appropriate community activities and programs to bring peer-to-peer sentiment. It also emphasizes the privileges of common citizenship. Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following: Scrutiny by departmental committees General discussion Passing of appropriation bill Passing of finance bill Voting on demands for grants Which one of the following is the correct sequence of stages in enactment of budget in the Parliament? a) 1-2-3-5-4 b) 2-1-5-3-4 c) 2-5-1-4-3 d) 1-2-5-4-3 Correct Solution (b) The budget goes through the following six stages in the Parliament: Presentation of budget. General discussion. Scrutiny by departmental committees. Voting on demands for grants. Passing of appropriation bill. Passing of finance bill. Budget: The finance minister presents the budget in the Lok Sabha. He makes his budget in the Lok Sabha. Simultaneously, the copy of the budget is laid on the table of the Rajya Sabha. Printed copies of the budget are distributed among the members of the parliament to go through the details of the budgetary provisions. The finance bill is presented to the parliament immediately after the presentation of the budget. Finance Bill relates to the proposals regarding the imposition of new taxes, modification on the existing taxes or the abolition of the old taxes. The proposals on revenue and expenditure are discussed in the Parliament. Members of the Parliament actively take part in the discussion. After the general discussion on the budget is over, the Houses are adjourned for about three to four weeks. During this gap period, the 24 departmental standing committees of Parliament examine and discuss in detail the demands for grants of the concerned ministers and prepare reports on them. These reports are submitted to both the Houses of Parliament for consideration. Demands for grants are presented to the Parliament along with the budget. These demands for grants show that the estimates of the expenditure for various departments and they need to be voted by the Parliament. No demand for grants shall be made except on the recommendation of the President. After the demands for grants are voted by the parliament, the Appropriation Bill is introduced, considered and passed by the appropriation of the Parliament. It provides the legal authority for withdrawal of funds of what is known as the Consolidated Fund of India. After the passing of the appropriation bill, finance bill is discussed and passed. At this stage, the members of the parliament can suggest and make some amendments which the finance minister can approve or reject. Appropriation bill and Finance bill are sent to Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha is required to send back these bills to the Lok Sabha within fourteen days with or without amendments. However, Lok Sabha may or may not accept the bill. Finance Bill is sent to the President for his assent. The bill becomes the statue after President’s sign. The president does not have the power to reject the bill. Incorrect Solution (b) The budget goes through the following six stages in the Parliament: Presentation of budget. General discussion. Scrutiny by departmental committees. Voting on demands for grants. Passing of appropriation bill. Passing of finance bill. Budget: The finance minister presents the budget in the Lok Sabha. He makes his budget in the Lok Sabha. Simultaneously, the copy of the budget is laid on the table of the Rajya Sabha. Printed copies of the budget are distributed among the members of the parliament to go through the details of the budgetary provisions. The finance bill is presented to the parliament immediately after the presentation of the budget. Finance Bill relates to the proposals regarding the imposition of new taxes, modification on the existing taxes or the abolition of the old taxes. The proposals on revenue and expenditure are discussed in the Parliament. Members of the Parliament actively take part in the discussion. After the general discussion on the budget is over, the Houses are adjourned for about three to four weeks. During this gap period, the 24 departmental standing committees of Parliament examine and discuss in detail the demands for grants of the concerned ministers and prepare reports on them. These reports are submitted to both the Houses of Parliament for consideration. Demands for grants are presented to the Parliament along with the budget. These demands for grants show that the estimates of the expenditure for various departments and they need to be voted by the Parliament. No demand for grants shall be made except on the recommendation of the President. After the demands for grants are voted by the parliament, the Appropriation Bill is introduced, considered and passed by the appropriation of the Parliament. It provides the legal authority for withdrawal of funds of what is known as the Consolidated Fund of India. After the passing of the appropriation bill, finance bill is discussed and passed. At this stage, the members of the parliament can suggest and make some amendments which the finance minister can approve or reject. Appropriation bill and Finance bill are sent to Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha is required to send back these bills to the Lok Sabha within fourteen days with or without amendments. However, Lok Sabha may or may not accept the bill. Finance Bill is sent to the President for his assent. The bill becomes the statue after President’s sign. The president does not have the power to reject the bill. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Eight Degree Channel’? a) Sumatra and Java b) Andaman and Nicobar c) Nicobar and Sumatra d) Maldives and Minicoy Correct Solution (d) The Eight Degree Channel separates the islands of Minicoy and Maldives. Hence option d is correct. The Nine Degree Channel separates the island of Minicoy from the main Lakshadweep archipelago. The Ten Degree Channel separates the Andaman Islands and the Nicobar Islands from each other in the Bay of Bengal. Note: Maldives is a low-lying island country in the north-central Indian Ocean. Its capital is Male and its official language is an Indo-European language called Dhivehi. Its state religion is Islam and its economy mainly revolves around tourism. Incorrect Solution (d) The Eight Degree Channel separates the islands of Minicoy and Maldives. Hence option d is correct. The Nine Degree Channel separates the island of Minicoy from the main Lakshadweep archipelago. The Ten Degree Channel separates the Andaman Islands and the Nicobar Islands from each other in the Bay of Bengal. Note: Maldives is a low-lying island country in the north-central Indian Ocean. Its capital is Male and its official language is an Indo-European language called Dhivehi. Its state religion is Islam and its economy mainly revolves around tourism. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘World Heritage Committee’: It defines the use of the World Heritage Fund and allocates financial assistance upon requests from state parties. It has the final say on whether a property is inscribed on the World Heritage List. The Committee consists of 21 members who hold office for a term of one year. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) World Heritage Committee is a committee of the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization. It is responsible for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention, defines the use of the World Heritage Fund, and allocates financial assistance upon requests from state parties. Hence statement 1 is correct. It has the final say on whether a property is inscribed on the World Heritage List. Hence statement 2 is correct. It examines reports on the state of conservation of inscribed properties and asks States Parties to take action when properties are not being properly managed. It also decides on the inscription or deletion of properties on the List of World Heritage in Danger. The Committee consists of 21 members from the state parties to the Convention elected by their General Assembly and they hold office for a term of six years. However, most state parties choose voluntarily to be members of the committee for only four years to allow other state parties to be on the committee. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Note: The United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations. Its mission is to contribute to peace and security by promoting international collaboration through education, science, and culture. It provides a platform for international cooperation and establishes a holistic cultural governance system based on human rights and shared values. Incorrect Solution (b) World Heritage Committee is a committee of the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization. It is responsible for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention, defines the use of the World Heritage Fund, and allocates financial assistance upon requests from state parties. Hence statement 1 is correct. It has the final say on whether a property is inscribed on the World Heritage List. Hence statement 2 is correct. It examines reports on the state of conservation of inscribed properties and asks States Parties to take action when properties are not being properly managed. It also decides on the inscription or deletion of properties on the List of World Heritage in Danger. The Committee consists of 21 members from the state parties to the Convention elected by their General Assembly and they hold office for a term of six years. However, most state parties choose voluntarily to be members of the committee for only four years to allow other state parties to be on the committee. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Note: The United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations. Its mission is to contribute to peace and security by promoting international collaboration through education, science, and culture. It provides a platform for international cooperation and establishes a holistic cultural governance system based on human rights and shared values. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements about the ‘Pallas’s Sea Eagle’: It is found only in India, Nepal, Bangladesh and Myanmar. It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List. The Pallas’s Sea Eagle also known as band-tailed fish eagle. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) The Pallas’s Sea Eagle also known as band-tailed fish eagle, is a large, brownish sea eagle. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is found in the east Palearctic in Kazakhstan, Russia, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Mongolia, China, India, Nepal, Bangladesh and Myanmar. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It can be seen near lakes, marshes, and large rivers, from lowlands to 5,000 metres of elevation. It feeds primarily on fish, but many other preys are part of its diet. It breeds usually near water in a large nest placed in a tall tree. It is listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Chilka Lake is a brackish water lake and a shallow lagoon with estuarine character spread across the districts of Puri, Khurda, and Ganjam in the state of Odisha. Chilka Lake is located at the mouth of the Daya River, flowing into the Bay of Bengal. It is connected to the Bay of Bengal by a wide channel that mostly runs parallel to the Bay separated by a narrow spit. Incorrect Solution (a) The Pallas’s Sea Eagle also known as band-tailed fish eagle, is a large, brownish sea eagle. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is found in the east Palearctic in Kazakhstan, Russia, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Mongolia, China, India, Nepal, Bangladesh and Myanmar. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It can be seen near lakes, marshes, and large rivers, from lowlands to 5,000 metres of elevation. It feeds primarily on fish, but many other preys are part of its diet. It breeds usually near water in a large nest placed in a tall tree. It is listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Chilka Lake is a brackish water lake and a shallow lagoon with estuarine character spread across the districts of Puri, Khurda, and Ganjam in the state of Odisha. Chilka Lake is located at the mouth of the Daya River, flowing into the Bay of Bengal. It is connected to the Bay of Bengal by a wide channel that mostly runs parallel to the Bay separated by a narrow spit. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements about the National Real Estate Development Council (NAREDCO): It is the leading industry association for the real estate sector in the country. It works under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs of the Government of India. Its organizational structure includes National, State, and City Councils. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The National Real Estate Development Council (NAREDCO) is the leading industry association for the real estate sector in the country. Hence statement 1 is correct. Its primary objective is to provide a legitimate platform for the government, the real estate industry, and the general public to address their concerns and find effective solutions to the challenges faced by the real estate sector. Its mission is to improve the real estate industry’s building, construction, and marketing standards. It works under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs of the Government of India. Hence statement 2 is correct. It plays a crucial role in policy formulation by representing the viewpoints of its members to various ministries regularly. All major national developers and public sector organizations in the fields of housing and real estate development, finance, and marketing are members of NAREDCO. Its organizational structure includes National, State, and City Councils. Hence statement 3 is correct. The councils ensure that the policy recommendations accurately reflect the real conditions on the ground and cover the entire geography. The Union Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs, Govt. of India, serves as the Chief Patron of NAREDCO. Incorrect Solution (c) The National Real Estate Development Council (NAREDCO) is the leading industry association for the real estate sector in the country. Hence statement 1 is correct. Its primary objective is to provide a legitimate platform for the government, the real estate industry, and the general public to address their concerns and find effective solutions to the challenges faced by the real estate sector. Its mission is to improve the real estate industry’s building, construction, and marketing standards. It works under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs of the Government of India. Hence statement 2 is correct. It plays a crucial role in policy formulation by representing the viewpoints of its members to various ministries regularly. All major national developers and public sector organizations in the fields of housing and real estate development, finance, and marketing are members of NAREDCO. Its organizational structure includes National, State, and City Councils. Hence statement 3 is correct. The councils ensure that the policy recommendations accurately reflect the real conditions on the ground and cover the entire geography. The Union Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs, Govt. of India, serves as the Chief Patron of NAREDCO. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements about Thanjavur Doll: It originated during the 12th Century under King Saraboji’s reign. They are handmade with paper mache, wax, plaster of Paris, and cement. They have been recognized as a Geographical Indication by the Government of India. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Thanjavur Doll is a type of traditional Indian toy made in the city of Thanjavur, formerly Tanjore, in Tamil Nadu. Thanjavur Doll originated during the 18th Century under King Saraboji’s reign. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The centre of gravity and the total weight of the doll is concentrated at its bottom-most point, generating a dance-like continuous movement with slow oscillations. They are handmade with paper mache, wax, plaster of Paris, coloring agents, clay, cardboard, plastics, and cement. Hence statement 2 is correct. They have been recognized as a Geographical Indication by the Government of India. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The Thanjavur Doll is a type of traditional Indian toy made in the city of Thanjavur, formerly Tanjore, in Tamil Nadu. Thanjavur Doll originated during the 18th Century under King Saraboji’s reign. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The centre of gravity and the total weight of the doll is concentrated at its bottom-most point, generating a dance-like continuous movement with slow oscillations. They are handmade with paper mache, wax, plaster of Paris, coloring agents, clay, cardboard, plastics, and cement. Hence statement 2 is correct. They have been recognized as a Geographical Indication by the Government of India. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements about INS Chennai: It is a guided missile destroyer developed jointly by India and Russia. It is the last ship of the Kolkata-class stealth-guided missile destroyers under the Project 15A. It is equipped to fight under nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC) warfare conditions. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) INS Chennai is a guided missile destroyer indigenously designed and constructed by the Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) in Mumbai. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It was commissioned into the Indian Navy on November 21, 2016. It is the last ship of the Kolkata-class stealth-guided missile destroyers under the Project 15A. Hence statement 2 is correct. Project 15A is a class of stealth guided-missile destroyers constructed for the Indian Navy. It comprises three ships – Kolkata, Kochi,and Chennai. It is equipped to fight under nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC) warfare conditions. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is fitted with a modern surveillance radar, which provides target data to the gunnery weapon systems of the ship. It is armed with vertical launch and long-range surface-to-air and surface-to-surface missile systems like supersonic BrahMos, and ‘Barak-8’ long-range surface-to-air missiles. Incorrect Solution (b) INS Chennai is a guided missile destroyer indigenously designed and constructed by the Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) in Mumbai. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It was commissioned into the Indian Navy on November 21, 2016. It is the last ship of the Kolkata-class stealth-guided missile destroyers under the Project 15A. Hence statement 2 is correct. Project 15A is a class of stealth guided-missile destroyers constructed for the Indian Navy. It comprises three ships – Kolkata, Kochi,and Chennai. It is equipped to fight under nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC) warfare conditions. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is fitted with a modern surveillance radar, which provides target data to the gunnery weapon systems of the ship. It is armed with vertical launch and long-range surface-to-air and surface-to-surface missile systems like supersonic BrahMos, and ‘Barak-8’ long-range surface-to-air missiles. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Kadamba inscription’: Its epigraph is engraved in Kannada and Nagari characters of the 10th century AD. It is in theliterary style of the Talangre inscription of Jayasimha I of the same period. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The Kadamba inscription has been found in the Mahadeva temple at Cacoda in southern Goa. Its epigraph is engraved in Kannada and Nagari characters of the 10th century AD. Hence statement 1 is correct. The record is composed as a vocal statement on the death of his son from the mouth of a grieving father. It records that when Talara Nevayya was administering the mandala, his son Gundayya having taken a vow to fulfil his father’s desire of capturing a gopura of the port of Goa, fought and died after fulfilling his father’s wish. It is in the literary style of the Talangre inscription of Jayasimha I of the same period. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Kadamba inscription has been found in the Mahadeva temple at Cacoda in southern Goa. Its epigraph is engraved in Kannada and Nagari characters of the 10th century AD. Hence statement 1 is correct. The record is composed as a vocal statement on the death of his son from the mouth of a grieving father. It records that when Talara Nevayya was administering the mandala, his son Gundayya having taken a vow to fulfil his father’s desire of capturing a gopura of the port of Goa, fought and died after fulfilling his father’s wish. It is in the literary style of the Talangre inscription of Jayasimha I of the same period. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements about the ‘Indian Army Day’: It is celebrated to commemorate the victory of the Indian Army over the Pakistan Army. The theme of Indian Army Day 2024 is “In Service of the Nation”. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Indian Army Day is celebrated every year on January 15. The Indian Army Day is celebrated to commemorate the victory of the Indian Army over the British Army. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. On January 15, 1949, Field Marshal K.M. Cariappa became the first Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army, and took over authority from the British Commander-in-Chief General Francis Butcher, and became the first Indian to command the Army in its long, rich history. From 1949 until 2022, the Army Day parade was organised at the Cariappa Parade Ground in the Delhi Cantonment. In 2023, the Southern Command was responsible for the parade in Bengaluru. It was the first time the Army Day parade was held outside the country’s capital. This year, the parade will be held under the command of the Army’s ‘Central Command, which is headquartered in Lucknow. The theme of Indian Army Day 2024 is “In Service of the Nation”. This year’s theme also resembles the motto of the Indian Army, “Service Before Self.” Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Indian Army Day is celebrated every year on January 15. The Indian Army Day is celebrated to commemorate the victory of the Indian Army over the British Army. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. On January 15, 1949, Field Marshal K.M. Cariappa became the first Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army, and took over authority from the British Commander-in-Chief General Francis Butcher, and became the first Indian to command the Army in its long, rich history. From 1949 until 2022, the Army Day parade was organised at the Cariappa Parade Ground in the Delhi Cantonment. In 2023, the Southern Command was responsible for the parade in Bengaluru. It was the first time the Army Day parade was held outside the country’s capital. This year, the parade will be held under the command of the Army’s ‘Central Command, which is headquartered in Lucknow. The theme of Indian Army Day 2024 is “In Service of the Nation”. This year’s theme also resembles the motto of the Indian Army, “Service Before Self.” Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements about ‘Kalaram Mandir’: It is the site of a landmark agitation led by Babasaheb Ambedkar demanding temple entry rights for Dalits. It is located on the banks of Krishna in the Panchavati area of Nashik in Maharashtra. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Kalaram Mandir is the site of a landmark agitation led by Babasaheb Ambedkar demanding temple entry rights for Dalits. Hence statement 1 is correct. In 1930, B R Ambedkar and the Marathi teacher and social activist Pandurang Sadashiv Sane, known as Sane Guruji, led an agitation to demand access for Dalits to Hindu temples. It derives its name from a black statue of the Lord — Kala Ram translates literally to “Black Ram”. It was built in 1792 with the efforts of Sardar Rangarao Odhekar. It is located on the banks of Godavari in the Panchavati area of Nashik in Maharashtra. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Its sanctum sanctorum has statues of Ram, Sita, and Lakshman, and a black idol of Hanuman at the main entrance. The main temple has 14 steps, which represent the 14 years of Ram’s exile. It has 84 pillars, which represents the cycle of 84 lakh species that one has to complete to be born as a human. Incorrect Solution (a) Kalaram Mandir is the site of a landmark agitation led by Babasaheb Ambedkar demanding temple entry rights for Dalits. Hence statement 1 is correct. In 1930, B R Ambedkar and the Marathi teacher and social activist Pandurang Sadashiv Sane, known as Sane Guruji, led an agitation to demand access for Dalits to Hindu temples. It derives its name from a black statue of the Lord — Kala Ram translates literally to “Black Ram”. It was built in 1792 with the efforts of Sardar Rangarao Odhekar. It is located on the banks of Godavari in the Panchavati area of Nashik in Maharashtra. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Its sanctum sanctorum has statues of Ram, Sita, and Lakshman, and a black idol of Hanuman at the main entrance. The main temple has 14 steps, which represent the 14 years of Ram’s exile. It has 84 pillars, which represents the cycle of 84 lakh species that one has to complete to be born as a human. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements about’ Punganur Cow’: It is native to the Indian state of Telangana. It has a high resilience to drought and can adapt to low-quality feed. Its milk is rich in nutrients such as Omega fatty acids, calcium, potassium, and magnesium. Its milk has cultural significance as it is used for Ksheeraabhishekam in Tirupati Thirumala Temple. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Punganur Cow is native to Punganur village in the Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It has a high resilience to drought and can adapt to low-quality feed. They are considered eco-friendly, requiring less water, feed, and space compared to hybrid breeds. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is white, grey, or light brown to dark brown or red. Sometimes, animals with white colour mixed with red, brown, or black patches are also seen. Its milk is rich in nutrients such as Omega fatty acids, calcium, potassium, and magnesium. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is also prized for its milk, which boasts a higher fat content, making it ideal for producing ghee. A Punganur cow can give around 1 to 3 litres a day, and the milk fat content is 8 percent as compared to 3 to 4 percent in other native breeds. Its milk has cultural significance as it is used for Ksheeraabhishekam in Tirupati Thirumala Temple. Hence statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Punganur Cow is native to Punganur village in the Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It has a high resilience to drought and can adapt to low-quality feed. They are considered eco-friendly, requiring less water, feed, and space compared to hybrid breeds. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is white, grey, or light brown to dark brown or red. Sometimes, animals with white colour mixed with red, brown, or black patches are also seen. Its milk is rich in nutrients such as Omega fatty acids, calcium, potassium, and magnesium. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is also prized for its milk, which boasts a higher fat content, making it ideal for producing ghee. A Punganur cow can give around 1 to 3 litres a day, and the milk fat content is 8 percent as compared to 3 to 4 percent in other native breeds. Its milk has cultural significance as it is used for Ksheeraabhishekam in Tirupati Thirumala Temple. Hence statement 4 is correct. Question 31 of 35 31. Question The number of ways of arranging n students in a row such that no two boys sit together and no two girls sit together is m(m>100). If one more student is added, then number of ways of arranging as above increases by 200%. The value of n is: a) 8 b) 12 c) 10 d) 9 Correct Solution (c) If n is even, then the number of boys should be equal to number of girls, let each be a. ⇒ n = 2a Then the number of arrangements = 2 × a! × a! If one more students is added, then number of arrangements, = a! × (a + 1)! But this is 200% more than the earlier ⇒ 3 × (2 × a! × a!) = a! × (a + 1)! ⇒ a + 1 = 6 and a = 5 ⇒ n = 10 But if n is odd, then number of arrangements, = a!(a + 1)! Where, n = 2a + 1 When one student is included, number of arrangements, = 2(a + 1)! (a + 1)! By the given condition, 2(a + 1) = 3, which is not possible Incorrect Solution (c) If n is even, then the number of boys should be equal to number of girls, let each be a. ⇒ n = 2a Then the number of arrangements = 2 × a! × a! If one more students is added, then number of arrangements, = a! × (a + 1)! But this is 200% more than the earlier ⇒ 3 × (2 × a! × a!) = a! × (a + 1)! ⇒ a + 1 = 6 and a = 5 ⇒ n = 10 But if n is odd, then number of arrangements, = a!(a + 1)! Where, n = 2a + 1 When one student is included, number of arrangements, = 2(a + 1)! (a + 1)! By the given condition, 2(a + 1) = 3, which is not possible Question 32 of 35 32. Question A gardener plants his garden with 5550 trees and arranged them so that there is one tree more per row as there are rows. Then the number of trees in a row are? a) 74 b) 56 c) 66 d) 75 Correct Solution (d) Let there be n rows, then number of trees in each row = (n + 1) Thus, total number of trees, n × (n +1) = 5550 Now, at this moment this problem can be solved in two ways. First by finding the roots of quadratic equation. Second, by using the values from options. 74 × 75 = 5550 i.e. (n + 1) = 75. Incorrect Solution (d) Let there be n rows, then number of trees in each row = (n + 1) Thus, total number of trees, n × (n +1) = 5550 Now, at this moment this problem can be solved in two ways. First by finding the roots of quadratic equation. Second, by using the values from options. 74 × 75 = 5550 i.e. (n + 1) = 75. Question 33 of 35 33. Question In a camp, there is a meal for 120 men or 200 children. If 150 children have taken the meal, how many men will be catered to with remaining meal? a) 30 b) 20 c) 50 d) 40 Correct Solution (a) There is a meal for 200 children 150 children have taken the meal Remaining meal is to be catered to 50 children Now, 200 children = 120 men ∴ 50 children = ((120/200*50)) men = 30 men Incorrect Solution (a) There is a meal for 200 children 150 children have taken the meal Remaining meal is to be catered to 50 children Now, 200 children = 120 men ∴ 50 children = ((120/200*50)) men = 30 men Question 34 of 35 34. Question Two friends A and B simultaneously start running around a circular track. They run in the same direction. A travels at 6 m/s and B runs at b m/s. If they cross each other at exactly two points on the circular track and b is a natural number less than 30, how many values can b take? a) 3 b) 4 c) 7 d) 5 Correct Solution (a) Let the total length of the track be equal to L . Relative speed of A with respect to B =b−6 Hence time when they meet for the first time =L/b−6 Time taken by A to complete one full lap of the track =L/6 Time taken by B to complete one full lap of the track =L/b Thus time when they meet at the starting point for the first time =L/HCF(b,6) Number of times they meet on starting point = time taken to meet at the starting point / time taken for meeting the first time =b−6/HCF(b,6) This is equal to 2 according to the question Therefore, b−6HCF(b,6)=2 Since less than 30, only values of b that satisfy the above equation are 2,10,18 . Hence there are 3 values that b can take. Incorrect Solution (a) Let the total length of the track be equal to L . Relative speed of A with respect to B =b−6 Hence time when they meet for the first time =L/b−6 Time taken by A to complete one full lap of the track =L/6 Time taken by B to complete one full lap of the track =L/b Thus time when they meet at the starting point for the first time =L/HCF(b,6) Number of times they meet on starting point = time taken to meet at the starting point / time taken for meeting the first time =b−6/HCF(b,6) This is equal to 2 according to the question Therefore, b−6HCF(b,6)=2 Since less than 30, only values of b that satisfy the above equation are 2,10,18 . Hence there are 3 values that b can take. Question 35 of 35 35. Question Abhishek divides some mangoes among four boys. He gives 1/4th to the first boy, 1/3rd of the remaining to the second boy, 1⁄2 of the remaining to the third boy and the remaining 20 to the fourth boy. How many mangoes he had in the beginning? a) 120 b) 40 c) 160 d) 80 Correct Solution (d) Let the initial number of mangoes be ‘x’ Then, x – (1/4)x = 3x/4 3x/4 – 1/3 * 3x/ 4 = x/2 x/2 – 1/2 * x/2 = x/4 x/4 = 20 x = 80 Incorrect Solution (d) Let the initial number of mangoes be ‘x’ Then, x – (1/4)x = 3x/4 3x/4 – 1/3 * 3x/ 4 = x/2 x/2 – 1/2 * x/2 = x/4 x/4 = 20 x = 80 window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3636', init: { quizId: 3636, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"32244":{"type":"single","id":32244,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32245":{"type":"single","id":32245,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32247":{"type":"single","id":32247,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32248":{"type":"single","id":32248,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32249":{"type":"single","id":32249,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32251":{"type":"single","id":32251,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32252":{"type":"single","id":32252,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32253":{"type":"single","id":32253,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32255":{"type":"single","id":32255,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32257":{"type":"single","id":32257,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32258":{"type":"single","id":32258,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32259":{"type":"single","id":32259,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32262":{"type":"single","id":32262,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32264":{"type":"single","id":32264,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32265":{"type":"single","id":32265,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32268":{"type":"single","id":32268,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32269":{"type":"single","id":32269,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32271":{"type":"single","id":32271,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32272":{"type":"single","id":32272,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32274":{"type":"single","id":32274,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32277":{"type":"single","id":32277,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32280":{"type":"single","id":32280,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32282":{"type":"single","id":32282,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32284":{"type":"single","id":32284,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32286":{"type":"single","id":32286,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32289":{"type":"single","id":32289,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32292":{"type":"single","id":32292,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32293":{"type":"single","id":32293,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32296":{"type":"single","id":32296,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32299":{"type":"single","id":32299,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32300":{"type":"single","id":32300,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32303":{"type":"single","id":32303,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32306":{"type":"single","id":32306,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32307":{"type":"single","id":32307,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32309":{"type":"single","id":32309,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba