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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Nuclear waste Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Science Context: Recently, India loaded the core of its long-delayed prototype fast breeder reactor (PFBR) vessel. Background:- Large-scale use of nuclear power is accompanied by a difficult problem: waste management. About Nuclear Waste:-   In a fission reactor, neutrons bombard the nuclei of atoms of certain elements. When one such nucleus absorbs a neutron, it destabilises and breaks up, yielding some energy and the nuclei of different elements. For example, when the uranium-235 (U-235) nucleus absorbs a neutron, it can fission to barium-144, krypton-89, and three neutrons. If the ‘debris’ (barium-144 and krypton-89) constitute elements that can’t undergo fission, they become nuclear waste. Fuel that is loaded into a nuclear reactor will become irradiated and will eventually have to be unloaded.At this stage it is called spent fuel. The spent fuel contains all the radioactive fission products that are produced when each nucleus breaks apart to produce energy, as well as those radioactive elements, produced when uranium is converted into heavier elements following the absorption of neutrons and subsequent radioactive decays. Handling the spent fuel is the main challenge: it is hot and radioactive, and needs to be kept underwater. Once it has cooled, it can be transferred to dry casks for longer-term storage. All countries with longstanding nuclear power programmes have accumulated a considerable inventory of spent fuel. For example, the U.S. had 69,682 tonnes (as of 2015), Canada 54,000 tonnes (2016), and Russia 21,362 tonnes (2014). Depending on radioactivity levels, the storage period can run up to a few millennia, meaning they have to be isolated from human contact for periods of time that are longer than anatomically modern Homo sapiens have been around on the planet. How is nuclear waste dealt with? Once spent fuel has been cooled in the spent-fuel pool for at least a year, it can be moved to dry-cask storage, and is placed inside large steel cylinders and surrounded by an inert gas. The cylinders are sealed shut and placed inside larger steel or concrete chambers. Reprocessing — the name for technologies that separate fissile from non-fissile material in spent fuel — is another way to deal with the spent fuel. Here, the material is chemically treated to separate fissile material left behind from the non-fissile material. Because spent fuel is so hazardous, reprocessing facilities need specialised protections and personnel of their own. Such facilities present the advantage of higher fuel efficiency but are also expensive. Source: Hindu Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Assam Cabinet on March 10 decided to de-notify a prime one-horned rhino habitat – the Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary about 48km east of Guwahati. Background: Environment activists says the decision, taken 26 years after the Assam Forest Department notified Pobitora as a wildlife sanctuary on March 17, 1998, is the first of its kind for any protected area in the country. About Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary  Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary on the southern bank of the Brahmaputra in Morigaon district in Assam, India. The sanctuary has the highest concentration of the one-horned rhinos on earth. The Grasslands of Pobitora offer sightings of the Greater One Horned Rhinoceros, Wild Water Buffalo, Monitor Lizard, Wild Boar, etc. Pobitora also holds the distinction of being the source population of the Indian Rhinoceros Vision, 2020 (IRV), Eight Rhinos were translocated from Pobitora Wild life Sanctuary and introduced into Manas National Park Source: Hindu AGNI-5 MISSILE WITH MIRV TECHNOLOGY Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Recently, India successfully conducted the first flight test of indigenously developed Agni-5 missile with Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) technology from Dr A P J Abdul Kalam Island off the coast of Odisha. Background: The flight test was conducted as part of India’s ‘Mission Divyastra’. About Agni-V: The Agni-V is an advanced surface-to-surface ballistic missile developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) in India. The Agni-V is an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) developed indigenously by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India. It’s a fire-and-forget missile, which means once fired, it doesn’t require further guidance and can’t be stopped without an interceptor missile. The missile has a range of over 5000 km, making it capable of hitting targets beyond this range. It can carry a warhead of about 1500 kg. The Agni series of missiles, which includes Agni-1 to Agni-5, forms the backbone of India’s nuclear launch capability. Agni-V has been successfully tested multiple times since 2012. Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) Technology The latest variant of the Agni missile is equipped with MIRV (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle) technology. MIRV technology allows a single missile to deploy multiple warheads at different locations or at the same location with a time gap. This technology significantly enhances the missile’s effectiveness by enabling it to hit multiple targets simultaneously. Agni-V’s MIRV capability is aimed primarily at countering challenges from China. These missiles can be launched from land or from sea from a submarine. Global Context: Currently, only a handful of countries possess MIRV-equipped missiles. These countries include the United States, Russia, China, France, and the United Kingdom. While Pakistan is developing such a missile system, there are suspicions that Israel may also possess or be developing one. Previous Year Question Q1. With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 SABROOM LAND PORT Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi virtually inaugurated the 3rd Land Port at Sabroom in South Tripura. Background: In addition to the modern Land Port in Sabroom, the Prime Minister inaugurated 11 projects in Tripura. About SABROOM LAND PORT : The Sabroom Land Port is strategically located in the South Tripura district of the state of Tripura, India, along the international border with Bangladesh. It plays a vital role in linking India and Bangladesh, facilitating cross-border trade. Sabroom is directly connected to the Chittagong port of Bangladesh via the Maitree bridge over the River Feni, which is approximately 75 km from the proposed land port. The land port provides facilities such as a passenger terminal building, cargo administrative building, and warehouse. It aims to enhance connectivity and boost trade between India and Southeast Asia. Source: Times of India AVAANA SUSTAINABILITY FUND (ASF) Syllabus Prelims -Current Event Context: Recently, SIDBI has secured a substantial investment of $24.5 million from the Green Climate Fund (GCF) for its Avaana Sustainability Fund (ASF). Background: The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is the world’s largest climate fund, established within the framework of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. Its mission is to assist developing countries in both adaptation and mitigation practices to counter the effects of climate change. About AVAANA SUSTAINABILITY FUND (ASF): The Avaana Sustainability Fund (ASF) is a USD 120 million venture capital fund that aims to invest in early-stage climate technology companies in India. This fund is launched by the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). ASF focuses on supporting the transition to low-carbon and climate-resilient development pathways by investing in innovative technologies across key sectors such as sustainable resource management, mobility and supply chains, and sustainable agriculture and food systems. ASF’s strategies include investing in low-carbon and climate-resilient businesses, adding value for climate and sustainability leaders, establishing a virtuous cycle of sourcing and value addition for the larger ecosystem, and focusing on social, economic, and environmental impact with tailored investment strategies across various sectors. The ASF project has been approved by the Green Climate Fund (GCF) and aims to contribute to India’s efforts in addressing climate challenges and promoting sustainable solution. Source: Economic Times Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: Parliament passed the Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023, to provide for one-third reservation to women in the Lok Sabha, State Assemblies, and the Assembly of NCT of Delhi. Background: The Constitution amendment Bill was passed by the Lok Sabha with near-unanimity, with only two members opposing it and was unanimously passed by the Rajya Sabha. Key features of the Act: It provided for inserting Article 330A into the constitution, which borrows from the provisions of Article 330, which provides for the reservation of seats to SCs/STs in the Lok Sabha. It provided that reserved seats for women may be allotted by rotation to different constituencies in states or Union Territories. In the seats reserved for SCs/STs, it sought to provide one-third of the seats to be reserved for women on a rotational basis. It introduces Article 332A, which mandates the reservation of seats for women in every state legislative assembly. Additionally, one-third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs must be allocated for women, and one-third of the total seats filled through direct elections to the Legislative Assemblies shall also be reserved for women. It added a new clause in 239AA to the constitution that grants special status to the Union Territory of Delhi as the national capital concerning its administrative and legislative functioning. Article 239AA(2)(b) was amended to add that the laws framed by parliament shall apply to the National Capital Territory of Delhi. It added new Article 334A which states that the reservation will be effective after the census conducted after the commencement of this Act has been published. Based on the census, delimitation will be undertaken to reserve seats for women. The reservation will be provided for 15 years. However, it shall continue till such date as determined by a law made by Parliament. Seats reserved for women will be rotated after each delimitation, as determined by a law made by Parliament. Issues/Concerns with the Act: The idea of reservation runs counter to the principle of equality enshrined in the Constitution, as women may not be competing on merit. Reservation of seats for women in legislature restricts voter’s choices and runs counter to the idea of self-determination. Women are not a homogeneous community, such as a caste group. Therefore, the arguments made for caste-based reservations cannot be made for women. There are larger issues of electoral reforms such as the criminalization of politics, internal democracy in political parties, etc., that might act as an impediment to the political empowerment of women. The act provides for the reservation of 1/3rd seats across all Lok Sabha seats as against the provision of reserving 1/3rd seats in each State/UT as mentioned in the 2008 bill. The act provides for the rotation of seats after every delimitation exercise as against after every general election to the Parliament/ State legislative assemblies. The Act does not contain any provision for reservation for women in Rajya Sabha and Legislative Councils of the States. Geeta Mukherjee Committee (1996) recommended providing reservations for women in Rajya Sabha and Legislative Councils as well. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.)With reference to the Avaana Sustainability Fund (ASF), consider the following statements: The Avaana Sustainability Fund (ASF) is a venture capital fund. It aims to invest in early-stage climate technology companies in India. It is launched by the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q2.) The Sabroom Land Port, recently seen in news is located in India, along the international border with Myanmar Bangladesh Nepal Bhutan Q3.) With reference to the Agni-V Missile, consider the following statements: Agni-V is an advanced surface-to-surface ballistic missile. It is developed indigenously by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India. Agni-V missile with MIRV technology can carry multiple warheads that can independently target different locations. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  13th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  12th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – a Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th March 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.  To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 09] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – ECONOMY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Which among the following parameters is/are used for the calculation of GDP at Basic Price? Cost of factors of production, such as land, labour and capital Production subsidies Product taxes Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Cost of factors of production, such as land, labour and capital are one of the parameters used for calculation of GDP at Basic Price. Production subsidies is one of the parameters used for calculation of GDP at Basic Price. Product taxes is not a parameter used for calculation of GDP at Basic Price. Note: The Basic Price is the price expected to be received by the producer. It is calculated as: ‘Factor Cost ‘+ ‘Production Taxes ‘– ‘Production Subsidies ‘. Hence, GDP at Basic Price = ‘GDP at Factor Cost’ + ‘Production Taxes’ – ‘Production Subsidies’. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Cost of factors of production, such as land, labour and capital are one of the parameters used for calculation of GDP at Basic Price. Production subsidies is one of the parameters used for calculation of GDP at Basic Price. Product taxes is not a parameter used for calculation of GDP at Basic Price. Note: The Basic Price is the price expected to be received by the producer. It is calculated as: ‘Factor Cost ‘+ ‘Production Taxes ‘– ‘Production Subsidies ‘. Hence, GDP at Basic Price = ‘GDP at Factor Cost’ + ‘Production Taxes’ – ‘Production Subsidies’. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Which among the following can be considered either as ‘Production tax/taxes or Production subsidy/subsidies? Stamp Duty Goods and Services Tax (GST) Subsidies on food and kerosene Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Stamp Duty à Production Tax GST à Product Tax   Subsidies on food and kerosene à Product Subsidy   Note: Production Taxes or Production Subsidies: Production taxes or production subsidies are paid or received with relation to production and are independent of the volume of actual production. Some examples of production taxes are land revenues, stamps and registration fees, and tax on profession. Some production subsidies include subsidies to the railways, input subsidies to the farmers, subsidies to the village and small industries, administrative subsidies to the corporations or co-operatives, etc. Product Tax or Product Subsidy: Product taxes or subsidies are paid or received on per unit of product. Some examples of product taxes are excise tax, sales tax, service tax, and import and export duties. Product subsidies include food, petroleum and fertilizer subsidies, interest subsidies given to the farmers, households, etc. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Stamp Duty à Production Tax GST à Product Tax   Subsidies on food and kerosene à Product Subsidy   Note: Production Taxes or Production Subsidies: Production taxes or production subsidies are paid or received with relation to production and are independent of the volume of actual production. Some examples of production taxes are land revenues, stamps and registration fees, and tax on profession. Some production subsidies include subsidies to the railways, input subsidies to the farmers, subsidies to the village and small industries, administrative subsidies to the corporations or co-operatives, etc. Product Tax or Product Subsidy: Product taxes or subsidies are paid or received on per unit of product. Some examples of product taxes are excise tax, sales tax, service tax, and import and export duties. Product subsidies include food, petroleum and fertilizer subsidies, interest subsidies given to the farmers, households, etc. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Which among the following correctly depicts/depict the nature of relationship between the GDP at Factor Cost, Basic Price and Market Price? GDP at Market Price = GDP at Factor Cost + Product Taxes – Product Subsidies GDP at Basic Price = GDP at Factor Cost + Production taxes – Production Subsidies GDP at Market Price = GDP at Basic Price + Product Taxes – Product Subsidies Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 3 only d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution (d) Relationship between GDP at Market Price and GDP at Basic Price: GDP at Market Price = GDP at Basic Price + Product Taxes – Product Subsidies Relationship between GDP at Market Price and GDP at Factor Cost: GDP at Basic Price = GDP at Factor Cost + Production Taxes – Production Subsidies Substituting the value of GDP at Basic Price with GDP at Factor Cost in equation 1, GDP at Market Price = (GDP at Factor Cost + Production Taxes – Production Subsidies) + Product Taxes – Product Subsidies GDP at Market Price = GDP at Factor Cost + (Production Taxes + Product Taxes) – (Production Subsidies + Product Subsidies) GDP at Market price = GDP at Factor Cost + Indirect Taxes – Subsidies Incorrect Solution (d) Relationship between GDP at Market Price and GDP at Basic Price: GDP at Market Price = GDP at Basic Price + Product Taxes – Product Subsidies Relationship between GDP at Market Price and GDP at Factor Cost: GDP at Basic Price = GDP at Factor Cost + Production Taxes – Production Subsidies Substituting the value of GDP at Basic Price with GDP at Factor Cost in equation 1, GDP at Market Price = (GDP at Factor Cost + Production Taxes – Production Subsidies) + Product Taxes – Product Subsidies GDP at Market Price = GDP at Factor Cost + (Production Taxes + Product Taxes) – (Production Subsidies + Product Subsidies) GDP at Market price = GDP at Factor Cost + Indirect Taxes – Subsidies Question 4 of 35 4. Question If the Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) of a particular country is positive, what would it denote? a) GDP is higher than GNP b) GNP is higher than GDP c) Higher external liabilities of the country d) None of the above Correct Solution (b) The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures the value of goods and services produced within a country’s borders, by both the citizens and the noncitizens. On the other hand, the Gross National Product (GNP) measures the value of goods and services produced by only the country’s citizens, but both domestically and abroad. GNP = GDP + Income earned by the Indians outside India – Income earned by the foreigners within India. GNP = GDP + Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA). Incorrect Solution (b) The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures the value of goods and services produced within a country’s borders, by both the citizens and the noncitizens. On the other hand, the Gross National Product (GNP) measures the value of goods and services produced by only the country’s citizens, but both domestically and abroad. GNP = GDP + Income earned by the Indians outside India – Income earned by the foreigners within India. GNP = GDP + Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA). Question 5 of 35 5. Question With reference to the GDP estimation in India, consider the following statements: The GDP is estimated at the Market Prices, instead of the Factor Cost. The base year for the calculation of the GDP is 2011-12. The GDP is estimated by the National Statistical Office (NSO). How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The GDP is estimated at the Market Prices, instead of the Factor Cost. The base year for the calculation of the GDP is 2011-12. The GDP is estimated by the National Statistical Office (NSO). Note: Gross Domestic Product (GDP): The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) refers to the market value of all final goods and services produced within an economy.   Recent changes in the GDP estimation (2015): Change in the base year from 2004-05 to 2011-12. Usually, the base years are revised at a frequency of 7-10 years by taking into account the changing economic landscape of the country. Change in the GDP estimation from the GDP at the Factor Cost to GDP at the Market Prices. Change in the database for capturing economic activity from RBI’s database to the MCA-21 database of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. This database is basically used for two purposes: Estimate the production of goods and services in the organized sector, based upon the tax returns. Extrapolate the production of goods and services in the unorganized sector, based upon the organized sector activity. The GDP is estimated by the National Statistical Office (NSO). Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The GDP is estimated at the Market Prices, instead of the Factor Cost. The base year for the calculation of the GDP is 2011-12. The GDP is estimated by the National Statistical Office (NSO). Note: Gross Domestic Product (GDP): The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) refers to the market value of all final goods and services produced within an economy.   Recent changes in the GDP estimation (2015): Change in the base year from 2004-05 to 2011-12. Usually, the base years are revised at a frequency of 7-10 years by taking into account the changing economic landscape of the country. Change in the GDP estimation from the GDP at the Factor Cost to GDP at the Market Prices. Change in the database for capturing economic activity from RBI’s database to the MCA-21 database of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. This database is basically used for two purposes: Estimate the production of goods and services in the organized sector, based upon the tax returns. Extrapolate the production of goods and services in the unorganized sector, based upon the organized sector activity. The GDP is estimated by the National Statistical Office (NSO). Question 6 of 35 6. Question With reference to the ‘Veblen Goods’, consider the following statements: The demand for these goods increases with the increase in their prices. These goods are normally considered to be the ‘Inferior Goods’. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect ‘Veblen Goods‘ are the goods for which the demand increases as the price increases. Veblen goods are typically high-quality goods that are made well, are exclusive and are a status symbol. Veblen goods are generally sought after by the affluent consumers, who place a premium on the utility of the goods. Some of the examples include diamonds, iPhones, etc. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect ‘Veblen Goods‘ are the goods for which the demand increases as the price increases. Veblen goods are typically high-quality goods that are made well, are exclusive and are a status symbol. Veblen goods are generally sought after by the affluent consumers, who place a premium on the utility of the goods. Some of the examples include diamonds, iPhones, etc. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Consider the following statements: All the Giffen Goods are Inferior Goods, but all the Inferior Goods are not Giffen Goods. The demand for the Giffen Goods increases with the increase in their prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct A Giffen good is a type of inferior good, but not all inferior goods are Giffen goods. An inferior good is a good for which the quantity demanded decreases as its price increases, meaning that as the consumer’s income increases, they will demand less of the good. A Giffen good is a specific type of inferior good for which an increase in price leads to an increase in the quantity demanded, resulting in a violation of the basic law of demand. This occurs because the good is so poor in quality and expensive that as the price increases, it becomes a luxury item and consumers demand more of it. Giffen Goods are those goods whose demand increases with the increase in their prices. Note: Giffen Goods: In economics and consumer theory, a Giffen good is a product that people consume more of as the price rises and vice versa—violating the basic law of demand in microeconomics. For any other sort of good, as the price of the good rises, the substitution effect makes consumers purchase less of it, and more of substitute goods; for most goods, the income effect (due to the effective decline in available income due to more being spent on existing units of this good) reinforces this decline in demand for the good. But a Giffen good is so strongly an inferior good in the minds of consumers (being more in demand at lower incomes) that this contrary income effect more than offsets the substitution effect, and the net effect of the good’s price rise is to increase demand for it. This phenomenon is known as the Giffen paradox. A Giffen good is considered to be the opposite of an ordinary good. There are three necessary preconditions for this situation to arise: the good in question must be an inferior good, there must be a lack of close substitute goods, and the goods must constitute a substantial percentage of the buyer’s income, but not such a substantial percentage of the buyer’s income that none of the associated normal goods are consumed. Some examples of it are wheat, potatoes and Rice. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct A Giffen good is a type of inferior good, but not all inferior goods are Giffen goods. An inferior good is a good for which the quantity demanded decreases as its price increases, meaning that as the consumer’s income increases, they will demand less of the good. A Giffen good is a specific type of inferior good for which an increase in price leads to an increase in the quantity demanded, resulting in a violation of the basic law of demand. This occurs because the good is so poor in quality and expensive that as the price increases, it becomes a luxury item and consumers demand more of it. Giffen Goods are those goods whose demand increases with the increase in their prices. Note: Giffen Goods: In economics and consumer theory, a Giffen good is a product that people consume more of as the price rises and vice versa—violating the basic law of demand in microeconomics. For any other sort of good, as the price of the good rises, the substitution effect makes consumers purchase less of it, and more of substitute goods; for most goods, the income effect (due to the effective decline in available income due to more being spent on existing units of this good) reinforces this decline in demand for the good. But a Giffen good is so strongly an inferior good in the minds of consumers (being more in demand at lower incomes) that this contrary income effect more than offsets the substitution effect, and the net effect of the good’s price rise is to increase demand for it. This phenomenon is known as the Giffen paradox. A Giffen good is considered to be the opposite of an ordinary good. There are three necessary preconditions for this situation to arise: the good in question must be an inferior good, there must be a lack of close substitute goods, and the goods must constitute a substantial percentage of the buyer’s income, but not such a substantial percentage of the buyer’s income that none of the associated normal goods are consumed. Some examples of it are wheat, potatoes and Rice. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Which of the following is/ are the characteristics of a mixed economy? Maintaining private ownership. Economic freedom in the use of capital. Government control of the means of production of public goods. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Mixed economies typically maintain private ownership and control of most of the means of production, but often under government regulation. A mixed economic system protects private property and allows a level of economic freedom in the use of capital, but also allows for the governments to interfere in the economic activities, in order to achieve social aims. A mixed economy is an economy organized with some free-market elements and some socialistic elements, which lies on a continuum, somewhere between pure capitalism and pure socialism. Mixed economies socialize select industries that are deemed essential or that produce public goods. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Mixed economies typically maintain private ownership and control of most of the means of production, but often under government regulation. A mixed economic system protects private property and allows a level of economic freedom in the use of capital, but also allows for the governments to interfere in the economic activities, in order to achieve social aims. A mixed economy is an economy organized with some free-market elements and some socialistic elements, which lies on a continuum, somewhere between pure capitalism and pure socialism. Mixed economies socialize select industries that are deemed essential or that produce public goods. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Which of the following economic activities come under the tertiary sector of the economy? Transport Storage Food processing Communication Banking Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 4 and 5 only b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only c) 4 and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Statement 5 Correct Correct Incorrect Correct Correct Transportation is part of Tertiary Sector Storage is part of Tertiary Sector Food Processing is part of Primary or Secondary Sector Communication is part of Tertiary Sector Banking is part of Tertiary Sector Note: Primary Sector: When we produce goods by exploiting the natural resources, it is an activity of the primary sector. This is because it forms the base for all other products that we subsequently make. Since most of the natural products we get are from agriculture, dairy, fishing and forestry, this sector is also called agriculture and related sector. Secondary Sector: The secondary sector covers activities in which the natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity. It is the next step after primary. The product is not produced by nature, but has to be made and, therefore, some process of manufacturing is essential. This could be in a factory, a workshop or at home. For example, using cotton fibre from the plant, we spin yarn and weave cloth. Tertiary Sector: After primary and secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under the tertiary sector and is different from the above two. These are the activities that help in the development of the primary and the secondary sectors. These activities, by themselves, do not produce goods, but they are an aid or a support for the production process. For example, goods that are produced in the primary or secondary sector would need to be transported by trucks or trains and then sold in the wholesale and retail shops. At times, it may be necessary to store these in godowns. Transport, storage, communication, banking and trade are some examples of tertiary activities. Since these activities generate services rather than goods, the tertiary sector is also called the service sector. Service sector also includes some essential services that may not directly help in the production of goods. For example, we require teachers, doctors, and those who provide personal services, such as washermen, barbers, cobblers, lawyers and people to do administrative and accounting works. In recent times, certain new services, based on information technology, such as internet cafe, ATM booths, call centres, software companies, etc., have become important. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Statement 5 Correct Correct Incorrect Correct Correct Transportation is part of Tertiary Sector Storage is part of Tertiary Sector Food Processing is part of Primary or Secondary Sector Communication is part of Tertiary Sector Banking is part of Tertiary Sector Note: Primary Sector: When we produce goods by exploiting the natural resources, it is an activity of the primary sector. This is because it forms the base for all other products that we subsequently make. Since most of the natural products we get are from agriculture, dairy, fishing and forestry, this sector is also called agriculture and related sector. Secondary Sector: The secondary sector covers activities in which the natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity. It is the next step after primary. The product is not produced by nature, but has to be made and, therefore, some process of manufacturing is essential. This could be in a factory, a workshop or at home. For example, using cotton fibre from the plant, we spin yarn and weave cloth. Tertiary Sector: After primary and secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under the tertiary sector and is different from the above two. These are the activities that help in the development of the primary and the secondary sectors. These activities, by themselves, do not produce goods, but they are an aid or a support for the production process. For example, goods that are produced in the primary or secondary sector would need to be transported by trucks or trains and then sold in the wholesale and retail shops. At times, it may be necessary to store these in godowns. Transport, storage, communication, banking and trade are some examples of tertiary activities. Since these activities generate services rather than goods, the tertiary sector is also called the service sector. Service sector also includes some essential services that may not directly help in the production of goods. For example, we require teachers, doctors, and those who provide personal services, such as washermen, barbers, cobblers, lawyers and people to do administrative and accounting works. In recent times, certain new services, based on information technology, such as internet cafe, ATM booths, call centres, software companies, etc., have become important. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Consider the following statements about the Human Capital Index: It is published by the World Economic Forum. It is a measure of poverty in various countries. Income per household is one of the components used by the Index. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Human Capital Index is published by the World Bank. The Human Capital Index (HCI) measures the human capital that a child born today can expect to attain by her 18th birthday, given the risks of poor health and poor education prevailing in her country. Components : 1: Survival from birth to school age, measured using under-5 mortality rates. Component 2: Expected years of learning-adjusted school, combining information on the quantity and quality of education. Component 3: Health – In the absence of a single broadly-accepted, directly measured and widely available metric, the overall health environment is captured by two proxies- a)         Adult survival rates, defined as the fraction of 15-year-olds who survive until age 60 b)         The rate of stunting for children under age 5.   Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Human Capital Index is published by the World Bank. The Human Capital Index (HCI) measures the human capital that a child born today can expect to attain by her 18th birthday, given the risks of poor health and poor education prevailing in her country. Components : 1: Survival from birth to school age, measured using under-5 mortality rates. Component 2: Expected years of learning-adjusted school, combining information on the quantity and quality of education. Component 3: Health – In the absence of a single broadly-accepted, directly measured and widely available metric, the overall health environment is captured by two proxies- a)         Adult survival rates, defined as the fraction of 15-year-olds who survive until age 60 b)         The rate of stunting for children under age 5.   Question 11 of 35 11. Question Which of the following are the examples of human capital? Knowledge of the bus driver. Construction of a factory. Increase in the number of doctors. Publication of school books. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 2 and 4 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect The owner of a physical capital, say a bus, need not be present in the place where it is used; whereas, a bus driver, who possesses the knowledge and ability to drive the bus, should be present when the bus is used for transportation of people and materials. Construction of a factory is a physical capital. Increase in the number of doctors is an increase in the human capital. Publication of school books is a part of physical capital. However, it helps in augmenting human capital. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect The owner of a physical capital, say a bus, need not be present in the place where it is used; whereas, a bus driver, who possesses the knowledge and ability to drive the bus, should be present when the bus is used for transportation of people and materials. Construction of a factory is a physical capital. Increase in the number of doctors is an increase in the human capital. Publication of school books is a part of physical capital. However, it helps in augmenting human capital. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following statements regarding the World Bank’s classification of the world economies: The World Bank classifies the world’s economies into four income groups namely high, upper-middle, lower-middle and low. The classification is based on estimates of a country’s Gross National Income (GNI) per capita. India and China fall in the same category of the World Bank’s classification. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The World Bank classifies economies for analytical purposes into four income groups: low, lower-middle, upper-middle, and high income. For this purpose, it uses gross national income (GNI) per capita data in U.S. dollars, converted from local currency using the World Bank Atlas method, which is applied to smooth exchange rate fluctuations. Estimates of GNI are obtained from economists in World Bank country units who rely primarily on official data published by the countries; the size of the population is estimated by World Bank demographers from a variety of sources, including the UN’s biennial World Population Prospects. Countries are classified each year on July 1, based on the estimate of their GNI per capita for the previous calendar year. Income groupings remain fixed for the entire World Bank fiscal year (i.e., until July 1 of the following year), even if GNI per capita estimates are revised in the meantime. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The World Bank classifies the world’s economies into four income groups – high, upper-middle, lower- middle, and low. This assignment is based on Gross National Income (GNI) per capita (current US$). The classification is updated each year on July 1st. India currently falls in the World Bank’s lower-middle income category while China currently falls in the    upper-middle income category. Incorrect Solution (b) The World Bank classifies economies for analytical purposes into four income groups: low, lower-middle, upper-middle, and high income. For this purpose, it uses gross national income (GNI) per capita data in U.S. dollars, converted from local currency using the World Bank Atlas method, which is applied to smooth exchange rate fluctuations. Estimates of GNI are obtained from economists in World Bank country units who rely primarily on official data published by the countries; the size of the population is estimated by World Bank demographers from a variety of sources, including the UN’s biennial World Population Prospects. Countries are classified each year on July 1, based on the estimate of their GNI per capita for the previous calendar year. Income groupings remain fixed for the entire World Bank fiscal year (i.e., until July 1 of the following year), even if GNI per capita estimates are revised in the meantime. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The World Bank classifies the world’s economies into four income groups – high, upper-middle, lower- middle, and low. This assignment is based on Gross National Income (GNI) per capita (current US$). The classification is updated each year on July 1st. India currently falls in the World Bank’s lower-middle income category while China currently falls in the    upper-middle income category. Question 13 of 35 13. Question The maximum amount of income available within a domestic economy for the consumption of goods and services is termed as: a) Gross Domestic Product b) Gross National Product c) National Disposable Income d) Gross Value Added Correct Solution (c) National Disposable Income is the maximum amount of goods and services a country has which could be used for the purpose of saving and consumption. It is obtained by adding Net National Product at market prices with current transfers from the rest of the world. It gives an idea of what is the maximum amount of goods and services the domestic economy has at its Incorrect Solution (c) National Disposable Income is the maximum amount of goods and services a country has which could be used for the purpose of saving and consumption. It is obtained by adding Net National Product at market prices with current transfers from the rest of the world. It gives an idea of what is the maximum amount of goods and services the domestic economy has at its Question 14 of 35 14. Question With reference to “Income elasticity of demand”, which of the following statements is/are correct? Normal goods have a positive income elasticity of demand. Inferior goods have a negative income elasticity of demand. Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Normal goods have a positive income elasticity of demand. As incomes rise, more goods are demanded at each price level. The quantity demanded for normal necessities will increase with income, but at a slower rate than luxury goods. This is because consumers, rather than buying more of the necessities, will likely use their increased income to purchase more luxury goods and services. Inferior goods have a negative income elasticity of demand – the quantity demanded for inferior goods falls as incomes rise. For example, the quantity demanded for generic food items tends to decrease during periods of increased incomes.   Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Normal goods have a positive income elasticity of demand. As incomes rise, more goods are demanded at each price level. The quantity demanded for normal necessities will increase with income, but at a slower rate than luxury goods. This is because consumers, rather than buying more of the necessities, will likely use their increased income to purchase more luxury goods and services. Inferior goods have a negative income elasticity of demand – the quantity demanded for inferior goods falls as incomes rise. For example, the quantity demanded for generic food items tends to decrease during periods of increased incomes.   Question 15 of 35 15. Question “These are final goods that are of a durable character. They make the production of other commodities feasible, but they themselves don’t get transformed into the production goods. They gradually undergo wear and tear, and thus are repaired or gradually replaced over time” Which of the following is described in the above passage? a) Consumption goods b) Capital goods c) Intermediate goods d) Consumer durables Correct Solution (b) Final Goods are the items which are meant for final use and will not pass through any more stages of production or transformations are called a final Of the final goods, we can distinguish between consumption goods and capital Consumption goods are goods like food and clothing and services like recreation that are consumed when purchased by their ultimate Capital goods are those goods that are of a durable character which are used in the production These are tools, implements, and machines. While they make the production of other commodities feasible, they themselves don’t get transformed into the production process. Consumer durables are commodities like television sets, automobiles or home computers, although they are for ultimate consumption, have one characteristic in common with capital goods – they are also Of the total production taking place in the economy a large number of products do not end up in final consumption and are not capital goods Such goods may be used by other producers as material inputs. Examples are steel sheets used for making automobiles and copper used for making utensils. These are intermediate goods. Incorrect Solution (b) Final Goods are the items which are meant for final use and will not pass through any more stages of production or transformations are called a final Of the final goods, we can distinguish between consumption goods and capital Consumption goods are goods like food and clothing and services like recreation that are consumed when purchased by their ultimate Capital goods are those goods that are of a durable character which are used in the production These are tools, implements, and machines. While they make the production of other commodities feasible, they themselves don’t get transformed into the production process. Consumer durables are commodities like television sets, automobiles or home computers, although they are for ultimate consumption, have one characteristic in common with capital goods – they are also Of the total production taking place in the economy a large number of products do not end up in final consumption and are not capital goods Such goods may be used by other producers as material inputs. Examples are steel sheets used for making automobiles and copper used for making utensils. These are intermediate goods. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Which of the following is/are observed in an economy during the expansion phase of the economic cycle? High-interest rates Moderate to high inflation Increased unemployment Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect During the expansion phase, the economy experiences relatively rapid growth, interest rates tend to be low, and production increases. During the expansion phase, the economy experiences relatively moderate to high inflation due to rise in aggregate demand. In the expansion phase, there is an increase in various economic factors, such as production, employment, output, wages, profits, demand and supply of products, and sales. Thus, there is decrease in unemployment. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect During the expansion phase, the economy experiences relatively rapid growth, interest rates tend to be low, and production increases. During the expansion phase, the economy experiences relatively moderate to high inflation due to rise in aggregate demand. In the expansion phase, there is an increase in various economic factors, such as production, employment, output, wages, profits, demand and supply of products, and sales. Thus, there is decrease in unemployment. Question 17 of 35 17. Question In an open economy, for the barter system to operate successfully, which of the following principle must be completely satisfied? a) Law of diminishing returns b) Double coincidence of wants c) The law of supply d) The law of demand Correct Solution (b) Double coincidence of wants is a situation where two economic agents have complementary demand for each other’s surplus It refers to the simultaneous fulfilment of mutual wants of buyers and sellers. For example, a person with a particular good has to find a person who has the goods of his wants and he should also possess the wanted good of the other Incorrect Solution (b) Double coincidence of wants is a situation where two economic agents have complementary demand for each other’s surplus It refers to the simultaneous fulfilment of mutual wants of buyers and sellers. For example, a person with a particular good has to find a person who has the goods of his wants and he should also possess the wanted good of the other Question 18 of 35 18. Question In the Product method or Gross Value Added (GVA) method, the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is calculated by adding the gross value added (GVA) of all firms in the economy. Which of the following are used to find the GVA of a firm? Sales of the firm Change in inventories Value of intermediate goods used Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1 and 3 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct In the Product method or Gross Value Added (GVA) method, the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is calculated by adding the gross value added (GVA) of all firms in the economy. GVA = Value of sales by the firm + Value of change in inventories – Value of intermediate goods used by the firm. This equation has been derived by using; Change in inventories of a firm during a year = Production of the firm during the year – Sale of the firm during the year. Gross value added of firm = Gross value of the output produced by the firm – Value of intermediate goods used by the firm. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct In the Product method or Gross Value Added (GVA) method, the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is calculated by adding the gross value added (GVA) of all firms in the economy. GVA = Value of sales by the firm + Value of change in inventories – Value of intermediate goods used by the firm. This equation has been derived by using; Change in inventories of a firm during a year = Production of the firm during the year – Sale of the firm during the year. Gross value added of firm = Gross value of the output produced by the firm – Value of intermediate goods used by the firm. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Factor Cost is a measure of national income or output based on the cost of factors of production. Which of the following are included in the factor cost? Government grants Subsidies Customs duty Service tax Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (c) The total cost incurred in deploying all factors, which led to the production or generation of goods and commodities available in the market, is known as factor cost. Taxes paid to the government are not included in the factor cost since they are not directly engaged in the production process and so are not a component of the direct production cost. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Incorrect Factor cost refers to the actual cost of the various factors of production that includes government grants. Factor cost refers to the actual cost of the various factors of production that even includes subsidies. Factor cost excludes custom duty.   Factor cost excludes indirect taxes like service tax.   Incorrect Solution (c) The total cost incurred in deploying all factors, which led to the production or generation of goods and commodities available in the market, is known as factor cost. Taxes paid to the government are not included in the factor cost since they are not directly engaged in the production process and so are not a component of the direct production cost. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Incorrect Factor cost refers to the actual cost of the various factors of production that includes government grants. Factor cost refers to the actual cost of the various factors of production that even includes subsidies. Factor cost excludes custom duty.   Factor cost excludes indirect taxes like service tax.   Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following statements regarding GDP calculation. Newly produced goods are counted. Final goods and services are counted. Central Statistics Office (CSO) added care economy to calculate GDP. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Gross domestic product (GDP) is the single standard indicator used across the globe to indicate the health of a nation’s economy: one single number that represents the monetary value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country’s borders in a specific period. Only newly produced goods are counted. Transactions in existing goods, such as second-handed cars, are not included as these do not involve the production of new goods.   GDP measures the monetary value of final goods and services that is, those that are bought by the final user produced in a country in a given period of time Much of the work done by women at home taking care of the children, aged, chores etc. which is called care economy is outside the GDP. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Gross domestic product (GDP) is the single standard indicator used across the globe to indicate the health of a nation’s economy: one single number that represents the monetary value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country’s borders in a specific period. Only newly produced goods are counted. Transactions in existing goods, such as second-handed cars, are not included as these do not involve the production of new goods.   GDP measures the monetary value of final goods and services that is, those that are bought by the final user produced in a country in a given period of time Much of the work done by women at home taking care of the children, aged, chores etc. which is called care economy is outside the GDP. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements: The Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change notifies the green hydrogen standard for India. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is the nodal authority for accreditation of agencies for the certification of green hydrogen production projects. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy notifies the green hydrogen standard for India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Green hydrogen is the hydrogen derived from renewable energy sources, either via electrolysis or biomass conversion. It also encompasses green energy preserved in energy storage systems. The emission thresholds for the production of hydrogen to be classified as ‘green’ are – Green hydrogen having a well-to-gate emission of not more than two kg carbon dioxide (CO2) equivalent per kg hydrogen(H2). The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of Power will be the nodal authority for the accreditation of agencies for the monitoring, verification, and certification of green hydrogen production projects. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy notifies the green hydrogen standard for India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Green hydrogen is the hydrogen derived from renewable energy sources, either via electrolysis or biomass conversion. It also encompasses green energy preserved in energy storage systems. The emission thresholds for the production of hydrogen to be classified as ‘green’ are – Green hydrogen having a well-to-gate emission of not more than two kg carbon dioxide (CO2) equivalent per kg hydrogen(H2). The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of Power will be the nodal authority for the accreditation of agencies for the monitoring, verification, and certification of green hydrogen production projects. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 22 of 35 22. Question He was born on 25th December 1924. He was elected 10 times to the Lok Sabha from four different States. He was twice a member of the Rajya Sabha. He was the first non-Congress Prime Minister to have finished a full term. His birthday is observed as Good Governance Day. He advocated and practiced positive nationalism. He proudly took Hindi to the United Nations first time and spoke it in the UN General Assembly. He envisaged and executed the first round of Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana which connected rural India. He conducted the nuclear test in Pokhran. The above paragraph refers to which of the following personality? a) Morarji Desai b) P. V. Narasimha Rao c) H. D. Deve Gowda d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee Correct Solution (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee was born on 25th December 1924. He was elected 10 times to the Lok Sabha from four different States. He was twice a member of the Rajya Sabha. He was the first non-Congress Prime Minister to have finished a full term. He was Prime Minister thrice in 1996, 1998-1999, and 1999-2004. His birthday is observed as Good Governance Day. He advocated and practiced positive nationalism. He proudly took Hindi to the United Nations first time and spoke it in the UN General Assembly. He rode a bus to Lahore for Indo-Pak peace. He envisaged and executed the first round of Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana which connected rural India. He conducted the nuclear test in Pokhran. He brought in the National Highway Development Project leading to East West North South Corridor or the Golden Quadrilateral. The New Telecom Policy of 1999 brought in by him was also a crucial part of the Indian telecom revolution. He was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 1992 and India’s highest civilian honor, Bharat Ratna in 2015. Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee was born on 25th December 1924. He was elected 10 times to the Lok Sabha from four different States. He was twice a member of the Rajya Sabha. He was the first non-Congress Prime Minister to have finished a full term. He was Prime Minister thrice in 1996, 1998-1999, and 1999-2004. His birthday is observed as Good Governance Day. He advocated and practiced positive nationalism. He proudly took Hindi to the United Nations first time and spoke it in the UN General Assembly. He rode a bus to Lahore for Indo-Pak peace. He envisaged and executed the first round of Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana which connected rural India. He conducted the nuclear test in Pokhran. He brought in the National Highway Development Project leading to East West North South Corridor or the Golden Quadrilateral. The New Telecom Policy of 1999 brought in by him was also a crucial part of the Indian telecom revolution. He was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 1992 and India’s highest civilian honor, Bharat Ratna in 2015. Hence option d is correct. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Which of the following are the factors that influence the intensity of southwest monsoons in India? Strengths of high pressure over Tibet Strengths of low pressure over the southern Indian Ocean Somali Current Indian Ocean branch of Walker Cell Choose the correct code: a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) The factors that influence the intensity of southwest monsoons in India: Strengths of low pressure over Tibet Strengths of high pressure over the southern Indian Ocean Somali Current Indian Ocean branch of Walker Cell Indian Ocean Dipole Somali Jet Hence option b is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The factors that influence the intensity of southwest monsoons in India: Strengths of low pressure over Tibet Strengths of high pressure over the southern Indian Ocean Somali Current Indian Ocean branch of Walker Cell Indian Ocean Dipole Somali Jet Hence option b is correct. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements about the Grant for Research and Entrepreneurship across Aspiring Innovators in Technical Textiles (GREAT) scheme: It aims to support individuals and companies to translate prototypes into technologies & products, including commercialization. It is launched by the Ministry of Textiles to provide much-needed impetus for the development of the technical textiles startup ecosystem in India. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The Grant for Research and Entrepreneurship across Aspiring Innovators in Technical Textiles (GREAT) scheme aims to support individuals and companies to translate prototypes into technologies and products, including commercialization. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is launched by the Ministry of Textiles to provide much-needed impetus for the development of the technical textiles startup ecosystem in India, especially in niche sub-segments such as bio-degradable and sustainable textiles, high-performance and specialty fibers, and smart textiles. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Grant for Research and Entrepreneurship across Aspiring Innovators in Technical Textiles (GREAT) scheme aims to support individuals and companies to translate prototypes into technologies and products, including commercialization. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is launched by the Ministry of Textiles to provide much-needed impetus for the development of the technical textiles startup ecosystem in India, especially in niche sub-segments such as bio-degradable and sustainable textiles, high-performance and specialty fibers, and smart textiles. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements about the State of India’s Birds Report 2023: About 70% of bird species show clear declines over the past decades. Forest degradation, urbanization, and energy infrastructure are the major threats faced by birds. Raptors, migratory shorebirds, and ducks have experienced the most significant declines. How many of the above statements are correct?  a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Zero-day attack refers to an unknown vulnerability that can be exploited by any malicious The findings of the State of India’s Birds Report 2023 released by the State of India’s Birds Partnership are: About 39% of bird species show clear declines over the past decades. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 178 species classified as of High Conservation Priority, and require immediate attention. Forest degradation, urbanization, and energy infrastructure are the major threats faced by birds. Hence statement 2 is correct. Long-distance migratory birds, such as those from Eurasia and the Arctic, have suffered significant declines. Several species like the Indian Peafowl, Rock Pigeon, Asian Koel, and House Crow are thriving and increasing in both abundance and distribution. Raptors, migratory shorebirds, and ducks have experienced the most significant declines. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Zero-day attack refers to an unknown vulnerability that can be exploited by any malicious The findings of the State of India’s Birds Report 2023 released by the State of India’s Birds Partnership are: About 39% of bird species show clear declines over the past decades. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 178 species classified as of High Conservation Priority, and require immediate attention. Forest degradation, urbanization, and energy infrastructure are the major threats faced by birds. Hence statement 2 is correct. Long-distance migratory birds, such as those from Eurasia and the Arctic, have suffered significant declines. Several species like the Indian Peafowl, Rock Pigeon, Asian Koel, and House Crow are thriving and increasing in both abundance and distribution. Raptors, migratory shorebirds, and ducks have experienced the most significant declines. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements about Seethakali folk art: It is a centuries-old folk art form that originated in Kerala. It is based on certain episodes taken from the Indian epic Ramayana. Its props and instruments are made of natural materials like bamboo and palm leaves. How many of the above statements are correct?  a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Seethakali folk art is a centuries-old folk art form that originated in Kerala. Hence statement 1 is correct. This art form was first performed some 150 years back by the people of Vedar and Pulayar communities. It is based on certain episodes taken from the Indian epic Ramayana. Hence statement 2 is correct. Mythic characters such as Rama, Seetha, Ravana, and Hanuman come alive in Seethakali performances that portray the tale of Seetha’s journey, from the time she accompanied Rama to the woods to her ascent to the heavens. Its props and instruments are made of natural materials like bamboo and palm leaves. Hence statement 3 is correct. The costumes and the make-up are loud and eye-catching. The characters of Rama and Laxmana appear in green since the colour is used to represent gods and goddesses in Kathakali. Incorrect Solution (c) Seethakali folk art is a centuries-old folk art form that originated in Kerala. Hence statement 1 is correct. This art form was first performed some 150 years back by the people of Vedar and Pulayar communities. It is based on certain episodes taken from the Indian epic Ramayana. Hence statement 2 is correct. Mythic characters such as Rama, Seetha, Ravana, and Hanuman come alive in Seethakali performances that portray the tale of Seetha’s journey, from the time she accompanied Rama to the woods to her ascent to the heavens. Its props and instruments are made of natural materials like bamboo and palm leaves. Hence statement 3 is correct. The costumes and the make-up are loud and eye-catching. The characters of Rama and Laxmana appear in green since the colour is used to represent gods and goddesses in Kathakali. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements regarding the features of Nataraja: The upper left hand holds the drum which signifies the sound of creation. The upper right hand holds the eternal fire which signifies the destruction. The lower right hand is raised in the gesture of Abhay Mudra signifying benediction and reassuring the devotee to not be afraid. The lower left hand points towards the upraised foot and indicates the path of salvation. How many of the above statements are correct?  a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Nataraja is the representation of the Hindu god Shiva during his form as the cosmic dance. It is represented in metal or stone in many Shaivite temples, particularly in South India. It is an important piece of Chola sculpture. The features of Nataraja are: The upper right hand holds the drum which signifies the sound of creation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The upper left hand holds the eternal fire which signifies the destruction. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The lower right hand is raised in the gesture of Abhay Mudra signifying benediction and reassuring the devotee to not be afraid. Hence statement 3 is correct. The lower left hand points towards the upraised foot and indicates the path of salvation. Hence statement 4 is correct. Shiva is dancing on the figure of a small dwarf. The dwarf symbolizes ignorance and the ego of an individual. The matted and flowing locks of Shiva represent the flow of the river Ganges. In ornamentation, one ear of Shiva has a male earring while the other has a female. This represents the fusion of male and female and is often referred to as A snake is wrapped around the arm of Shiva. The snake symbolizes the kundalini power, which resides in the human spine in the dormant stage. Incorrect Solution (b) Nataraja is the representation of the Hindu god Shiva during his form as the cosmic dance. It is represented in metal or stone in many Shaivite temples, particularly in South India. It is an important piece of Chola sculpture. The features of Nataraja are: The upper right hand holds the drum which signifies the sound of creation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The upper left hand holds the eternal fire which signifies the destruction. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The lower right hand is raised in the gesture of Abhay Mudra signifying benediction and reassuring the devotee to not be afraid. Hence statement 3 is correct. The lower left hand points towards the upraised foot and indicates the path of salvation. Hence statement 4 is correct. Shiva is dancing on the figure of a small dwarf. The dwarf symbolizes ignorance and the ego of an individual. The matted and flowing locks of Shiva represent the flow of the river Ganges. In ornamentation, one ear of Shiva has a male earring while the other has a female. This represents the fusion of male and female and is often referred to as A snake is wrapped around the arm of Shiva. The snake symbolizes the kundalini power, which resides in the human spine in the dormant stage. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Horn of Africa: It consists of Somalia, Ethiopia, Eritrea, Libya, and Djibouti It is equidistant from the equator and the Tropic of Capricorn. It is a UNESCO Biodiversity Hotspot. How many of the above statements are correct?  a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) The Horn of Africa consists of Somalia, Ethiopia, Eritrea, and Djibouti. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Greater Horn of Africa region includes Burundi, Djibouti, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Kenya, Rwanda, Somalia, South Sudan, Sudan, Tanzania, and Uganda. It is equidistant from the equator and the Tropic of Cancer. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It extends out into the Arabian Sea for hundreds of kilometers. It is located along the south of the Gulf of Aden. It is a UNESCO Biodiversity Hotspot. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (a) The Horn of Africa consists of Somalia, Ethiopia, Eritrea, and Djibouti. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Greater Horn of Africa region includes Burundi, Djibouti, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Kenya, Rwanda, Somalia, South Sudan, Sudan, Tanzania, and Uganda. It is equidistant from the equator and the Tropic of Cancer. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It extends out into the Arabian Sea for hundreds of kilometers. It is located along the south of the Gulf of Aden. It is a UNESCO Biodiversity Hotspot. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 29 of 35 29. Question ‘Chail Wildlife Sanctuary’ which was in news recently is located in? a) Himachal Pradesh b) Rajasthan c) Arunanchal Pradesh d) Assam Correct Solution (a) Chail Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh. It encompasses hills, valleys, forests, and grasslands. Its flora includes oak, pine, cedar, rhododendron, and grasslands. Its fauna includes pheasants, Himalayan bears, deer, langurs, and porcupines. It comprises part of the catchment area of a tributary of the Giri River. Incorrect Solution (a) Chail Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh. It encompasses hills, valleys, forests, and grasslands. Its flora includes oak, pine, cedar, rhododendron, and grasslands. Its fauna includes pheasants, Himalayan bears, deer, langurs, and porcupines. It comprises part of the catchment area of a tributary of the Giri River. Question 30 of 35 30. Question The Kampala Declaration is related to? a) Chickenpox b) Good governance c) Artificial intelligence d) Climate change Correct Solution (d) The Kampala Declaration is related to climate change. Hence option d is correct. Kampala Ministerial Declaration on Migration, Environment, and Climate Change (KDMECC) was signed in 2022 at Kampala, Uganda by 15 African states. Its objective is to address the nexus of human mobility and climate change in the continent. It is the first comprehensive, action-oriented framework led by Member States to address climate-induced mobility in a practical and effective manner. Incorrect Solution (d) The Kampala Declaration is related to climate change. Hence option d is correct. Kampala Ministerial Declaration on Migration, Environment, and Climate Change (KDMECC) was signed in 2022 at Kampala, Uganda by 15 African states. Its objective is to address the nexus of human mobility and climate change in the continent. It is the first comprehensive, action-oriented framework led by Member States to address climate-induced mobility in a practical and effective manner. Question 31 of 35 31. Question A = (45% of P) – (15% of Q) and B = (25% of P) + (20% of Q). In which of the following cases is A – B positive?   a) P = 700 and Q = 400 b) P = 700 and Q = 300 c) P = 700 and Q = 500 d) None of the above Correct Solution (b) We will check by substituting the values for each option:   For option (a): A = (45% of P) – (15% of Q) = 0.45 × 700 – 0.15 × 400 = 255 B = (25% of P) + (20% of Q) = 0.25 × 700 + 0.20 × 400 = 255 Clearly, A = B, hence option (a) is wrong.   For option (b): A = (45% of P) – (15% of Q) = 0.45 × 700 – 0.15 × 300 = 315 – 45 = 270 B = (25% of P) + (20% of Q) = 0.25 × 700 + 0.20 × 300 = 175 + 60 = 235   For option (c): A = (45% of P) – (15% of Q) = 0.45 * 700 – 0.15 * 500 = 315 – 75 = 240 B = ( 25% of P ) + ( 20% of Q) = ( 0.25 * 700) + ( 0.2 * 500 ) = ( 175 + 100 ) = 275 A-B = -35. Clearly, A-B > 0 Hence, option (b) is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution (b) We will check by substituting the values for each option:   For option (a): A = (45% of P) – (15% of Q) = 0.45 × 700 – 0.15 × 400 = 255 B = (25% of P) + (20% of Q) = 0.25 × 700 + 0.20 × 400 = 255 Clearly, A = B, hence option (a) is wrong.   For option (b): A = (45% of P) – (15% of Q) = 0.45 × 700 – 0.15 × 300 = 315 – 45 = 270 B = (25% of P) + (20% of Q) = 0.25 × 700 + 0.20 × 300 = 175 + 60 = 235   For option (c): A = (45% of P) – (15% of Q) = 0.45 * 700 – 0.15 * 500 = 315 – 75 = 240 B = ( 25% of P ) + ( 20% of Q) = ( 0.25 * 700) + ( 0.2 * 500 ) = ( 175 + 100 ) = 275 A-B = -35. Clearly, A-B > 0 Hence, option (b) is the correct answer. Question 32 of 35 32. Question A ball is dropped on the ground from a height of 1000 metre. Each time the ball bounces 4/5 times of the height of its every last bounce. Find the total distance covered by the ball before coming to rest. a) 5000 m b) 8000 m c) 10000 m d) 9000 m Correct Solution (d) Distance covered in the 1st round = AP + PB = 1000 + (4/5)×1000 = 1000 + 800 = 1800 m. Distance covered in the 2nd round = BQ + QC = 800 + (4/5)×800 = 800 + 640 = 1440 m. Distance covered in the 3rd round = CR + RD = 640 + 4/5×640 = 640 + 512 = 1152 m and so on. So, the total distance covered = 1800 + 1440 + 1152 + ……………….∞ terms. This is an infinite G.P. (geometric progression) with common ratio 4/5. So, Sum, S∞ = a/1-r , a = first term = 1800 and r = common ratio = 4/5. Hence, the required distance = 1800/(1-4/5) = 1800/(1/5) = 9000 m Incorrect Solution (d) Distance covered in the 1st round = AP + PB = 1000 + (4/5)×1000 = 1000 + 800 = 1800 m. Distance covered in the 2nd round = BQ + QC = 800 + (4/5)×800 = 800 + 640 = 1440 m. Distance covered in the 3rd round = CR + RD = 640 + 4/5×640 = 640 + 512 = 1152 m and so on. So, the total distance covered = 1800 + 1440 + 1152 + ……………….∞ terms. This is an infinite G.P. (geometric progression) with common ratio 4/5. So, Sum, S∞ = a/1-r , a = first term = 1800 and r = common ratio = 4/5. Hence, the required distance = 1800/(1-4/5) = 1800/(1/5) = 9000 m Question 33 of 35 33. Question Tina goes to her office by car. She usually reaches the office at 10:10 AM. One day she drove at 4/5th (four- fifth) of her usual speed and reached the office at 10:30 AM. What is the time taken by her to reach the office at her usual speed? a) 100 minutes b) 80 minutes c) 70 minutes d) None of these Correct Solution (b) New speed = 4/5 of its usual speed So, New time taken = 5/4 of the usual time [time = distance/speed, if distance is constant then time ∝ 1/speed ] So, (5/4 of the usual time) – (usual time) = 20 min ➱ (5/4 -1) of the usual time = 20 min ➱ ¼ of the usual time = 20 min ➱ usual time = (4×20) min = 80 min. Incorrect Solution (b) New speed = 4/5 of its usual speed So, New time taken = 5/4 of the usual time [time = distance/speed, if distance is constant then time ∝ 1/speed ] So, (5/4 of the usual time) – (usual time) = 20 min ➱ (5/4 -1) of the usual time = 20 min ➱ ¼ of the usual time = 20 min ➱ usual time = (4×20) min = 80 min. Question 34 of 35 34. Question A student took five papers in an examination, where the full marks were the same for each paper. His marks in these papers were in the proportion of 4:5:6:7:8. In all papers together, the candidate obtained 60% of the total marks. Then the number of papers in which he got at least 70% marks is: a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) None of these Correct Solution (c) Let the marks scored in five subjects be 4x, 5x, 6x, 7x and 8x (on a scale of 100). Average score = 60% = 60 marks So, (4x+5x+6x+7x+8x) / 5 = 60 or x = 10. So, the marks obtained are 40, 50, 60, 70 and 80. Hence the number of papers in which he got at least 70% marks = 2 (70 & 80). Incorrect Solution (c) Let the marks scored in five subjects be 4x, 5x, 6x, 7x and 8x (on a scale of 100). Average score = 60% = 60 marks So, (4x+5x+6x+7x+8x) / 5 = 60 or x = 10. So, the marks obtained are 40, 50, 60, 70 and 80. Hence the number of papers in which he got at least 70% marks = 2 (70 & 80). Question 35 of 35 35. Question In an exam 12% students scored less than 30 marks, 6% students scored more than 200 marks, 22% students scored more than 100 marks, and 990 students scored between 30 and 100 marks. How many students scored between 100 and 200 marks? a) 250 b) 240 c) 230 d) 225 Correct Solution (b) According to the question: Students who scored more than 100 marks = 22% And students who scored more than 200 = 6% Hence, students who scored between 100 and 200 = 22 – 6 = 16% Now, students who scored less than 30 = 12% Students who scored between 30 and 100 = 100 – (22 + 12) = 66% = 990 So, Total number of students = 990 × (100/66) = 1500 Students who scored between 100 and 200 = 16% = (16/100) × 1500 = 240   Incorrect Solution (b) According to the question: Students who scored more than 100 marks = 22% And students who scored more than 200 = 6% Hence, students who scored between 100 and 200 = 22 – 6 = 16% Now, students who scored less than 30 = 12% Students who scored between 30 and 100 = 100 – (22 + 12) = 66% = 990 So, Total number of students = 990 × (100/66) = 1500 Students who scored between 100 and 200 = 16% = (16/100) × 1500 = 240   window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3528', init: { quizId: 3528, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"30034":{"type":"single","id":30034,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30037":{"type":"single","id":30037,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30038":{"type":"single","id":30038,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30039":{"type":"single","id":30039,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30041":{"type":"single","id":30041,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30044":{"type":"single","id":30044,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30046":{"type":"single","id":30046,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30047":{"type":"single","id":30047,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30049":{"type":"single","id":30049,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30051":{"type":"single","id":30051,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30052":{"type":"single","id":30052,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30053":{"type":"single","id":30053,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30055":{"type":"single","id":30055,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30056":{"type":"single","id":30056,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30057":{"type":"single","id":30057,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30060":{"type":"single","id":30060,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30062":{"type":"single","id":30062,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30065":{"type":"single","id":30065,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30066":{"type":"single","id":30066,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30067":{"type":"single","id":30067,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30069":{"type":"single","id":30069,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30071":{"type":"single","id":30071,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30074":{"type":"single","id":30074,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30075":{"type":"single","id":30075,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30078":{"type":"single","id":30078,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30080":{"type":"single","id":30080,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30082":{"type":"single","id":30082,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30083":{"type":"single","id":30083,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30086":{"type":"single","id":30086,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30089":{"type":"single","id":30089,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30091":{"type":"single","id":30091,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30093":{"type":"single","id":30093,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30096":{"type":"single","id":30096,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30099":{"type":"single","id":30099,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30100":{"type":"single","id":30100,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Spratly Islands & Second Thomas Shoal Syllabus Prelims – Current event Context: Tensions are rising in the South China Sea after Chinese vessels attempted to block a Philippine mission to resupply their troops on the contested reef Background:- A recent incident in the area, where the Philippines claims that China Coast Guard ships caused two collisions with their boats and water cannoned one of them, has renewed global interest in the flashpoint.The Philippine vessels were part of a routine mission to deliver provisions to troops stationed on the grounded navy vessel BRP Sierra Madre at Second Thomas Shoal. About Spratly Islands:-   The Spratly Islands are a disputed archipelago in the South China Sea. Composed of islands, islets, cays and more than 100 reefs, the archipelago lies off the coasts of the Philippines, Malaysia and southern Vietnam. The islands are largely uninhabited, but offer rich fishing grounds and may contain significant oil and natural gas reserves. China, the Philippines, Taiwan (ROC) and Vietnam claim the whole Spratly Islands while Brunei and Malaysia claim part of the Islands. China claims sovereignty over most of the South China Sea based on the historical and controversial Nine-dash line. In 2013, the Philippines had filed a case against China with the Permanent Court of Arbitration in The Hague, challenging the legality of China’s claims and activities in the South China Sea. The Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) in The Hague, Netherlands, ruled that China’s claims of historical rights over South China Sea (SCS) has no legal basis. About Second Thomas shoal Second Thomas Shoal is a submerged reef in the Spratly Islands of the South China Sea. It is a disputed territory and claimed by several nations. The reef is occupied by Philippine Navy personnel aboard ship, the BRP Sierra Madre, that was intentionally grounded on the reef in 1999 and has been periodically replenished since then. Source: Hindu Sela Tunnel Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Saturday inaugurated the strategically significant Sela Tunnel in Arunachal Pradesh. Background: According to a Bloomberg report, India has freed up thousands of soldiers to strengthen its disputed border with China. As a response, China has said that deploying more troops at the border would not ease tensions. About Sela Tunnel The foundation of the project was laid by Modi in February 2019, with a cost estimation of Rs 825 crore, but work got delayed due to various reasons, including the Covid-19 pandemic. The Sela Tunnel, situated at an elevation of 13,000 feet, will provide all-weather connectivity to Tawang in Arunachal Pradesh. Strategically crucial, the Sela Tunnel project includes two tunnels and 8.780 km of approach road. The total length of the project, including the tunnels, the approach and the link roads, will be around 12 km. Of the two tunnels, the first is a single-tube tunnel of 980 metres in length, and the second is 1.5 km long with an escape tube for emergencies. An official said that the tunnel, stretching through the Sela-Charbela ridge and constructed with the New Austrian Tunneling Method (NATM), will be the world’s longest bi-lane tunnel at an altitude of 13,000 feet. The tunnel has been made on the road connecting Assam’s Tezpur to Arunachal Pradesh’s Tawang. It will enable all-weather connectivity to the Tawang region and is said to be strategically significant due to its proximity to the Line of Actual Control (LAC). It has been excavated below the 4,200-metre (13,800 ft) Sela Pass, which connects the Tawang district with the rest of Arunachal Pradesh and is often closed due to snowfall and landslides. Source: Economic Times DESERT STAR DUNES Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: The age of one of Earth’s largest and most complex types of star shaped sand dune has been calculated for the first time. Background: Star dunes are among Earth’s largest and most complex types of sand dunes. Experts had never before been able to put a date on when they were formed. Now scientists have discovered that a dune called Lala Lallia in Morocco formed 13,000 years ago. About sand dune: A sand dune is an accumulation of sand grains that takes the form of a mound or ridge due to the influence of wind and gravity. Star dunes – or pyramid dunes – are named after their distinctive shapes and reach hundreds of metres in height. Star dunes resembling stars when viewed from above. Star dunes are massive sand dunes characterized by arms radiating from a central peak. Star dunes are widespread in modern deserts across the globe, including sand seas in Africa, Arabia, China, and North America. Dynamic Movement: Star dunes are not static; they shift and evolve over time. Star dunes are formed by opposing winds with changing directions. The Sahara’s star dunes move at an impressive pace—about 50 centimeters per year across the desert. Unlike other dunes, star dunes never collapse due to this continuous reorganization process. Source: BBC NATIONAL COMMISSION FOR SCHEDULED CASTES (NCSC) Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: Recently, the Union government has reconstituted the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC). Background: Kishor Makwana has taken charge as the Chairman of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC). This appointment follows the resignation of former Chairman Vijay Sampla. About NATIONAL COMMISSION FOR SCHEDULED CASTES (NCSC): The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) is a constitutional body established under Article 338 of the Indian Constitution. Its primary goal is to fully protect the rights of Scheduled Castes (SCs). The NCSC operates under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India. It was established to provide safeguards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes and Anglo-Indian communities and to promote and protect their social, educational, economic, and cultural interests. Structure The NCSC consists of five members including Chairperson. The President of India appoints the chairperson of the NCSC. The appointment is made by warrant under the President’s hand and seal. The term of office for the chairperson, vice-chairperson, and each member is three years from the date they assume charge of their office Duties and Functions Investigate and monitor all matters related to the safeguards provided for Scheduled Castes under the Constitution or any other law. Inquire into specific complaints regarding the deprivation of rights and safeguards of Scheduled Castes. Participate in and advise the planning process for socio-economic development of Scheduled Castes. Present annual reports to the President, evaluating the working of safeguards and making recommendations. Discharge other functions related to the protection, welfare, and development of Scheduled Castes as specified by the President. Powers While investigating any matter, the Commission has the powers of a civil court. It can regulate its own procedure. Both the Union and State Governments consult the Commission on major policy matters affecting Scheduled Castes. Source: PIB RAJYA SABHA NOMINATION Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: Recently, Sudha Murthy was nominated as a Member of Rajya Sabha. Background: Sudha Murthy, who is married to the co-founder of Infosys, N. R. Narayana Murty, has made significant contributions to diverse fields including social work, philanthropy, and education. Last year, she was honoured with the Padma Bhushan, India’s third-highest civilian award, in recognition of her outstanding social work. About Raja Sabha: The Rajya Sabha, also known as the Upper House of Parliament, is modelled after the House of Lords in the United Kingdom. Composition of the Rajya Sabha: It consists of a total of 245 members, including 233 elected members and 12 nominated members. The constitutional limit for the Upper House’s strength is 250 members. The number of elected seats varies based on states’ population, which can change due to mergers, bifurcations, or the creation of new states. The nominated members are chosen by the President of India and come from fields such as art, literature, science, and social service. Tenure and Permanent House: The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution. However, like the Lok Sabha, it can be prorogued by the President. Every Rajya Sabha MP has a tenure of six years, and elections to one-third seats are held every two years. The Vice-President is the ex-officio chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. The Deputy Chairman, who is elected from amongst the house’s members, takes care of the day-to-day matters of the house in the absence of the Chairman. Election Process: Rajya Sabha members are elected indirectly by the people through the Members of Legislative Assembly (MLAs). Members of a state’s Legislative Assembly vote in the Rajya Sabha elections in proportional representation with the single transferable vote (STV) system. Each MLA’s vote is counted only once. To win a Rajya Sabha seat, a candidate should get a required number of votes. That number is found out using the formula: Required vote = Total number of votes / (Number of Rajya Sabha seats + 1 ) + 1 Nominated Members: The President of India nominates these 12 members from individuals who have special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science, and social service. This principle of nomination is adopted to provide distinguished persons a place in the Rajya Sabha without going through the process of election. Source: Livemint Previous Year Question Q1. Consider the following statements: The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Self-Driving Cars and Ethical Dilemmas Syllabus Mains – GS 4 Context: There were a series of lawsuits and a criminal case arising out of fatal Tesla accidents. Background: The issue has become serious as machines become more and more autonomous. About Self-Driving Cars: It is a vehicle capable of sensing its environment and operating without human involvement. A human passenger is not required to take control of the vehicle at any time, nor is a human passenger required to be present in the vehicle at all. It can go anywhere a traditional car goes and does everything that an experienced human driver does. One of the biggest dilemmas of self-driving cars is whether it would be right to hand over the control to the driver at the last instant. This will not only raise a question about the ethics of self-driving cars but also the ethics of the driver. Self-driving cars are robots that have been programmed using algorithms. So, they are most likely to follow set rules or patterns in all cases. There is a debate about who should decide the ethics of self-driving cars. It can be argued that no one is the right owner to decide the ethics of self-driving cases. The decision must lie in the hands of the driver of the car. Some also argue that the best way for a self-driving car is to make an impartial decision in case of accidents. They must not discriminate between humans based on age, gender, or other parameters. They should always make the decision that causes the least impact. There is always a risk of a cyber-criminal hacking into the car’s system to gain access to sensitive data or to carry out a misdeed. Source: Forbes Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.)Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Rajya Sabha members are elected indirectly by the people through the Members of Legislative Assembly (MLAs). Statement-II: The ex-officio chairperson of the Rajya Sabha nominates these 12 members from individuals who have special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science, and social service. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q2.) Consider the following statements about the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC): The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is a constitutional body. The Chairperson of the NCSC is appointed by the Prime Minister of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) With reference to Desert Star dunes, consider the following statements: Star dunes are formed by opposing winds with changing directions. Unlike other dunes, star dunes never collapse due to the continuous reorganization process. Star dunes are currently found in deserts of African region only. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  12th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  11th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  Q.2) –  Q.3) – 

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 12th March 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 08] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following statements The Western Ghats is a non-continuous mountain range whereas the Eastern Ghats is a continuous mountain range. The height of the Western Ghats is higher than the Eastern Ghats. Both the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats are spread across 6 states. The mountain passes are required to cross the Western Ghats whereas it’s not required in the Eastern Ghats. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Correct The Western Ghats is a continuous mountain range whereas the Eastern Ghats is a non-continuous mountain range. The Western Ghats receive orographic rainfall while the Eastern Ghats do not receive orographic rainfall. The height of the Western Ghats is higher than the Eastern Ghats. The height of the Western Ghats increases progressively from north to south whereas no such pattern exists in the Eastern Ghats. The Western Ghats are spread over 6 states, namely, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Goa, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu while the Eastern Ghats are spread over 5 states and one union territory, namely, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. The mountain passes are required to cross the Western Ghats whereas it’s not required in the Eastern Ghats.   Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Correct The Western Ghats is a continuous mountain range whereas the Eastern Ghats is a non-continuous mountain range. The Western Ghats receive orographic rainfall while the Eastern Ghats do not receive orographic rainfall. The height of the Western Ghats is higher than the Eastern Ghats. The height of the Western Ghats increases progressively from north to south whereas no such pattern exists in the Eastern Ghats. The Western Ghats are spread over 6 states, namely, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Goa, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu while the Eastern Ghats are spread over 5 states and one union territory, namely, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. The mountain passes are required to cross the Western Ghats whereas it’s not required in the Eastern Ghats.   Question 2 of 35 2. Question The Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following states? Uttar Pradesh Madhya Pradesh Jharkhand Arunachal Pradesh Tripura Chhattisgarh Choose the correct answer code: a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 b) 3, 4, 5 and 6 c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 d) 2, 3, 5 and 6 Correct Solution (d) The Tropic of Cancer passes through the 8 states of India – Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram. Incorrect Solution (d) The Tropic of Cancer passes through the 8 states of India – Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Which the following is correctly arranged Hills from West to East a) Jaintia-Garo-Khasi-Mikir-Naga b) Khasi-Jaintia-Garo-Naga-Mikir c) Garo-Jaintia-Khasi-Mikir-Naga d) Garo-Khasi-Jaintia-Mikir-Naga Correct Solution (d) Incorrect Solution (d) Question 4 of 35 4. Question Consider the following statements about Karst Topography It is majorly formed by metamorphic rocks. It is found in the Himalayas and Vindhya region in India. Stalactite and Stalagmite are examples of Karst landforms. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Karst Topography is majorly formed by sedimentary rocks.   It is found in the Himalayas and Vindhya region in India.   Stalactite and Stalagmite are examples of Karst landforms. The water containing limestone in solution, seeps through the roof in the form of a continuous chain of drops. A portion of the roof hangs on the roof and on evaporation of water, a small deposit of limestone is left behind contributing to the formation of a stalactite, growing downwards from the roof. The remaining portion of the drop falls to the floor. This also evaporates, leaving behind a small deposit of limestone aiding the formation of a stalagmite, thicker and flatter, rising upwards from the floor.   Other Karst Landforms – Sinking Creeks/Bogas, Arch, Sink Hole and Cavern.   Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Karst Topography is majorly formed by sedimentary rocks.   It is found in the Himalayas and Vindhya region in India.   Stalactite and Stalagmite are examples of Karst landforms. The water containing limestone in solution, seeps through the roof in the form of a continuous chain of drops. A portion of the roof hangs on the roof and on evaporation of water, a small deposit of limestone is left behind contributing to the formation of a stalactite, growing downwards from the roof. The remaining portion of the drop falls to the floor. This also evaporates, leaving behind a small deposit of limestone aiding the formation of a stalagmite, thicker and flatter, rising upwards from the floor.   Other Karst Landforms – Sinking Creeks/Bogas, Arch, Sink Hole and Cavern.   Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements Eons are the largest intervals of geologic time and are divided into smaller time intervals known as eras. The extinction of Dinosaurs took place during the Meghalayan age of the Quaternary period. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Eons are the largest intervals of geologic time and are divided into smaller time intervals known as eras. Geologic Time Scale is made based on Eons, Eras, Periods, and Epochs. The extinction of Dinosaurs took place during the Cretaceous Period of the Mesozoic era. Jurassic is known as the Age of Dinosaurs. Note: The Meghalayan Age is a newly defined stage in the geologic history of the Earth, which spans from 4200 years ago to the present day. It is part of the Holocene epoch, and is characterized by a shift from a warm and wet climate to a cooler and drier one, which brought about changes in the monsoon patterns in the region of Meghalaya, India, and led to the development of a new type of soil, the Meghalayan soil. The Meghalayan Age is significant as it marks the transition from the mid-Holocene, a time of relative climate stability, to the modern era, which has seen rapid global changes due to human activities. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Eons are the largest intervals of geologic time and are divided into smaller time intervals known as eras. Geologic Time Scale is made based on Eons, Eras, Periods, and Epochs. The extinction of Dinosaurs took place during the Cretaceous Period of the Mesozoic era. Jurassic is known as the Age of Dinosaurs. Note: The Meghalayan Age is a newly defined stage in the geologic history of the Earth, which spans from 4200 years ago to the present day. It is part of the Holocene epoch, and is characterized by a shift from a warm and wet climate to a cooler and drier one, which brought about changes in the monsoon patterns in the region of Meghalaya, India, and led to the development of a new type of soil, the Meghalayan soil. The Meghalayan Age is significant as it marks the transition from the mid-Holocene, a time of relative climate stability, to the modern era, which has seen rapid global changes due to human activities. Question 6 of 35 6. Question Consider the following statements Batholiths are large granitic intrusive rock bodies which forms the core of huge mountains. Laccoliths are large dome-shaped extrusive bodies connected by a pipe-like conduit from below. Lapolith is developed into a saucer shape intrusive body. Sills are horizontal bodies composed of the intrusive metamorphic rocks. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect Batholiths are large granitic intrusive rock bodies which forms the core of huge mountains. Laccoliths are large dome-shaped intrusive bodies connected by a pipe-like conduit from below. Lapolith is developed into a saucer shape intrusive rock body. Sills are horizontal bodies composed of the intrusive igneous rocks. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect Batholiths are large granitic intrusive rock bodies which forms the core of huge mountains. Laccoliths are large dome-shaped intrusive bodies connected by a pipe-like conduit from below. Lapolith is developed into a saucer shape intrusive rock body. Sills are horizontal bodies composed of the intrusive igneous rocks. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Consider the following statements The Black Forest Mountain in Germany, Vindhya and Satpura in India are examples of tectonic block mountains. The Rockies, the Andes and the Himalayas are examples of tectonic fold mountains. The Urals in Russia and the Aravallis in India are examples of residual mountains. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The Black Forest Mountain in Germany, Vindhya and Satpura in India are examples of tectonic block mountains. The block mountains are formed because of faulting on a large scale i.e. when large areas or blocks of earth are broken and  displaced vertically or horizontally. The uplifted blocks are termed as horsts, and the lowered blocks are called graben. The Rockies, the Andes and the Himalayas are examples of tectonic fold mountains.   The fold mountains are formed when sedimentary rock strata in geosynclines are subjected to compressive forces. The Urals in Russia and the Aravallis in India are examples of residual mountains.   The residual mountains are the remnants of old fold mountains derived as a result of denudation. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The Black Forest Mountain in Germany, Vindhya and Satpura in India are examples of tectonic block mountains. The block mountains are formed because of faulting on a large scale i.e. when large areas or blocks of earth are broken and  displaced vertically or horizontally. The uplifted blocks are termed as horsts, and the lowered blocks are called graben. The Rockies, the Andes and the Himalayas are examples of tectonic fold mountains.   The fold mountains are formed when sedimentary rock strata in geosynclines are subjected to compressive forces. The Urals in Russia and the Aravallis in India are examples of residual mountains.   The residual mountains are the remnants of old fold mountains derived as a result of denudation. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Consider the following statements Mohorovicic Discontinuity is the transition zone between outer mantle and inner mantle. Lehman Discontinuity is the transition zone between outer core and inner core. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Mohorovicic Discontinuity is the transition zone between the crust and mantle Lehman Discontinuity the transition zone between outer core and inner core. Note: The other discontinuities are – Conrad Discontinuity is the transition zone between sial and sima. Repiti Discontinuity is the transition zone between outer mantle and inner mantle. Gutenberg Discontinuity the transition zone between mantle and core.   Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Mohorovicic Discontinuity is the transition zone between the crust and mantle Lehman Discontinuity the transition zone between outer core and inner core. Note: The other discontinuities are – Conrad Discontinuity is the transition zone between sial and sima. Repiti Discontinuity is the transition zone between outer mantle and inner mantle. Gutenberg Discontinuity the transition zone between mantle and core.   Question 9 of 35 9. Question Consider the following statements India shares the longest border with Bangladesh. The North to South India’s land stretch is 2,993 km. The West to East India’s land stretch is 3,214 km. India is the seventh largest country in the world, which occupies around 2.4% of the Earth’s surface. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Correct India shares the longest border with Bangladesh. The North to South India’s land stretch is 3,214 km. The West to East India’s land stretch is 2,993 km.   India is the seventh largest country in the world which occupies around 2.4% of the Earth’s surface. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Correct India shares the longest border with Bangladesh. The North to South India’s land stretch is 3,214 km. The West to East India’s land stretch is 2,993 km.   India is the seventh largest country in the world which occupies around 2.4% of the Earth’s surface. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Which state is known as the Molassis basin? a) Mizoram b) Arunachal Pradesh c) Maharashtra d) Manipur Correct Solution (a) Mizoram is known as the Molassis Basin because of the presence of soft unconsolidated deposits. It is also known as the Land of Rolling Mountains because it has huge number of mountains. The formation of most mountains is accompanied by formation valley type depression which runs parallel to mountains. These depressions get accumulated with unconsolidated deposits known as Molassis basin. Incorrect Solution (a) Mizoram is known as the Molassis Basin because of the presence of soft unconsolidated deposits. It is also known as the Land of Rolling Mountains because it has huge number of mountains. The formation of most mountains is accompanied by formation valley type depression which runs parallel to mountains. These depressions get accumulated with unconsolidated deposits known as Molassis basin. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Consider the following statements about the Composite Volcanoes They are also called as Strato-Volcanoes. Mauna Kea and Mauna Loa are examples of Composite Volcanoes. They are characterised by explosive eruptions. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct The Composite Volcanoes are also called as Strato-Volcanoes because they consist of layers of solid lava flows mixed with layers of sand- or gravel-like volcanic rock called cinders or volcanic ash. Mauna Kea and Mauna Loa are examples of Shield Volcanoes. The Shield Volcanoes are not very steep but are far and wider. They extend to great height as well as distance. They are the largest of all volcanoes in the world as the lava flows to a far distance. They are mostly made up of basalt and are not very explosive. They are characterised by explosive eruptions as they erupt more viscous lavas than basalt. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct The Composite Volcanoes are also called as Strato-Volcanoes because they consist of layers of solid lava flows mixed with layers of sand- or gravel-like volcanic rock called cinders or volcanic ash. Mauna Kea and Mauna Loa are examples of Shield Volcanoes. The Shield Volcanoes are not very steep but are far and wider. They extend to great height as well as distance. They are the largest of all volcanoes in the world as the lava flows to a far distance. They are mostly made up of basalt and are not very explosive. They are characterised by explosive eruptions as they erupt more viscous lavas than basalt. Question 12 of 35 12. Question The Nilgiris along the west coast are relatively tectonically stable as compared to the Himalayas but, still, debris avalanches and landslides occur though not as frequently as in the Himalayas, in these hills. Why? Many slopes in Nilgiris are steeper with almost vertical cliffs and escarpments. Mechanical weathering due to temperature changes and ranges is pronounced in this region. They are mostly made up of sedimentary rocks and unconsolidated and semi-consolidated deposits. They receive heavy amounts of rainfall over short periods. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Correct Many slopes are steeper with almost vertical cliffs and escarpments in the Western Ghats and Nilgiris. They have almost a vertical elongation where ‘snowballing’ of debris avalanches and landslide can easily happen. Mechanical weathering due to temperature changes and ranges is pronounced due to the western ghats proximity towards the equator where it receives high temperature and high Rainfall. This causes solifluction which may sometimes result in landslides as well. In India, debris avalanches and landslides occur very frequently in the Himalayas because the Himalayas are tectonically active. They are mostly made up of sedimentary rocks and unconsolidated and semi-consolidated deposits. The slopes are very steep. The Nilgiris are mainly composed of metamorphic rocks like gneiss and crystalline schist. They receive a heavy amount of rainfall over a short period. Most of the rainfall received in the area is mostly in the Monsoon season itself. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Correct Many slopes are steeper with almost vertical cliffs and escarpments in the Western Ghats and Nilgiris. They have almost a vertical elongation where ‘snowballing’ of debris avalanches and landslide can easily happen. Mechanical weathering due to temperature changes and ranges is pronounced due to the western ghats proximity towards the equator where it receives high temperature and high Rainfall. This causes solifluction which may sometimes result in landslides as well. In India, debris avalanches and landslides occur very frequently in the Himalayas because the Himalayas are tectonically active. They are mostly made up of sedimentary rocks and unconsolidated and semi-consolidated deposits. The slopes are very steep. The Nilgiris are mainly composed of metamorphic rocks like gneiss and crystalline schist. They receive a heavy amount of rainfall over a short period. Most of the rainfall received in the area is mostly in the Monsoon season itself. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following statements concerning types of Plains: Structural plains are formed by horizontally bedded rocks, relatively undisturbed by crustal movements of the earth. Depositional plains are comparatively level but rise gently towards adjacent highlands. Erosional plains are carved by the agents of erosion, rain, rivers, ice and wind. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Structural plain These are structurally depressed areas of the world that make up some of the most extensive natural lowlands on the earth. They are formed by horizontally bedded rocks, relatively undisturbed by crustal movements of the earth. Depositional plains These are formed by the deposition of materials brought by various agents of transportation. They are comparatively level but rise gently towards adjacent highlands. Their fertility and economic development depend greatly on the types of sediments that they’re laid down. Erosional plains These plains are carved by the agents of erosion, rain, river, ice and wind help to smooth out the irregularities of the earth’s surface, and in terms of millions of years, even high mountains can be reduced to low undulating plains. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Structural plain These are structurally depressed areas of the world that make up some of the most extensive natural lowlands on the earth. They are formed by horizontally bedded rocks, relatively undisturbed by crustal movements of the earth. Depositional plains These are formed by the deposition of materials brought by various agents of transportation. They are comparatively level but rise gently towards adjacent highlands. Their fertility and economic development depend greatly on the types of sediments that they’re laid down. Erosional plains These plains are carved by the agents of erosion, rain, river, ice and wind help to smooth out the irregularities of the earth’s surface, and in terms of millions of years, even high mountains can be reduced to low undulating plains. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Which of the following characteristic feature of fluvial Erosional landforms is/are correctly matched? Gorges: They are formed due to active downcutting of the valleys through the mechanism of pothole drilling during the youth stage. Potholes: They are generally formed in coarse-grained rocks such as sandstones and granites. Waterfalls: They are formed due to variations in the relative resistance of rocks. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Gorges are formed due to active downcutting of the valleys through the mechanism of pothole drilling during the youth stage of the fluvial cycle of erosion. Gorges are also formed due to the recession of waterfalls. Most of the Himalayan Rivers have carved out deep and narrow gorges. The kettle-like small depressions in the rocky beds of the river valleys are called potholes which are usually cylindrical in shape. Potholes are generally formed in coarse-grained rocks such as sandstones and granites. Waterfalls form as streams flow from soft rock to hard rock. This happens both laterally (as a stream flows across the earth) and vertically (as the stream drops in a waterfall). In both cases, the soft rock erodes, leaving a hard ledge over which the stream falls. This happens due to variations in the relative resistance of rocks.   Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Gorges are formed due to active downcutting of the valleys through the mechanism of pothole drilling during the youth stage of the fluvial cycle of erosion. Gorges are also formed due to the recession of waterfalls. Most of the Himalayan Rivers have carved out deep and narrow gorges. The kettle-like small depressions in the rocky beds of the river valleys are called potholes which are usually cylindrical in shape. Potholes are generally formed in coarse-grained rocks such as sandstones and granites. Waterfalls form as streams flow from soft rock to hard rock. This happens both laterally (as a stream flows across the earth) and vertically (as the stream drops in a waterfall). In both cases, the soft rock erodes, leaving a hard ledge over which the stream falls. This happens due to variations in the relative resistance of rocks.   Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following statements about glaciers Erosion by glaciers is huge because of friction caused by sheer weight of the ice sheet. The cirques are found at the heads of glacial valleys, mostly having tarn lakes. Moraines are long ridges of deposits of glacial till How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Masses of ice moving as sheets over the land or as linear flows down the slopes of mountains in a broad trough like valleys are called glaciers. The movement of glaciers is slow unlike water flow. The erosion by glaciers is tremendous because of friction caused by sheer weight of ice. Cirque is the most common of landforms in glaciated mountains. The cirques are often found at the head of glacial valleys. A lake of water is usually formed within the cirque. This lake is known as Tarn Lake. Moraines are long ridges of deposits of glacial till. When these deposits are at the end of a glacier, they are called Terminal moraines and when they are deposited on both sides, they are called Lateral moraines. When lateral moraines of two glaciers join together, they form Medial moraines. When the lateral moraines of both sides of a glacier join together, it forms a horseshoe shape. Ground moraines are deposits left behind in areas once covered by a glacier Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Masses of ice moving as sheets over the land or as linear flows down the slopes of mountains in a broad trough like valleys are called glaciers. The movement of glaciers is slow unlike water flow. The erosion by glaciers is tremendous because of friction caused by sheer weight of ice. Cirque is the most common of landforms in glaciated mountains. The cirques are often found at the head of glacial valleys. A lake of water is usually formed within the cirque. This lake is known as Tarn Lake. Moraines are long ridges of deposits of glacial till. When these deposits are at the end of a glacier, they are called Terminal moraines and when they are deposited on both sides, they are called Lateral moraines. When lateral moraines of two glaciers join together, they form Medial moraines. When the lateral moraines of both sides of a glacier join together, it forms a horseshoe shape. Ground moraines are deposits left behind in areas once covered by a glacier Question 16 of 35 16. Question Which of the following statements defines the significance of the process of weathering? Weathering provides regolith for the formation of soil. Weathering produces concentrations of valuable mineral ores of iron, manganese, tin, etc. Weathering aids mass wasting and reduction of relief. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct It converts bedrock into regolith and soil. Regolith is also notable for being the basic source of the inorganic part of the soil. The importance of soil which indirectly supports all animal forms of life in the form of vegetation cannot be overemphasized. Weathering creates raw material that becomes sediments and sedimentary rocks- loosens to individual minerals, attack and alter individual minerals and solution. It forms economic deposits/ importance in engineering projects. Weathering breaks rocks into their mineral components. It also creates new compounds through chemical changes. During the prolonged period, the weathering processes produce concentrations of valuable mineral ores of iron, manganese, tin, aluminium, uranium etc.  For example, by chemical weathering soluble bases and even silica are removed, leaving behind increasingly rich residual concentrations of metallic oxides. This occurs under humid tropical climatic conditions as part of the lateralization process. Weathering processes are responsible for breaking down the rocks into smaller fragments and preparing the way for the formation of not only regolith and soils but also erosion and mass movements. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct It converts bedrock into regolith and soil. Regolith is also notable for being the basic source of the inorganic part of the soil. The importance of soil which indirectly supports all animal forms of life in the form of vegetation cannot be overemphasized. Weathering creates raw material that becomes sediments and sedimentary rocks- loosens to individual minerals, attack and alter individual minerals and solution. It forms economic deposits/ importance in engineering projects. Weathering breaks rocks into their mineral components. It also creates new compounds through chemical changes. During the prolonged period, the weathering processes produce concentrations of valuable mineral ores of iron, manganese, tin, aluminium, uranium etc.  For example, by chemical weathering soluble bases and even silica are removed, leaving behind increasingly rich residual concentrations of metallic oxides. This occurs under humid tropical climatic conditions as part of the lateralization process. Weathering processes are responsible for breaking down the rocks into smaller fragments and preparing the way for the formation of not only regolith and soils but also erosion and mass movements. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Which of the following factors act as the requisite for the mass movement? Decrease in gradient and height of slopes. Removal of material from over the original slope surfaces. Saturation and lubrication of slope materials. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Mass Movement is the movement of masses of bodies of mud, bedrock, soil, and rock debris, which commonly happen along steep-sided hills and mountains because of the gravitational pull. Gravity exerts its force on all matter, both bedrock and the products of weathering. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct In order for Mass Movements to happen, there has to be an increase in the gradient and height of slopes. This causes more debris to be attracted downwards. If there is a removal of material or load from over the original slope surfaces. The debris from higher in the relief gets attracted downwards due to gravitational attraction thereby triggering Mass movement. Saturation and lubrication of slope materials happen because of overloading due to heavy rainfall, This creates loosely packed mud and debris movement down the slope of the hills. Incorrect Solution (b) Mass Movement is the movement of masses of bodies of mud, bedrock, soil, and rock debris, which commonly happen along steep-sided hills and mountains because of the gravitational pull. Gravity exerts its force on all matter, both bedrock and the products of weathering. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct In order for Mass Movements to happen, there has to be an increase in the gradient and height of slopes. This causes more debris to be attracted downwards. If there is a removal of material or load from over the original slope surfaces. The debris from higher in the relief gets attracted downwards due to gravitational attraction thereby triggering Mass movement. Saturation and lubrication of slope materials happen because of overloading due to heavy rainfall, This creates loosely packed mud and debris movement down the slope of the hills. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Match the following Erosional Landform                Agents Serrated ridges –               Groundwater Deflation Hollows –          Glacier Sink Holes –                        Wind How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Serrated Ridges: Horns form through headward erosion of the cirque walls. If three or more radiating glaciers cut headward until their cirques meet, high, sharp-pointed and steep-sided peaks called horns form. The divides between cirque side walls or head walls get narrow because of progressive erosion and turn into serrated or saw-toothed ridges sometimes referred to as arêtes with very sharp crests and a zig-zag outline. Deflation Hollows: Weathered mantle from over the rocks or bare soil, gets blown out by the persistent movement of wind currents in one direction. This process may create shallow depressions called Deflation hollows Sinkholes: Small to medium-sized rounded to sub-rounded shallow depressions called swallow holes forms on the surface of rocks like limestone by the action of the solution. A sinkhole is an opening more or less circular at the top and funnel-shaped towards the bottom. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Serrated Ridges: Horns form through headward erosion of the cirque walls. If three or more radiating glaciers cut headward until their cirques meet, high, sharp-pointed and steep-sided peaks called horns form. The divides between cirque side walls or head walls get narrow because of progressive erosion and turn into serrated or saw-toothed ridges sometimes referred to as arêtes with very sharp crests and a zig-zag outline. Deflation Hollows: Weathered mantle from over the rocks or bare soil, gets blown out by the persistent movement of wind currents in one direction. This process may create shallow depressions called Deflation hollows Sinkholes: Small to medium-sized rounded to sub-rounded shallow depressions called swallow holes forms on the surface of rocks like limestone by the action of the solution. A sinkhole is an opening more or less circular at the top and funnel-shaped towards the bottom. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Arrange the following coastal landforms in the increasing order of erosion level they are subjected to Stacks Sea caves Sea arches Select the correct answer using the codes given below a) 1-3-2 b) 2-3-1 c) 3-2-1 d) 2-1-3 Correct Solution (b) The erosion and deposition of the sea waves give rise to coastal landforms. Sea waves continuously strike at the rocks which leads to the development of cracks. Over time they become larger and wider. Thus, hollow caves are formed on the rocks. They are called sea caves. As these cavities become bigger and bigger only the roof of the caves remain, thus forming sea arches. Further, erosion breaks the roof and only walls are left. These wall-like features are called stacks Incorrect Solution (b) The erosion and deposition of the sea waves give rise to coastal landforms. Sea waves continuously strike at the rocks which leads to the development of cracks. Over time they become larger and wider. Thus, hollow caves are formed on the rocks. They are called sea caves. As these cavities become bigger and bigger only the roof of the caves remain, thus forming sea arches. Further, erosion breaks the roof and only walls are left. These wall-like features are called stacks Question 20 of 35 20. Question The phenomenon of wearing down of relief variations of the surface of the earth through erosion is known as: a) Gradation b) Deposition c) Diastrophism d) Volcanism Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect The phenomenon of wearing down of relief variations of the surface of the earth through erosion is known as gradation. A deposition is a geological process in which sediments, soil and rocks are added to a landform or landmass Diastrophism is the process of deformation of the Earth’s crust which involves folding and faulting Volcanism, vulcanism or volcanicity is the phenomenon of eruption of molten rock (magma) onto the surface of the Earth or a solid-surface planet or moon, where lava, pyroclastics, and volcanic gases erupt through a break in the surface called a vent. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect The phenomenon of wearing down of relief variations of the surface of the earth through erosion is known as gradation. A deposition is a geological process in which sediments, soil and rocks are added to a landform or landmass Diastrophism is the process of deformation of the Earth’s crust which involves folding and faulting Volcanism, vulcanism or volcanicity is the phenomenon of eruption of molten rock (magma) onto the surface of the Earth or a solid-surface planet or moon, where lava, pyroclastics, and volcanic gases erupt through a break in the surface called a vent. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements: Tylototriton zaimeng is a newly discovered snake species. Zaimeng is a mountain lake located atop the Khongtheng mountain range in Mizoram. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Tylototriton zaimeng is a newly discovered salamander species. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Its habitat is confined to the Khongtheng mountain range in Manipur. Salamanders are a group of amphibians typically characterized by their lizard-like appearance, with slender bodies, blunt snouts, short limbs projecting at right angles to the body, and the presence of a tail in both larvae and adults. Zaimeng is a mountain lake located atop the Khongtheng mountain range in Manipur. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Zaimeng is the dialect spoken by the Liangmai people, a Naga tribe residing both in Nagaland and Manipur. Zaimeng in the Liangmai Naga dialect means “puzzle” or “mystery”. Incorrect Solution (d) Tylototriton zaimeng is a newly discovered salamander species. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Its habitat is confined to the Khongtheng mountain range in Manipur. Salamanders are a group of amphibians typically characterized by their lizard-like appearance, with slender bodies, blunt snouts, short limbs projecting at right angles to the body, and the presence of a tail in both larvae and adults. Zaimeng is a mountain lake located atop the Khongtheng mountain range in Manipur. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Zaimeng is the dialect spoken by the Liangmai people, a Naga tribe residing both in Nagaland and Manipur. Zaimeng in the Liangmai Naga dialect means “puzzle” or “mystery”. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements about the Smart Access to Marine Users for Ocean Data Resources and Advisories (SAMUDRA) App: It provides comprehensive information on all ocean-related services, useful for both seafarers and the fishing community. It is launched by the Ministry of Shipping and empowers users with real-time updates and critical alerts on oceanic disasters. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) The Smart Access to Marine Users for Ocean Data Resources and Advisories (SAMUDRA) app provides comprehensive information on all ocean-related services, useful for both seafarers and the fishing community. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is launched by the  Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services(INCOIS) under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) and empowers users with real-time updates and critical alerts on oceanic disasters such as tsunamis, storm surges, high waves, and swell surge alerts, for the individuals and communities to stay informed and take necessary precautions towards the protection of lives and property. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (a) The Smart Access to Marine Users for Ocean Data Resources and Advisories (SAMUDRA) app provides comprehensive information on all ocean-related services, useful for both seafarers and the fishing community. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is launched by the  Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services(INCOIS) under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) and empowers users with real-time updates and critical alerts on oceanic disasters such as tsunamis, storm surges, high waves, and swell surge alerts, for the individuals and communities to stay informed and take necessary precautions towards the protection of lives and property. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements: Statement I: The Global Initiative on Digital Health Health is a collaboration between India and the World Health Organisation. Statement II: It aims at data convergence, the interface of health platforms, and investments in the digital health space around the globe. Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation' for Statement I c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect d) Statement I is incorrect Statement II is correct Correct Solution (b) The Global Initiative on Digital Health is a collaboration between India and the World Health Organisation that aids in universal health convergence and improves healthcare service delivery. Hence statement 1 is correct. It forms a digital platform that will consist of an investment tracker, an ask tracker (to understand who needs what kind of products and services), and a library of existing digital health platforms. Hence statement 2 is correct. It also aims at data convergence, the interface of health platforms, and investments in the digital health space around the globe. Both the statements are individually correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The Global Initiative on Digital Health is a collaboration between India and the World Health Organisation that aids in universal health convergence and improves healthcare service delivery. Hence statement 1 is correct. It forms a digital platform that will consist of an investment tracker, an ask tracker (to understand who needs what kind of products and services), and a library of existing digital health platforms. Hence statement 2 is correct. It also aims at data convergence, the interface of health platforms, and investments in the digital health space around the globe. Both the statements are individually correct. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements about Pibot: It is the world’s first robot citizen and the first robot Innovation Ambassador for the United Nations Development Programme. It uses artificial intelligence and robotics. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Pibot is the world’s first humanoid pilot. It can fly an aero plane just like a human pilot by manipulating all the single controls in the cockpit, which is designed for humans. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It uses artificial intelligence and robotics to understand flight manuals and control the plane in real time. Hence statement 2 is correct. It remembers global flight charts for accurate navigation and can handle emergencies. It communicates with air traffic controllers and humans using voice synthesis, acting as a pilot or first officer.   Note: WABOT-1 is the world’s first full-scale humanoid intelligent robot. Sophia is the world’s first robot citizen and the first robot Innovation Ambassador for the United Nations Development Programme. Incorrect Solution (b) Pibot is the world’s first humanoid pilot. It can fly an aero plane just like a human pilot by manipulating all the single controls in the cockpit, which is designed for humans. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It uses artificial intelligence and robotics to understand flight manuals and control the plane in real time. Hence statement 2 is correct. It remembers global flight charts for accurate navigation and can handle emergencies. It communicates with air traffic controllers and humans using voice synthesis, acting as a pilot or first officer.   Note: WABOT-1 is the world’s first full-scale humanoid intelligent robot. Sophia is the world’s first robot citizen and the first robot Innovation Ambassador for the United Nations Development Programme. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements: Zero-day attack refers to an unknown vulnerability that can be exploited by any malicious hacker with sufficient know-how. 5G technology is completely implemented using hardware components such as switches. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Zero-day attack refers to an unknown vulnerability that can be exploited by any malicious hacker with sufficient know-how. Hence statement 1 is correct. They take place when hackers exploit the vulnerability before the software developer has a chance to patch the flaw. 5G technology is almost implemented using software whereas traditional telecom networks are built using hardware components such as switches. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. A 5G network incorporates several software-based technologies such as NFV, SDN, and control plane/user plane segregation. Incorrect Solution (a) Zero-day attack refers to an unknown vulnerability that can be exploited by any malicious hacker with sufficient know-how. Hence statement 1 is correct. They take place when hackers exploit the vulnerability before the software developer has a chance to patch the flaw. 5G technology is almost implemented using software whereas traditional telecom networks are built using hardware components such as switches. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. A 5G network incorporates several software-based technologies such as NFV, SDN, and control plane/user plane segregation. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements: INS Vindhyagiri is the first stealth frigate constructed under Project-17 Alpha. Project-17 Alpha involves the construction of seven new-generation stealth frigates for the Indian Navy. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) INS Vindhyagiri is the sixth stealth frigate constructed under Project-17 Alpha. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd (GRSE) facility in Kolkata. The ship is named after the Vindhyagiri hills in Karnataka. Vindhyagiri pays a befitting tribute to the distinguished service of its predecessor, the erstwhile INS Vindhyagiri, the Leander Class ASW Frigate. Project-17 Alpha involves the construction of seven new-generation stealth frigates for the Indian Navy. Hence statement 2 is correct. The P17A ships are advanced missile frigates measuring 149 meters in length, weighing about 6,670 tonnes, and can travel at a speed of 28 knots. These are capable of neutralizing threats in all three dimensions of air, surface, and subsurface. Project-17 Alpha is also known as the Nilgiri class frigate project. Incorrect Solution (b) INS Vindhyagiri is the sixth stealth frigate constructed under Project-17 Alpha. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Ltd (GRSE) facility in Kolkata. The ship is named after the Vindhyagiri hills in Karnataka. Vindhyagiri pays a befitting tribute to the distinguished service of its predecessor, the erstwhile INS Vindhyagiri, the Leander Class ASW Frigate. Project-17 Alpha involves the construction of seven new-generation stealth frigates for the Indian Navy. Hence statement 2 is correct. The P17A ships are advanced missile frigates measuring 149 meters in length, weighing about 6,670 tonnes, and can travel at a speed of 28 knots. These are capable of neutralizing threats in all three dimensions of air, surface, and subsurface. Project-17 Alpha is also known as the Nilgiri class frigate project. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements about Matti banana: It is native to the Idukki district in Kerala. It has a sweet fragrance and honey-like taste. The corm extract from this is used as a jaundice cure. How many of the above statements are correct?  a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Matti banana variety was recently granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag. Matti banana is native to the Kanniyakumari district in Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is also known as ‘Baby Banana’ owing to its nipple-like appearance. Unlike typical banana bunches that grow straight, the Matti’s fingers exhibit a distinct wind-blown appearance. It has a sweet fragrance and honey-like taste. Hence statement 2 is correct. It has cultural significance as the local marriages are incomplete without this banana variety, mixed with payasam served at the feast. The corm extract from this is used as a jaundice cure. Hence statement 3 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (b) The Matti banana variety was recently granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag. Matti banana is native to the Kanniyakumari district in Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is also known as ‘Baby Banana’ owing to its nipple-like appearance. Unlike typical banana bunches that grow straight, the Matti’s fingers exhibit a distinct wind-blown appearance. It has a sweet fragrance and honey-like taste. Hence statement 2 is correct. It has cultural significance as the local marriages are incomplete without this banana variety, mixed with payasam served at the feast. The corm extract from this is used as a jaundice cure. Hence statement 3 is correct.   Question 28 of 35 28. Question The UDGAM Portal aids users in identifying their unclaimed deposits/ accounts and enables them to either claim the deposit amount or make their deposit accounts operative at their respective banks. It is launched by which of the following? a) Ministry of Finance b) Securities Exchange Board of India c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs d) Reserve Bank of India Correct Solution (d) UDGAM stands for Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Access information. The UDGAM Portal aids users in identifying their unclaimed deposits/ accounts and enables them to either claim the deposit amount or make their deposit accounts operative at their respective banks. It is developed by the Reserve Bank Information Technology Pvt Ltd (ReBIT), Indian Financial Technology & Allied Services (IFTAS), and participating banks. It is launched by the Reserve Bank of India. Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) UDGAM stands for Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Access information. The UDGAM Portal aids users in identifying their unclaimed deposits/ accounts and enables them to either claim the deposit amount or make their deposit accounts operative at their respective banks. It is developed by the Reserve Bank Information Technology Pvt Ltd (ReBIT), Indian Financial Technology & Allied Services (IFTAS), and participating banks. It is launched by the Reserve Bank of India. Hence option d is correct. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Recently in the news, the terms AIRAWAT, PARAM Siddhi, Pratyush, and Mihir are? a) Sattelites b) Supercomputer c) Cyber attacks d) Missiles Correct Solution (b) AIRAWAT, PARAM Siddhi, Pratyush, and Mihir are the names of Supercomputers. Hence option b is correct. AIRAWAT stands as India’s largest and fastest AI supercomputing system, with a remarkable speed of 13,170 teraflops (Rpeak). It has been manufactured by Netweb Technologies. PARAM Siddhi-AI aims to serve as AI / HPC-specific Cloud Computing Infrastructure for INDIA subsuming academia, R&D institutes, and start-ups. Pratyush is a Cray XC40 machine. It is ranked at No.169 position. Mihir is a Cray XC40 machine. It is ranked at No.316 position. Incorrect Solution (b) AIRAWAT, PARAM Siddhi, Pratyush, and Mihir are the names of Supercomputers. Hence option b is correct. AIRAWAT stands as India’s largest and fastest AI supercomputing system, with a remarkable speed of 13,170 teraflops (Rpeak). It has been manufactured by Netweb Technologies. PARAM Siddhi-AI aims to serve as AI / HPC-specific Cloud Computing Infrastructure for INDIA subsuming academia, R&D institutes, and start-ups. Pratyush is a Cray XC40 machine. It is ranked at No.169 position. Mihir is a Cray XC40 machine. It is ranked at No.316 position. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Which among the following are the challenges in making the Indian rupee an international currency? India’s global financial transaction share is less. India’s share in the world trade is small. India has adopted complete capital account convertibility. How many of the above statements are correct?  a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The challenges in making the Indian rupee an international currency: India’s global financial transaction share is less. Its corporate bond market is young, and public banks dominate. Hence statement 1 is correct. India’s share in the world trade is small. India contributes less than 2.5% to global merchandise trade and less than 4% to world services trade. Most transactions use the dollar. Hence statement 2 is correct. India hasn’t adopted complete capital account convertibility. It limits the rupee’s use in global financial transactions. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) The challenges in making the Indian rupee an international currency: India’s global financial transaction share is less. Its corporate bond market is young, and public banks dominate. Hence statement 1 is correct. India’s share in the world trade is small. India contributes less than 2.5% to global merchandise trade and less than 4% to world services trade. Most transactions use the dollar. Hence statement 2 is correct. India hasn’t adopted complete capital account convertibility. It limits the rupee’s use in global financial transactions. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 31 of 35 31. Question 60 percent of the employees of a company are women and 75% of the women earn 20000 or more in a month. Total number of employees who earns more than 20000 per month in the company is 60 percent of the total employees. What fraction of men earns less than 20000 per month? a) 5/8 b) 5/7 c) 1/5 d) 3/4 Correct Solution (a) Let total employees are 100 males = 40 and females = 60 75% of women earn 20000 or more in a month = 75/100 x 60 = 45 Thus, 45 women earns more than 20000 Total 60 employee earns more than 20000 per month So number of males earns more than 20000 is = 60 – 45 = 15 ∴number of male employees who earn less than 20000 per month = 40 – 15 = 25 so fraction = 25/40 = 5/8 Incorrect Solution (a) Let total employees are 100 males = 40 and females = 60 75% of women earn 20000 or more in a month = 75/100 x 60 = 45 Thus, 45 women earns more than 20000 Total 60 employee earns more than 20000 per month So number of males earns more than 20000 is = 60 – 45 = 15 ∴number of male employees who earn less than 20000 per month = 40 – 15 = 25 so fraction = 25/40 = 5/8 Question 32 of 35 32. Question A truck covers a distance of 376 km at a certain speed in 8 hours. How much time would a car take at an average speed which is 18 kmph more than that of the speed of the truck to cover a distance which is 14km more than that travelled by the truck? a) 5 hours b) 6 hours c) 7 hours d) 8 hours Correct Solution (b) Speed of truck = Distance covered time = 376/8 = 47 kmph Now, speed of car = speed of truck + 18 = 47 + 18 = 65 kmph Distance travelled by car = 376 + 14 = 390 km Time taken by car = Distance covered speed = 390/65 = 6 hours Incorrect Solution (b) Speed of truck = Distance covered time = 376/8 = 47 kmph Now, speed of car = speed of truck + 18 = 47 + 18 = 65 kmph Distance travelled by car = 376 + 14 = 390 km Time taken by car = Distance covered speed = 390/65 = 6 hours Question 33 of 35 33. Question A teacher conducted a test is his class. Among the students who passed the test, Minakshi was ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the last. Six boys did not participate in the test and five students failed the test. How many students were there in the class? a) 40 b) 44 c) 50 d) 55 Correct Solution (d) Number of students ahead of Minakshi = 15 Number of students behind Minakshi = 28 Total number of students who passed the test = 15 + 28 + 1 = 44 Total number of students in the class = Students who passed the test + Students who failed the test + Students who did not appear for the test = 44 + 6 + 5 = 55 Incorrect Solution (d) Number of students ahead of Minakshi = 15 Number of students behind Minakshi = 28 Total number of students who passed the test = 15 + 28 + 1 = 44 Total number of students in the class = Students who passed the test + Students who failed the test + Students who did not appear for the test = 44 + 6 + 5 = 55 Question 34 of 35 34. Question A boy is asked to list all the permutations of the letters of the word EDUCATION such that all the vowels come at the beginning of the word. How many words does the boy list? a) 1440 b) 2440 c) 2880 d) None of the above Correct Solution (c) Consonants in the word D, C, T, N = 4 consonants Vowels in the word = E, U, A, I, O = 5 vowels All the vowels should come in the beginning of the word. Number of ways of rearranging 5 vowels = 5! = 120 Number of ways of rearranging 4 consonants = 4! = 24 Number of words in the list = 120 × 24 = 2880 Incorrect Solution (c) Consonants in the word D, C, T, N = 4 consonants Vowels in the word = E, U, A, I, O = 5 vowels All the vowels should come in the beginning of the word. Number of ways of rearranging 5 vowels = 5! = 120 Number of ways of rearranging 4 consonants = 4! = 24 Number of words in the list = 120 × 24 = 2880 Question 35 of 35 35. Question A child is playing with the chess board. He has 5 identical pawns with him. He places one pawn in one black box, second pawn in second black box and so on. In how many different ways can he place the 5 pawns in 5 different black boxes? a) 64 × 63 × 62 × 61 × 60 b) 32 × 31 × 30 × 29 × 28 c) 32C5 d) None of the above Correct Solution (c) 5 identical pawns are to be placed in 5 different boxes. The total number of black boxes on the chess board = 64/2 = 32 Now, all these 32 black boxes are different. So, the problem reduces to choosing 5 different objects from a set of 32 objects. Number of ways of selecting 5 boxes out of 32 boxes = 32C5 Incorrect Solution (c) 5 identical pawns are to be placed in 5 different boxes. The total number of black boxes on the chess board = 64/2 = 32 Now, all these 32 black boxes are different. So, the problem reduces to choosing 5 different objects from a set of 32 objects. 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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th March 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.  To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 07] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following pairs with respect to the main mineral constituents of the interior of the Earth. Layers of Earth                   Constituents The Continental crust –  Silica and Magnesium The Oceanic crust –         Silica and Alumina The Core –                          Nickel, and Iron How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect correct The Earth is made up of several concentric layers with one inside another. The uppermost layer over the Earth’s surface is called the crust. It is the thinnest of all the layers. The main mineral constituents of the continental mass are silica and alumina. It is thus called sial (si-silica and al-alumina). The oceanic crust mainly consists of silica and magnesium; it is therefore called sima (si-silica and ma-magnesium) The innermost layer is the core with a radius of about 3500 km. It is mainly made up of nickel and iron and is called NiFe Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect correct The Earth is made up of several concentric layers with one inside another. The uppermost layer over the Earth’s surface is called the crust. It is the thinnest of all the layers. The main mineral constituents of the continental mass are silica and alumina. It is thus called sial (si-silica and al-alumina). The oceanic crust mainly consists of silica and magnesium; it is therefore called sima (si-silica and ma-magnesium) The innermost layer is the core with a radius of about 3500 km. It is mainly made up of nickel and iron and is called NiFe Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding Earth’s Crust The outermost solid part of the earth is called the crust, which predominantly consists of Peridotite. Oceanic crust is thinner as compared to continental crust. The upper part of the crust consists of Basaltic rocks and the lower part consists of Granitic rocks. The weaker zone of the earth’s crust is called Asthenosphere. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect Peridotite is a dark-colored igneous rock consisting mostly of olivine and pyroxene. It is an important rock type because the Earth’s mantle is predominantly composed of it. The crust is the outermost solid part of the earth. It is brittle in nature. The thickness of the crust varies under the oceanic and continental areas. The oceanic crust is thinner as compared to the continental crust. The thickness of the oceanic crust is 5km whereas that of the continental crust is around 30 km.   The upper part of the crust consists of granite rocks and forms the continents. Its main minerals constitute are silica and alumina. The lower part of the crust consists of basaltic rocks forming the ocean floors, comprising mainly silica, iron, and magnesium. The Asthenosphere is a weak zone of Earth’s Mantle and not of the Earth’s crust. Its upper layer of the earth’s mantle, below the lithosphere, in which there is relatively low resistance to plastic flow and convection, is thought to occur. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect Peridotite is a dark-colored igneous rock consisting mostly of olivine and pyroxene. It is an important rock type because the Earth’s mantle is predominantly composed of it. The crust is the outermost solid part of the earth. It is brittle in nature. The thickness of the crust varies under the oceanic and continental areas. The oceanic crust is thinner as compared to the continental crust. The thickness of the oceanic crust is 5km whereas that of the continental crust is around 30 km.   The upper part of the crust consists of granite rocks and forms the continents. Its main minerals constitute are silica and alumina. The lower part of the crust consists of basaltic rocks forming the ocean floors, comprising mainly silica, iron, and magnesium. The Asthenosphere is a weak zone of Earth’s Mantle and not of the Earth’s crust. Its upper layer of the earth’s mantle, below the lithosphere, in which there is relatively low resistance to plastic flow and convection, is thought to occur. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following statements concerning Earthquake waves: P-waves move faster but S-waves are the first to arrive at the surface. P-waves can travel only through gaseous and liquid materials. S-waves can travel only through solid materials. Surface waves are considered to be the most damaging waves. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Correct P-waves move faster than S-waves and are the first to arrive at the surface. These waves occur at a high frequency. P Waves can travel in all mediums. The velocity of P waves in Solids > Liquids >Gases. Their velocity depends on the shear strength or elasticity of the material. A secondary wave cannot pass through liquids or gases. These waves are high frequency waves. They travel at varying velocities (proportional to shear strength) through the solid part of the Earth’s crust, mantle. The Surface waves are the most destructive. They are recorded last on the seismograph.   Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Correct P-waves move faster than S-waves and are the first to arrive at the surface. These waves occur at a high frequency. P Waves can travel in all mediums. The velocity of P waves in Solids > Liquids >Gases. Their velocity depends on the shear strength or elasticity of the material. A secondary wave cannot pass through liquids or gases. These waves are high frequency waves. They travel at varying velocities (proportional to shear strength) through the solid part of the Earth’s crust, mantle. The Surface waves are the most destructive. They are recorded last on the seismograph.   Question 4 of 35 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding the geomorphic forces acting on the landforms: For the endogenic process, the energy is generated by rotational and tidal friction only. The process of diastrophism and volcanism come under exogenic forces. Temperature and precipitation control the various exogenic forces. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct The energy emanating from within the earth is the main force behind endogenic geomorphic processes. This energy is mostly generated by radioactivity, rotational and tidal friction, and primordial heat from the origin of the earth. This energy due to geothermal gradients and heat flow from within induces diastrophism and volcanism in the lithosphere. Due to variations in geothermal gradients and heat flow from within, crustal thickness, and strength, the action of endogenic forces is not uniform and hence the tectonically controlled original crustal surface is uneven. Diastrophism and Volcanism are endogenic geomorphic processes. All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust come under diastrophism. They include: (i) orogenic processes involving mountain building through severe folding and affecting long and narrow belts of the earth’s crust; (ii) epeirogeny processes involving the uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust. (iii) earthquakes involving local relatively minor movements. (iv) plate tectonics involving horizontal movements of crustal plates. Volcanism includes the movement of molten rock (magma) onto or toward the earth’s surface and also the formation of many intrusive and extrusive volcanic forms. Exogenic forces wear down (erode) relief/ elevations and fill up (aggrade) basins/depressions. When Earth’s surface erodes, the phenomenon is called gradation. Exogenic forces are generally land-wearing forces.  Weathering, mass wasting, erosion, and deposition are exogenic processes. Natural elements (like ice, water, and wind) along with Temperature, Precipitation, and celestial bodies (like comets and meteorites) are some examples of exogenic elements. They are capable of changing the configuration of the Earth’s surface and hence are called geomorphic agents. Gravity is a major component of exogenic forces as it facilitates downslope movement thereby activating waves and tides to induce currents and winds. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct The energy emanating from within the earth is the main force behind endogenic geomorphic processes. This energy is mostly generated by radioactivity, rotational and tidal friction, and primordial heat from the origin of the earth. This energy due to geothermal gradients and heat flow from within induces diastrophism and volcanism in the lithosphere. Due to variations in geothermal gradients and heat flow from within, crustal thickness, and strength, the action of endogenic forces is not uniform and hence the tectonically controlled original crustal surface is uneven. Diastrophism and Volcanism are endogenic geomorphic processes. All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust come under diastrophism. They include: (i) orogenic processes involving mountain building through severe folding and affecting long and narrow belts of the earth’s crust; (ii) epeirogeny processes involving the uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust. (iii) earthquakes involving local relatively minor movements. (iv) plate tectonics involving horizontal movements of crustal plates. Volcanism includes the movement of molten rock (magma) onto or toward the earth’s surface and also the formation of many intrusive and extrusive volcanic forms. Exogenic forces wear down (erode) relief/ elevations and fill up (aggrade) basins/depressions. When Earth’s surface erodes, the phenomenon is called gradation. Exogenic forces are generally land-wearing forces.  Weathering, mass wasting, erosion, and deposition are exogenic processes. Natural elements (like ice, water, and wind) along with Temperature, Precipitation, and celestial bodies (like comets and meteorites) are some examples of exogenic elements. They are capable of changing the configuration of the Earth’s surface and hence are called geomorphic agents. Gravity is a major component of exogenic forces as it facilitates downslope movement thereby activating waves and tides to induce currents and winds. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following pairs                   Discontinuity              Region Conrad Discontinuity – Between the upper and lower crust Repetti Discontinuity – Between the outer core and inner mantle Guttenberg Discontinuity – Between the upper mantle and lower mantle How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect The discontinuity between the upper and lower crust is called the Conrad Discontinuity. The discontinuity between the upper mantle and lower mantle is called Repetti discontinuity The discontinuity between the outer core and the inner mantle is called Guttenberg Discontinuity. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect The discontinuity between the upper and lower crust is called the Conrad Discontinuity. The discontinuity between the upper mantle and lower mantle is called Repetti discontinuity The discontinuity between the outer core and the inner mantle is called Guttenberg Discontinuity. Question 6 of 35 6. Question Consider the following statements concerning Block mountains These are formed when large areas are broken and displaced horizontally. The uplifted blocks are termed graben and the lowered blocks are called horsts. The Rhine valley in Europe is one of the prominent Block mountains. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Block Mountains are created when large areas are broken and displaced vertically (not horizontally). The uplifted blocks are termed horsts and the lowered blocks are called graben. The Rhine valley and the Vosges Mountain in Europe are examples of such mountain systems. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Block Mountains are created when large areas are broken and displaced vertically (not horizontally). The uplifted blocks are termed horsts and the lowered blocks are called graben. The Rhine valley and the Vosges Mountain in Europe are examples of such mountain systems. Question 7 of 35 7. Question With respect to the Peninsular Plateau, consider the following statements One of its unique features is that the relief is even throughout its landscape It is triangular in shape It is bordered by Aravalli hills on the North Western side. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The unique feature of the relief of Peninsular India is that it is highly uneven. It has a rugged topography with several other smaller plateaus, western ghats and eastern ghats to the west and east. Peninsular India was divided into Central highlands and the Deccan plateau. It is largely triangular in shape and represents the bottom half of our country. The Peninsular Plateau is a region with numerous hill ranges and valleys. Aravalli hills, one of the oldest ranges of the world, border it on the north-West side. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The unique feature of the relief of Peninsular India is that it is highly uneven. It has a rugged topography with several other smaller plateaus, western ghats and eastern ghats to the west and east. Peninsular India was divided into Central highlands and the Deccan plateau. It is largely triangular in shape and represents the bottom half of our country. The Peninsular Plateau is a region with numerous hill ranges and valleys. Aravalli hills, one of the oldest ranges of the world, border it on the north-West side. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Himalayan Fold Mountains: They are the oldest mountain ranges in the world. They are located in regions of high seismic activity and convergent plate boundaries. They are formed generally by sedimentary rocks and contain fossils that are marine in nature. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The Himalayan Mountains and the Alps are young fold mountains with rugged relief and high conical peaks. The Himalayas were formed as a result of the collision between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate. Because of the impact of convectional currents, the crust was split into many pieces. The Indo–Australian plate got separated from the Gondwanaland and drifted towards the north. They are located in regions of high seismic activity because they are formed out of plate movements. The Eurasian and Indian plates are continuously converging from millions of years. As it drifted towards the north, it collided with the Eurasian plate. As a result of this collision, the sedimentary rocks which were settled in the large-scale depression in the Earth’s crust called Tethys were folded and formed the Himalayas. They are formed generally by sedimentary rocks and contain fossils that are marine in nature.   Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The Himalayan Mountains and the Alps are young fold mountains with rugged relief and high conical peaks. The Himalayas were formed as a result of the collision between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate. Because of the impact of convectional currents, the crust was split into many pieces. The Indo–Australian plate got separated from the Gondwanaland and drifted towards the north. They are located in regions of high seismic activity because they are formed out of plate movements. The Eurasian and Indian plates are continuously converging from millions of years. As it drifted towards the north, it collided with the Eurasian plate. As a result of this collision, the sedimentary rocks which were settled in the large-scale depression in the Earth’s crust called Tethys were folded and formed the Himalayas. They are formed generally by sedimentary rocks and contain fossils that are marine in nature.   Question 9 of 35 9. Question Fold Mountains are formed by the large-scale lithospheric movements in the earth’s crust. In this context identify the factors which lead to the formation of Fold Mountains? Faulting of the lithospheric crust. Convection flow movements in the Mantle. Magmatic intrusions into the crust. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Fold Mountains are by far the most widespread and also important. They are caused by large-scale lithospheric movements. They are a result of folding and not faulting. Faulting leads to formation of block mountains. Fold Mountains are created where two or more of Earth’s tectonic plates are pushed together. At these colliding, compressing boundaries, rocks and debris are warped and folded into rocky outcrops, hills, mountains, and entire mountain ranges. Fold Mountains are created through a process called orogeny. An orogenic event takes millions of years to create a fold mountain Fold Mountains occur when two tectonic plates collide at a convergent plate boundary, causing the crust to over thicken. This process forces the less dense crust to float on top of the denser mantle rocks – with the material being forced upwards to form hills, plateaus, or mountains – while a greater volume of material is forced downward into the mantle Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Fold Mountains are by far the most widespread and also important. They are caused by large-scale lithospheric movements. They are a result of folding and not faulting. Faulting leads to formation of block mountains. Fold Mountains are created where two or more of Earth’s tectonic plates are pushed together. At these colliding, compressing boundaries, rocks and debris are warped and folded into rocky outcrops, hills, mountains, and entire mountain ranges. Fold Mountains are created through a process called orogeny. An orogenic event takes millions of years to create a fold mountain Fold Mountains occur when two tectonic plates collide at a convergent plate boundary, causing the crust to over thicken. This process forces the less dense crust to float on top of the denser mantle rocks – with the material being forced upwards to form hills, plateaus, or mountains – while a greater volume of material is forced downward into the mantle Question 10 of 35 10. Question Consider the following statements concerning the types of Volcanoes Shield volcanoes are mostly made up of basalt and low viscous lava thus covering larger areas. Composite volcanoes are characterised by eruptions of cooler and more viscous lavas than basalt. Caldera volcanoes are the most explosive of the earth’s volcanoes, thus altering the environment of the surrounding area. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct  Shield volcanoes are the largest of all the volcanoes on the earth. They are mostly made up of basalt and low viscous lava thus covering larger areas The Hawaiian volcanoes are the most famous example. These volcanoes are mostly made up of basalt, a type of lava that is very fluid when erupted. For this reason, these volcanoes do not erupt These are formed by lava flows of low viscosity. These volcanoes are not steep. They become explosive if somehow water gets into the vent; otherwise, they are less explosive. Composite volcanoes are characterized by the eruption of cooler and most viscous lavas than basalt. These volcanoes often result in explosive eruptions. Along with lava, large quantities of pyroclastic materials and ashes find their way to the ground. They are usually found at the destructive plate margins. They have steep sides along with composite layers. Caldera volcanoes are the most explosive on the earth’s surface affect the surrounding environment. They are usually so explosive that when they erupt they tend to collapse on themselves rather than building any structure. After the eruption of magma has ceased, the crater frequently turns into a lake at a later time. This lake is called a ‘caldera’. Examples: Lonar in Maharashtra and Krakatao in Indonesia. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct  Shield volcanoes are the largest of all the volcanoes on the earth. They are mostly made up of basalt and low viscous lava thus covering larger areas The Hawaiian volcanoes are the most famous example. These volcanoes are mostly made up of basalt, a type of lava that is very fluid when erupted. For this reason, these volcanoes do not erupt These are formed by lava flows of low viscosity. These volcanoes are not steep. They become explosive if somehow water gets into the vent; otherwise, they are less explosive. Composite volcanoes are characterized by the eruption of cooler and most viscous lavas than basalt. These volcanoes often result in explosive eruptions. Along with lava, large quantities of pyroclastic materials and ashes find their way to the ground. They are usually found at the destructive plate margins. They have steep sides along with composite layers. Caldera volcanoes are the most explosive on the earth’s surface affect the surrounding environment. They are usually so explosive that when they erupt they tend to collapse on themselves rather than building any structure. After the eruption of magma has ceased, the crater frequently turns into a lake at a later time. This lake is called a ‘caldera’. Examples: Lonar in Maharashtra and Krakatao in Indonesia. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Consider the following statements regarding Sea Floor Spreading It occurs at convergent plate boundaries only. It provides a supportive explanation for the Continental Drift theory. Alfred Wegner proposed that a new seafloor crust was continually formed at mid-ocean ridges. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Seafloor spreading occurs at divergent plate boundaries. Seafloor spreading is not consistent at all mid-ocean ridges. Slowly spreading ridges are the sites of tall, narrow underwater cliffs and mountains. Rapidly spreading ridges have much more gentle slopes. Seafloor spreading disproves an early part of the theory of continental drift. Rather, Seafloor spreading helps explain continental drift in the theory of plate tectonics. Seafloor spreading theory by Hary Hass played a pivotal role in the development of continental drift theory. It consolidated evidences presented by Alfred Wegener by disproving the tidal force and pole fleeing theory and furthering our understanding of the Formation of continents. It was Harry Hess who proposed the idea of Sea floor spreading and not Alfred Wegener. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Seafloor spreading occurs at divergent plate boundaries. Seafloor spreading is not consistent at all mid-ocean ridges. Slowly spreading ridges are the sites of tall, narrow underwater cliffs and mountains. Rapidly spreading ridges have much more gentle slopes. Seafloor spreading disproves an early part of the theory of continental drift. Rather, Seafloor spreading helps explain continental drift in the theory of plate tectonics. Seafloor spreading theory by Hary Hass played a pivotal role in the development of continental drift theory. It consolidated evidences presented by Alfred Wegener by disproving the tidal force and pole fleeing theory and furthering our understanding of the Formation of continents. It was Harry Hess who proposed the idea of Sea floor spreading and not Alfred Wegener. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following pairs: Intrusive Volcanic Forms     Definition Batholiths – Lava making its way vertically through fissures. Laccoliths – Surface volcanic domes of a composite volcano. Dykes – A large body of magmatic material that cools in the deeper depths. Sills – Lava making its way through cracks and the fissures horizontally. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Correct Batholiths A large body of magmatic material that cools in the deeper depth of the crust develops in the form of large domes. These are granitic bodies. Batholiths are the cooled portion of magma chambers. Laccoliths It resembles the surface volcanic domes of composite volcanoes, They are located at deeper depths. It can be regarded as the localized source of lava that finds its way to the surface. Dykes When the lava makes its way through cracks and the fissures developed in the land, it solidifies almost vertically to the ground. It gets cooled in the same position to develop a wall-like structure. Such structures are called dykes. Sills They are horizontal intrusive volcanic forms between sedimentary layers of rocks.   Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Correct Batholiths A large body of magmatic material that cools in the deeper depth of the crust develops in the form of large domes. These are granitic bodies. Batholiths are the cooled portion of magma chambers. Laccoliths It resembles the surface volcanic domes of composite volcanoes, They are located at deeper depths. It can be regarded as the localized source of lava that finds its way to the surface. Dykes When the lava makes its way through cracks and the fissures developed in the land, it solidifies almost vertically to the ground. It gets cooled in the same position to develop a wall-like structure. Such structures are called dykes. Sills They are horizontal intrusive volcanic forms between sedimentary layers of rocks.   Question 13 of 35 13. Question Which of the following processes can be best associated with Diastrophism? Mountain building through severe folding of the earth’s crust. The heat generated by the radioactive elements in the earth’s interior. Weathering, mass wasting, erosion, and deposition. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Diastrophism, also called tectonism, large-scale deformation of Earth’s crust by natural processes, which leads to the formation of continents and ocean basins, mountain systems, plateaus, rift valleys, and other features by mechanisms such as lithospheric plate movement (that is, plate tectonics), volcanic loading, or folding. The heat generated by the radioactive elements in the earth’s interior leads to movements of Magma and tectonic activities. Diastrophism and volcanism are endogenic geomorphic processes. While Weathering, mass wasting, erosion, and deposition are exogenic geomorphic processes. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Diastrophism, also called tectonism, large-scale deformation of Earth’s crust by natural processes, which leads to the formation of continents and ocean basins, mountain systems, plateaus, rift valleys, and other features by mechanisms such as lithospheric plate movement (that is, plate tectonics), volcanic loading, or folding. The heat generated by the radioactive elements in the earth’s interior leads to movements of Magma and tectonic activities. Diastrophism and volcanism are endogenic geomorphic processes. While Weathering, mass wasting, erosion, and deposition are exogenic geomorphic processes. Question 14 of 35 14. Question With reference to Hotspots, consider the following statements They occur at regions along the boundaries of Earth’s tectonic plates. A volcano above a hotspot continuously erupts and is active forever. Most hotspot volcanoes are basaltic How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct A hot spot is an area on Earth over a mantle plume or an area under the rocky outer layer of Earth, called the crust, where magma is hotter than surrounding magma. The magma plume causes melting and thinning of the rocky crust and widespread volcanic activity. Hotspot volcanism is unique because it occurs at the boundaries of Earth’s tectonic plates, where all other volcanism occurs. Hotspots can also develop beneath the continents also A volcano above a hot spot does not erupt forever. Eventually, the movement of the tectonic plate carries the volcano off of its magma supply. Hence it is a temporary phenomenon. The best example of a hot spot volcanic chain is the Hawaiian Islands Most of the Hotspot areas have basalt beneath them because the main source is Magma. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct A hot spot is an area on Earth over a mantle plume or an area under the rocky outer layer of Earth, called the crust, where magma is hotter than surrounding magma. The magma plume causes melting and thinning of the rocky crust and widespread volcanic activity. Hotspot volcanism is unique because it occurs at the boundaries of Earth’s tectonic plates, where all other volcanism occurs. Hotspots can also develop beneath the continents also A volcano above a hot spot does not erupt forever. Eventually, the movement of the tectonic plate carries the volcano off of its magma supply. Hence it is a temporary phenomenon. The best example of a hot spot volcanic chain is the Hawaiian Islands Most of the Hotspot areas have basalt beneath them because the main source is Magma. Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following statements about Palaeomagnetism. Palaeomagnetism is the study of the record of the earth’s magnetic field with the help of magnetic fields recorded in rocks, sediment, or archaeological materials Magnetic minerals like Basalt align themselves in the direction of the magnetic field. This orientation is a demonstration of how geomagnetic reversals have happened over geological timescales. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Paleomagnetism is the study of the record of earth’s magnetic field with the help of magnetic fields recorded in rocks, sediment, or archaeological materials. The polarity of the Earth’s magnetic field and magnetic field reversals are thus detectable by studying the rocks of different ages. Rocks formed from underwater volcanic activity are mainly basaltic (low silica, iron-rich) that makes up most of the ocean floor. Basalt contains magnetic minerals, and as the rock is solidifying, these minerals align themselves in the direction of the magnetic field. This locks in a record of which way the magnetic field was positioned at the time. Paleomagnetic studies of rocks have demonstrated that the orientation of the earth’s magnetic field has frequently alternated (geomagnetic reversal) over geologic time. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Paleomagnetism is the study of the record of earth’s magnetic field with the help of magnetic fields recorded in rocks, sediment, or archaeological materials. The polarity of the Earth’s magnetic field and magnetic field reversals are thus detectable by studying the rocks of different ages. Rocks formed from underwater volcanic activity are mainly basaltic (low silica, iron-rich) that makes up most of the ocean floor. Basalt contains magnetic minerals, and as the rock is solidifying, these minerals align themselves in the direction of the magnetic field. This locks in a record of which way the magnetic field was positioned at the time. Paleomagnetic studies of rocks have demonstrated that the orientation of the earth’s magnetic field has frequently alternated (geomagnetic reversal) over geologic time. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Which of the following evidence supports the Continental Drift Theory? Matching of African and South American continents. Rocks of the same age across the oceans Absences of source rock in the region of rich placer deposits across continents. Distribution of fossils How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct The shore life of Africa and South America facing each other have a remarkable and unmistakable match. A map produced using a computer program to find the best fit of the Atlantic margin was presented by Bullard in 1964. The radiometric dating methods developed in the recent period have facilitated correlating the rock formation from different continents across the vast ocean. The occurrence of rich placer deposits of gold on the Ghana coast and the absolute absence of source rock in the region is an amazing fact. The gold-bearing veins are in Brazil and it is obvious that the gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side. When identical species of plants and animals adapted to living on land or in freshwater are found on either side of the marine barriers, a problem arises regarding accounting for such distribution. The observations that Lemurs occur in India, Madagascar, and Africa led some to consider a contiguous landmass “Lemuria” linking these three landmasses. Mesosaurus was a small reptile adapted to shallow brackish water. The skeletons of these are found only in two localities: the Southern Cape province of South Africa and the Traver formations of Brazil. The two localities presently are 4,800 km apart with an ocean in between them. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct The shore life of Africa and South America facing each other have a remarkable and unmistakable match. A map produced using a computer program to find the best fit of the Atlantic margin was presented by Bullard in 1964. The radiometric dating methods developed in the recent period have facilitated correlating the rock formation from different continents across the vast ocean. The occurrence of rich placer deposits of gold on the Ghana coast and the absolute absence of source rock in the region is an amazing fact. The gold-bearing veins are in Brazil and it is obvious that the gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side. When identical species of plants and animals adapted to living on land or in freshwater are found on either side of the marine barriers, a problem arises regarding accounting for such distribution. The observations that Lemurs occur in India, Madagascar, and Africa led some to consider a contiguous landmass “Lemuria” linking these three landmasses. Mesosaurus was a small reptile adapted to shallow brackish water. The skeletons of these are found only in two localities: the Southern Cape province of South Africa and the Traver formations of Brazil. The two localities presently are 4,800 km apart with an ocean in between them. Question 17 of 35 17. Question North-eastern Plateau is an extension of the main Peninsular Plateau. A huge fault is created between the Rajmahal hills and the Meghalaya plateau because of a) Force exerted by the north-westward movement of the Indian plate at the time of the Himalayan origin. b) Force exerted by the north-eastward movement of the Indian plate at the time of the Himalayan origin. c) Force exerted by the south-westward movement of the Indian plate at the time of the Himalayan origin. d) Force exerted by the South-eastward movement of the Indian plate at the time of the Himalayan origin. Correct Solution (b) Due to the tectonic plate movement and convergent force, The Indo Australian plate is still exerting pressure against the Eurasian plate.  This continuous Pressure has created a huge fault is created between the Rajmahal hills and the Meghalaya plateau because of the force exerted by the northeastward movement of the Indian plate at the time of the Himalayan origin. The Northeastern Plateau is an extension of the main Peninsular plateau.  It is believed that due to the force exerted by the northeastward movement of the Indian plate at the time of the Himalayan origin, a huge fault was created between the Rajmahal hills and the Meghalaya plateau. Later, this depression got filled up by the deposition activity of the numerous rivers. Incorrect Solution (b) Due to the tectonic plate movement and convergent force, The Indo Australian plate is still exerting pressure against the Eurasian plate.  This continuous Pressure has created a huge fault is created between the Rajmahal hills and the Meghalaya plateau because of the force exerted by the northeastward movement of the Indian plate at the time of the Himalayan origin. The Northeastern Plateau is an extension of the main Peninsular plateau.  It is believed that due to the force exerted by the northeastward movement of the Indian plate at the time of the Himalayan origin, a huge fault was created between the Rajmahal hills and the Meghalaya plateau. Later, this depression got filled up by the deposition activity of the numerous rivers. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following landforms associated with Karst Topography: Uvalas Sinkholes Limestone Pavement Dolines Arrange the above-given landforms in the correct sequence of their formation a) 3-2-1-4 b) 2-4-1-3 c) 4-1-3-2 d) 1-3-4-2 Correct Solution (b) Erosional Landforms by Groundwater on the surface of the limestone are numerous shallow holes, which are small depressions carved out by solution where rainwater sinks into the limestone at a point of weakness. They are also known as sinkholes. Once the water has sunk into the limestone, it etches out caverns and passages along joints or bedding planes. Where several swallow holes coalesce, a larger hollow is formed and is called a Doline. Several Dolines may merge as a result of subsidence to form long, narrow to wide trenches called Valley sinks or Uvala. Gradually, most of the surface of the limestone is eaten away by these pits and trenches, leaving it extremely irregular with a maze of points, grooves, and ridges or Ladies. Especially, these ridges or lapses form due to differential solution activity along parallel to sub-parallel joints. The lapie field may eventually turn into somewhat smooth limestone pavements. Incorrect Solution (b) Erosional Landforms by Groundwater on the surface of the limestone are numerous shallow holes, which are small depressions carved out by solution where rainwater sinks into the limestone at a point of weakness. They are also known as sinkholes. Once the water has sunk into the limestone, it etches out caverns and passages along joints or bedding planes. Where several swallow holes coalesce, a larger hollow is formed and is called a Doline. Several Dolines may merge as a result of subsidence to form long, narrow to wide trenches called Valley sinks or Uvala. Gradually, most of the surface of the limestone is eaten away by these pits and trenches, leaving it extremely irregular with a maze of points, grooves, and ridges or Ladies. Especially, these ridges or lapses form due to differential solution activity along parallel to sub-parallel joints. The lapie field may eventually turn into somewhat smooth limestone pavements. Question 19 of 35 19. Question “Volcanism as an endogenic process includes the movement of molten rocks (magma) onto or towards the earth’s surface.” In this context, Consider the following statements. The process of cooling and solidification of magma can happen in the earth’s crust or on the surface of the earth. Sudden cooling of the molten material at the earth’s surface results in small and smooth grains. Acidic lavas have a lower percentage of silica than Basic lavas. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Volcanism includes the movement of molten rocks (magma) onto or towards the earth’s surface and also the formation of many intrusive and extrusive volcanic forms. When magma in its upward movement cools and turns into solid form, it is called igneous rock. The process of cooling and solidification can happen in the earth’s crust or on the surface of the earth. If molten material is cooled slowly at great depths, mineral grains may be very large. In contrast, Sudden cooling at the surface results in small and smooth grains because of the interaction with atmospheric cooling. Acidic lava is viscous is lighter in colour and has higher silica content. Basic lava is non-viscous, is darker in colour and has lower silica content. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Volcanism includes the movement of molten rocks (magma) onto or towards the earth’s surface and also the formation of many intrusive and extrusive volcanic forms. When magma in its upward movement cools and turns into solid form, it is called igneous rock. The process of cooling and solidification can happen in the earth’s crust or on the surface of the earth. If molten material is cooled slowly at great depths, mineral grains may be very large. In contrast, Sudden cooling at the surface results in small and smooth grains because of the interaction with atmospheric cooling. Acidic lava is viscous is lighter in colour and has higher silica content. Basic lava is non-viscous, is darker in colour and has lower silica content. Question 20 of 35 20. Question A fold mountain usually displays more than one type of fold. Anticlines and synclines are the most common up-and-down folds that result from compression Anticlines: ∩-shape, with the oldest rocks in the centre of the fold Synclines: U-shape, with the youngest rocks in the centre of the fold. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) A fold mountain usually displays more than one type of fold. Anticlines and synclines are the most common up-and-down folds that result from compression. An anticline has a ∩-shape, with the oldest rocks in the center of the fold. A syncline is a U-shape, with the youngest rocks in the center of the fold. Incorrect Solution (c) A fold mountain usually displays more than one type of fold. Anticlines and synclines are the most common up-and-down folds that result from compression. An anticline has a ∩-shape, with the oldest rocks in the center of the fold. A syncline is a U-shape, with the youngest rocks in the center of the fold. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Which of the following are the applications of Metagenomics? It helps in studying different types of microorganisms even in extreme environments. It helps in the discovery of new drugs and therapeutic agents. It can help farmers in optimizing nutrient cycling and enhance crop productivity. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement Analysis: Metagenomics is the study of microbes in their natural living environment. Metagenomics is the study of the structure and function of entire nucleotide sequences isolated and analyzed from all the organisms (typically microbes) in a bulk sample. Metagenomics is often used to study a specific community of microorganisms, such as those residing on human skin, in the soil or in a water sample. Its applications are: It helps in studying different types of microorganisms even in extreme environments like oceans and hot springs. Hence statement 1 is correct. It helps in the discovery of new drugs and therapeutic agents as it can understand novel genes and pathways responsible for the production of bioactive compounds. Hence statement 2 is correct. It can help farmers optimize nutrient cycling and enhance crop productivity as it understands the microorganisms in agricultural soils. Hence statement 3 is correct. It helps in bioremediation and environmental cleanup as it can identify microorganisms that can degrade pollutants. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement Analysis: Metagenomics is the study of microbes in their natural living environment. Metagenomics is the study of the structure and function of entire nucleotide sequences isolated and analyzed from all the organisms (typically microbes) in a bulk sample. Metagenomics is often used to study a specific community of microorganisms, such as those residing on human skin, in the soil or in a water sample. Its applications are: It helps in studying different types of microorganisms even in extreme environments like oceans and hot springs. Hence statement 1 is correct. It helps in the discovery of new drugs and therapeutic agents as it can understand novel genes and pathways responsible for the production of bioactive compounds. Hence statement 2 is correct. It can help farmers optimize nutrient cycling and enhance crop productivity as it understands the microorganisms in agricultural soils. Hence statement 3 is correct. It helps in bioremediation and environmental cleanup as it can identify microorganisms that can degrade pollutants. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements regarding Aditya L1 Mission: It is the second space-based Indian mission to study the Sun. It is placed in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system. Its objective is to study chromospheric and coronal heating, the physics of the partially ionized plasma, and the initiation of the coronal mass ejections. How many of the above statements are correct?  a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Aditya L1 Mission is the first space-based Indian mission to study the Sun. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The spacecraft is placed in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system, which is about 1.5 million km from the Earth. Hence statement 2 is correct. A satellite placed in the halo orbit around the L1 point has the major advantage of continuously viewing the Sun without any occultation/eclipses. This will provide a greater advantage in observing solar activities and their effect on space weather in real-time. The major objectives of Aditya-L1 mission are: Study of Solar upper atmospheric (chromosphere and corona) dynamics. Study of chromospheric and coronal heating, physics of the partially ionized plasma, initiation of the coronal mass ejections, and flares. Hence statement 3 is correct. Observe the in-situ particle and plasma environment providing data for the study of particle dynamics from the Sun. Physics of solar corona and its heating mechanism. Diagnostics of the coronal and coronal loops plasma: Temperature, velocity and density. Development, dynamics, and origin of CMEs. Identify the sequence of processes that occur at multiple layers (chromosphere, base, and extended corona) which eventually leads to solar eruptive events. Magnetic field topology and magnetic field measurements in the solar corona. Drivers for space weather (origin, composition, and dynamics of solar wind. Incorrect Solution (b) Aditya L1 Mission is the first space-based Indian mission to study the Sun. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The spacecraft is placed in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system, which is about 1.5 million km from the Earth. Hence statement 2 is correct. A satellite placed in the halo orbit around the L1 point has the major advantage of continuously viewing the Sun without any occultation/eclipses. This will provide a greater advantage in observing solar activities and their effect on space weather in real-time. The major objectives of Aditya-L1 mission are: Study of Solar upper atmospheric (chromosphere and corona) dynamics. Study of chromospheric and coronal heating, physics of the partially ionized plasma, initiation of the coronal mass ejections, and flares. Hence statement 3 is correct. Observe the in-situ particle and plasma environment providing data for the study of particle dynamics from the Sun. Physics of solar corona and its heating mechanism. Diagnostics of the coronal and coronal loops plasma: Temperature, velocity and density. Development, dynamics, and origin of CMEs. Identify the sequence of processes that occur at multiple layers (chromosphere, base, and extended corona) which eventually leads to solar eruptive events. Magnetic field topology and magnetic field measurements in the solar corona. Drivers for space weather (origin, composition, and dynamics of solar wind. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements: Statement I: Matangini Hazra was an Indian revolutionary who was known as “Gandhi Buri”. Statement II: She participated in the Non-Cooperation movement in 1932 and was arrested for her role in the Salt Satyagraha movement. Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation' for Statement I c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect d) Statement I is incorrect Statement II is correct Correct Solution (b) Matangini Hazra was an extraordinary woman and an Indian revolutionary who was known as “Gandhi Buri”. Because she was influenced by Mahatma Gandhi’s beliefs and began spinning khadi, following Gandhi’s footsteps. Hence statement 1 is correct. She was born in the village of Hogla, near Tamluk (in the current state of West Bengal), in 1869. She participated in the Non-Cooperation movement in 1932 and was arrested for her role in the Salt Satyagraha movement. Hence statement 2 is correct but not the correct explanation of statement 1. Incorrect Solution (b) Matangini Hazra was an extraordinary woman and an Indian revolutionary who was known as “Gandhi Buri”. Because she was influenced by Mahatma Gandhi’s beliefs and began spinning khadi, following Gandhi’s footsteps. Hence statement 1 is correct. She was born in the village of Hogla, near Tamluk (in the current state of West Bengal), in 1869. She participated in the Non-Cooperation movement in 1932 and was arrested for her role in the Salt Satyagraha movement. Hence statement 2 is correct but not the correct explanation of statement 1. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements about the Luna 25 Mission: It is Japan’s spacecraft to execute a pinpoint landing near the moon’s south pole. Its objective is to collect geological samples and find water that could aid in establishing human colonies soon. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) The Luna 25 Mission is Russia’s spacecraft to execute a pinpoint landing near the moon’s south pole. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Its objective is to collect geological samples and find water that could aid in establishing human colonies soon. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The Luna 25 Mission is Russia’s spacecraft to execute a pinpoint landing near the moon’s south pole. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Its objective is to collect geological samples and find water that could aid in establishing human colonies soon. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 25 of 35 25. Question The Digital Personal Data Protection Act has come into effect in August 2023. This happened after years of deliberations and changes since the need for a privacy law was articulated in the landmark 2017 judgment of? a) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India. b) Lily Thomas v. Union Of India c) Shakari Prasad v Union of India d) Romesh Thapar v Union Of India Correct Solution (a) The initial Digital Personal Data Protection Bill was prepared and delivered to the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) by an expert committee headed by Supreme Court Justice B.N. Srikrishna in 2018. This happened after a year of deliberations and changes since the need for a privacy law was articulated in the landmark 2017 judgment of Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India. In the ruling, the Supreme Court bench held privacy as a fundamental right protected under Article 21 of the constitution. Incorrect Solution (a) The initial Digital Personal Data Protection Bill was prepared and delivered to the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) by an expert committee headed by Supreme Court Justice B.N. Srikrishna in 2018. This happened after a year of deliberations and changes since the need for a privacy law was articulated in the landmark 2017 judgment of Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India. In the ruling, the Supreme Court bench held privacy as a fundamental right protected under Article 21 of the constitution. Question 26 of 35 26. Question The Consumer Price Index (CPI) has three components – food and beverages, fuel, and core inflation. Which of the following is the correct order based on their weightage in the CPI? a) Core Inflation>Fuel>Food and Beverages b) Core Inflation>Food and Beverages>Fuel c) Food and Beverages>Fuel>Core Inflation d) Food and Beverages>Core Inflation>Fuel Correct Solution (b) The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure of price changes in a basket of consumer goods and services purchased by households. Core inflation refers to inflation based on the consumer price index (CPI), covering the inflation of all goods and services except the volatile food and fuel prices. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) has three components – food and beverages, fuel, and core inflation. The correct order based on their weightage in the CPI: Core Inflation(47. 3%)>Food and Beverages (45.9%)>Fuel(6. 8%). Hence option b is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure of price changes in a basket of consumer goods and services purchased by households. Core inflation refers to inflation based on the consumer price index (CPI), covering the inflation of all goods and services except the volatile food and fuel prices. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) has three components – food and beverages, fuel, and core inflation. The correct order based on their weightage in the CPI: Core Inflation(47. 3%)>Food and Beverages (45.9%)>Fuel(6. 8%). Hence option b is correct. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements: The Forest Survey of India is an organization under the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is an non-statutory multi-disciplinary body that aims to combat organized wildlife crime in the country. National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body that oversees India’s Tiger Reserves and manages Project Tiger. How many of the above statements are correct?  a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Forest Survey of India is an organization under the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change that provides the assessment of forest and tree cover. It releases the biennial assessment of India’s forests called the India State of Forest Report (ISFR). Hence statement 1 is correct. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is a statutory multi-disciplinary body that aims to combat organized wildlife crime in the country. It works under the Ministry of Environment and Forests and was constituted by amending the Wild Life (Protection) Act of 1972. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body that oversees India’s Tiger Reserves and manages Project Tiger. It was constituted under enabling provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972, as amended in 2006, for strengthening tiger conservation, as per powers and functions assigned to it. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The Forest Survey of India is an organization under the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change that provides the assessment of forest and tree cover. It releases the biennial assessment of India’s forests called the India State of Forest Report (ISFR). Hence statement 1 is correct. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is a statutory multi-disciplinary body that aims to combat organized wildlife crime in the country. It works under the Ministry of Environment and Forests and was constituted by amending the Wild Life (Protection) Act of 1972. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body that oversees India’s Tiger Reserves and manages Project Tiger. It was constituted under enabling provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972, as amended in 2006, for strengthening tiger conservation, as per powers and functions assigned to it. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 28 of 35 28. Question The “Handbook on Combating Gender Stereotypes” is launched by the? a) Reserve Bank of India b) Ministry of Women and Child Development c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs d) Supreme Court Correct Solution (d)  The “Handbook on Combating Gender Stereotypes” is launched by the Supreme Court of India. It aims to free the judiciary and the legal community from the mechanical application of gender-stereotypical language in judgments, orders, and court pleadings. It assists judges and the legal community in identifying, understanding, and combating stereotypes about women. Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (d)  The “Handbook on Combating Gender Stereotypes” is launched by the Supreme Court of India. It aims to free the judiciary and the legal community from the mechanical application of gender-stereotypical language in judgments, orders, and court pleadings. It assists judges and the legal community in identifying, understanding, and combating stereotypes about women. Hence option d is correct. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements about the PM Vishwakarma Scheme: It aims to nurture the family-based practice of traditional skills by artisans and craftspeople working with their hands and tools. It will provide support to artisans and craftspeople in rural and urban areas across India. Participants will get a stipend of ₹5000 per month while undergoing training and beneficiaries will receive up to ₹1,50,000 to buy modern tools. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The PM Vishwakarma Scheme is a central sector scheme that aims to nurture the family-based practice of traditional skills by artisans and craftspeople working with their hands and tools. It covers eighteen traditional trades – carpenter, boat maker, armourer, blacksmith, hammer and tool kit maker, locksmith, goldsmith, potter, sculptor, stone breaker, cobbler, mason, basket/mat/broom maker/coir weaver, traditional doll and toy maker, barber, garland maker, washerman, tailor, and fishing net maker. Hence statement 1 is correct. Artisans and craftspeople will be provided a recognition through PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card. It will provide support to artisans and craftspeople in rural and urban areas across India. Hence statement 2 is correct. It has a provision of credit support of up to ₹1 lakh (first tranche) and ₹2 lakh (second tranche) with a concessional interest rate of 5%. It also has a provision to provide skill upgradation, incentive for toolkit as well as digital transactions and marketing support. Participants will get a stipend of ₹500 per month while undergoing training and beneficiaries will receive up to ₹15,000 to buy modern tools. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) The PM Vishwakarma Scheme is a central sector scheme that aims to nurture the family-based practice of traditional skills by artisans and craftspeople working with their hands and tools. It covers eighteen traditional trades – carpenter, boat maker, armourer, blacksmith, hammer and tool kit maker, locksmith, goldsmith, potter, sculptor, stone breaker, cobbler, mason, basket/mat/broom maker/coir weaver, traditional doll and toy maker, barber, garland maker, washerman, tailor, and fishing net maker. Hence statement 1 is correct. Artisans and craftspeople will be provided a recognition through PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card. It will provide support to artisans and craftspeople in rural and urban areas across India. Hence statement 2 is correct. It has a provision of credit support of up to ₹1 lakh (first tranche) and ₹2 lakh (second tranche) with a concessional interest rate of 5%. It also has a provision to provide skill upgradation, incentive for toolkit as well as digital transactions and marketing support. Participants will get a stipend of ₹500 per month while undergoing training and beneficiaries will receive up to ₹15,000 to buy modern tools. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements about the PM-eBus Sewa Scheme: It aims to improve urban mobility and decarbonise public transport in cities. It will cover cities of thirty lakh and above population as per the census 2011. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) An e-bus is any bus whose propulsion and accessory systems are powered exclusively by a zero-emissions electricity source. The PM-eBus Sewa Scheme aims to improve urban mobility and decarbonise public transport in cities. Hence statement 1 is correct. It will cover cities of three lakh and above population as per the census 2011 including all the Capital cities of Union Territories, North Eastern Region, and Hill States. Under this scheme, priority will be given to cities having no organized bus service. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. States or cities will be responsible for running the bus services and making payments to the bus operators but the central government will support these bus operations by providing subsidies to the extent specified in the scheme. Incorrect Solution (a) An e-bus is any bus whose propulsion and accessory systems are powered exclusively by a zero-emissions electricity source. The PM-eBus Sewa Scheme aims to improve urban mobility and decarbonise public transport in cities. Hence statement 1 is correct. It will cover cities of three lakh and above population as per the census 2011 including all the Capital cities of Union Territories, North Eastern Region, and Hill States. Under this scheme, priority will be given to cities having no organized bus service. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. States or cities will be responsible for running the bus services and making payments to the bus operators but the central government will support these bus operations by providing subsidies to the extent specified in the scheme. Question 31 of 35 31. Question Two friends Ram and Sham live 10 km apart from each other. They start from their homes at the same time on their cycles and ride towards each other. Ram travels at speed of 8 kmph and Sham at the speed of 12 kmph. How far does Sham travel before they meet? a) 3 km b) 4 km c) 5 km d) 6 km Correct Solution (d) Ram travelled 4km before they meet each other. Step-by-step explanation: In reference to the below image: Let’s suppose, Ram and Shyam meet at a point that is x km away from Ram and as the total distance between them is 10 km , so they meet 10-x km away from Shyam.   Therefore, according to the formula: Time = Distance/Speed Since both Ram and Shyam meet at the same time, hence we equalize the time taken by both to meet. x/8 = 10-x/12 On solving, 12x = 80 -8x X=4 km Incorrect Solution (d) Ram travelled 4km before they meet each other. Step-by-step explanation: In reference to the below image: Let’s suppose, Ram and Shyam meet at a point that is x km away from Ram and as the total distance between them is 10 km , so they meet 10-x km away from Shyam.   Therefore, according to the formula: Time = Distance/Speed Since both Ram and Shyam meet at the same time, hence we equalize the time taken by both to meet. x/8 = 10-x/12 On solving, 12x = 80 -8x X=4 km Question 32 of 35 32. Question A man inherits 4325 gold coins and divides them among his three sons viz. A, B and C in a certain ratio. Out of the total coins received by each of them, A donates 40 coins, B donates 20 and C donates 30 coins. Now, the ratio of coins left with them is 41:34:46. How many coins are with A now? a) 1600 b) 1400 c) 1475 d) 1435 Correct Solution (d) Let the coins with A, B and C after they have donated be 41x, 34x and 46x respectively. Total coins with A before donation = 41x + 40 Total coins with B before donation = 34x + 20 Total coins with C before donation = 46x + 30. Total coins with the father = 4325 So, 41x + 40 + 34x + 20 + 46x + 30 = 4325 Or 121x = 4235 Or x = 35. Coins with A now = 41x = 1435 Hence, option (d) is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution (d) Let the coins with A, B and C after they have donated be 41x, 34x and 46x respectively. Total coins with A before donation = 41x + 40 Total coins with B before donation = 34x + 20 Total coins with C before donation = 46x + 30. Total coins with the father = 4325 So, 41x + 40 + 34x + 20 + 46x + 30 = 4325 Or 121x = 4235 Or x = 35. Coins with A now = 41x = 1435 Hence, option (d) is the correct answer. Question 33 of 35 33. Question In a race of 100 m, A beats B by 19 m and beats C by 10 m. By how many meters would C beat B in another 100 m race assuming C and B run with their respective speeds as in the earlier race? a) 5 m b) 10 m c) 15 m d) 20 m Correct Solution (b) A beats B by 19 m in the 100 m race. Thus when A completes 100 m, B only completes 81 m. again, A beats C by 10 m in 100 m race. Thus when A completes 100 m, C only completes 90 m.   Time taken by A to complete 100 m = time taken by B to complete 81 m = time taken by C to complete 90 m. Let the time taken by B to complete 81 m = 10 seconds then C will also complete 90 m in 10 seconds Speed of C = distance covered by C time taken = 90/10 = 9 m/s Speed of B = distance covered by B time taken = 81/10 = 8.1 m/s Time taken by C to run 100 m = distance to cover speed = 100/9 = 100/9 seconds   Distance covered by B in 10 seconds = speed of B x time taken = 8.1 x (100/9) = 90 m ∴ In the second race, C beats B by 10 m or When A covers 100 m, B can cover 81 m and C can cover 90 m. When B covers 81 m, C can cover 90 m. When B covers X m, C can cover 100 m ratio of distance covered by B and C in same time will be same Thus, 81/90 = X/100 ->X = (81 x 100)/90 = 90 m ∴In a hundred meter race, B beats C by 10 m.   Incorrect Solution (b) A beats B by 19 m in the 100 m race. Thus when A completes 100 m, B only completes 81 m. again, A beats C by 10 m in 100 m race. Thus when A completes 100 m, C only completes 90 m.   Time taken by A to complete 100 m = time taken by B to complete 81 m = time taken by C to complete 90 m. Let the time taken by B to complete 81 m = 10 seconds then C will also complete 90 m in 10 seconds Speed of C = distance covered by C time taken = 90/10 = 9 m/s Speed of B = distance covered by B time taken = 81/10 = 8.1 m/s Time taken by C to run 100 m = distance to cover speed = 100/9 = 100/9 seconds   Distance covered by B in 10 seconds = speed of B x time taken = 8.1 x (100/9) = 90 m ∴ In the second race, C beats B by 10 m or When A covers 100 m, B can cover 81 m and C can cover 90 m. When B covers 81 m, C can cover 90 m. When B covers X m, C can cover 100 m ratio of distance covered by B and C in same time will be same Thus, 81/90 = X/100 ->X = (81 x 100)/90 = 90 m ∴In a hundred meter race, B beats C by 10 m.   Question 34 of 35 34. Question When in each box 5 or 6 dozens of apples were packed, three dozens were left. Therefore, bigger boxes were taken to pack 8 or 9 dozens of apples. However, still three dozens of apples remained. What was the least number of dozens of apples to be packed? a) 723 b) 363 c) 543 d) 345 Correct Solution (b) Required number of apples = (LCM of 5, 6, 8, 9) + 3 LCM of 5, 6, 8, 9 is From above calculation, LCM = 2 x 3 x 5 x 4 x 3 = 360 Hence, required numbers of apples in dozens = 360 + 3 = 363 dozens.   Incorrect Solution (b) Required number of apples = (LCM of 5, 6, 8, 9) + 3 LCM of 5, 6, 8, 9 is From above calculation, LCM = 2 x 3 x 5 x 4 x 3 = 360 Hence, required numbers of apples in dozens = 360 + 3 = 363 dozens.   Question 35 of 35 35. Question Suman, a mathematician, divides Rs. 60 among his two sons in such a way that the sum of the reciprocal of the amounts received by sons is 3/25. What amount did the son who got the higher amount receive? a) Rs. 50 b) Rs. 40 c) Rs. 10 d) Rs. 20 Correct Solution (a) Let the amounts received the two sons be Rs. x and (60 –x) respectively. According to the question, 1/x + 1/(60-x) = 3/25 Or 25 × 60 = 3x (60- x) Or 25 × 20 = x (60-x) Or 50 × 10 = x(60-x) This equation satisfies for the values 50 and 10. So, the son who got higher amount received Rs. 50. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution (a) Let the amounts received the two sons be Rs. x and (60 –x) respectively. According to the question, 1/x + 1/(60-x) = 3/25 Or 25 × 60 = 3x (60- x) Or 25 × 20 = x (60-x) Or 50 × 10 = x(60-x) This equation satisfies for the values 50 and 10. So, the son who got higher amount received Rs. 50. 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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 9th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Kerala declares man-animal conflict a state-specific disaster Syllabus Prelims & Mains – GS 3 Context: Kerala on Wednesday (March 6) declared man-animal conflict as a state-specific disaster (as per Disaster Management Act), becoming the first state in the country to do so. Background:- Kerala has been reeling under increasing count of man animal conflicts What difference will it bring? At present, managing man-animal conflict is the responsibility of the forest department, which acts as per the Wild Life Protection Act. Once the issue is declared a state-specific disaster, the onus to deal with it shifts to the state disaster management authority, which, powered by the Disaster Management Act, can take quicker and more decisive action. The Chief Minister is theex officio chairman of state disaster management authority and several departments, including the forest department, are stakeholders. In the districts, the district disaster management authority is headed by the district collector, who is also the executive magistrate. Once an issue is declared a state-specific disaster or a national disaster, the disaster management authority can take quick decisions and actions overriding all other norms. Also, district collectors can directly intervene in their capacity as the chairman of the district disaster body. In the past, every time a life has been lost to man-animal conflict, there has been mounting chorus to tranquilise/capture/kill the animals responsible.At present, the chief wildlife warden — there is only one such post in the state — is the only authority to take a call on a wild animal wreaking havoc in human settlement. Also, in the past, there have been cases where the decision to tranquilise a killer animal, such as a wild elephant, has been questioned in court.Once the issue is under the disaster management authority, it can take actions overriding other norms, including those under the Wildlife Protection Act. As per section 71 of the Disaster Management Act, no court (except the Supreme Court or a High Court) shall have jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of anything done by relevant authorities in pursuance of any power conferred by the Disaster Management Act. Section 72 of the Act says that the provisions of this Act will have an overriding effect on any other law during the specific period that a disaster has been declared. Other state-specific disasters: In 2015, Odisha had declared snakebite a state-specific disaster. In 2020, Kerala declared Covid as a state specific disaster. Source: Indian Express Chhau Dance Syllabus Prelims – Art & Culture Context: As an independent art form, Chhau stands at a critical crossroad. Its easy adaptability has diluted its essential form, rising concerns about its originality. Background: Chhau, the dance form, defies every label. It is too codified to be folk, too folk to be classical, and too classical and too folk to be martial. About Chhau Dance : Chhau dance is a tradition from eastern India (West Bengal, Jharkhand and Odisha.) that enacts episodes from epics including the Mahabharata and Ramayana, local folklore and abstract themes. Its three distinct styles hail from the regions of Seraikella, Purulia and Mayurbhanj, the first two using masks. The Seraikella Chhau developed in Seraikela, the present day administrative headquarters of the Seraikela Kharsawan district of Jharkhand, the Purulia Chhau in Purulia district of West Bengal and the Mayurbhanj Chhau in Mayurbhanj district of Odisha. The Chhau dance is mainly performed during regional festivals, especially the spring festival of Chaitra Parva which lasts for thirteen days and in which the whole community participates Its origin is traceable to indigenous forms of dance and martial practices. The Chhau blends within it forms of both dance and martial practices employing mock combat techniques (called khel), stylized gaits of birds and animals (called chalis and topkas) and movements based on the chores of village housewives (called uflis) The dance is performed at night in an open space to traditional and folk melodies, played on the reed pipes mohuri and shehnai. The reverberating drumbeats of a variety of drums dominate the accompanying music ensemble. In 2010 the Chhau dance was inscribed in the UNESCO’s Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity. Source: Scroll CITY-SPECIFIC ZERO CARBON ACTION PLAN (ZCBAP) Syllabus Prelims : Current event Context:India’s first city-specific Zero Carbon Buildings Action Plan (ZCBAP) has been launched in Nagpur. Background: The plan seeks to contribute towards India’s net-zero emission goal by 2070. About CITY-SPECIFIC ZERO CARBON ACTION PLAN (ZCBAP) Zero Carbon Buildings Action Plan (ZCBAP) by Nagpur aims to achieve net-zero carbon emissions from buildings by 2050. This initiative by the Nagpur Municipal Corporation (NMC) and the Nagpur Smart and Sustainable City Development Corporation Limited (NSSCDCL) aligns with India’s climate goals and global commitments. The ZCBAP focuses on transforming buildings within Nagpur to meet net-zero emission goals. By doing so, it contributes toward India’s broader net-zero emission target by 2070. The plan encompasses various types of buildings, including: public buildings, affordable housing, commercial buildings, and homes with a strong focus on decarbonization and sustainable development. It addresses greenhouse gas emissions reduction through considerations related to building materials, design, construction, management, and even deconstruction, targeting a significant portion of Nagpur’s energy consumption and emissions. Source: Times of India ‘FY’ ALGAE Syllabus Prelims – Science Context: Recently, ‘Fy’ algae was spotted in Yellowstone National Park. Background: The Yellowstone National Park, located in the western United States.It holds the distinction of being the world’s first national park, established on March 1, 1872. About ‘FY’ ALGAE ‘Fy’ algae is a fungus. It belongs to the Fusarium strain flavlolapis family and has been trademarked as ‘Fy’. It has been discovered in 2009 by NASA researcher Mark Kozubal. ‘Fy’ algae is an extremophilic organism, meaning it can thrive under extreme conditions such as high temperatures and acidity. One of its remarkable traits is its ability to break down various materials and convert them into food. Scientists have recognized its potential as a source of packed proteins for space missions. This protein-packed microbe has potential use in meatless burgers, dairy substitutes, and protein powders. The ‘Fy’ algae can be cultured by feeding it a simple mixture of water, salts, and sugar. Ordinary metal catering trays serve as the growth medium. A tray of this algae reportedly contains proteins equivalent to 35 chickens. Source: Smithsonian Magazine Previous Year Question Q1. With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements: It is a fungus. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only THE COMPETITION COMMISSION OF INDIA (SETTLEMENT) REGULATIONS 2024 Syllabus Prelims- Current Event Context: The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has recently notified the Commitment and Settlement Regulations. Background: These regulations play a crucial role in streamlining the settlement and commitment mechanisms under the competition law. commitments are proactive proposals made by accused enterprises to address competition concerns, while settlements are agreements reached during ongoing investigations to resolve cases efficiently. About THE COMPETITION COMMISSION OF INDIA (SETTLEMENT) REGULATIONS 2024: Settlement Regulations, 2024 were introduced by the Competition Commission of India (CCI) to reduce litigation and ensure quicker market correction. These regulations provide a mechanism for enterprises to settle cases during ongoing investigations. The Competition Act, 2002 was amended on April 11, 2023, through the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023. The Amendment Act introduced Section 48A and 48C in the Act to create a settlement mechanism. They specify the procedure for filing settlement applications and conducting settlement proceedings. The regulations provide for the form and contents of the application for settlement, circumstances in which the settlement applications can be rejected by CCI, and the manner of determining the Settlement Amount, among other things. These regulations aim to streamline the process and make it more efficient for enterprises to navigate inquiries and alleged contraventions under the Act. Competition Commission of India (CCI) The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is a statutory body established under the Competition Act, 2002. Its primary objective is to promote fair competition, prevent anticompetitive practices, and ensure a level playing field for businesses. The CCI investigates cases related to antitrust violations, mergers, and abuse of dominant market positions. Source: PIB The Birth and Death (Amendment) Act of 2023 Syllabus    Prelims and Mains – GS2 Context: Recently, the Birth and Death (Amendment) Act of 2023 was passed. Background: The Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023 that paves way for digital birth certificates which will be a single document to be used for admission to educational institutions, applications for driving licence, government jobs, passports or Aadhaar, voter enrolment, and registration of marriage, among others, will come into effect from October 1. Key features of the Birth and Death (Amendment) Act of 2023: It adds that the Registrar General of India will maintain a national database of registered births and deaths. Chief Registrars and Registrars will be obligated to share data on registered births and deaths with the national database. The Chief Registrar shall maintain a similar database at the state level. It provides digital registration and electronic delivery of certificates of births and deaths. It collects the Aadhaar numbers of parents and informants in case of birth registration. It states that the national database may be made available to other authorities preparing or maintaining other databases like population registers, electoral rolls, ration cards, etc. The information will be used for purposes including admission to an educational institution, preparation of voter lists, appointment to a government post, etc. Any person aggrieved by any action or order of the Registrar or District Registrar may appeal to the District Registrar or Chief Registrar, respectively, within 30 days. Concerns/Issues with the Birth and Death (Amendment) Act of 2023: Denying admission to school without a birth certificate may violate the fundamental right to education under Article 21A. Linkage across databases does not require consent from the person whose data is being linked, which is against the right to privacy. It does not provide alternative proof if a person does not have a birth certificate. It centralizes the database which may lead to mass surveillance. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is a statutory body established under the Competition Act, 2002. Statement-II: The Competition Act, 2002 was amended to introduce a settlement mechanism through the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q2.) With reference to ‘Fy’ algae sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements: It is a fungus. It thrives in equatorial region. Scientists have recognized its potential as a source of packed proteins for space missions. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.) With reference to Zero Carbon Buildings Action Plan (ZCBAP), consider the following statements: Nagpur is the first city in India to start a city-specific Zero Carbon Buildings Action Plan. Zero Carbon Buildings Action Plan by Nagpur aims to achieve net-zero carbon emissions from buildings by 2050. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  9th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  8th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 9th March 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here