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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 31st January 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) PROMISE OF NUCLEAR FUSION Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: An experimental nuclear fusion reactor in China triggered a lot of excitement by keeping its operational state maintained for more than 1,000 seconds, or over 17 minutes, which is a new record. Background: – Nuclear fusion is what produces the energy in the Sun, or any other star. Scientists across the world have been trying to recreate this process to produce electricity. The technology can eliminate the world’s energy crisis, and the problem of climate change, but it has not been mastered yet. Key takeaways Nuclear fusion is a process where two light atomic nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus, releasing a tremendous amount of energy. This is the same process that powers the Sun and other stars. How Does It Work? Fusion Fuel: The most common fusion reaction involves hydrogen isotopes: Deuterium (²H) and Tritium (³H) When these isotopes fuse under extremely high temperature and pressure, they form helium (⁴He) and release a neutron along with a vast amount of energy. Conditions for Fusion – To achieve fusion, the following conditions are required: High Temperature: Atomic nuclei are positively charged, so they naturally repel each other due to the electrostatic force. To overcome this repulsion, extremely high temperatures (millions of degrees Celsius) and pressures are required. High Pressure: The plasma must be confined at high density to increase the likelihood of collisions. Confinement Time: The plasma must be held together long enough for fusion reactions to occur. Experimental Advanced Superconducting Tokamak (EAST) reactor The Chinese reactor did not produce electricity or carry out a fusion reaction. However, the reactor managed to maintain plasma in a steady state of confinement for a long time, longer than it had previously been possible. Fusion require very high temperatures. At such temperatures, matter exists only in the plasma state. But such hot plasma cannot be handled by or contained in any material. Within the reactor, this plasma needs to be kept suspended in a confined space, surrounded by very strong magnetic fields acting as walls. Charged particles respond to magnetic fields, and this property is used to guide the flow of plasma within an enclosed space, separated from any matter. This condition, necessary for facilitating fusion reactions, is extremely delicate. Scientists have not been able to maintain these conditions for longer than a few seconds. Real-life electricity-generating reactors would require this state to be maintained for hours, even days, at a stretch. Advantages of Fusion The fusion process produces far greater amounts of energy than any other source — one gram of fuel can yield as much energy as burning about eight tonnes of coal.  It uses cheap input materials, available in almost limitless supply (deuterium and tritium, two heavier isotopes of hydrogen that are used as fuel, are easily available in nature), has a zero emission footprint.  Unlike the fission process, it does not leave dangerous nuclear waste. International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) The largest fusion reactor, an international collaborative project called ITER, is coming up in southern France.  More than 30 countries are participating with India being one of the seven member countries contributing to the reactor’s construction and research. According to its current timeline, it would begin deuterium-tritium fusion reactions by 2039, producing 500 MW of fusion power. Source: Indian Express FEMINISATION OF AGRICULTURE Syllabus: Mains – GS 2 & GS 3 Context: Women contribute around 63 per cent of the agricultural labour force in India, yet they lack access to key resources such as land ownership, finance, and advanced farming technologies. Background: – Women’s involvement in agriculture does not necessarily equate to empowerment.  Key takeaways The female workforce participation rate in India reached its peak at 40.8 % in 2004-05 but has declined since. However, since 2017, the female labour force participation rate (FLPR) has seen a rising trend after years of decline.   The rural FLPR increased from 41.5% in 2022-23 to 47.6% in 2023-24, while the urban FLPR increased from 25.4% to 28% over the same time period. This growth in FLPR could be attributed to the economic recovery following covid, which prompted many women who were previously not part of the labour force to seek employment. In addition, the sudden rise in FLPR in the last few years has also been linked to economic distress. The rise in FLPR is largely driven by the rise in self-employment among women, especially in agriculture. This highlights the lack of non-farm job opportunities for women, with most employment opportunities for rural women remaining confined to agriculture. This leads to feminisation of agriculture.  Feminisation of agriculture can be interpreted  in two ways.  First, it refers to an increase in the proportion of farm related work undertaken by women, including their responsibilities as smallholder cultivators or casual agricultural wage workers.  Second, feminisation of agriculture can also imply an understanding of women’s control, ownership, and participation in agricultural resources and social processes. This includes women’s ownership of farmland, land rights, and decision-making powers. Factors such as declining production and productivity, increasing cost of inputs, higher risks of crop damage due to climate change and the growing aspirations of youth in rural areas have fueled male migration out of rural areas. As a result, women who are left behind take on farm work. Gender disparity in land ownership The Agriculture Census of 2015-16 reported that while 73% of rural women workers are engaged in agriculture, only about 11.72% of the total operated area in the country is managed by female operational holders. Additionally, women’s landholdings are predominantly small and marginal. In India, women can acquire land through inheritance, gift, purchase, or government transfers. However, these systems are often skewed. For instance, women are more likely to be financially constrained than men to purchase land, making inheritance the major means of ownership. Yet, social biases make it difficult for women to inherit. Towards gender equity in agriculture Women’s participation in paid work should not be confused with their empowerment. Women often face a “double burden of work” where they are forced to maintain a balance between paid employment and unpaid household responsibilities. The agrarian economy in India has been going through distress with a fall in incomes. Hence, women’s engagement in agriculture as cultivators may not be economically empowering. The feminisation of agriculture is often discussed alongside the feminisation of poverty or feminisation of agrarian distress. Unequal land distribution and the lack of land ownership among female farmers make it difficult for them to access credit and other financial resources. Measures like placing women at the core of policies around agriculture, equal distribution of land, equal access to mechanization, and gender-responsive climate mitigation policies would help in achieving gender equity in agriculture and empower women.  Source: Indian Express TEESTA Syllabus: Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: After more than 10 years, the West Bengal government gave its nod to the Teesta bridge project, which will connect Sikkim and West Bengal. The new bridge will not only help boost tourism, but is also important for strategic purposes. Background: At present, there is only one British-era bridge on the Teesta linking West Bengal and Sikkim. Key takeaways What is the existing bridge over the Teesta? The Coronation Bridge was built in the memory of King George VI and Queen Elizabeth from 1937 to 1941. At that time, its construction cost over Rs 1 lakh. Even after more than 80 years, it remains the only link between West Bengal and Sikkim. The bridge was damaged in the 2011 earthquake, after which the Centre started planning an alternative bridge to increase connectivity between the two states on this strategically important route. The Doklam standoff between India and China in 2017 made the construction of a new bridge more urgent, as the Coronation bridge is the only lifeline for the armed forces to transport necessary equipment to the China and Bhutan border and military bases. About Teesta river The Teesta River is a significant trans-boundary river in the Indian subcontinent, flowing through the Indian states of Sikkim and West Bengal, and into Bangladesh. Origin: The Teesta River originates from the Teesta Khangtse Glacier in the eastern Himalayas, near the Pauhunri Mountain. Flow: The Teesta flows southward through the mountainous regions of Sikkim and West Bengal, cutting deep gorges and rapids. Tributaries: Major tributaries include the Rangpo River, Lachung River, Relli River, and Kanaka River on the left bank, and the Rangeet River on the right bank. 305 km of the river lies in India and 109 km in Bangladesh. Confluence: In Bangladesh, the Teesta joins the Jamuna River (a distributary of the Brahmaputra River) near Phulchhari Upazila in Gaibandha District. The Teesta is the largest river of Sikkim and second largest river of West Bengal after the Ganges. Source: Indian Express DARFUR REGION Syllabus: Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: The head of the World Health Organization called for an end to attacks on healthcare workers and facilities in Sudan after a drone attack on a hospital in Sudan’s North Darfur region killed more than 70 people and wounded dozens. Background: – The war between Sudan’s army and the Rapid Support Forces (RSF), which broke out in April 2023 due to disputes over the integration of the two forces, has killed tens of thousands, driven millions from their homes and plunged half of the population into hunger. Key takeaways Darfur is a region in western Sudan, bordering Libya, Chad, and the Central African Republic (CAR). The region consists of savannahs in the south and semi-arid deserts in the north. Darfur was an independent Sultanate (Darfur Sultanate) until it was annexed by Sudan in 1916. It has a history of ethnic and tribal conflicts between Arab and non-Arab African communities over land and resources. Darfur Conflict (2003-Present): The Darfur conflict began in 2003 when non-Arab rebel groups (Sudan Liberation Army – SLA and Justice and Equality Movement – JEM) took up arms against the government. The Sudanese government, under Omar al-Bashir, supported Arab militias (Janjaweed) to suppress the rebellion. The conflict led to widespread human rights abuses, massacres, and genocide, with over 300,000 deaths and 2.5 million displaced. Following Sudan’s military coup (2021) and the civil war in 2023, violence in Darfur has escalated again. The Rapid Support Forces (RSF), an offshoot of the Janjaweed militia, is involved in ongoing conflicts. Source: Reuters NAGOBA JATARA Syllabus: Prelims – ART & CULTURE Context: Nagoba Jatara, the pilgrimage event of Mesram clan Adivasi Gonds, started at Keslapur village in north Telangana’s tribal heartland of Indervelli mandal in Adilabad district on the night of January 28. Background: – Mesram clan Raj Gonds and Pardhans from far and wide, including the erstwhile composite Adilabad district, neighbouring Maharashtra and the vast tribal region in Central India, will congregate in Keslapur to celebrate the annual mega holy fete. Key takeaways Nagoba Jatara is a major tribal festival celebrated by the Gond tribal community in the state of Telangana, India. It is one of the largest tribal fairs in South India. Who Celebrates? The Gond tribe, particularly the Mesram clan, organizes and participates in the festival. Location: Held at Keslapur village, Indervelli Mandal, Adilabad district, Telangana. Time of Celebration: Takes place in January or February during the Hindu Pushya Masam (winter season). Religious Significance: Dedicated to Nagoba, a serpent deity worshipped by the Gond community. The festival marks the renewal of ties between the Gond clans and is seen as a symbol of unity and tradition. Rituals & Events: Holy Water: Elder clan members collect holy water from the Godavari River and bring it to the temple. This water is used for various purification rituals. Nagoba Darshan & Puja: Worship of the Nagoba deity, performed by the Mesram priests. Devotees offer coconuts, jaggery, and prayers to seek blessings. Persa Pen Ceremony: A special ritual performed to honor the ancestors of the Gond tribes. Gusadi Dance: The traditional dance performed by Gond men wearing peacock feathers and tribal attire. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs   Q1.) Which Indian state plays a key role in the Teesta River water-sharing issue with Bangladesh? a) Assam b) West Bengal c) Arunachal Pradesh d) Meghalaya Q2.) The Darfur region, often in the news due to conflict, is located in which country? a) Chad b) Sudan c) Ethiopia d) South Sudan Q3.) Nagoba Jatara, one of the biggest tribal festivals in South India, is mainly celebrated by which tribal community? A) Santhal B) Gond C) Bhil D) Munda Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  28th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 29th January 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th January 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) DEEPSEEK Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: Chinese startup DeepSeek’s launch of its latest AI models, which it says are on a par or better than industry-leading models in the United States at a fraction of the cost, is threatening to upset the technology world order.  Background: – DeepSeek is a Hangzhou-based startup whose controlling shareholder is Liang Wenfeng, co-founder of quantitative hedge fund High-Flyer, based on Chinese corporate records. What sets DeepSeek models apart is their performance and open-sourced nature with open weights, which essentially allows anyone to build on top of them. Key takeaways The release of OpenAI’s ChatGPT in late 2022 caused a scramble among Chinese tech firms, who rushed to create their own chatbots powered by artificial intelligence. But after the release of the first Chinese ChatGPT equivalent, made by search engine giant Baidu, there was widespread disappointment in China at the gap in AI capabilities between U.S. and Chinese firms. The quality and cost efficiency of DeepSeek’s models have flipped this narrative on its head. The two models, DeepSeek-V3 and DeepSeek-R1, are on par with OpenAI and Meta’s most advanced models. They are also cheaper to use. DeepSeek-V3 stands out because of its architecture, known as Mixture-of-Experts (MOE). The MOE models are like a team of specialist models working together to answer a question, instead of a single big model managing everything. The DeepSeek-V3 has been trained on a meager $5 million, which is a fraction of the hundreds of millions pumped in by OpenAI, Meta, Google, etc., into their frontier models. DeepSeek developed its AI models amidst US sanctions on China for Nvidia chips, which were intended to restrict the country’s ability to develop advanced AI systems. Source: The Hindu GUILLAIN-BARRE SYNDROME Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: Pune on January 27 reported nine more suspected cases of Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS), taking the tally in Maharashtra’s second largest city to 110. Background: – Earlier, a man suspected to have contracted Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)died in Maharashtra’s Solapur district. The 40-year-old, a native of Solapur, had come to Pune, where he is believed to have contracted the disease. This is possibly the first death in Maharashtra suspected to have been caused by GBS. Key takeaways Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS) is a rare autoimmune disorder where the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves. Cause: GBS is often triggered by an infection, such as respiratory or gastrointestinal infections, including Campylobacter jejuni, influenza, and Zika virus. Symptoms: The syndrome typically starts with tingling and weakness in the feet and legs, which can spread to the upper body. Severe cases can lead to paralysis. Onset: Symptoms usually develop rapidly over days to weeks. Symptoms Initial Symptoms: Tingling and weakness in the extremities, often starting in the feet and legs. Progression: Weakness can spread to the upper body, leading to difficulty walking, climbing stairs, or performing daily activities. Severe Symptoms: In severe cases, GBS can cause paralysis, difficulty breathing, and changes in heart rate and blood pressure. Diagnosis Clinical Evaluation: Diagnosis is based on symptoms, medical history, and physical examination. Tests: Nerve conduction studies and examination of cerebrospinal fluid can help confirm the diagnosis. Treatment Supportive Care: Treatment focuses on managing symptoms and preventing complications. Immunotherapy: Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) and plasmapheresis are used to reduce the severity and duration of GBS. Recovery: Most people recover fully, but recovery can take weeks to years, and some may have lasting effects such as weakness or fatigue. Prevention Infection Control: Preventing infections that can trigger GBS is crucial. This includes practicing good hygiene, safe food handling, and staying up-to-date with vaccinations. Source: The Hindu WETLAND ACCREDITED CITIES Syllabus: Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: Indore and Udaipur have become the first two Indian cities to join the global list of accredited wetland cities under the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands. Background: Indore, known for its cleanliness and innovative policies, is home to Sirpur Lake, a Ramsar site. Udaipur, renowned for its picturesque lakes, has five major wetlands: Pichola, Fateh Sagar, Rang Sagar, Swaroop Sagar, and Doodh Talai. Key takeaways The Wetland City Accreditation (WCA) is a voluntary scheme established by the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands in 2015.  It aims to recognize cities that have a positive relationship with wetlands, promoting their conservation and wise use. This accreditation encourages urban areas to integrate wetlands into their planning and decision-making processes, highlighting the benefits these ecosystems provide to urban communities. Eligibility Criteria: To be formally accredited, a candidate for the Wetland City Accreditation of the Ramsar Convention should satisfy the standards used to implement each of the following international criteria: It has one or more Ramsar Sites, or other wetland conservation sites fully or partly situated within its jurisdiction, which provide(s) a range of ecosystem services to the city;  It has adopted measures for conservation of wetlands and their ecosystem services;  It has implemented wetland restoration and/or management measures;  It considers the challenges and opportunities of integrated spatial/land-use planning for wetlands under its jurisdiction;  It has raised public awareness about the values of wetlands by delivering locally adapted information, and enabled participation of local stakeholders in decisionmaking processes;  It has established a local committee with appropriate knowledge and experience on wetlands and representation of and engagement with stakeholders to support the preparation work to apply for the Wetland City Accreditation and the implementation of proper measures to maintain the city’s qualifications for the accreditation. Benefits of Accreditation: International Recognition: Accredited cities gain global acknowledgment for their sustainable practices concerning wetlands. Enhanced Public Awareness: The accreditation promotes increased awareness among residents about the importance of wetlands. Tourism and Economic Opportunities: Recognition can boost eco-tourism and related economic activities. Source: Times of India NAMDAPHA NATIONAL PARK AND TIGER RESERVE Syllabus: Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: An elephant has been camera-trapped in India’s easternmost tiger reserve after 12 years, fuelling conservation hopes. Background: – According to the Arunachal Pradesh Forest Department, elephants have traditionally migrated between the Namsai area of the State and Myanmar through the Namdapha National Park and Tiger Reserve but encroachment since 1996 blocked the jumbo migration route. Key takeaways Situated in Changlang district, Arunachal Pradesh, near the tri-junction of India, Myanmar, and China. Lies in the eastern Himalayas and forms part of the Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot. Geographical Features: Spread over 1,985 square kilometers, making it the third-largest national park in India in terms of area. Altitude ranges from 200 meters to 4,571 meters, supporting diverse ecosystems. Major rivers: Noa Dihing River flows through the park. Key Features: Biodiversity: Known for its rich flora and fauna, encompassing tropical evergreen forests, temperate forests, and alpine meadows. Fauna Highlights: Big Cats: The only park in the world to host four species of big cats: tiger, leopard, snow leopard, and clouded leopard. Other notable species: Asiatic black bear, red panda, hoolock gibbons, capped langur, and hornbills. The Namdapha flying squirrel (Biswamoyopterus biswasi) was first collected in the park and described.[9] It is endemic to the park and critically endangered. Flora Highlights: Includes orchids, ferns, bamboos, and diverse medicinal plants. Tiger Reserve: Declared a tiger reserve in 1983 under Project Tiger. Faces challenges in tiger population estimation due to its rugged terrain and dense forest cover. Tribal Communities: Inhabited by indigenous tribes like the Lisu, Singpho, and Tangsa. Depend on the forest for subsistence but are now engaged in conservation efforts. Source: Indian Express UNIFIED PENSION SCHEME (UPS) Syllabus: Prelims – ECONOMY Context: Five months after the Centre announced a new Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) with assured benefits for government employees, the Finance Ministry notified the scheme as an option for workers covered by the National Pension System (NPS) to be effective from April 1, 2025. Background: – The NPS did not offer an assured pension to government employees who joined service on, or after January 1, 2004, and had replaced an older arrangement that guaranteed pensions for government employees equivalent to 50% of their last drawn salary that were considered fiscally unsustainable.  The UPS, approved by the Union Cabinet, restores the assurance of 50% of salary as pension for Union government employees. Key takeaways The Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) is a new pension scheme introduced by the Indian government, aimed at providing greater financial security for government employees. Current and future central government employees under the NPS have the option to either transition to the UPS or remain with the existing NPS. Once the decision to switch to the UPS is made, it becomes final and cannot be reversed. Key Features Assured Pension: Employees will receive a pension equivalent to 50% of their average basic pay drawn during the last 12 months before retirement, provided they have completed at least 25 years of service. Minimum Pension: Employees with at least 10 years of service will receive a minimum pension of Rs. 10,000 per month. Family Pension: In case of the employee’s death, family members are entitled to 60% of the pension. Dearness Relief: Regular pension hikes to align with inflation trends. Superannuation Benefits: A lump sum payout alongside gratuity upon retirement. Voluntary Retirement: Employees who opt for voluntary retirement after completing a minimum of 25 years of service will be eligible for the pension from the date they would have attained superannuation age. Source: Business Standard Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs   Q1.) Consider the following statements regarding Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS): GBS is an autoimmune disorder that primarily affects the central nervous system. It is often triggered by infections such as Campylobacter jejuni and influenza. Treatment for GBS includes the use of plasmapheresis and intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q2.) Which of the following statements about Wetland Accredited Cities is correct? Indore and Udaipur are the first Indian cities to join the global list of accredited wetland cities under the Ramsar Convention. Wetland Accreditation promotes urban areas to conserve wetlands but excludes Ramsar-designated sites. The accreditation encourages integrating wetlands into urban planning and decision-making. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q3.) Which of the following statements regarding Namdapha National Park is/are correct? Namdapha is located in Arunachal Pradesh near the tri-junction of India, Myanmar, and Bhutan. It hosts four species of big cats: tiger, leopard, snow leopard, and clouded leopard. The Namdapha flying squirrel, found here, is critically endangered. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  27th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 28th January 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 27th January 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) FISCAL HEALTH INDEX Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: The Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission, Dr. Arvind Panagariya, launched the inaugural issue of NITI Aayog’s report titled “Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025”. Background: – The FHI aims to throw light on the fiscal status at the sub-national level and guide policy reforms for sustainable and resilient economic growth Key things to know about elections The report ranks 18 major States on the basis of composite fiscal index, which is based on five major sub-indices –  Quality of Expenditure: Assesses how effectively states allocate their expenditures. Revenue Mobilisation: Evaluates the ability of states to generate revenue. Fiscal Prudence: Measures the fiscal discipline of states in managing their finances. Debt Index: Assesses the debt burden and sustainability of states. Debt Sustainability: Evaluates the long-term sustainability of state debt. With a cumulative score of 67.8, Odisha tops the ranking in fiscal health among 18 major States, followed by Chhattisgarh and Goa with scores of 55.2 and 53.6, respectively. Goa, Telangana and Odisha are leading in revenue mobilization and fiscal prudence.  It was observed that Odisha, Jharkhand, Goa, and Chhattisgarh have effectively mobilised non-tax sources, with Odisha relying heavily on mining-linked premiums and Chhattisgarh benefitting from coal block auctions. Punjab emerged as the biggest laggard, followed by Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal, Kerala, and Haryana.  Kerala and Punjab struggle with low quality of expenditure and debt sustainability, while West Bengal faces revenue mobilization and debt index issues. Andhra Pradesh has high fiscal deficits, and Haryana has a poor debt profile. Source: PIB IRON AGE Syllabus: Prelims – ANCIENT HISTORY Context: In an announcement that challenges long-held assumptions about the origins of the Iron Age, a new study has found evidence that the use of iron in the area that is now Tamil Nadu dates back to the first quarter of the 4th millennium BCE. Background: – Globally, the Iron Age has long been attributed to the Hittite Empire in Anatolia, where iron technology is believed to have emerged around 1300 BCE. However, the Tamil Nadu findings challenge this and positions the region as a pioneering hub of early metallurgy, surpassing global timelines by nearly two millennia. Key takeaways The new findings, which provide evidence that iron technology in Tamil Nadu dates as far back as 3345 BCE, are supported by Accelerator Mass Spectrometry (AMS) and Optically Stimulated Luminescence (OSL) analyses conducted on samples from sites such as Sivagalai, Adichanallur, Mayiladumparai, and Kilnamandi. Until recently, the Iron Age in India was believed to have emerged between 1500 and 2000 BCE, closely following the Indus Valley Civilisation. However, new data pushes this timeline back.  A paddy sample from a burial urn in Sivagalai was dated to 1155 BCE, while charcoal and potsherds (broken pieces of ceramic material) from the same site provided dates ranging from 2953 BCE to 3345 BCE, making it the earliest recorded evidence of iron technology globally. At Mayiladumparai, samples were dated to 2172 BCE, surpassing earlier benchmarks of iron usage in the region. Kilnamandi, meanwhile, yielded a sarcophagus burial dated to 1692 BCE, marking a significant milestone as the earliest-dated burial of its kind in Tamil Nadu. Study establishes that Tamil Nadu was not merely a participant in the evolution of metallurgy but an innovator, as the smelted iron findings have been dated to the middle of the third millennium BCE for the first time in the world. When cultural zones located north of Vindhyas experienced the Copper Age, the region south of Vindhyas might have entered into the Iron Age due to the limited availability of commercially exploitable copper ore. Thus, the Copper Age of North India and the Iron Age of South India are probably contemporary.  Archaeological sites in Tamil Nadu also revealed varied metallurgical techniques. Three types of iron-smelting furnaces were identified, showcasing early innovations in extracting iron. Circular furnaces in Kodumanal, for instance, reached temperatures of 1,300°C, sufficient to produce sponge iron. The study explains that the people in the area mastered the complex technology of smelting iron, which requires temperatures between 1,200°C and 1,400°C, as far back as 5,300 years ago. Source: Indian Express INLAND WATERWAYS AUTHORITY OF INDIA (IWAI) Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: For effective implementation of Inland Water Transport activities in National Waterway-1 (NW-1), River Ganga, the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) has upgraded its existing sub-office at Varanasi to a full-fledged Regional Office.  Background: IWAI, presently has five regional offices in Guwahati (Assam), Patna (Bihar), Kochi (Kerala), Bhubaneswar (Odisha) and Kolkata (West Bengal). It will now have its sixth regional office in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh. Key takeaways The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is the statutory body responsible for the development, maintenance, and regulation of inland waterways for shipping and navigation across the country.  Established on October 27, 1986, under the IWAI Act of 1985, it operates under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.  The headquarters of IWAI is located in Noida, Uttar Pradesh. Key Functions of IWAI: Infrastructure Development: IWAI is tasked with building and enhancing infrastructure on national waterways, including the construction of terminals, jetties, and navigational aids to facilitate smooth and efficient water transport. Regulation and Maintenance: The authority ensures the maintenance of navigable channels, conducts dredging operations, and implements measures to maintain desired depth and width for safe vessel movement. Project Feasibility Studies: IWAI conducts economic feasibility studies for new projects, assessing the potential and viability of developing additional waterways to expand the inland water transport network. National Waterways in India: To promote and develop inland water transport, several waterways have been designated as National Waterways (NWs). Some of the prominent NWs include: National Waterway 1 (NW-1): Extending from Prayagraj to Haldia over a length of 1,620 kilometers along the Ganges-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system. National Waterway 2 (NW-2): Covering an 891-kilometer stretch from Sadiya to Dhubri on the Brahmaputra River. National Waterway 3 (NW-3): A 205-kilometer route from Kollam to Kottapuram in Kerala, encompassing the West Coast Canal along with Champakara and Udyogmandal canals. National Waterway 4 (NW-4): Spanning 1,095 kilometers, it includes the Kakinada-Puducherry stretch of canals and the Godavari and Krishna rivers. National Waterway 5 (NW-5): Covering 623 kilometers, it comprises the East Coast Canal integrated with parts of the Brahmani and Mahanadi rivers. Source: PIB KALARIPAYATTU Syllabus: Prelims – ART & CULTURE Context: Kalaripayattu has become a bone of contention ahead of the 38th edition of the National Games which is scheduled to commence from January 28 in Uttarakhand. Background: – The Indian Kalaripayattu Federation has accused the Indian Olympics Association (IOA) of “relegating” the martial art to the demonstration section of the event. In the 37th edition of the National Games, held in Goa in 2023, Kalaripayattu was included in the competition section. Key takeaways Kalaripayattu is one of the oldest and most scientific martial art forms in the world, aimed at mind and body coordination. It originated and is widely practiced in Kerala. The term “Kalaripayattu” is derived from two Malayalam words: “kalari” (training ground or battleground) and “payattu” (training of martial arts), which together mean “practice in the arts of the battlefield”. Practices: Combines strikes, kicks, weaponry, and healing techniques. Practitioners are trained in physical agility, meditation, and knowledge of vital body points (Marmas). Styles: Divided into Northern (Vadakkan), Southern (Thekkan), and Central styles based on regional practices. The four stages of Kalaripayattu are: (i) Maippayattu: It is the body conditioning phase where the person is schooled to prepare their body for a fight. Only after qualifying this stage can the practitioner proceed to the next phase of training. (ii) Kolthari: In this stage, a person is taught attack and self-defense with the help of wooden weapons such as short sticks, and long sticks. (iii) Angathari: Once the person overcomes the fear of fighting with wooden weapons, sharp metal objects are introduced — in the third stage. (iv) Verumkai: This stage includes bare-hand fighting. Students are taught body anatomy so that they know what points they can hit and what they cannot. Weaponry: Involves the use of various weapons like swords, spears, shields, and urumi (flexible whip sword). Source: Indian Express VIKAS ENGINE Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully carried out a demonstration of restarting its Vikas liquid engine at a test facility at Propulsion Complex in Mahendragiri. Background: – This test marks a milestone in the development of technologies for recovery of stages, leading to reusability in future launch vehicles, according to an ISRO statement. Key takeaways The Vikas Engine is a liquid-fuel rocket engine developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).  It is an essential part of India’s space launch vehicle program and has been used in multiple launch vehicles, including the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV), and GSLV Mk III (now called LVM3). Vikas engine is used to power the second stage of PSLV, boosters and second stage of GSLV Mark I and II and also the core stage of LVM3. The engine uses Unsymmetrical Dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) as fuel and Nitrogen Tetroxide (N2O4) as the oxidizer. Source: India Today Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs   Q1.) Which of the following statements about the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is/are correct? IWAI was established in 1985 under the IWAI Act, 1986. The National Waterway 1 (NW-1) connects Prayagraj to Haldia along the Ganga River. IWAI operates under the Ministry of Jal Shakti. Options: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2, and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only   Q2.) Consider the following statements about Kalaripayattu: It originated in Andhra region and is one of the oldest martial art forms in the world. The term “Kalaripayattu” means “practice in the arts of the battlefield.” One of the stage of Kalaripayattu training, called Verumkai, includes bare-hand fighting techniques. Options: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q3.) Which of the following statements about the Vikas Liquid Engine is correct? It is a liquid-propellant engine developed by ISRO. It uses liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen as propellants. The engine is used in both PSLV and GSLV series of launch vehicles. Options: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2, and 3 (d) 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  25th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th January 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th January 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) NATIONAL VOTERS’ DAY Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: January 25 is celebrated annually as National Voters’ Day to mark the foundation day of the Election Commission of India (ECI), which was founded on January 25, 1950. Background: – This year we are celebrating the 15th National Voters’ Day with the theme “Nothing Like Voting, I Vote for Sure” emphasising the importance of participation in the electoral process, and encouraging voters to take pride in exercising their franchise. Key things to know about elections In democracies, voting is seen as a basic exercise that shows people’s faith in the political process. Voting is a crucial part of exercising one’s citizenship. In 2013, the Indian Supreme Court allowed for the option ‘None of the Above’ to be introduced in Lok Sabha and state Legislative Assembly elections to allow such views to be expressed. “Not allowing a person to cast a vote negatively defeats the very freedom of expression and the right ensured in Article 21, i.e. the right to liberty… a provision of negative voting would be in the interest of promoting democracy as it would send clear signals to political parties and their candidates as to what the electorate think about them. The mechanism of negative voting, thus, serves a very fundamental and essential part of a vibrant democracy,” the court said at the time. Postal Ballots ‘Postal ballot’ allows voters who cannot be physically present in polling stations to vote remotely, as specified in Section 60 of the RPA. As per Rule 18 of The Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, the following classes of persons are entitled to vote by postal ballot: Special voters: Individuals holding declared office under Section 20(4) of RPA, including the President, Vice President, Governors, Cabinet Ministers, other high-ranking dignitaries, etc. and their spouses. Service voters: Members of the Indian armed forces, paramilitary forces, an armed state police member serving outside their state, or a government employee stationed abroad and their spouses residing with them. Voters on election duty: This includes all Commission’s observers, presiding officers, polling officers and agents, police personnel, and public servants assigned official tasks on polling day. Private individuals and non-government staff, such as videographers, control room staff, drivers, conductors, cleaners, helpline staff, etc., are also covered. Electors subjected to preventive detention Absentee voters under Section 60 (c) of RPA, 1951: In 2019, the Election Commission created the ‘Absentee Voters’ category. This includes senior citizens aged 85+, persons with disabilities having at least 40% disability, Covid-19 suspect or affected persons, and persons employed in essential services. Source: Indian Express ESSENTIAL RELIGIOUS PRACTICES DOCTRINE Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: Observing that use of loudspeakers is not essential part of any religion, the Bombay High Court directed the Maharashtra government to have an in-built mechanism to control decibel levels in loudspeakers, public address system (PAS) or any other sound-emitting gadgets used at places of worship, or institutions, irrespective of religion. Background: – The court passed these directives on a plea alleging failure to take action against use of loudspeakers and amplifiers by religious places beyond prohibited hours and permissible decibel limits. Key takeaways The court referred to the 2016 HC judgement that issued several directives for the strict implementation of Noise Pollution (Regulations and Control) Rules, 2000.  The HC in 2016 observed that “use of loudspeakers is not an essential part of any religion and therefore protection under Article 25 (freedom of religion) of constitution is not available” to violating institutions. The doctrine of “essentiality” was invented by a seven-judge Bench of the Supreme Court in the ‘Shirur Mutt’ case in 1954. The court held that the term “religion” will cover all rituals and practices “integral” to a religion, and took upon itself the responsibility of determining the essential and non-essential practices of a religion. The ‘essentiality doctrine’ of the Supreme Court has been criticised by several constitutional experts. Scholars of constitutional law have argued that the essentiality/integrality doctrine has tended to lead the court into an area that is beyond its competence, and given judges the power to decide purely religious questions. As a result, over the years, courts have been inconsistent on this question — in some cases they have relied on religious texts to determine essentiality, in others on the empirical behaviour of followers, and in yet others, based on whether the practice existed at the time the religion originated. Freedom of religion was meant to guarantee freedom to practice one’s beliefs based on the concept of “inward association” of man with God. The apex court in ‘Ratilal Panachand Gandhi vs The State of Bombay and Ors’ (March 18, 1954) acknowledged that “every person has a fundamental right to entertain such religious beliefs as may be approved by his judgment or conscience”. Scholars have argued that the essentiality test impinges on this autonomy. The apex court has itself emphasised autonomy and choice in its Privacy (2017), 377 (2018), and Adultery (2018) judgments. Source: Indian Express AD HOC JUDGES IN HIGH COURTS Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: Recently, the Supreme Court suggested temporarily appointing retired judges on an ad hoc (as required) basis to address the growing backlog of pending criminal cases before several High Courts. Background: In 2021, the SC noted there have only been three recorded instances of ad hoc judges being appointed under Article 224A, calling it a “dormant provision”. Key takeaways Article 224A of the Indian Constitution allows the Chief Justice of a High Court to request retired HC judges to perform the duties of a judge again, with the permission of the President of India.  Such appointees are entitled to allowances as determined by the President’s order and have all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges of a Judge of that High Court. However, they cannot be “deemed” as such. Further, both the retired judge and the President of India are required to consent to the appointment. The detailed procedure can be found in the 1998 Memorandum of Procedure (MOP) for the appointment of High Court judges, prepared following the creation of the collegium system for appointing judges. The MOP states that after the retired judge has consented to the appointment, the Chief Justice must forward name and details on the duration of the appointment to the state’s Chief Minister. The CM will pass this recommendation to the Union Law Minister, who will consult the Chief Justice of India before forwarding the recommendation and the CJI’s advice to the Prime Minister of India. The PM will advise the President on whether to give her approval. However, in the case of Lok Prahari Through Its General Secretary S.N. Shukla IAS (Retd.) v. Union of India (2021), the SC held that this recommendation “has to be routed through the collegium of the Supreme Court”. This collegium includes the CJI and the two seniormost judges of the Supreme Court. When can an ad hoc judge be appointed? The SC, in Lok Prahari, was considering measures to address pending cases before the courts and the vacancies in posts for HC judges. SC expressed concerns that Article 224A would encourage “inaction in making recommendations” for regular judge appointments.  The court thus passed directions on when the appointment process under Article 224A could be initiated. Most importantly, the court held ad hoc judges can only be appointed when recommendations have not been made for less than 20% of the vacancies. This is so that Article 224A can be “resorted to only on the process having being initiated for filling up of the regular vacancies and awaiting their appointments.” The court also held that there has to be a “Trigger Point” for appointing judges under Article 224A, such as if the HC has vacancies of more than 20% of the sanctioned strength (excluding any proposals for appointment) and if more than 10% of the backlog of pending cases is over 5 years. It further recommended that each Chief Justice should create a “panel” of retired and soon-to-retire judges for possible ad hoc appointments. Such judges should generally be appointed for 2-3 years, with two to five ad hoc judges in a HC. Source: Indian Express YALA GLACIER Syllabus: Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: Yala glacier is expected to vanish by 2040s. Background: – It is the only glacier in the entire Himalayas to be included in the Global Glacier Casualty List, a project launched in 2024 through a collaboration between Rice University, University of Iceland, Iceland Glaciological Society, World Meteorological Organization (WMO), World Glacier Monitoring Service, and UNESCO. It is categorised as “critically endangered”. Key takeaways Yala Glacier is situated in the Langtang region of the Himalayas, in Nepal, near the Nepal-Tibet border. Retreat: The glacier has retreated by 680 meters between 1974 and 2021. Area Reduction: It has experienced a 36% reduction in area during the same period Additional Information The United Nations has designated 2025 as the International Year of Glaciers’ Preservation, to emphasise the importance of glaciers and provide essential hydrological, meteorological and climate services to those dependent on them or affected by cryospheric processes. Additionally, starting in 2025, March 21 will be observed annually as the World Day for Glaciers. Another glacier in Asia which made it to the “critically endangered” category of the Global Glacier Casualty List is is Dagu glacier in China, which is expected to disappear by 2030. Source: Times of India DARK OXYGEN Syllabus: Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: Scientists who discovered mysterious ‘dark oxygen’ on the ocean floor last year is planning a new expedition to study further about it. Background: – The discovery of “dark oxygen” was a big deal, prompting scientists to reconsider their long-held beliefs about how complex life might have evolved on Earth. Key takeaways Dark oxygen refers to the production of molecular oxygen (O₂) through processes that do not involve photosynthesis or light. Traditionally, it was believed that significant oxygen generation required light-driven photosynthesis. A notable discovery in 2024 revealed that polymetallic nodules on the abyssal seafloor might facilitate oxygen production through seawater electrolysis.  These nodules, composed of metals like manganese, nickel, copper, and cobalt, exhibit electrical potentials on their surfaces. It’s proposed that these potentials could split water molecules into oxygen and hydrogen, even in the absence of light. This phenomenon, termed “dark oxygen production,” suggests that oxygen might be generated in deep-sea environments previously thought to be anoxic. Source: Smithsonian Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs   Q1.) Yala Glacier, often mentioned in the context of climate change, is located in which of the following mountain ranges? Karakoram Himalayas Andes Alps   Q2.) The term “dark oxygen” refers to the production of oxygen through: Photosynthesis in deep-sea plants Artificial splitting of water molecules in laboratories Biotic and abiotic processes generating oxygen in the absence of light The natural photolysis of ozone in the atmosphere Options: A) 1 and 4 only B) 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 3, and 4   Q3.) Which of the following statements regarding ad hoc judges in High Courts under Article 224A is/are correct? Ad hoc judges can only be appointed if the vacancies in a High Court exceed 80% of its sanctioned strength. The consent of the Chief Justice of the High Court and the President of India is mandatory for the appointment. Ad hoc judges have the same jurisdiction, powers, and privileges as regular High Court judges but are not considered permanent judges. Options: A) 1 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  24nd January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

[CURRENT AFFAIRS] IAS UPSC REVAMPED Current Affairs Magazine December 2024

    Archives Hello Friends, This is December 2024 of IASbaba’s REVAMPED Current Affairs Monthly Magazine. Current Affairs for UPSC Civil Services Examination is an important factor in this preparation. An effort towards making your Current Affairs for IAS UPSC Preparation qualitative. We hope you make the best use of it! This edition covers all Important current affairs issues that were in the news for the month of December 2024. Kindly leave your feedback in the comment section below on the new design and presentation of the magazine. We would love to hear from you! Download The Magazine - December 2024 Important Topics Covered In The Magazine Includes:   The Bridge to Moscow Production-linked Incentive (PLI) Hydrothermal Vent Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPS) Spadex Mission Brain Rot Jalvahak Scheme And Much More..... Download The Magazine - December 2024 To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow- TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccount YOUTUBE – https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQ FACEBOOK – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/ Also, SUBSCRIBE to the WEBSITE Below, so that you don’t miss out on important posts! Thank You IASbaba

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 25th January 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 24th January 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) SCHEMES RELATED TO GIRL CHILD Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: National Girl Child Day, an initiative of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, is celebrated every year on January 24. Background: – The day is aimed at promoting awareness about the rights of the girl child and to increase awareness on the importance of girls’ education, their health and nutrition. It also aims at promoting the position of girls in the society to make their living better. Key schemes for girl child NPS Vatsalya Scheme The scheme was launched in 2024. It is a new pension scheme for children in the age group of 0 to 18 years.  A parent can deposit a minimum of 1000 per month and a maximum with no limit. This account will be operated by the parents until the child turns 18, after which the account will be in the name of the children.  Once the child turns 18, the account can be seamlessly converted into a regular NPS account or a non-NPS scheme. It is regulated and administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory Authority of India (PFRDA). Beti Padhao, Beti Bachao:  On January 22, the BBBP scheme completed 10 years since its launch in 2015. The Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao Scheme, launched to address the decline in Child Sex Ratio and related issues of empowerment of girls, is implemented by states with 100% central assistance.  It set several targets concerning the nutritional status of girls, their attendance in schools, the provision of adequate infrastructure in schools and so on. Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana:  Launched in 2015 as part of the Indian government’s ‘Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’ campaign, Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana is a small savings scheme designed to help parents of girl children accumulate a corpus for their daughter’s education and marriage. Parents of a girl child aged 10 years or younger can invest in this scheme. The scheme allows for a minimum and maximum annual deposit of Rs.250 and Rs.1.5 lakh, respectively.  Deposits to the account can be made for 15 years from the account opening date. The account, however, has a lock-in period of 21 years, implying that deposits mature after 21 years. CBSE Udaan Scheme:  Launched in 2014 by Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) under the guidance of the Ministry of Education aims to address low enrollment of women in STEM (science, technology, engineering, and mathematics), specifically in the Indian engineering colleges.  The CBSE provides free tutorials for students of class 11 and class 12 to crack engineering entrance exams including the Joint Entrance Exam (JEE). Source: Indian Express PREAMBLE Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: As India prepares to celebrate its 76th Republic Day under the theme “Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas” (Golden India: Legacy and Progress), the day also marks a historic moment to reflect on the core values of the Indian Constitution as reflected in the preamble. Background: – The idea of “constitutional patriotism,” first introduced by German social theorist Jürgen Habermas in the 1990s within a primarily European context, has taken on a unique and dynamic character in India. The Preamble, embodying the nation’s core values of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity, holds a deeply symbolic and aspirational status, making constitutional patriotism in India a spirited and vibrant expression of loyalty to democratic principles. Key takeaways The preamble begins with the words, “We, the people of India”. This invocation is significant as it stands in sharp contrast to the often unchecked and emotional invocation of “the people” by populist movements.  The people invoked in the Preamble are presented with a sense of sobriety, as a constitutionally mediated entity, which prevents any possibility of such populist invocation of the people from easily descending into tyranny. Sovereign: The term refers to three aspects:  first, sovereignty connotes a supremacy of power that the state claims and tolerates no power above it;  second, there is no possibility or threat of insubordination below the state that could threaten its integrity;  and third, this sovereignty is crystallised in the form of popular representation in Parliament, which represents the will of the people through universal adult franchise. Socialist:  The term was not present in the original version. It was introduced into the Preamble in 1976 through the 42nd constitutional amendment along with the term “secular”.  There has been controversy around the term socialist being part of the Preamble. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was against the inclusion as he felt that its presence would unfairly constrain future governments.  Secular:  The word secular does not imply a lack or negation of religion. Instead, it simply means that in the interests of maintaining religious harmony among India’s numerous religions and belief systems, the state shall maintain a secular stance. Republic:  The term republic in the Preamble of the Constitution connotes that the head of the state has to be an elected figure and not a hereditary monarch, which continues to be the case to this day in the United Kingdom. The landmark Keshavananda Bharati case (1973) ruled that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution. The Keshavananda Bharati judgement is particularly significant as it gave rise to the “basic structure” doctrine of the Constitution and included the Preamble in it.  This judgement marked a departure from an earlier judgement in the Berubari Union Case (1960) that did not view the Preamble as part of the Constitution. Source: Indian Express GLOBAL PLASTIC ACTION PARTNERSHIP (GPAP) Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Global Plastic Action Partnership (GPAP) has recently reached a significant milestone by expanding its network to include 25 countries. Background: With a combined population of over 1.5 billion people, the expansion highlights a growing global effort to address the urgent issue of plastic pollution. Seven new countries — Angola, Bangladesh, Gabon, Guatemala, Kenya, Senegal, and Tanzania — have joined this collaborative effort. Key takeaways The Global Plastic Action Partnership (GPAP) is a multistakeholder platform launched by the World Economic Forum in 2019.  Its primary goal is to accelerate the transition to a circular economy for plastics and tackle plastic pollution on a global scale. Objectives Reduce Plastic Pollution: GPAP aims to reduce plastic waste leakage into the environment, particularly oceans. Promote Circular Economy: Encourage the reuse and recycling of plastics to minimize waste and environmental impact. Foster Collaboration: Bring together governments, businesses, and civil society to work towards common goals. Key Initiatives National Action Roadmaps: Tailored strategies for each participating country to address plastic waste management. Investment Mobilization: GPAP has mobilized significant investments to support sustainable plastic management. Job Creation: Focus on creating green jobs, especially for informal waste workers. Awareness and Education: Raise awareness about the impact of plastic pollution and promote sustainable practices. Source: Down To Earth BHITARKANIKA NATIONAL PARK Syllabus: Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: The population of saltwater crocodiles in Odisha’s Bhitarkanika National Park has marginally increased in 2025. Forest officials counted 1,826 crocodiles during the recent annual reptile census whereas in 2024, they sighted 1,811 reptiles. Background: – The forest department had stopped the crocodile breeding and rearing programme in 2024 in the park as the crocodile population reached a saturation point.  Key takeaways Bhitarkanika National Park is a prominent protected area in Odisha, known for its rich biodiversity, mangrove ecosystems, and unique wildlife. Situated in the delta region of the Brahmani, Baitarani, and Dhamra rivers. Designation: Declared a national park in 1998. Part of the Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary (declared in 1975). Designated as a Ramsar Site in 2002 for its wetland significance. Flora: One of India’s largest mangrove ecosystems. Supports diverse plant species such as Avicennia, Rhizophora, and Heritiera. Fauna: Known for saltwater crocodiles, with one of the largest breeding populations in India. Other species include Indian python, king cobra, water monitor lizard, spotted deer, and wild boar. Rich avian biodiversity, including migratory birds like open-billed storks and herons. Located within the close vicinity of the Bhitarkanika National Park is Odisha’s only Turtle Sanctuary. A part of the Gahirmatha Beach, the Turtle Sanctuary is the place  where one can spot Olive Ridley Turtles. Source: Down To Earth KEELING CURVE Syllabus: Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: In 2024, the yearly average level of the greenhouse gas carbon dioxide (CO2) rose faster over the prior year than ever before in the 67-year-old Keeling Curve record. Background: – When researchers took the average readings for all 12 months in 2024, the average was 3.58 parts per million (ppm) higher than for 2023’s average. That broke the record for largest jump set in 2016 of 3.41 ppm. In both instances, the climate pattern El Niño played a role. Key takeaways The Keeling Curve is a graphical representation of the concentration of carbon dioxide (CO₂) in Earth’s atmosphere over time. Origin: Named after Dr. Charles David Keeling, who began continuous monitoring of atmospheric CO₂ levels in 1958 at the Mauna Loa Observatory in Hawaii. The curve shows the steady increase in atmospheric CO₂ levels since 1958. It also captures seasonal fluctuations caused by natural processes like photosynthesis and plant respiration. CO₂ levels decrease during spring and summer as plants absorb CO₂ through photosynthesis, and increase during fall and winter due to plant decay. Source: Scripps Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the Global Plastic Action Partnership (GPAP), consider the following statements: GPAP was launched by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) in 2019 to tackle global plastic pollution. One of the objectives of GPAP is to promote a circular economy for plastics by encouraging reuse and recycling. The recent expansion of GPAP includes countries such as Angola, Bangladesh, and Kenya. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q2.) With reference to the Keeling Curve, consider the following statements: It represents the variations in global temperatures over time. It was developed in 1858. The Keeling Curve shows a steady increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO₂) levels due to human activities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q3.) With reference to the Bhitarkanika National Park, consider the following statements: It is located in the delta region of the Brahmani, Baitarani, and Dhamra rivers  in Odisha. It is a designated Ramsar Site, recognized for its significant mangrove ecosystems and wetland biodiversity. Bhitarkanika is known as a major nesting site for Great Indian Bustard. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  23nd January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – b