Posts

IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th May – 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) SOCIAL STOCK EXCHANGE Category: NATIONAL Context: Social stock exchange listing will become crucial for NGOs in the years to come. Decoding the context: Despite progress, SSE struggles with awareness—only 2% of eligible NPOs are listed (2025 estimate). Smaller organizations lack resources to meet SEBI’s reporting standards, risking exclusion. Learning Corner: The Social Stock Exchange (SSE) is a platform under the regulatory ambit of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) that enables social enterprises—both non-profit organizations (NPOs) and for-profit social enterprises (FPEs)—to raise funds for social welfare initiatives.  Proposed in the Union Budget 2019-20 by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, SSE aims to channel capital market resources toward inclusive growth and financial inclusion. It operates as a segment within existing stock exchanges like the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) and National Stock Exchange (NSE), with NSE listing its first NPO, Bengaluru-based Unnati Foundation, in 2023. Key Features Eligibility: Social enterprises must focus on 16 broad social objectives, including eradicating poverty, promoting healthcare, education, gender equality, and environmental sustainability.  Corporate foundations, political/religious organizations, and infrastructure companies (except affordable housing) are not eligible to be listed on the SSE. Fundraising Instruments: NPOs can issue ZCZP instruments, which do not offer financial returns but are aimed at achieving social outcomes. Additionally, NPOs can receive donations and may benefit from mutual fund schemes designed for social impact investments. FPEs can issue equity, debt, or access Social Venture Funds (SVFs) under Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs). Reporting Requirements: NPOs must submit fund utilization statements within 45 days post-quarter and an Annual Impact Report (AIR) within 90 days post-financial year, detailing social impact. FPEs must comply with SEBI’s listing norms and social impact reporting. Investor Benefits: Investments in NPOs listed on SSE qualify for Section 80G tax deductions, and corporate investments count toward Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) obligations. Progress and Developments (2025) NSE’s SSE segment, operational since 2023, allows contributions starting at ₹1,000, democratizing philanthropy. As of 2025, SSE has listed over 50 social enterprises, raising ₹500 crore, with a focus on education and healthcare. A Capacity Building Fund (₹100 crore), supported by NABARD and SIDBI, aids NPOs in meeting reporting standards, addressing capacity gaps for smaller organizations. Significance Social Impact: SSE bridges funding gaps for India’s NPOs, enabling scalable solutions for SDGs like poverty alleviation (SDG 1), health (SDG 3), and education (SDG 4). Economic Inclusion: By leveraging capital markets, SSE fosters financial inclusion, supporting Atmanirbhar Bharat and reducing reliance on foreign aid. Transparency: SSE ensures accountability through mandatory impact reporting, addressing misuse of CSR funds. Source : The Hindu CHAMBAL RIVER Category: GEOGRAPHY Context: Sand mining in the Chambal River region is a major environmental concern, particularly in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. Decoding the context:  The extracted sand is in high demand for the booming construction industry, leading to unchecked exploitation of riverbeds. This activity has disrupted the habitat of wildlife, led to increased erosion, and significantly altered the river’s natural flow. Learning Corner: The Chambal River, a major tributary of the Yamuna, is one of India’s cleanest perennial rivers, flowing through Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.  Originating at Bhadakla Falls near Janapav Hills (843 m elevation) in Indore district, Madhya Pradesh, it stretches 1,024 km, joining the Yamuna in Jalaun district, Uttar Pradesh, as part of the Ganga drainage system.  Historically known as Charmanvati (Mahabharata), it flows through Vindhyan scarplands, badlands, and ravines, forming deep gorges.  Major dams include Gandhi Sagar, Rana Pratap Sagar, Jawahar Sagar, and Kota Barrage. Ecological and Environmental Significance Biodiversity Hotspot:  The Chambal hosts the National Chambal Sanctuary (NCS), a tri-state protected zone (5,400 sq. km) across Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh, established in 1978 under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.  It is a critical habitat for endangered species like the gharial (77% of global population) , Gangetic dolphin, Indian skimmer, red-crowned roofed turtle, and mugger crocodiles.  Environmental Concerns: Sand Mining and Its Impacts Despite a Supreme Court ban (2006) on mining in the NCS, the practice persists. Wildlife Disruption: Sand mining destroys nesting and basking sites of gharials, turtles, and birds like the Indian skimmer. The Gangetic dolphin faces habitat loss due to altered riverbeds and increased turbidity. Erosion and River Flow Alteration: Excessive dredging deepens riverbeds, increases erosion, and changes the river’s natural course, leading to flooding risks during monsoons. Water Scarcity: Reduced environmental flow, exacerbated by upstream dams (e.g., Kota Barrage) and sand mining, lowers water levels, especially in summer. Source : Down To Earth INDIAN GREY WOLF Category: ENVIRONMENT Context:  In Maharashtra’s Kadbanwadi grassland, the already endangered Indian grey wolf is now at an added risk from dogs attacking their pups or weak members of the pack. Decoding the context: The Indian grey wolf is considered the guardian of the Kadbanwadi grassland. As an apex predator, it indicates the health of the ecosystem, regulating the numbers of smaller predators and herbivores. Learning Corner: The Indian Grey Wolf (Canis lupus pallipes), a subspecies of the grey wolf, is an apex predator in India’s grasslands, scrublands, and semi-arid ecosystems. Distribution: Found from Southwest Asia to the Indian subcontinent, including Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Karnataka, and parts of West Bengal, Odisha, and Jharkhand. Ecological Role and Habitat Role: As an apex predator, it regulates populations of smaller predators and herbivores (e.g., chinkara, blackbuck), maintaining ecosystem balance. Habitat: Prefers open natural ecosystems (ONEs) like savanna grasslands, scrublands, and semi-arid regions, thriving in warmer conditions. Behavior: Nocturnal, hunts from dusk to dawn, lives in small packs of 6–8, monogamous, less vocal than other wolf species. Conservation IUCN Status: Endangered (Red List). Legal Protection: Listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 2022, and Appendix I of CITES for curbing illegal trade. Bankapur Wolf Sanctuary (Karnataka, 2025) and Mahuadanr Wolf Sanctuary (Jharkhand) are dedicated to wolf conservation Source : The Hindu INDIA’S MAJOR PORTS Category: GEOGRAPHY Context: In FY 2024-25, Major Ports registered an impressive annual growth rate of 4.3% in cargo handling, increasing from 819 million tonnes in FY 2023-24 to ~855 million tonnes in FY 2024-25.  Decoding the context: Among commodities handled at Major Ports, Petroleum, Oil, and Lubricants (POL)—including crude, petroleum products, and LPG/LNG—led the charts with a volume of 254.5 million tonnes (29.8%), followed by container traffic at 193.5 million tonnes (22.6%), coal at 186.6 million tonnes (21.8%), and other cargo categories such as iron ore, pellets, fertilizers, and more in FY 2024-25. Learning Corner: There are 12 Major Ports wholly-owned by the Government of India and governed by the provisions of the Major Port Authorities Act, 2021. These are Deendayal Port, Mumbai Port, Jawaharlal Nehru Port, Mormugao Port, New Mangalore Port, Cochin Port, V.O. Chidambaranar Port, Chennai Port, Kamarajar Port, Visakhapatnam Port, Paradip Port and Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port. Governed by: Major Port Authorities Act, 2021 (replaced Major Port Trusts Act, 1963). Administered by: Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. Coastal coverage: 9 coastal states. West Coast Ports Port State Key Points Kandla (Deendayal Port) Gujarat One of the largest Indian port by volume of cargo handled; Mumbai Maharashtra Natural harbor; largest container traffic; oldest port. Jawaharlal Nehru Port (JNPT) Maharashtra Also called Nhava Sheva; one of the largest container port of India. Mormugao Goa Specializes in iron ore export. New Mangalore Karnataka Handles fertilizers, petroleum, iron ore. Cochin (Kochi) Kerala All-weather, natural harbor; international cruise terminal; LNG terminal at Puthuvypeen.   East Coast Ports Port State Key Points Chennai Tamil Nadu Oldest artificial port; handles automobiles, containers. Ennore (Kamarajar Port Ltd.) Tamil Nadu India’s only major corporate port. Tuticorin (V.O. Chidambaranar Port) Tamil Nadu Shallow bay; handles fertilizers, coal, petroleum. Visakhapatnam Andhra Pradesh Deep port; handles bulk cargo, coal, iron ore. Paradip Odisha Major bulk cargo port (especially iron ore and coal). Kolkata (Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port) West Bengal India’s only riverine major port; handles jute, tea, coal. Source : PIB CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA (CJI) Category: POLITY Context: Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai was sworn in by President Droupadi Murmu as the 52nd Chief Justice of India at the Rashtrapati Bhavan. Decoding the context: Known as a bold and decisive judge who speaks his mind, Chief Justice Gavai’s tenure may see important hearings in the challenges to the Places of Worship Act and the Waqf (Amendment) Act of 2025. Learning Corner: Article 124(1) of the Indian Constitution provides for a Supreme Court with a Chief Justice of India and other judges as appointed by the President. The CJI is the head of the judiciary in India and the supreme judicial authority. Appointment: Appointed by the President of India under Article 124(2). By convention, the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court is appointed as the CJI. The Law Ministry seeks recommendation from the outgoing CJI for their successor. Tenure: No fixed term. Holds office until the age of 65 years [Article 124(2)]. Can resign (to the President), be impeached (under Article 124(4)), or retire upon reaching age limit. Removal: Through a process of impeachment as per Article 124(4) by Parliament on grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity. Oath: Administered the oath by the President of India under Third Schedule of the Constitution. Powers and Functions: Allocates cases and benches in the Supreme Court. Supervises the functioning of the Supreme Court. Has administrative control over the judiciary. Plays a crucial role in appointments and transfers of High Court judges (as part of the Collegium System). Source : The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. With reference to the Chief Justice of India (CJI), consider the following statements: The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the President under Article 124(2) of the Constitution. There is a fixed term of 5 years for the office of the Chief Justice of India. The CJI can be removed from office by the President on the recommendation of the Vice-President. By convention, the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court is appointed as the Chief Justice of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 4 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2, and 4 only D. 1, 3, and 4 only   Q2. Which of the following statements regarding India’s major ports is/are correct? Deendayal Port is located on the eastern coast of India and is a major container port. Paradip Port is the first major port built on the east coast after independence. Jawaharlal Nehru Port (JNPT) is India’s smallest container port. Select the correct answer using the code below: A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3   Q3. With reference to the Indian Grey Wolf, consider the following statements: It is classified as a Schedule I species under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. It is found primarily in alpine and temperate forest ecosystems of the Himalayas. The Indian grey wolf plays a critical role as an apex predator in dryland ecosystems. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3   Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 13th May  – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series

[DAY 52] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2025 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2025. Click Here To Take The Test -> Click Here

IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th May – 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) DONGRIA Category: NATIONAL Context: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) has sought for an Action Taken Report from Odisha Chief Secretary on the precarious living condition, lack of basic amenities and necessities of life of more than 10,000 families from “Dongria Kondh” Community. Decoding the context: While 62 tribal groups reside in Odisha, 13 of them are recognised as PVTGs. 2011 Census, Odisha’s share of the country’s total tribal population was 9 per cent as per the 2011 census. Tribal settlers comprised 22.85 per cent of the State’s population. Learning Corner: Dongria Kondh is an indigenous tribal group living in the Niyamgiri Hills of Rayagada and Kalahandi districts in Odisha. They are a subgroup of the Kondh tribe, and are listed as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India. Population: Approximately 8,000–10,000 people. Key Features: Livelihood: Subsistence farming (horticulture, shifting cultivation), collection of forest produce (like turmeric, honey, wild roots). Religion & Culture: Worship the Niyam Raja, their ancestral deity believed to reside in the Niyamgiri hills. Follow traditional animistic beliefs with minimal external religious influence. Language: Kui (a Dravidian language, though the Dongrias themselves do not have a written script). Society: Clan-based, matrilineal elements, rich in traditional ecological knowledge.  Legal and Environmental Significance: Gained national attention for opposing bauxite mining in the Niyamgiri hills by Vedanta Resources in early 2000s. In 2013, the Supreme Court of India upheld the rights of Dongria Kondh under the Forest Rights Act (2006), allowing them to decide on mining through Gram Sabha consultations. Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) Initially categorized as Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) in 1975 by the Government of India, renamed as PVTGs in 2006. The criteria for identifying Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups are: – Pre-agricultural level of technology, Low level of literacy, Economic backwardness, A declining or stagnant population. Key Facts: Number of PVTGs in India: 75 tribes across 18 States and UT of Andaman & Nicobar Islands. Highest number of PVTGs: Odisha (13 groups, including Dongria Kondh, Bonda, Juang, etc.) Source : Statesman RIGHT TO REPAIR Category: NATIONAL Context: The Department of Consumer Affairs (DoCA) last week announced that a report for a “Framework on Repairability Index (RI) in Mobile and Electronic Sector” had been submitted to the government. Decoding the context:  Under the RI, consumer electronics and electronic appliances would be assigned a score depending on how easy they are to repair by evaluating products under criteria like availability of spare parts, cost of repair, software updates, and availability of information. Learning Corner: The Right to Repair (RTR) movement advocates for consumers right to repair devices without manufacturer-imposed restrictions, promoting access to spare parts, tools, and repair information. Key Developments in India Right to Repair Portal India (2022):  Launched by DoCA in 2022, the portal facilitates repair-related information sharing across four sectors: automobiles, mobile and electronics, consumer durables, and farming equipment.  As of 2025, 65+ companies, including 23 in mobile and electronics, have onboarded, providing details on authorized repairers, spare parts, and manuals. Repairability Index (RI) Framework (2025):  The May 2025 report recommends that Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEMs) self-declare an RI score for smartphones and tablets, displayed at points of sale, e-commerce platforms, and via QR codes on packaging.  This aims to empower consumers to choose repairable products, addressing the 20% rise in repair complaints. Significance Consumer Empowerment: RTR lowers repair costs, extends device lifespans, and offers consumers the choice of independent repair shops, reducing dependency on OEMs. Environmental Impact: By promoting repairs, RTR addresses India’s e-waste crisis, supporting a circular economy (SDG 12: Responsible Consumption).  Economic Benefits: Enhances local repair industries, creating jobs (e.g., third-party repair shops) and supporting Atmanirbhar Bharat by positioning India as a potential global repair hub. Global Alignment: India’s RTR framework mirrors global practices—e.g., EU’s Right to Repair Rules (2019), UK’s 2021 Regulations (spare parts for 10 years), and the U.S. Fair Repair Act (2022)—but adapts them to local needs without additional compliance burdens on manufacturers. Source : The Hindu GERMANIUM Category: SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context:  India is engaging with the Chinese government to navigate export restrictions on germanium, a critical mineral that is used in manufacturing of semiconductors, fiber optic cables and solar panels. Decoding the context: The export restrictions for the element — over half of its annual output comes from China — may have caused some friction in electronics manufacturing and other industries that require the element. Learning Corner: Germanium (Ge) is a rare, lustrous, gray-white metalloid. It is not a free metal found in nature but is primarily obtained as a by-product of zinc mining and coal fly ash. It is part of the critical and strategic minerals list due to its high-tech and defense applications. Key Uses of Germanium Semiconductors – Used in transistors and diodes due to its high electrical conductivity. Fiber Optic Cables – Its high refractive index makes it ideal for optical fibers, minimizing signal loss over long distances. Solar Panels – Especially used in space-grade solar cells (high efficiency). Infrared Optics – Germanium lenses are crucial in night-vision devices, thermal imaging, and surveillance systems. LEDs & Photodetectors – Used in optoelectronic devices. Germanium & Strategic Importance Recognized as a critical mineral by countries like the USA, EU, Japan, and India. Crucial for telecommunications, defense, and renewable energy. Global Production China is the largest producer and exporter of Germanium, accounting for over 60% of the global supply. Other producers include Russia, Canada, Belgium, and the USA. In July 2023, China imposed export restrictions on Germanium and Gallium, citing “national security” — a move seen as a response to U.S. chip sanctions. India and Germanium India does not currently produce Germanium at commercial scale. However, trace reserves are found in zinc smelting plants and coal fly ash. India has included Germanium in its list of 30 critical minerals (under Ministry of Mines). Source : The Hindu DARK PATTERNS Category: ECONOMY Context: The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) is coming down hard on online platforms that violate customer rights, either by using dark patterns or not providing full information about the money they seek from customers. Decoding the context: The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has identified 13 dark patterns to protect consumers from unfair and deceptive practices in e-commerce, including basket sneaking and confirm shaming. Learning Corner: Dark patterns are deceptive user interface designs that manipulate users into actions they might not have intended, such as making unintended purchases or sharing personal data. Coined by Harry Brignull in 2010, dark patterns exploit cognitive biases to trick users into decisions that benefit businesses, often at the expense of consumer autonomy. Impact in India:  With 850 million internet users (TRAI, 2025), e-commerce penetration is high (projected $200 billion market by 2026, IBEF).  Dark patterns erode trust, increase financial losses (online shoppers faced hidden charges) and disproportionately affect rural users due to low digital literacy. Basket Sneaking:  Definition: Basket sneaking involves adding unwanted items or services to a user’s cart during checkout without explicit consent, often buried in fine print or pre-checked boxes. Example: An e-commerce platform automatically adds a ₹500 warranty or a ₹200 donation to a user’s cart, requiring them to manually opt out. Impact: Violates consumer autonomy, increases costs, and exploits inattention. Confirm Shaming: Definition: Confirm shaming uses guilt or shame to pressure users into a choice by framing the alternative negatively. Example: A subscription pop-up might say, “Get Premium for ₹99/month” with a “No, I don’t want to save money” decline option, making users feel foolish for opting out. Impact: Manipulates user psychology, reducing informed decision-making. It’s particularly harmful in India, where cultural norms around shame amplify its effect, especially among first-time digital users. Indias Regulatory Regime Dark patterns encompass a wide range of manipulative practices which fall under the category of “unfair trade practices” as defined in the Sub-section 47 under Section 2 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The CCPA, in exercise of the powers conferred by Section 18 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, has issued “Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns, 2023” for prevention and regulation of dark patterns listing 13 specified dark patterns identified in e-Commerce sector.  13 specified dark patterns: false urgency, Basket Sneaking, Confirm shaming, forced action, Subscription trap, Interface Interference, Bait and switch, Drip Pricing, Disguised Advertisements, Nagging, Trick Wording, Saas Billing and Rogue Malwares. Source : Business Standard ETHANOL Category: SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: The Union government has approved an additional 2.8 million tonnes of Food Corporation of India (FCI) rice for ethanol production in 2024-25, raising the total allocation to 5.2 million tonnes despite ongoing concerns over the diversion of food grains for fuel instead of food security. Decoding the context: Of the total amount of rice sanctioned under the Union government’s Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) programme, distilleries had already lifted approximately one million tonnes. Learning Corner: Ethanol (C₂H₅OH), also called ethyl alcohol, is a clear, colorless alcohol. Ethanol is one of the primary biofuels, naturally produced through the fermentation of sugars by yeasts or through petrochemical processes like ethylene hydration.  It is widely used not only as an alternative fuel source but also in various industries as a chemical solvent and in the synthesis of organic compounds.  Ethanol also has medical applications as an antiseptic and disinfectant, adding to its versatile uses. In India, it is primarily derived from first-generation (1G) sources—sugarcane molasses, surplus rice, and maize—though second-generation (2G) technologies using non-food biomass (e.g., rice straw, bagasse) are promoted for sustainability. 3rd and 4th Generation Ethanol sources Third-Generation Ethanol source: Uses algae and aquatic biomass (like cyanobacteria and microalgae) as the raw material. Fourth-Generation Ethanol source: Builds upon third-generation sources but includes genetically modified (GM) organisms, synthetic biology, or photobiological systems. Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme Launched in 2003, the EBP Programme mandates blending ethanol with petrol to reduce fossil fuel dependency, cut emissions, and save foreign exchange.  It was expanded nationwide in 2019 (except Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep). Aims for 20% blending (E20) by 2025-26 (advanced from 2030) and 30% by 2030. Source : Down To Earth Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. With reference to Ethanol and India’s Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme, consider the following statements: Ethanol is a hydrocarbon compound that is non-renewable and derived only from fossil fuels. The EBP programme allows the blending of ethanol with diesel to reduce import dependence. The National Policy on Biofuels (2018) allows ethanol production from damaged food grains and agricultural residue. India has achieved 20% ethanol blending with petrol ahead of its original 2022 target. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 3 and 4 only   Q2. With reference to “Dark Patterns” in digital platforms, consider the following statements: The term was first coined by the World Economic Forum in the context of unethical digital marketing. Basket Sneaking and Confirm Shaming are examples of dark patterns. In India, dark patterns are recognized as unfair trade practices under the Consumer Protection Act. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A.1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3   Q3. With reference to Germanium, consider the following statements: Germanium is classified as a critical mineral due to its applications in defense, telecommunications, and renewable energy. India is the largest global producer of Germanium. Germanium is used in infrared optics, fiber optics, and space-grade solar cells. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A.1 and 3 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3   Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 12th May  – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th May – 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) CREDIT GUARANTEE SCHEME FOR STARTUPS (CGSS) Category: GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: To ease credit access for startups and fuel innovation in priority sectors, the government has doubled the guarantee cover under its Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS), raising the limit per borrower from ₹10 crore to ₹20 crore. Decoding the context: The move comes amid tightening funding conditions, with startups calling for stronger institutional support as private capital flows dry up. Learning Corner: The Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS), launched by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, aims to provide collateral-free debt funding to DPIIT-recognized startups.  Objective: Facilitates collateral-free loans to startups, reducing lender risk and encouraging debt financing for innovation, aligning with the Viksit Bharat vision. Key Features of CGSS Feature Details Launched by DPIIT, Ministry of Commerce & Industry Implemented by National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC) Target Beneficiaries DPIIT-recognized startups Type of Guarantee Collateral-free credit guarantee cover Guarantee Coverage Up to 75% to 85% of the sanctioned credit Eligible Lenders Scheduled Commercial Banks, NBFCs, AIFIs, etc. Latest Enhancement (2024-25) Per borrower guarantee limit raised from ₹10 crore to ₹20 crore   Coverage: 85% of the default amount for loans up to ₹10 crore; 75% for loans above ₹10 crore. Annual Guarantee Fee (AGF): Reduced to 1% per annum (from 2%) for startups in 27 Champion Sectors under the Make in India initiative. For others, the fee is 2%, with a concessional 1.5% for female entrepreneurs and Northeast startups. Implementation: Managed by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC), which issues automatic guarantees to Member Institutions (MIs) via its portal upon meeting eligibility criteria. Eligible Startups: Must be DPIIT-recognized, not in default, not classified as Non-Performing Assets, and certified by Member Institutions (MIs) as having stable revenue (assessed over 12 months of audited statements). Eligible Member Institutions (MIs): Include Scheduled Commercial Banks, NBFCs (BBB-rated, ₹100 crore net worth), and SEBI-registered AIFs. Source : Livemint SAMPLE REGISTRATION SYSTEM (SRS) REPORT Category: NATIONAL Context: As per the Sample Registration System (SRS) Report 2021 released by the Registrar General of India (RGI) recently, India has continued to witness a significant improvement in key maternal and child health indicators. Decoding the context:  India’s Progress in reduction of Maternal and Child mortality indicators outpaces Global Averages. Learning Corner: The Sample Registration System (SRS), initiated in 1964-65 and fully operational by 1970, is a large-scale demographic survey conducted by the Office of the Registrar General of India (RGI) under the Ministry of Home Affairs. Objective: SRS aims to generate accurate data on births, deaths, and other demographic indicators in the absence of a robust Civil Registration System (CRS), which remains incomplete in India (e.g., only 89% birth registration in 2023, RGI). Data Collection: Continuous Enumeration: Local part-time enumerators (often teachers) record births and deaths in real-time. Independent Half-Yearly Surveys: SRS supervisors conduct retrospective surveys every six months to cross-verify records. Matching Process: Events from both methods are matched, with discrepancies resolved through field visits, ensuring data accuracy. Outputs: Published in SRS Bulletins (biannual) and detailed annual SRS Statistical Reports. Key Highlights of the SRS Report Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) of the country has shown a marked reduction, declining by 37 points from 130 per lakh live births in 2014–16 to 93 in 2019–21. The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) of the country has declined from 39 per 1000 live births in 2014 to 27 per 1000 live births in 2021.  Neonatal Mortality Rate (NMR) has declined from 26 per 1000 live births in 2014 to 19 per 1000 live births in 2021.  Under-Five Mortality Rate (U5MR) has declined from 45 per 1000 live births in 2014 to 31 per 1000 live births in 2021.  The Sex Ratio at Birth improves from 899 in 2014 to 913 in 2021.  Total Fertility Rate is consistent at 2.0 in 2021, which is a significant improvement from 2.3 in 2014. Source : PIB GEOTUBING Category: ENVIRONMENT Context:  A study conducted about the offshore breakwater system using geotube technology along the Poonthura coastal stretch (Kerala) has found that they yielded remarkable transformations in the coastal landscape. Decoding the context: The study, conducted on a 750-meter pilot project initiated in 2019, found that geotubing prevented wave overtopping beyond the seawall—extending protection twice the breakwater’s length on the shore side—and fostered sustainable beach formation even during inclement weather. Learning Corner: Geotubes (also called geotextile tubes) are large, permeable fabric tubes made of high-strength geotextile material. They are filled with sand, slurry, or dredged material, and are used primarily for shoreline protection, erosion control, and coastal defense. The material allows water to escape while retaining the solids, leading to the formation of a stable, solid structure. Applications of Geotube Technology Coastal Protection: Acts as offshore breakwaters or sea walls to reduce wave energy and prevent erosion. Commonly used in eroding coastal regions like Kerala, Odisha, West Bengal, and Tamil Nadu. Riverbank and Flood Protection: Prevents riverbank erosion and serves as levees or dikes in flood-prone areas. Dewatering: Used in industries and sewage treatment plants to dewater sludge. Reclamation Projects: Helps in land reclamation by containing dredged material. Case Study: Poonthura, Kerala Context: Poonthura coastal stretch in Kerala was facing severe erosion and damage during monsoons and high tides. Intervention: Offshore breakwater system using geotube technology was implemented. Outcome: Successful reduction in coastal erosion. Natural deposition of sand led to beach widening. Stabilized the coastline, thus protecting life and property. Advantages of Geotube Technology Cost-effective compared to conventional concrete or rock structures. Quick to deploy and requires less maintenance. Environmentally friendly — promotes beach nourishment and sediment accumulation. Can be easily removed or relocated, offering flexibility. Source : The Hindu NIPAH VIRUS Category: SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: A new case of Nipah virus was confirmed in Kerala in a 42-year-old woman from Malappuram district. Decoding the context: The Nipah outbreak now reported is the seventh instance in Kerala. The first outbreak was reported in 2018, followed by outbreaks in 2019, 2021, 2023 and 2024. Last year, Kerala reported two Nipah outbreaks. Both outbreaks in 2024 were in Malappuram district. Learning Corner: Nipah Virus is a zoonotic virus (transmitted from animals to humans) belonging to the Paramyxoviridae family, genus Henipavirus. It was first identified in 1998–99 in Malaysia among pig farmers. In India, major outbreaks occurred in West Bengal (2001, 2007) and Kerala (2018, 2019, 2021, 2023, 2024). Transmission Reservoir Host: Fruit bats of the Pteropus genus (commonly known as flying foxes) are the primary reservoir. Transmission can occur: Animal to human: Transmission occurs via consumption of contaminated fruits or direct contact with bat secretions. Human to human: Close contact with infected persons, especially caregivers. Fomites: Contaminated objects and surfaces. Symptoms Incubation period: 4 to 14 days (can extend up to 45 days). Symptoms range from asymptomatic to acute respiratory illness and fatal encephalitis. Early symptoms: Fever, headache, drowsiness, disorientation. Severe cases may result in coma within 24–48 hours. Fatality & Concerns High case fatality rate: Ranges between 40% to 75%. No specific treatment or vaccine available. Managed through supportive care. Classified by WHO as a priority disease for research due to epidemic potential. Source : The Hindu MANAS NATIONAL PARK Category: ENVIRONMENT Context: Three wild elephants were found dead in the Manas National Park in Assam near the India-Bhutan border. Decoding the context: It is suspected that poachers have killed the elephants. Learning Corner: Manas National Park, located in Assam, India, spans the districts of Baksa, Chirang, and Bongaigaon, along the foothills of the Eastern Himalayas.  Named after the Manas River—a major tributary of the Brahmaputra—it was declared a national park in 1990 and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site (designated in 1985), a Project Tiger Reserve and an Elephant Reserve. Area: Approx. 950 sq. km (core area); it forms part of a larger biosphere reserve. Linked to the Royal Manas National Park of Bhutan, forming a transboundary conservation area. Geographical and Ecological Significance Location and Terrain: Situated at the confluence of the Indian, Indo-Malayan, and Indo-Chinese biogeographical realms, Manas features a diverse landscape of grasslands, tropical semi-evergreen forests, and alluvial floodplains.  It lies at an elevation of 61-110 meters above sea level, with the Manas River flowing through it, shaping its flood-dependent ecology. Biodiversity: Flora: Over 840 plant species, including rare orchids and tropical Sal forests. Grasslands dominate 45% of the park, supporting herbivore populations. Fauna: Hosts 55 mammal species, 450 bird species, 50 reptile species, and 3 amphibian species. Key species include: Endangered Mammals: Bengal tiger, Indian elephant, greater one-horned rhinoceros, pygmy hog, and hispid hare. Birds: Bengal florican, great hornbill, and migratory species like the red-headed vulture. Cultural Significance: The park is sacred to the Bodo community, who revere the Manas River. The annual Manas Festival, held in April (last held April 5-7, 2025), promotes eco-tourism and Bodo culture. Conservation Challenges Poaching and Insurgency: During the Bodo insurgency (1980s-2000s), Manas faced severe poaching, particularly of rhinos. Militants used the park as a hideout, disrupting conservation efforts. UNESCO listed Manas as a World Heritage Site in Danger from 1992 to 2011 due to habitat destruction and wildlife loss. UNESCO Status Restored: Removed from the “in danger” list in 2011 after improved conservation measures. Source : The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. Why is May 11 celebrated as National Technology Day in India? A. To commemorate the establishment of DRDO. B. To celebrate India’s first satellite launch. C. To mark India’s successful nuclear tests under Operation Shakti in 1998. D. To recognize the formation of the Department of Science and Technology (DST).   Q2. Which of the following statements regarding methane is/are correct? Methane has a higher Global Warming Potential (GWP) than carbon dioxide over a 100-year period. Methane has a longer atmospheric lifespan than carbon dioxide. Methane contributes to the formation of ground-level ozone. A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3   Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the Nipah Virus (NiV): It is caused by a bacterium belonging to the genus Henipavirus. Fruit bats of the Pteropus genus are the natural reservoir of the virus. India has witnessed outbreaks of Nipah Virus only in Kerala. There is currently no approved vaccine or specific treatment for Nipah Virus infection. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2, 3, and 4 only C) 2 and 4 only D) 1, 2, and 4 only   Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 10th May  – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – b

IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 10th May – 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) TERRITORIAL ARMY Category: NATIONAL Context: In the midst of tensions with Pakistan, the Government has empowered the Chief of Army Staff to call on officers and personnel of the Territorial Army to provide for “essential guard or to be embodied for the purpose of supporting or supplementing” the regular army. Decoding the context: The genesis of the Territorial Army in India can be traced back to the first war of Independence in 1857, when a Volunteer Force was raised. In 1920, the Indian Territorial Force was established, which is the direct precursor to today’s Territorial Army. After independence in 1947, the ITF was disbanded. The Territorial Army was re-raised on October 9, 1949, under the Territorial Army Act, 1948. Learning Corner: The Territorial Army (TA) is India’s second line of defense after the regular army.  Often called the “Citizen’s Army,” it comprises volunteers who serve part-time while continuing civilian careers, providing a reserve force to support the Indian Army during national emergencies, wars, and internal security crises.  The TA’s motto, Savdhani Va Shoorta (Vigilance and Valour), reflects its dual role in defense and nation-building. The TA units were actively involved in 1962, 1965 and 1971 operations. They have also taken part in OP PAWAN in Sri Lanka, OP RAKSHAK in Punjab and J&K, OP RHINO and OP BAJRANG in the North East in a most active manner Legal and Organizational Structure: Governed by the Territorial Army Act, 1948. Comes under the Ministry of Defence, Government of India. Headed by the Director General Territorial Army (DGTA). Eligibility and Recruitment (for Officers): Nationality: Must be a citizen of India. Age Limit: 18 to 42 years on the date of application.    Educational Qualification: Graduate from a recognized university.    Employment: Must be gainfully employed in a civil/government profession or self-employed. Serving members of the regular armed forces, police, and paramilitary forces are not eligible. Physical Standards: A candidate must be physically and medically fit in all respects. Composition: Presently, the Territorial Army has a strength of approximately fifty thousand personnel comprising 65 Departmental TA units such as Railway, IOC, ONGC, and Non Departmental TA units of Infantry Battalion (TA) including Home & Hearth Battalions, Ecological Battalion (TA) affiliated to various Infantry Regiments, and Engineer Regiment (TA) for maintenance of Line of Control Fencing. Besides these, a Composite Eco Task Force for the National Mission for Clean Ganga is being raised at Allahabad. Significance : Force Multiplier: The TA acts as a cost-effective force multiplier, providing a pool of trained manpower that can be mobilized quickly without the financial burden of a large standing army.    Strategic Depth: It provides strategic depth to the regular army. Flexibility and Adaptability: TA personnel bring diverse skills and experiences from their civilian professions, which can be valuable. National Integration: It fosters a sense of patriotism and national service among citizens from all walks of life. Supporting Essential Services: Their role in providing essential guard duties can free up regular army personnel for other critical tasks.    Disaster Relief: Historically, TA units have played a crucial role in assisting civil authorities during natural disasters. Source : The Hindu VEMBANAD LAKE Category: ENVIRONMENT Context: Over the past century, the Vembanad lake has shrunk significantly due to human-induced interventions, land reclamation, and natural sedimentation. Decoding the context:  According to a recent expert committee report prepared as part of the Vembanad Lake Rejuvenation Project, the lake’s surface area has shrunk mainly due to land encroachment.  Learning Corner: Vembanad Lake, located in Kerala, is India’s longest lake (96.5 km) and largest in the state, spanning Alappuzha, Kottayam, and Ernakulam districts.  Vembanad Lake forms a crucial part of the Kerala Backwaters, a network of brackish lagoons and canals running parallel to the Arabian Sea coast. The lake, also known as Punnamada Lake in Alappuzha and Kochi Lake in Kochi. Geographical and Ecological Significance It forms part of the Vembanad-Kol wetland system, a Ramsar site since 2002, and is the second-largest Ramsar site in India after the Sundarbans.  Rivers and Connectivity: Fed by six major rivers—Periyar, Muvattupuzha, Pamba, Manimala, Meenachil, and Achenkovil—it connects to the Arabian Sea, forming an intricate network of estuaries, lagoons, and canals. National Waterway 3: A significant stretch of this waterway passes through Vembanad Lake. The lake surrounds islands like Pathiramanal, Perumbalam, and Vallarpadam, and is integral to the Kuttanad region, known as “The Rice Bowl of Kerala,” where farming occurs below sea level. Thanneermukkom Barrage: This largest mud regulator in India divides the lake into a freshwater and a brackish water zone. While it protects Kuttanad’s paddy fields from salinity, it also contributes to ecological issues like proliferation of water hyacinth and reduced fish migration. Biodiversity: A hotspot of biodiversity, it hosts over 90 bird species, including migratory ones at Kumarakom Bird Sanctuary, and supported 150-200 fish species in the 1950s, now dwindled to below 100 due to ecological stress. Source : The Hindu IMF BAILOUTS Category: INTERNATIONAL Context:  The International Monetary Fund (IMF) cleared a $1-billion tranche for Pakistan as part of its $7-billion Extended Fund Facility (EFF) lending program and $1.3 billion tranche under the Resilience and Sustainability Facility (RSF) in its board meeting. Decoding the context: India abstained from voting in the meeting as it raised concerns over the efficacy of IMF programmes for Pakistan given its “poor track record” and also on the possibility of “misuse of debt financing funds for state-sponsored cross-border terrorism”. Learning Corner: Established: 1945, headquartered in Washington, D.C. Unlike development banks, the IMF does not lend for specific projects. Instead, the IMF provides financial support to countries hit by crises to create breathing room as they implement policies that restore stability and growth. It also provides precautionary financing to help prevent crises. Board of Governors It is the highest decision-making body of the IMF. It normally meets once a year. It consists of one governor and one alternate governor for each member country. The governor is appointed by the member country and is usually the minister of finance or the governor of the central bank. IMF bailouts Countries seek IMF bailouts when they are facing macroeconomic risks, currency crises and need assistance to meet external debt obligations, to buy essential imports and push the exchange value of their currencies. The lending is done through programs designed according to purpose. These include standby arrangement, standby credit facility, extended fund facility, extended credit facility, rapid financing instrument, rapid credit facility, resilience and sustainability facility etc. Conditions applicable to an IMF bailout Conditions applicable to an IMF bailout could be certain structural reforms, such as fiscal transparency, tax reforms and reforms in state-owned enterprises. Conditions for IMF lending also relate to macroeconomic variables, like monetary and credit aggregates, international reserves, fiscal balances, and external borrowing, as per the IMF. Extended Fund Facility (EFF) An EFF is a financial assistance package offered by the IMF to countries facing serious medium-term balance of payments problems because of structural weaknesses that require time to address. Notably, the assistance under the EFF is in the form of a loan that has to be paid back, and not in the form of a grant or aid.  The term “extended” means that these countries need more time than usual to pay back the money because they need to bring about “structural” changes. Source : Indian Express METHANE EMISSIONS Category: ENVIRONMENT Context: The energy sector contributed around 145 million tonnes (Mt) of methane emissions in 2024, with oil and gas facilities accounting for over 80 million tonnes, according to the International Energy Agency’s (IEA) Global Methane Tracker 2025. Decoding the context: Methane is a greenhouse gas responsible for around 30 per cent of the rise in global temperatures since the Industrial Revolution. Its levels in atmosphere are growing faster than other greenhouse gases, with its concentration being two-and-a-half times higher than the preindustrial era.  Learning Corner: What is Methane (CH₄)? A potent greenhouse gas (GHG). Colorless, odorless, and highly flammable. Has a Global Warming Potential (GWP) 84–87 times greater than CO₂ over a 20-year period, and about 28–36 times over a 100-year period. Sources of Methane Emissions Energy Sector (35% of Human-Related Emissions): Oil and Gas: Over 80 Mt in 2024, driven by leaks, venting, and flaring. Coal: Around 40 Mt, primarily from underground mines in China, the top emitter in this category. Abandoned Facilities: Abandoned coal mines and oil/gas wells emitted 8 Mt in 2024, making them the fourth-largest fossil fuel methane source globally. Bioenergy: 10 Mt, largely from incomplete combustion of traditional biomass (e.g., wood for cooking). Agriculture (40%): Enteric fermentation in livestock (e.g., cattle) and rice paddies (anaerobic decomposition) are major sources. Waste (20%): Landfills and wastewater treatment release methane via organic decomposition under anaerobic conditions. Natural Sources: Wetlands contribute significantly, but human activity amplifies emissions. Environmental Impacts Climate Change: Methane’s high global warming potential accelerates near-term warming. Reducing emissions could avert 0.2°C of warming by 2050 (IPCC, 2024). Air Quality: Methane contributes to tropospheric ozone, a harmful pollutant causing 255,000 premature deaths annually (Global Methane Pledge, 2024). India’s Methane Emissions Profile Contribution: India is the third-largest methane emitter globally (after China and the U.S.), with 30 Mt annually, of which 18 Mt comes from agriculture (enteric fermentation, paddy cultivation). Policy Stance: India has not signed the Global Methane Pledge (GMP), launched at COP26 (2021), which aims for a 30% reduction in methane emissions by 2030.  India argues that CO2, with its longer lifespan (100-1000 years), should remain the focus, and methane cuts disproportionately burden developing nations reliant on agriculture. Global Efforts and Initiatives Global Methane Pledge (GMP): 159 countries aim to cut methane emissions by 30% from 2020 levels by 2030. Benefits include preventing 255,000 premature deaths and 26 million tonnes of crop losses annually. UNEP’s IMEO: The International Methane Emissions Observatory (IMEO) provides data transparency via satellite monitoring. Source : Down To Earth MANAS NATIONAL PARK Category: ENVIRONMENT Context: Three wild elephants were found dead in the Manas National Park in Assam near the India-Bhutan border. Decoding the context: It is suspected that poachers have killed the elephants. Learning Corner: Manas National Park, located in Assam, India, spans the districts of Baksa, Chirang, and Bongaigaon, along the foothills of the Eastern Himalayas.  Named after the Manas River—a major tributary of the Brahmaputra—it was declared a national park in 1990 and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site (designated in 1985), a Project Tiger Reserve and an Elephant Reserve. Area: Approx. 950 sq. km (core area); it forms part of a larger biosphere reserve. Linked to the Royal Manas National Park of Bhutan, forming a transboundary conservation area. Geographical and Ecological Significance Location and Terrain: Situated at the confluence of the Indian, Indo-Malayan, and Indo-Chinese biogeographical realms, Manas features a diverse landscape of grasslands, tropical semi-evergreen forests, and alluvial floodplains.  It lies at an elevation of 61-110 meters above sea level, with the Manas River flowing through it, shaping its flood-dependent ecology. Biodiversity: Flora: Over 840 plant species, including rare orchids and tropical Sal forests. Grasslands dominate 45% of the park, supporting herbivore populations. Fauna: Hosts 55 mammal species, 450 bird species, 50 reptile species, and 3 amphibian species. Key species include: Endangered Mammals: Bengal tiger, Indian elephant, greater one-horned rhinoceros, pygmy hog, and hispid hare. Birds: Bengal florican, great hornbill, and migratory species like the red-headed vulture. Cultural Significance: The park is sacred to the Bodo community, who revere the Manas River. The annual Manas Festival, held in April (last held April 5-7, 2025), promotes eco-tourism and Bodo culture. Conservation Challenges Poaching and Insurgency: During the Bodo insurgency (1980s-2000s), Manas faced severe poaching, particularly of rhinos. Militants used the park as a hideout, disrupting conservation efforts. UNESCO listed Manas as a World Heritage Site in Danger from 1992 to 2011 due to habitat destruction and wildlife loss. UNESCO Status Restored: Removed from the “in danger” list in 2011 after improved conservation measures. Source : The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. Which of the following statements about Manas National Park is/are correct? It is located in Arunachal Pradesh and is part of the Eastern Himalayan biodiversity hotspot. It is also a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The Manas River, a tributary of the Ganga, flows through it. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3   Q2. Which of the following statements regarding methane is/are correct? Methane has a higher Global Warming Potential (GWP) than carbon dioxide over a 100-year period. Methane has a longer atmospheric lifespan than carbon dioxide. Methane contributes to the formation of ground-level ozone. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3   Q3. Which of the following statements about the International Monetary Fund (IMF) is/are correct? The IMF lends money to member countries only for infrastructure projects. It monitors the global economy and provides policy advice to member countries. Its financial assistance is always in the form of grants. Select the correct answer using the code below: 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3   Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 9th May  – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 9th May – 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) DISQUALIFICATION ON CONVICTION Category: POLITY Context: Mining baron and the sitting MLA from Gangavati Gali Janardhana Reddy has been disqualified as a member of the Karnataka Legislative Assembly following his conviction in the Obulapuram Mining Company (OMC) illegal mining case. Decoding the context: Notification issued by the Karnataka Legislative Assembly stated that Reddy’s conviction triggered his immediate disqualification as an MLA under Article 191(1)(e) of the Constitution and Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Learning Corner: Constitutional Provision: Article 191(1)(e) A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the State Legislature if he is disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament. This clause enables the Representation of the People Act, 1951 to lay down disqualifications. Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 ➤ Section 8(1), 8(2), 8(3): Grounds for Disqualification – Section 8(1): Immediate disqualification for specific offences (e.g., promoting enmity, bribery, corruption, terrorism) regardless of sentence duration. Section 8(2): Disqualification for offences like hoarding, food adulteration, or Dowry Prohibition Act violations, if sentenced to at least six months. Section 8(3): Disqualification for any other offence with a sentence of two years or more, effective from the date of conviction and continuing for six years post-release. Lily Thomas v. Union of India (2013) Supreme Court struck down Section 8(4) of the RPA, 1951. Earlier, Section 8(4) allowed sitting MPs/MLAs 3 months to appeal without disqualification. After the 2013 judgment, disqualification takes effect immediately upon conviction, regardless of appeal. Significance Curbing Criminalization: With 43% of MPs in the 17th Lok Sabha (2019) facing criminal cases (ADR), immediate disqualification deters tainted politicians. Electoral Integrity: Ensures lawmakers adhere to ethical standards, aligning with the RPA’s objective to prevent those who “break the law from making the law”. Public Trust: Strengthens democratic accountability. Source : Deccan Herald CLOUD-SEEDING Category: SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: The Delhi government has approved five Cloud-Seeding Trials at an outlay of three crore 21 lakh rupees to Combat Air Pollution. Decoding the context:  The Delhi government said that after the trials, scientific evaluations will assess the effectiveness and environmental impact of cloud seeding in reducing air pollution. Learning Corner: Cloud Seeding is a weather modification technique that enhances precipitation (rain/snow) from clouds by introducing certain substances (cloud condensation nuclei) to stimulate cloud droplet formation. It involves introducing agents like silver iodide, potassium iodide, or dry ice into moisture-rich clouds to act as nuclei for water droplet or ice crystal formation, thereby inducing artificial rain. Mechanism Suitable clouds (with sufficient moisture and vertical growth) are identified using meteorological data. Agents like silver iodide are dispersed via aircraft or ground-based generators. These agents mimic ice nuclei, encouraging water droplets to coalesce or freeze, eventually falling as rain or snow when heavy enough. In Delhi’s case, the trials aim to wash away pollutants like PM2.5 and PM10, which contribute to the city’s hazardous Air Quality Index (AQI). Types of Cloud Seeding: Static Cloud Seeding Objective: Enhance rainfall or snowfall by increasing cloud droplet formation. Mechanism: Injects ice-nucleating agents (like silver iodide) into cold clouds. Effect: Promotes formation of ice crystals or raindrops around these particles. Use Case: Light rain enhancement during pre-existing cloud cover. Dynamic Cloud Seeding Objective: Stimulate vertical air movement to increase cloud mass and rainfall intensity. Mechanism: A multi-stage process involving large amounts of seeding material to alter cloud dynamics (lift, condensation, coalescence). Use Case: Drought mitigation or in areas needing intense rainfall. Glaciogenic Cloud Seeding Objective: Increase snowfall from supercooled clouds. Mechanism: Encourages ice formation in clouds below freezing using materials like silver iodide or dry ice. Use Case: Used in mountain regions (e.g., Himalayas, Rockies) to boost snowpack for water storage. Hygroscopic Cloud Seeding  Objective: Enhance precipitation from warm clouds. Mechanism: Uses salt particles (e.g., NaCl) as nuclei to attract water vapor, forming larger raindrops. Use Case: Tropical regions, including parts of India and UAE. Source : News On AIR COAL GASIFICATION Category: SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context:  In a significant step toward advancing cleaner energy technologies, the Ministry of Coal has signed the Coal Gasification Plant Development and Production Agreement (CGPDPA) with selected applicants under Category II of its Coal Gasification Financial Incentive Scheme. Decoding the context: Launched on January 24, 2024, the Financial Incentive Scheme for Coal Gasification has a total outlay of ₹8,500 crore. The initiative aims to achieve 100 million tonnes of coal gasification by 2030, leveraging India’s abundant coal reserves to create a cleaner, more sustainable energy future. Learning Corner: Coal gasification is a cleaner conversion process that converts coal into synthesis gas (syngas) — a mixture of carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H₂), CO₂, methane (CH₄), and water vapor (H₂O). This syngas can be used for: Generating electricity Producing liquid fuels (through Fischer–Tropsch synthesis) Making chemical fertilizers (like urea) As a feedstock in the petrochemical industry How It Works: Coal + controlled oxygen + steam → Syngas (CO + H₂ + other gases) Why is it important for India? Energy Security: India has abundant coal reserves but limited oil and gas. Import Substitution: Reduces dependence on imported crude oil and natural gas. Clean Energy Transition: Emits less particulate matter and SOx/NOx than direct coal combustion. Economic Boost: Supports downstream industries like methanol, ammonia, and DME (dimethyl ether). Government Initiatives National Coal Gasification Mission: Launched in 2021, aiming to gasify 100 million tonnes of coal by 2030, reducing carbon emissions by 20% compared to direct combustion (MoC). Policy Push: Revised SHAKTI Policy (May 2025) supports coal allocation for gasification projects, ensuring fuel security. Source : Hans India BRS CONVENTIONS Category: ENVIRONMENT Context: India, at the Conferences of the Parties to the Basel, Rotterdam and Stockholm Conventions (BRS COPs), called for predictable international financing mechanisms and the mobilisation of domestic resources through tools like progressive taxation, carbon levies, and Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) to tackle chemicals and waste better for human health and the environment. Decoding the context: The 2025 BRS COPs (BC COP-17, RC COP-12, and SC COP-1) centred around the theme “Make Visible the Invisible: Sound Management of Chemicals and Waste”, will conclude today. Learning Corner: The Basel, Rotterdam, and Stockholm (BRS) Conventions are three key international treaties aimed at protecting human health and the environment from hazardous chemicals and wastes.  The three conventions function under a joint administrative framework and meet jointly as the BRS COPs (Conferences of the Parties). Basel Convention (1989; in force 1992) Focus: Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal. Objective: Minimize hazardous waste generation and restrict its transboundary movement, especially from developed to developing countries. India: Party since 1992. Rotterdam Convention (1998; in force 2004) Focus: Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure for certain hazardous chemicals and pesticides in international trade. Objective: Promote shared responsibility in the trade of hazardous chemicals. India: Party since 2005. Mechanism: Exporting countries must get prior informed consent from importing countries before trade. Stockholm Convention (2001; in force 2004) Focus: Elimination or restriction of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). Objective: Protect human health and the environment from long-lasting toxic substances. India: Ratified in 2006 (but with reservations on certain chemicals). Source : Business Standard MAHARANA PRATAP Category: HISTORY Context: The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi, paid rich tributes to the valiant warrior, Maharana Pratap on the occasion of his Jayanti. Decoding the context: Pratap Singh I, popularly known as Maharana Pratap, was king of the Kingdom of Mewar, in north-western India in the present-day state of Rajasthan. Learning Corner: Maharana Pratap, born Pratap Singh I (May 9, 1540 – January 19, 1597), was the 13th ruler of the Kingdom of Mewar in present-day Rajasthan, reigning from 1572 to 1597.  A Rajput warrior of the Sisodia dynasty, he is celebrated for his resistance against Mughal Emperor Akbar’s expansionism. Early Life and Ascension Born in Kumbhalgarh Fort to Maharana Udai Singh II and Jaiwanta Bai. In 1567, during the Mughal siege of Chittorgarh, Udai Singh II evacuated the capital, relocating to Gogunda. Upon Udai Singh’s death in 1572, a succession dispute arose. Udai Singh favored Jagmal, his son with Rani Dheer Bai Bhatiyani, but senior nobles, prioritizing Pratap as the eldest, crowned him Maharana on March 1, 1572, in Gogunda. Jagmal, seeking revenge, joined Akbar’s forces and was granted jaguar of Jahazpur. Resistance Against the Mughals Context: Akbar sought to control Mewar to secure a stable route to Gujarat’s ports. While most Rajput rulers submitted, Pratap refused vassalage. Battle of Haldighati (June 18, 1576): Fought between Maharana Pratap and Mughal forces led by Man Singh I of Amber. Location: Haldighati pass in the Aravalli Hills, Rajasthan. Outcome: Inconclusive military victory for the Mughals, but symbolic victory for Maharana Pratap, who escaped and continued guerrilla resistance. Post-Haldighati Resistance Guerrilla Warfare: Post-Haldighati, Pratap retreated to the Aravalli hills, supported by Bhil tribals. He perfected guerrilla tactics, harassing Mughal outposts.  He established a new capital at Chavand, where he reorganized his administration and continued his resistance. Battle of Dewair (1582): Pratap’s decisive victory over the Mughals, reclaiming much of Mewar and reinforcing his resistance. Source : PM INDIA Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. Consider the following statements regarding Maharana Pratap: He was coronated as the ruler of Mewar at Gogunda after a succession dispute following the death of Maharana Udai Singh II. In the Battle of Haldighati, Maharana Pratap was defeated and captured by the Mughal forces led by Raja Man Singh I. The Battle of Dewair in 1582 was a significant victory for Maharana Pratap, which led to the closure of several Mughal outposts in Mewar. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3   Q2.With reference to the Basel, Rotterdam, and Stockholm (BRS) Conventions, consider the following statements: The Basel Convention primarily deals with the elimination of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). The Rotterdam Convention mandates Prior Informed Consent (PIC) before transboundary movement of hazardous chemicals and pesticides. The Stockholm Convention is legally binding on the elimination or restriction of POPs. India is a party to all three conventions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 2 and 4 only B. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1 and 3 only   Q3.With reference to coal gasification, consider the following statements: Coal gasification primarily produces syngas, which is a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen. Underground coal gasification (UCG) involves gasifying coal in situ without mining it. India aims to gasify 100 million tonnes of coal by 2030 under the National Coal Gasification Mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3   Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 8th May  – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th May 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th May 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

[DAY 50] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2025 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2025. Click Here To Take The Test -> Click Here

IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 9th May – 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) DISQUALIFICATION ON CONVICTION Category: POLITY Context: Mining baron and the sitting MLA from Gangavati Gali Janardhana Reddy has been disqualified as a member of the Karnataka Legislative Assembly following his conviction in the Obulapuram Mining Company (OMC) illegal mining case. Decoding the context: Notification issued by the Karnataka Legislative Assembly stated that Reddy’s conviction triggered his immediate disqualification as an MLA under Article 191(1)(e) of the Constitution and Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Learning Corner: Constitutional Provision: Article 191(1)(e) A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the State Legislature if he is disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament. This clause enables the Representation of the People Act, 1951 to lay down disqualifications. Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 ➤ Section 8(1), 8(2), 8(3): Grounds for Disqualification – Section 8(1): Immediate disqualification for specific offences (e.g., promoting enmity, bribery, corruption, terrorism) regardless of sentence duration. Section 8(2): Disqualification for offences like hoarding, food adulteration, or Dowry Prohibition Act violations, if sentenced to at least six months. Section 8(3): Disqualification for any other offence with a sentence of two years or more, effective from the date of conviction and continuing for six years post-release. Lily Thomas v. Union of India (2013) Supreme Court struck down Section 8(4) of the RPA, 1951. Earlier, Section 8(4) allowed sitting MPs/MLAs 3 months to appeal without disqualification. After the 2013 judgment, disqualification takes effect immediately upon conviction, regardless of appeal. Significance Curbing Criminalization: With 43% of MPs in the 17th Lok Sabha (2019) facing criminal cases (ADR), immediate disqualification deters tainted politicians. Electoral Integrity: Ensures lawmakers adhere to ethical standards, aligning with the RPA’s objective to prevent those who “break the law from making the law”. Public Trust: Strengthens democratic accountability. Source : Deccan Herald CLOUD-SEEDING Category: SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: The Delhi government has approved five Cloud-Seeding Trials at an outlay of three crore 21 lakh rupees to Combat Air Pollution. Decoding the context:  The Delhi government said that after the trials, scientific evaluations will assess the effectiveness and environmental impact of cloud seeding in reducing air pollution. Learning Corner: Cloud Seeding is a weather modification technique that enhances precipitation (rain/snow) from clouds by introducing certain substances (cloud condensation nuclei) to stimulate cloud droplet formation. It involves introducing agents like silver iodide, potassium iodide, or dry ice into moisture-rich clouds to act as nuclei for water droplet or ice crystal formation, thereby inducing artificial rain. Mechanism Suitable clouds (with sufficient moisture and vertical growth) are identified using meteorological data. Agents like silver iodide are dispersed via aircraft or ground-based generators. These agents mimic ice nuclei, encouraging water droplets to coalesce or freeze, eventually falling as rain or snow when heavy enough. In Delhi’s case, the trials aim to wash away pollutants like PM2.5 and PM10, which contribute to the city’s hazardous Air Quality Index (AQI). Types of Cloud Seeding: Static Cloud Seeding Objective: Enhance rainfall or snowfall by increasing cloud droplet formation. Mechanism: Injects ice-nucleating agents (like silver iodide) into cold clouds. Effect: Promotes formation of ice crystals or raindrops around these particles. Use Case: Light rain enhancement during pre-existing cloud cover. Dynamic Cloud Seeding Objective: Stimulate vertical air movement to increase cloud mass and rainfall intensity. Mechanism: A multi-stage process involving large amounts of seeding material to alter cloud dynamics (lift, condensation, coalescence). Use Case: Drought mitigation or in areas needing intense rainfall. Glaciogenic Cloud Seeding Objective: Increase snowfall from supercooled clouds. Mechanism: Encourages ice formation in clouds below freezing using materials like silver iodide or dry ice. Use Case: Used in mountain regions (e.g., Himalayas, Rockies) to boost snowpack for water storage. Hygroscopic Cloud Seeding  Objective: Enhance precipitation from warm clouds. Mechanism: Uses salt particles (e.g., NaCl) as nuclei to attract water vapor, forming larger raindrops. Use Case: Tropical regions, including parts of India and UAE. Source : News On AIR COAL GASIFICATION Category: SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context:  In a significant step toward advancing cleaner energy technologies, the Ministry of Coal has signed the Coal Gasification Plant Development and Production Agreement (CGPDPA) with selected applicants under Category II of its Coal Gasification Financial Incentive Scheme. Decoding the context: Launched on January 24, 2024, the Financial Incentive Scheme for Coal Gasification has a total outlay of ₹8,500 crore. The initiative aims to achieve 100 million tonnes of coal gasification by 2030, leveraging India’s abundant coal reserves to create a cleaner, more sustainable energy future. Learning Corner: Coal gasification is a cleaner conversion process that converts coal into synthesis gas (syngas) — a mixture of carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H₂), CO₂, methane (CH₄), and water vapor (H₂O). This syngas can be used for: Generating electricity Producing liquid fuels (through Fischer–Tropsch synthesis) Making chemical fertilizers (like urea) As a feedstock in the petrochemical industry How It Works: Coal + controlled oxygen + steam → Syngas (CO + H₂ + other gases) Why is it important for India? Energy Security: India has abundant coal reserves but limited oil and gas. Import Substitution: Reduces dependence on imported crude oil and natural gas. Clean Energy Transition: Emits less particulate matter and SOx/NOx than direct coal combustion. Economic Boost: Supports downstream industries like methanol, ammonia, and DME (dimethyl ether). Government Initiatives National Coal Gasification Mission: Launched in 2021, aiming to gasify 100 million tonnes of coal by 2030, reducing carbon emissions by 20% compared to direct combustion (MoC). Policy Push: Revised SHAKTI Policy (May 2025) supports coal allocation for gasification projects, ensuring fuel security. Source : Hans India BRS CONVENTIONS Category: ENVIRONMENT Context: India, at the Conferences of the Parties to the Basel, Rotterdam and Stockholm Conventions (BRS COPs), called for predictable international financing mechanisms and the mobilisation of domestic resources through tools like progressive taxation, carbon levies, and Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) to tackle chemicals and waste better for human health and the environment. Decoding the context: The 2025 BRS COPs (BC COP-17, RC COP-12, and SC COP-1) centred around the theme “Make Visible the Invisible: Sound Management of Chemicals and Waste”, will conclude today. Learning Corner: The Basel, Rotterdam, and Stockholm (BRS) Conventions are three key international treaties aimed at protecting human health and the environment from hazardous chemicals and wastes.  The three conventions function under a joint administrative framework and meet jointly as the BRS COPs (Conferences of the Parties). Basel Convention (1989; in force 1992) Focus: Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal. Objective: Minimize hazardous waste generation and restrict its transboundary movement, especially from developed to developing countries. India: Party since 1992. Rotterdam Convention (1998; in force 2004) Focus: Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure for certain hazardous chemicals and pesticides in international trade. Objective: Promote shared responsibility in the trade of hazardous chemicals. India: Party since 2005. Mechanism: Exporting countries must get prior informed consent from importing countries before trade. Stockholm Convention (2001; in force 2004) Focus: Elimination or restriction of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). Objective: Protect human health and the environment from long-lasting toxic substances. India: Ratified in 2006 (but with reservations on certain chemicals). Source : Business Standard MAHARANA PRATAP Category: HISTORY Context: The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi, paid rich tributes to the valiant warrior, Maharana Pratap on the occasion of his Jayanti. Decoding the context: Pratap Singh I, popularly known as Maharana Pratap, was king of the Kingdom of Mewar, in north-western India in the present-day state of Rajasthan. Learning Corner: Maharana Pratap, born Pratap Singh I (May 9, 1540 – January 19, 1597), was the 13th ruler of the Kingdom of Mewar in present-day Rajasthan, reigning from 1572 to 1597.  A Rajput warrior of the Sisodia dynasty, he is celebrated for his resistance against Mughal Emperor Akbar’s expansionism. Early Life and Ascension Born in Kumbhalgarh Fort to Maharana Udai Singh II and Jaiwanta Bai. In 1567, during the Mughal siege of Chittorgarh, Udai Singh II evacuated the capital, relocating to Gogunda. Upon Udai Singh’s death in 1572, a succession dispute arose. Udai Singh favored Jagmal, his son with Rani Dheer Bai Bhatiyani, but senior nobles, prioritizing Pratap as the eldest, crowned him Maharana on March 1, 1572, in Gogunda. Jagmal, seeking revenge, joined Akbar’s forces and was granted jaguar of Jahazpur. Resistance Against the Mughals Context: Akbar sought to control Mewar to secure a stable route to Gujarat’s ports. While most Rajput rulers submitted, Pratap refused vassalage. Battle of Haldighati (June 18, 1576): Fought between Maharana Pratap and Mughal forces led by Man Singh I of Amber. Location: Haldighati pass in the Aravalli Hills, Rajasthan. Outcome: Inconclusive military victory for the Mughals, but symbolic victory for Maharana Pratap, who escaped and continued guerrilla resistance. Post-Haldighati Resistance Guerrilla Warfare: Post-Haldighati, Pratap retreated to the Aravalli hills, supported by Bhil tribals. He perfected guerrilla tactics, harassing Mughal outposts.  He established a new capital at Chavand, where he reorganized his administration and continued his resistance. Battle of Dewair (1582): Pratap’s decisive victory over the Mughals, reclaiming much of Mewar and reinforcing his resistance. Source : PM INDIA Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. Consider the following statements regarding Maharana Pratap: He was coronated as the ruler of Mewar at Gogunda after a succession dispute following the death of Maharana Udai Singh II. In the Battle of Haldighati, Maharana Pratap was defeated and captured by the Mughal forces led by Raja Man Singh I. The Battle of Dewair in 1582 was a significant victory for Maharana Pratap, which led to the closure of several Mughal outposts in Mewar. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3   Q2.With reference to the Basel, Rotterdam, and Stockholm (BRS) Conventions, consider the following statements: The Basel Convention primarily deals with the elimination of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). The Rotterdam Convention mandates Prior Informed Consent (PIC) before transboundary movement of hazardous chemicals and pesticides. The Stockholm Convention is legally binding on the elimination or restriction of POPs. India is a party to all three conventions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 2 and 4 only B. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1 and 3 only   Q3.With reference to coal gasification, consider the following statements: Coal gasification primarily produces syngas, which is a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen. Underground coal gasification (UCG) involves gasifying coal in situ without mining it. India aims to gasify 100 million tonnes of coal by 2030 under the National Coal Gasification Mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3   Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 8th May  – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

Website
Terms and Conditions Privacy Refund Policy Learning Management System by Testpress