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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th October 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th October 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   SWELL WAVES  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – GEOGRAPHY Context: The Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) has issued extensive advisories for swell waves for Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep as well as parts of coastal areas in Andhra, Goa, Gujarat, Kerala, Maharashtra, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, Daman and Diu, and Puducherry. Background: – Swell waves are also called Kallakkadal waves in India, which is a colloquial term used by Kerala fishermen to denote sudden waves that cause flash floods. INCOIS Hyderabad launched its swell surge forecast system in February 2020 to provide warnings for coastal populations in case of anticipated swell waves. What are swell waves? Swell waves are long-wavelength ocean waves that travel away from their places of origin. They are usually created by windstorms or other weather systems. Sea waves otherwise are usually generated due to local winds. Windstorms and other powerful air current systems transfer energy from the air to water, making swell waves more powerful. Because of their high energy, swell waves are able to travel large distances and strike shores with considerably high power. According to INCOIS, swell waves organise themselves into groups of similar heights and periods, and then travel long distances without much change. Wave period is the time one wavelength takes to pass a specific point. Longer wavelengths, therefore, result in longer wave periods, and these characteristics are associated with faster and more powerful waves. A wave is essentially a transfer of energy from one point to another. Shorter waves dissipate more energy due to frequent movement, which is why they also lose energy quickly. Longer wavelengths are more powerful, and this is also why swells continue to persist days after they are formed. How are swell surges different from tsunami waves? Kallakkadal waves inundate large areas of land. These waves are also sometimes confused with tsunami waves given their stealthy nature, but both are different. Kallakkadal waves are caused due to weather phenomenon, while tsunamis are mostly caused due to earthquakes or tectonic activity. Source: The Hindu A FOOD-SUFFICIENT INDIA NEEDS TO BE HUNGER-FREE TOO  Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: Every year, World Food Day is celebrated across the world on October 16. The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) started this global event to start a fight against hunger, raise awareness about healthy diets, and promote action against malnutrition and food security. Background: – India needs to transform its agri-food system to improve resilience and affordability of healthy diets. Key takeaways Ending hunger, food insecurity, and malnutrition is a Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) to be realized by 2030. Rising conflicts, climate change, and economic slowdowns in vulnerable regions hinder progress on this front. Food insecurity and malnutrition are a manifestation of a lack of access to and the unaffordability of healthy diets. For a nation to be food sufficient, it needs to have an ideal distributional mechanism that ensures universal access to food that is affordable. Adequate food does not necessarily imply balanced food intake with all required nutrients to address malnourishment. Hence, a transformation from a hunger-free environment to a nutritionally compliant one needs to take into account the unaffordability of healthy diets, unhealthy food intakes and their underlying inequalities across the population. Global Hunger Overview : The global magnitude of the undernourished has risen to 9.4%, or 757 million people as of 2023. It is disproportionate in the African region. However, in real counts, Asia is home to the largest magnitude of those who are hungry — 384.5 million — as compared with 298.4 million in Africa. The distinct feature of undernourishment is its rural bias. The gender divide in this adversity disadvantages women over men although such a divide is narrowing. While food insecurity results in undernourishment or hunger, the intrinsic connect lies with the lack of a purchasing capacity for adequate food. In this perspective, the cost and affordability of a healthy diet (CoHD) assumes significance. Cost of Healthy Diet (CoHD): Global average cost of a healthy diet in 2022 was $3.96 purchasing power parity (PPP) dollars per person per day; in Asia, it was $4.20. 83 billion people globally could not afford a healthy diet in 2022, down slightly from 2.88 billion in 2021. A practical solution lies in regulating food prices and a reduced share of food expenditure in the total expenditure that makes healthy diets universally affordable. Thalinomics shows affordability issues in rural India: 63.3% of the population could not afford a required diet in 2011. Unhealthy Diets in India: Indian diets are imbalanced in relation to global and national dietary recommendations. A healthy reference diet in South Asia can cost 60% of daily household income, making it unaffordable for low-income groups. Even the richest 5% consume less protein-rich food, indicating issues of awareness, accessibility, and availability. Steps to End Hunger: There are circumstances wherein individuals go hungry as they do not have the means to buy food. But mechanisms to provide free food by setting up food banks that evolve as a way to avoid food waste may be an ideal alternative Nations that are food sufficient should ensure humanitarian food redistribution to food-deficient regions. Source: The Hindu   INTER-PARLIAMENTARY UNION (IPU)  Syllabus Prelims – POLITY Context: Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla, is leading the Indian Parliamentary Delegation at the 149th Assembly of the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU). Background: – The 149th IPU Assembly will take place from 13-17 October 2024 in Geneva under the overarching theme of “Harnessing science, technology and innovation for a more peaceful and sustainable future.” About Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) The IPU is the global organisation of national parliaments. It was founded in 1889 as the first multilateral political organisation in the world, encouraging cooperation and dialogue between all nations. It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. Currently, the IPU comprises of 180 national Parliaments and 15 regional parliamentary bodies carrying the objectives of promoting democracy and helping parliaments develop into stronger, younger, greener, more gender-balanced and more innovative institutions. Slogan: For democracy. For everyone. Vision : A world where every voice counts, where democracy and parliaments are at the service of the people for peace and development. Mission: IPU promote democratic governance, institutions and values, working with parliaments and parliamentarians to articulate and respond to the needs and aspirations of the people. IPU work for peace, democracy, human rights, gender equality, youth empowerment, climate action and sustainable development through political dialogue, cooperation and parliamentary action. The Cremer-Passy Prize, named after the IPU’s founders, William Randall Cremer and Frédéric Passy, is awarded every year to sitting parliamentarians who make an outstanding contribution to the defence and promotion of the IPU’s objectives, as well as those ”who contribute to a more united, peaceful, sustainable and equitable world.” Source: New Indian Express DIPHTHERIA  Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: WHO team reaches Rajasthan’s Deeg district after 7 children die of diphtheria in a month. Background: This disease has been prevalent for a long time in this area because of people’s unwillingness to get vaccinated. About Diphtheria Diphtheria is a serious infection caused by bacteria called Corynebacterium diphtheriae which makes a toxin. The toxin attaches itself most commonly to tissues in the respiratory system and causes disease by killing healthy tissue. Typical symptoms of the infection include a sore throat, fever, swollen neck glands and weakness. Within 2–3 days from infection, the dead tissue forms a thick, grey coating that can cover tissues in the nose, tonsils and throat, making it hard to breathe and swallow. Diphtheria bacteria spread from person to person, usually through respiratory droplets, like from coughing or sneezing. People can also get sick from touching infected open sores or ulcers. Those at increased risk of getting sick include household contacts, those exposed to secretions from the patient and those with frequent and close contact with the infected person. Prevention: Vaccination is the most effective preventive measure. Diphtheria vaccine is part of the DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus) vaccine administered to infants under the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP). Ensuring 100% vaccine coverage and booster doses is critical. Source: Indian Express ATMOSPHERIC RIVERS  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – GEOGRAPHY Context: Atmospheric rivers are shifting toward higher latitudes, and that’s changing weather patterns around the world. Background: – The shift is worsening droughts in some regions, intensifying flooding in others, and putting water resources that many communities rely on at risk. About Atmospheric Rivers Atmospheric Rivers (ARs) are long, narrow bands of concentrated water vapor that travel through the atmosphere, resembling rivers in the sky. These bands transport large amounts of moisture from tropical regions to higher latitudes, often resulting in heavy rainfall and sometimes causing extreme weather events. They are critical to the global water cycle and significantly influence precipitation patterns, particularly in coastal regions. Characteristics: Typically 2,000-4,000 km long and 400-600 km wide. Strongest atmospheric rivers are referred to as “Pineapple Express” when they transport moisture from the tropical Pacific to the U.S. West Coast. While atmospheric rivers share a similar origin — moisture supply from the tropics — atmospheric instability of the jet stream allows them to curve poleward in different ways. No two atmospheric rivers are exactly alike. Atmospheric rivers are commonly seen in the extratropics, a region between the latitudes of 30 and 50 degrees in both hemispheres that includes most of the continental U.S., southern Australia and Chile. Atmospheric rivers typically occur in the extratropical North Pacific/Atlantic, southeastern Pacific, and South Atlantic oceans often making landfall on the west coasts of North and South America. What the new study says? New study shows that atmospheric rivers have been shifting poleward over the past four decades. In both hemispheres, activity has increased along 50 degrees north and 50 degrees south, while it has decreased along 30 degrees north and 30 degrees south since 1979. A global chain reaction One main reason for this shift is changes in sea surface temperatures in the eastern tropical Pacific. Since 2000, waters in the eastern tropical Pacific have had a cooling tendency, which affects atmospheric circulation worldwide. This cooling, often associated with La Nina conditions, pushes atmospheric rivers toward the poles. The poleward movement of atmospheric rivers can be explained as a chain of interconnected processes. During La Nina conditions, when sea surface temperatures cool in the eastern tropical Pacific, the Walker circulation — giant loops of air that affect precipitation as they rise and fall over different parts of the tropics — strengthens over the western Pacific. This stronger circulation causes the tropical rainfall belt to expand. The expanded tropical rainfall, combined with changes in atmospheric eddy patterns, results in high-pressure anomalies and wind patterns that steer atmospheric rivers farther poleward. Conversely, during El Nino conditions, with warmer sea surface temperatures, the mechanism operates in the opposite direction, shifting atmospheric rivers so they don’t travel as far from the equator. Why does this poleward shift matter? In the subtropics, where atmospheric rivers are becoming less common, the result could be longer droughts and less water. Many areas, such as California and southern Brazil, depend on atmospheric rivers for rainfall. In higher latitudes, atmospheric rivers moving poleward could lead to more extreme rainfall, flooding and landslides in places such as the US Pacific Northwest, Europe and even in polar regions. In the Arctic, more atmospheric rivers could speed up sea ice melting, adding to global warming and affecting animals that rely on the ice. Source: Down To Earth Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Which of the following statements regarding Diphtheria is/are correct? Diphtheria is a viral infection affecting the respiratory tract. It is preventable by a vaccine that is part of India’s Universal Immunization Programme. Diphtheria primarily spreads through direct contact with infected individuals or their belongings. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) Which of the following statements regarding Atmospheric Rivers (ARs) is/are correct? Atmospheric Rivers are narrow bands of concentrated water vapor. Atmospheric Rivers are responsible for the Indian monsoon. Atmospheric rivers typically occur in the extratropical North Pacific/Atlantic, southeastern Pacific, and South Atlantic oceans often making landfall on the west coasts of North and South America. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) Which of the following statements about the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) is/are correct? The IPU is a global organization established to foster cooperation among national parliaments and promote democratic governance. India is not a member of the Inter-Parliamentary Union. The IPU holds an annual assembly to discuss global issues affecting parliaments and international relations. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  16th October 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  15th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  b Q.2) – b Q.3) -c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th October 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 15th October 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   A NOBEL PRIZE FOR EXPLAINING WHY NATIONS FAIL OR SUCCEED  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: The 2024 Economics Nobel was awarded to U.S. economists Daron Acemoglu, Simon Johnson and James A. Robinson “for studies of how institutions are formed and affect prosperity.” The prize committee credited the winners for enhancing our understanding of the root causes of why countries fail or succeed. Background: – Why some countries are rich while others are poor is a question that has been debated by economists for a long time now. What is the significance of the work of this year’s economics Nobel prize winners? According to the Nobel committee, the richest 20% of countries in the world today are 30 times richer in terms of average income than the poorest 20%. Various theories have been proposed to explain the huge difference in living standards in rich versus poor countries. Some have blamed colonialism as the primary reason for the Western world’s prosperity. Others have argued that disparities in natural resource endowment explains differences in prosperity. Some others have argued that intelligence and even historical accidents could explain a nation’s fate. The 2024 Nobel laureates, however, have argued that differences in the quality of economic and political institutions is what best explains the divergence in the economic fates of countries. This thesis is elaborated in the 2012 book Why Nations Fail: The Origins of Power, Prosperity, and Poverty written by Daron Acemoglu and James A. Robinson, and also in the 2004 paper Institutions as a Fundamental Cause of Long-Run Growth, written together by all three of this year’s Nobel laureates. Why is the quality of institutions so important? Institutions are the “rules of the game” that define the incentives that individuals face when dealing with each other. For example, institutions that stop the State from seizing the property of honest citizens would give citizens the incentive to work hard without the fear of expropriation and that in turn would lead to economic prosperity. Institutions that legalize expropriation, on the other hand, would affect individual incentives negatively and cause economic stagnation. Now, Acemoglu and Johnson argued in their book that institutions can either be “inclusive” or “extractive”. Inclusive institutions are characterized by secure private property rights and democracy while extractive institutions are marked by insecure private property rights and the lack of political freedom. They tried to empirically demonstrate that inclusive institutions lead to long-run economic growth and higher living standards while extractive institutions lead to economic degradation and poverty. To this end, they studied the institutions that colonists set up in different colonies and the impact that they had. When a colonial power did not want to settle in a country for various reasons (such as higher mortality rates due to geography), it set up institutions that were extractive in nature. Example is the case of Britishers in India. But in countries where colonists wanted to settle for the long-run, they set up inclusive institutions that encouraged investment and long-term growth over short-term plunder. This may have been the case in the United States where the British set up institutions that promoted long-term prosperity. It should be noted that institutions can also include factors like culture, which influence the more explicit “rules of the game” expressed by political and economic institutions. If inclusive institutions are so good for growth, why don’t we have more of them? Rulers face different choices in their respective countries. When the rulers of a country are able to safely extract resources for their personal gains through extractive institutions, the laureates argue, they have little reason to bring in political and economic reforms (or inclusive institutions) that can benefit the wider population over the long run. In such cases, extractive institutions prevail for a really long time as long as the masses do not revolt against the status quo. What’s special about the Nobel prize given to Acemoglu, Johnson, and Robinson? The economics Nobel prize is usually awarded for ground-breaking academic research into topics that are of significant real-world importance. In the last two years, the Nobel prize was awarded to scholars who worked on important questions such as the gender pay gap and the fragility of the banking system. While these topics are no doubt important, they still do not delve deep enough into the more fundamental questions that economics as a discipline was founded to answer. This year’s Nobel prize corrects this flaw by bringing the world’s focus back onto the crucial topic of institutions, which determine the very “rules of the game” in any economy and thus affect literally everything that happens in it. Source: The Hindu SUICIDE AND MENTAL HEALTH  Syllabus Mains – GS 1, GS 2 Context: Weeks after a final-year student died allegedly by suicide in his hostel room at the Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Ahmedabad, the institute’s students’ council has demanded setting up of a committee to probe into the circumstances surrounding the death. Background: – According to the annual report of the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), 1.64 lakh people died by suicide in 2021 — an increase of 7.2 per cent from 2020. In the past three years, the suicide rate in the country has increased from 10.2 to 11.3 per 1,00,000 population. Most suicides in India are by youth and middle-aged adults — with 65 per cent of the suicides in 2020 being reported in the age group of 18-45 years. Key takeaways According to WHO, the link between suicide and mental disorders (in particular, depression and alcohol use disorders) and a previous suicide attempt is well established in high-income countries. However, many suicides happen impulsively in moments of crisis with a breakdown in the ability to deal with life stresses, such as financial problems, relationship disputes, or chronic pain and illness. In addition, experiencing conflict, disaster, violence, abuse or loss and a sense of isolation are strongly associated with suicidal behaviour. Suicide rates are also high among vulnerable groups who experience discrimination, such as refugees and migrants; indigenous peoples; lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender, intersex (LGBTI) persons; and prisoners. The urgency to act to prevent suicides has been recognized and prioritized at the highest levels. The reduction of the suicide rate is an indicator in the UN Sustainable Development Goals (the only indicator for mental health), WHO’s General Programme of Work and WHO’s Comprehensive Mental Health Action Plan 2013–2030. The first WHO world suicide report, Preventing suicide: a global imperative, published in 2014, aimed to increase the awareness of the public health significance of suicide and suicide attempts and to make suicide prevention a high priority on the global public health agenda. It also aimed to encourage and support countries to develop or strengthen comprehensive national suicide prevention strategies through a multisectoral public health approach. In 2021, WHO launched LIVE LIFE: an implementation guide for suicide prevention in countries. Through the LIVE LIFE initiative, governments are encouraged and supported to implement a suite of evidence-based interventions and foundational pillars for suicide prevention. The Government has released the National Suicide Prevention Strategy in 2022. The National Strategy for Suicide Prevention provides a framework for multiple stakeholders to implement activities for prevention of suicides in India. Strategy aims to reduce suicide mortality by 10% in the country by 2030. It includes an action framework with proposed actions with key stakeholders, implementation framework and mechanism, thus providing a path forward for preventing suicides. The National Mental Health Policy (2014) sees prevention of mental disorders, reduction of suicide and attempted suicide as core priority areas. The Mental Healthcare Act 2017 brought in some necessary changes. The Act effectively decriminalised attempted suicide, which was punishable under Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code. It ensured that the individuals who have attempted suicide are offered opportunities for rehabilitation from the government as opposed to being tried or punished. Source: Indian Express HABER-BOSCH PROCESS  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: A hundred million tonnes of nitrogen are now removed from the atmosphere and converted into fertilizer via the Haber-Bosch process, adding 165 million tonnes of reactive nitrogen to the soil. Background: – The Haber-Bosch process revolutionized agriculture by enabling the large-scale production of synthetic fertilizers, which significantly boosted crop yields and transformed global food production What is the nitrogen molecule? Nearly eight metric tonnes of nitrogen lie on every square metre of the earth’s surface, yet it can’t feed a single blade of grass. Nitrogen in the air is mostly in the form of N2. When two nitrogen atoms join together, they share three pairs of electrons to form a triple bond, rendering the molecule nearly unbreakable. The energy required to break the nitrogen triple bond is so high that molecular nitrogen is nearly inert. But if the bond is broken, atomic nitrogen can form ionic nitrides such as ammonia (NH3), ammonium (NH4+), or nitrates (NO3–). Plants need these types of nitrogen, called reactive nitrogen, to synthesise enzymes, proteins, and amino acids. How is nitrogen availed in nature? Among natural things, only lightning has enough energy to destroy the N2 triple bond. In a lightning bolt, nitrogen in the air combines with oxygen to generate nitrogen oxides such as NO and NO2. They can then combine with water vapour to create nitric and nitrous acids (HNO3 and HNO2, respectively). Reactive nitrogen-rich droplets fertilize soil when it rains. Apart from lightning, a gentle metabolic process carried out by Azotobacter bacteria can also create reactive nitrogen. Some microorganisms such as Rhizobia have developed symbiotic relationships with legume plants (clover, peas, beans, alfalfa, and acacia) to provide reactive nitrogen in exchange for nutrition. What is the nitrogen cycle? Plants usually get their reactive nitrogen from the soil, where they absorb minerals dissolved in water such as ammonium (NH4+) and nitrate (NO3-). Humans and animals need nine pre-made nitrogen-rich amino acids from plants. The nitrogen ingested by plants and animals returns to the soil through excreta and the decomposition of dead bodies. But the cycle is incomplete: some nitrogen is released back into the environment in molecular form. Although legumes can produce nitrogen independently, important food crops draw nitrogen from the soil. As the human population multiplies, nitrogen in agricultural soil depletes faster, needing fertilizers to compensate. How is ammonia made? Ammonia (NH3) is made of nitrogen and hydrogen, both of which exist naturally as two-atom molecules. Under extreme heat, the molecules separate and form a compound, but it is short-lived because of the heat. The reversible reaction N2 + 3H2 = 2NH3 (the ‘=’ sign has been used here as a stand-in for bidirectional arrows) must be maintained in specific conditions to harvest considerable amounts of ammonia. The German chemist Fritz Haber heated the N2-H2 combination to various temperatures and calculated the amount of ammonia created. At 1,000 degrees Celsius, Haber found that harvestable ammonia made up just one-hundredth of 1% of the mixture. Then Haber wondered if pressure could be the answer. He calculated that hydrogen and nitrogen would only remain united in extreme conditions: temperatures of 200 degrees Celsius and pressures of 200 atm (that is, 200-times the average air pressure at sea level). But the ammonia production rate was still too slow, so Haber wanted a catalyst. He also realised that if he could cool the ammonia to a liquid state, he could collect most of it. What is the Haber-Bosch process? Robert Le Rossignol, joined Haber’s lab, solving the engineering challenge of maintaining high pressure in the reaction chamber, while mechanic Friedrich Kirchenbauer built the necessary equipment. Haber acknowledged both in his Nobel Prize speech, sharing patents and prize money with them. The heated hydrogen and nitrogen combination would circulate in a steel chamber at a pressure of 200 atm. The chamber had a valve that could withstand the high pressure while allowing the N2-H2 mixture to pass through. Haber also built a contraption to ensure the hot gases departing from the reaction chamber passed their heat to the cooler incoming gases. Thus the departing combination would rapidly cool while the ingested gas would be heated, achieving two objectives at once. Haber soon began testing catalysts. One was osmium, a rare and dense metal found in trace levels on the earth. When Haber inserted an osmium sheet into the chamber, filled it with a N2-H2 mixture, and heated them, the nitrogen triple bond cracked away, leaving reactive nitrogen to fuse with hydrogen and produce a large amount of ammonia. Haber tested uranium which worked well, too. However both osmium and uranium were very expensive. When Badische Anilin- und Soda-Fabrik (BASF), a German company, decided to upscale Haber’s experiment to a factory-scale operation, it st out to find a readily available catalyst and found that certain iron oxides were good catalysts. Finally, some brilliant engineering by BASF’s Carl Bosch turned Haber’s tabletop setup into an industrial process to produce fertilizer. Source: The Hindu ARTICLE 142  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Polity Context: The Supreme Court on Monday (October 14) refused to entertain a PIL seeking directions under Article 142 to include sexual offences against men, trans persons and animals under the newly enacted Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS). Background: Article 142 of the Indian Constitution holds great significance in the context of the judiciary’s power and its relationship with the legislative and executive branches. About Article 142 Article 142(1) states that the Supreme Court (SC) may pass any order necessary to do “complete justice” in any matter pending before it. This gives the SC wide discretionary powers to ensure justice is served, even in situations where existing laws might be insufficient or silent. Article 142(2) provides the SC the authority to secure the attendance of persons, production of documents, and punishment for contempt of its orders. Judicial Activism and Judicial Overreach Judicial Activism: Article 142 is often cited as a tool for the judiciary to correct injustices when the law falls short, reflecting its activist role. The judiciary, using Article 142, has sometimes stepped into domains traditionally handled by the legislature and executive, leading to debates around separation of powers. Judicial Overreach: Critics argue that in certain instances, the SC’s use of Article 142 encroaches upon the functions of the other branches of government. Key Judicial Pronouncements Union Carbide Case (1989): Article 142 was invoked to finalize the compensation for the Bhopal gas tragedy victims, bypassing procedural delays to deliver justice. Ayodhya Verdict (2019): The SC used Article 142 to ensure a peaceful resolution to the Ayodhya land dispute, by granting the disputed land to a trust and allocating alternate land to the Muslim litigants. Coal Block Allocation Case (2014): In this case, the SC invoked Article 142 to cancel over 200 coal block allocations that were found to be illegal. Complete Justice: The Broad Scope The phrase “complete justice” allows the SC to go beyond the limitations of statutory law. For example, in cases involving environmental protection, Article 142 has been used to enforce strict norms even when explicit legislation was not in place. It also enables the SC to issue binding directions when existing laws are inadequate. For example, in criminal cases, the court has sometimes ordered the release of prisoners or alteration of punishments for humanitarian reasons. While the power under Article 142 is extraordinary, the SC has noted that it must be exercised with caution. It should not contradict or bypass existing laws unless there are compelling reasons to do so. Criticism and Debate Undemocratic Power?: Some legal scholars argue that the broad powers under Article 142 may undermine parliamentary sovereignty, as the judiciary can effectively create law in certain situations. Ambiguity in the Term “Complete Justice”: The lack of a clear definition of “complete justice” leaves significant room for interpretation, which has been both praised for flexibility and criticized for the potential for misuse. Source: Live law MOUNT ADAMS  Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Scientists are trying to establish what caused an unusual spike in earthquakes at the Mount Adams volcano by installing multiple temporary seismic monitoring stations at the site. Background: – In September, six small earthquakes were recorded at the “high threat” volcano. Normally, it only experiences one earthquake every two to three years, according to the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS). About Mount Adams Mount Adams is a stratovolcano located in the Cascade Range of the western United States, in Washington State. It is the second-highest mountain in Washington after Mount Rainier, with an elevation of 3,743 meters. Geological Significance Stratovolcano: Mount Adams is a stratovolcano, which means it is built up by many layers of hardened lava, tephra, pumice, and volcanic ash. Stratovolcanoes are known for their explosive eruptions. Cascade Volcanic Arc: It is part of the Cascade Volcanic Arc, a chain of volcanoes in the Pacific Northwest region formed due to the subduction of the Juan de Fuca Plate beneath the North American Plate. Dormant Volcano: Mount Adams is considered dormant but not extinct. The last known eruption occurred about 1,000 years ago, and there is still potential for future volcanic activity. Research indicates that Mount Adams has produced four lava flows within the last 12,000 years, all of which have remained within a few miles of the volcano. The USGS highlights that the greatest risk to nearby communities comes from lahars—muddy flows of rock, ash, and ice—that can occur during both eruptive and non-eruptive phases. These lahars have the potential to travel significant distances, with historical flows thought to have reached far from the volcano approximately 6,000 and 300 years ago. Source: Livescience Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the Haber-Bosch process, consider the following statements: It is an industrial process used for the synthesis of ammonia from nitrogen and oxygen. The process requires high temperatures and pressures along with the use of a catalyst. The Haber-Bosch process has played a critical role in increasing agricultural productivity by enabling the mass production of fertilizers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) With reference to Article 142 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: It empowers the Supreme Court of India to pass any decree or make any order necessary for doing complete justice in a case. The powers under Article 142 can be used by both the Supreme Court and the High Courts of India. Article 142 has been used by the Supreme Court to provide relief in cases where existing laws were inadequate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) Mount Adams, located in the Cascade Range, is known for its volcanic features. Which of the following statements about Mount Adams and lahars is/are correct? Mount Adams is an active stratovolcano located in South Africa. Lahars are volcanic mudflows that can occur even without an eruption. It is part of the Cascade Volcanic Arc, a chain of volcanoes in the Pacific Northwest region Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  15th October 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  14th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  b Q.2) – c Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th October 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th October 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   X-BAND RADAR  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: After devastating floods and landslides killed more than 200 people in Kerala’s Wayanad district in July 2024, the Union Ministry of Earth Sciences approved an X-band radar to be installed in the district. Background: – A torrential downpour triggered the landslide in the valley instantly wiping out habitations. Key takeaways Radar is short for ‘radio detection and ranging’. The device uses radio waves to determine the distance, velocity, and physical characteristics of objects. A transmitter emits a signal aimed at an object whose characteristics are to be ascertained (in meteorology, this could be a cloud). A part of the emitted signal is echoed by the object back to the device, where a receiver tracks and analyses it. Weather radar, also known as a Doppler radar, is a common application of this device. The Doppler effect is the change in frequency of sound waves as their source moves towards and away from a listener. In meteorology, Doppler radars can reveal how fast a cloud is moving and in which direction based on how the cloud’s relative motion changes the frequency of the radiation striking it. Doppler radars can monitor weather conditions and anticipate new wind patterns, the formation of storms, etc. What is an X-band radar? Doppler radar relies on Rayleigh scattering, when the scatterer is much smaller than the wavelength of the radiation. A radar trying to ‘see’ smaller particles like rain droplets or fog will need to use radiation of lower wavelengths, like in the X-band. An X-band radar is radar that emits radiation in the X-band of the electromagnetic spectrum: 8-12 GHz, corresponding to wavelengths of around 2-4 cm (this is in the microwave part of the spectrum.) The smaller wavelengths allow the radar to produce images of higher resolution. However, the greater the frequency of some radiation, the faster it will be attenuated. So X-band radars have a relatively shorter range. In Wayanad, the new radar is expected to be able to monitor the movements of particles, such as soil, to inform landslide warnings. The device will also perform high temporal sampling, that is, rapidly sample its environs, allowing it to spot particle movements happening in shorter spans of time. How many radars does India have? In its X-band radar network, India has both wind-finding and storm-detecting radars, and some with dual capabilities. The country also uses S-band radars (2-4 GHz) for long-range detection. In September, the Union Cabinet cleared the ₹2,000-crore ‘Mission Mausam’ to upgrade meteorological infrastructure in the country. This includes installing up to 60 meteorological radars until 2026 under the Mission’s first phase. Source: The Hindu SCUTTLING PEOPLE’S RIGHT TO INFORMATION  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: There is a severe backlash against the Right to Information (RTI) Act, which has just entered its 20th year, and those who use it. Background: – From exposing corruption in the delivery of basic rights to bringing to light the truth behind the opaque electoral bonds scheme, the RTI Act has been used by citizens to hold power to account. Key takeaways Vacant Posts & Dysfunctional Commissions: Governments are scuttling the RTI Act by not appointing information commissioners. A 2023-24 report of the Satark Nagrik Sangathan,a citizens group that campaigns for transparency in government functioning, shows that: Seven out of 29 information commissions across the country were defunct in 2023-24. Jharkhand’s commission has been non-functional for over four years, Tripura’s for three years, and Telangana’s for 1.5 years. Maharashtra’s commission has over 1 lakh pending cases, and six out of 11 commissioner posts are vacant. Central Information Commission (CIC) has eight out of 11 posts vacant. More than 4 lakh appeals and complaints are pending in information commissions across India. Ineffective Appointments: Most commissioners appointed are retired officials or those with political ties, often reluctant to act against violations of transparency. The report by Satark Nagrik Sangathan shows that commissions did not impose penalties in 95% of the cases where penalties could be imposed. This failure sends a signal that violating the law will not invite consequences. This destroys the framework of incentives and disincentives built into the RTI Act, promotes a culture of impunity, and exasperates applicants who seek information. Regressive Amendments: 2019 Amendments: Empowered the central government to control tenure, salaries, and post-retirement benefits of commissioners, reducing the autonomy of information commissions. Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023: It included a provision to amend the RTI law to exempt all personal information from disclosure. The RTI Act of 2005 provided for protection of the privacy through section 8(1)(j). In order to invoke this section to deny personal information, at least one of the following grounds had to be proven: information sought had no relationship to any public activity or public interest; or information sought was such that it would cause unwarranted invasion of privacy, and the information officer was satisfied that there is no larger public interest that justified disclosure. The DPDP Act amended section 8(1)(j) to expand its purview and exempt all personal information from the ambit of the RTI Act. It also deleted a key provision in the law, which gave citizens a right to information at par with MPs and MLAs. Threats to RTI Activists: Nearly 100 people have been killed for using the RTI Act, and many more have been assaulted or threatened, according to Transparency International India data. The Whistleblowers Protection Act, passed in 2014, remains non-operational due to a lack of implementation rules. Erosion of Democracy: The RTI Act has played a crucial role in redistributing power and reshaping the government-citizen relationship. Any erosion of the RTI Act, through inaction or regressive amendments, is a direct threat to the democratic framework. Source: The Hindu EUROPA CLIPPER MISSION  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: NASA is set to launch Europa Clipper mission today. Background: – The spacecraft is scheduled to launch from Nasa’s Kennedy Space Center in Florida aboard a Falcon Heavy rocket. About Europa Clipper Mission Europa Clipper Mission is a NASA mission aimed at exploring Jupiter’s moon Europa, which is considered one of the top candidates in the search for extraterrestrial life. The mission is expected to last several years, with the spacecraft making multiple  flybys of Europa. The main objective of the Europa Clipper mission is to determine whether Europa’s subsurface ocean could support life. The mission will investigate the moon’s ice shell, ocean, composition, and geology. Europa Clipper is the largest spacecraft NASA has ever developed for a planetary  mission. Its solar arrays span over 100 feet (30 meters) when deployed. The spacecraft is expected to reach Jupiter and begin its scientific investigations by April 2030 The mission ends in 2034 with a planned crash into Ganymede — Jupiter’s biggest moon and the solar system’s too. What will Nasa’s Europa Clipper do? Nasa’s spacecraft is equipped with nine state-of-the-art instruments. It includes high-resolution cameras, magnetometers, and an ice-penetrating radar, all designed to study the composition, geology, and nature of Europa’s ice shell and underlying ocean. Once reaching Jupiter, Europa Clipper will perform 49 close flybys of Europa, swooping as low as 16 miles about the moon’s surface. Then while orbiting, the spacecraft will scan nearly the entire moon while minimising its exposure to Jupiter’s intense radiation belts. The Europa mission represents a major step in our quest to understand the potential for life beyond Earth. It paves the way for future exploration of ocean worlds in our solar system. Europa, the superstar among Jupiter’s many moons One of Jupiter’s 95 known moons, Europa is almost the size of our own moon. It’s encased in an ice sheet estimated to be 10 miles to 15 miles or more thick. Scientists believe this frozen crust hides an ocean that could be 80 miles or more deep. The Hubble Space Telescope has spotted what appear to be geysers erupting from the surface. Discovered by Galileo in 1610, Europa is one of the four so-called Galilean moons of Jupiter, along with Ganymede, Io and Callisto. Like Europa, Jupiter’s jumbo moon Ganymede is thought to host an underground ocean. But its frozen shell is much thicker — possibly 100 miles thick — making it tougher to probe the environment below. Callisto’s ice sheet may be even thicker, possibly hiding an ocean. Source: Business Standard SERIOUS FRAUD INVESTIGATION OFFICE (SFIO)  Syllabus Prelims – ECONOMY Context: The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) recorded the statement of daughter of Kerala Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan and owner of a now-dormant information technology firm, raising a political storm. Background: The Union Corporate Affairs Ministry had ordered an SFIO inquiry based on the finding of the Interim Settlement Board (ISB) under the Central Board of Direct Taxes. About Serious Fraud Investigation Office The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) is a specialized agency established under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), tasked with investigating serious financial frauds in India. It plays a critical role in ensuring corporate governance and financial integrity, especially concerning complex and large-scale frauds. The SFIO was set up in 2003 based on the recommendations of the Naresh Chandra Committee on Corporate Governance. It gained statutory status under the Companies Act, 2013 (Section 211), empowering it to investigate frauds relating to companies. It is a multi-disciplinary organization, consisting of experts in the field of accountancy, forensic auditing, banking, law, information technology, investigation, company law, capital market and taxation, etc. for detecting and prosecuting or recommending for prosecution white-collar crimes/frauds. SFIO is headed by a Director as Head of Department in the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India. SFIO take up for investigation cases characterized by – complexity and having inter-departmental and multi- disciplinary ramifications. substantial involvement of public interest to be judged by size, either in terms of monetary the possibility of investigation leading to or contributing towards a clear improvement in systems, laws or procedures SFIO Investigate into the affairs of a company on: – on receipt of a report of the Registrar or inspector under section 208 of the Companies Act, 2013. on intimation of a special resolution passed by a company that its affairs are required to be investigated in the public interest on request from any department of the Central Government or a State Government. Key Features: Autonomy: SFIO functions autonomously but operates within the framework provided by the MCA. Coordination with Other Agencies: It coordinates with other regulatory bodies like SEBI, CBI, RBI, and the Enforcement Directorate (ED) during investigations. Investigation Process: Investigations are initiated upon referral by the Central Government, based on material suggesting fraud. The SFIO submits its report to the government, which may lead to prosecution. High-profile cases such as the Satyam scam, IL&FS crisis, and Kingfisher Airlines case have been investigated by the SFIO. Recent Amendments and Reforms: To strengthen SFIO, amendments to the Companies Act, 2013 have expanded its powers, including the authority to summon individuals and seize company records during investigations. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016, has further enhanced the agency’s role in investigating corporate insolvency cases with fraudulent activities. Source: The Hindu SHALE GAS  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: A study, released by the science & technology ministry recently, indicates significant shale gas generation potential in eastern South Karanpura coalfield in Jharkhand. Background: – The South Karanpura coalfield in the Ramgarh district of Jharkhand, consisting of 28 major coal blocks, is well-established for its substantial deposits of workable coal. About Shale Gas Shale gas is a type of natural gas trapped within shale formations, which are fine-grained sedimentary rocks with low permeability. It is considered an unconventional source of natural gas and is extracted through a process called hydraulic  fracturing, or “fracking.” Key Features: Composition: Shale gas primarily consists of methane (CH4), along with small amounts of other gases like ethane, propane, and butane. Extraction Process: The extraction involves injecting a high-pressure mixture of water, sand, and chemicals into the shale formation to create  fractures, allowing the trapped gas to escape and be collected. India has significant potential for shale gas exploration and production. The  Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas has identified several basins with potential  shale  gas reserves, including: Cambay Basin in Gujarat Assam-Arakan Basin in the Northeast Gondwana Basin in central India Krishna-Godavari Basin in Andhra Pradesh Cauvery Basin in southern India Indo-Gangetic Plains Government Initiatives: In 2013, the Government of India introduced a policy allowing exploration and exploitation of shale gas by national oil companies like ONGC and Oil India Ltd.. The Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP), launched in 2016, simplified regulations, providing a uniform licensing system and encouraging investment in shale gas exploration. In 2018, the government further relaxed rules to allow existing contractors under Production Sharing Contracts (PSC) to explore shale oil and gas resources. Challenges for Shale Gas Development in India: Water Scarcity: Hydraulic fracturing requires large amounts of water, which is a scarce resource in many shale-rich regions of India. Environmental Concerns: Potential environmental risks include groundwater contamination, seismic activity, and surface water pollution, raising opposition from environmental groups. Technological Limitations: India lacks domestic expertise in advanced shale gas extraction technologies, which are critical for commercial-scale production. Source: Times of India Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to Shale Gas in India, consider the following statements: Shale gas extraction primarily involves hydraulic fracturing and horizontal drilling techniques. India has large-scale commercial production of shale gas, making it a significant part of its energy mix. The Cambay and Krishna-Godavari basins are identified as potential shale gas reserves in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) With reference to the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO), consider the following statements: The SFIO was given statutory status under the Companies Act, 2013. SFIO can investigate a company’s affairs only on the recommendation of the Registrar of Companies. SFIO is a multi-disciplinary agency consisting of experts in various fields like accountancy, law, forensic auditing, and information technology. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) With reference to NASA’s Europa Clipper Mission, consider the following statements: The primary objective of the mission is to investigate whether Europa’s subsurface ocean could support life. Europa Clipper is the largest spacecraft NASA has developed for a planetary mission. The Europa Clipper mission will end with a planned crash into Jupiter’s moon Europa in 2044. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  14th October 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  12th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  c Q.2) – a Q.3) – b

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th October 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   X-BAND RADAR  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: After devastating floods and landslides killed more than 200 people in Kerala’s Wayanad district in July 2024, the Union Ministry of Earth Sciences approved an X-band radar to be installed in the district. Background: – A torrential downpour triggered the landslide in the valley instantly wiping out habitations. Key takeaways Radar is short for ‘radio detection and ranging’. The device uses radio waves to determine the distance, velocity, and physical characteristics of objects. A transmitter emits a signal aimed at an object whose characteristics are to be ascertained (in meteorology, this could be a cloud). A part of the emitted signal is echoed by the object back to the device, where a receiver tracks and analyses it. Weather radar, also known as a Doppler radar, is a common application of this device. The Doppler effect is the change in frequency of sound waves as their source moves towards and away from a listener. In meteorology, Doppler radars can reveal how fast a cloud is moving and in which direction based on how the cloud’s relative motion changes the frequency of the radiation striking it. Doppler radars can monitor weather conditions and anticipate new wind patterns, the formation of storms, etc. What is an X-band radar? Doppler radar relies on Rayleigh scattering, when the scatterer is much smaller than the wavelength of the radiation. A radar trying to ‘see’ smaller particles like rain droplets or fog will need to use radiation of lower wavelengths, like in the X-band. An X-band radar is radar that emits radiation in the X-band of the electromagnetic spectrum: 8-12 GHz, corresponding to wavelengths of around 2-4 cm (this is in the microwave part of the spectrum.) The smaller wavelengths allow the radar to produce images of higher resolution. However, the greater the frequency of some radiation, the faster it will be attenuated. So X-band radars have a relatively shorter range. In Wayanad, the new radar is expected to be able to monitor the movements of particles, such as soil, to inform landslide warnings. The device will also perform high temporal sampling, that is, rapidly sample its environs, allowing it to spot particle movements happening in shorter spans of time. How many radars does India have? In its X-band radar network, India has both wind-finding and storm-detecting radars, and some with dual capabilities. The country also uses S-band radars (2-4 GHz) for long-range detection. In September, the Union Cabinet cleared the ₹2,000-crore ‘Mission Mausam’ to upgrade meteorological infrastructure in the country. This includes installing up to 60 meteorological radars until 2026 under the Mission’s first phase. Source: The Hindu SCUTTLING PEOPLE’S RIGHT TO INFORMATION  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: There is a severe backlash against the Right to Information (RTI) Act, which has just entered its 20th year, and those who use it. Background: – From exposing corruption in the delivery of basic rights to bringing to light the truth behind the opaque electoral bonds scheme, the RTI Act has been used by citizens to hold power to account. Key takeaways Vacant Posts & Dysfunctional Commissions: Governments are scuttling the RTI Act by not appointing information commissioners. A 2023-24 report of the Satark Nagrik Sangathan,a citizens group that campaigns for transparency in government functioning, shows that: Seven out of 29 information commissions across the country were defunct in 2023-24. Jharkhand’s commission has been non-functional for over four years, Tripura’s for three years, and Telangana’s for 1.5 years. Maharashtra’s commission has over 1 lakh pending cases, and six out of 11 commissioner posts are vacant. Central Information Commission (CIC) has eight out of 11 posts vacant. More than 4 lakh appeals and complaints are pending in information commissions across India. Ineffective Appointments: Most commissioners appointed are retired officials or those with political ties, often reluctant to act against violations of transparency. The report by Satark Nagrik Sangathan shows that commissions did not impose penalties in 95% of the cases where penalties could be imposed. This failure sends a signal that violating the law will not invite consequences. This destroys the framework of incentives and disincentives built into the RTI Act, promotes a culture of impunity, and exasperates applicants who seek information. Regressive Amendments: 2019 Amendments: Empowered the central government to control tenure, salaries, and post-retirement benefits of commissioners, reducing the autonomy of information commissions. Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023: It included a provision to amend the RTI law to exempt all personal information from disclosure. The RTI Act of 2005 provided for protection of the privacy through section 8(1)(j). In order to invoke this section to deny personal information, at least one of the following grounds had to be proven: information sought had no relationship to any public activity or public interest; or information sought was such that it would cause unwarranted invasion of privacy, and the information officer was satisfied that there is no larger public interest that justified disclosure. The DPDP Act amended section 8(1)(j) to expand its purview and exempt all personal information from the ambit of the RTI Act. It also deleted a key provision in the law, which gave citizens a right to information at par with MPs and MLAs. Threats to RTI Activists: Nearly 100 people have been killed for using the RTI Act, and many more have been assaulted or threatened, according to Transparency International India data. The Whistleblowers Protection Act, passed in 2014, remains non-operational due to a lack of implementation rules. Erosion of Democracy: The RTI Act has played a crucial role in redistributing power and reshaping the government-citizen relationship. Any erosion of the RTI Act, through inaction or regressive amendments, is a direct threat to the democratic framework. Source: The Hindu EUROPA CLIPPER MISSION  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: NASA is set to launch Europa Clipper mission today. Background: – The spacecraft is scheduled to launch from Nasa’s Kennedy Space Center in Florida aboard a Falcon Heavy rocket. About Europa Clipper Mission Europa Clipper Mission is a NASA mission aimed at exploring Jupiter’s moon Europa, which is considered one of the top candidates in the search for extraterrestrial life. The mission is expected to last several years, with the spacecraft making multiple  flybys of Europa. The main objective of the Europa Clipper mission is to determine whether Europa’s subsurface ocean could support life. The mission will investigate the moon’s ice shell, ocean, composition, and geology. Europa Clipper is the largest spacecraft NASA has ever developed for a planetary  mission. Its solar arrays span over 100 feet (30 meters) when deployed. The spacecraft is expected to reach Jupiter and begin its scientific investigations by April 2030 The mission ends in 2034 with a planned crash into Ganymede — Jupiter’s biggest moon and the solar system’s too. What will Nasa’s Europa Clipper do? Nasa’s spacecraft is equipped with nine state-of-the-art instruments. It includes high-resolution cameras, magnetometers, and an ice-penetrating radar, all designed to study the composition, geology, and nature of Europa’s ice shell and underlying ocean. Once reaching Jupiter, Europa Clipper will perform 49 close flybys of Europa, swooping as low as 16 miles about the moon’s surface. Then while orbiting, the spacecraft will scan nearly the entire moon while minimising its exposure to Jupiter’s intense radiation belts. The Europa mission represents a major step in our quest to understand the potential for life beyond Earth. It paves the way for future exploration of ocean worlds in our solar system. Europa, the superstar among Jupiter’s many moons One of Jupiter’s 95 known moons, Europa is almost the size of our own moon. It’s encased in an ice sheet estimated to be 10 miles to 15 miles or more thick. Scientists believe this frozen crust hides an ocean that could be 80 miles or more deep. The Hubble Space Telescope has spotted what appear to be geysers erupting from the surface. Discovered by Galileo in 1610, Europa is one of the four so-called Galilean moons of Jupiter, along with Ganymede, Io and Callisto. Like Europa, Jupiter’s jumbo moon Ganymede is thought to host an underground ocean. But its frozen shell is much thicker — possibly 100 miles thick — making it tougher to probe the environment below. Callisto’s ice sheet may be even thicker, possibly hiding an ocean. Source: Business Standard SERIOUS FRAUD INVESTIGATION OFFICE (SFIO)  Syllabus Prelims – ECONOMY Context: The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) recorded the statement of daughter of Kerala Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan and owner of a now-dormant information technology firm, raising a political storm. Background: The Union Corporate Affairs Ministry had ordered an SFIO inquiry based on the finding of the Interim Settlement Board (ISB) under the Central Board of Direct Taxes. About Serious Fraud Investigation Office The Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) is a specialized agency established under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), tasked with investigating serious financial frauds in India. It plays a critical role in ensuring corporate governance and financial integrity, especially concerning complex and large-scale frauds. The SFIO was set up in 2003 based on the recommendations of the Naresh Chandra Committee on Corporate Governance. It gained statutory status under the Companies Act, 2013 (Section 211), empowering it to investigate frauds relating to companies. It is a multi-disciplinary organization, consisting of experts in the field of accountancy, forensic auditing, banking, law, information technology, investigation, company law, capital market and taxation, etc. for detecting and prosecuting or recommending for prosecution white-collar crimes/frauds. SFIO is headed by a Director as Head of Department in the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India. SFIO take up for investigation cases characterized by – complexity and having inter-departmental and multi- disciplinary ramifications. substantial involvement of public interest to be judged by size, either in terms of monetary the possibility of investigation leading to or contributing towards a clear improvement in systems, laws or procedures SFIO Investigate into the affairs of a company on: – on receipt of a report of the Registrar or inspector under section 208 of the Companies Act, 2013. on intimation of a special resolution passed by a company that its affairs are required to be investigated in the public interest on request from any department of the Central Government or a State Government. Key Features: Autonomy: SFIO functions autonomously but operates within the framework provided by the MCA. Coordination with Other Agencies: It coordinates with other regulatory bodies like SEBI, CBI, RBI, and the Enforcement Directorate (ED) during investigations. Investigation Process: Investigations are initiated upon referral by the Central Government, based on material suggesting fraud. The SFIO submits its report to the government, which may lead to prosecution. High-profile cases such as the Satyam scam, IL&FS crisis, and Kingfisher Airlines case have been investigated by the SFIO. Recent Amendments and Reforms: To strengthen SFIO, amendments to the Companies Act, 2013 have expanded its powers, including the authority to summon individuals and seize company records during investigations. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016, has further enhanced the agency’s role in investigating corporate insolvency cases with fraudulent activities. Source: The Hindu SHALE GAS  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: A study, released by the science & technology ministry recently, indicates significant shale gas generation potential in eastern South Karanpura coalfield in Jharkhand. Background: – The South Karanpura coalfield in the Ramgarh district of Jharkhand, consisting of 28 major coal blocks, is well-established for its substantial deposits of workable coal. About Shale Gas Shale gas is a type of natural gas trapped within shale formations, which are fine-grained sedimentary rocks with low permeability. It is considered an unconventional source of natural gas and is extracted through a process called hydraulic  fracturing, or “fracking.” Key Features: Composition: Shale gas primarily consists of methane (CH4), along with small amounts of other gases like ethane, propane, and butane. Extraction Process: The extraction involves injecting a high-pressure mixture of water, sand, and chemicals into the shale formation to create  fractures, allowing the trapped gas to escape and be collected. India has significant potential for shale gas exploration and production. The  Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas has identified several basins with potential  shale  gas reserves, including: Cambay Basin in Gujarat Assam-Arakan Basin in the Northeast Gondwana Basin in central India Krishna-Godavari Basin in Andhra Pradesh Cauvery Basin in southern India Indo-Gangetic Plains Government Initiatives: In 2013, the Government of India introduced a policy allowing exploration and exploitation of shale gas by national oil companies like ONGC and Oil India Ltd.. The Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP), launched in 2016, simplified regulations, providing a uniform licensing system and encouraging investment in shale gas exploration. In 2018, the government further relaxed rules to allow existing contractors under Production Sharing Contracts (PSC) to explore shale oil and gas resources. Challenges for Shale Gas Development in India: Water Scarcity: Hydraulic fracturing requires large amounts of water, which is a scarce resource in many shale-rich regions of India. Environmental Concerns: Potential environmental risks include groundwater contamination, seismic activity, and surface water pollution, raising opposition from environmental groups. Technological Limitations: India lacks domestic expertise in advanced shale gas extraction technologies, which are critical for commercial-scale production. Source: Times of India Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to Shale Gas in India, consider the following statements: Shale gas extraction primarily involves hydraulic fracturing and horizontal drilling techniques. India has large-scale commercial production of shale gas, making it a significant part of its energy mix. The Cambay and Krishna-Godavari basins are identified as potential shale gas reserves in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) With reference to the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO), consider the following statements: The SFIO was given statutory status under the Companies Act, 2013. SFIO can investigate a company’s affairs only on the recommendation of the Registrar of Companies. SFIO is a multi-disciplinary agency consisting of experts in various fields like accountancy, law, forensic auditing, and information technology. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) With reference to NASA’s Europa Clipper Mission, consider the following statements: The primary objective of the mission is to investigate whether Europa’s subsurface ocean could support life. Europa Clipper is the largest spacecraft NASA has developed for a planetary mission. The Europa Clipper mission will end with a planned crash into Jupiter’s moon Europa in 2044. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  14th October 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  12th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  c Q.2) – a Q.3) – b

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th October 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   JAYAPRAKASH NARAYAN Syllabus Prelims & Mains – HISTORY Context: Jayaprakash Narayan, popularly known as Lok Nayak, was born on 11 October 1902 in Bihar’s Saran district. As we commemorate his 122nd birth anniversary this year, his legacy as a people’s leader and champion of their cause continues to inspire. Background: – He played a noteworthy role in the Indian national struggle and especially in leading the call for ‘Total Revolution‘ during the Emergency. Key takeaways The first encounter of Jayaprakash Narayan (JP) with freedom struggle happened during the Swadeshi movement. He gave up his foreign clothes and footwear in support. From the beginning, he was influenced by Gandhi. In December 1920, Gandhi visited Patna with the message of Non-cooperation. Inspired by his speech, JP wanted to invest all his time into political work but was held back by apprehension. His misgivings disappeared when Maulana Abul Kalam Azad visited Patna and prompted students. JP quit college and became part of the Non-Cooperation Movement. In 1922, he left India to study at the University of California, Berkeley, where Karl Marx’s ideas influenced him. In 1929, upon returning to India, he joined the Indian National Congress. During the Civil Disobedience Movement, when all the prominent leaders were arrested, JP kept the Congress functional. He began working on building an extensive illegal underground network distributing literature and recruiting supporters. Several warrants were issued against him, eventually leading to his arrest in 1932. Influenced by Socialist ideas, the young congressmen in Bihar founded the Bihar Socialist Party in 1931, JP was associated with the organisation since its inception. JP became instrumental in the formation of the All India Congress Socialist Party (CSP) in 1934 with Narendra Deva as president and himself as secretary. It was during the Quit India Movement (1942) that JP came to the forefront. He along with Ram Manohar Lohia and Aruna Asaf Ali, took charge of the movement after all the senior leaders were arrested. Soon, he was also arrested under Defence India Rules. He was taken to Hazari Bagh Central Jail from where he escaped in November 1942. JP organised an “Azaad Dasta” (armed guerrilla revolutionaries) in Nepal after escaping from jail. JP hoped to launch a countrywide revolution. However, he was arrested in September 1943, exactly ten months and ten days after he escaped from Hazaribagh jail. It was only in 1946 that he was released from jail. Following Independence, JP took the CSP out of the Congress and formed the Socialist Party, which he merged with J B Kripalani’s Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party to form the Praja Socialist Party. Soon afterward, after turning down Nehru’s calls to join the ministry, JP decided to walk away from electoral politics and involved himself with Acharya Vinoba Bhave’s Bhoodan movement. In March 1974, students in Bihar protesting against rising prices and unemployment, invited JP, who has given up from active politics, to guide the student movement. JP accepted it on one condition that the movement will remain non-violent and will not limit itself to Bihar.  JP demanded the dismissal of the Congress government in Bihar and gave a call for a “total revolution“ in the social, economic, and political spheres. A massive protest was organised in Delhi’s Ramlila grounds on 25 June 1975 where JP announced a nationwide satyagraha for then Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi’s resignation and asked the army, the police, and government employees not to obey “illegal and immoral orders”. In response, the government declared a state of emergency on 25 June 1975. The General Elections were called in 1977. The election results turned into a referendum on Emergency, at least in north India. Indira Gandhi’s government was defeated, paving the way for the formation of the first-ever non-Congress government at the Centre. Throughout the Emergency, JP fought vigorously against the authoritarian and became a beacon of hope in the face of adversity. Source: Indian Express GREEN PATCH SPREADS IN ANTARCTICA  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ENVIRONMENT Context: Plant cover across the Antarctic Peninsula, a long, mountainous extension of Antarctica that points north towards South America, has increased more than 10 times over the past few decades due to rising temperatures, a new study says. Background: – In March 2022, Antarctica experienced its most intense heatwave — temperatures in East Antarctica soared to 39 degrees Celsius above normal. How quickly is Antarctica warming? The continent is warming twice as fast as the global average, at a rate of between 0.22 degrees Celsius and 0.32 degrees Celsius per decade currently. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), the UN body that advances scientific knowledge about climate change, has estimated that the Earth as a whole is warming at the rate of 0.14-0.18 degrees Celsius per decade. The situation in the Antarctic Peninsula is worse than in the rest of Antarctica — it is warming five times faster than the global average. The Antarctic Peninsula is now almost 3 degrees Celsius warmer on average than in 1950. Antarctica has also been experiencing record-breaking heatwaves, especially during the height of its winter season (which is summer in the northern hemisphere). What has the study found? Researchers used satellite imagery and data to conclude that the extent of vegetation – mostly mosses and lichen – in the Antarctic Peninsula has increased 14 times in just 35 years. Rising temperatures in Antarctica have also resulted in a rapid decrease in the extent of sea ice — the 2024 extent was the second smallest of the satellite record, only slightly more than the record low set in 2023. Warmer open seas may be leading to wetter conditions that favour plant growth. Why should we worry about increased vegetation in Antarctica? Mosses can colonise bare rock and create the foundation of soils that could in milder conditions make the continent more favourable for the growth of other invasive species that could threaten native flora and fauna. Increase in plant life could also reduce the Antarctic Peninsula’s ability to reflect sunlight (solar energy) back to Space — a darker surface absorbs more solar radiation. This could further increase ground temperatures, with local and global repercussions. Source: Indian Express NATIONAL AGRICULTURE CODE (NAC)  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has begun the process of formulating a National Agriculture Code (NAC). Background: – On the lines of the existing National Building Code, the NAC will set standards across the agriculture cycle, from field preparation to storage of produce. What is the National Agriculture Code? The BIS is the national body which sets standards for different products across various sectors. In agriculture, it has already set standards for machinery (tractors, harvesters, etc.) and various inputs (fertilisers, pesticides, etc.) However, there are still many areas not covered by the BIS standards. For example, there is no standard for agriculture practices like preparation of fields, micro irrigation and water use. The NAC will cover the entire agriculture cycle. The code will have two parts. The first will contain general principles for all crops, and the second will deal with crop-specific standards for the likes of paddy, wheat, oilseeds, and pulses. The NAC will serve as a guide for farmers, agriculture universities, and officials. What will the NAC cover? In addition to standards for agriculture machinery, the NAC will cover all agriculture processes and post-harvest operations, such as crop selection, land preparation, sowing/transplanting, irrigation/drainage, soil health management, plant health management, harvesting/threshing, primary processing, post-harvest, sustainability, and record maintenance. It will also include standards for input management, like use of chemical fertilisers, pesticides, and weedicides, as well as standards for crop storage and traceability. NAC will cover all new and emerging areas like natural farming and organic farming, as well as the use of Internet-of-Things in the field of agriculture. What are Standardized Agriculture Demonstration Farms? BIS has also taken an initiative for setting up of ‘Standardized Agriculture Demonstration Farm’ (SADF) in selected agriculture institutes in the country. SADF will serve as experimental sites for testing and implementing various agricultural practices and new technologies in accordance with Indian Standards. For the development of these specialised farms, the BIS plans to sign Memorandum of Understanding (MoUs) with premier agricultural institutes. BIS will provide financial assistance to these institutes for setting up the SADFs, where anyone including officials responsible for extension activities, farmers or industry people can come and learn. China has already successfully demonstrated the working of such SADFs. Source: Indian Express WAYANAD WILDLIFE SANCTUARY  Syllabus Prelims & Mains- ENVIRONMENT Context: A two-day vulture survey that concluded in the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary recently, has recorded the presence of 80 vultures across nine locations. Background: Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary remains one of Kerala’s last bastions for vultures, whose survival is closely tied to apex predators like tigers and leopards. About Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (WWS), located in the state of Kerala, is an integral part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It is located in the southern part of the famous Western Ghats. The sanctuary lies at an elevation ranging from 700 to 2100 meters. Established in 1973, the sanctuary spans approximately 344.44 square kilometers and lies between the famous protected areas of Nagarhole and Bandipur in Karnataka and Mudumalai in Tamil Nadu. It is divided into four hill ranges: Sulthan Bathery, Muthanga, Kurichiat, and Tholpetty. Kuruma, Paniya, Kattunaicka, Urali, Kurichiar and Adiyar are some of the tribal communities that inhabit this area. Flora The Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is predominantly covered by tropical moist deciduous forests, with patches of semi-evergreen forests. Fauna The sanctuary is home to an array of wildlife, including several endangered and endemic species. It forms a key part of the migratory corridor for elephants and tigers. Wayanad is known for its large elephant population. The sanctuary hosts a significant number of Bengal tigers, which frequently move between Wayanad and the adjacent Nagarhole-Bandipur-Mudumalai complex. Leopards, Wild Boar, Indian Bison (Gaur), Sloth Bear, Sambar Deer, Spotted Deer (Chital), Nilgai, Bonnet Macaques, and Indian Wild Dogs (Dholes) are commonly found. Source: The Hindu BRAHMI SCRIPT  Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ART & CULTURE Context: A Brahmi inscription found in Dharanikota village at Amaravathi mandal in Palnadu district. Background: – The place is historically known for its rich Buddhist culture. About  Brahmi Script: Origin: The Brahmi script is believed to have originated around the 3rd century BCE and is one of the oldest writing systems in the Indian subcontinent. Discovery: It was deciphered by James Prinsep in 1837, providing key insights into inscriptions and historical records from ancient India. Period: It was predominantly used during the Maurya Dynasty, especially during the reign of Emperor Ashoka. Inscriptions: Most famous for being the script in which Ashoka’s edicts were written, providing a wealth of information on his administration and Buddhist principles. Key Features Brahmi is an abugida and uses a system of diacritical marks to associate vowels with consonant symbols. Direction: The script is written from left to right. Brahmi evolved over time,  with variations such as Early Brahmi (or Ashokan Brahmi), Middle Brahmi (or Kushana Brahmi), and Late Brahmi (or Gupta Brahmi). Languages: Originally used for Prakrit, it was later adapted to write several languages, including Sanskrit. Importance in Indian Epigraphy Brahmi is regarded as the mother of all Indian scripts, giving rise to: Devanagari, which is used for writing Sanskrit, Hindi, and several other modern Indian languages. Tamil, Kannada, Telugu, Bengali, and Gujarati scripts, among others. The widespread usage of Brahmi in Ashoka’s inscriptions, spread across India, Nepal, Pakistan, and Afghanistan, attests to its importance in unifying communication across the Mauryan Empire. Significance Cultural Impact: Brahmi played a crucial role in the dissemination of Buddhist teachings and governance principles through inscriptions and manuscripts. Literary Development: It laid the foundation for the development of Indian literature, enabling the preservation and transmission of religious texts like Buddhist and Jain scriptures. Indo-European Linguistics: The decipherment of Brahmi was pivotal in the study of the Indo-European language family and understanding linguistic changes over time. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to Jayaprakash Narayan, consider the following statements: Jayaprakash Narayan was instrumental in forming the All India Congress Socialist Party (CSP) in 1934. He played a key role in leading the Quit India Movement after many senior leaders were arrested in 1942. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) Consider the following statements regarding Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary: Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. The sanctuary is an important migratory corridor for both elephants and Bengal tigers. The dominant vegetation type in Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is dry deciduous forests. The sanctuary shares its borders with the protected areas of Nagarhole and Bandipur in Karnataka and Mudumalai in Tamil Nadu. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2, and 4 only (b) 1, 3, and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only Q3.) Consider the following statements regarding the Brahmi script: Brahmi is written from right to left. It was deciphered by James Prinsep in the 19th century. The Brahmi script is the precursor to modern Indian scripts like Devanagari. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  12th October 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  11th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  c Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th October 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 12th October 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here