[DAY 19] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!
Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 You can post your comments in the given format (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score Your score Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following Types of Clouds Classification 1. Nimbostratus High Clouds 2. Stratocumulus Low Clouds 3. Altocumulus Middle Clouds 4. Cirrocumulus Vertical Clouds How many above pairs are correctly matched? a) Only one pair b) Two pairs c) Three pairs d) Four pairs Correct Solution (b) Types of Clouds Classification 1. Cumulus, Cumulonimbus Vertical Clouds 2. Stratocumulus, Nimbostratus, Stratus Low Clouds 3. Altocumulus, Altostratus Middle Clouds 4. Cirrocumulus, Cirrus, Cirrostratus High Clouds Incorrect Solution (b) Types of Clouds Classification 1. Cumulus, Cumulonimbus Vertical Clouds 2. Stratocumulus, Nimbostratus, Stratus Low Clouds 3. Altocumulus, Altostratus Middle Clouds 4. Cirrocumulus, Cirrus, Cirrostratus High Clouds Question 2 of 35 2. Question With reference to Polar Vortex, consider the following statements It is leading to a large-scale ozone depletion over the Polar Regions. It is a high-pressure area surrounding both the poles of the Earth. It is formed mainly in winter and gets weaker in summer. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct It is leading to a large-scale ozone depletion over the Polar Regions because it absorbs ozone in a large scale. It is a low-pressure area surrounding both the poles of the Earth which is found in the upper level in both the North and South poles. It is a persistent, large-scale, low-pressure zone which rotates counter clockwise at the North Pole and clockwise at the South Pole and their rotation is driven by the Coriolis effect. It is formed mainly in winter and gets weaker in summer. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct It is leading to a large-scale ozone depletion over the Polar Regions because it absorbs ozone in a large scale. It is a low-pressure area surrounding both the poles of the Earth which is found in the upper level in both the North and South poles. It is a persistent, large-scale, low-pressure zone which rotates counter clockwise at the North Pole and clockwise at the South Pole and their rotation is driven by the Coriolis effect. It is formed mainly in winter and gets weaker in summer. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following statements about the composition of atmosphere Oxygen constitutes nearly 40% of the atmosphere which is inhaled by all living organisms. Nitrogen is an important constituent of all organic compounds. Which of the above statements is/are true? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Oxygen constitutes about 21% of the atmosphere which is inhaled by all living organisms. Nitrogen is an important constituent of all organic compounds. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Oxygen constitutes about 21% of the atmosphere which is inhaled by all living organisms. Nitrogen is an important constituent of all organic compounds. Question 4 of 35 4. Question Consider the following statements about thunderstorm It is a storm with thunder and lightning along with heavy rain or hail. They are more frequent on water bodies due to low temperature. They are violent short duration storms which occur over a small area. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Thunderstorm is a storm with thunder and lightning along with heavy rain or hail. They are less frequent on water bodies due to low temperature. They are violent short duration storms which occur over a small area. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Thunderstorm is a storm with thunder and lightning along with heavy rain or hail. They are less frequent on water bodies due to low temperature. They are violent short duration storms which occur over a small area. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements The Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (DALR) is the rate of fall in temperature with altitude for a parcel of dry or unsaturated air rising under adiabatic conditions. The Katabatic Windis a hot dry wind that blows down a mountain slope. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (DALR) is the rate of fall in temperature with altitude for a parcel of dry or unsaturated air rising under adiabatic conditions and is associated with stable conditions (as it has less moisture). Adiabatic change refers to the change in temperature with pressure. The Katabatic Wind is a hot dry wind that blows down a mountain slope which is an example for a falling parcel of air in which the temperature changes happen adiabatically. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (DALR) is the rate of fall in temperature with altitude for a parcel of dry or unsaturated air rising under adiabatic conditions and is associated with stable conditions (as it has less moisture). Adiabatic change refers to the change in temperature with pressure. The Katabatic Wind is a hot dry wind that blows down a mountain slope which is an example for a falling parcel of air in which the temperature changes happen adiabatically. Question 6 of 35 6. Question Consider the following statements This kind of rainfall is caused when the Sun’s energy heats the surface which causes water to evaporate to form water vapour. It is heavy but of short duration which is highly localised. It is associated with minimum amount of cloudiness. It occurs mainly during summer and is common over equatorial doldrumsin the Congo basin, the Amazon basin and the islands of south-east Asia. Which of the below option best describes the above statements? a) Orographic Rainfall b) Frontal Rainfall c) Convectional Rainfall d) Cyclonic Rainfall Correct Solution (c) Convectional Rainfall – This kind of rainfall is caused when the Sun’s energy heats the surface which causes water to evaporate to form water vapour. It is heavy but of short duration which is highly localised. It is associated with minimum amount of cloudiness. It occurs mainly during summer and is common over equatorial doldrums in the Congo basin, the Amazon basin and the islands of south-east Asia. Incorrect Solution (c) Convectional Rainfall – This kind of rainfall is caused when the Sun’s energy heats the surface which causes water to evaporate to form water vapour. It is heavy but of short duration which is highly localised. It is associated with minimum amount of cloudiness. It occurs mainly during summer and is common over equatorial doldrums in the Congo basin, the Amazon basin and the islands of south-east Asia. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Consider the following statements about the conditions required to form a Dew The cloudy sky. The high relative humidity. The cold and long nights. The dew point should be below the freezing point. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) The conditions required to form a Dew are – The clear sky with calm air. The high relative humidity. The cold and long nights. The dew point should be above the freezing point. Note: Dew – When the moisture is deposited in the form of water droplets on cooler surfaces of solid objects such as stones, grass blades and plant leaves, it is known as dew. Incorrect Solution (b) The conditions required to form a Dew are – The clear sky with calm air. The high relative humidity. The cold and long nights. The dew point should be above the freezing point. Note: Dew – When the moisture is deposited in the form of water droplets on cooler surfaces of solid objects such as stones, grass blades and plant leaves, it is known as dew. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Consider the following statements about Jet Stream It is a geostrophic windblowing horizontally through the upper layers of the troposphere, generally from east to west. It is being developed in areas where air masses of differing temperatures meet. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Jet Stream is a geostrophic wind blowing horizontally through the upper layers of the troposphere, generally from west to east. They are found at an altitude of 20,000 – 50,000 feet. It is being developed in areas where air masses of differing temperatures meet. The greater the difference in temperature, faster is the wind velocity inside the jet stream. They extend from 20⁰ latitude to the poles in both hemispheres. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Jet Stream is a geostrophic wind blowing horizontally through the upper layers of the troposphere, generally from west to east. They are found at an altitude of 20,000 – 50,000 feet. It is being developed in areas where air masses of differing temperatures meet. The greater the difference in temperature, faster is the wind velocity inside the jet stream. They extend from 20⁰ latitude to the poles in both hemispheres. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Consider the following statements Nor Westers are violent evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam. Nor westers play a vital role in ripening of mangoes. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Nor Westers are violent evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam. They are called as Kalbaisakhi – Bengal Bardoli Chheerha – Assam Nor westers play a vital role in the cultivation of tea, rice and jute. Note: The pre-monsoon showers during the end of the summer in Kerala and the coastal areas of Karnataka which helps in the ripening of the mangoes are called as Mango Showers. The showers which helps in blossoming of coffee flowers in Kerala and nearby areas are called as Blossom Showers. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Nor Westers are violent evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam. They are called as Kalbaisakhi – Bengal Bardoli Chheerha – Assam Nor westers play a vital role in the cultivation of tea, rice and jute. Note: The pre-monsoon showers during the end of the summer in Kerala and the coastal areas of Karnataka which helps in the ripening of the mangoes are called as Mango Showers. The showers which helps in blossoming of coffee flowers in Kerala and nearby areas are called as Blossom Showers. Question 10 of 35 10. Question What are the reasons for higher frequency of cyclones in Bay of Bengal when compared to Arabian Sea? The warm air currents enhance the surface temperature of Bay of Bengal. The higher rainfall received in Bay of Bengal. The constant inflow of fresh water from the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The warm air currents enhance the surface temperature of Bay of Bengal. The higher rainfall received in Bay of Bengal. The constant inflow of fresh warm water from the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers makes it further impossible to mix with the cooler water below. So, temperatures in Bay of Bengal remain relatively high. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The warm air currents enhance the surface temperature of Bay of Bengal. The higher rainfall received in Bay of Bengal. The constant inflow of fresh warm water from the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers makes it further impossible to mix with the cooler water below. So, temperatures in Bay of Bengal remain relatively high. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Which among the following factors significantly influence the global wind pattern? Rotation of the Earth Atmospheric Pressure Variations Temperature Variations How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Factors that significantly influence Global wind patterns are: Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Rotation of the earth The rotation of the earth generates a force called the Coriolis force. This Coriolis force exerts an influence of shifting wind pattern orientation towards ‘its right’ in the northern hemisphere and ‘its south’ in the southern hemisphere. Atmospheric Pressure Variations Pressure gradient force is a force that makes a wind travel from High Pressure to Low Pressure. Thus, we notice movements of planetary winds from High-pressure belts to Low-Pressure belts. Temperature Variations Due to the spherical shape of the earth, there is differential heat distribution. Based on the heat, there are pressure differences are created. This influences global wind patterns. Incorrect Solution (c) Factors that significantly influence Global wind patterns are: Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Rotation of the earth The rotation of the earth generates a force called the Coriolis force. This Coriolis force exerts an influence of shifting wind pattern orientation towards ‘its right’ in the northern hemisphere and ‘its south’ in the southern hemisphere. Atmospheric Pressure Variations Pressure gradient force is a force that makes a wind travel from High Pressure to Low Pressure. Thus, we notice movements of planetary winds from High-pressure belts to Low-Pressure belts. Temperature Variations Due to the spherical shape of the earth, there is differential heat distribution. Based on the heat, there are pressure differences are created. This influences global wind patterns. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Concerning the origin of Earth’s Atmosphere, consider the following statements: The Earth’s primordial atmosphere was comprised mainly of hydrogen and nitrogen. Early oceans were a result of helium gas present in the atmosphere. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect 4.6 billion years ago, the Earth was a barren, rocky, and hot landmass with a thin atmosphere of hydrogen and helium. The amount of water and conducive atmosphere favored the existence of life on this planet. The Early atmosphere was probably dominated at first by water vapor, which, as the temperature dropped, would rain out and form the oceans. This would have been a deluge of truly global proportions an resulted in further reduction of CO2. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect 4.6 billion years ago, the Earth was a barren, rocky, and hot landmass with a thin atmosphere of hydrogen and helium. The amount of water and conducive atmosphere favored the existence of life on this planet. The Early atmosphere was probably dominated at first by water vapor, which, as the temperature dropped, would rain out and form the oceans. This would have been a deluge of truly global proportions an resulted in further reduction of CO2. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following statements about layers of Atmosphere. Stratosphere is responsible for the deflection of radio waves. Noctilucent clouds are located in the mesosphere. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The Ionosphere is part of Earth’s upper atmosphere, between 80 and about 600 km where Extreme UltraViolet (EUV) and x-ray solar radiation ionizes the atoms and molecules thus creating a layer of electrons. the ionosphere is important because it reflects and modifies radio waves used for communication and navigation. Noctilucent clouds are located in the mesosphere. The upper mesosphere is also the region of the ionosphere known as the D layer, which is only present during the day when some ionization occurs with nitric oxide being ionized by Lyman series-alpha hydrogen radiation. The ionization is so weak that when night falls, and the source of ionization is removed, the free electron and ion form back into a neutral molecule Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The Ionosphere is part of Earth’s upper atmosphere, between 80 and about 600 km where Extreme UltraViolet (EUV) and x-ray solar radiation ionizes the atoms and molecules thus creating a layer of electrons. the ionosphere is important because it reflects and modifies radio waves used for communication and navigation. Noctilucent clouds are located in the mesosphere. The upper mesosphere is also the region of the ionosphere known as the D layer, which is only present during the day when some ionization occurs with nitric oxide being ionized by Lyman series-alpha hydrogen radiation. The ionization is so weak that when night falls, and the source of ionization is removed, the free electron and ion form back into a neutral molecule Question 14 of 35 14. Question Consider the following statements about layers of the atmosphere of the earth. In the stratosphere, the temperature remains constant with altitude. In the troposphere, the temperature falls with altitude. Rising air cools at the Normal Lapse rate in the troposphere. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The stratosphere has variable temperatures. The temperature tends to increase with the increase in altitude because of the reflection of harmful UV rays. As there is a Normal Lapse Rate in the Troposphere, this statement is valid The Normal Lapse Rate in the troposphere states that there is 6 degrees decrease in temperature for every 1 km ascent in altitude. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The stratosphere has variable temperatures. The temperature tends to increase with the increase in altitude because of the reflection of harmful UV rays. As there is a Normal Lapse Rate in the Troposphere, this statement is valid The Normal Lapse Rate in the troposphere states that there is 6 degrees decrease in temperature for every 1 km ascent in altitude. Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider whether the following statements are correct with respect to thermal inversion? A frontal inversion occurs when a warm air mass undercuts a cold air mass. A subsidence inversion develops when a widespread layer of air ascends. Surface temperature inversions occur when air temperature decreases with height from the ground surface. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect A frontal inversion occurs when a cold air mass undercuts a warm air mass and lifts it aloft; the front between the two air masses then has warm air above and cold air below. A subsidence inversion develops when a widespread layer of air descends. The layer is compressed and heated by the resulting increase in atmospheric pressure, and as a result the lapse rate of temperature is reduced. Surface temperature inversions occur when air temperature increases with height from the ground surface, which is the opposite of what normally happens (i.e., the temperature profile is ‘inverted’). This results in a layer of cool, still air being trapped below warmer air. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect A frontal inversion occurs when a cold air mass undercuts a warm air mass and lifts it aloft; the front between the two air masses then has warm air above and cold air below. A subsidence inversion develops when a widespread layer of air descends. The layer is compressed and heated by the resulting increase in atmospheric pressure, and as a result the lapse rate of temperature is reduced. Surface temperature inversions occur when air temperature increases with height from the ground surface, which is the opposite of what normally happens (i.e., the temperature profile is ‘inverted’). This results in a layer of cool, still air being trapped below warmer air. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements about the presence/absence of phenomenon of temperature inversion in different layers of the atmosphere. Layers of Atmosphere – Temperature Inversion Troposphere – Present Stratosphere – Absent Mesosphere – Present Ionosphere – Absent How many pairs is/are correctly matched? a) Only one pair b) Only two pairs c) All pairs d) None of the pairs Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect The troposphere is the first layer where the Normal lapse rate is followed and temperature inversion is absent The stratosphere is the second layer of the earth and temperature inversion is observed here because of UV radiations reflected from the ozone layer The mesosphere is the third layer of the atmosphere where temperature decreases as the altitude increases. The ionosphere is the fourth layer of the atmosphere where the temperature inversion phenomenon is observed because of the rarefaction of ions Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect The troposphere is the first layer where the Normal lapse rate is followed and temperature inversion is absent The stratosphere is the second layer of the earth and temperature inversion is observed here because of UV radiations reflected from the ozone layer The mesosphere is the third layer of the atmosphere where temperature decreases as the altitude increases. The ionosphere is the fourth layer of the atmosphere where the temperature inversion phenomenon is observed because of the rarefaction of ions Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following statements with respect to the Western Cyclonic Disturbances. These are weather phenomena of the winter months which originate over the Mediterranean Sea and are brought into India by the Westerly jet stream. They usually influence the weather in the North-Eastern region of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Western cyclonic disturbances are weather phenomena of the winter months brought in by the Westerly flow from the Mediterranean region. They usually influence the weather of the North and North-Western regions of India. Western Disturbances are low pressure systems, embedded in Western winds (Westerlies) that flow from the West to the East. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Western cyclonic disturbances are weather phenomena of the winter months brought in by the Westerly flow from the Mediterranean region. They usually influence the weather of the North and North-Western regions of India. Western Disturbances are low pressure systems, embedded in Western winds (Westerlies) that flow from the West to the East. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following statements regarding extra-tropical cyclones: Extratropical cyclones can originate on both land and sea. Extratropical cyclones usually move in the east-to-west direction. Pattern of wind direction in extratropical cyclones is anti-clockwise in the northern hemisphere. How many of the above given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The low-pressure storm systems developing in the mid and high latitudes (35° latitude and 65° latitude in both hemispheres), beyond the tropics, are called the middle latitude or extratropical cyclones, or frontal cyclones. The passage of the front causes abrupt changes in the weather conditions over the area in the middle and high latitudes. Extratropical cyclones form along the polar front. Initially, the front is stationary. In the northern hemisphere, warm air blows from the south and cold air from the north of the front. When the pressure drops along the front, the warm air moves northwards and the cold air moves towards the south setting in motion an anticlockwise cyclonic circulation. The cyclonic circulation leads to a well-developed extratropical cyclone, with a warm front and a cold front. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Since fronts can be formed on both land and sea, extratropical cyclones can also be formed on land and sea as their occurrence requires the formation of fronts. Under the influence of westerlies, the extratropical cyclones move in the west-to-east direction. The pattern of wind direction in extratropical cyclones is anticlockwise in the northern hemisphere and clockwise in the southern hemisphere. Incorrect Solution (b) The low-pressure storm systems developing in the mid and high latitudes (35° latitude and 65° latitude in both hemispheres), beyond the tropics, are called the middle latitude or extratropical cyclones, or frontal cyclones. The passage of the front causes abrupt changes in the weather conditions over the area in the middle and high latitudes. Extratropical cyclones form along the polar front. Initially, the front is stationary. In the northern hemisphere, warm air blows from the south and cold air from the north of the front. When the pressure drops along the front, the warm air moves northwards and the cold air moves towards the south setting in motion an anticlockwise cyclonic circulation. The cyclonic circulation leads to a well-developed extratropical cyclone, with a warm front and a cold front. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Since fronts can be formed on both land and sea, extratropical cyclones can also be formed on land and sea as their occurrence requires the formation of fronts. Under the influence of westerlies, the extratropical cyclones move in the west-to-east direction. The pattern of wind direction in extratropical cyclones is anticlockwise in the northern hemisphere and clockwise in the southern hemisphere. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Which of the following statements is/ are correct about ‘humidity’? Actual amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere is known as relative humidity and expressed as grams per cubic metre. The ability to hold moisture by air depends on the temperature. Relative humidity is greater over continents compared to oceans. How many of the above given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The actual amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere is known as absolute humidity. It is the weight of water vapour per unit volume of air and is expressed in terms of grams per cubic meter. The ability of the air to hold water vapour depends entirely on its temperature. As warm air can hold more water vapour than cool air, the relative humidity decreases with increased temperatures. The percentage of moisture present in the atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given temperature is known as the relative humidity. With the change of air temperature, the capacity to retain moisture increases or decreases, and the relative humidity is also affected. It is greater over the oceans and least over the continents. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The actual amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere is known as absolute humidity. It is the weight of water vapour per unit volume of air and is expressed in terms of grams per cubic meter. The ability of the air to hold water vapour depends entirely on its temperature. As warm air can hold more water vapour than cool air, the relative humidity decreases with increased temperatures. The percentage of moisture present in the atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given temperature is known as the relative humidity. With the change of air temperature, the capacity to retain moisture increases or decreases, and the relative humidity is also affected. It is greater over the oceans and least over the continents. Question 20 of 35 20. Question What is the chief reason for tropical cyclones not developing close to the equator? A very weak Coriolis effect does not favour circular motion of winds. High temperature near equator is unfavourable to their development. Wind velocity in the doldrums belt near equator is very low High humidity of these regions is a hindrance in their development. How many of the above given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Coriolis force is zero at the equator (no cyclones at equator because of zero Coriolis Force) but it increases with latitude. Thus, weak Coriolis force not favoring circular motion is correct. High temperature near the equator is a favourable factor for development of cyclone. It is only because of weak Coriolis force that cyclone does not develop. Wind velocity in the doldrums belt near equator is very low. For a cyclone to be formed it requires High wind velocity and wind sheer. Thus it is a correct statement. High humidity is a favourable condition for the formation of a cyclone and not a hindrance. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Coriolis force is zero at the equator (no cyclones at equator because of zero Coriolis Force) but it increases with latitude. Thus, weak Coriolis force not favoring circular motion is correct. High temperature near the equator is a favourable factor for development of cyclone. It is only because of weak Coriolis force that cyclone does not develop. Wind velocity in the doldrums belt near equator is very low. For a cyclone to be formed it requires High wind velocity and wind sheer. Thus it is a correct statement. High humidity is a favourable condition for the formation of a cyclone and not a hindrance. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Which of the following are the committees related to prison reforms in India? Macaulay Committee Mulla Committee Amitava Roy Committee Krishna Iyer Committee Choose the correct code: a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) The modern prison in India originated with the suggestions of TB Macaulay in 1835. A committee namely the Prison Discipline Committee, was appointed, which submitted its report in 1838. The committee recommended increased rigorousness of treatment while rejecting all humanitarian needs and reforms for the prisoners. Following the recommendations of the Macaulay Committee between 1836 and 1838, Central Prisons were constructed from 1846. In 1980, the Government of India set up a Committee on Jail Reform, under the chairmanship of Justice A. N. Mulla. The basic objective of the Committee was to review the laws, rules, and regulations keeping in view the overall objective of protecting society and rehabilitating offenders. The Mulla Committee submitted its report in 1983. Justice Amitava Roy Committee was established by the Supreme Court in 2018 to study jail reforms nationwide and give suggestions on a variety of issues, including prison overpopulation. It suggested that special fast-track courts be established to handle only minor offences that had been outstanding for more than five years. The Justice Krishna Iyer Committee was established by the Indian government in 1987 to evaluate the conditions of women prisoners. Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) The modern prison in India originated with the suggestions of TB Macaulay in 1835. A committee namely the Prison Discipline Committee, was appointed, which submitted its report in 1838. The committee recommended increased rigorousness of treatment while rejecting all humanitarian needs and reforms for the prisoners. Following the recommendations of the Macaulay Committee between 1836 and 1838, Central Prisons were constructed from 1846. In 1980, the Government of India set up a Committee on Jail Reform, under the chairmanship of Justice A. N. Mulla. The basic objective of the Committee was to review the laws, rules, and regulations keeping in view the overall objective of protecting society and rehabilitating offenders. The Mulla Committee submitted its report in 1983. Justice Amitava Roy Committee was established by the Supreme Court in 2018 to study jail reforms nationwide and give suggestions on a variety of issues, including prison overpopulation. It suggested that special fast-track courts be established to handle only minor offences that had been outstanding for more than five years. The Justice Krishna Iyer Committee was established by the Indian government in 1987 to evaluate the conditions of women prisoners. Hence option d is correct. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements: Toto is a Sino-Tibetan language and is currently written in the Brahmi script. Toto Shabda Sangraha is a dictionary compiled by Bhakta Toto to preserve the Toto language. Toto is listed as a critically endangered language by UNESCO. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Toto is a Sino-Tibetan language and is currently written in the Bengali script. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is spoken by barely 1,600 people living in parts of West Bengal bordering Bhutan. Toto Shabda Sangraha is a dictionary compiled by Bhakta Toto to preserve the Toto language. Hence statement 2 is correct. Toto is listed as a critically endangered language by UNESCO. Hence statement 3 is correct. According to the criteria adopted by UNESCO, a language becomes extinct when nobody speaks or remembers the language. UNESCO has categorized languages based on endangerment as – vulnerable, definitely endangered, severely endangered, and critically endangered. UNESCO has recognised 42 Indian languages as Critically Endangered. Note: The Toto is a primitive and isolated tribal group residing only in a small enclave called Totopara in the Jalpaiguri of West Bengal, India. The Totos are considered Mongoloid people and are generally endogamous and marry within their tribe. Incorrect Solution (b) Toto is a Sino-Tibetan language and is currently written in the Bengali script. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is spoken by barely 1,600 people living in parts of West Bengal bordering Bhutan. Toto Shabda Sangraha is a dictionary compiled by Bhakta Toto to preserve the Toto language. Hence statement 2 is correct. Toto is listed as a critically endangered language by UNESCO. Hence statement 3 is correct. According to the criteria adopted by UNESCO, a language becomes extinct when nobody speaks or remembers the language. UNESCO has categorized languages based on endangerment as – vulnerable, definitely endangered, severely endangered, and critically endangered. UNESCO has recognised 42 Indian languages as Critically Endangered. Note: The Toto is a primitive and isolated tribal group residing only in a small enclave called Totopara in the Jalpaiguri of West Bengal, India. The Totos are considered Mongoloid people and are generally endogamous and marry within their tribe. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements about the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) It is a statutory body that writes and enforces rules for processes like corporate insolvency resolution and individual insolvency. It is governed by a Governing Board constituted by the Reserve Bank of India. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) is a statutory body established on 1st October 2016 following the provisions of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (Code). It is a unique regulator as it regulates a profession as well as processes. It has regulatory oversight over the Insolvency Professionals, Insolvency Professional Agencies, Insolvency Professional Entities, and Information Utilities. It has also been designated as the ‘Authority’ under the Companies (Registered Valuers and Valuation Rules), 2017 for regulation and development of the profession of valuers in the country. It writes and enforces rules for processes, namely, corporate insolvency resolution , corporate liquidation, individual insolvency resolution , and individual bankruptcy under the Code. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is governed by a Governing Board constituted by the Central Government. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The Governing Board consists of: Chairperson; Three members from amongst the officers of the Central Government not below the rank of Joint Secretary or equivalent, one each representing the Ministry of Finance, Ministry of Corporate Affairs, and Ministry of Law & Justice; One member nominated by the Reserve Bank of India; Three whole-time members; and Two part-time members. Incorrect Solution (a) The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) is a statutory body established on 1st October 2016 following the provisions of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (Code). It is a unique regulator as it regulates a profession as well as processes. It has regulatory oversight over the Insolvency Professionals, Insolvency Professional Agencies, Insolvency Professional Entities, and Information Utilities. It has also been designated as the ‘Authority’ under the Companies (Registered Valuers and Valuation Rules), 2017 for regulation and development of the profession of valuers in the country. It writes and enforces rules for processes, namely, corporate insolvency resolution , corporate liquidation, individual insolvency resolution , and individual bankruptcy under the Code. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is governed by a Governing Board constituted by the Central Government. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The Governing Board consists of: Chairperson; Three members from amongst the officers of the Central Government not below the rank of Joint Secretary or equivalent, one each representing the Ministry of Finance, Ministry of Corporate Affairs, and Ministry of Law & Justice; One member nominated by the Reserve Bank of India; Three whole-time members; and Two part-time members. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements: Habitat rights are granted to Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) under the Environment Protection Act of 1986. Odisha has the highest number of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India. The Dhebar Commission of 1973 created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Habitat rights are granted to Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) under Section 3(1)(e) of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006(also known as FRA). Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The recognition of Habitat rights grants PVTGs possession over their customary territory, encompassing habitation, economic and livelihood means, and biodiversity knowledge. Odisha has the highest number of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs has identified 75 PVGTs in 18 states and one union territory. TheDhebar Commission of 1973 created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as PVTGs. Hence statement 3 is correct. PVTGs are identified based on criteria such astechnological backwardness, stagnant or declining population growth, low literacy levels, subsistence economy, and challenging living conditions. Incorrect Solution (b) Habitat rights are granted to Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) under Section 3(1)(e) of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006(also known as FRA). Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The recognition of Habitat rights grants PVTGs possession over their customary territory, encompassing habitation, economic and livelihood means, and biodiversity knowledge. Odisha has the highest number of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs has identified 75 PVGTs in 18 states and one union territory. TheDhebar Commission of 1973 created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as PVTGs. Hence statement 3 is correct. PVTGs are identified based on criteria such astechnological backwardness, stagnant or declining population growth, low literacy levels, subsistence economy, and challenging living conditions. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements about Kawar Lake It is the largest freshwater oxbow lake in Asia formed by the changing course of the River Gandak. It was declared a notified area under the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972. It is also known as Kabartal Wetland which is the only designated Ramsar Site in Bihar. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Kawar Lake is the largest freshwater oxbow lake in Asia formed by the changing course of the River Gandak. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is one of the most important wetlands for waterfowl in the Indo-Gangetic Plain. It supports huge numbers of migratory ducks and Coot through the winter, as well as large concentrations of resident species such as Ruficollis and Asian Openbill. It was declared a notified area under the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972. Hence statement 2 is correct. To check the poaching of birds, it was declared a protected zone by the Bihar state government in 1986 and the government of India declared it a bird sanctuary in 1989. It is also known as Kabartal Wetland which is the only designated Ramsar Site in Bihar. Hence statement 3 is correct. Note: Karnataka is the only state in India which does not have a Ramsar Site. Tamil Nadu has the most number of Ramsar Sites. Incorrect Solution (c) Kawar Lake is the largest freshwater oxbow lake in Asia formed by the changing course of the River Gandak. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is one of the most important wetlands for waterfowl in the Indo-Gangetic Plain. It supports huge numbers of migratory ducks and Coot through the winter, as well as large concentrations of resident species such as Ruficollis and Asian Openbill. It was declared a notified area under the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972. Hence statement 2 is correct. To check the poaching of birds, it was declared a protected zone by the Bihar state government in 1986 and the government of India declared it a bird sanctuary in 1989. It is also known as Kabartal Wetland which is the only designated Ramsar Site in Bihar. Hence statement 3 is correct. Note: Karnataka is the only state in India which does not have a Ramsar Site. Tamil Nadu has the most number of Ramsar Sites. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements about the findings of the Global Hunger Index 2023 India topped the list of countries with the highest child-wasting rate in the world. Pakistan and Bangladesh have been ranked in a better position than India. Global Hunger Index 2023 is published annually by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The findings of the Global Hunger Index 2023: India topped the list of countries with the highest child-wasting rate in the world at 18.7 percent, reflecting acute undernutrition. Hence statement 1 is correct. India’s child wasting rate is higher than that of conflict-ridden Yemen (at 14.4 percent) and Sudan at (13.7 percent), which hold the second and third positions, respectively. India has been ranked at the 111th position out of 124 countries, with neighbouring Pakistan (102nd), Bangladesh (81st), Nepal (69th), and Sri Lanka (60th) faring better than it in the index. Pakistan and Bangladesh have beesn ranked in a better position than India. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is a tool for comprehensively measuring and tracking hunger at global, regional, and national levels. GHI scores are based on the values of four component indicators: Undernourishment: the share of the population with insufficient caloric intake. Child stunting: the share of children under age five who have low height for their age, reflecting chronic undernutrition. Child wasting: the share of children under age five who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute undernutrition. Child mortality: the share of children who die before their fifth birthday, partly reflecting the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments. Based on the values of the four indicators, a GHI score is calculated on a 100-point scale. The scale reflects the severity of hunger, where 0 is the best possible score (no hunger) and 100 is the worst. Global Hunger Index 2023 is published annually by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The findings of the Global Hunger Index 2023: India topped the list of countries with the highest child-wasting rate in the world at 18.7 percent, reflecting acute undernutrition. Hence statement 1 is correct. India’s child wasting rate is higher than that of conflict-ridden Yemen (at 14.4 percent) and Sudan at (13.7 percent), which hold the second and third positions, respectively. India has been ranked at the 111th position out of 124 countries, with neighbouring Pakistan (102nd), Bangladesh (81st), Nepal (69th), and Sri Lanka (60th) faring better than it in the index. Pakistan and Bangladesh have beesn ranked in a better position than India. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is a tool for comprehensively measuring and tracking hunger at global, regional, and national levels. GHI scores are based on the values of four component indicators: Undernourishment: the share of the population with insufficient caloric intake. Child stunting: the share of children under age five who have low height for their age, reflecting chronic undernutrition. Child wasting: the share of children under age five who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute undernutrition. Child mortality: the share of children who die before their fifth birthday, partly reflecting the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments. Based on the values of the four indicators, a GHI score is calculated on a 100-point scale. The scale reflects the severity of hunger, where 0 is the best possible score (no hunger) and 100 is the worst. Global Hunger Index 2023 is published annually by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements about the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) It is a trilateral maritime security grouping of India, Sri Lanka, and Myanmar. Its Secretariat is located in Colombo, Sri Lanka. Its pillars of cooperation include countering terrorism and radicalization and combating trafficking and transnational organized crime. Bangladesh and Seychelles have observer status in the CSC. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) The Colombo Security Conclave(CSC) is a trilateral maritime security grouping formed in 2011 by India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives. Later Mauritius joined as the fourth member. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It aims to provide a forum for greater maritime security cooperation and to address concerns such as human smuggling, narco-trafficking, piracy, terrorism, and extremism. Its Secretariat is located in Colombo, Sri Lanka. Hence statement 2 is correct. Its pillars of cooperation include countering terrorism and radicalization, combating trafficking and transnational organized crime, maritime safety and security, cyber security, protection of critical infrastructure and technology, and humanitarian assistance and disaster relief. Hence statement 3 is correct. Bangladesh and Seychelles have observer status in the CSC. Hence statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Colombo Security Conclave(CSC) is a trilateral maritime security grouping formed in 2011 by India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives. Later Mauritius joined as the fourth member. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It aims to provide a forum for greater maritime security cooperation and to address concerns such as human smuggling, narco-trafficking, piracy, terrorism, and extremism. Its Secretariat is located in Colombo, Sri Lanka. Hence statement 2 is correct. Its pillars of cooperation include countering terrorism and radicalization, combating trafficking and transnational organized crime, maritime safety and security, cyber security, protection of critical infrastructure and technology, and humanitarian assistance and disaster relief. Hence statement 3 is correct. Bangladesh and Seychelles have observer status in the CSC. Hence statement 4 is correct. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements about the applications of attophysics It can provide a real-time view of electron movement during chemical reactions. It plays a vital role in imaging ultrafast processes at the atomic and molecular scale. It helps in understanding how electrons move and transmit energy to create more efficient electronic gadgets. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) An attosecond is an astonishingly short unit of time, equivalent to one quintillionth of a second, or 10 to the power of 18 seconds. These pulses are used to unravel dynamical processes in matter with unprecedented time resolution . Attosecond science is a branch of physics that deals with light-matter interaction phenomena, the production of extremely short light pulses, and using them to study superfast processes. The applications of attophysics: It can provide a real-time view of electron movement during chemical reactions. Hence statement 1 is correct. It plays a vital role in imaging ultrafast processes at the atomic and molecular scale. Hence statement 2 is correct. It helps in understanding how electrons move and transmit energy to create more efficient electronic gadgets. Hence statement 3 is correct. They allow scientists to observe the quantum mechanical nature of electrons and the intricate dance they perform when interacting with one another and with atomic nuclei. Incorrect Solution (c) An attosecond is an astonishingly short unit of time, equivalent to one quintillionth of a second, or 10 to the power of 18 seconds. These pulses are used to unravel dynamical processes in matter with unprecedented time resolution . Attosecond science is a branch of physics that deals with light-matter interaction phenomena, the production of extremely short light pulses, and using them to study superfast processes. The applications of attophysics: It can provide a real-time view of electron movement during chemical reactions. Hence statement 1 is correct. It plays a vital role in imaging ultrafast processes at the atomic and molecular scale. Hence statement 2 is correct. It helps in understanding how electrons move and transmit energy to create more efficient electronic gadgets. Hence statement 3 is correct. They allow scientists to observe the quantum mechanical nature of electrons and the intricate dance they perform when interacting with one another and with atomic nuclei. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements: The Enforcement Directorate (ED) must provide a copy of the grounds of arrest to the accused in money laundering cases instead of just verbal information. It is the constitutional right of a person under Article 21 to be informed of the grounds of arrest. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Recently, the Supreme Court held that the Enforcement Directorate (ED) must provide a copy of the grounds of arrest to the accused in money laundering cases instead of just verbal information. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the constitutional right of a person under Article 22(1) to be informed of the grounds of arrest. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Article 22(1) of the Constitution says, “No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice”. Incorrect Solution (a) Recently, the Supreme Court held that the Enforcement Directorate (ED) must provide a copy of the grounds of arrest to the accused in money laundering cases instead of just verbal information. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the constitutional right of a person under Article 22(1) to be informed of the grounds of arrest. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Article 22(1) of the Constitution says, “No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice”. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Al-Hilal was an Urdu language newspaper founded by a) Maulana Mohammad Ali b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah c) Mahatma Gandhi d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Correct Solution (d) Al-Hilal was an Urdu-language newspaper founded by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. It was used as a tool for opposing the British Raj in India. It also supported the Indian freedom movement’s cause and encouraged Indian Muslims to join the movement. It had been shut down under the 1914 Press Act. “Al-Hilal” (The Crescent) was published in Calcutta, started a new chapter in Urdu journalism, and appealed to Muslims in the city immediately. Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) Al-Hilal was an Urdu-language newspaper founded by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. It was used as a tool for opposing the British Raj in India. It also supported the Indian freedom movement’s cause and encouraged Indian Muslims to join the movement. It had been shut down under the 1914 Press Act. “Al-Hilal” (The Crescent) was published in Calcutta, started a new chapter in Urdu journalism, and appealed to Muslims in the city immediately. Hence option d is correct. Question 31 of 35 31. Question If the number 97215*6 is completely divisible by 11, then the smallest whole number in place of * will be? a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 5 Correct Solution (a) Divisibility of 11: (sum of digits in odd places) – (sum of digits in even places) = 0 or multiple of 11, then the number is divisible by. [usually looked from right to left] 22 – (8+*) = 0 or multiple of 11 14 – * = 0 or multiple of 11 Here multiple of ’11’ is the best option which is ’11’ itself 14 – * = 11 Hence * = 3 Hence ‘3’ is the smallest number that should replace * so that the number 97215*6 is divisible by 11. Incorrect Solution (a) Divisibility of 11: (sum of digits in odd places) – (sum of digits in even places) = 0 or multiple of 11, then the number is divisible by. [usually looked from right to left] 22 – (8+*) = 0 or multiple of 11 14 – * = 0 or multiple of 11 Here multiple of ’11’ is the best option which is ’11’ itself 14 – * = 11 Hence * = 3 Hence ‘3’ is the smallest number that should replace * so that the number 97215*6 is divisible by 11. Question 32 of 35 32. Question In UPSC Mains 2018 examination, 52% students failed in compulsory Hindi paper and 42% in compulsory English. If 17% failed in both the subjects, what percentage of students passed in both the subjects? a) 38% b) 33% c) 23% d) 18% Correct Solution (c) Total percent of failed students = 52+42-17=77 Formula: n(A∪B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A∩B) Therefore, percentage of passed students = 100-77=23%. Incorrect Solution (c) Total percent of failed students = 52+42-17=77 Formula: n(A∪B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A∩B) Therefore, percentage of passed students = 100-77=23%. Question 33 of 35 33. Question A purse contains 225 currency notes consisting of 5-rupee, 10- rupee and 50-rupee currencies in the ratio 3 : 7 : 5 respectively. Out of this, Rs. 25 is spent and the left out money is exchanged for 500- rupee currency notes then the number of 500-rupee currency notes is a) 15 b) 5 c) 10 d) 20 Correct Solution (c) Value of Rs. 5 note = 3/15 × 225 × 5 = Rs. 225 Value of Rs. 10 note = 7/15 × 225 × 10 = Rs. 1050 Value of Rs. 50 note = 5/15 × 225 × 50 = Rs. 3750 Total money = Rs. 5025 Money remaining = Rs. 5025 – 25 = Rs. 5000 No. of Rs. 500 notes = Rs.5000 /Rs.500 = 10 Incorrect Solution (c) Value of Rs. 5 note = 3/15 × 225 × 5 = Rs. 225 Value of Rs. 10 note = 7/15 × 225 × 10 = Rs. 1050 Value of Rs. 50 note = 5/15 × 225 × 50 = Rs. 3750 Total money = Rs. 5025 Money remaining = Rs. 5025 – 25 = Rs. 5000 No. of Rs. 500 notes = Rs.5000 /Rs.500 = 10 Question 34 of 35 34. Question 554, 444, 757, 577 etc. are examples of number with repeated digits. How many such whole numbers from 1 to 201 are there which have repeated digits? a) 35 b) 41 c) 38 d) 40 Correct Solution (c) From 1 to 201 we have Single digits 1 to 9 – No such repeated digit number Therefore,required Number = 0 Double digit is 10 to 99 ->Number of numbers with repeated digits 11, 22, 33, 44, 55, 66, 77, 88, 99 Therefore, Required Number = 9 Triple digit i.e. 100 to 200 Number of numbers with repeated digits are: 100, 101, 110, 111, 112, 113, 114, 115, 116, 117, 118, 119, 121, 122, 131, 133, 141, 144, 151, 155, 161, 166, 171, 177, 181, 188, 191, 199, 200. Therefore, Required Number = 29. Hence, total number = 9 + 29 =38 Incorrect Solution (c) From 1 to 201 we have Single digits 1 to 9 – No such repeated digit number Therefore,required Number = 0 Double digit is 10 to 99 ->Number of numbers with repeated digits 11, 22, 33, 44, 55, 66, 77, 88, 99 Therefore, Required Number = 9 Triple digit i.e. 100 to 200 Number of numbers with repeated digits are: 100, 101, 110, 111, 112, 113, 114, 115, 116, 117, 118, 119, 121, 122, 131, 133, 141, 144, 151, 155, 161, 166, 171, 177, 181, 188, 191, 199, 200. Therefore, Required Number = 29. Hence, total number = 9 + 29 =38 Question 35 of 35 35. Question Appointments are to be made to the Higher Judiciary in India, one to the office of Chief Justice of India and two to the Judges of the Supreme Courts. Among the six candidates selected by the Collegium of Judges, only two are approved as eligible by the Government of India for the office of Chief Justice of India while all are eligible for appointment as the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. The number of possible combination of appointees is? a) 4 b) 20 c) 18 d) 12 Correct Solution (b) Out of the appointments of the 2 Judges of the Supreme Court, one can be appointed in 2C1 = 2 ways. Out of the remaining 5 Judges identified by the Collegium, 2 Judges to the Supreme Court can be appointed in 5C2 ways = (5 x 4)/2 = 10 ways Hence, number of possible combination of appointees = 2 x 10 = 20 ways. Incorrect Solution (b) Out of the appointments of the 2 Judges of the Supreme Court, one can be appointed in 2C1 = 2 ways. Out of the remaining 5 Judges identified by the Collegium, 2 Judges to the Supreme Court can be appointed in 5C2 ways = (5 x 4)/2 = 10 ways Hence, number of possible combination of appointees = 2 x 10 = 20 ways. window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3564', init: { quizId: 3564, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"30807":{"type":"single","id":30807,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30809":{"type":"single","id":30809,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30810":{"type":"single","id":30810,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30811":{"type":"single","id":30811,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30812":{"type":"single","id":30812,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30815":{"type":"single","id":30815,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30816":{"type":"single","id":30816,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30819":{"type":"single","id":30819,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30820":{"type":"single","id":30820,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30823":{"type":"single","id":30823,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30826":{"type":"single","id":30826,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30827":{"type":"single","id":30827,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30829":{"type":"single","id":30829,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30831":{"type":"single","id":30831,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30832":{"type":"single","id":30832,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30834":{"type":"single","id":30834,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30835":{"type":"single","id":30835,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30838":{"type":"single","id":30838,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30839":{"type":"single","id":30839,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30841":{"type":"single","id":30841,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30842":{"type":"single","id":30842,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30843":{"type":"single","id":30843,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30846":{"type":"single","id":30846,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30849":{"type":"single","id":30849,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30852":{"type":"single","id":30852,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30853":{"type":"single","id":30853,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30854":{"type":"single","id":30854,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30856":{"type":"single","id":30856,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30858":{"type":"single","id":30858,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30859":{"type":"single","id":30859,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30862":{"type":"single","id":30862,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30863":{"type":"single","id":30863,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30865":{"type":"single","id":30865,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30866":{"type":"single","id":30866,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30869":{"type":"single","id":30869,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba