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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Vechur Cow and other indigenous cattle Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Agriculture Context: Member of Parliament Shashi Tharoor has written an article regarding vechur cow and Sosamma Iype who pioneered the initiative to conserve the breed. Background:- In its pursuit to boost milk production through the crossbreeding of indigenous cattle with high-yielding foreign breeds, the White Revolution’s corollary was the erasure of breeds such as the Vechur cow. Cross-breeding served to dilute the genetic purity of native breeds and diminish their population. Vechur Cow The Vechur Cow is a rare breed named after the village Vechoor in Vaikom Taluk, Kottayam district of the state of Kerala in India. With an average length of 124 cm (about 4 feet and 1 inch) and height of 87 cm (about 2 feet and 10 inches), it is the smallest cattle breed in the world. The Vechur animals were saved from extinction due to conservation efforts by Sosamma Iype, a Professor of Animal breeding and Genetics along with a team of her students. Siri Cow Siri is a small sized draught purpose breed of hilly region of West Bengal and Sikkim. The animals can graze in the steep slope of hilly forest. The males are mainly reared for draught purpose in the hilly area and sometimes they are the only source of draught power. The breed produces very less amount of milk. Tharparkar Tharparkar is an important dual-purpose breed originating from the THAR desert of Rajasthan. The home tract of this breed is in the Tharparkar district of southeast Sindh in present day Pakistan. In India, these animals are now found along the Indo-Pak border covering western Rajasthan and up to the Rann of Kutch in Gujarat. The animals can thrive well on small bushy vegetation (Sewan grass) during drought and fodder scarcity condition and produce reasonabe amount of milk. Due to better heat tolerance and disease resistance, this breed was used for producing “Karan Fries” breed – a synthetic crossbred cattle breed at National Dairy Research institute (NDRI) The local breeds have following merits over exotic breeds Better disease resistance than exotic breeds. More suitable for low input management system. Survive better in local environment. Suitable for draught work Source: Mongabay India Front-running Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) on Wednesday said it has sacked an employee involved in a stock market front-running case which was under investigation by market regulator Sebi. Background: In April 2023, Sebi barred five entities, including an employee of Life Insurance Corporation from the securities market and impounded illegal gains of Rs 2.44 crore made by them, in a case pertaining to front-running the trades of the state-owned insurer. About Front-running : Front-running means usage of non-public information to directly or indirectly, buy or sell securities or enter into options or futures contracts, in advance of a substantial order, on an impending transaction, in the same or related securities or futures or options contracts, in anticipation that when the information becomes public, the price of such securities or contracts may change. For example; a broker receives a request from a client to purchase 50,000 Company A shares. He keeps the order from the client until he executes an order for his personal account for the same stock. Then, when he places the customer’s request, share price increases due to the scale of the customer’s order.The rise creates the broker an immediate benefit. Front-running offers unfair profits to the entity who has confidential information that will affect the price of the asset. Front running is also known as tailgating. Source: Indian Express PAPIKONDA NATIONAL PARK Syllabus Prelims : Environment Context: More than 200 bird species have been recorded in the Papikonda National Park (PNP) in a recent survey. Background: The three-day survey was carried out under the aegis of the Andhra Pradesh Forest department in collaboration with the Indian Institute of Science, Education and Research (IISER-Tirupati). About PAPIKONDA NATIONAL PARK: Location: Papikonda National Park (PNP) is located in the East and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh. Area: The park spans over 1012.86 square kilometers. Geography: The park lies on both banks of the River Godavari and cuts through the Papikonda hill range of Eastern Ghats. Flora and Fauna: The majority of the park is covered with moist deciduous forest. It is home to various animal species such as tigers, mouse deer, gaur, and others. The park also has a unique dwarf breed of goat known locally as the “kanchu mekha”. Conservation History: The park has experienced varying levels of protection, beginning as a reserved forest in 1882, a wildlife sanctuary in 1978, and as a national park from 2008. Significance: The park has been recognized as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q1. Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin? Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 EQUINOXES Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: The March equinox, also known as the vernal equinox, occurs around March 20th each year. Background: During this celestial event, the sun crosses the celestial equator, moving from the Southern Hemisphere to the Northern Hemisphere.   About EQUINOXES Equinoxes are astronomical events that occur twice a year when the Sun is exactly above the Equator, resulting in nearly equal lengths of day and night across the globe. The term “equinox” literally means “equal night”. The primary cause of equinoxes lies in the tilt of Earth’s axis. Earth orbits the Sun at an angle of approximately 23.5 degrees. As Earth revolves around the Sun, different parts of our planet receive varying amounts of solar radiation at different times of the year. Vernal Equinox: Vernal Equinox, also known as the Spring Equinox, marks the transition from winter to spring in the Northern Hemisphere. The Vernal Equinox typically occurs between March 19 and 21, depending on the specific year. In 2024, it falls on March 20 Autumnal Equinox: Occurs around September 23. This marks the beginning of autumn in the Northern Hemisphere. Solstices vs. Equinoxes: Solstice means “sun stands still”, and it is the day when the Sun is farthest from the equator. The solstices are the days when the Sun is directly over the Tropic of Cancer or the Tropic of Capricorn, and the day or night is the longest in the year. Solstices occur when the Earth is at its most extreme tilt toward or away from the sun. The summer solstice occurs around June 21, and it marks the start of summer in the Northern Hemisphere and winter in the Southern Hemisphere. The winter solstice occurs on December 22, and it marks the start of winter in the Northern Hemisphere and summer in the Southern Hemisphere. Source: Economic Times STATE OF GLOBAL CLIMATE REPORT,2023 Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Recently, The World Meteorological Organization has released the State of the Global Climate report,2023. Background: The WMO is an intergovernmental organization with a membership of 192 Member States and Territories. India is a member of WMO. About State of the Global Climate 2023: The State of the Global Climate 2023 report is an annual report issued by the United Nations weather agency World Meteorological Organization (WMO). It provides crucial insights into climate trends, extreme events, and the impact of human activities on our planet. This report serves as a vital resource for policymakers, scientists, and concerned citizens to understand and address climate change effectively. Key Points about the State of the Global Climate, 2023 The State of the Global Climate 2023 report by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) confirmed that 2023 was the warmest year on record. The global average near-surface temperature surged to at least 1.45°C above pre-industrial levels. Records were broken for greenhouse gas levels, surface temperatures, ocean heat and acidification, sea level rise, Antarctic Sea ice cover, and glacier retreat. Extreme weather events such as heatwaves, floods, droughts, wildfires, and rapidly intensifying tropical cyclones caused significant damage, disrupting everyday life for millions and inflicting substantial economic losses. The report also highlighted the increasing speed of climate change impacts. The report underscores the high cost of climate inaction and the need for a swift transition to renewable energy. Source: Indian Express Labour Ethics Syllabus Mains – GS 4 Context: An ILO report highlighted that among various work-related risks, long working hours are the leading cause of death among employees which has raised debate surrounding labour ethics. Background: Increasing economic inequality and weakening of labour laws has affected the conditions of labourers. About Labour Ethics: It includes consideration of right and wrong on a wide range of questions having to do with the treatment of labour. It entails that employers are ethically required to provide a safe and healthy workplace for their employees. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights affirms that people have a right to rest and leisure, including reasonable limitations on working hours and periodic holidays with pay. Ethical arguments for long work hours: For maintenance of essential services, during emergency situations like pandemic, wartime, etc. (Situational Ethics). Shortage of staff and a paucity of skilled workers. (Situational Ethics) To improve work productivity, efficiency, and competitiveness of industries and countries. (Utilitarian Ethics). Ethical concerns against overtime and long work hours: It leads to violation of the ethical principle of non-maleficence which dictates that care should be taken not to harm others. Long working hours cause exhaustion leading to medical negligence, and disasters e.g. Chernobyl, Space Shuttle Challenger accident, etc. Choosing extra overtime income compromises the physical and mental health of the employee. E.g. job burnout in investment banking. Mandating long work hours is against a sustainable work culture where businesses are mindful of workers’ health. It leads to the erosion of family and societal values by eroding time for personal relationships and ties to the broader community. Long work hours concentrate job opportunities for a limited set of labour force resulting in inequitable distribution of employment. It limits gainful employment opportunities for women who prefer shorter-hour shifts due to dual burdens. Source: ILO Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following National Parks: Papikonda National Park Sri Venkateswara National Park Rajiv Gandhi National Park How many of the above are located in Andhra Pradesh? Only one Only two All three None Q2.) Consider the following statements: Equinoxes are occurring twice a year when the Sun is exactly above the Equator. The spring equinox marks the start of spring in the Northern Hemisphere and autumn in the Southern Hemisphere. How many statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The State of the Global Climate 2023 report is an annual report issued by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO). Statement-II: It provides crucial insights into climate trends, extreme events, and the impact of human activities on our planet. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  21st  March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  20th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – a Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 21st March 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 16] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following statements about the Nehru Report: It provided for Dominion Status as the form of Government in India. It rejected the principle of separate communal electorates. It agreed on reserving seats for Muslims at the Centre and in Provinces where they were in majority. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The very first article of the Report unequivocally claimed dominion status for India. No separate communal electorate was provided. On the communal question, the Report proposed reservation for Muslims in legislatures, however, these were restricted to only those constituencies where Muslims were in a minority and Centre. Also, there was no mention of separate electorates for Muslims. No reservation was given to Muslims in legislatures where they were in the majority.  Note: Nehru Report: In November 1927, the British government appointed the Simon Commission to review the working of the Government of India Act 1919 and propose constitutional reforms for India. The Commission did not have a single Indian member which irked leaders of the nationalist movement. While the British acknowledged the discontent, it did not change the composition of the Commission and instead asked Indians to prove that they could draw up a constitution themselves. A similar challenge was made in 1925 by Lord Birkenhead, then-Secretary of State for India, in the House of Lords: ‘…let them (Indians) produce a constitution which carries behind it a fair measure of general agreement among the great peoples of India…’. Leaders of the nationalist movement responded to the challenge by drafting the Nehru Report 1928. In December 1927, at its Madras session, the Indian National Congress took two major decisions in response to the setting up the Simon Commission: first, it decided to not cooperate with the Commission; second, it set up an All Parties Conference to draft a Constitution for India. The All Parties Conference included the All India Liberal Federation, All India Muslim League, Sikh Central League, and others. The Conference, on 19 May 1928, constituted a committee to draft the Constitution. Some of the notable members of this Committee were: Motilal Nehru (Chairman), Sir Ali Imam, Tej Bahadur Sapru, and Subash Chandra Bose. M.R. Jayakar and Annie Besant joined the Committee later. Jawaharlal Nehru, Motilal Nehru’s son, was appointed the secretary to the Committee. The Committee was given the brief ‘to consider and determine the principles of the Constitution of India along with the problem of communalism and the issue of dominion status.’ The Committee submitted its report to the All Parties Conference in August 1929, which was its appointing committee. In December, a supplementary report was published that reflected some changes from the original version. The very first article of the Report unequivocally claimed dominion status for India. Other notable features included a section on fundamental rights: the right to free expression and opinion, equality before the law, right to bear arms, freedom of conscience, free profession, and propagation of religion. The most remarkable provision was the right to free and elementary education. The Report introduced a parliamentary system of government along with universal adult suffrage. On the communal question, the Report proposed reservation for Muslims in legislatures, however, these were restricted to only those constituencies where Muslims were in a minority and Centre. Also, there was no mention of separate electorates for Muslims. No reservation was given to Muslims in legislatures where they were in the majority. correct. No separate communal electorate was provided.   Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The very first article of the Report unequivocally claimed dominion status for India. No separate communal electorate was provided. On the communal question, the Report proposed reservation for Muslims in legislatures, however, these were restricted to only those constituencies where Muslims were in a minority and Centre. Also, there was no mention of separate electorates for Muslims. No reservation was given to Muslims in legislatures where they were in the majority.  Note: Nehru Report: In November 1927, the British government appointed the Simon Commission to review the working of the Government of India Act 1919 and propose constitutional reforms for India. The Commission did not have a single Indian member which irked leaders of the nationalist movement. While the British acknowledged the discontent, it did not change the composition of the Commission and instead asked Indians to prove that they could draw up a constitution themselves. A similar challenge was made in 1925 by Lord Birkenhead, then-Secretary of State for India, in the House of Lords: ‘…let them (Indians) produce a constitution which carries behind it a fair measure of general agreement among the great peoples of India…’. Leaders of the nationalist movement responded to the challenge by drafting the Nehru Report 1928. In December 1927, at its Madras session, the Indian National Congress took two major decisions in response to the setting up the Simon Commission: first, it decided to not cooperate with the Commission; second, it set up an All Parties Conference to draft a Constitution for India. The All Parties Conference included the All India Liberal Federation, All India Muslim League, Sikh Central League, and others. The Conference, on 19 May 1928, constituted a committee to draft the Constitution. Some of the notable members of this Committee were: Motilal Nehru (Chairman), Sir Ali Imam, Tej Bahadur Sapru, and Subash Chandra Bose. M.R. Jayakar and Annie Besant joined the Committee later. Jawaharlal Nehru, Motilal Nehru’s son, was appointed the secretary to the Committee. The Committee was given the brief ‘to consider and determine the principles of the Constitution of India along with the problem of communalism and the issue of dominion status.’ The Committee submitted its report to the All Parties Conference in August 1929, which was its appointing committee. In December, a supplementary report was published that reflected some changes from the original version. The very first article of the Report unequivocally claimed dominion status for India. Other notable features included a section on fundamental rights: the right to free expression and opinion, equality before the law, right to bear arms, freedom of conscience, free profession, and propagation of religion. The most remarkable provision was the right to free and elementary education. The Report introduced a parliamentary system of government along with universal adult suffrage. On the communal question, the Report proposed reservation for Muslims in legislatures, however, these were restricted to only those constituencies where Muslims were in a minority and Centre. Also, there was no mention of separate electorates for Muslims. No reservation was given to Muslims in legislatures where they were in the majority. correct. No separate communal electorate was provided.   Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding Ahmedabad Mill Strike: Main reason for the strike was the discontinuation of the plague bonus. Anusuya Behn requested Gandhiji to intervene and help resolve the impasse between the workers and the employers. Anusuya Behn formed the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association in 1920. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct In March 1918, Gandhi intervened in a dispute between cotton mill owners of Ahmedabad and the workers over the issue of discontinuation of the plague bonus.   The mill owners wanted to withdraw the bonus. The workers were demanding a rise of 50 per cent in their wages so that they could manage in the times of wartime inflation (which doubled the prices of food-grains, cloth, and other necessities) caused by Britain’s involvement in World War I. The mill owners were ready to give only a 20 per cent wage hike. The workers went on strike.   The relations between the workers and the mill owners worsened with the striking workers being arbitrarily dismissed and the mill owners deciding to bring in weavers from Bombay.   The workers of the mill turned to Anusuya Sarabhai for help in fighting for justice. Anusuya Sarabhai was a social worker who was also the sister of Ambalal Sarabhai, one of the mill owners and the president of the Ahmedabad Mill Owners Association (founded in 1891 to develop the textile industry in Ahmedabad), for help in fighting for justice.   Anusuya Behn went to Gandhi, who was respected by the mill owners and workers, and asked him to intervene and help resolve the impasse between the workers and the employers. Though Gandhi was a friend of Ambalal, he took up the workers’ cause. Anusuya too supported the workers and was one of the chief lieutenants of Gandhi’s. (It was Anusuya Behn who went on later to form the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association in 1920.)   Gandhi asked the workers to go on a strike and demand a 35 per cent increase in wages instead of 50 per cent. Gandhi advised the workers to remain non-violent while on strike. When negotiations with mill owners did not progress, he himself undertook a fast unto death (his first)to strengthen the workers’ resolve. But the fast also had the effect of putting pressure on the mill owners who finally agreed to submit the issue to a tribunal. The strike was withdrawn. In the end, the tribunal awarded the workers a 35 per cent wage hike.   Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct In March 1918, Gandhi intervened in a dispute between cotton mill owners of Ahmedabad and the workers over the issue of discontinuation of the plague bonus.   The mill owners wanted to withdraw the bonus. The workers were demanding a rise of 50 per cent in their wages so that they could manage in the times of wartime inflation (which doubled the prices of food-grains, cloth, and other necessities) caused by Britain’s involvement in World War I. The mill owners were ready to give only a 20 per cent wage hike. The workers went on strike.   The relations between the workers and the mill owners worsened with the striking workers being arbitrarily dismissed and the mill owners deciding to bring in weavers from Bombay.   The workers of the mill turned to Anusuya Sarabhai for help in fighting for justice. Anusuya Sarabhai was a social worker who was also the sister of Ambalal Sarabhai, one of the mill owners and the president of the Ahmedabad Mill Owners Association (founded in 1891 to develop the textile industry in Ahmedabad), for help in fighting for justice.   Anusuya Behn went to Gandhi, who was respected by the mill owners and workers, and asked him to intervene and help resolve the impasse between the workers and the employers. Though Gandhi was a friend of Ambalal, he took up the workers’ cause. Anusuya too supported the workers and was one of the chief lieutenants of Gandhi’s. (It was Anusuya Behn who went on later to form the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association in 1920.)   Gandhi asked the workers to go on a strike and demand a 35 per cent increase in wages instead of 50 per cent. Gandhi advised the workers to remain non-violent while on strike. When negotiations with mill owners did not progress, he himself undertook a fast unto death (his first)to strengthen the workers’ resolve. But the fast also had the effect of putting pressure on the mill owners who finally agreed to submit the issue to a tribunal. The strike was withdrawn. In the end, the tribunal awarded the workers a 35 per cent wage hike.   Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding Jallianwala Bagh Massacre: Following the incident, Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood in protest. Gandhi gave up the title of Kaiser-i-Hind following the incident. Udham Singh assassinated Michael O’Dwyer, the Lieutenant-Governor who presided over the brutal British suppression of the 1919 protests in Punjab. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood in protest. Gandhi gave up the title of Kaiser-i-Hind, bestowed by the British for his work during the Boer War. Gandhi was overwhelmed by the atmosphere of total violence and withdrew the movement on April 18,1919.   Udham Singh, who bore the name, Ram Mohammad Singh Azad, later assassinated Michael O’Dwyer, the Lieutenant-Governor who presided over the brutal British suppression of the 1919 protests in Punjab.   Udham Singh was hanged in 1940 for his deed. (His ashes were returned to India in 1974.)   Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (April 13, 1919): Amritsar was the worst affected by violence. In the beginning there was no violence by the protestors. Indians shut down their shops and normal trade and the empty streets showed the Indians’ displeasure at the British betrayal. On April 9, two nationalist leaders, Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr Satyapal, were arrested by the British officials without any provocation except that they had addressed protest meetings, and taken to some unknown destination. This caused resentment among the Indian protestors who came out in thousands on April 10 to show their solidarity with their leaders. Soon the protests turned violent because the police resorted to firing in which some of the protestors were killed. In the riot that followed, five Englishmen are reported to have been killed and Marcella Sherwood, an English woman missionary going on a bicycle, was beaten up. On Baisakhi day, a large crowd of people mostly from neighboring villages, unaware of the prohibitory orders in the city, gathered in the Jallianwala Bagh, a popular place for public events, to celebrate the Baisakhi festival. Local leaders had also called for a protest meeting at the venue. The entire nation was stunned. Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood in protest. Gandhi gave up the title of Kaiser-i-Hind, bestowed by the British for his work during the Boer War. Gandhi was overwhelmed by the atmosphere of total violence and withdrew the movement on April 18,1919. Udham Singh, who bore the name, Ram Mohammad Singh Azad, later assassinated Michael O’Dwyer, the Lieutenant-Governor who presided over the brutal British suppression of the 1919 protests in Punjab. Udham Singh was hanged in 1940 for his deed. (His ashes were returned to India in 1974.) Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood in protest. Gandhi gave up the title of Kaiser-i-Hind, bestowed by the British for his work during the Boer War. Gandhi was overwhelmed by the atmosphere of total violence and withdrew the movement on April 18,1919.   Udham Singh, who bore the name, Ram Mohammad Singh Azad, later assassinated Michael O’Dwyer, the Lieutenant-Governor who presided over the brutal British suppression of the 1919 protests in Punjab.   Udham Singh was hanged in 1940 for his deed. (His ashes were returned to India in 1974.)   Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (April 13, 1919): Amritsar was the worst affected by violence. In the beginning there was no violence by the protestors. Indians shut down their shops and normal trade and the empty streets showed the Indians’ displeasure at the British betrayal. On April 9, two nationalist leaders, Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr Satyapal, were arrested by the British officials without any provocation except that they had addressed protest meetings, and taken to some unknown destination. This caused resentment among the Indian protestors who came out in thousands on April 10 to show their solidarity with their leaders. Soon the protests turned violent because the police resorted to firing in which some of the protestors were killed. In the riot that followed, five Englishmen are reported to have been killed and Marcella Sherwood, an English woman missionary going on a bicycle, was beaten up. On Baisakhi day, a large crowd of people mostly from neighboring villages, unaware of the prohibitory orders in the city, gathered in the Jallianwala Bagh, a popular place for public events, to celebrate the Baisakhi festival. Local leaders had also called for a protest meeting at the venue. The entire nation was stunned. Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood in protest. Gandhi gave up the title of Kaiser-i-Hind, bestowed by the British for his work during the Boer War. Gandhi was overwhelmed by the atmosphere of total violence and withdrew the movement on April 18,1919. Udham Singh, who bore the name, Ram Mohammad Singh Azad, later assassinated Michael O’Dwyer, the Lieutenant-Governor who presided over the brutal British suppression of the 1919 protests in Punjab. Udham Singh was hanged in 1940 for his deed. (His ashes were returned to India in 1974.) Question 4 of 35 4. Question In which of the following Satyagraha campaigns, Gandhiji did not participate directly? a) Rajkot Satyagraha b) Non-Cooperation Movement c) Kheda Satyagraha d) Vaikom Satyagraha Correct Solution (a) Rajkot Satyagraha: Most of the princely states were autocratically ruled. The economic burden on the people was heavy with high taxation, education and social services were backwards and civil rights were restricted. State revenues were expended on the luxurious lifestyles of the rulers and since the British provided immunity from domestic and external aggression, they felt free to ignore the interests of the people. The British government expected the states to support them in their imperialistic policies, thereby acting against the development of nationalist sentiments. The people under the British provinces were given some political rights and participation in the administration after the acts of 1919 and 1935. The people under the princely states did not have the rights equal to the rights enjoyed by the British provinces. The onset of the nationalistic movement in British rule also had an impact on the people of the princely states .many revolutionary nationalists fleeing British authority came to the princely states in the first and second decades of the 20th century and initiated political activities there. Under the national movement, the subjects of the princely states established people’s organizations. In Rajkot Satyagraha campaigns, Mahatma Gandhi did not participate directly. It represented the first major attempt to secure constitutional change through mass civil disobedience. It was a test of the indirect support given by the paramount power to the princes and of the durability of the latter against the nationalists. Rajkot Satyagraha showed the complexity of the situation in princely states with paramount power always ready to interfere in its own favor but ever willing to use legal independence of the rulers as an excuse for non-interference. Though Rajkot satyagraha was a failure it exercised a tremendous politicizing effect on the people of states. It also demonstrated to the rulers of the states the power of popular resistance and encouraged many states to integrate with India after independence. In Hyderabad, a powerful people’s movement built up. In Kashmir people organized themselves Incorrect Solution (a) Rajkot Satyagraha: Most of the princely states were autocratically ruled. The economic burden on the people was heavy with high taxation, education and social services were backwards and civil rights were restricted. State revenues were expended on the luxurious lifestyles of the rulers and since the British provided immunity from domestic and external aggression, they felt free to ignore the interests of the people. The British government expected the states to support them in their imperialistic policies, thereby acting against the development of nationalist sentiments. The people under the British provinces were given some political rights and participation in the administration after the acts of 1919 and 1935. The people under the princely states did not have the rights equal to the rights enjoyed by the British provinces. The onset of the nationalistic movement in British rule also had an impact on the people of the princely states .many revolutionary nationalists fleeing British authority came to the princely states in the first and second decades of the 20th century and initiated political activities there. Under the national movement, the subjects of the princely states established people’s organizations. In Rajkot Satyagraha campaigns, Mahatma Gandhi did not participate directly. It represented the first major attempt to secure constitutional change through mass civil disobedience. It was a test of the indirect support given by the paramount power to the princes and of the durability of the latter against the nationalists. Rajkot Satyagraha showed the complexity of the situation in princely states with paramount power always ready to interfere in its own favor but ever willing to use legal independence of the rulers as an excuse for non-interference. Though Rajkot satyagraha was a failure it exercised a tremendous politicizing effect on the people of states. It also demonstrated to the rulers of the states the power of popular resistance and encouraged many states to integrate with India after independence. In Hyderabad, a powerful people’s movement built up. In Kashmir people organized themselves Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements with reference to the policy of the Indian National Congress towards the Indian states that had been enunciated in 1920 at Nagpur session? A resolution calling upon the Princes to grant full responsible government in their States was passed. Congress did not allow residents of the States to become the members of the Congress. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The policy of the Indian National Congress towards the Indian states had been first enunciated in 1920 at Nagpur when a resolution calling upon the Princes to grant full responsible government in their States had been passed. Simultaneously, however, the Congress, while allowing residents of the States to become members of the Congress, made it clear that they could not initiate political activity in the States in the name of Congress but only in their individual capacity or as members of the local political organizations. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The policy of the Indian National Congress towards the Indian states had been first enunciated in 1920 at Nagpur when a resolution calling upon the Princes to grant full responsible government in their States had been passed. Simultaneously, however, the Congress, while allowing residents of the States to become members of the Congress, made it clear that they could not initiate political activity in the States in the name of Congress but only in their individual capacity or as members of the local political organizations. Question 6 of 35 6. Question Consider the following statements with reference to Home rule league movements: It was a mass movement seeing participation from every section of society. Main cause of the Home Rule movement was that moderates were not satisfied with Morley-Minto reforms. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The Indian Home Rule Leagues were organized on the lines of the Irish Home Rule Leagues and they represented the emergence of a new trend of aggressive politics. Annie Besant and Tilak were the pioneers of this new trend. Movement was not a mass movement. It was restricted to educated people and college students. The leagues did not find a lot of support among Muslims, Anglo-Indians and non-Brahmins from Southern India as they thought home rule would mean a rule of the upper caste Hindu majority. A section of nationalists felt that popular pressure was required to attain concessions from the Government The Moderates were disillusioned with the Morley Minto reforms. People were feeling the burden of wartime miseries caused by high taxation and a rise in prices, and were ready to participate in any aggressive movement of protest.   Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The Indian Home Rule Leagues were organized on the lines of the Irish Home Rule Leagues and they represented the emergence of a new trend of aggressive politics. Annie Besant and Tilak were the pioneers of this new trend. Movement was not a mass movement. It was restricted to educated people and college students. The leagues did not find a lot of support among Muslims, Anglo-Indians and non-Brahmins from Southern India as they thought home rule would mean a rule of the upper caste Hindu majority. A section of nationalists felt that popular pressure was required to attain concessions from the Government The Moderates were disillusioned with the Morley Minto reforms. People were feeling the burden of wartime miseries caused by high taxation and a rise in prices, and were ready to participate in any aggressive movement of protest.   Question 7 of 35 7. Question Consider the following pairs: Congress Session Respective President 1.     1905 Banaras Session Rash Behari Ghosh   2.     1917 Calcutta Session Motilal Nehru   3.     1927 Madras Session M A Ansari How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? a) One pair only b) Two pairs only c) None of the above pairs d) All of the above pairs Correct Solution (a) Incorrect Incorrect Correct 1905 – Banaras Session: Gopal Krishna Gokhale Expressed resentment against the Bengal partition boycott of foreign goods. Promotion of swadeshi-goods and Indian industries- Public meetings and processions. Corps of Volunteers or ‘Samitis’- Swadesh Bandhab Samiti of Ashwini Kumar Dutta. Use of Traditional Popular Festivals and Melas-Ganpati festival, traditional folk theater. Nationalist song- Amar Sonar Bangla, Sudesha Geetham-Subramania Bharati National Education in vernacular medium. Bengal National College, National Council of Education. 1917 – Calcutta Session: Annie Besant First woman to preside at the Congress session. 1927 – Madras Session: M A Ansari Resolution against using Indian troops in Mesopotamia, Iran, and China Resolution passed to boycott Simon commission. Adopted resolution for Purna Swaraj.   Incorrect Solution (a) Incorrect Incorrect Correct 1905 – Banaras Session: Gopal Krishna Gokhale Expressed resentment against the Bengal partition boycott of foreign goods. Promotion of swadeshi-goods and Indian industries- Public meetings and processions. Corps of Volunteers or ‘Samitis’- Swadesh Bandhab Samiti of Ashwini Kumar Dutta. Use of Traditional Popular Festivals and Melas-Ganpati festival, traditional folk theater. Nationalist song- Amar Sonar Bangla, Sudesha Geetham-Subramania Bharati National Education in vernacular medium. Bengal National College, National Council of Education. 1917 – Calcutta Session: Annie Besant First woman to preside at the Congress session. 1927 – Madras Session: M A Ansari Resolution against using Indian troops in Mesopotamia, Iran, and China Resolution passed to boycott Simon commission. Adopted resolution for Purna Swaraj.   Question 8 of 35 8. Question Who among the following supported the cause of Purna Swaraj at the Lahore Session of 1929? Jawaharlal Nehru Subhas Chandra Bose Satyamurthi Mahatma Gandhi Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Jawaharlal Nehru Subhas Chandra Bose Satyamurthi Mahatma Gandhi   Note: In 1928, Nehru report was submitted which proposed dominion status. However, a section of nationalists was not satisfied with this demand and gradually became more vociferous for their demand for Purna Swaraj. In 1929 the Congress session was held at Lahore. This session assumed significance because at this session the Indian National Congress took the resolution of Poorna Swaraj or complete independence. In this, the Indian tricolor flag was hoisted by Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru on the bank of the Ravi river. Jawaharlal Nehru, Subhas Bose and Satyamurthi, backed by a large number of delegates, pressed for the acceptance of ‘Purna Swaraj’ or complete independence as the goal of the Congress. Gandhiji, Motilal Nehru and many other older leaders felt that the national consensus achieved with such great difficulty on Dominion Status should not be abandoned in such haste and a period of two years be given to the Government for accepting this.   Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Jawaharlal Nehru Subhas Chandra Bose Satyamurthi Mahatma Gandhi   Note: In 1928, Nehru report was submitted which proposed dominion status. However, a section of nationalists was not satisfied with this demand and gradually became more vociferous for their demand for Purna Swaraj. In 1929 the Congress session was held at Lahore. This session assumed significance because at this session the Indian National Congress took the resolution of Poorna Swaraj or complete independence. In this, the Indian tricolor flag was hoisted by Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru on the bank of the Ravi river. Jawaharlal Nehru, Subhas Bose and Satyamurthi, backed by a large number of delegates, pressed for the acceptance of ‘Purna Swaraj’ or complete independence as the goal of the Congress. Gandhiji, Motilal Nehru and many other older leaders felt that the national consensus achieved with such great difficulty on Dominion Status should not be abandoned in such haste and a period of two years be given to the Government for accepting this.   Question 9 of 35 9. Question Where did Gandhi call the Congress Working Committee to announce the suspension of the Non-Cooperation movement? a) Bardoli b) Poona c) Calcutta d) Madras Correct Solution (a) Gandhiji called off the movement in February 1922 in the wake of the Chauri Chaura incident. In Chauri Chaura, Uttar Pradesh, a violent mob set fire to a police station killing 22 policemen during a clash between the police and protesters of the movement. Gandhiji called off the movement saying people were not ready for revolt against the government through ahimsa. Several leaders like Motilal Nehru and C R Das were against the suspension of the movement only due to sporadic incidents of violence. Gandhiji decided to discontinue the Non-cooperation movement since the principle of ahimsa or non-violence are then violated, and then he calls the congress committee at Bardoli on 12 February 1922 to end the Non-cooperation movement. Incorrect Solution (a) Gandhiji called off the movement in February 1922 in the wake of the Chauri Chaura incident. In Chauri Chaura, Uttar Pradesh, a violent mob set fire to a police station killing 22 policemen during a clash between the police and protesters of the movement. Gandhiji called off the movement saying people were not ready for revolt against the government through ahimsa. Several leaders like Motilal Nehru and C R Das were against the suspension of the movement only due to sporadic incidents of violence. Gandhiji decided to discontinue the Non-cooperation movement since the principle of ahimsa or non-violence are then violated, and then he calls the congress committee at Bardoli on 12 February 1922 to end the Non-cooperation movement. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Consider the following statements related to Rowlatt Act: It made trial before imprisonment compulsory. The Act empowered the police to search a place without a warrant and placed severe restrictions on the freedom of the press. It aroused a wave of popular indignation which resulted in tragedy at Jallianwala Bagh. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The Rowlatt Act authorized the government to imprison people without trial suspected of terrorism. Three Indian members – Madan Mohan Malviya, Mohammad Ali Jinnah and Mazharul Haque resigned from the council in protest. It also authorized the government to detain such people arrested for up to 2 years without trial. It empowered the police to search a place without a warrant. It also placed severe restrictions on the freedom of the press. The act was passed as per recommendations of the Rowlatt Committee chaired by a judge, Sir Sidney Rowlatt. It aroused a wave of popular indignation and led to the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The Rowlatt Act authorized the government to imprison people without trial suspected of terrorism. Three Indian members – Madan Mohan Malviya, Mohammad Ali Jinnah and Mazharul Haque resigned from the council in protest. It also authorized the government to detain such people arrested for up to 2 years without trial. It empowered the police to search a place without a warrant. It also placed severe restrictions on the freedom of the press. The act was passed as per recommendations of the Rowlatt Committee chaired by a judge, Sir Sidney Rowlatt. It aroused a wave of popular indignation and led to the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Consider the following statements regarding Champaran satyagraha: Rajkumar Shukla persuaded Gandhiji to come to Champaran in Bihar. Champaran movement was Gandhi’s first non-cooperation satyagraha in India. As a compromise with planters Gandhiji agreed that only 25% of the money taken should be compensated. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Gandhi was requested by Rajkumar Shukla, a local man, to look into the problems of the farmers in the context of indigo planters of Champaran in Bihar. The European planters had been forcing the peasants to grow indigo on 3/20 part of the total land (called tinkathia system).   Champaran satyagraha was Gandhiji’s first Civil disobedience while Kheda satyagraha was his first Non-cooperation Movement. The government appointed a committee to go into the matter and nominated Gandhi as a member. Gandhi was able to convince the authorities that the tinkathia system should be abolished and that the peasants should be compensated for the illegal dues extracted from them. As a compromise with the planters, he agreed that only 25 per cent of the money taken should be compensated. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Gandhi was requested by Rajkumar Shukla, a local man, to look into the problems of the farmers in the context of indigo planters of Champaran in Bihar. The European planters had been forcing the peasants to grow indigo on 3/20 part of the total land (called tinkathia system).   Champaran satyagraha was Gandhiji’s first Civil disobedience while Kheda satyagraha was his first Non-cooperation Movement. The government appointed a committee to go into the matter and nominated Gandhi as a member. Gandhi was able to convince the authorities that the tinkathia system should be abolished and that the peasants should be compensated for the illegal dues extracted from them. As a compromise with the planters, he agreed that only 25 per cent of the money taken should be compensated. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Which of the following gave rise to the Extremism during the 1920s? The sudden withdrawal of the Non- Cooperation Movement. Impact of Novels and books such as Bandi Jiwan by Sachin Sanyal . Upsurge of working class trade unionism after World War 1. Russian Revolution How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct The sudden withdrawal of the Non- Cooperation Movement, however, left many of them disillusioned; they began to question the basic strategy of nationalist leadership and its emphasis on non-violence and began to look for alternatives. But since these younger nationalists were not attracted to the parliamentary work of the Swarajists or to the patient, undramatic, constructive work of the No-changers, they were drawn to the idea that violent methods alone would free India. Thus, revolutionary activity was revived. Newly sprouting communist groups with their emphasis on Marxism, socialism and the proletariat. Journals publishing memoirs and articles extolling the self-sacrifice of revolutionaries, such as Atmasakti, Sarathi and Bijoli. Novels and books such as Bandi Jiwan by Sachin Sanyal and Pather Dabi by Sharatchandra Chatterjee(government ban only enhanced its popularity). But since these younger nationalists were not attracted to the parliamentary work of the Swarajists or to the patient, undramatic, constructive work of the No-changers, they were drawn to the idea that violent methods alone would free India. Thus, revolutionary activity was revived. Russian Revolution (1917) and the success of the young Soviet state in consolidating itself inspired Indians to agitate for the freedom from the colonial masters just like Russians who had revolted against the monarchy.   Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct The sudden withdrawal of the Non- Cooperation Movement, however, left many of them disillusioned; they began to question the basic strategy of nationalist leadership and its emphasis on non-violence and began to look for alternatives. But since these younger nationalists were not attracted to the parliamentary work of the Swarajists or to the patient, undramatic, constructive work of the No-changers, they were drawn to the idea that violent methods alone would free India. Thus, revolutionary activity was revived. Newly sprouting communist groups with their emphasis on Marxism, socialism and the proletariat. Journals publishing memoirs and articles extolling the self-sacrifice of revolutionaries, such as Atmasakti, Sarathi and Bijoli. Novels and books such as Bandi Jiwan by Sachin Sanyal and Pather Dabi by Sharatchandra Chatterjee(government ban only enhanced its popularity). But since these younger nationalists were not attracted to the parliamentary work of the Swarajists or to the patient, undramatic, constructive work of the No-changers, they were drawn to the idea that violent methods alone would free India. Thus, revolutionary activity was revived. Russian Revolution (1917) and the success of the young Soviet state in consolidating itself inspired Indians to agitate for the freedom from the colonial masters just like Russians who had revolted against the monarchy.   Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following statements regarding Simon Commission: It proposed the abolition of dyarchy and the establishment of representative government in the provinces. It recommended  universal franchise. It recommended that separate communal electorates be retained. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct The Simon Commission published a two-volume report in May 1930. It proposed the abolition of dyarchy and the establishment of representative government in the provinces which should be given autonomy. It said that the governor should have discretionary power in relation to internal security and administrative powers to protect the different communities. The number of members of the provincial legislative council should be increased. The report rejected parliamentary responsibility at the center. Further it  was not in favour of universal franchise.     It also recommended that separate communal electorates be retained (and extended such electorates to other communities) but only until tensions between Hindus and Muslims had died down. It accepted the idea of federalism but not in the near future; it suggested that a Consultative Council of Greater India should be established which should include representatives of both the British provinces as well as princely states. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct The Simon Commission published a two-volume report in May 1930. It proposed the abolition of dyarchy and the establishment of representative government in the provinces which should be given autonomy. It said that the governor should have discretionary power in relation to internal security and administrative powers to protect the different communities. The number of members of the provincial legislative council should be increased. The report rejected parliamentary responsibility at the center. Further it  was not in favour of universal franchise.     It also recommended that separate communal electorates be retained (and extended such electorates to other communities) but only until tensions between Hindus and Muslims had died down. It accepted the idea of federalism but not in the near future; it suggested that a Consultative Council of Greater India should be established which should include representatives of both the British provinces as well as princely states. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Which of the following events occurred during the second phase of the Civil Disobedience Movement? Organization of Khudai Khidmatgars society by Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan. Revolt led by Rani Gaidiniliu in Nagaland. Refusal by Garhwali soldiers to fire on a mass demonstration in Peshawar. How many of the above given statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The movement spread to different parts of the country and witnessed various memorable events. Under the leadership of Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, popularly known as “the Frontier Gandhi”, the Pathans organized the society of Khudai Khidmatgars (or Servants of God), known popularly as Red Shirts. Nagaland produced a brave heroine i.e. Rani Gaidinliu who at the age of 13 responded to the call of Gandhiji and Congress and raised the banner of rebellion against foreign rule. Another noteworthy incident of this phase was the refusal to open fire by platoons of Garhwali Soldiers on a mass demonstration in Peshawar.   Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The movement spread to different parts of the country and witnessed various memorable events. Under the leadership of Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, popularly known as “the Frontier Gandhi”, the Pathans organized the society of Khudai Khidmatgars (or Servants of God), known popularly as Red Shirts. Nagaland produced a brave heroine i.e. Rani Gaidinliu who at the age of 13 responded to the call of Gandhiji and Congress and raised the banner of rebellion against foreign rule. Another noteworthy incident of this phase was the refusal to open fire by platoons of Garhwali Soldiers on a mass demonstration in Peshawar.   Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following statements regarding Hindustan Republican Association: Its aim was to overthrow colonial rule and establish the Federal Republic of the United States of India. Its members were involved in the famous Kakori Conspiracy, 1925. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The political vacuum created by the suspension of the Chauri Chaura incident led to the formation of revolutionary movements by the more radical amongst those who sought to overthrow British rule. Kakori Robbery: Before armed struggle could be waged, propaganda had to be organized on a large scale, men had to be recruited and trained and arms had to be procured. All these required money. The most important ‘action’ of the HRA was the Kakori Robbery. On 9 August 1925, ten men held up the 8-Down train at Kakori, an obscure village near Lucknow, and looted its official railway cash. Outcome of Kakori Robbery: The Government reaction was quick and hard. It arrested a large number of young men and tried them in the Kakori Conspiracy Case. Ashfaqulla Khan, Ramprasad Bismil, Ràshan Singh and Rajendra Lahiri were hanged (December 1927), four others were sent to the Andamans for life and seventeen others were sentenced to long terms of imprisonment. Azad was the only one of the principal leaders who managed to escape arrest. The revolutionaries in northern India were the first to emerge out of the mood of frustration and reorganize under the leadership of the old veterans, Ramprasad Bismil, Jogesh Chatterjea and Sachindranath Sanyal whose ‘Bandi Jiwan’ served as a textbook to the revolutionary movement. They met in Kanpur in October 1924 and founded the Hindustan Republican Association (or Army) to organize armed revolution to overthrow colonial rule and establish in its place a Federal Republic of the United States of India whose basic principle would be adult franchise. The policies of Gandhi were criticized and youths were called to join the organization. The HRA established branches in Agra, Allahabad, Benares, Cawnpore, Lucknow, Saharanpur, and Shahjahanpur. They also manufactured bombs in Calcutta – at Dakshineswar and Shovabazar – and at Deoghar in Jharkhand. Sanyal wrote a manifesto for the HRA entitled ‘Revolutionary’. This was distributed around large cities of North India on 31 December 1924. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The political vacuum created by the suspension of the Chauri Chaura incident led to the formation of revolutionary movements by the more radical amongst those who sought to overthrow British rule. Kakori Robbery: Before armed struggle could be waged, propaganda had to be organized on a large scale, men had to be recruited and trained and arms had to be procured. All these required money. The most important ‘action’ of the HRA was the Kakori Robbery. On 9 August 1925, ten men held up the 8-Down train at Kakori, an obscure village near Lucknow, and looted its official railway cash. Outcome of Kakori Robbery: The Government reaction was quick and hard. It arrested a large number of young men and tried them in the Kakori Conspiracy Case. Ashfaqulla Khan, Ramprasad Bismil, Ràshan Singh and Rajendra Lahiri were hanged (December 1927), four others were sent to the Andamans for life and seventeen others were sentenced to long terms of imprisonment. Azad was the only one of the principal leaders who managed to escape arrest. The revolutionaries in northern India were the first to emerge out of the mood of frustration and reorganize under the leadership of the old veterans, Ramprasad Bismil, Jogesh Chatterjea and Sachindranath Sanyal whose ‘Bandi Jiwan’ served as a textbook to the revolutionary movement. They met in Kanpur in October 1924 and founded the Hindustan Republican Association (or Army) to organize armed revolution to overthrow colonial rule and establish in its place a Federal Republic of the United States of India whose basic principle would be adult franchise. The policies of Gandhi were criticized and youths were called to join the organization. The HRA established branches in Agra, Allahabad, Benares, Cawnpore, Lucknow, Saharanpur, and Shahjahanpur. They also manufactured bombs in Calcutta – at Dakshineswar and Shovabazar – and at Deoghar in Jharkhand. Sanyal wrote a manifesto for the HRA entitled ‘Revolutionary’. This was distributed around large cities of North India on 31 December 1924. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Arrange the following events into the chronological order: Announcement of Communal Award Launch of Civil Disobedience movement Formation of All India Kisan Sabha Gandhi-Irwin Pact Select the correct option from the code given below: a) 2-4-1-3 b) 3-2-4-1 c) 3-1-4-2 d) 2-3-1-4 Correct Solution (a)      2.      4.       3. Civil Disobedience movement  (1930) Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931)   Communal Award (1932) Formation of All India Kisan Sabha (1936) Civil Disobedience movement- 1930 The Civil Disobedience Movement began with Gandhi’s well-known Dandi March. Gandhi set out on foot from the Sabarmati Ashram in Ahmedabad on March 12, 1930, with 78 other Ashram members for Dandi, a village on India’s western seacoast about 385 kilometers from Ahmedabad. On April 6, 1930, they arrived in Dandi. The rejection of demands put forward by Mahatma Gandhi in the Delhi Manifesto led to the Lahore Congress session. Later, under the civil disobedience movement, Gandhi put forward 11 demands and gave an ultimatum of January 31, 1930, to accept or reject. In July 1930 the viceroy, Lord Irwin, suggested a round table conference and reiterated the goal of dominion status. The CWC authorized Gandhi to initiate discussions with the viceroy Lord Irwin. Later a pact was signed in Delhi, which came to be known as Delhi-Pact or Gandhi-Irwin Pact. TheCommunal Award (also known as MacDonald Award) was created by the British prime minister Ramsay MacDonald on 16 August 1932; and was announced after the Round Table Conference (1930–32) This was Britain’s unilateral attempt to resolve the various conflicts among India’s many communal interests The Communal Award, based on the findings of the Indian Franchise Committee (also called the Lothian Committee), established separate electorates and reserved seats for minorities, including the depressed classes which were granted seventy-eight reserved seats Formation of All India Kisan Sabha- 1936 The All India Kisan Sabha was formed in 1936 at Lucknow. All India Kisan Sabha is also known as ‘Akhil Bhartiya Kisan Sabha.’ Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was the head of the Sabha. The secretary of this association was NG Ranga. The motives of the All India Kisan Sabha were: To abolish the Zamindari system; To reduce land revenue; To institutionalize credit. Incorrect Solution (a)      2.      4.       3. Civil Disobedience movement  (1930) Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931)   Communal Award (1932) Formation of All India Kisan Sabha (1936) Civil Disobedience movement- 1930 The Civil Disobedience Movement began with Gandhi’s well-known Dandi March. Gandhi set out on foot from the Sabarmati Ashram in Ahmedabad on March 12, 1930, with 78 other Ashram members for Dandi, a village on India’s western seacoast about 385 kilometers from Ahmedabad. On April 6, 1930, they arrived in Dandi. The rejection of demands put forward by Mahatma Gandhi in the Delhi Manifesto led to the Lahore Congress session. Later, under the civil disobedience movement, Gandhi put forward 11 demands and gave an ultimatum of January 31, 1930, to accept or reject. In July 1930 the viceroy, Lord Irwin, suggested a round table conference and reiterated the goal of dominion status. The CWC authorized Gandhi to initiate discussions with the viceroy Lord Irwin. Later a pact was signed in Delhi, which came to be known as Delhi-Pact or Gandhi-Irwin Pact. TheCommunal Award (also known as MacDonald Award) was created by the British prime minister Ramsay MacDonald on 16 August 1932; and was announced after the Round Table Conference (1930–32) This was Britain’s unilateral attempt to resolve the various conflicts among India’s many communal interests The Communal Award, based on the findings of the Indian Franchise Committee (also called the Lothian Committee), established separate electorates and reserved seats for minorities, including the depressed classes which were granted seventy-eight reserved seats Formation of All India Kisan Sabha- 1936 The All India Kisan Sabha was formed in 1936 at Lucknow. All India Kisan Sabha is also known as ‘Akhil Bhartiya Kisan Sabha.’ Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was the head of the Sabha. The secretary of this association was NG Ranga. The motives of the All India Kisan Sabha were: To abolish the Zamindari system; To reduce land revenue; To institutionalize credit. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Which of the following provisions was/were provided by the Poona Pact? Separate Electorate for the depressed classes. Increase in the seats for the depressed classes. Two-tier election system for the depressed classes. How many of the above given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Gandhiji was not averse to the idea of reserved seats, and Ambedkar too ultimately agreed to reservation instead of a separate electorate. The proposed number of such reserved seats for the depressed classes was increased. A two-tier election system was recommended to ensure proper representation of such classes.   Note: Poona Pact: Gandhiji undertook a fast in jail as a protest against the decision made by British prime minister Ramsay MacDonald to give separate electorates to depressed classes. To resolve the situation, Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. Ambedkar reached an agreement regarding the reservation of electoral seats for the depressed classes in the legislature. It was made in 1932 at Yerwada Central Jail in Poona. It was signed by Ambedkar on behalf of the depressed classes and by Madan Mohan Malviya on behalf of the upper caste Hindus and Gandhi. It put an end to the fast that Gandhiji was not averse to the idea of reserved seats, and Ambedkar too ultimately agreed to reservation instead of separate electorate. The proposed number of such reserved seats for the depressed classes was increased. A two-tier election system was recommended to ensure proper representation of such classes. In two-tiered electoral systems, voters elect electors who in turn elect the representatives. The Poona Pact was subsequently accepted by the government. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Gandhiji was not averse to the idea of reserved seats, and Ambedkar too ultimately agreed to reservation instead of a separate electorate. The proposed number of such reserved seats for the depressed classes was increased. A two-tier election system was recommended to ensure proper representation of such classes.   Note: Poona Pact: Gandhiji undertook a fast in jail as a protest against the decision made by British prime minister Ramsay MacDonald to give separate electorates to depressed classes. To resolve the situation, Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. Ambedkar reached an agreement regarding the reservation of electoral seats for the depressed classes in the legislature. It was made in 1932 at Yerwada Central Jail in Poona. It was signed by Ambedkar on behalf of the depressed classes and by Madan Mohan Malviya on behalf of the upper caste Hindus and Gandhi. It put an end to the fast that Gandhiji was not averse to the idea of reserved seats, and Ambedkar too ultimately agreed to reservation instead of separate electorate. The proposed number of such reserved seats for the depressed classes was increased. A two-tier election system was recommended to ensure proper representation of such classes. In two-tiered electoral systems, voters elect electors who in turn elect the representatives. The Poona Pact was subsequently accepted by the government. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following statements about Gandhi-Irwin pact: Rising popularity of Salt Satyagraha was one of the reasons behind holding talks between Mahatma Gandhi and Irwin. Under the pact, Indians were allowed to produce, trade and sell salt legally. Congress agreed to attend the third RTC to chalk out constitutional reforms. How many of the above given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Gandhiji and his followers had initiated the salt march between March and April in 1930. The event drew widespread publicity all over the world and brought all eyes on India and Gandhi. Gandhi and the non-violent fight of Indians against unfair British imperialism brought sympathy for Indians and showed the British in a negative light. Irwin wanted this and the Satyagraha to come to an end. So, he ordered the unconditional release of Gandhi and agreed to meet viceroy. It was agreed that the British would remove tax on salt, which allowed Indians to produce, trade and sell salt legally and for their own use.   Congress agreed to join the first RTC to chalk out constitutional reforms. The British also withdrew curbs on the activities of the INC. They also agreed to withdraw trials relating to several offenses except those involving violence.   Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Gandhiji and his followers had initiated the salt march between March and April in 1930. The event drew widespread publicity all over the world and brought all eyes on India and Gandhi. Gandhi and the non-violent fight of Indians against unfair British imperialism brought sympathy for Indians and showed the British in a negative light. Irwin wanted this and the Satyagraha to come to an end. So, he ordered the unconditional release of Gandhi and agreed to meet viceroy. It was agreed that the British would remove tax on salt, which allowed Indians to produce, trade and sell salt legally and for their own use.   Congress agreed to join the first RTC to chalk out constitutional reforms. The British also withdrew curbs on the activities of the INC. They also agreed to withdraw trials relating to several offenses except those involving violence.   Question 19 of 35 19. Question Which of the following were part of the 11 point demands of Gandhiji before the launch of the Civil Disobedience Movement (CDM)? Abolition of separate electorate Arms licenses to citizens for self protection Abolition of land revenue Release of all political prisoners How many of the given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Correct There was no demand for the abolition of the separate electorate. Change Arms Act allowing popular control of the issue of firearms license to the common citizen for self-protection. At that time, Indians were subject to the highly restrictive terms of the Indian Arms Act, 1878. This Act was one of many oppressive, imperialist laws that Gandhiji and many other Indian leaders sought to get independence from. Reduce (not abolition) land revenue by 50 per cent. Release of all political prisoners. Note: To carry forward the mandate given by the Lahore Congress, Gandhi presented eleven demands to the Government & gave an ultimatum of January 31, 1930, to accept or reject these demands. The 11 points were inclusive in nature and tried to cover all sections like traders, women, peasants. Major demands were: Reduce expenditure on Army and civil services by 50 percent. Introduce total prohibition. Carry out reforms in the Criminal Investigation Department (CID). Change Arms Act allowing popular control of the issue of firearms license to the common citizen for self-protection. At that time, Indians were subject to the highly restrictive terms of the Indian Arms Act, 1878. This Act was one of many oppressive, imperialist laws that Gandhiji and many other Indian leaders sought to get independence from. Release of all political prisoners. Accept Postal Reservation Bill. Reduce rupee-sterling exchange ratio. Introduce textile protection. Reserve coastal shipping for Indians. Reduce (not abolition) land revenue by 50 per cent. Abolish salt tax and the government’s salt monopoly. There was no demand for the abolition of the separate electorate. The demands were not accepted and hence CDM was launched. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Correct There was no demand for the abolition of the separate electorate. Change Arms Act allowing popular control of the issue of firearms license to the common citizen for self-protection. At that time, Indians were subject to the highly restrictive terms of the Indian Arms Act, 1878. This Act was one of many oppressive, imperialist laws that Gandhiji and many other Indian leaders sought to get independence from. Reduce (not abolition) land revenue by 50 per cent. Release of all political prisoners. Note: To carry forward the mandate given by the Lahore Congress, Gandhi presented eleven demands to the Government & gave an ultimatum of January 31, 1930, to accept or reject these demands. The 11 points were inclusive in nature and tried to cover all sections like traders, women, peasants. Major demands were: Reduce expenditure on Army and civil services by 50 percent. Introduce total prohibition. Carry out reforms in the Criminal Investigation Department (CID). Change Arms Act allowing popular control of the issue of firearms license to the common citizen for self-protection. At that time, Indians were subject to the highly restrictive terms of the Indian Arms Act, 1878. This Act was one of many oppressive, imperialist laws that Gandhiji and many other Indian leaders sought to get independence from. Release of all political prisoners. Accept Postal Reservation Bill. Reduce rupee-sterling exchange ratio. Introduce textile protection. Reserve coastal shipping for Indians. Reduce (not abolition) land revenue by 50 per cent. Abolish salt tax and the government’s salt monopoly. There was no demand for the abolition of the separate electorate. The demands were not accepted and hence CDM was launched. Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following statements: Sarojini Naidu presided over the Kanpur session in 1917 and was the first woman president of INC. Nellie Sengupta presided over the Calcutta Session in 1933. Annie Besant presided over the Calcutta session in 1925. How many of the above given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Annie Besant presided over the 1917 session in Calcutta and became the first woman president of INC. Nellie Sengupta was elected president of the Indian National Congress at its 48th annual session at Calcutta in 1933. Nellie Sengupta was an Englishwoman who fought for Indian Independence. She was the first woman Alderman for Calcutta and was elected president of the Indian National Congress at its 48th annual session at Calcutta in 1933. Sarojini Naidu presided over the 1925 session in Kanpur. She  was a proponent of civil rights, women’s emancipation, and anti-imperialistic ideas, she was an important person in India’s struggle for independence from colonial rule. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Annie Besant presided over the 1917 session in Calcutta and became the first woman president of INC. Nellie Sengupta was elected president of the Indian National Congress at its 48th annual session at Calcutta in 1933. Nellie Sengupta was an Englishwoman who fought for Indian Independence. She was the first woman Alderman for Calcutta and was elected president of the Indian National Congress at its 48th annual session at Calcutta in 1933. Sarojini Naidu presided over the 1925 session in Kanpur. She  was a proponent of civil rights, women’s emancipation, and anti-imperialistic ideas, she was an important person in India’s struggle for independence from colonial rule. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements: The Blue Button Movement is organised by the World Health Organisation on World Cancer Day. DemClinic will be the first national comprehensive expert-led cognitive assessment platform for the elderly. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) The Blue Button Movement is organised by the Dementia India Alliance (DIA) on September 21 to mark World Alzheimer’s Day. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The blue button is a symbol of awareness and support for people affected by dementia. This campaign will include the formation of a human chain symbolically resembling the blue button like a shield or a coat of arms, unifying and encouraging people to recognize the impact of dementia, empathize, and take proactive steps to support patients. DemClinic will be the first national comprehensive expert-led cognitive assessment platform for the elderly. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is aimed at supporting families and persons with dementia through post-diagnostic care and support. Incorrect Solution (b) The Blue Button Movement is organised by the Dementia India Alliance (DIA) on September 21 to mark World Alzheimer’s Day. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The blue button is a symbol of awareness and support for people affected by dementia. This campaign will include the formation of a human chain symbolically resembling the blue button like a shield or a coat of arms, unifying and encouraging people to recognize the impact of dementia, empathize, and take proactive steps to support patients. DemClinic will be the first national comprehensive expert-led cognitive assessment platform for the elderly. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is aimed at supporting families and persons with dementia through post-diagnostic care and support. Question 22 of 35 22. Question The Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) is backed by which of the following countries? a) Russia, China, and Japan b) Brazil, Japan, and the USA c) Brazil, India, and the USA d) Japan, China, and Australia Correct Solution (c) The Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) is backed by Brazil, India, and the USA. It aims to facilitate cooperation and intensify the use of sustainable biofuels, including in the transportation sector. It will place emphasis on strengthening markets, facilitating global biofuels trade, developing concrete policy lesson-sharing, and providing technical support for national biofuels programs worldwide. Hence option c is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) is backed by Brazil, India, and the USA. It aims to facilitate cooperation and intensify the use of sustainable biofuels, including in the transportation sector. It will place emphasis on strengthening markets, facilitating global biofuels trade, developing concrete policy lesson-sharing, and providing technical support for national biofuels programs worldwide. Hence option c is correct. Question 23 of 35 23. Question HII-A rocket to explore the origins of the universe is launched by: a) Germany b) China c) India d) Japan Correct Solution (d) HII-A rocket to explore the origins of the universe is launched by Japan. The rocket put a satellite called X-Ray Imaging and Spectroscopy Mission, or XRISM, into orbit around Earth. It will measure the speed and makeup of what lies between galaxies. This information will help in studying how celestial objects were formed. It can also lead to solving the mystery of how the universe was created. Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) HII-A rocket to explore the origins of the universe is launched by Japan. The rocket put a satellite called X-Ray Imaging and Spectroscopy Mission, or XRISM, into orbit around Earth. It will measure the speed and makeup of what lies between galaxies. This information will help in studying how celestial objects were formed. It can also lead to solving the mystery of how the universe was created. Hence option d is correct. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Konark Sun Temple: It was constructed during the reign of King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty. It was built using Khondalite rocks and was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The Konark Sun Temple was constructed during the reign of King Narasimhadeva Iof the Eastern Ganga Dynasty. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was constructed in the 13th century. It is designed in the shape of a colossal chariot with 12 pairs of stone-carved wheels. They represent the chariot of the Sun God. It was built using Khondalite rocks and was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Konark Sun Temple was constructed during the reign of King Narasimhadeva Iof the Eastern Ganga Dynasty. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was constructed in the 13th century. It is designed in the shape of a colossal chariot with 12 pairs of stone-carved wheels. They represent the chariot of the Sun God. It was built using Khondalite rocks and was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Amitava Roy Committee formed by the Supreme Court of India is related to: a) Other Backward Classes b) Prison Reforms c) Goods and Service tax d) None Correct Solution (b) Amitava Roy Committee formed by the Supreme Court of India in 2018 is related to Prison Reforms. Its objective is to examine the various problems plaguing prisons in the country, from overcrowding to lack of legal advice to convicts to issues of remission and parole. Hence option b is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Amitava Roy Committee formed by the Supreme Court of India in 2018 is related to Prison Reforms. Its objective is to examine the various problems plaguing prisons in the country, from overcrowding to lack of legal advice to convicts to issues of remission and parole. Hence option b is correct. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Recently, a white sambar was photographed in the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary which was constituted in 1989 under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. It is located in which state of India? a) Tamil Nadu b) Kerala c) Karnataka d) Goa Correct Solution (c) Recently, a white sambar was photographed in the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary which was constituted in 1989 under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. It is located in Karnataka. It consists of reserve forests in Chamarajnagar, Ramanagar, and Mandya Districts of Karnataka State. It has dry deciduous forests, scrublands, grasslands, and riverine ecosystems. Hence option c is correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) Recently, a white sambar was photographed in the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary which was constituted in 1989 under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. It is located in Karnataka. It consists of reserve forests in Chamarajnagar, Ramanagar, and Mandya Districts of Karnataka State. It has dry deciduous forests, scrublands, grasslands, and riverine ecosystems. Hence option c is correct.   Question 27 of 35 27. Question Basket Sneaking, False Urgency, Subscription Trap, and Nagging are the terms related to which of the following? a) Cryptocurrency b) World Bank c) Moon d) Dark patterns Correct Solution (d) Basket Sneaking, False Urgency, Subscription Trap, and Nagging are the terms related to dark patterns. Hence option d is correct. Dark Patterns are deceptive design patterns using user interface or user experience interactions on any platform. These practices are designed to mislead or trick users into doing something they originally did not intend or want to do. It undermines consumer autonomy, decision-making, and choice potentially constituting misleading advertising, unfair trade practices, or violations of consumer rights. Incorrect Solution (d) Basket Sneaking, False Urgency, Subscription Trap, and Nagging are the terms related to dark patterns. Hence option d is correct. Dark Patterns are deceptive design patterns using user interface or user experience interactions on any platform. These practices are designed to mislead or trick users into doing something they originally did not intend or want to do. It undermines consumer autonomy, decision-making, and choice potentially constituting misleading advertising, unfair trade practices, or violations of consumer rights. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Incremental cash reserve ratio (I-CRR): It is an additional cash balance that RBI can ask the banks to maintain over and above the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR). It was announced as a temporary measure to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The Incremental cash reserve ratio (I-CRR) is an additional cash balance that the Reserve Bank of India can ask banks to maintain over and above the Cash Reserve Ratio(CRR). Hence statement 1 is correct. It was introduced on August 10, 2023, by RBI as the level of surplus liquidity in the system surged because of the return of Rs 2,000 banknotes to the banking system. It was announced as a temporary measure to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Incremental cash reserve ratio (I-CRR) is an additional cash balance that the Reserve Bank of India can ask banks to maintain over and above the Cash Reserve Ratio(CRR). Hence statement 1 is correct. It was introduced on August 10, 2023, by RBI as the level of surplus liquidity in the system surged because of the return of Rs 2,000 banknotes to the banking system. It was announced as a temporary measure to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements regarding Hallmarking: It is the accurate determination and official recording of the proportionate content of precious metals in precious metal articles. At present, only two precious metals – gold and silver come under hallmarking in India. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Hallmarking is the accurate determination and official recording of the proportionate content of precious metals in precious metal articles. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the official mark used in many countries as a guarantee of purity or fineness of precious metal articles. The objectives of the Hallmarking Scheme are to protect the public against adulteration and to obligate manufacturers to maintain legal standards of fineness. At present, only two precious metals – gold and silver come under hallmarking in India. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Hallmarking is the accurate determination and official recording of the proportionate content of precious metals in precious metal articles. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the official mark used in many countries as a guarantee of purity or fineness of precious metal articles. The objectives of the Hallmarking Scheme are to protect the public against adulteration and to obligate manufacturers to maintain legal standards of fineness. At present, only two precious metals – gold and silver come under hallmarking in India. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements regarding ‘Bharat: The Mother of Democracy’ Portal: It was launched by the Ministry of Culture on the eve of the G20 leadership summit. It offers content that delves into India’s democratic legacy spanning an astonishing 7,000 years. The content on the portal is available in 16 languages including German, French, Spanish, and Arabic. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) ‘Bharat: The Mother of Democracy’ Portal was launched by the Ministry of Culture on the eve of the G20 leadership summit. Hence statement 1 is correct. It offers content that delves into India’s democratic legacy spanning an astonishing 7,000 years. Hence statement 2 is correct. The portal is divided into five sections and 22 sub-sections starting from Sindhu-Saraswati Civilisation (6000- 2000 BCE), Mahajanapada and Gantantra (7-8 BCE), Vijaynagar Empire (14-16 century) and Mughal emperor Akbar reign (1556-1605) to Constitution of India (1947), and Elections in Modern India (1952 onwards). The content on the portal is available in 16 languages including German, French, Spanish, and Arabic. Hence statement 3 is correct. The content for the portal has been curated by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA), which is a center for research, academic pursuit, and dissemination in the field of the arts under the Ministry of Culture. Incorrect Solution (c) ‘Bharat: The Mother of Democracy’ Portal was launched by the Ministry of Culture on the eve of the G20 leadership summit. Hence statement 1 is correct. It offers content that delves into India’s democratic legacy spanning an astonishing 7,000 years. Hence statement 2 is correct. The portal is divided into five sections and 22 sub-sections starting from Sindhu-Saraswati Civilisation (6000- 2000 BCE), Mahajanapada and Gantantra (7-8 BCE), Vijaynagar Empire (14-16 century) and Mughal emperor Akbar reign (1556-1605) to Constitution of India (1947), and Elections in Modern India (1952 onwards). The content on the portal is available in 16 languages including German, French, Spanish, and Arabic. Hence statement 3 is correct. The content for the portal has been curated by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA), which is a center for research, academic pursuit, and dissemination in the field of the arts under the Ministry of Culture. Question 31 of 35 31. Question A housewife has collected coins worth 50 paise, Re.1 and Rs. 2 in the ratio of 2:3:4 in her Piggy Bank. If she counts the total value of the coins it is worth Rs.240. Find the total number of coins she has in her Piggy Bank? a) 90 b) 150 c) 180 d) 200 Correct Solution (c) Let the number of coins of 50 paise, Re.1 and Rs. 2 coins are 2x, 3x and 4x respectively. Value of 50 paise coins – Rs x Value of Re. 1 coins = Rs. 3x Value of Rs. 2 coins = Rs. 8x Therefore, x + 3x + 8x = 240x = 240/12 = 20 Hence total number of coins = 2x + 3x + 4x = 9x = 9 * 20 = 180 coins   Incorrect Solution (c) Let the number of coins of 50 paise, Re.1 and Rs. 2 coins are 2x, 3x and 4x respectively. Value of 50 paise coins – Rs x Value of Re. 1 coins = Rs. 3x Value of Rs. 2 coins = Rs. 8x Therefore, x + 3x + 8x = 240x = 240/12 = 20 Hence total number of coins = 2x + 3x + 4x = 9x = 9 * 20 = 180 coins   Question 32 of 35 32. Question Four persons fire bullets at a target at an interval of 7, 8, 9 and 11 seconds respectively. The number of times they would fire the bullets together at the target in 297 minutes is a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 4 Correct Solution (d) Finding LCM of 7, 8, 9, 11 we get 5544 seconds. It means after every 5544 seconds they all fire bullets together. So in 297 minutes they will fire 60×297/5544 = 3.21 so total fires= 3+1(1st fire) =4 fires.   Incorrect Solution (d) Finding LCM of 7, 8, 9, 11 we get 5544 seconds. It means after every 5544 seconds they all fire bullets together. So in 297 minutes they will fire 60×297/5544 = 3.21 so total fires= 3+1(1st fire) =4 fires.   Question 33 of 35 33. Question A certain number when divided by 247 leaves a remainder 17, another number when divided by 361 leaves a remainder 52. What is the remainder when the sum of these two numbers is divided by 19? a) 8 b) 9 c) 12 d) 17 Correct Solution (c) N1 = 247x + 17 and N2 = 361y + 52 N1 + N2 = (19 × 13 × x + 17) + (19 ×19 × y + 52) Remainder when N1 + N2 is divided by 19, = 17+52/19 = 12   Incorrect Solution (c) N1 = 247x + 17 and N2 = 361y + 52 N1 + N2 = (19 × 13 × x + 17) + (19 ×19 × y + 52) Remainder when N1 + N2 is divided by 19, = 17+52/19 = 12   Question 34 of 35 34. Question A student is to answer 10 out of 13 questions in an examination such that he must choose at least 4 from the first five questions. The number of choices available to him is a) 40 b) 196 c) 280 d) 346 Correct Solution (b) There are two cases Case 1: When 4 is selected from the first 5 and rest 6 from remaining 8 Total arrangement = 5C4 × 8C6 = 5C1 × 8C2 = 5 × (8×7)/(2×1) = 5 × 4 × 7 = 140 Case 2: When all 5 is selected from the first 5 and rest 5 from remaining 8 Total arrangement = 5C5 × 8C5 = 1 × 8C3 = (8×7×6)/(3×2×1) = 8×7 = 56 Now, total number of choices available = 140 + 56 = 196 Incorrect Solution (b) There are two cases Case 1: When 4 is selected from the first 5 and rest 6 from remaining 8 Total arrangement = 5C4 × 8C6 = 5C1 × 8C2 = 5 × (8×7)/(2×1) = 5 × 4 × 7 = 140 Case 2: When all 5 is selected from the first 5 and rest 5 from remaining 8 Total arrangement = 5C5 × 8C5 = 1 × 8C3 = (8×7×6)/(3×2×1) = 8×7 = 56 Now, total number of choices available = 140 + 56 = 196 Question 35 of 35 35. Question 9 boys and 12 girls perform a task in 15 days. The same task is performed by 39 boys and 72 girls in 3 days. Then what will be the time taken by 20 boys and 5 girls in performing the same task? a) 12 days b) 8 days c) 9 days d) 10 days Correct Solution (d) Let 1 boy’s 1 day’s work = x (i.e. efficiency of 1 boy = ‘x’ units/day) and 1 girl’s 1 day’s work = y (i.e. efficiency of 1 girl = ‘y’ units/day). Then, 9x + 12y = 1/15 ………………І (9 boys’ & 12 girls’ 1 day’s work) 39x + 72y = 1/3 ………….…ІІ (39 boys’ & 72 girls’ 1 day’s work). Multiplying equation І by 6 and then subtracting equation ІІ from it, we get, x = 1/225. Putting the value of x in either equation І or equation ІІ will yield y = 1/450. So, 20 boys’ and 5 girls’ 1 day’s work = 20/225 + 5/450 = 1/10. Since 1/10 part is performed in 1 day. So, 1 part is performed in 1/(1/10) day,i.e. 10 days.   Incorrect Solution (d) Let 1 boy’s 1 day’s work = x (i.e. efficiency of 1 boy = ‘x’ units/day) and 1 girl’s 1 day’s work = y (i.e. efficiency of 1 girl = ‘y’ units/day). Then, 9x + 12y = 1/15 ………………І (9 boys’ & 12 girls’ 1 day’s work) 39x + 72y = 1/3 ………….…ІІ (39 boys’ & 72 girls’ 1 day’s work). Multiplying equation І by 6 and then subtracting equation ІІ from it, we get, x = 1/225. Putting the value of x in either equation І or equation ІІ will yield y = 1/450. So, 20 boys’ and 5 girls’ 1 day’s work = 20/225 + 5/450 = 1/10. Since 1/10 part is performed in 1 day. So, 1 part is performed in 1/(1/10) day,i.e. 10 days.   window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3555', init: { quizId: 3555, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"30569":{"type":"single","id":30569,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30571":{"type":"single","id":30571,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30573":{"type":"single","id":30573,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30575":{"type":"single","id":30575,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30578":{"type":"single","id":30578,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30579":{"type":"single","id":30579,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30582":{"type":"single","id":30582,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30583":{"type":"single","id":30583,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30585":{"type":"single","id":30585,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30586":{"type":"single","id":30586,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30587":{"type":"single","id":30587,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30590":{"type":"single","id":30590,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30591":{"type":"single","id":30591,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30594":{"type":"single","id":30594,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30595":{"type":"single","id":30595,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30598":{"type":"single","id":30598,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30601":{"type":"single","id":30601,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30604":{"type":"single","id":30604,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30607":{"type":"single","id":30607,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30610":{"type":"single","id":30610,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30613":{"type":"single","id":30613,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30615":{"type":"single","id":30615,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30616":{"type":"single","id":30616,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30618":{"type":"single","id":30618,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30620":{"type":"single","id":30620,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30622":{"type":"single","id":30622,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30624":{"type":"single","id":30624,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30627":{"type":"single","id":30627,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30628":{"type":"single","id":30628,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30630":{"type":"single","id":30630,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30633":{"type":"single","id":30633,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30636":{"type":"single","id":30636,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30638":{"type":"single","id":30638,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30641":{"type":"single","id":30641,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30644":{"type":"single","id":30644,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 20th March 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Rising sea surface temperature Syllabus Prelims and Mains – Environment Context: The average global sea surface temperature (SST) — the temperature of the water at the ocean surface — for February 2024 stood at 21.06 degree Celsius, the highest ever in a dataset that goes back to 1979. Background:- The previous record of 20.98 degree Celsius was set in August 2023. Why are the oceans getting warmer? Since the Industrial Revolution kicked off in the 19th Century, human activities such as burning fossil fuels have released high levels of greenhouse gases (GHGs) in the atmosphere. Carbon dioxide, methane, ozone, and nitrous oxide are some of the notable GHGs, which essentially trap heat in the atmosphere and contribute to global warming. As a result, the average global temperature has risen at least 1.2 degree Celsius above pre-industrial times. Notably, almost 90 per cent of the extra heat trapped by GHGs has been absorbed by the oceans, making them steadily warmer over the decades. There are other factors which have led to a spike in ocean temperatures. For instance, El Niño — a weather pattern that refers to an abnormal warming of surface waters in the equatorial Pacific Ocean — has contributed to both ocean warming and rising global surface temperatures. There is also less dust blowing off the Sahara Desert recently due to weaker-than-average winds. Typically, the dust forms a “giant umbrella that shades” the Atlantic water and reduces ocean temperatures. Why are rising sea surface temperatures a cause of worry? Higher ocean temperatures can have irreversible consequences for marine ecosystems. For instance, warmer oceans lead to an increase in ocean stratification — the natural separation of an ocean’s water into horizontal layers by density, with warmer, lighter, less salty, and nutrient-poor water layering on top of heavier, colder, saltier, nutrient-rich water. Usually, ocean ecosystems, currents, wind, and tides mix these layers. The rise in temperatures, however, has made it harder for water layers to mix with each other. Due to this, oceans are able to absorb less carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and the oxygen absorbed isn’t able to mix properly with cooler ocean waters below, threatening the survival of marine life. Nutrients are also not able to travel up to the surface of the oceans from below. This could threaten the population of phytoplankton — single-celled plants that thrive on the ocean surface and are the base of several marine food webs. Phytoplankton are eaten by zooplankton, which are consumed by other marine animals such as crabs, fish, and sea stars. Therefore, if the phytoplankton population plummets, there could be a collapse of marine ecosystems. Warmer oceans cause marine heat waves (MHWs), which occur when the surface temperature of a particular region of the sea rises to 3 or 4 degree Celsius above the average temperature for at least five days. MHWs contribute to coral bleaching, which reduces the reproductivity of corals and makes them more vulnerable to life-threatening diseases. They also impact the migration pattern of aquatic animals. Higher ocean temperatures may also result in more frequent and intense storms like hurricanes and cyclones. Warmer temperatures lead to a higher rate of evaporation as well as the transfer of heat from the oceans to the air. When storms travel across hot oceans, they gather more water vapour and heat. This results in more powerful winds, heavier rainfall, and more flooding when storms reach the land — meaning heightened devastation. Source: Indian Express Indo Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: India has decided to join at least one of the four cooperative work programmes unveiled last week under the ‘clean energy pillar’ of the U.S.-led Indo Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF) – the one on facilitating and promoting carbon-market activities. Background: The Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) is an economic initiative launched by U.S. President Joe Biden on May 23, 2022. The framework launched with fourteen participating founding member nations in the Indo-Pacific region with an open invitation for other countries to join. About Indo Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF): IPEF was launched jointly by the USA and other partner countries of the Indo-Pacific region on May 23, 2022 at Tokyo. IPEF has 14 partner countries including Australia, Brunei, Fiji, India, Indonesia, Japan, Republic of Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam & USA. It seeks to strengthen economic engagement among partner countries with the goal of advancing growth, peace and prosperity in the region. The framework is structured around four pillars relating to Trade (Pillar I); Supply Chains (Pillar II); Clean Economy (Pillar III); and Fair Economy (Pillar IV). Seen by many analysts as an attempt by the U.S. to counter China’s growing influence in the region, the IPEF aims at having a common set of rules and standards around the four pillars. Source: PIB GHOST PARTICLES Syllabus Prelims : Science Context: Recently, astronomers detected 7 potentials ‘ghost particles’ that passed through planet. Background: Scientists using data from the Ice Cube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica believe they have potentially found the first evidence for astrophysical tau neutrinos, called “ghost particles”. About Ghost Particles: “Ghost Particles” is a nickname for neutrinos, which are tiny subatomic particles. They are often called ‘ghost particles’ because they barely interact with anything else. Key points about Neutrinos: Source: Neutrinos come from various sources and are often the product of heavy particles turning into lighter ones, a process called “decay”. Family: They belong to the family of particles known as leptons. There are three main leptons, namely electrons, muons, and tau particles. The last has proven to be especially difficult to observe and detect, earning the moniker of “ghost particle.” Characteristics: A neutrino is very similar to an electron, but has no electrical charge and a very small mass. They are the most common particle in the universe. Approximately 100 trillion neutrinos pass completely harmlessly through our body every second. Detection: They are extraordinarily difficult to detect, as they rarely collide with atoms. Of the four fundamental forces in the universe, neutrinos only interact with two — gravity and the weak force. Variety: They come in different types and can be thought of in terms of flavors, masses, and energies. In recent developments, China is constructing the world’s largest “ghost particle” detector, a massive underwater telescope in the South China Sea, designed to detect neutrinos. The telescope, named Tropical Deep-sea Neutrino Telescope (TRIDENT),is expected to span 7.5 cubic kilometers and be 10,000 times more sensitive than existing underwater telescopes. Source: Frontline RESERVE BANK INTEGRATED OMBUDSMAN SCHEME (RB-IOS) Syllabus Prelims -Economy Context: As per a recent report the number of complaints filed under the Reserve Bank’s ombudsman schemes increased by over 68 per cent to 7.03 lakh in the fiscal 2022-23. Background: The complaints pertained to mobile/electronic banking, loans and advances, ATM/debit cards, credit cards, pension payments, remittances, and para banking, among others. About RESERVE BANK INTEGRATED OMBUDSMAN SCHEME (RB-IOS) The Reserve Bank Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS) was launched on November 12, 2021. This scheme integrates the three erstwhile Ombudsman schemes of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), namely:Banking Ombudsman Scheme 2006, Ombudsman Scheme for Non-Banking Financial Companies 2018,Ombudsman Scheme for Digital Transactions The RB-IOS aims to provide cost-free redress of customer complaints involving ‘deficiency in service’ on the part of entities regulated by the RBI. If these complaints are not resolved to the satisfaction of the customers or not replied to within a period of 30 days by the regulated entity, the scheme steps in. The scheme also includes under its ambit additional Regulated Entities (REs), namely, Non-Scheduled Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks with a deposit size of ₹50 crore and above and Credit Information Companies. The scheme adopts a ‘One Nation One Ombudsman’ approach by making the RBI’s Ombudsman mechanism jurisdiction neutral. Salient Features: Deficiency in Service: The grounds for filing a complaint are defined as “deficiency in service”, with a specified list of exclusions. Centralized Processing: A Centralized Receipt and Processing Centre has been set up at RBI, Chandigarh, for handling physical and email complaints in any language. Principal Nodal Officer: The responsibility of representing the regulated entity and furnishing information lies with the Principal Nodal Officer (ranked as a General Manager in a Public Sector Bank or equivalent). No Right to Appeal: Regulated entities cannot appeal when an Award is issued by the Ombudsman against them for not providing satisfactory and timely information/documents. Appellate Authority: The Executive Director-in-charge of Consumer Education and Protection Department at RBI serves as the Appellate Authority under the scheme. Filing Complaints: Complaints can be filed online on the RBI website. Source: PIB GULF OF TONKIN Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Vietnam asks China to respect Gulf of Tonkin delimitation agreement. Background: Gulf of Tonkin delimitation agreement was signed in 2000 that outlines the borders of territorial seas, exclusive economic zones, and continental shelves in the Gulf of Tonkin. About GULF OF TONKIN: The Gulf of Tonkin, historically marked by cooperative relations between Vietnam and China, now faces a fresh sea dispute due to China’s unilateral expansion of territorial boundaries. The Gulf of Tonkin is a gulf located at the northwestern portion of the South China Sea, off the coasts of Tonkin (northern Vietnam) and South China. It serves as a vital waterway connecting the South China Sea to the Beibu Gulf (known as the Gulf of Tonkin in Vietnam). Source: Times Of India Sustainable & Inclusive Development of Natural Rubber Sector (SIDNRS) Scheme Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: The financial assistance for the Rubber sector under the ‘Sustainable & Inclusive Development of Natural Rubber Sector (SIDNRS)’ has been increased by 23% from Rs 576.41 crore to Rs 708.69 crore for the next 2 financial years (2024-25 and 2025-26). Background: This comes amid a shortfall in availability of natural rubber which has resulted in rising import of natural rubber from countries such as Vietnam, Malaysia and other Southeast Asian nations. Sustainable & Inclusive Development of Natural Rubber Sector (SIDNRS) Scheme: It is an initiative by the Government of India to promote the sustainable and inclusive development of the natural rubber sector in India which was launched in the FY 2017-18. It is implemented by the Rubber Board, a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Objectives: To improve the productivity and quality of natural rubber production. To promote the adoption of sustainable rubber production practices. To improve the income and livelihoods of rubber growers. To create employment opportunities in the rubber sector. To promote the development of the rubber-based industry. Components of the Scheme: Financial assistance is provided to rubber growers for replanting old and uneconomic rubber trees with high-yielding and disease-resistant varieties. Financial assistance was provided to rubber growers for intercropping rubber with other crops such as pineapple, banana, and cocoa. Intercropping helps to improve soil fertility, conserve moisture, and provide additional income to rubber growers. Training and extension services provided to rubber growers on best practices in rubber production, processing, and marketing. Financial assistance was provided for the development of infrastructure facilities such as roads, water harvesting structures, and processing units in rubber-growing areas. Financial assistance was provided for the establishment and expansion of rubber-based industries such as tire manufacturing, footwear manufacturing, and latex processing units. Source: PIB Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) The Gulf of Tonkin is a maritime region located in the northwestern portion of the Black Sea Red Sea South China Sea Arabian Sea Q2.) With reference to Reserve Bank Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS), consider the following statements: RB-IOS aims to provide cost-free redress of customer complaints involving ‘deficiency in service’ on the part of entities regulated by the RBI. RBI Governor serve as the Appellate Authority under the scheme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) Consider the following statements about ‘Ghost Particles’: Ghost Particles are miniscule subatomic particles that hardly interact with anything. They belong to the family of particles known as leptons. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  20th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  19th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

[DAY 15] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 Mohit Biswal 2024/03/20 1:55 PM 40 57.14 % 2 Sumit 2024/03/20 2:36 PM 2 2.86 % 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question With reference to Indian Universities Act of 1904, consider the following statements. It was based on the recommendations made by the Raleigh Commission. Universities were given greater independence from the control of the Governor. The Act increased university control over private colleges. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Lord Curzon appointed a Commission under the presidency of Sir Thomas Raleigh in 1902 to enquire into the condition and prospects of universities in India and to recommend proposals for improving their constitution and working. Indian Universities Act of 1904 was passed based on the recommendations made by the Raleigh Commission. The Governor’s control over the universities was further increased by vesting the Government with powers to veto the regulations passed by the Senate of a university. The Act increased university control over private colleges by laying down stricter conditions of affiliation and periodical inspection by the Syndicate. The private colleges were required to keep a proper standard of efficiency. The Government approval was necessary for grant of affiliation or disaffiliation of colleges. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Lord Curzon appointed a Commission under the presidency of Sir Thomas Raleigh in 1902 to enquire into the condition and prospects of universities in India and to recommend proposals for improving their constitution and working. Indian Universities Act of 1904 was passed based on the recommendations made by the Raleigh Commission. The Governor’s control over the universities was further increased by vesting the Government with powers to veto the regulations passed by the Senate of a university. The Act increased university control over private colleges by laying down stricter conditions of affiliation and periodical inspection by the Syndicate. The private colleges were required to keep a proper standard of efficiency. The Government approval was necessary for grant of affiliation or disaffiliation of colleges. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following statements: As per the Native Marriage Act 1872, the marriage of girls below 14 and boys below 18 was forbidden. Due to the efforts of B. M. Malabari, the Age of Consent Act was passed in 1891, forbade the marriage of girls below the age 12. The Sharda Act, 1929, forbade the marriages of boys below 18 and girls below 14 years of age. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The Native Marriage Act, 1872 was passed at the instance of Keshab Chandra Sen against Child Marriages. As per the Native Marriage Act 1872, the marriage of girls below 14 and boys below 18 was forbidden. The Age of Consent Act 1891 was introduced as a bill by Sir Andrew Scoble on January 9th 1891. It was well supported by Governor General Lansdowne. Due to the efforts of B. M. Malabari, the Age of Consent Act was passed in 1891, forbade the marriage of girls below the age 12. The Sharda Act was named after Rai Sahib Harbilas Sharda on 28th September 1929. The Sharda Act, 1929, forbade the marriages of boys below 18 and girls below 14 years of age. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The Native Marriage Act, 1872 was passed at the instance of Keshab Chandra Sen against Child Marriages. As per the Native Marriage Act 1872, the marriage of girls below 14 and boys below 18 was forbidden. The Age of Consent Act 1891 was introduced as a bill by Sir Andrew Scoble on January 9th 1891. It was well supported by Governor General Lansdowne. Due to the efforts of B. M. Malabari, the Age of Consent Act was passed in 1891, forbade the marriage of girls below the age 12. The Sharda Act was named after Rai Sahib Harbilas Sharda on 28th September 1929. The Sharda Act, 1929, forbade the marriages of boys below 18 and girls below 14 years of age. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 was important with respect to- a) Financial decentralization b) Vernacular education c) Judicial reforms d) Agriculture department Correct Solution (a) Mayo’s Resolution: Mayo’s Resolution initiated financial decentralization which authorized the provincial governments to resort to local taxation to balance their budgets. This was done in context of transfer of certain departments of administration, such as medical services, education and roads. Incorrect Solution (a) Mayo’s Resolution: Mayo’s Resolution initiated financial decentralization which authorized the provincial governments to resort to local taxation to balance their budgets. This was done in context of transfer of certain departments of administration, such as medical services, education and roads. Question 4 of 35 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding ‘Vernacular Press Act’ of 1878: It was introduced by Lord Lytton to suppress the growth of nationalism among the Indians. It banned newspapers in Indian languages. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Lord Lytton designed the Vernacular press act to ban the circulation of nationalist ideas among the masses (who were comfortable in Indian languages rather than English). So, he imposed immense regulations on Indian newspapers printing in vernacular languages. The Vernacular Press Act (VPA) was designed to ‘better control’ the vernacular press and effectively punish and repress seditious writing.   Vernacular Press Act (1878): The Vernacular Press Act (VPA) was designed to better control’ the vernacular press and effectively punish and repress seditious writing. The provisions of the Act included the following: The district magistrate was empowered to call upon the printer and publisher of any vernacular newspaper to enter into a bond with the Government undertaking, not to disaffection against the Government or antipathy between persons of different religions, caste, race through published material; the printer and publisher could also be required to deposit security which could be forfeited if the regulation were contravened, and press equipment could be seized if the offence re-occurred. The magistrate’s action was final and no appeal could be made in a court of law. A vernacular newspaper could get an exemption from the operation of the Act by submitting proofs to a government censor. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Lord Lytton designed the Vernacular press act to ban the circulation of nationalist ideas among the masses (who were comfortable in Indian languages rather than English). So, he imposed immense regulations on Indian newspapers printing in vernacular languages. The Vernacular Press Act (VPA) was designed to ‘better control’ the vernacular press and effectively punish and repress seditious writing.   Vernacular Press Act (1878): The Vernacular Press Act (VPA) was designed to better control’ the vernacular press and effectively punish and repress seditious writing. The provisions of the Act included the following: The district magistrate was empowered to call upon the printer and publisher of any vernacular newspaper to enter into a bond with the Government undertaking, not to disaffection against the Government or antipathy between persons of different religions, caste, race through published material; the printer and publisher could also be required to deposit security which could be forfeited if the regulation were contravened, and press equipment could be seized if the offence re-occurred. The magistrate’s action was final and no appeal could be made in a court of law. A vernacular newspaper could get an exemption from the operation of the Act by submitting proofs to a government censor. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding Swadeshi Movement: Swadeshi and boycott movement was supported across India by the Congress session at Benaras in 1905. Swadeshi steam navigation company was founded by VOC Pillai. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The Swadeshi and boycott movement was supported by the Congress session at Benaras in 1905 and at the Calcutta session in 1906. In 1905, in the Benaras session of the Congress, was presided by Gopal Krishna Gokhale who supported the Swadeshi and Boycott Movements to Bengal region only. VOC Pillai, a nationalist leader from Tamil Nadu founded the Swadeshi steam navigation company. Valliyappan Olaganathan Chidambaram Pillai, also known as Kappalottiya Tamizhan, was an Indian freedom fighter and former leader of the Indian National Congress. He founded the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company in 1906 to compete against the monopoly of the British India Steam Navigation Company. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The Swadeshi and boycott movement was supported by the Congress session at Benaras in 1905 and at the Calcutta session in 1906. In 1905, in the Benaras session of the Congress, was presided by Gopal Krishna Gokhale who supported the Swadeshi and Boycott Movements to Bengal region only. VOC Pillai, a nationalist leader from Tamil Nadu founded the Swadeshi steam navigation company. Valliyappan Olaganathan Chidambaram Pillai, also known as Kappalottiya Tamizhan, was an Indian freedom fighter and former leader of the Indian National Congress. He founded the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company in 1906 to compete against the monopoly of the British India Steam Navigation Company. Question 6 of 35 6. Question With reference to Swadeshi movement, consider the following statements: In this movement, a great emphasis was given to self-reliance or ‘Atmashakti’. The movement failed to garner the support of the Muslims masses. There were no incidents of communal violence during the swadeshi movement. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect An important aspect of the Swadeshi Movement was the great emphasis given to self-reliance or ‘Atmashakti’ as a necessary part of the struggle against the Government. Self-reliance in various fields meant the re-asserting of national dignity, honor and confidence. Further, self-help and constructive work at the village level was envisaged as a means of bringing about the social and economic regeneration of the villages and of reaching the rural masses. In August 1906, the National Council of Education was established to organize a system of Education Literary; Scientific and Technical on National lines and under National control from the primary to the university level. The social base of the national movements now extended to include a certain zamindari section, the lower middle class in the cities and small towns and school and college students on a massive scale. Women came out of their homes for the first time and joined processions and picketing. The main drawback of the Swadeshi Movement was that it was not able to garner the support of the mass of Muslims and especially of the Muslim peasantry. Use of religious festivals and texts had alienated the Muslims and failed to attract the lower caste peasants. In Bengal, people like Nawab Salimullah of Dacca were propped up as centers of opposition to the Swadeshi Movement. Mullahs and maulvis were pressed into service and, unsurprisingly, at the height of the Swadeshi Movement communal riots broke out in Bengal.   Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect An important aspect of the Swadeshi Movement was the great emphasis given to self-reliance or ‘Atmashakti’ as a necessary part of the struggle against the Government. Self-reliance in various fields meant the re-asserting of national dignity, honor and confidence. Further, self-help and constructive work at the village level was envisaged as a means of bringing about the social and economic regeneration of the villages and of reaching the rural masses. In August 1906, the National Council of Education was established to organize a system of Education Literary; Scientific and Technical on National lines and under National control from the primary to the university level. The social base of the national movements now extended to include a certain zamindari section, the lower middle class in the cities and small towns and school and college students on a massive scale. Women came out of their homes for the first time and joined processions and picketing. The main drawback of the Swadeshi Movement was that it was not able to garner the support of the mass of Muslims and especially of the Muslim peasantry. Use of religious festivals and texts had alienated the Muslims and failed to attract the lower caste peasants. In Bengal, people like Nawab Salimullah of Dacca were propped up as centers of opposition to the Swadeshi Movement. Mullahs and maulvis were pressed into service and, unsurprisingly, at the height of the Swadeshi Movement communal riots broke out in Bengal.   Question 7 of 35 7. Question Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Delhi Durbar of 1911? It was held to commemorate the coronation of Queen Victoria. Delhi was declared as the new capital of India. The partition of Bengal was annulled and Bihar, Orrisa and Assam provinces were formed. Congress supported the Durbar. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Delhi Durbar 1911 Darbar was held to commemorate the coronation of King George V and Queen Mary as Emperor and Empress of India. The Darbar brought back the pomp and show of the Mughals once again in Delhi. The King and the Queen attired in the coronation robes with thousands of diamonds and precious gems appeared in the Jharokha of the red fort to give Darshan to 5 Lakh Indian people who gathered to greet the sovereign couple. The Congress passed a resolution condemning the pomp and show of this Darbar at the cost of the poor Indians. In this Darbar, the King declared that Capital of India will be transferred from Calcutta to Delhi. It was also declared the Partition of Bengal is cancelled. East and West Bengal were joined and new provinces of Bihar, Orissa and Assam were formed. Do you know? There were three Delhi Durbars – 1877, 1903 and 1911. Incorrect Solution (b) Delhi Durbar 1911 Darbar was held to commemorate the coronation of King George V and Queen Mary as Emperor and Empress of India. The Darbar brought back the pomp and show of the Mughals once again in Delhi. The King and the Queen attired in the coronation robes with thousands of diamonds and precious gems appeared in the Jharokha of the red fort to give Darshan to 5 Lakh Indian people who gathered to greet the sovereign couple. The Congress passed a resolution condemning the pomp and show of this Darbar at the cost of the poor Indians. In this Darbar, the King declared that Capital of India will be transferred from Calcutta to Delhi. It was also declared the Partition of Bengal is cancelled. East and West Bengal were joined and new provinces of Bihar, Orissa and Assam were formed. Do you know? There were three Delhi Durbars – 1877, 1903 and 1911. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Which of the following statements are true about the Lucknow congress session 1916? It was presided over by the Ambica Charan Majumdar Readmitted the moderates led by Tilak to the Congress fold. The Congress did not accept the Muslim League’s position on separate electorates. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) The 31st Session of the Congress was held at Lucknow in 1916. It was presided over by the Ambica Charan Majumdar who was a prominent lawyer and was actively associated with the Congress since its birth, finally readmitted the Extremists led by Tilak to the Congress fold. After a lapse of about 10 years both the Moderates and Extremists were united again which was a good sign for the national movement. In his address the President declared ‘If the United Congress was buried at Surat it is reborn at Lucknow in the garden of Wajid Ali Shah. After nearly 10 years of painful separation and wanderings through the wilderness of misunderstandings the brother had at first met brothers’. In this session the Congress and the Muslim League came closer to each other and they signed the historic Lucknow Pact. While the League agreed to present joint constitutional demands with the Congress to the Government, the Congress accepted the Muslim League’s position on separate electorates. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a leader of extremists. Do you know? Despite being a controversial decision (Lucknow Pact), the acceptance of the principle of separate electorates represented a serious desire to allay minority fears of majority domination. There was a large amount of enthusiasm generated among the people by this reunion. Even the Government decided to placate the nationalists by declaring its intention to grant self-government to Indians, as contained in Montagu’s August 1917 declaration. Incorrect Solution (a) The 31st Session of the Congress was held at Lucknow in 1916. It was presided over by the Ambica Charan Majumdar who was a prominent lawyer and was actively associated with the Congress since its birth, finally readmitted the Extremists led by Tilak to the Congress fold. After a lapse of about 10 years both the Moderates and Extremists were united again which was a good sign for the national movement. In his address the President declared ‘If the United Congress was buried at Surat it is reborn at Lucknow in the garden of Wajid Ali Shah. After nearly 10 years of painful separation and wanderings through the wilderness of misunderstandings the brother had at first met brothers’. In this session the Congress and the Muslim League came closer to each other and they signed the historic Lucknow Pact. While the League agreed to present joint constitutional demands with the Congress to the Government, the Congress accepted the Muslim League’s position on separate electorates. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a leader of extremists. Do you know? Despite being a controversial decision (Lucknow Pact), the acceptance of the principle of separate electorates represented a serious desire to allay minority fears of majority domination. There was a large amount of enthusiasm generated among the people by this reunion. Even the Government decided to placate the nationalists by declaring its intention to grant self-government to Indians, as contained in Montagu’s August 1917 declaration. Question 9 of 35 9. Question “This, no doubt, will inspire many with hatred against the people belonging to the party of rebels. It is not possible to cause British rule disappear from the country by such monstrous deeds. But rulers who exercise unrestricted power must always remember that there is limit to the patience of humanity”. In the given passage, the author is describing an incident within a specific context of? a) Bomb thrown up by Bengal revolutionaries’ muzzafarpur. b) Killing of district magistrate of Nasik, Jackson. c) The Ghaddar movement. d) None of the above. Correct Solution (a) Tilak, the main Extremist leader, was tried in 1909 for sedition for what he had written in 1908 in his Kesari about a bomb thrown by Bengal revolutionaries in Muzaffarpur, resulting in the death of two innocent European women. Tilak had written: “This, no doubt, will inspire many with hatred against the people belonging to the party of rebels. It is not possible to cause British rule to disappear from this country by such monstrous deeds. But rulers who exercise unrestricted power must always remember that there is also a limit to the patience of humanity many newspapers had warned the government that if they resorted to Russian methods, then Indians too will be compelled to imitate the Russian methods.” In another article, Tilak wrote that the real means of stopping the bombs consisted in making a beginning towards the grant of rights of ‘Swarajya’ to the people. Tilak was again arrested; judged guilty, and sentenced to six years ‘transportation and a fine of Rs 1,000. He was sent to Mandalay (Burma) jail for six years. (Hence option (a) is correct) In 1899, Savarkar and his brother established a clandestine organization called Mitra Mela, which later merged with Abhinav Bharat in 1904, drawing inspiration from Mazzini’s ‘Young Italy’ movement. This union led to the emergence of Nasik, Poona, and Bombay as hubs for the production of explosives. In 1909, Anant Lakshman Kanhere, a member of Abhinav Bharat, assassinated A.M.T. Jackson, the well-known indologist and Collector of Nasik. In North America, the Ghadr was organized by Lala Hardayal, Ramchandra, Bhawan Singh, Kartar Singh Saraba, Barkatullah, Bhai Parmanand. The Ghadr Programme Assassinate officials Publish revolutionary literature work among Indian troops abroad and raise funds bring about a simultaneous revolt in all colonies of Britain. Attempt to bring about an armed revolt in India on February21, 1915 amidst favourable conditions created by the outbreak of First World War and the Komagata Maru incident (September1914). The plan was foiled due to treachery. Defence of India Act, 1915 passed primarily to deal with the Ghadrites. Incorrect Solution (a) Tilak, the main Extremist leader, was tried in 1909 for sedition for what he had written in 1908 in his Kesari about a bomb thrown by Bengal revolutionaries in Muzaffarpur, resulting in the death of two innocent European women. Tilak had written: “This, no doubt, will inspire many with hatred against the people belonging to the party of rebels. It is not possible to cause British rule to disappear from this country by such monstrous deeds. But rulers who exercise unrestricted power must always remember that there is also a limit to the patience of humanity many newspapers had warned the government that if they resorted to Russian methods, then Indians too will be compelled to imitate the Russian methods.” In another article, Tilak wrote that the real means of stopping the bombs consisted in making a beginning towards the grant of rights of ‘Swarajya’ to the people. Tilak was again arrested; judged guilty, and sentenced to six years ‘transportation and a fine of Rs 1,000. He was sent to Mandalay (Burma) jail for six years. (Hence option (a) is correct) In 1899, Savarkar and his brother established a clandestine organization called Mitra Mela, which later merged with Abhinav Bharat in 1904, drawing inspiration from Mazzini’s ‘Young Italy’ movement. This union led to the emergence of Nasik, Poona, and Bombay as hubs for the production of explosives. In 1909, Anant Lakshman Kanhere, a member of Abhinav Bharat, assassinated A.M.T. Jackson, the well-known indologist and Collector of Nasik. In North America, the Ghadr was organized by Lala Hardayal, Ramchandra, Bhawan Singh, Kartar Singh Saraba, Barkatullah, Bhai Parmanand. The Ghadr Programme Assassinate officials Publish revolutionary literature work among Indian troops abroad and raise funds bring about a simultaneous revolt in all colonies of Britain. Attempt to bring about an armed revolt in India on February21, 1915 amidst favourable conditions created by the outbreak of First World War and the Komagata Maru incident (September1914). The plan was foiled due to treachery. Defence of India Act, 1915 passed primarily to deal with the Ghadrites. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Consider the following: Calcutta Corporations act. Partition of Bengal Act. Ancient Monuments Preservation Act. Indian universities Act. How many of these were enacted during the period of Curzon? a) Only one Act b) Only two Acts c) Only three Acts d) All four Acts Correct Solution (d) Lord Curzon’s tenure (1899-1905): Appointment of Police Commission (1902) – Lord Curzon appointed the Police Commission, led by Sir Andrew Frazer, to conduct a comprehensive review of police administration in India. Appointment of Universities Commission (1902) – Another significant step was the establishment of the Universities Commission in 1902, which led to the passing of the Indian Universities Act in 1904. This act aimed to reform and modernizes the Indian university system. (Hence 4 is correct) Establishment of Department of Commerce and Industry – Lord Curzon set up the Department of Commerce and Industry to promote economic development and trade within India. Calcutta Corporation Act (1899) – Lord Curzon introduced the Calcutta Corporation Act in 1899, which brought about administrative reforms in the governance of Calcutta (now Kolkata) and aimed to improve the city’s infrastructure and services. (Hence 1 is correct) Ancient Monuments Preservation Act (1904) – To safeguard India’s rich cultural heritage, Lord Curzon enacted the Ancient Monuments Preservation Act in 1904. This legislation aimed to protect and preserve historically significant monuments and sites across the country. (Hence 3 is correct) Partition of Bengal (1905) – One of the most controversial and significant events during Lord Curzon’s tenure were the partition of Bengal in 1905. The decision to divide Bengal was met with widespread protests and opposition, primarily from the Indian National Congress and Bengali intellectuals. (Hence 2 is correct) Curzon-Kitchener controversy – Lord Curzon had a contentious relationship with Field Marshal Lord Kitchener, particularly regarding military policies and reforms. This led to disagreements and controversies between the two influential figures during Curzon’s administration. Young husband’s Mission to Tibet (1904) – In 1904, Lord Curzon dispatched an expedition led by Colonel Francis Young husband to Tibet. The mission aimed to establish British influence in the region and resolve the growing tensions between the British and Tibetan authorities. Incorrect Solution (d) Lord Curzon’s tenure (1899-1905): Appointment of Police Commission (1902) – Lord Curzon appointed the Police Commission, led by Sir Andrew Frazer, to conduct a comprehensive review of police administration in India. Appointment of Universities Commission (1902) – Another significant step was the establishment of the Universities Commission in 1902, which led to the passing of the Indian Universities Act in 1904. This act aimed to reform and modernizes the Indian university system. (Hence 4 is correct) Establishment of Department of Commerce and Industry – Lord Curzon set up the Department of Commerce and Industry to promote economic development and trade within India. Calcutta Corporation Act (1899) – Lord Curzon introduced the Calcutta Corporation Act in 1899, which brought about administrative reforms in the governance of Calcutta (now Kolkata) and aimed to improve the city’s infrastructure and services. (Hence 1 is correct) Ancient Monuments Preservation Act (1904) – To safeguard India’s rich cultural heritage, Lord Curzon enacted the Ancient Monuments Preservation Act in 1904. This legislation aimed to protect and preserve historically significant monuments and sites across the country. (Hence 3 is correct) Partition of Bengal (1905) – One of the most controversial and significant events during Lord Curzon’s tenure were the partition of Bengal in 1905. The decision to divide Bengal was met with widespread protests and opposition, primarily from the Indian National Congress and Bengali intellectuals. (Hence 2 is correct) Curzon-Kitchener controversy – Lord Curzon had a contentious relationship with Field Marshal Lord Kitchener, particularly regarding military policies and reforms. This led to disagreements and controversies between the two influential figures during Curzon’s administration. Young husband’s Mission to Tibet (1904) – In 1904, Lord Curzon dispatched an expedition led by Colonel Francis Young husband to Tibet. The mission aimed to establish British influence in the region and resolve the growing tensions between the British and Tibetan authorities. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Zimmerman plan is associated with which of the following? a) Anushilan Samiti. b) Jugantar Party. c) Home Rule Movement. d) None of the above. Correct Solution (b) During the First World War, the Jugantar party made arrangements to smuggle German arms and ammunition into India through sympathizers and revolutionaries abroad. (Hence option (b) is correct) Jatin, the leader of Jugantar, assigned Rashbehari Bose the responsibility of organizing activities in Upper India as part of the “German Plot” or “Zimmerman Plan,” with the aim of inciting a nationwide insurrection. To finance their activities, the Jugantar party conducted a series of dacoities, known as taxicab dacoities and boat dacoities, as part of the Indo-German conspiracy. The plan involved organizing a guerrilla force to initiate an uprising in the country, including the seizure of Fort William and a mutiny by armed forces. Unfortunately, the plot was betrayed by a traitor, and the police became aware that Bagha Jatin was waiting in Balasore for the delivery of German arms. The police located Jatin and his associates, leading to a gunfight where the revolutionaries were either killed or arrested. The German plot ultimately failed due to the events that unfolded. Bagha Jatin, a heroic figure, was shot and died in Balasore on the Orissa coast in September 1915. The resounding call of Bagha Jatin was, “We shall die to awaken the nation,” reflecting his unwavering dedication to the cause. Incorrect Solution (b) During the First World War, the Jugantar party made arrangements to smuggle German arms and ammunition into India through sympathizers and revolutionaries abroad. (Hence option (b) is correct) Jatin, the leader of Jugantar, assigned Rashbehari Bose the responsibility of organizing activities in Upper India as part of the “German Plot” or “Zimmerman Plan,” with the aim of inciting a nationwide insurrection. To finance their activities, the Jugantar party conducted a series of dacoities, known as taxicab dacoities and boat dacoities, as part of the Indo-German conspiracy. The plan involved organizing a guerrilla force to initiate an uprising in the country, including the seizure of Fort William and a mutiny by armed forces. Unfortunately, the plot was betrayed by a traitor, and the police became aware that Bagha Jatin was waiting in Balasore for the delivery of German arms. The police located Jatin and his associates, leading to a gunfight where the revolutionaries were either killed or arrested. The German plot ultimately failed due to the events that unfolded. Bagha Jatin, a heroic figure, was shot and died in Balasore on the Orissa coast in September 1915. The resounding call of Bagha Jatin was, “We shall die to awaken the nation,” reflecting his unwavering dedication to the cause. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following statements with respect to First World War: The Moderates felt obligated to support the British Empire during the war. The Extremists, including Tilak backed the war efforts, mistakenly thinking that Britain would reward India’s loyalty with self-government as a gesture of appreciation. The revolutionaries opted to seize the opportunity to wage a war against British rule and free the nation. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) During the First World War (1914–19), the British Empire formed an alliance with France, Russia, the United States, Italy, and Japan against Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Turkey. This period witnessed the growth and development of Indian nationalism, which responded to British participation in the war in three different ways: The Moderates, who were a faction within the Indian nationalist movement, believed it was their duty to support the British Empire in the war. They saw it as a matter of loyalty and obligation to the ruling power. (Hence statement 1 is correct) The Extremists, including prominent leader Tilak, who had been released from imprisonment in June 1914, also supported the war efforts. However, their support was based on a mistaken belief that India’s loyalty and contribution to the war would be recognized by Britain and that in return, India would be granted self-government as a gesture of gratitude. (Hence statement 2 is correct) The revolutionaries, on the other hand, viewed the war as an opportunity to wage a direct war against British rule and liberate their country. They saw the chaos and disruption caused by the global conflict as a chance to challenge and overthrow the British colonial authorities. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Unfortunately, the Indian supporters of British war efforts failed to perceive the true motives of the imperialist powers involved in the conflict. They were unaware that the imperialist countries were primarily fighting to safeguard their own colonies and markets, rather than seeking to grant independence or self-government to their colonies. The nationalist hopes for self-rule as a reward for their loyalty during the war went unfulfilled, leading to further disillusionment and discontent among the Indian nationalist movement. Incorrect Solution (c) During the First World War (1914–19), the British Empire formed an alliance with France, Russia, the United States, Italy, and Japan against Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Turkey. This period witnessed the growth and development of Indian nationalism, which responded to British participation in the war in three different ways: The Moderates, who were a faction within the Indian nationalist movement, believed it was their duty to support the British Empire in the war. They saw it as a matter of loyalty and obligation to the ruling power. (Hence statement 1 is correct) The Extremists, including prominent leader Tilak, who had been released from imprisonment in June 1914, also supported the war efforts. However, their support was based on a mistaken belief that India’s loyalty and contribution to the war would be recognized by Britain and that in return, India would be granted self-government as a gesture of gratitude. (Hence statement 2 is correct) The revolutionaries, on the other hand, viewed the war as an opportunity to wage a direct war against British rule and liberate their country. They saw the chaos and disruption caused by the global conflict as a chance to challenge and overthrow the British colonial authorities. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Unfortunately, the Indian supporters of British war efforts failed to perceive the true motives of the imperialist powers involved in the conflict. They were unaware that the imperialist countries were primarily fighting to safeguard their own colonies and markets, rather than seeking to grant independence or self-government to their colonies. The nationalist hopes for self-rule as a reward for their loyalty during the war went unfulfilled, leading to further disillusionment and discontent among the Indian nationalist movement. Question 13 of 35 13. Question With reference to the Congress session that led to Surat Split in 1907, consider the following statements: Due to Tilak’s association with Nagpur, the Moderates favored Surat as the location for the session. The Moderates aimed to reiterate resolutions regarding swadeshi, boycott, and national education at the Congress session. The uncompromising stance of both Extremists and Moderates resulted in an inevitable division within the Congress. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Extremist Demand for Nagpur Session: The Extremist faction within the Congress wanted the 1907 session to be held in Nagpur, located in the Central Provinces. They also proposed that either Bal Gangadhar Tilak or Lajpat Rai should serve as the session’s president. Additionally, they sought to reaffirm resolutions regarding swadeshi (domestic production and boycott of foreign goods), boycott, and national education. Moderate Preference for Surat Session: The Moderate faction, on the other hand, favored Surat as the venue for the session. Their intention was to prevent Tilak from assuming the presidency, as per the convention that a leader from the host province could not hold that position. Since Surat was located in Tilak’s home province of Bombay, the Moderates aimed to exclude him. They advocated for Rashbehari Ghosh to be the session’s president and aimed to eliminate the resolutions on swadeshi, boycott, and national education. (Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect) Irreconcilable Positions: Both the Extremists and Moderates took inflexible positions, refusing to compromise. This lack of flexibility and willingness to find common ground made a split within the Congress inevitable. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Dominance of the Moderates: As a result of the split, the Congress became predominantly controlled by the Moderate faction. They wasted no time in restating the Congress’ commitment to achieving self-government within the British Empire and emphasized their dedication to employing constitutional methods alone to accomplish this objective. Congress Split at Surat: The Congress split occurred in December 1907 at the Surat session, marked by the irreconcilable differences between the Extremists and Moderates regarding session venue, presidential candidacy, and the retention of certain resolutions. Incorrect Solution (b) Extremist Demand for Nagpur Session: The Extremist faction within the Congress wanted the 1907 session to be held in Nagpur, located in the Central Provinces. They also proposed that either Bal Gangadhar Tilak or Lajpat Rai should serve as the session’s president. Additionally, they sought to reaffirm resolutions regarding swadeshi (domestic production and boycott of foreign goods), boycott, and national education. Moderate Preference for Surat Session: The Moderate faction, on the other hand, favored Surat as the venue for the session. Their intention was to prevent Tilak from assuming the presidency, as per the convention that a leader from the host province could not hold that position. Since Surat was located in Tilak’s home province of Bombay, the Moderates aimed to exclude him. They advocated for Rashbehari Ghosh to be the session’s president and aimed to eliminate the resolutions on swadeshi, boycott, and national education. (Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect) Irreconcilable Positions: Both the Extremists and Moderates took inflexible positions, refusing to compromise. This lack of flexibility and willingness to find common ground made a split within the Congress inevitable. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Dominance of the Moderates: As a result of the split, the Congress became predominantly controlled by the Moderate faction. They wasted no time in restating the Congress’ commitment to achieving self-government within the British Empire and emphasized their dedication to employing constitutional methods alone to accomplish this objective. Congress Split at Surat: The Congress split occurred in December 1907 at the Surat session, marked by the irreconcilable differences between the Extremists and Moderates regarding session venue, presidential candidacy, and the retention of certain resolutions. Question 14 of 35 14. Question With reference to the Justice party, consider the following statements: The Justice Party or South Indian Liberal Federation was a political party in Madras presidency. The party’s establishment was a result of a series of non-Brahmin conferences and meetings held in the presidency. The formation of the Justice Party is considered a significant event that marked the beginning of the Dravidian movement. How many of the above given statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (d) The Justice Party, also known as the South Indian Liberal Federation, was a political party in the Madras presidency. (Hence statement 1 is correct) It was founded on November 20, 1916, in Madras by Dr. C Natesa Mudaliar and co-founded by T.M Nair, P Tyagaraya Chetty, and Alamelu Manga Tayarammal. The party’s establishment was a result of a series of non-Brahmin conferences and meetings held in the presidency. (Hence statement 2 is correct) During the late 19th and early 20th century, a communal division between Brahmins and non-Brahmins emerged in the Madras presidency. This division was primarily caused by caste prejudices and the disproportionate representation of Brahmins in government jobs. The foundation of the Justice Party was the culmination of various efforts to create an organization that would represent the interests of the non-Brahmin community in Madras. The formation of the Justice Party is considered a significant event that marked the beginning of the Dravidian movement. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Incorrect Solution (d) The Justice Party, also known as the South Indian Liberal Federation, was a political party in the Madras presidency. (Hence statement 1 is correct) It was founded on November 20, 1916, in Madras by Dr. C Natesa Mudaliar and co-founded by T.M Nair, P Tyagaraya Chetty, and Alamelu Manga Tayarammal. The party’s establishment was a result of a series of non-Brahmin conferences and meetings held in the presidency. (Hence statement 2 is correct) During the late 19th and early 20th century, a communal division between Brahmins and non-Brahmins emerged in the Madras presidency. This division was primarily caused by caste prejudices and the disproportionate representation of Brahmins in government jobs. The foundation of the Justice Party was the culmination of various efforts to create an organization that would represent the interests of the non-Brahmin community in Madras. The formation of the Justice Party is considered a significant event that marked the beginning of the Dravidian movement. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Question 15 of 35 15. Question With reference to the Servants of India Society, consider the following statements: It was founded in 1905 by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, with assistance from Chittaranjan Das. The aim of the society was to promote the genuine interests of the Indian people through constitutional means and cultivate selfless individuals dedicated to the country’s cause. The newspaper Hitavada played a crucial role in projecting and advocating the society’s views, engaging with societal issues. How many of the above given statements is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Servants of India Society Establishment and Objectives: The Servants of India Society was founded in 1905 by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, a prominent liberal leader associated with the Indian National Congress. He received assistance from M.G. Ranade in setting up the society. The primary goal of this organization was to train national missionaries who would dedicate themselves to serving India. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) They aimed to promote the true interests of the Indian people through constitutional means and prepare a group of selfless workers who would religiously devote their lives to the country’s cause. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Publication of Hitavada: In 1911, the society initiated the publication of a newspaper called This newspaper served as a platform to present and advocate the views of the society to a wider audience. It played a significant role in projecting the society’s perspectives and engaging with societal issues. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Apathy towards Political Activities: The Servants of India Society consciously chose to distance itself from direct involvement in political activities and organizations like the Indian National Congress. While they aimed to promote the welfare and interests of the Indian people, they pursued their objectives through non-political means. This decision set the society apart from the more overtly political movements of the time. Leadership Transition: After the demise of Gopal Krishna Gokhale in 1915, Srinivasa Shastri assumed the role of the society’s president. Under his leadership, the society continued its work and activities. Despite a diminished influence compared to its earlier years, the society has continued to operate in various parts of India. Educational Initiatives: The Servants of India Society has remained active, although its reach has decreased over time. One of its significant areas of work has been in the field of education. The society has established ashram-style schools for tribal girls and balwadis (pre-school centers) in multiple locations. By focusing on education, particularly for marginalized communities, the society strives to contribute to the upliftment and betterment of society. Incorrect Solution (b) The Servants of India Society Establishment and Objectives: The Servants of India Society was founded in 1905 by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, a prominent liberal leader associated with the Indian National Congress. He received assistance from M.G. Ranade in setting up the society. The primary goal of this organization was to train national missionaries who would dedicate themselves to serving India. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) They aimed to promote the true interests of the Indian people through constitutional means and prepare a group of selfless workers who would religiously devote their lives to the country’s cause. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Publication of Hitavada: In 1911, the society initiated the publication of a newspaper called This newspaper served as a platform to present and advocate the views of the society to a wider audience. It played a significant role in projecting the society’s perspectives and engaging with societal issues. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Apathy towards Political Activities: The Servants of India Society consciously chose to distance itself from direct involvement in political activities and organizations like the Indian National Congress. While they aimed to promote the welfare and interests of the Indian people, they pursued their objectives through non-political means. This decision set the society apart from the more overtly political movements of the time. Leadership Transition: After the demise of Gopal Krishna Gokhale in 1915, Srinivasa Shastri assumed the role of the society’s president. Under his leadership, the society continued its work and activities. Despite a diminished influence compared to its earlier years, the society has continued to operate in various parts of India. Educational Initiatives: The Servants of India Society has remained active, although its reach has decreased over time. One of its significant areas of work has been in the field of education. The society has established ashram-style schools for tribal girls and balwadis (pre-school centers) in multiple locations. By focusing on education, particularly for marginalized communities, the society strives to contribute to the upliftment and betterment of society. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements regarding the partition of Bengal: The official reason cited was that Bengal had outgrown manageable proportions, necessitating its division for the benefit of Assam’s development. Bengal was partitioned into East Bengal with Calcutta as its capital, and West Bengal with Dacca as its capital. The government’s actions indicated its strategy of supporting Muslim communalists to counter the Congress and the national movement. How many of the above given statements is/are incorrect? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) The Swadeshi Movement originated as a response to the British decision to partition Bengal. The British government publicly announced the partition of Bengal in December 1903. The partition aimed to create two provinces: Bengal, consisting of Western Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa, and Eastern Bengal and Assam. Calcutta remained the capital of West Bengal, while Dacca became the capital of Eastern Bengal. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) The official reason provided for the partition was that Bengal, with its population of 78 million (about a quarter of British India’s population), had become too large to administer effectively. It was also argued that the partition would aid in the development of Assam under direct government control. (Hence statement 1 is correct) However, the true motive behind the partition plan was believed to be the British desire to weaken Bengal, which was seen as the center of Indian nationalism. The British aimed to achieve this by dividing the Bengalis into two administrations based on language and religion. Linguistically, the partition would reduce Bengalis to a minority in Bengal itself, with Bengal proper having 17 million Bengalis and 37 million Hindi and Oriya speakers. Religiously, the western half of Bengal would have a Hindu majority (42 million out of a total of 54 million), while the eastern half would have a Muslim majority (18 million out of a total of 31 million). Lord Curzon, the viceroy at the time, tried to win over the Muslims by suggesting that Dacca could become the capital of the new Muslim-majority province. Curzon argued that this would provide Muslims with a sense of unity similar to the days of old Muslim rulers. The government’s actions indicated its strategy of supporting Muslim communalists to counter the Congress and the national movement. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Incorrect Solution (a) The Swadeshi Movement originated as a response to the British decision to partition Bengal. The British government publicly announced the partition of Bengal in December 1903. The partition aimed to create two provinces: Bengal, consisting of Western Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa, and Eastern Bengal and Assam. Calcutta remained the capital of West Bengal, while Dacca became the capital of Eastern Bengal. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) The official reason provided for the partition was that Bengal, with its population of 78 million (about a quarter of British India’s population), had become too large to administer effectively. It was also argued that the partition would aid in the development of Assam under direct government control. (Hence statement 1 is correct) However, the true motive behind the partition plan was believed to be the British desire to weaken Bengal, which was seen as the center of Indian nationalism. The British aimed to achieve this by dividing the Bengalis into two administrations based on language and religion. Linguistically, the partition would reduce Bengalis to a minority in Bengal itself, with Bengal proper having 17 million Bengalis and 37 million Hindi and Oriya speakers. Religiously, the western half of Bengal would have a Hindu majority (42 million out of a total of 54 million), while the eastern half would have a Muslim majority (18 million out of a total of 31 million). Lord Curzon, the viceroy at the time, tried to win over the Muslims by suggesting that Dacca could become the capital of the new Muslim-majority province. Curzon argued that this would provide Muslims with a sense of unity similar to the days of old Muslim rulers. The government’s actions indicated its strategy of supporting Muslim communalists to counter the Congress and the national movement. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following statements with respect to the Alipore conspiracy case: It is a notable bomb attack occurred during Viceroy Hardinge’s official entry into Delhi. The entire Anushilan group, including Aurobindo and Barindra Ghosh, was arrested and tried in the Alipore conspiracy case. While in jail, Narendra Gosain, who had become an approver and Crown witness, was murdered by his fellow co-accused Satyendranath Bose and Kanailal Dutta during the trial. How many of the above given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Alipore conspiracy case The entire Anushilan group, including the Ghosh brothers Aurobindo and Barindra, was arrested and faced trial in the Alipore conspiracy case, also known as the Manicktolla Bomb conspiracy or Muraripukur conspiracy. (Hence statement 2 is correct) The Ghosh brothers were charged with “Conspiracy” or “waging war against the King,” which was considered equivalent to high treason and punishable by hanging. Chittaranjan Das defended Aurobindo during the trial, and Aurobindo was eventually acquitted due to the judge finding the evidence against him weak. Barindra Ghosh, the head of the secret society of revolutionaries, and Ullaskar Dutt, the bomb-maker, initially received the death penalty, but it was later commuted to life imprisonment. During the trial, Narendra Gosain, who turned approver and Crown witness, was killed by two co-accused, Satyendranath Bose and Kanailal Dutta, while in jail. (Hence statement 3 is correct) In subsequent incidents, a public prosecutor and a deputy superintendent of police were assassinated in Calcutta in February 1909 and February 1910, respectively. The Barrah dacoity in 1908, organized by Dacca Anushilan under Pulin Das, aimed to raise funds for revolutionary activities. Rashbehari Bose and Sachin Sanyal carried out a bomb attack on Viceroy Hardinge during his official entry into the new capital of Delhi in December 1912, injuring but not killing him. The Delhi Conspiracy trial followed the assassination attempt, resulting in the conviction and execution of Basant Kumar Biswas, Amir Chand, and Avadh Behari. Rashbehari Bose, believed to be the mastermind behind the plan, managed to escape arrest by disguising himself. The western Anushilan Samiti gained a strong leader in Jatindranath Mukherjee, also known as Bagha Jatin, and transformed into the Jugantar or Yugantar. Jatindranath Mukherjee revitalized connections between the central organization in Calcutta and other regions in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa. During Viceroy Hardinge’s official entry into Delhi, a notable bomb attack took place in Chandni Chowk. The incident involved revolutionaries Rashbehari Bose and Sachin Sanyal. While the attack targeted Viceroy Hardinge, it resulted in his injury rather than his death. The Chandni Chowk bomb attack occurred in December 1912 and was a significant event within the context of the revolutionary activities of that time. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) Incorrect Solution (b) Alipore conspiracy case The entire Anushilan group, including the Ghosh brothers Aurobindo and Barindra, was arrested and faced trial in the Alipore conspiracy case, also known as the Manicktolla Bomb conspiracy or Muraripukur conspiracy. (Hence statement 2 is correct) The Ghosh brothers were charged with “Conspiracy” or “waging war against the King,” which was considered equivalent to high treason and punishable by hanging. Chittaranjan Das defended Aurobindo during the trial, and Aurobindo was eventually acquitted due to the judge finding the evidence against him weak. Barindra Ghosh, the head of the secret society of revolutionaries, and Ullaskar Dutt, the bomb-maker, initially received the death penalty, but it was later commuted to life imprisonment. During the trial, Narendra Gosain, who turned approver and Crown witness, was killed by two co-accused, Satyendranath Bose and Kanailal Dutta, while in jail. (Hence statement 3 is correct) In subsequent incidents, a public prosecutor and a deputy superintendent of police were assassinated in Calcutta in February 1909 and February 1910, respectively. The Barrah dacoity in 1908, organized by Dacca Anushilan under Pulin Das, aimed to raise funds for revolutionary activities. Rashbehari Bose and Sachin Sanyal carried out a bomb attack on Viceroy Hardinge during his official entry into the new capital of Delhi in December 1912, injuring but not killing him. The Delhi Conspiracy trial followed the assassination attempt, resulting in the conviction and execution of Basant Kumar Biswas, Amir Chand, and Avadh Behari. Rashbehari Bose, believed to be the mastermind behind the plan, managed to escape arrest by disguising himself. The western Anushilan Samiti gained a strong leader in Jatindranath Mukherjee, also known as Bagha Jatin, and transformed into the Jugantar or Yugantar. Jatindranath Mukherjee revitalized connections between the central organization in Calcutta and other regions in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa. During Viceroy Hardinge’s official entry into Delhi, a notable bomb attack took place in Chandni Chowk. The incident involved revolutionaries Rashbehari Bose and Sachin Sanyal. While the attack targeted Viceroy Hardinge, it resulted in his injury rather than his death. The Chandni Chowk bomb attack occurred in December 1912 and was a significant event within the context of the revolutionary activities of that time. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following pairs: Indian Home Rule Society. : Virendranath chattopadhyay. Berlin committee for Indian independence. : Shyamji Krishnavarma.  Ghadr : Lala Hardayal. How many of the above given pairs is/are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Shyamji Krishnavarma established ‘India House’(Indian Home Rule Society) in London as a hub for Indian students, along with a scholarship program and the publication of ‘The Indian Sociologist’ journal. Notable revolutionaries like Savarkar and Hardayal became members of India House. In 1909, Madanlal Dhingra, associated with this group, assassinated Curzon-Wyllie, a bureaucrat of the India Office. Due to increasing danger, London became an unsafe place for revolutionaries, especially after Savarkar’s extradition and life imprisonment in the Nasik conspiracy case. As a result, new centers emerged in Paris and Geneva, where Madam Bhikaji Cama, a Parsi revolutionary, had connections with French socialists and published ‘Bande Mataram.’ Ajit Singh also operated from these locations. With the deteriorating Anglo-German relations after 1909, Virendranath Chattopadhyaya chose Berlin as his base. (Hence pair 1 is incorrectly matched) In 1915, the Berlin Committee for Indian Independence was founded by Virendranath Chattopadhyay, Bhupendranath Dutta, Lala Hardayal, and others, with support from the German foreign office through the ‘Zimmerman Plan’. The objective of these revolutionaries was to rally Indian settlers abroad and encourage them to send volunteers and arms to India, with the aim of inciting rebellion among Indian troops and even organizing an armed invasion of British India in order to achieve liberation. (Hence pair 2 is incorrectly matched) In North America, the Ghadr was organised by Lala Hardayal, Ramchandra, Bhawan Singh, Kartar Singh Saraba, Barkatullah, and Bhai Parmanand. (Hence pair 3 is correctly matched) Incorrect Solution (a) Shyamji Krishnavarma established ‘India House’(Indian Home Rule Society) in London as a hub for Indian students, along with a scholarship program and the publication of ‘The Indian Sociologist’ journal. Notable revolutionaries like Savarkar and Hardayal became members of India House. In 1909, Madanlal Dhingra, associated with this group, assassinated Curzon-Wyllie, a bureaucrat of the India Office. Due to increasing danger, London became an unsafe place for revolutionaries, especially after Savarkar’s extradition and life imprisonment in the Nasik conspiracy case. As a result, new centers emerged in Paris and Geneva, where Madam Bhikaji Cama, a Parsi revolutionary, had connections with French socialists and published ‘Bande Mataram.’ Ajit Singh also operated from these locations. With the deteriorating Anglo-German relations after 1909, Virendranath Chattopadhyaya chose Berlin as his base. (Hence pair 1 is incorrectly matched) In 1915, the Berlin Committee for Indian Independence was founded by Virendranath Chattopadhyay, Bhupendranath Dutta, Lala Hardayal, and others, with support from the German foreign office through the ‘Zimmerman Plan’. The objective of these revolutionaries was to rally Indian settlers abroad and encourage them to send volunteers and arms to India, with the aim of inciting rebellion among Indian troops and even organizing an armed invasion of British India in order to achieve liberation. (Hence pair 2 is incorrectly matched) In North America, the Ghadr was organised by Lala Hardayal, Ramchandra, Bhawan Singh, Kartar Singh Saraba, Barkatullah, and Bhai Parmanand. (Hence pair 3 is correctly matched) Question 19 of 35 19. Question With reference to the Self-Respect Movement in pre independent India, consider the following statements: V. Ramaswamy initiated the movement in Tamil Nadu. The movement aimed to secure employment opportunities and political representation for non-Brahmins. The movement had a significant impact not only in Tamil Nadu but also in countries such as Malaysia and Singapore. How many of the given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Self-Respect Movement was initiated by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, also known as Periyar, in Tamil Nadu, India. (Hence statement 1 is correct) The movement aimed to fight against social inequality and discrimination based on caste, religion, and gender. It had nothing to do with the legislature and jobs. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) It advocated for equal rights and opportunities for all individuals, irrespective of their social background. The movement promoted self-respect and self-empowerment among marginalized communities, especially non-Brahmins. It emphasized the importance of education, rational thinking, and social reform. The Self-Respect Movement challenged the traditional Brahminical dominance in society and criticized oppressive customs and practices. It called for the eradication of untouchability, the abolition of caste-based discrimination, and the promotion of social justice. The movement encouraged inter-caste marriages and rejected superstitious beliefs and rituals. Periyar’s speeches, writings, and public rallies played a significant role in mobilizing people and spreading awareness about the movement’s objectives. The Self-Respect Movement had a lasting impact on the social and political landscape of Tamil Nadu, inspiring further movements and reforms in the region. The movement had a significant impact not only in Tamil Nadu but also in countries such as Malaysia and Singapore. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Incorrect Solution (b) The Self-Respect Movement was initiated by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, also known as Periyar, in Tamil Nadu, India. (Hence statement 1 is correct) The movement aimed to fight against social inequality and discrimination based on caste, religion, and gender. It had nothing to do with the legislature and jobs. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) It advocated for equal rights and opportunities for all individuals, irrespective of their social background. The movement promoted self-respect and self-empowerment among marginalized communities, especially non-Brahmins. It emphasized the importance of education, rational thinking, and social reform. The Self-Respect Movement challenged the traditional Brahminical dominance in society and criticized oppressive customs and practices. It called for the eradication of untouchability, the abolition of caste-based discrimination, and the promotion of social justice. The movement encouraged inter-caste marriages and rejected superstitious beliefs and rituals. Periyar’s speeches, writings, and public rallies played a significant role in mobilizing people and spreading awareness about the movement’s objectives. The Self-Respect Movement had a lasting impact on the social and political landscape of Tamil Nadu, inspiring further movements and reforms in the region. The movement had a significant impact not only in Tamil Nadu but also in countries such as Malaysia and Singapore. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following statements: He was the founder of New English School in Puna. He played a role in establishing the Deccan Educational Society and laying the foundation of Fergusson College in Poona. He is the author of ‘The Arctic Home in the Vedas’. He started akharas, lathi clubs and anti-cow-killing societies. Which person is being described in the above statements? a) Dhadabai Navaroji b) Madan Mohan Malaviya c) Bala Gangadhar Tilak d) Rajaram Mohan Roy Correct Solution (c) Bala Gangadahar Tilak Bala Gangadahar Tilak, affectionately known as Lokmanya and the ‘Uncrowned King of India,’ played a pivotal role in popularizing patriotism and expanding the reach of the Congress movement. Tilak collaborated with Agarkar to plan the establishment of affordable educational institutions. In 1890, they founded the Poona New English School. Additionally, Tilak was involved in forming the Deccan Educational Society and laying the foundation of Fergusson College in Poona. Tilak was the first nationalist leader to actively engage with the masses. He initiated the formation of akharas (training centers), lathi clubs, and anti-cow-killing societies. Festivals like Shivaji and Ganpati were initiated to instill a spirit of national service. Tilak also launched two newspapers, ‘The Maharatta’ (English) and ‘Kesari’ (Marathi), to promote his ideas. Tilak openly advocated for Swaraj (self-rule) and famously declared, “Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it.” Through his efforts and those of his associates, the Indian National Congress passed a resolution in Calcutta (1906) demanding Self-Government, Boycott, and National Education. The British Anglo-Indian bureaucracy labeled Tilak as a seditionist, and Sir Valentine Chirol referred to him as the ‘Father of Unrest in India.’ Tilak sued Chirol for defamation and traveled to England for the case. Although he lost the case, it opened his eyes to the true nature of British rule in India. Tilak authored two books: “The Arctic Home in the Vedas” and “Gita Rahasya.” Incorrect Solution (c) Bala Gangadahar Tilak Bala Gangadahar Tilak, affectionately known as Lokmanya and the ‘Uncrowned King of India,’ played a pivotal role in popularizing patriotism and expanding the reach of the Congress movement. Tilak collaborated with Agarkar to plan the establishment of affordable educational institutions. In 1890, they founded the Poona New English School. Additionally, Tilak was involved in forming the Deccan Educational Society and laying the foundation of Fergusson College in Poona. Tilak was the first nationalist leader to actively engage with the masses. He initiated the formation of akharas (training centers), lathi clubs, and anti-cow-killing societies. Festivals like Shivaji and Ganpati were initiated to instill a spirit of national service. Tilak also launched two newspapers, ‘The Maharatta’ (English) and ‘Kesari’ (Marathi), to promote his ideas. Tilak openly advocated for Swaraj (self-rule) and famously declared, “Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it.” Through his efforts and those of his associates, the Indian National Congress passed a resolution in Calcutta (1906) demanding Self-Government, Boycott, and National Education. The British Anglo-Indian bureaucracy labeled Tilak as a seditionist, and Sir Valentine Chirol referred to him as the ‘Father of Unrest in India.’ Tilak sued Chirol for defamation and traveled to England for the case. Although he lost the case, it opened his eyes to the true nature of British rule in India. Tilak authored two books: “The Arctic Home in the Vedas” and “Gita Rahasya.” Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements regarding oil production in India: India is the world’s largest consumer and the world’s largest importer of vegetable oil. In terms of volumes, palm oil, soya bean oil, and mustard oil are the three largest consumed edible oils in India. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) India is the world’s second-largest consumer and the world’s largest importer of vegetable oil. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. India is one of the largest producers of oilseedsin the world. India produces-rapeseeds, soybean, peanut, groundnut, copra, cottonseeds and sunflower seeds. In terms of volumes, palm oil, soya bean oil, and mustard oil are the three largest consumed edible oils in India. Hence statement 2 is correct. Palm oil (Crude + Refined) constitutes roughly 62% of the total edible oils imported and is imported mainly from Indonesia and Malaysia. Soyabean oil (22%) is imported from Argentina and Brazil. Sunflower oil (15%) is imported mainly from Ukraine and Russia. Incorrect Solution (b) India is the world’s second-largest consumer and the world’s largest importer of vegetable oil. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. India is one of the largest producers of oilseedsin the world. India produces-rapeseeds, soybean, peanut, groundnut, copra, cottonseeds and sunflower seeds. In terms of volumes, palm oil, soya bean oil, and mustard oil are the three largest consumed edible oils in India. Hence statement 2 is correct. Palm oil (Crude + Refined) constitutes roughly 62% of the total edible oils imported and is imported mainly from Indonesia and Malaysia. Soyabean oil (22%) is imported from Argentina and Brazil. Sunflower oil (15%) is imported mainly from Ukraine and Russia. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements regarding Bhoj Wetland: It is a Ramsar site located in Uttar Pradesh. It consists of two contiguous human-made reservoirs. It was first conceived by the King Paramara Raja Bhoj. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Bhoj Wetland is a Ramsar site (2002) located in Madhya Pradesh. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It consists of two contiguous human-made reservoirs. Hence statement 2 is correct. It has two lakes, Upper Lake, also called Bhojtal, and Lower Lake or Chhota Talaab. It was first conceived by King Paramara Raja Bhoj in 1005-1055 CE. Hence statement 3 is correct. He built the lake by raising an earthen dam across the Kolans. The Lower Lake was built much later in 1794 by Chhote Khan, a minister to Nawab Hayath Mohammad Khan. Bhadbhada Dam was built on the southeast corner of Bhojtal in 1965. Incorrect Solution (b) Bhoj Wetland is a Ramsar site (2002) located in Madhya Pradesh. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It consists of two contiguous human-made reservoirs. Hence statement 2 is correct. It has two lakes, Upper Lake, also called Bhojtal, and Lower Lake or Chhota Talaab. It was first conceived by King Paramara Raja Bhoj in 1005-1055 CE. Hence statement 3 is correct. He built the lake by raising an earthen dam across the Kolans. The Lower Lake was built much later in 1794 by Chhote Khan, a minister to Nawab Hayath Mohammad Khan. Bhadbhada Dam was built on the southeast corner of Bhojtal in 1965. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Nipah Virus (NiV):  It is a zoonotic virus with its natural host being fruit bats. It is listed as a priority disease for the WHO Research and Development Blueprint. There are currently no drugs or vaccines specific to treat this infection. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Nipah Virus (NiV) is a zoonotic virus with its natural host being fruit bats. Hence statement 1 is correct. A zoonotic virus is transmitted from animals to humans. Its incubation period is 4 to 14 days with a fatality rate of 40% to 75%. The incubation period is the interval from infection to the onset of symptoms. Human infections range from asymptomatic infection to acute respiratory infection (mild, severe), and fatal encephalitis. Infected people initially develop symptoms including fever, headaches, myalgia (muscle pain), vomiting, and sore throat. This can be followed by dizziness, drowsiness, altered consciousness, and neurological signs that indicate acute encephalitis. It is listed as a priority diseasefor the WHO Research and Development Blueprint. Hence statement 2 is correct. There are currently no drugs or vaccines specific to treat this infection. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Nipah Virus (NiV) is a zoonotic virus with its natural host being fruit bats. Hence statement 1 is correct. A zoonotic virus is transmitted from animals to humans. Its incubation period is 4 to 14 days with a fatality rate of 40% to 75%. The incubation period is the interval from infection to the onset of symptoms. Human infections range from asymptomatic infection to acute respiratory infection (mild, severe), and fatal encephalitis. Infected people initially develop symptoms including fever, headaches, myalgia (muscle pain), vomiting, and sore throat. This can be followed by dizziness, drowsiness, altered consciousness, and neurological signs that indicate acute encephalitis. It is listed as a priority diseasefor the WHO Research and Development Blueprint. Hence statement 2 is correct. There are currently no drugs or vaccines specific to treat this infection. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Northern Sea Route (NSR): It connects the eastern and western regions of the Pacific Ocean. It is the shortest shipping route connecting Europe and the Asia-Pacific region. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) The Northern Sea Route (NSR) connects the eastern and western regions of the Arctic Ocean. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It passes through four seas of the Arctic Ocean. It is the shortest shipping route connecting Europe and the Asia-Pacific region. Hence statement 2 is correct. The route between Europe and Asia is just 13,000 km long, compared to the 21,000 km covered by the Suez Canal route, which reduces the travel duration from one month to less than two weeks. The route starts at the boundary between the Barents and Kara seas (Kara Strait) and concludes at the Bering Strait (Provideniya Bay). Incorrect Solution (b) The Northern Sea Route (NSR) connects the eastern and western regions of the Arctic Ocean. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It passes through four seas of the Arctic Ocean. It is the shortest shipping route connecting Europe and the Asia-Pacific region. Hence statement 2 is correct. The route between Europe and Asia is just 13,000 km long, compared to the 21,000 km covered by the Suez Canal route, which reduces the travel duration from one month to less than two weeks. The route starts at the boundary between the Barents and Kara seas (Kara Strait) and concludes at the Bering Strait (Provideniya Bay). Question 25 of 35 25. Question It is the only African country with coastal exposure to both the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea. It lies directly across the Strait of Gibraltar from Spain. Its national language is Arabic. It has a Mediterranean climate, with mild wet winters and hot dry summers. It has Algeria to the east and southeast, Western Sahara to the south, the Atlantic Ocean to the west, and the Mediterranean Sea to the north. The above paragraph describes which of the following country? a) Tunisia b) Nigeria c) Ghana d) Morocco Correct Solution (d) Morocco is the only African country with coastal exposure to both the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea. It lies directly across the Strait of Gibraltar from Spain. Its national language is Arabic. It has a Mediterranean climate, with mild wet winters and hot dry summers. It has Algeria to the east and southeast, Western Sahara to the south, the Atlantic Ocean to the west, and the Mediterranean Sea to the north. Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) Morocco is the only African country with coastal exposure to both the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea. It lies directly across the Strait of Gibraltar from Spain. Its national language is Arabic. It has a Mediterranean climate, with mild wet winters and hot dry summers. It has Algeria to the east and southeast, Western Sahara to the south, the Atlantic Ocean to the west, and the Mediterranean Sea to the north. Hence option d is correct. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements regarding Recorded Forest Area (RFA): It refers to lands that are recorded as forests, regardless of their official classification or ownership. It does not include notified forests and unclassed forests. Over half of the Northeast region is categorized as RFA. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Recorded Forest Area (RFA) refers to lands that are recorded as forests, regardless of their official classification or ownership. Hence statement 1 is correct. It includes notified forests and unclassed forests. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Unclassed forests are forests not officially categorized. Over half of the Northeast region is categorized as RFA. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Recorded Forest Area (RFA) refers to lands that are recorded as forests, regardless of their official classification or ownership. Hence statement 1 is correct. It includes notified forests and unclassed forests. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Unclassed forests are forests not officially categorized. Over half of the Northeast region is categorized as RFA. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements: Battery storage or battery energy storage systems (BESS) are devices that enable energy from renewables to be stored and then released when the power is needed most. The Scheme for Viability Gap Funding (VGF) for the development of Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) envisages the development of 4,000 MWh of BESS projects by 2049-50. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Battery storage or battery energy storage systems (BESS) are devices that enable energy from renewables to be stored and then released when the power is needed most. Hence statement 1 is correct. Viability Gap Finance means a grant to support projects that are economically justified but not financially viable. Viability Gap Funding is provided as a grant one-time or deferred to make a project commercially viable. The Scheme for Viability Gap Funding (VGF) for the development of Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) envisages the development of 4,000 MWh of BESS projects by 2030-31. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It provides financial support up to 40% of the capital cost will be supported in the form of Viability Gap Funding (VGF). The entire viability gap funding (VGF) will be borne by the Central Government. The VGF shall be disbursed in 5 tranches linked with the various stages of implementation of BESS projects. To ensure that the benefits of the scheme reach the consumers, a minimum of 85% of the BESS project capacity will be made available to Distribution Companies (Discoms). Incorrect Solution (a) Battery storage or battery energy storage systems (BESS) are devices that enable energy from renewables to be stored and then released when the power is needed most. Hence statement 1 is correct. Viability Gap Finance means a grant to support projects that are economically justified but not financially viable. Viability Gap Funding is provided as a grant one-time or deferred to make a project commercially viable. The Scheme for Viability Gap Funding (VGF) for the development of Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) envisages the development of 4,000 MWh of BESS projects by 2030-31. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It provides financial support up to 40% of the capital cost will be supported in the form of Viability Gap Funding (VGF). The entire viability gap funding (VGF) will be borne by the Central Government. The VGF shall be disbursed in 5 tranches linked with the various stages of implementation of BESS projects. To ensure that the benefits of the scheme reach the consumers, a minimum of 85% of the BESS project capacity will be made available to Distribution Companies (Discoms). Question 28 of 35 28. Question Which of the following countries participate in the East Asia Summit? Australia Indonesia Cambodia United States of America Choose the correct code: a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) The East Asia Summit (EAS) is the Indo-Pacific’s premier forum for strategic dialogue. It is the only leader-led forum at which all key Indo-Pacific partners meet to discuss political, security, and economic challenges facing the region and has an important role to play in advancing closer regional cooperation. It comprises eighteen participating countries including ten ASEAN Member States (Brunei Darussalam, Cambodia, Indonesia, Lao PDR, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam) and Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, the Republic of Korea, the Russian Federation and the United States of America. Hence option d is correct.   Incorrect Solution (d) The East Asia Summit (EAS) is the Indo-Pacific’s premier forum for strategic dialogue. It is the only leader-led forum at which all key Indo-Pacific partners meet to discuss political, security, and economic challenges facing the region and has an important role to play in advancing closer regional cooperation. It comprises eighteen participating countries including ten ASEAN Member States (Brunei Darussalam, Cambodia, Indonesia, Lao PDR, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam) and Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, the Republic of Korea, the Russian Federation and the United States of America. Hence option d is correct.   Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Malaviya Mission: It is a teachers’ training programme by the University Grants Commission. It aims to improve the capacity building of faculty members in primary schools. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) The Malaviya Mission is a teachers’ training programme by the University Grants Commission. Hence statement 1 is correct. It aims to improve the capacity building of faculty members in higher educational institutions (HEIs). Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It improves the quality of teachers’ training, builds leadership skills in teachers, and helps realize the goals of the National Education Policy (NEP). It will ensure continuous professional development and help in building capacities of 15 lakh teachers of HEIs through 111 Malaviya Mission Centers (formerly known as Human Resource Development Centers (HRDCs)). The capacity building under the Mission will be mapped to the credit framework to ensure career progression pathways for educators. The themes identified for the course curriculum for Capacity building of Faculty Members in HEIs include – Multidisciplinary Education, Indian Knowledge Systems (IKS), Academic Leadership, Research and Development, Skill Development, and Student Diversity among others. Incorrect Solution (a) The Malaviya Mission is a teachers’ training programme by the University Grants Commission. Hence statement 1 is correct. It aims to improve the capacity building of faculty members in higher educational institutions (HEIs). Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It improves the quality of teachers’ training, builds leadership skills in teachers, and helps realize the goals of the National Education Policy (NEP). It will ensure continuous professional development and help in building capacities of 15 lakh teachers of HEIs through 111 Malaviya Mission Centers (formerly known as Human Resource Development Centers (HRDCs)). The capacity building under the Mission will be mapped to the credit framework to ensure career progression pathways for educators. The themes identified for the course curriculum for Capacity building of Faculty Members in HEIs include – Multidisciplinary Education, Indian Knowledge Systems (IKS), Academic Leadership, Research and Development, Skill Development, and Student Diversity among others. Question 30 of 35 30. Question The pen is indeed mightier than the sword, which is why writers are facing the ire of powerful autocratic leaders. Gone are the days when mass media was celebrated as the fourth pillar of the society. Of late, the world has witnessed several incidents of an unprecedented onslaught on journalism by conniving politicians and governments in quick succession. Which among the following is the most logical inference of the above passage? a) Publishing the truth is predominantly the prerogative of writers b) Journalism is paying a heavy price for its own power c) Politicians and governments do not intend to muzzle the independent media d) Journalists create a negative news bias to gain public sympathy Correct Solution (b) The passage talks about atrocities on writers, media and journalism by autocratic leaders, due to the might of the pen. Thus, option B. is the most logical inference. Options A and D deviate from the context of the passage. Option C is contrary to what is stated in the passage. Hence, the correct answer is option B. Incorrect Solution (b) The passage talks about atrocities on writers, media and journalism by autocratic leaders, due to the might of the pen. Thus, option B. is the most logical inference. Options A and D deviate from the context of the passage. Option C is contrary to what is stated in the passage. Hence, the correct answer is option B. Question 31 of 35 31. Question In a bag, there are coins of 25 p, 10 p and 5 p in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. If there is Rs. 30 in all, how many 5 p coins are there? a) 50 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200 Correct Solution (c) Explanation: Let the number of 25 p, 10 p and 5 p coins be x, 2x, 3x respectively. Then, sum of their values = Rs((25x/100) +(10 *2x/100)+(5 * 3x/100))= Rs.60x 100 60x/100= 30 x =(30 x 100)/60= 50. 100 Hence, the number of 5 p coins = (3 x 50) = 150.   Incorrect Solution (c) Explanation: Let the number of 25 p, 10 p and 5 p coins be x, 2x, 3x respectively. Then, sum of their values = Rs((25x/100) +(10 *2x/100)+(5 * 3x/100))= Rs.60x 100 60x/100= 30 x =(30 x 100)/60= 50. 100 Hence, the number of 5 p coins = (3 x 50) = 150.   Question 32 of 35 32. Question In a residential gated society there is a custom during Holi festival that each family residing in the society greets every other family by exchanging a sweet box. If there were altogether 2450 sweet boxes exchanged, what is the total number of families residing in that society? a) 49 b) 50 c) 55 d) Can’t be determined Correct Solution (b) Let the number of families residing in the society be ‘n’ Therefore the number of sweet box exchanged = n(n-1) = n(n-1) = 2450 n = 50   Incorrect Solution (b) Let the number of families residing in the society be ‘n’ Therefore the number of sweet box exchanged = n(n-1) = n(n-1) = 2450 n = 50   Question 33 of 35 33. Question The average of 4 distinct prime numbers p, q, r, s is 35, where p<q<r<s. p and s are equidistant from 36 and q and r equidistant from 34; and p and q are equidistant from 30; and r and s from 40. The difference between p and s is: a) 14 b) 7 c) 11 d) Can’t be determined Correct Solution (a) From the given data p < 36 < s (i) q < 34 < r (ii) p < 30 < q (iii) r < 40 < s (iv)   From eq. (ii) and (iv), we get 34 < r < 40 So, only possibility is r = 37 Thus, from eq. (iv) we get s = 43 Again, combining (ii) and (iii), we get 30 < q < 34 So only possibility is q = 31 Therefore, from eq. (iii), we get p = 29 Thus, the difference between p and s is 14. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.   Incorrect Solution (a) From the given data p < 36 < s (i) q < 34 < r (ii) p < 30 < q (iii) r < 40 < s (iv)   From eq. (ii) and (iv), we get 34 < r < 40 So, only possibility is r = 37 Thus, from eq. (iv) we get s = 43 Again, combining (ii) and (iii), we get 30 < q < 34 So only possibility is q = 31 Therefore, from eq. (iii), we get p = 29 Thus, the difference between p and s is 14. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.   Question 34 of 35 34. Question A two member Committee comprising of one male and one female member is to be constituted out of five males and three females. Amongst the females, Ms. X refused to be a member of the Committee in which Mr. A is taken as the member. In how many different ways can the Committee be constituted? a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14 Correct Solution (d) Males – A, B, C, D, E Females – X, Y, Z Total number of committees formed = AY, AZ, BX, BY, BZ, CX, CY, CZ, DX, DY, DZ, EX, EY, EZ = 14. Incorrect Solution (d) Males – A, B, C, D, E Females – X, Y, Z Total number of committees formed = AY, AZ, BX, BY, BZ, CX, CY, CZ, DX, DY, DZ, EX, EY, EZ = 14. Question 35 of 35 35. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC): It is fiat money backed by a government through its central bank in a virtual form. It combines the power of blockchain with the logistics of distributed ledger technology (DLT). Just like paper currency, each unit is uniquely identifiable to prevent counterfeiting. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) is fiat money backed by a government through its central bank in a virtual form. Hence statement 1 is correct. It combines the power of blockchain with the logistics of distributed ledger technology (DLT), where data can be synchronized across multiple locationswithout the need for centralized storage. Hence statement 2 is correct. Just like paper currency, each unit is uniquely identifiable to prevent counterfeiting. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is a liability of the central bank just as physical currency is. It’s a digital bearer instrument that can be stored, transferred, and transmitted by all kinds of digital payment systems and services. Incorrect Solution (c) The Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) is fiat money backed by a government through its central bank in a virtual form. Hence statement 1 is correct. It combines the power of blockchain with the logistics of distributed ledger technology (DLT), where data can be synchronized across multiple locationswithout the need for centralized storage. Hence statement 2 is correct. Just like paper currency, each unit is uniquely identifiable to prevent counterfeiting. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is a liability of the central bank just as physical currency is. It’s a digital bearer instrument that can be stored, transferred, and transmitted by all kinds of digital payment systems and services. window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3552', init: { quizId: 3552, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"30496":{"type":"single","id":30496,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30497":{"type":"single","id":30497,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30500":{"type":"single","id":30500,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30501":{"type":"single","id":30501,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30502":{"type":"single","id":30502,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30503":{"type":"single","id":30503,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30505":{"type":"single","id":30505,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30508":{"type":"single","id":30508,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30511":{"type":"single","id":30511,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30513":{"type":"single","id":30513,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30514":{"type":"single","id":30514,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30516":{"type":"single","id":30516,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30519":{"type":"single","id":30519,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30522":{"type":"single","id":30522,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30525":{"type":"single","id":30525,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30527":{"type":"single","id":30527,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30528":{"type":"single","id":30528,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30531":{"type":"single","id":30531,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30532":{"type":"single","id":30532,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30534":{"type":"single","id":30534,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30535":{"type":"single","id":30535,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30536":{"type":"single","id":30536,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30538":{"type":"single","id":30538,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30541":{"type":"single","id":30541,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30542":{"type":"single","id":30542,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30545":{"type":"single","id":30545,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30546":{"type":"single","id":30546,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30548":{"type":"single","id":30548,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30551":{"type":"single","id":30551,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30554":{"type":"single","id":30554,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30555":{"type":"single","id":30555,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30557":{"type":"single","id":30557,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30558":{"type":"single","id":30558,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30559":{"type":"single","id":30559,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30560":{"type":"single","id":30560,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) said it has granted One97 Communications Ltd (OCL) to participate in Unified Payments Interface (UPI) as Third-Party Application Provider (TPAP) under multi-bank model.NPCI said four banks – Axis Bank, HDFC Bank, State Bank of India and YES Bank – will act as PSP (Payment System Provider) banks to OCL, which is the parent company of Paytm. Background:- Last month, RBI directed NPCI, which owns and operates the UPI platform, to consider a request by OCL to become a TPAP. A Third-Party Application Provider is an entity that provides UPI compliant app(s) to the end-user customers to facilitate UPI-based payment transactions. These applications could be mobile wallets, merchant apps, or any other platform that utilises UPI for payments. About National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), is an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India. It was launched in 2008 by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. It has been incorporated as a “Not for Profit” Company under the provisions of Section 25 of Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of Companies Act 2013). The ten core promoter banks are State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of Baroda, Union Bank of India, Bank of India, ICICI Bank Limited, HDFC Bank Limited, Citibank N. A. and HSBC. In 2016 the shareholding was broad-based to 56 member banks to include more banks representing all sectors. In 2020, new entities regulated by RBI were inducted, consisting of Payment Service Operators, payment banks, Small Finance Banks, etc. NPCI offers a range of payment solutions and services, including the Unified Payments Interface (UPI), Immediate Payment Service (IMPS), National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT), Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS), Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS), Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AePS), National Automated Clearing House (NACH), and RuPay, India’s own card payment network. The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is one of NPCI’s most significant initiatives. Payment systems that the NPCI operate include National Financial Switch.National Financial Switch (NFS) is the largest network of shared Automated Teller Machines (ATMs) in India facilitating interoperable cash withdrawal, card to card funds transfer and interoperable cash deposit transactions among other value added services in the country. Source: Hindu Businessline Anthropocene Syllabus Prelims – Science Context: An expert commission rejected a proposal to mark the start of the Anthropocene at a particular date. Background: The SQS-AWG is a commission responsible for recognising time units within our most recent period of geologic time. Its members have been looking into the question of formalising the Anthropocene Epoch as the youngest epoch, superposing the Holocene. On March 4, 2024, the commission, which consists of topical experts, rejected the proposal with a majority voting against it. About Anthropocene: Earth’s history is divided into a hierarchical series of smaller chunks of time, referred to as the geologic time scale. These divisions, in descending length of time, are called eons, eras, periods, epochs, and ages. These units are classified based on Earth’s rock layers, or strata, and the fossils found within them. From examining these fossils, scientists know that certain organisms are characteristic of certain parts of the geologic record. The study of this correlation is called stratigraphy. Officially, the current epoch is called the Holocene, which began 11,700 years ago after the last major ice age. However, the Anthropocene Epoch is an unofficial unit of geologic time, used to describe the most recent period in Earth’s history when human activity started to have a significant impact on the planet’s climate and ecosystems. The word Anthropocene is derived from the Greek words anthropo, for “man,” and cene for “new,” coined and made popular by biologist Eugene Stormer and chemist Paul Crutzen Scientists still debate whether the Anthropocene is different from the Holocene, and the term has not been formally adopted. The primary question that scientists needs to answer before declaring the Anthropocene an epoch is if humans have changed the Earth system to the point that it is reflected in the rock strata. Source: National Geographic AGNIPATH SCHEME Syllabus Prelims- Current Event Context: The Passing Out Parade (POP) of the third batch of Agniveers was held at INS Chilka, Odisha. Background: Agniveers are a special group within the Indian Armed Forces, created under the Agnipath recruitment scheme. About AGNIPATH SCHEME The Agnipath Scheme is a short-service manpower model introduced by the Indian government for recruiting soldiers across the Army, Navy, and Air Force. It is a transformative initiative under the Ministry of Defence. Objective and Eligibility: The scheme aims to provide an opportunity for patriotic and motivated youth to serve in the Armed Forces. It applies to personnel below officer ranks, excluding commissioned officers. Recruitment and Duration: Around 45,000 to 50,000 soldiers (referred to as “Agniveers”) are recruited annually under this scheme. These recruits serve on a short-term contract of four years. After the initial four years, only 25% of the batch will continue for an additional 15 years under permanent commission. Benefits for Agniveers: Upon completing the four-year service, Agniveers receive a one-time “Seva Nidhi” package of Rs 11.71 lakhs, including accrued interest. They also enjoy a life insurance cover of Rs 48 lakhs during the service period. In case of death, the payout exceeds Rs 1 crore, including pay for the unserved tenure. The government assists in rehabilitating soldiers who leave the services after four years by providing skill certificates and bridge courses. Challenges and Concerns: Job Prospects: Agniveers may find it challenging to secure other jobs after their four-year service. No Pension Benefit: Unlike regular servicemen, Agniveers do not receive pension benefits. Source: PIB REUSABLE LAUNCH VEHICLE PUSHPAK Syllabus Prelims : Current Event Context: ISRO plans to conduct the second landing test of the Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV) Pushpak soon. Background: This ongoing research and development aim to reduce space launch costs and advance India’s space exploration missions. In 2023, ISRO successfully conducted the Reusable Launch Vehicle Autonomous Landing Mission (RLV LEX). About REUSABLE LAUNCH VEHICLE PUSHPAK: The Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV) Pushpak is a winged technology demonstrator developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Its purpose is to explore and validate technologies essential for achieving a fully reusable launch vehicle. Background and Purpose: The RLV Pushpak is part of ISRO’s efforts to develop a fully reusable launch vehicle. Its primary goal is to enable low-cost access to space. ISRO envisions building a space station by 2035, and the RLV technology plays a crucial role in achieving this objective. Technological Advancements: Accurate Navigation: Utilizes pseudolite systems, indigenous instrumentation, and sensor systems. Ka-band Radar Altimeter: Provides precise altitude information. Indigenous Landing Gear: Designed for high-speed, unmanned, and precise landings. Aerofoil Honeycomb Fins and Brake Parachute System: Ensure controlled descent. Source: Business Today GEO HERITAGE SITE PANDAVULLA GUTTA Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Pandavula Gutta designated exclusive Geo-heritage site in Telangana. Background: A geo-heritage site is a place of significant geological importance, often recognized for its unique geological features, historical context, or cultural value. These sites provide insights into the Earth’s history, evolution, and natural processes. About GEO HERITAGE SITE PANDAVULLA GUTTA Pandavula Gutta, also known as Pandavula Guttalu, is a remarkable hill located in the Warangal district, Telangana, India. Its historical and religious significance lies in the belief that it served as a refuge for the Pandavas during their exile, as narrated in the Hindu epic. This site is more ancient than the Himalayan hills and has been officially recognized as the sole Geo-heritage site in Telangana. Discovered in 1990, it predates the Himalayas and has a rich history spanning from the Mesolithic to Medieval times. Pandavula Gutta is adorned with Paleolithic cave paintings, a rare glimpse into prehistoric human creativity. These paintings, found on walls, ceilings, and isolated boulders, depict wildlife such as Bison, Antelope, Tiger, and Leopard. Source: The Hindu Consumerism and Ethics Syllabus Mains – GS 4 Context: Tendency of consumerism has been rising among people. Background: Consumerism is mainly derived from lifestyle obsession instead of necessity. About Consumerism: Consumerism is the idea that increasing the consumption of goods and services purchased in the market is always a desirable goal and that a person’s well-being and happiness depend fundamentally on obtaining consumer goods and material possessions. Consumerism is an ideology where consumers are motivated or manipulated to buy something, even if they don’t need it. It is mainly derived from lifestyle obsession instead of necessity. For instance, replacing a perfectly working mobile phone or laptop because a new model is launched. It is based on the assumption, that possession of material wealth and things make a person happy and satisfied. Consumerism is driven by the following factors: The first driving force of consumerism is advertising, a vast industry dedicated to the power of persuasion. Credit cards, store cards, payday loans, and ‘buy now, pay later’ schemes all bring forward our expenditure. Obsolescence stems from the realisation by capitalism that the life cycles of products could be planned and managed. A tendency to have more than one. Ethical Values Undermined by Consumerism: To achieve the end, both consumers and brands can resort to means that are not ethically correct. Ex: Advertisements claim that products will change the user’s life. In consumerism, a person just thinks about buying products and creating collections. In this race, he loses his consciousness i.e. awareness of one’s thoughts and feelings. This prevents them from making the right decisions. Ex: Doing shopping for their social media uploads. It has been found that societies that are driven by consumerism have huge disparities; some people live lavish lives while other’s basic needs are not fulfilled. It undermines the effort of Social Justice (fair division of resources, opportunities, and privileges). Most religions/societies propagate that satisfaction will bring inner solace. However, tendencies like consumerism are against it. It also includes the loss of traditional cultures and values; and the decline of altruism and community. Consumerism ultimately creates a selfish society in which people just think about their needs. Ex: Many people spend lakhs on clothes, and this amount can be utilised to support the education of poor children. An increase in demand naturally increases production, in turn, leading to changes in land use, threatening biodiversity, generation of more waste, and emission of pollutants. Ex: In the fashion industry, the skin of different animals is used to make leather products. This has pushed certain species to the verge of extinction. Striking a Balance Between Needs and Desires: Adopting Ethical Consumerism promotes the practice of purchasing products and services in a way that minimizes negative impact on social and/or environmental consequences. Moral and Consumer Education needs to be part of the curriculum at all levels of education. Corporations should adopt ‘Stakeholder Capitalism’ instead of ‘Shareholder Capitalism’. Stakeholder capitalism proposes that corporations should serve the interests of all their stakeholders, and not just shareholders. Regulating authorities like the Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI) should keep an eye on the advertisements that try to manipulate consumers. Celebrities/influencers should become role models for others by practicing responsible consumption and making sustainable choices. It can be controlled by imposing taxes on luxury goods and giving incentives for sustainable practices. Volunteers of civil society organizations can carry out awareness to combat consumerism and promote sustainable living. Source: ET EDGE INSIGHTS Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following pairs: Geo-heritage sites                States Pandavula Gutta –              Karnataka Siwalik Fossil Park –        Himachal Pradesh Lonar Lake –                      Maharashtra How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None   Q2.) With reference to the Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV) Pushpak, consider the following statements: It is developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation. Its primary goal is to enable low-cost access to space. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.)With reference to Agnipath Scheme, consider the following statements: It is a short-service manpower model introduced by the Ministry of Defence. It aims for recruiting soldiers across the Army, Navy, and Air Force. Unlike regular servicemen, Agniveers do not receive pension benefits. The government assists in rehabilitating soldiers who leave the services after four years by providing skill certificates and bridge courses. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  19th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  18th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 19th March 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 14] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 Nagalakshmi 2024/03/19 1:16 PM 50 71.43 % 2 Razak 2024/03/19 1:11 PM 40 57.14 % 3 Swastik 2024/03/19 12:33 PM 38 54.29 % 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question The oath of office to the President is administered by a) The Vice President b) The Prime Minister c) The Chief Justice of India d) The Attorney General of India Correct Solution (c) Oaths of the President of India: The Oath of the President of India is mentioned in the constitution itself. Faithfully execute the office, preserve and protect the constitution, and dedicated to the service and well-being of the people of India. The tenure is of 5 years but he can stay in office until the new President arrives. The oath of office to the President is administered by the Chief Justice of India and in his absence, the senior most judge of the Supreme Court available. Any other person acting as President or discharging the functions of the President also undertakes the similar oath or affirmation. Qualifications of the President of India: The qualification of the President (nominee) to be eligible for election as a president are as follows- He should be a citizen of India. He should have completed 35 years of age. He should be qualified for election as a member of Lok Sabha. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union government or any State government or any Local authority. Incorrect Solution (c) Oaths of the President of India: The Oath of the President of India is mentioned in the constitution itself. Faithfully execute the office, preserve and protect the constitution, and dedicated to the service and well-being of the people of India. The tenure is of 5 years but he can stay in office until the new President arrives. The oath of office to the President is administered by the Chief Justice of India and in his absence, the senior most judge of the Supreme Court available. Any other person acting as President or discharging the functions of the President also undertakes the similar oath or affirmation. Qualifications of the President of India: The qualification of the President (nominee) to be eligible for election as a president are as follows- He should be a citizen of India. He should have completed 35 years of age. He should be qualified for election as a member of Lok Sabha. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union government or any State government or any Local authority. Question 2 of 35 2. Question   Consider the following statements with reference to election of the President: The election of a person as President can be challenged on the ground that Electoral College was incomplete. All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President can be inquired into and decided either by the Supreme Court or High Court. Select the correct answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The election of a person as President cannot be challenged on the ground that the electoral college was incomplete (i.e., existence of any vacancy among the members of electoral college). All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final. Note: Article 71 of the Constitution deals with the matters relating to, or connected with, the election of a President or Vice-President. It says that- All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final. If the Supreme Court declares the election of the President or Vice-President void, acts done by him in the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of the office of President or Vice-President, on or before the date of the decision of the Supreme Court shall not be invalidated by reason of that declaration. The Parliament may by law regulate any matter relating to or connected with the election of a President or Vice-President. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The election of a person as President cannot be challenged on the ground that the electoral college was incomplete (i.e., existence of any vacancy among the members of electoral college). All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final. Note: Article 71 of the Constitution deals with the matters relating to, or connected with, the election of a President or Vice-President. It says that- All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final. If the Supreme Court declares the election of the President or Vice-President void, acts done by him in the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of the office of President or Vice-President, on or before the date of the decision of the Supreme Court shall not be invalidated by reason of that declaration. The Parliament may by law regulate any matter relating to or connected with the election of a President or Vice-President. Question 3 of 35 3. Question With respect to the Pardoning Power of the President, consider the following pairs: 1.     Commutation It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character 2.     Remission It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. 3.     Respite It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded dueto some special fact. 4.     Reprieve It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially thatof death) For a temporary period. How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? a) One pair only b) Two pairs only c) Three pairs only d) All four pairs Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Correct Commutation: It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. For example, a death sentence may be commuted to rigorous imprisonment, which in turn may be commuted to a simple imprisonment. Remission: It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character. For example, a sentence of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to rigorous imprisonment for one year.   Respite: It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender. Reprieve: It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially that of death) for a temporary period.   Note: Pardon: It removes both the sentence and the conviction and completely absolves the convict from all sentences, punishments and disqualifications. Commutation: It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. For example, a death sentence may be commuted to rigorous imprisonment, which in turn may be commuted to a simple imprisonment. Remission: It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character. For example, a sentence of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to rigorous imprisonment for one year. Respite: It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender. Reprieve: It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially that of death) for a temporary period. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Correct Commutation: It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. For example, a death sentence may be commuted to rigorous imprisonment, which in turn may be commuted to a simple imprisonment. Remission: It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character. For example, a sentence of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to rigorous imprisonment for one year.   Respite: It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender. Reprieve: It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially that of death) for a temporary period.   Note: Pardon: It removes both the sentence and the conviction and completely absolves the convict from all sentences, punishments and disqualifications. Commutation: It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. For example, a death sentence may be commuted to rigorous imprisonment, which in turn may be commuted to a simple imprisonment. Remission: It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character. For example, a sentence of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to rigorous imprisonment for one year. Respite: It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender. Reprieve: It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially that of death) for a temporary period. Question 4 of 35 4. Question With reference to the impeachment of President, consider the following statements: The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. The nominated members of either house of parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President. The constitution does not define the meaning of the phrase violation of the constitution. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election. The President can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for ‘violation of the Constitution’. However, the Constitution does not define the meaning of the phrase ‘violation of the Constitution’. Note: PROCEDURE FOR IMPEACHMENT OF THE PRESIDENT: When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament. No such charge shall be preferred unless – the proposal to prefer such charge is contained in a resolution which has been moved after at least fourteen days’ notice in writing signed by not less than one-fourth of the total number of members of the House has been given of their intention to move the resolution, and such resolution has been passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House. When a charge has been so preferred by either House of Parliament, the other House shall investigate the charge or cause the charge to be investigated and the President shall have the right to appear and to be represented at such investigation. If as a result of the investigation a resolution is passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House by which the charge was investigated or caused to be investigated, declaring that the charge preferred against the President has been sustained, such resolution shall have the effect of removing the President from his office as from the date on which the resolution is so passed. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election. The President can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for ‘violation of the Constitution’. However, the Constitution does not define the meaning of the phrase ‘violation of the Constitution’. Note: PROCEDURE FOR IMPEACHMENT OF THE PRESIDENT: When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament. No such charge shall be preferred unless – the proposal to prefer such charge is contained in a resolution which has been moved after at least fourteen days’ notice in writing signed by not less than one-fourth of the total number of members of the House has been given of their intention to move the resolution, and such resolution has been passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House. When a charge has been so preferred by either House of Parliament, the other House shall investigate the charge or cause the charge to be investigated and the President shall have the right to appear and to be represented at such investigation. If as a result of the investigation a resolution is passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House by which the charge was investigated or caused to be investigated, declaring that the charge preferred against the President has been sustained, such resolution shall have the effect of removing the President from his office as from the date on which the resolution is so passed. Question 5 of 35 5. Question The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved first in the: a) Lok Sabha only b) Either House of Parliament c) Joint Sitting of Parliament d) Rajya Sabha only Correct Solution (d) The Vice-President cannot be formally impeached, unlike the President. The Constitution states that the Vice-President can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by a simple majority of the Lok Sabha. But no such resolution may be moved unless at least 14 days advance notice has been given. Notably, the Constitution does not list grounds for removal. No Vice-President or ex officio Vice-President has ever faced removal proceedings. The resolution cannot be moved in Loksabha. Incorrect Solution (d) The Vice-President cannot be formally impeached, unlike the President. The Constitution states that the Vice-President can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by a simple majority of the Lok Sabha. But no such resolution may be moved unless at least 14 days advance notice has been given. Notably, the Constitution does not list grounds for removal. No Vice-President or ex officio Vice-President has ever faced removal proceedings. The resolution cannot be moved in Loksabha. Question 6 of 35 6. Question With reference to the Lok Sabha, identify the incorrect statement/s from the following: The President of India, being a part of the Parliament, is member of the lower house, i.e. the Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha controls the Council of Ministers whereas the Lok Sabha controls the finances of the country. Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect In our country, the Parliament consists of two Houses. The two Houses are known as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha). The President of India is a part of the Parliament, although he/she is not a member of either House. That is why all laws made in the Houses come into force only after they receive the assent of the President. Lok Sabha exercises more powers in money matters. Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget of the government or any other money related law, the Rajya Sabha cannot reject it. Most importantly, the Lok Sabha controls the Council of Ministers. Only a person who enjoys the support of the majority of the members in the Lok Sabha is appointed the Prime Minister. If the majority of the Lok Sabha members say they have ‘no confidence’ in the Council of Ministers, all ministers including the Prime Minister, have to quit. the Rajya Sabha does not have this power. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect In our country, the Parliament consists of two Houses. The two Houses are known as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha). The President of India is a part of the Parliament, although he/she is not a member of either House. That is why all laws made in the Houses come into force only after they receive the assent of the President. Lok Sabha exercises more powers in money matters. Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget of the government or any other money related law, the Rajya Sabha cannot reject it. Most importantly, the Lok Sabha controls the Council of Ministers. Only a person who enjoys the support of the majority of the members in the Lok Sabha is appointed the Prime Minister. If the majority of the Lok Sabha members say they have ‘no confidence’ in the Council of Ministers, all ministers including the Prime Minister, have to quit. the Rajya Sabha does not have this power. Question 7 of 35 7. Question With reference to the Rajya Sabha, identify the correct statement/s from the following: It is meant to be the federal chamber i.e., a House elected by the elected members of Assemblies of the States and Union Territories. Following the American model, states are given equal representation in the Rajya Sabha. Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect A second chamber known as the ‘Council of States’, was created with altogether different composition and method of election from that of the directly elected House of the People.  It was conceived as another Chamber, with smaller membership than the Lok Sabha (House of the People).  It was meant to be the federal chamber i.e., a House elected by the elected members of Assemblies of the States and Union Territories. It doesn’t follow the American Model of equal representation, states were not given equal representation.  Apart from the elected members, provision was also made for the nomination of twelve members to the House by the President.  The minimum age of thirty years was fixed for membership as against twenty-five years for the Lower House.  The element of dignity and prestige was added to the Council of State House by making the Vice-President of India ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha who presides over its sittings. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect A second chamber known as the ‘Council of States’, was created with altogether different composition and method of election from that of the directly elected House of the People.  It was conceived as another Chamber, with smaller membership than the Lok Sabha (House of the People).  It was meant to be the federal chamber i.e., a House elected by the elected members of Assemblies of the States and Union Territories. It doesn’t follow the American Model of equal representation, states were not given equal representation.  Apart from the elected members, provision was also made for the nomination of twelve members to the House by the President.  The minimum age of thirty years was fixed for membership as against twenty-five years for the Lower House.  The element of dignity and prestige was added to the Council of State House by making the Vice-President of India ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha who presides over its sittings. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Consider the following statements and identify the correct one/s: Minister of State (MoS) assists the Cabinet Minister and is junior of the Cabinet Minister. Unlike Minister of State, the MoS with Independent Charge has its own ministry to look after. Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Unlike Cabinet Minister who is the utmost authority of a particular Department, Minister of State (MoS), in simple terms, he/she assists the Cabinet Minister and is the Junior of the Cabinet Minister. For example, G. Kishan Reddy and Nityanand Rai, both are Minister of State for Home Affairs. Both these ministers have a responsibility of assisting Amit Shah and these two do not hold a separate or an independent portfolio. Unlike Minister of State, the MoS with Independent Charge has its own ministry to look after and don’t assist a Cabinet Minister. However, this post isn’t considered equal to the cabinet minister. This could be considered as a Junior Minister with an independent portfolio. MoS Independent Charge is the intermediate post in between Cabinet Minister and Minister of state. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Unlike Cabinet Minister who is the utmost authority of a particular Department, Minister of State (MoS), in simple terms, he/she assists the Cabinet Minister and is the Junior of the Cabinet Minister. For example, G. Kishan Reddy and Nityanand Rai, both are Minister of State for Home Affairs. Both these ministers have a responsibility of assisting Amit Shah and these two do not hold a separate or an independent portfolio. Unlike Minister of State, the MoS with Independent Charge has its own ministry to look after and don’t assist a Cabinet Minister. However, this post isn’t considered equal to the cabinet minister. This could be considered as a Junior Minister with an independent portfolio. MoS Independent Charge is the intermediate post in between Cabinet Minister and Minister of state. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Who among the following can increase the Quorum of the Lok Sabha? a) The Lok Sabha Speaker under the Rules of Procedure b) The Parliament through the enactment of Law c) The President through the Executive Order d) The Union Cabinet through the Government Order Correct Solution (b) Under Article 100(3) of the Indian Constitution until Parliament by law otherwise provides, the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament shall be one tenth of the total number of members of the House Note: Quorum: Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the House before it can transact any business. It is one tenth of the total number of members in each House including the presiding officer. It means that there must be at least 55 members present in the Lok Sabha and 25 members present in the Rajya Sabha, if any business is to be conducted. If there is no quorum during a meeting of the House, it is the duty of the presiding officer either to adjourn the House or to suspend the meeting until there is a quorum.   House Lok Sabha Rajya Sabha State Legislative Assembly State Legislative Council Quorum It is one tenth of the total number of members of the House It is one tenth of the total number of members of the House It is ten members or one-tenth of the total number of members of the House (including the presiding officer), whichever is greater. It is ten members or one-tenth of the total number of members of the House (including the presiding officer), whichever is greater. Incorrect Solution (b) Under Article 100(3) of the Indian Constitution until Parliament by law otherwise provides, the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament shall be one tenth of the total number of members of the House Note: Quorum: Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the House before it can transact any business. It is one tenth of the total number of members in each House including the presiding officer. It means that there must be at least 55 members present in the Lok Sabha and 25 members present in the Rajya Sabha, if any business is to be conducted. If there is no quorum during a meeting of the House, it is the duty of the presiding officer either to adjourn the House or to suspend the meeting until there is a quorum.   House Lok Sabha Rajya Sabha State Legislative Assembly State Legislative Council Quorum It is one tenth of the total number of members of the House It is one tenth of the total number of members of the House It is ten members or one-tenth of the total number of members of the House (including the presiding officer), whichever is greater. It is ten members or one-tenth of the total number of members of the House (including the presiding officer), whichever is greater. Question 10 of 35 10. Question With reference to Whip in the Indian Political System, consider the following statements: Only the Ruling party and the Opposition party in the Parliament has its whip. The Whip is appointed by the political party to serve as an assistant floor leader. The Whip is charged with the responsibility of ensuring the attendance of its party members in large numbers. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct In India, all parties can issue a whip to their members. Parties appoint a senior member from among their House contingents to issue whips. This member is called a Chief Whip, and he/she is assisted by additional Whips. The Whip is appointed by the political party to serve as an assistant floor leader. The Whip is charged with the responsibility of ensuring the attendance of his party members in large numbers and securing their support in favour of or against a particular issue.   Note: Whip: The concept of the whip was inherited from colonial British rule. It is is a written order that political party issue to its members for being present for an important vote, or that they vote only in a particular way. The term is derived from the old British practice of “whipping in” lawmakers to follow the party line. The office of ‘whip’ is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government. S/He regulates and monitors their behaviour in the Parliament. The members are supposed to follow the directives given by the whip. Otherwise, disciplinary action can be taken. Under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law) a political party has a constitutional right to issue a whip to its legislators. If an MP violates his party’s whip, he faces expulsion from the House under the Anti Defection Act. There are some cases such as Presidential election where whips cannot direct a Member of Parliament (MP) or Member of Legislative Assembly (MLA) on whom to vote. Types of Whips The One-line whip to inform the members about a vote. It allows a member to abstain in case they decide not to follow the party line. The Two-line whip is issued to direct the members to be present in the House at the time of voting. No special instructions are given on the pattern of voting. The Three-line whip is issued to members directing them to vote as per the party line. It is the strictest of all the whip. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct In India, all parties can issue a whip to their members. Parties appoint a senior member from among their House contingents to issue whips. This member is called a Chief Whip, and he/she is assisted by additional Whips. The Whip is appointed by the political party to serve as an assistant floor leader. The Whip is charged with the responsibility of ensuring the attendance of his party members in large numbers and securing their support in favour of or against a particular issue.   Note: Whip: The concept of the whip was inherited from colonial British rule. It is is a written order that political party issue to its members for being present for an important vote, or that they vote only in a particular way. The term is derived from the old British practice of “whipping in” lawmakers to follow the party line. The office of ‘whip’ is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government. S/He regulates and monitors their behaviour in the Parliament. The members are supposed to follow the directives given by the whip. Otherwise, disciplinary action can be taken. Under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law) a political party has a constitutional right to issue a whip to its legislators. If an MP violates his party’s whip, he faces expulsion from the House under the Anti Defection Act. There are some cases such as Presidential election where whips cannot direct a Member of Parliament (MP) or Member of Legislative Assembly (MLA) on whom to vote. Types of Whips The One-line whip to inform the members about a vote. It allows a member to abstain in case they decide not to follow the party line. The Two-line whip is issued to direct the members to be present in the House at the time of voting. No special instructions are given on the pattern of voting. The Three-line whip is issued to members directing them to vote as per the party line. It is the strictest of all the whip. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Which one of the following statements is correct about the Office of Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha? a) Originally, the constitution did not have a provision for the post of Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha. b) The post is necessary for the smooth functioning of the Lok Sabha and without him/her, the House cannot function. c) The Deputy Speaker is subordinate to the Speaker but not to the Lok Sabha. d) The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members. Correct Solution (d) Article 93 of the Indian Constitution provides the office of speaker and Deputy speaker who is elected from the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members. Note: OFFICE OF DEPUTY SPEAKER: The institution of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India in 1921 under the Montague-Chelmsford reforms. At that time Speaker and Deputy Speaker were called President and Vice-President. The procedure of the election of the Deputy Speaker is same as that of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is elected from among the members of the Legislative Assembly. In the absence of the Speaker or when the Office of the Speaker is vacant, the duties of the Speaker are performed by the Deputy Speaker. When the Deputy Speaker presides over a sitting of the Legislative Assembly, he has the same powers as the Speaker. The Deputy Speaker holds office till the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly, unless he ceases to be a member of the Parliament. Incorrect Solution (d) Article 93 of the Indian Constitution provides the office of speaker and Deputy speaker who is elected from the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members. Note: OFFICE OF DEPUTY SPEAKER: The institution of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India in 1921 under the Montague-Chelmsford reforms. At that time Speaker and Deputy Speaker were called President and Vice-President. The procedure of the election of the Deputy Speaker is same as that of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is elected from among the members of the Legislative Assembly. In the absence of the Speaker or when the Office of the Speaker is vacant, the duties of the Speaker are performed by the Deputy Speaker. When the Deputy Speaker presides over a sitting of the Legislative Assembly, he has the same powers as the Speaker. The Deputy Speaker holds office till the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly, unless he ceases to be a member of the Parliament. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following statements: The Union Minister, who is a member in the Lok Sabha, can participate in the proceedings of the Rajya Sabha and vice-versa. A minister, who is not a member of either House of the Indian Parliament, cannot participate in the proceedings of both the Houses. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect A Minister who is a member of one House of Parliament has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of the other House also, but can Vote only in the House of which he is a member. A member of Parliament ceases to be a Minister unless he becomes a member of either House within 6 months. As long as they remain in the office of Minister, they can participate in the proceedings of both the Houses regardless to their membership. Note: ARTICLE 74: Council of Ministers to aid and advice President There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice: Provided that the President may require the council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, either generally or otherwise, and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect A Minister who is a member of one House of Parliament has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of the other House also, but can Vote only in the House of which he is a member. A member of Parliament ceases to be a Minister unless he becomes a member of either House within 6 months. As long as they remain in the office of Minister, they can participate in the proceedings of both the Houses regardless to their membership. Note: ARTICLE 74: Council of Ministers to aid and advice President There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice: Provided that the President may require the council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, either generally or otherwise, and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following statements about the Question Hour and Zero Hour in the Indian Parliament System: While the Question Hour is mentioned in the Indian Constitution, the Zero Hour is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. For raising matters during the Zero Hour, the Members of Parliament must give the notice 14 days before to the Presiding Officer but in case of the Question Hour, there is no prior permission required. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Question hour is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure and not in the Constitution. Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. A short notice question of the question hour requires a notice of less than ten days while Zero hour is an informal device available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice. Note:Question Hour: The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is slotted for this. During this time, the members ask questions and the ministers usually give answers. The questions are of three kinds, namely, starred, unstarred and short notice. A starred question (distinguished by an asterisk) requires an oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow. An unstarred question, on the other hand, requires a written answer and hence, supplementary questions cannot follow. A short notice question is one that is asked by giving a notice of less than ten days. It is answered orally. In addition to the ministers, the questions can also be asked to the private members. Thus, a question may be addressed to a private member if the subject matter of the question relates to some Bill, resolution or other matter connected with the business of the House for which that member is responsible. The procedure in regard to such question is the same as that followed in the case of questions addressed to a minister. The list of starred, unstarred, short notice questions and questions to private members are printed in green, white, light pink and yellow colour, respectively, to distinguish them from one another Zero Hour Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. The zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day (i.e., regular business of the House) is taken up. In other words, the time gap between the question hour and the agenda is known as zero hour. It is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since 1962. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Question hour is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure and not in the Constitution. Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. A short notice question of the question hour requires a notice of less than ten days while Zero hour is an informal device available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice. Note:Question Hour: The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is slotted for this. During this time, the members ask questions and the ministers usually give answers. The questions are of three kinds, namely, starred, unstarred and short notice. A starred question (distinguished by an asterisk) requires an oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow. An unstarred question, on the other hand, requires a written answer and hence, supplementary questions cannot follow. A short notice question is one that is asked by giving a notice of less than ten days. It is answered orally. In addition to the ministers, the questions can also be asked to the private members. Thus, a question may be addressed to a private member if the subject matter of the question relates to some Bill, resolution or other matter connected with the business of the House for which that member is responsible. The procedure in regard to such question is the same as that followed in the case of questions addressed to a minister. The list of starred, unstarred, short notice questions and questions to private members are printed in green, white, light pink and yellow colour, respectively, to distinguish them from one another Zero Hour Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. The zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day (i.e., regular business of the House) is taken up. In other words, the time gap between the question hour and the agenda is known as zero hour. It is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since 1962. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Consider the following statements: The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of the members of Rajya Sabha. The Lok Sabha automatically dissolves after five years from the date of its first meeting after the general elections. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Constitution has not fixed the tenure of members of Rajya Sabha and has empowered parliament to determine it. Parliament enacted the Representation of People’s act 1951 to fix the term of office of members as 6 years. The duration of Lok Sabha is five years and after 5 years of its institution, Lok Sabha undergoes automatic dissolution.   Note:DURATION OF PARLIAMENTARY HOUSES: Lok Sabha Lok Sabha is not a permanent house and hence can be dissolved. General duration of the Lok Sabha is 5 years and completion of the time period, its members automatically vacate the house. Premature dissolution of house (less than 5-year duration) is also possible when president dissolves Lok Sabha. This dissolution power of president to dissolve Lok Sabha is not a discretionary power of his own because he acts according to the advice given by prime minister and his council of ministers. In some cases, duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended (more than 5 years duration) due to the prevalence of national emergency making it difficult to conduct elections. The extension of duration requires a parliamentary law to that effect and prevalence of national emergency as a prerequisite, which will increase the duration of Lok Sabha by one year. If the national emergency discontinues within the extended one year, Lok Sabha continues only for 6 months from the date of revocation of national emergency. Rajya Sabha: Rajya Sabha is a permanent and non-dissolvable house, with a tenure of 6 years where in one third of its members retire once in two years. The tenure of Rajya Sabha members is not given in the constitution but is derived from Representation of People’s Act 1951. In 1952 the first house of Rajya Sabha, one third of members had 2 years tenure, second third of members had 4 years tenure while the third set had six years tenure. Constitution empowered president to decide the unlucky set of less tenure enjoying members and he chose by lottery to conclude the less tenured candidates. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Constitution has not fixed the tenure of members of Rajya Sabha and has empowered parliament to determine it. Parliament enacted the Representation of People’s act 1951 to fix the term of office of members as 6 years. The duration of Lok Sabha is five years and after 5 years of its institution, Lok Sabha undergoes automatic dissolution.   Note:DURATION OF PARLIAMENTARY HOUSES: Lok Sabha Lok Sabha is not a permanent house and hence can be dissolved. General duration of the Lok Sabha is 5 years and completion of the time period, its members automatically vacate the house. Premature dissolution of house (less than 5-year duration) is also possible when president dissolves Lok Sabha. This dissolution power of president to dissolve Lok Sabha is not a discretionary power of his own because he acts according to the advice given by prime minister and his council of ministers. In some cases, duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended (more than 5 years duration) due to the prevalence of national emergency making it difficult to conduct elections. The extension of duration requires a parliamentary law to that effect and prevalence of national emergency as a prerequisite, which will increase the duration of Lok Sabha by one year. If the national emergency discontinues within the extended one year, Lok Sabha continues only for 6 months from the date of revocation of national emergency. Rajya Sabha: Rajya Sabha is a permanent and non-dissolvable house, with a tenure of 6 years where in one third of its members retire once in two years. The tenure of Rajya Sabha members is not given in the constitution but is derived from Representation of People’s Act 1951. In 1952 the first house of Rajya Sabha, one third of members had 2 years tenure, second third of members had 4 years tenure while the third set had six years tenure. Constitution empowered president to decide the unlucky set of less tenure enjoying members and he chose by lottery to conclude the less tenured candidates. Question 15 of 35 15. Question With reference to the functioning of the Parliament, consider the following statements that describe an parliamentary procedure: It terminates a session of the House. It does not affect the bills or any pending business before the House. It is done by the President of India. Which one of the following procedure  is described in the statements given above? a) Dissolution b) Prorogation c) Adjournment d) Adjournment sine die Correct Solution (b) President does both dissolution and prorogation while both dissolution and prorogation only terminates session of parliament. Prorogation does not affect the bills or any pending business before the house. Note: PROCEDURE FOR PARLIAMENTARY SESSIONS: A session of parliament is the period between first sitting and previous prorogation or the period between two recesses. Sessions is the period where parliament transacts its regular business. It happens usually three times a year, budget session, monsoon session and winter session. Summoning is the calling of formation of session called upon by the president. Article 85 states that president, from time to time, can summon each house of parliament to meet anywhere and the maximum gap between two sessions of parliament cannot be more than six months. Adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for a specified time, which maybe hours, days or week. Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of parliament for an indefinite period or adjourning the house of parliament without naming a day for reassembly. The power of adjournment and adjournment sine die lies with the presiding officer of the house. ADJOURNMENT PROROGATION It terminates a sitting only and not the session of parliament. It not only terminates sitting but also terminates session of house. Done by presiding officer of the house. Done by president of India. It doesn’t affect the pending bills or any other business pending before the house and anything pending can be resumed on meeting of house. It doesn’t affect pending bills but affects pending notices and other procedures. In Britain, prorogation ends all businesses of the house.   Incorrect Solution (b) President does both dissolution and prorogation while both dissolution and prorogation only terminates session of parliament. Prorogation does not affect the bills or any pending business before the house. Note: PROCEDURE FOR PARLIAMENTARY SESSIONS: A session of parliament is the period between first sitting and previous prorogation or the period between two recesses. Sessions is the period where parliament transacts its regular business. It happens usually three times a year, budget session, monsoon session and winter session. Summoning is the calling of formation of session called upon by the president. Article 85 states that president, from time to time, can summon each house of parliament to meet anywhere and the maximum gap between two sessions of parliament cannot be more than six months. Adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for a specified time, which maybe hours, days or week. Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of parliament for an indefinite period or adjourning the house of parliament without naming a day for reassembly. The power of adjournment and adjournment sine die lies with the presiding officer of the house. ADJOURNMENT PROROGATION It terminates a sitting only and not the session of parliament. It not only terminates sitting but also terminates session of house. Done by presiding officer of the house. Done by president of India. It doesn’t affect the pending bills or any other business pending before the house and anything pending can be resumed on meeting of house. It doesn’t affect pending bills but affects pending notices and other procedures. In Britain, prorogation ends all businesses of the house.   Question 16 of 35 16. Question Why India has not preferred the U.S. model of the Presidential system of Democracy during the enactment of the Constitution? a) The President lacks the power to dissolve the lower house of the Congress which hampers productivity. b) The Constitution-makers were somewhat familiar with the President’s system as it had been in operation in India during the British rule. c) The strict and rigid form of the Federal setup may lead to frictions between Union and Sates. d) The lack of collective responsibility of the President and his minister’s to the Congress. Correct Solution (d) The American system gives more stability but less responsibility. The British system, on the other hand, gives more responsibility but less stability. The Draft Constitution in recommending the parliamentary system of Executive has preferred more responsibility to more stability. Note: Why Parliamentary System? Familiarity with the System The Constitution-makers were somewhat familiar with the parliamentary system as it had been in operation in India during the British rule. Preference to More Responsibility Dr. B.R. Ambedkar pointed out in the Constituent Assembly that ‘a democratic executive must satisfy two conditions: stability and responsibility. Unfortunately, it has not been possible so far to devise a system which can ensure both in equal degree. Need to Avoid Legislative–Executive Conflicts The framers of the Constitution wanted to avoid the conflicts between the legislature and the executive which are bound to occur in the presidential system prevalent in USA. They thought that an infant democracy could not afford to take the risk of a perpetual cleavage, feud or conflict or threatened conflict between these two organs of the government. They wanted a form of government that would be conductive to the manifold development of the country. Nature of Indian Society India is one of the most heterogeneous States and most complex plural societies in the world. Hence, the Constitution-makers adopted the parliamentary system as it offers greater scope for giving representation to various section, interests and regions in the government. This promotes a national spirit among the people and builds a united India. Whether the parliamentary system should be continued or should be replaced by the presidential system has been a point of discussion and debate in our country since the 1970s. This matter was considered in detail by the Swaran Singh Committee appointed by the Congress government in 1975. The committee opined that the parliamentary system has been doing well and hence, there is no need to replace it by the presidential system. Incorrect Solution (d) The American system gives more stability but less responsibility. The British system, on the other hand, gives more responsibility but less stability. The Draft Constitution in recommending the parliamentary system of Executive has preferred more responsibility to more stability. Note: Why Parliamentary System? Familiarity with the System The Constitution-makers were somewhat familiar with the parliamentary system as it had been in operation in India during the British rule. Preference to More Responsibility Dr. B.R. Ambedkar pointed out in the Constituent Assembly that ‘a democratic executive must satisfy two conditions: stability and responsibility. Unfortunately, it has not been possible so far to devise a system which can ensure both in equal degree. Need to Avoid Legislative–Executive Conflicts The framers of the Constitution wanted to avoid the conflicts between the legislature and the executive which are bound to occur in the presidential system prevalent in USA. They thought that an infant democracy could not afford to take the risk of a perpetual cleavage, feud or conflict or threatened conflict between these two organs of the government. They wanted a form of government that would be conductive to the manifold development of the country. Nature of Indian Society India is one of the most heterogeneous States and most complex plural societies in the world. Hence, the Constitution-makers adopted the parliamentary system as it offers greater scope for giving representation to various section, interests and regions in the government. This promotes a national spirit among the people and builds a united India. Whether the parliamentary system should be continued or should be replaced by the presidential system has been a point of discussion and debate in our country since the 1970s. This matter was considered in detail by the Swaran Singh Committee appointed by the Congress government in 1975. The committee opined that the parliamentary system has been doing well and hence, there is no need to replace it by the presidential system. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following statements: The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Upper House of Parliament. The Vice-President can act as President only for a maximum period of six months. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of Upper House of Parliament by virtue of the office of the Vice-President. When the President dies in office and Vice President takes over as President, he can continue serving as the President for a maximum of 6 months within which a new President shall be elected. Note: Vice-President: Vice-President of India is the second highest office under the Article 63 – 71, Part V of the Constitution of India. He is accorded a rank next to the President in the official warrant of precedence. The Vice-President, like the President, is elected indirectly rather than directly by the electoral college. The model for the office of the vice-president of India is borrowed from the American Vice-President. Power And Functions: Vice-President acts as the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha and his powers and functions are similar to those of the speaker of the Lok Sabha. In the event of the president’s inability to work due to any reasons or a vacancy in the office of the president due to any reason he can act as the president. The office was created to maintain continuity in the Indian state; however, this is only for 6 months till the next president is elected. The Vice President while discharging duty as President, should not preside over Rajya Sabha. The Vice-President does not execute the responsibilities of Rajya Sabha Chairman while serving as President or discharging the obligations of President. During this time, such responsibilities are carried out by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of Upper House of Parliament by virtue of the office of the Vice-President. When the President dies in office and Vice President takes over as President, he can continue serving as the President for a maximum of 6 months within which a new President shall be elected. Note: Vice-President: Vice-President of India is the second highest office under the Article 63 – 71, Part V of the Constitution of India. He is accorded a rank next to the President in the official warrant of precedence. The Vice-President, like the President, is elected indirectly rather than directly by the electoral college. The model for the office of the vice-president of India is borrowed from the American Vice-President. Power And Functions: Vice-President acts as the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha and his powers and functions are similar to those of the speaker of the Lok Sabha. In the event of the president’s inability to work due to any reasons or a vacancy in the office of the president due to any reason he can act as the president. The office was created to maintain continuity in the Indian state; however, this is only for 6 months till the next president is elected. The Vice President while discharging duty as President, should not preside over Rajya Sabha. The Vice-President does not execute the responsibilities of Rajya Sabha Chairman while serving as President or discharging the obligations of President. During this time, such responsibilities are carried out by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following statements: Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Under the Rules of Rajya Sabha, the Chairman nominates from amongst the members a panel of vice-chairpersons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The salaries and allowances of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha and the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and thus are not subject to the annual vote of Parliament. Under the Rules of Rajya Sabha, the Chairman nominates from amongst the members a panel of vice-chairpersons. Any one of them can preside over the House in the absence of the Chairman or the Deputy Chairman. He has the same powers as the Chairman when so presiding. He holds office until a new panel of vice-chairpersons is nominated. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The salaries and allowances of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha and the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and thus are not subject to the annual vote of Parliament. Under the Rules of Rajya Sabha, the Chairman nominates from amongst the members a panel of vice-chairpersons. Any one of them can preside over the House in the absence of the Chairman or the Deputy Chairman. He has the same powers as the Chairman when so presiding. He holds office until a new panel of vice-chairpersons is nominated. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Which of the following conditions are needed for a person to be qualified for being elected as a member of Parliament? He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt practices in the elections. He must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. He must not have been dismissed from government service for corruption or disloyalty to the State. How many of the given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt practices in the elections. He must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. He must not have been dismissed from government service for corruption or disloyalty to the State.   DisqualificationsUnder the Constitution, a person shall be disqualified for being elected as a member of Parliament: If he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any other office exempted by Parliament). If he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court. If he is an undischarged insolvent. If he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state; and If he is so disqualified under any law made by Parliament. The Parliament has laid down the following additional disqualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951): He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt practices in the elections. He must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. But, the detention of a person under a preventive detention law is not a disqualification. He must not have failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time. He must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services. He must not be a director or managing agent nor hold an office of profit in a corporation in which the government has at least 25 per cent share. He must not have been dismissed from government service for corruption or disloyalty to the State. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt practices in the elections. He must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. He must not have been dismissed from government service for corruption or disloyalty to the State.   DisqualificationsUnder the Constitution, a person shall be disqualified for being elected as a member of Parliament: If he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any other office exempted by Parliament). If he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court. If he is an undischarged insolvent. If he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state; and If he is so disqualified under any law made by Parliament. The Parliament has laid down the following additional disqualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951): He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt practices in the elections. He must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. But, the detention of a person under a preventive detention law is not a disqualification. He must not have failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time. He must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services. He must not be a director or managing agent nor hold an office of profit in a corporation in which the government has at least 25 per cent share. He must not have been dismissed from government service for corruption or disloyalty to the State. Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following statements regarding Double Membership: If a person is elected to both the Houses of Parliament, he must intimate within 10 days in which House he desires to serve. In default of such intimation, his seat in the Rajya Sabha becomes vacant. If a person is elected to two seats in loksabha, he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise, both seats become vacant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct If a person is elected simultaneously to both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha, and if he has not yet taken his seat in either House, he can choose, within 10 days from the later of the dates on which he is chosen to those Houses, the House of which he would like to be a member. The member must intimate his choice in writing to the Secretary to the Election Commission of India (ECI) within the 10-day window, failing which his seat in Rajya Sabha will fall vacant at the end of this period. No such option is, however, available to a person who is already a member of one House and has contested the election for membership of the other House. So, if a sitting Rajya Sabha member contests and wins a Lok Sabha election, his seat in the Upper House becomes automatically vacant on the date he is declared elected to Lok Sabha. The same applies to a Lok Sabha member who contests an election to Rajya Sabha Under Sec 33(7) of RPA, 1951, an individual can contest from two parliamentary constituencies but, if elected from both, he has to resign one seat within 14 days of the declaration of the result, failing which both his seats shall fall vacant. Note: If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other House, his seat in the first House becomes vacant. Similarly, a person cannot be a member of both the Parliament and the state legislature at the same time. If a person is so elected, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct If a person is elected simultaneously to both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha, and if he has not yet taken his seat in either House, he can choose, within 10 days from the later of the dates on which he is chosen to those Houses, the House of which he would like to be a member. The member must intimate his choice in writing to the Secretary to the Election Commission of India (ECI) within the 10-day window, failing which his seat in Rajya Sabha will fall vacant at the end of this period. No such option is, however, available to a person who is already a member of one House and has contested the election for membership of the other House. So, if a sitting Rajya Sabha member contests and wins a Lok Sabha election, his seat in the Upper House becomes automatically vacant on the date he is declared elected to Lok Sabha. The same applies to a Lok Sabha member who contests an election to Rajya Sabha Under Sec 33(7) of RPA, 1951, an individual can contest from two parliamentary constituencies but, if elected from both, he has to resign one seat within 14 days of the declaration of the result, failing which both his seats shall fall vacant. Note: If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other House, his seat in the first House becomes vacant. Similarly, a person cannot be a member of both the Parliament and the state legislature at the same time. If a person is so elected, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements: Poshan 2.0 is a central sector scheme that addresses malnutrition among children, adolescent girls, pregnant and lactating women. The 6th Rashtriya Poshan Maah is celebrated by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare to comprehensively address malnutrition using a life-cycle approach. The theme of the 6th Rashtriya Poshan Maah of 2023 is ‘Suposhit Bharat, Sakshar Bharat, Sashakt Bharat’. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Poshan 2.0 is a centrally sponsored schemebeing implemented through the State government/ UT administrations based on a cost-sharing ratio between the Central and the State Governments. It addresses malnutrition among children up to 6 years of age, adolescent girls, and pregnant and lactating women. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It aims to create an integrated nutrition support program that enhances the content, delivery, outreach, and overall outcomes of nutritional services. The 6th Rashtriya Poshan Maah is celebrated by theMinistry of Women and Child Development (MoWCD)  to comprehensively address malnutrition using a life-cycle approach. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The main objective is to raise awareness about critical life stages, including pregnancy, infancy, childhood, and adolescence, topromote better nutrition across India. The theme of the 6th Rashtriya Poshan Maah of 2023 is ‘Suposhit Bharat, Sakshar Bharat, Sashakt Bharat’. It places importance on nutrition, education, and empowerment in building a healthier and stronger country. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (a) Poshan 2.0 is a centrally sponsored schemebeing implemented through the State government/ UT administrations based on a cost-sharing ratio between the Central and the State Governments. It addresses malnutrition among children up to 6 years of age, adolescent girls, and pregnant and lactating women. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It aims to create an integrated nutrition support program that enhances the content, delivery, outreach, and overall outcomes of nutritional services. The 6th Rashtriya Poshan Maah is celebrated by theMinistry of Women and Child Development (MoWCD)  to comprehensively address malnutrition using a life-cycle approach. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The main objective is to raise awareness about critical life stages, including pregnancy, infancy, childhood, and adolescence, topromote better nutrition across India. The theme of the 6th Rashtriya Poshan Maah of 2023 is ‘Suposhit Bharat, Sakshar Bharat, Sashakt Bharat’. It places importance on nutrition, education, and empowerment in building a healthier and stronger country. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements regarding Fiscal Deficit: It is the difference between the government’s total expenditure and its total revenue including borrowings. A high fiscal deficit represents a healthy economy while a low fiscal deficit represents a debt burden. It enables the government to increase spending on public services that can stimulate economic growth. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Fiscal Deficit is thedifference between the government’s total expenditure and its total revenue excluding borrowings. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is an indicator of the extent to which the government must borrow to finance its operations and is expressed as a percentage of the country’s GDP. A high fiscal deficit represents a debt burden while a low fiscal deficit represents a healthy economy. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It enables the government to increase spending onpublic services that can stimulate economic growth. It can finance long-term investments, such as infrastructure projects, through fiscal deficit. It can lead to job creation, which can help reduce unemployment and increase the standard of living. Hence statement 3 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (a) Fiscal Deficit is thedifference between the government’s total expenditure and its total revenue excluding borrowings. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is an indicator of the extent to which the government must borrow to finance its operations and is expressed as a percentage of the country’s GDP. A high fiscal deficit represents a debt burden while a low fiscal deficit represents a healthy economy. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It enables the government to increase spending onpublic services that can stimulate economic growth. It can finance long-term investments, such as infrastructure projects, through fiscal deficit. It can lead to job creation, which can help reduce unemployment and increase the standard of living. Hence statement 3 is correct.   Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements regarding Gabon: It is the largest oil producer in Sub-Saharan Africa. It is a member of the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC). The Loango National Park is one of the country’s best wildlife-watching spots. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Gabon is the4th largest oil producer in Sub-Saharan Africa. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is surrounded by the Atlantic Oceanin the west. It was a former French colony. Its capital is Libreville and shares land borders withCameroon, Equatorial Guinea, and the Republic of Congo. It is a member of theOrganization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC). Hence statement 2 is correct. The Loango National Park is one of the country’s best wildlife-watching spots. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Gabon is the4th largest oil producer in Sub-Saharan Africa. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is surrounded by the Atlantic Oceanin the west. It was a former French colony. Its capital is Libreville and shares land borders withCameroon, Equatorial Guinea, and the Republic of Congo. It is a member of theOrganization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC). Hence statement 2 is correct. The Loango National Park is one of the country’s best wildlife-watching spots. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements regarding Pulikkali: It is one of the folk art forms of Kerala. The main theme of this folk art is tiger hunting. It is performed on the fourth day of the Onam festival. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Pulikkali is one of the folk art forms of Kerala. Hence statement 1 is correct. The artists wear tiger masks, paint their bodies like tigers, and dance to the rhythm of traditional percussion instruments such as thakil, udukku, and chenda. The main theme of this folk art is tiger hunting. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is performed on the fourth day of the Onam festival. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is believed to have originated two centuries ago as a street dance form and became part of Onam celebrations later. It is said to have been introduced by the erstwhile ruler of Cochin, Maharaja Rama Varma Sakthan Thampuran. Incorrect Solution (c) Pulikkali is one of the folk art forms of Kerala. Hence statement 1 is correct. The artists wear tiger masks, paint their bodies like tigers, and dance to the rhythm of traditional percussion instruments such as thakil, udukku, and chenda. The main theme of this folk art is tiger hunting. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is performed on the fourth day of the Onam festival. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is believed to have originated two centuries ago as a street dance form and became part of Onam celebrations later. It is said to have been introduced by the erstwhile ruler of Cochin, Maharaja Rama Varma Sakthan Thampuran. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements regarding the National Education Policy 2020: Its primary objective is to prioritize learning in a student’s mother tongue. It aims to create the National Research Foundation to facilitate research within academic institutions. It establishes the National Curriculum Framework for School Education to set specific learning standards. It establishes a National Credit Framework to encompass various academic practices within a credit bank. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) The key features of the National Education Policy 2020: Its primary objective is to prioritize learning in a student’s mother tongue. Hence statement 1 is correct. It aims to create the National Research Foundationto facilitate research within academic institutions. Hence statement 2 is correct. It establishes the National Curriculum Framework for School Education to set specific learning standards. Hence statement 3 is correct. It establishes a National Credit Framework to encompass various academic practices within a credit bank. Hence statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) The key features of the National Education Policy 2020: Its primary objective is to prioritize learning in a student’s mother tongue. Hence statement 1 is correct. It aims to create the National Research Foundationto facilitate research within academic institutions. Hence statement 2 is correct. It establishes the National Curriculum Framework for School Education to set specific learning standards. Hence statement 3 is correct. It establishes a National Credit Framework to encompass various academic practices within a credit bank. Hence statement 4 is correct. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Gujarat Declaration: It was adopted at the first World Health Organization (WHO) Traditional Medicine Global Summit. It placed importance on global commitments towards indigenous knowledge, biodiversity, and traditional, complementary, and integrative medicine. Select the correct answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The Gujarat Declaration was adopted at the first World Health Organization (WHO) Traditional Medicine Global Summit. Hence statement 1 is correct. The first World Health Organization (WHO) Traditional Medicine Global Summit was held in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. It placed importance on global commitments towards indigenous knowledge, biodiversity, and traditional, complementary, and integrative medicine. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Gujarat Declaration was adopted at the first World Health Organization (WHO) Traditional Medicine Global Summit. Hence statement 1 is correct. The first World Health Organization (WHO) Traditional Medicine Global Summit was held in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. It placed importance on global commitments towards indigenous knowledge, biodiversity, and traditional, complementary, and integrative medicine. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Education to Entrepreneurship Initiative: It is a collaboration between the Ministry of Education, the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship, and France. It aims to provide digital marketing skills training to five lakh entrepreneurs over the next three years. Under this initiative, training will be conducted in seven regional languages by using platforms like Facebook, WhatsApp, and Instagram. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Education to Entrepreneurship Initiative is a collaboration between the Ministry of Education, the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship, and Meta. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It aims to provide digital marketing skills training to five lakh entrepreneurs over the next three years. Hence statement 2 is correct. Under this initiative, training will be conducted in seven regional languages by using platforms like Facebook, WhatsApp, and Instagram. Hence statement 3 is correct. It will equip India’s talent pool with futuristic technologies, fostering a new generation of problem solvers and entrepreneurs. Incorrect Solution (b) The Education to Entrepreneurship Initiative is a collaboration between the Ministry of Education, the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship, and Meta. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It aims to provide digital marketing skills training to five lakh entrepreneurs over the next three years. Hence statement 2 is correct. Under this initiative, training will be conducted in seven regional languages by using platforms like Facebook, WhatsApp, and Instagram. Hence statement 3 is correct. It will equip India’s talent pool with futuristic technologies, fostering a new generation of problem solvers and entrepreneurs. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Kakapo’: It is a species of parrot found only in Australia. It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN List. It is the world’s only flightless parrot. It is the world’s heaviest parrot. How many of the given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) The Kākāpō is a species of parrot found only in New Zealand. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN List. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is the world’s only flightless parrot. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is the world’s heaviest parrot. Hence statement 4 is correct. It is nocturnal and herbivorous. It is also possibly one of the world’s longest-living birds, with a reported lifespan of up to 100 years. They only breed every few years, triggered by the availability of certain forest foods such as the fruits of the native rimu tree. It is also the only parrot to have a polygynous lek breeding system. Note: Lek breeding system is a mating system in which the male provides no parental care to its offspring. Incorrect Solution (c) The Kākāpō is a species of parrot found only in New Zealand. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN List. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is the world’s only flightless parrot. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is the world’s heaviest parrot. Hence statement 4 is correct. It is nocturnal and herbivorous. It is also possibly one of the world’s longest-living birds, with a reported lifespan of up to 100 years. They only breed every few years, triggered by the availability of certain forest foods such as the fruits of the native rimu tree. It is also the only parrot to have a polygynous lek breeding system. Note: Lek breeding system is a mating system in which the male provides no parental care to its offspring. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements regarding the different official tracks under G20: The Finance Track is headed by the finance ministers and central bank governors and mainly focuses on issues of the global economy. The Sherpa Track is headed by civil or engagement groups and mainly focuses on socio-economic issues. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) The G20 works in three major tracks. The official tracks are the Finance Track and the Sherpa Track. The unofficial track includes engagement groups or civil society groups. The Finance Track is headed by the finance ministers and central bank governors and mainly focuses on issues of the global economy. It mainly focuses on fiscal and monetary policy issues such as the global economy, infrastructure, financial regulation, financial inclusion, international financial architecture, and international taxation. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Sherpa Track is headed by representatives of heads of state and mainly focuses on socio-economic issues. It mainly focuses on socio-economic issues such as agriculture, anti-corruption, climate, digital economy, education, employment, energy, environment, health, tourism, trade and investment. The unofficial track comprises engagement or civil groups. These groups often draft recommendations to the G20 Leaders that contribute to the policy-making process. The engagement groups are as follows: Business20, Civil20, Labour20, Parliament20, Science20, SAI20, Startup20, Think20, Urban20, Women20 and Youth20. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (a) The G20 works in three major tracks. The official tracks are the Finance Track and the Sherpa Track. The unofficial track includes engagement groups or civil society groups. The Finance Track is headed by the finance ministers and central bank governors and mainly focuses on issues of the global economy. It mainly focuses on fiscal and monetary policy issues such as the global economy, infrastructure, financial regulation, financial inclusion, international financial architecture, and international taxation. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Sherpa Track is headed by representatives of heads of state and mainly focuses on socio-economic issues. It mainly focuses on socio-economic issues such as agriculture, anti-corruption, climate, digital economy, education, employment, energy, environment, health, tourism, trade and investment. The unofficial track comprises engagement or civil groups. These groups often draft recommendations to the G20 Leaders that contribute to the policy-making process. The engagement groups are as follows: Business20, Civil20, Labour20, Parliament20, Science20, SAI20, Startup20, Think20, Urban20, Women20 and Youth20. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Question 30 of 35 30. Question The Johannesburg Declaration and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement are related to which of the following organisation? a) Association of Southeast Asian Nations b) World Bank c) Asian Development Bank d) BRICS Correct Solution (d) The Johannesburg Declaration and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement are related to BRICS. The Johannesburg Declaration predominantly emphasizes intra-BRICS cooperation and collaboration with other developing nations. The member nations have agreed to promote the use oflocal currencies in trade and financial transactions between BRICS countries and other trade partners. The Contingent Reserve Arrangement aids countries facing short-term balance-of-payments challenges. Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) The Johannesburg Declaration and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement are related to BRICS. The Johannesburg Declaration predominantly emphasizes intra-BRICS cooperation and collaboration with other developing nations. The member nations have agreed to promote the use oflocal currencies in trade and financial transactions between BRICS countries and other trade partners. The Contingent Reserve Arrangement aids countries facing short-term balance-of-payments challenges. Hence option d is correct. Question 31 of 35 31. Question Lincoln once reprimanded a young army officer for indulging in a violent controversy with an associate. “No man who is resolved to make the most of himself,” said Lincoln, “can spare time for personal contention. Still less can he afford to take the consequences, including the vitiation of his temper and the loss of self-control. Yield larger things to which you show no more than equal rights; and yield lesser ones though clearly your own. Better give your path to a dog than be bitten by him in contesting for the right. Even killing the dog would not cure the bite.” Which one of the following is essentially discussed in the passage? a) How avoiding controversy can make one more successful. b) The story and events from the life of Abraham Lincoln. c) The ways to of avoiding anger and improving self-control. d) The futility of indulgence into self- contention and petty issues Correct Solution (d) Option (a) is incorrect because the passage is talking about avoiding all the pity issues. It is not so specific to controversies. Option (b) is incorrect because though the passage is from the life of Lincoln, it is conveying a specific message. That message is the essential discussion and not the life of Lincoln. Option (c) is incorrect because though some aspects of self-control is discussed here, the ways of achieving it is not discussed here. The passage discusses how Lincoln reprimanded an officer and told him not to spare time for personal contention. He also advices him to yield larger things. Thus, Option (d) is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution (d) Option (a) is incorrect because the passage is talking about avoiding all the pity issues. It is not so specific to controversies. Option (b) is incorrect because though the passage is from the life of Lincoln, it is conveying a specific message. That message is the essential discussion and not the life of Lincoln. Option (c) is incorrect because though some aspects of self-control is discussed here, the ways of achieving it is not discussed here. The passage discusses how Lincoln reprimanded an officer and told him not to spare time for personal contention. He also advices him to yield larger things. Thus, Option (d) is the correct answer. Question 32 of 35 32. Question The amount of work in a factory is increased by 50%. By what percent is it necessary to increase the number of workers to complete the new work in previously planned time, if productivity of the new workers is 150% more? a) 20% b) 30% c) 33.33% d) None of these Correct Solution (a) Men =Time*Work Let the work be 100 units and time be 1 unit 100×1 = 100 units Now work is 150 units (after 50% increase), but time remains the same. Let m be the total number of workers (with same efficiency) required now. So, m×1=150 So m=150 So extra workers required = 50 But since the new workers are 5/2 times (i.e. 150% more) efficient than the existing workers. So actual number of new workers required = 50/(5/2) = 20 Hence, the required percentage = 20/100 × 100 = 20%   Incorrect Solution (a) Men =Time*Work Let the work be 100 units and time be 1 unit 100×1 = 100 units Now work is 150 units (after 50% increase), but time remains the same. Let m be the total number of workers (with same efficiency) required now. So, m×1=150 So m=150 So extra workers required = 50 But since the new workers are 5/2 times (i.e. 150% more) efficient than the existing workers. So actual number of new workers required = 50/(5/2) = 20 Hence, the required percentage = 20/100 × 100 = 20%   Question 33 of 35 33. Question Never begin by announcing “I am going to prove so- and so to you.” That’s bad. That’s tantamount to saying: “I’m smarter than you are; I’m going to tell you a thing or two and make you change your mind.” That is a challenge. It arouses opposition and makes the listener want to battle with you before you even start. What is the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the above passage? a) The art of convincing others needs subtlety and adroitness. b) Trying to convince others towards wrong deeds is immoral. c) Ability to convince others is naturally present in some. d) It is useless to try and convince a wise Correct Solution (a) The passage discusses why we should not let others know that we are trying to convince them. Thus, we should do that subtly. Option (a) is therefore the correct answer. Option (b) is incorrect because the passage is not about morality. Option (c) is incorrect because the origin of this ability is not discussed here. Option (d) is incorrect because the passage is not specific to wise person. Incorrect Solution (a) The passage discusses why we should not let others know that we are trying to convince them. Thus, we should do that subtly. Option (a) is therefore the correct answer. Option (b) is incorrect because the passage is not about morality. Option (c) is incorrect because the origin of this ability is not discussed here. Option (d) is incorrect because the passage is not specific to wise person. Question 34 of 35 34. Question 60 men, working 9 hours a day can complete a work in 27 days. How many hours a day must 30 men work to complete the same work in 162 days? a) 3 hours b) 2 hours c) 4 hours d) None of these Correct Solution (a) W = MDH (formula) Where, W = work; M = man (number of persons); D = days (number of days); H = hours (hours per day) So, 60×9×27=30×162×X (X= hours a day needed by each of the 30 men) ⇒ X = 60×9×27/30×162 = 3 hours. Incorrect Solution (a) W = MDH (formula) Where, W = work; M = man (number of persons); D = days (number of days); H = hours (hours per day) So, 60×9×27=30×162×X (X= hours a day needed by each of the 30 men) ⇒ X = 60×9×27/30×162 = 3 hours. Question 35 of 35 35. Question Tina goes to her office by car. She usually reaches the office at 10:10 AM. One day she drove at 4/5th (four- fifth) of her usual speed and reached the office at 10:30 AM. What is the time taken by her to reach the office at her usual speed? a) 100 minutes b) 80 minutes c) 70 minutes d) None of these Correct Solution (b) New speed = 4/5 of its usual speed So, New time taken = 5/4 of the usual time [time = distance/speed, if distance is constant then time ∝ 1/speed ] So, (5/4 of the usual time) – (usual time) = 20 min ➱ (5/4 -1) of the usual time = 20 min ➱ ¼ of the usual time = 20 min ➱ usual time = (4×20) min = 80 min. Incorrect Solution (b) New speed = 4/5 of its usual speed So, New time taken = 5/4 of the usual time [time = distance/speed, if distance is constant then time ∝ 1/speed ] So, (5/4 of the usual time) – (usual time) = 20 min ➱ (5/4 -1) of the usual time = 20 min ➱ ¼ of the usual time = 20 min ➱ usual time = (4×20) min = 80 min. window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3546', init: { quizId: 3546, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"30412":{"type":"single","id":30412,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30415":{"type":"single","id":30415,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30416":{"type":"single","id":30416,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30418":{"type":"single","id":30418,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30419":{"type":"single","id":30419,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30420":{"type":"single","id":30420,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30422":{"type":"single","id":30422,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30424":{"type":"single","id":30424,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30427":{"type":"single","id":30427,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30428":{"type":"single","id":30428,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30430":{"type":"single","id":30430,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30433":{"type":"single","id":30433,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30434":{"type":"single","id":30434,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30436":{"type":"single","id":30436,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30437":{"type":"single","id":30437,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30438":{"type":"single","id":30438,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30440":{"type":"single","id":30440,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30442":{"type":"single","id":30442,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30445":{"type":"single","id":30445,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30446":{"type":"single","id":30446,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30447":{"type":"single","id":30447,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30448":{"type":"single","id":30448,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30451":{"type":"single","id":30451,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30452":{"type":"single","id":30452,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30454":{"type":"single","id":30454,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30457":{"type":"single","id":30457,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30460":{"type":"single","id":30460,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30462":{"type":"single","id":30462,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30465":{"type":"single","id":30465,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30466":{"type":"single","id":30466,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30468":{"type":"single","id":30468,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30470":{"type":"single","id":30470,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30473":{"type":"single","id":30473,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30475":{"type":"single","id":30475,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30477":{"type":"single","id":30477,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Democratic Republic of the Congo Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Over the past few weeks, many have died and hundreds of thousands displaced after the fighting between the Congolese army and Rwandan-backed M23 rebel group escalated. Background:- The growing tensions between Congo and Rwanda, which has been accused of supporting the rebels, have not only increased the risk of an all-out conflict but also pose a threat to food security for millions. About Democratic Republic of the Congo The Democratic Republic of the Congo is a country in Central Africa. By land area, the DRC is the second-largest country in Africa.The country has a 25-mile (40-km) coastline on the Atlantic Ocean but is otherwise landlocked. It is named after the Congo River, which flows through the country.The national capital and largest city is Kinshasa. The country is often referred to by its acronym, the DRC, or called Congo (Kinshasa), with the capital added parenthetically, to distinguish it from the other Congo republic, which is officially called the Republic of the Congo and is often referred to as Congo (Brazzaville). The country is bordered by the Republic of the Congo, Central African Republic, South Sudan, Uganda, Rwanda, Burundi, Tanzania (across Lake Tanganyika), Zambia, Angola and the South Atlantic Ocean. The Democratic Republic of the Congo is extremely rich in natural resources (It boasts vast deposits of industrial diamonds, cobalt, and copper) but has suffered from political instability, lack of infrastructure, corruption, and centuries of both commercial and colonial extraction and exploitation. Congo River The Congo River , formerly also known as the Zaire River, is the second-longest river in Africa, shorter only than the Nile, as well as the third-largest river in the world by discharge volume, following the Amazon and Ganges rivers. It is the world’s deepest recorded river, with measured depths of around 220 m. It is the only major river to cross the Equator twice. The river and its tributaries flow through the Congo rainforest, the second largest rainforest area in the world.It drains into the Atlantic Ocean. Source: The Hindu Ethanol 100 or E100 Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Shri Hardeep Singh Puri, Union Minister for Petroleum & Natural Gas and Housing and Urban Affairs, launched ‘ETHANOL 100. Background: ETHANOL 100 fuel has the potential to transform our transportation sector and reduce our dependence on fossil fuels. About Ethanol 100 OR E100: Contrary to popular belief, E100 fuel is not 100 percent ethanol. In accordance with specifications, E100 fuel includes 93-93.5 percent ethanol blended with 5 percent petrol and 1.5 percent co-solvent, which is a binder. Currently, E100 is priced the same as petrol — Rs 94.72/litre in Delhi, Rs 104.21/litre in Maharashtra and Rs 100.75/litre in Chennai. However, with wider adoption of the fuel, E100 will definitely be cheaper than petrol or diesel since ethanol is cheaper. In addition, the government’s keenness to provide a fillip to biofuels which help in crude oil import substitution is also likely to make it competitive in comparison to the conventional fuels. Ethanol is made from agricultural feedstock, which also provides income to farmers, making them a stakeholder in decarbonisation of the economy. E100 can be used as fuel in any flex fuel engine car. A flex fuel engine car is designed to run on a variety of fuels. It comes equipped with an internal combustion engine (ICE) which can run on petrol or ethanol or methanol, giving consumers choice at the point of sale of the fuel. ETHANOL 100 stands as a cleaner, greener alternative, boasting lower emissions of greenhouse gases and pollutants, thus aiding in combating climate change and enhancing air quality. With its high-octane rating, typically between 100-105, ETHANOL100 proves ideal for high-performance engines, ensuring improved efficiency and power output all while minimizing environmental impact. Source: PSU WATCH FLUORIDE CONTAMINATION Syllabus Prelims- Environment Context: Recently, Fluoride contamination was detected in three districts of Kerala. Background: According to the State Environment department, the source of contamination is likely geogenic, meaning these constituents are naturally present in the rock or soil matrix and enter groundwater through various chemical processes. About FLUORIDE CONTAMINATION Fluoride contamination in water is a critical issue worldwide. While fluoride is essential for dental health at low concentrations, excessive exposure can lead to health problems. Key Points: Essential Element: Fluoride is naturally present in water and certain foods. It plays a crucial role in preventing tooth decay. Threshold: However, when fluoride levels exceed 1.5 mg/L, it becomes toxic to humans. According to the Bureau of Indian Standards, the maximum permissible limit of arsenic in groundwater meant for drinking is 0.01 mg/l, while the corresponding limit of fluoride is 1.0 mg/l, which can be extended to 1.5 mg/l in case no alternative source of water is available. Health Impacts: Dental Fluorosis: Excessive fluoride causes dental fluorosis, characterized by staining, pitting, and weakening of tooth enamel. Skeletal Fluorosis: Chronic exposure leads to skeletal fluorosis, affecting bones and joints. Neurological Effects: High fluoride levels may impact the nervous system. Sources of Contamination: Geochemical Reactions: Fluoride leaches from rocks and soil into groundwater. Geological Factors: High fluoride content in specific geological formations. Anthropogenic Factors: Industrial processes, fertilizers, and mining contribute to contamination. Preventive Measures: Water Treatment: Implementing effective water treatment methods to reduce fluoride levels. Monitoring: Regular monitoring of fluoride content in drinking water. Awareness: Educating communities about safe water practices. Alternative Sources: Providing alternative water sources in affected areas. Endemic Areas: Certain regions are endemic for fluorosis due to natural geological factors. Balancing Act: Balancing the benefits of fluoride for dental health with the risks of toxicity is crucial. Other Pollutants that Affect Water Quality: Arsenic reaches groundwater through industrial and mining discharges, as well as fly ash ponds from thermal power plants. Chronic exposure to arsenic-contaminated water may lead to diseases such as black foot disease, diarrhea, lung cancer, and skin cancer. Certain regions in India have localized occurrences of elevated uranium concentrations in groundwater. Other elements that act as water pollutants include mercury (causing Minamata disease), cadmium (associated with Itai-Itai disease and nephritis), chromium (linked to lung cancer and reduced photosynthetic activities in plants), copper (causing various health issues), zinc, and lead (associated with anaemia, mental retardation, and other health problems). Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q1. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India? Arsenic Sorbitol Fluoride Formaldehyde Uranium Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 1 and 3 only 2, 4 and 5 only 1, 3 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 DARIEN GAP Syllabus Prelims :Geography Context: The Darien Gap, a dense jungle spanning northern Colombia and southern Panama, has become a perilous route for migrants seeking asylum in the US. Background The The challenging topography of humid, swampy rainforest as well as criminal gangs who control the area, make the route an extremely challenging and deadly one. About Darien Gap The Darién Gap, also known as the “Tapón del Darién” in Spanish, is a geographic region in the Isthmus of Darién connecting the American continents within Central America. It consists of a large watershed, dense forest, and mountains in Panama’s Darién Province and the northern part of Colombia’s Chocó Department. The Darién Gap is the only overland path connecting Central and South America. Migrants, primarily Haitians and Venezuelans, hike through the dense jungle to reach the US border. Key features of the Darién Gap include: Population: The Darién Gap is home to the Embera-Wounaan and Guna people and was also home to the Cueva people who became extinct by 1535, following the Spanish invasion of Panama. Geography: The geography of the Darién Gap on the Colombian side is dominated primarily by the river delta of the Atrato River, which creates a flat marshland at least 80 km (50 mi) wide. The Panamanian side, in stark contrast, is a mountainous rainforest. Roads: There is no road, not even a primitive one, across the Darién. The “Gap” interrupts the Pan-American Highway. Source: Down To Earth T+0 SETTLEMENT Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Recently, SEBI approve launch of beta version of T+0 settlement from March 28. Background: At present, the Indian securities markets operate on a T+1 settlement cycle. The move aimed at increasing liquidity in the market. About T+0 SETTLEMENT The T+0 settlement refers to the process of settling trades on the very day they are executed, eliminating the traditional waiting period associated with T+1, T+2, or T+3 settlements. It’s akin to receiving an item immediately after purchasing it online. In this new settlement cycle, investors selling their stocks will receive money on the same day of the sale, rather than the current T+1 process where trades are settled on the next trading day. SEBI had shortened the settlement cycle to T+3 from T+5 in 2002 and subsequently to T+2 in 2003. It introduced T+1 in 2021 and implemented in phases, with the final phase completed in January 2023. ThE move to introduce T+0 aims to increase liquidity in the market and provide an alternative alongside the existing T+1 settlement cycle. The Board will review progress after three and six months from the implementation date and consider shareholder feedback. Source: Money Control Konark Sun Temple Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Art & Culture Context: The Union government led by Prime Minister Narendra Modi has approved a new 32 kilometre railway line connecting the temple towns of Puri and Konark that are famous for the Shree Jagannath Temple and Sun Temple, respectively. Background: Union Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw said the new railway stretch will be developed into a spiritual and heritage tourism corridor. About Konark Sun Temple: It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also known as Black Pagoda, Arka Kshetra, and Padma Kshetra. The Sun Temple and Konark Wheel were built during the 13th century under the reign of Eastern Ganga King Narasimhadeva-I. It represents the most evolved period in Kalinga Architecture. Sun temples are temples dedicated to the worship of the Sun God and these are designed to highlight the celestial movement of the Sun. Materials used for building the temple include Chlorite, Laterite, and Khondalite rocks. Konark Sun Temple was once described by Nobel Laureate Rabindranath Tagore as the place where the language of stone surpasses the language of man. Structure of the Konark Sun Temple: The main entrance of the Sun Temple, the Gajasimha – gaja meaning elephant and Simha referring to lions. According to mythology, lions resemble pride, elephants resemble wealth and both of them kill the human. Gajasimha leads to the Sun Temple’s finely carved Natya Mandapa, the hall for dance and theatre. The sculptures here depict different types of dance styles. It is the assembly hall of the temple and the steps that rise to Jagamohan are flanked by stone horses. The Jagamohan is followed by the deul which is the sanctum where the idol is placed. Bhoga-mandira (kitchen) to make bhoga for the deity and devotees. Architectural features of the Konark Sun Temple: It was designed in such a way that the rising sun’s first rays would illuminate the sanctum and the presiding deity. It has been designed like the chariot of Surya, the Sun God. The temple stands on a base of a total of 24 intricately carved wheels, 12 on each side. The chariot seems to be drawn eastwards towards the dawn by a team of seven spirited horses. The thicker wheels are all carved with circular medallions at their centers on the widest part of the face. The rims are carved with designs of foliage with various birds and animals, whereas the medallions in the spokes are carved with the figures of women in various luxurious poses, mostly of a sensual nature. These seven horses have been named in Bhagawat Gita, as ‘Gyatri’, ‘Usnika’, ‘Anustuv’, ‘Vrihati’, ‘Pangti’, ‘Tristup’, and ‘Jagati’ which possibly stand for the rhythmic representation of the sacred verses of the Vedas. The seven horses are also named after the seven colours of the rainbow – Sahasrara (Violet), Indra-nila (Indigo), Nila (Blue), Haritaha (Green), Pita (Yellow), Kausumbhaha (Orange), and Rakta (Red). There are two carved war horses in front of the southern side of the Konark Temple. The sculpture depicts each of them with its massive strength and energy crushing down the warrior. This figure of the war horse of Konark has been accepted as the symbol of the state Government of Odisha. It has three impressive carvings of the Sun God at three strategic locations, to catch the sun at dawn, at noon, and sunset. The carvings at the base of the temple and on its walls chronicle everyday activities. Some carvings depict sensuous details while others exhibit mythical creatures and animals like elephants and birds. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the T+0 settlement cycle, consider the following statements: It is introduced by the Reserve Bank of India. In this settlement cycle, investors selling their stocks will receive money on the same day of the sale. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) The Darién Gap, recently found in news is a geographic region in the Isthmus of Darién connecting the Africa and West Asia Europe and Asia Central and South America South Korea and Japan Q3.)With reference to fluoride contamination, consider the following statements: Fluoride leaches from rocks and soil into groundwater. when fluoride levels exceed 1.5 mg/L, it becomes toxic to humans. Excessive fluoride leads to skeletal fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are not correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  18th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  16th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) – c