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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Mahamastakabhisheka Syllabus Prelims – Culture Context: Nine-day mahamastakabhisheka celebrations begin at Venur in Karnataka Background:- The Mahamastakabhisheka Mahotsava of Bhagavan Shri Bahubali Swami, the first Mokshagami and son of the first Theerthankara of Jainism, began with rituals at Venur in Dakshina Kannada district of Karnataka. About Mahamastakabhisheka The Mahamastakabhisheka refers to the abhiṣheka (anointment) of the Jain images when held on a large scale. The most famous of such consecrations is the anointment of the located at Shravanabelagola(Hassan district) in Karnataka, India. It is an important Jain festival held once in every 12 years. It is an integral part of the ancient and composite Jain tradition. Karnataka has many important Jain pilgrim centres, temples and monuments. Shravanabelagola, Dharmasthala, Karkala, Moodbidri, Venur, Humcha and Narasimharajapura will astonish the visitors by their vast and abundant Jain heritage. About Bahubali Bahubali, according to the traditions of Jainism,is the son of the first Tirthankara Rishabhanatha. After Bahubali won a duel with his half brother for control of the kingdom, he is believed by the Jains to have realized the transience of temporal affairs and renounced the world. According to legend, he then stood immobile, with feet straight ahead and arms at his side, meditating for an entire year in the Yogic position of kayotsarga (“dismissing the body”). He was so unmindful of the world around him that vines grew undisturbed up his arms and legs and anthills rose around his feet. His meditation led him to true victory over human passion and, according to the beliefs of the Digambara sect of Jainism, enabled him to become the first human of this kalpa (world age) to gain liberation. Source: Brittanica The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) has approved an elevated road over nine corridors used by the animals of Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve, usually during heavy floods. Background: NBWL is the forest land diversion regulatory body for the country’s protected areas such as wildlife sanctuaries and national parks. Apart from regulating land diversion, the body looks after important policy decisions regarding wildlife conservation. About National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is a statutory Board constituted on 22nd September 2003 under Section 5 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. The NBWL is chaired by the Hon’ble Prime Minister. It has a total of 47 members, 19 of whom are ex-officio members. Every new government constitutes a new board, based on the provisions of the WLPA, with the new PM as the chair. It is responsible for guiding the government’s decisions on matters related to wildlife conservation, and issuing approvals for projects in protected areas. In practical terms, many of its tasks are delegated to a standing committee The standing committee of NBWL is chaired by the Minister of Environment Forest and Climate Change. Source:  Down To Earth Kaziranga National Park Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context:The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) has approved an elevated road over nine corridors used by the animals of Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve, usually during heavy floods. Background: In the heart of Assam, this park is one of the last areas in eastern India undisturbed by a human presence. About Kaziranga National Park Kaziranga National Park is a prestigious national park of India situated in the northeastern part of the country in the district of Golaghat and Nagoan in the state of Assam. It was declared a National Park in 1974. It was declared a tiger reserve in 2007. Kaziranga was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO for its unique natural environment in the year of 1985. The park has been identified as an Important Bird Area by the Birdlife International Society as it is home to various species of migrating and inhabitant birds. It is situated on the banks of the river Brahmaputra. It is majorly known for the ‘big four’ species— Rhino, Elephant, Royal Bengal tiger, and Asiatic water buffalo. The National Highway 37 passes through it. The Diphlu River runs through it. The landscape is marked by: Tropical moist mixed deciduous forests and tropical semi-evergreen forests, tall grasses, open jungle, and short grasses . Source: The Hindu OPERATION ASPIDES Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: The European Union has recently launched a Red Sea mission named Mission Aspides. Background: Since October 2023, numerous Houthi attacks have targeted vessels in the Red Sea, the Gulf of Aden, the Arabian Sea and the Gulf of Oman. Such attacks jeopardise the life of civilians on merchant and commercial vessels, and constitute a breach of the freedom of the high seas and of the right of transit passage in straits used for international navigation enshrined in United Nations Convention of the Law of the Sea. About Mission Aspides: Mission Aspides is a new European Union defensive maritime security operation launched by the Council of the EU on 19 February 2024. The objective of this operation is to restore and safeguard freedom of navigation in the Red Sea and the Gulf. The operation will ensure European Union naval presence in the area, provide maritime situational awareness, accompany and protect vessels against possible multi-domain attacks at sea, and coordinate closely with like-minded international partners and other EU operations. The Operation headquarters is based in Larissa, Greece Source: Business Today FAIR AND REMUNERATIVE PRICE (FRP) Syllabus Prelims– Economy Context: The Union Cabinet recently approved a hike in prices for sugarcane, known as fair and remunerative price (FRP), payable by millers to cane growers for the fiscal year 2024-25. Background: The council of ministers cleared an FRP of ₹ 340 per quintal of sugarcane for the sugar year beginning on October 1, 2024. This is the highest FRP for sugarcane announced since 2014. The new FRP is 107% higher than the cost of production. About FAIR AND REMUNERATIVE PRICE (FRP) The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) is the minimum price that sugar mills are required to pay to farmers for sugarcane. The FRP was introduced by the government in 2009 to replace the Statutory Minimum Price (SMP). It ensures timely payment to farmers, irrespective of the profit and loss to sugar mills. The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) is fixed by the Union government, specifically the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). Sugar Cane production in India Sugarcane is grown as a Kharif crop in India. The geographical conditions for the growth of sugarcane are as follows: Temperature: Sugarcane requires a hot and humid climate with an average temperature of 21°C to 27°C. Rainfall: Around 75-150 cm of rainfall is favourable for sugarcane cultivation. The largest producer of sugarcane in India is Maharashtra followed by Uttar Pradesh and Karnataka. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q)The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture Agricultural Produce Market Committee NATIONAL LIVESTOCK MISSION (NLM) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: The Union Cabinet approved further modification of National Livestock Mission by including the additional activities. Background: The National Livestock Mission (NLM), also known as Rashtriya Pashudhan Vikas Yojana, was established in the fiscal year 2014–15 and revised in 2021-22. About NATIONAL LIVESTOCK MISSION (NLM) It is an initiative of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare. The mission aims to achieve sustainable development of the livestock sector. Objectives To enhance the level of nutrition and standard of living of livestock keepers and farmers, especially small holders, through sustainable, safe, and equitable livestock development. To generate employment through entrepreneurship development in small ruminant, poultry, and piggery sector & fodder sector. To increase per animal productivity through breed improvement. To increase the production of meat, egg, goat milk, wool, and fodder. The mission is implemented with the following three Sub-Missions: Sub-Mission on Breed Development of Livestock & Poultry: This sub-mission focuses on entrepreneurship development and breed improvement in poultry, sheep, goat, and piggery by providing incentivization to individuals, FPOs, SHGs, Section 8 companies for entrepreneurship development and also to the State Government for breed improvement infrastructure. Sub-Mission on Feed and Fodder development: This sub-mission aims towards strengthening of fodder seed chain to improve availability of certified fodder seed required for fodder production and encouraging entrepreneurs for establishment of fodder Block/Hey Bailing/Silage Making Units through incentivisation. Sub-Mission on Research & Development, Livestock Insurance, Extension and Innovation: This sub-mission aims to incentivize the Institutes, Universities, Organizations carrying out research and development related to sheep, goat, pig and feed and fodder sector, extension activities, livestock insurance and innovation. Sources : Livemint Lewis Model Syllabus Mains -GS3 Context: The While the Lewis Model has proved successful for China, India grapples with its implementation, encountering challenges in the transition from agriculture to industrialization. Background: It was given by EconomistWilliam Arthur Lewis in 1954, who put forth the “Economic Development with Unlimited Supplies of Labor” and won the Nobel Prize in Economics in 1979. What is the Lewis Model? Lewis Model suggested thatsurplus labor in agriculture could be redirected to the manufacturing sector by offering wages just high enough to attract workers away from the farm. This shift, in theory, would stimulate industrial growth, enhance productivity, and lead to economic development. Challenges in implementing the Lewis Model in India: Low wages and inadequate social security in urban manufacturing facilities fail to enticerural agricultural laborers to relocate, given the high costs of urban living, posing a hurdle to the implementation of the Lewis model. Manufacturing industries areincreasingly capital-intensive, relying on labor-displacing technologies like robotics and artificial intelligence. This transition restricts the absorptive capacity of labor-intensive sectors to accommodate surplus agricultural workers. India faces a scenario ofdisguised unemployment in the agricultural sector, where a surplus of workers is engaged in activities that do not significantly contribute to increased productivity or income. This surplus labor situationcomplicates the transition of workers to other sectors. There exists amismatch between the skills demanded by the industries and the skills possessed by the workforce. The education system might not adequately prepare individuals for the demands of the modern job market, resulting in a skill gap. Societal perceptions oftenprioritize white-collar jobs over vocational or technical skills. This bias against blue-collar work can limit the workforce available for skilled trade positions and technical jobs, affecting industrial growth. Alternate Models to the Lewis Model for India: Farm-as-Factory Model suggests a focus onelevating the value addition and productivity within India’s agricultural sector rather than transferring workers from agriculture to manufacturing. By emphasizing the promotion of agribusiness, bio-fuels, and food processing this approach aims to enhance employment opportunities, income generation, and innovation for rural workers. Services-led Model proposes thatIndia should leverage its comparative advantage in services to drive its economic growth as India has a strong presence in sectors such as information technology, business process outsourcing, tourism, health care, and entertainment which can create high-skilled jobs, boost exports, and attract foreign investment. Amartya Sen’s Capability Approachemphasizes enhancing individuals’ capabilities and freedoms by prioritizing education, healthcare, and social support, this approach aims to empower individuals to pursue their own choices and opportunities. Source: The Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.)With reference to National Livestock Mission (NLM), consider the following statements: It is an initiative of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare. The mission aims to achieve sustainable development of the livestock sector. NLM aims to enhance the level of nutrition and standard of living of livestock keepers and farmers. How many statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q2.)Consider the following statements: The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) is the minimum price that sugar mills are required to pay to farmers for sugarcane. The Fair and Remunerative Price is fixed by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. The largest producer of sugarcane in India is Maharashtra. How many statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.) Operation APSIDES, recently seen in news is aims to Protect civilians from Israel- Hamas war Resume Black Sea grain deal Protect shipping in the Red Sea region from Yemen’s Houthi rebels Defending the Ukrainian border from Russian invasion Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  23rd February  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  22nd February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23rd February 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

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[FREE WORKSHOP] Know Everything about cracking KPSC/ KAS 2024 by Toppers and Officers on 25th February (Sunday) at 11 AM

Hello Everyone The biggest challenge that freshers encounter at the outset is figuring out how to initiate their preparation. With numerous sources, topper’s strategies, online guidance, and more, it can be overwhelming. Therefore, to offer a structured approach, IASbaba is hosting a FREE Workshop titled ‘Know Everything about cracking KPSC – KAS 2024’ on 25th February (Sunday) at 11 AM. Agenda of Workshop Interaction with the Toppers and Serving Bureaucrats How to crack KPSC-KAS in First Attempt? Interaction with Topper and Serving Bureaucrat When we want to excel in a certain field, we have our role models. We look up to them and try to be like them, as our dream is their reality. The field of Civil Services is no different. We are honored that Mrs. Archana C (KAS Officer) has obliged us by agreeing to have an open discussion with the aspirants. They will be discussing their vast experience in the system, the perks of the service, and its problems too. You will be able to ask your queries regarding Civil Services and about the attitude that a civil servant should have. Mrs. Archana C, a highly qualified and accomplished KAS Officer with a background in Information Science (BE), Public Administration (MA), and Law (LLB), has successfully cleared notable exams such as CTO in 2012, AC Revenue in 2011, and ACCT in 2014. Currently, she holds the position of GM (Admin and Startups) at the Department of IT, BT, and Electronics, Government of Karnataka. How to crack KPSC-KAS in First Attempt? In this session, we will be discussing the approach towards KPSC-KAS. How should you plan and integrate your prelims and mains preparation? Workshop Details Date and Time: 25th February (SUNDAY) at 11 AM Venue of the Workshop: IASbaba Headquarters  – 2nd floor, Ganapathi Circle, 80 Feet Rd, Chandra Layout, Bengaluru – 560072 Google Map Link For The Venue – Click Here Please Register here for the Workshop – CLICK HERE KPSC KAS Full-Fledged CLASSROOM (PRELIMS & MAINS) FOUNDATION COURSE 2024-25 – CLICK HERE For More Details/Queries Email us at: support@iasbaba.com Mobile No: 91691 91888 (Please call between 10 am – 5:30 pm ONLY)   Thank You  IASbaba For a dedicated peer group, Motivation & Quick updates, Join our official telegram channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccount Subscribe to our YouTube Channel HERE to watch Explainer Videos, Strategy Sessions, Toppers Talks & many more…

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   India-Middle East Economic Corridor (IMEC) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Greek PM Kyrios Mitsotakis emphasises the need to proceed ahead with IMEC despite conflict in middle east. Background:- Despite the Israeli war in Gaza “destabilising” plans for the India-Middle East Economic Corridor (IMEC), India and Greece should persevere with the project said Greek Prime Minister Kyrios Mitsotakis.He also also inaugurated the annual Raisina Dialogue in New Delhi on February 21. IMEC was announced during G20 meeting in New Delhi. About India-Middle East Economic Corridor (IMEC) The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) is a planned economic corridor that aims to bolster economic development by fostering connectivity and economic integration between Asia, the Persian Gulf, and Europe. Key Features of IMEC The proposed IMEC will consist of Railroad, Ship-to-Rail networks, and Road transport routes extending across two corridors: The East Corridor (connecting India to the Arabian Gulf) and The Northern Corridor (connecting the Gulf to Europe). The IMEC corridor will also include an electricity cable, a hydrogen pipeline, and a high-speed data cable. Signatories include India, the US, Saudi Arabia, UAE, the European Union, Italy, France and Germany. Ports to be connected include Mundra and Kandla in Gujarat, and Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust in Navi Mumbai in India; Fujairah, Jebel Ali, and Abu Dhabi in the UAE; Dammam and Ras Al Khair ports in Saudi Arabia; Haifa port in Israel; and Piraeus port in Greece, Messina in South Italy, and Marseille in France. IMEC is seen as a potential counter to China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) in the Eurasian region. It can serve to counterbalance China’s growing economic and political influence, especially in regions with historically strong ties to the U.S. Source: The Hindu Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Fresh measures to curb unauthorised online lending apps’ operations could be on the anvil, following deliberations on the issue at the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) chaired by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Wednesday. Background: The FSDC, which has all financial sector regulators on board including the Reserve Bank of India, also discussed issues related to macro financial stability and the country’s preparedness to deal with any challenges that may come up. About Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC): It is non-statutory apex council constituted by the Executive Order in 2010. It works under the Ministry of Finance The Raghuram Rajan committee (2008) on financial sector reforms first proposed the creation of FSDC. It is chaired by the Finance Minister and its members include the heads of all Financial Sector Regulators (RBI, SEBI, PFRDA & IRDA), Finance Secretary, Secretary of Department of Economic Affairs (DEA), Secretary of Department of Financial Services (DFS), Chief Economic Adviser, Secretary of Department of Electronics and Information Technology, Chairperson of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) and the Revenue Secretary. The Council can invite experts to its meeting if required. Functions: To strengthen and institutionalize the mechanism for maintaining financial stability, enhancing inter-regulatory coordination and promoting financial sector development. To monitor macro-prudential supervision of the economy. It assesses the functioning of the large financial conglomerates. Source: The Hindu India’s Aviation Industry Syllabus Mains – GS3 Context:India’s aviation industry has witnessed remarkable growth in recent years. However, this rapid expansion has also highlighted critical issues including a severe shortage of experienced pilots. Background: India’s aviation industry is a collective sector encompassing all aspects of civil aviation within the country. It includes various components, such as airlines, airports, aircraft manufacturing, aviation services, and regulatory authorities. Status of India’s Aviation Industry: India has become the third-largest domestic aviation market in the world. India’s airport capacity is expected to handle 1 billion trips annually by 2023. According to the data released by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), FDI inflow in India’s air transport sector (including air freight) reached USD 3.73 billion between April 2000 – December 2022. Challenges/Issues faced by India’s Aviation Industry: Many major airports in India, including those in Mumbai and Delhi, face severe congestion, leading to delays and operational inefficiencies. Many major cities are well-connected, and smaller towns and regions often lack adequate airport infrastructure and air connectivity. Indian airlines are projected to record a consolidated loss of $1.6 to 1.8 billion in FY24, due to the heavy financial bleeding of Go First, Spice Jet, and Jet Airways. High taxes on aviation turbine fuel (ATF) and airport charges contribute to increased operating costs. Some Indian states charge up to 30% taxes on jet fuel, which makes shorter flight routes unprofitable for smaller airlines. India’s per capita penetration of domestic air travel (0.13 seats deployed per capita) remains significantly lower than countries like China (0.49) and Brazil (0.57). This indicates the failure of the aviation industry in India to tap the maximum potential of the domestic air market. Airlines in India often announce ambitious growth plans without adequately analysing their financial security, infrastructural and personnel requirements. For example- The failure of Kingfisher, Jet Airways, and Go First on account of inflated projections. Beyond terrorism and hijacking, security concerns are increasingly associated with cyber threats to aviation infrastructure, which can disrupt operations and compromise passenger data. The Aircraft Act, of 1934 and Aircraft Rules, of 1937 have not kept pace with modern technology in aerospace. This has led to increased costs for the industry’s operation and ultimately affected passenger growth. Government Initiatives to Promote Aviation Sector in India: National Civil Aviation Policy, 2016 aims to improve the international footprint of India-based airline services. Airlines can commence international operations, provided they deploy 20 aircraft or 20% of their total capacity (whichever is higher) for domestic operations. UDAN Scheme aims to expand access to air travel for Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities and shift the traffic pattern away from Metro routes. Open Sky Policy aims to liberalise the aviation sector in India by opening the airport sector to private participation. Open Sky Air Service Agreement allows for airlines from the two countries to have an unlimited number of flights as well as seats to each other’s jurisdictions. India has signed these agreements with multiple nations like the US, Greece, Jamaica, Japan, Finland, and Sri Lanka. 100% FDI is allowed under the automatic route for greenfield projects, whereas 74% FDI is allowed under the automatic route for brownfield projects. Source: Financial Express EXOPLANETS Syllabus Prelims – Science Context: Two giant exoplanets, each possibly several to tens of times the mass of Earth, crashed into each other. Background: The collision completely liquified the two planets, leaving behind a single molten core surrounded by a cloud of gas, hot rock, and dust. This event is a testament to the brutal nature of the universe and provides a unique opportunity for scientists to study the aftermath of such colossal planetary collisions. The research team is planning to use NASA’s James Webb Space Telescope to further observe this system and what remains of the two worlds. About Exoplanets: Exoplanets are the planets that orbit around other stars located outside our solar system. Exoplanets are also called extrasolar planets. Most of the exoplanets discovered so far are located in the Milky way galaxy. In fact, astronomers have detected a few exoplanets in other galaxies, such as Andromeda and M31. Key Points about Exoplanets: Discovery: The first possible evidence of an exoplanet was noted in 1917, but the first confirmation of detection occurred in 1992. Methods of Detection: Transit photometry and Doppler spectroscopy are the most common methods used to detect exoplanets. Types of Exoplanets: Some exoplanets are massive, like Jupiter, but orbit much closer to their host star than Mercury does to our Sun. Others are rocky or icy, and many simply do not have analogues in our Solar System. Habitable Zone: There is special interest in planets that orbit in a star’s habitable zone, where it is possible for liquid water, a prerequisite for life as we know it, to exist on the surface. Future Exploration: The James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) is expected to discover more exoplanets, as well as provide further insight in regard to aspects including their composition, environmental conditions, and potential for life. Source: Business Today Previous Year Question Q1. Which of the following pair is/are correctly matched? Spacecraft                                  Purpose Cassini-Huygens             Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth Messenger                        Mapping and investigating the Mercury Voyager 1 and 2               Exploring the outer solar system Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 INDIAN RENEWABLE ENERGY DEVELOPMENT AGENCY LTD. (IREDA) Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: In a significant move towards boosting India’s renewable energy sector, the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd. (IREDA) has unveiled plans to establish a subsidiary aimed at the retail market. Background: The proposed subsidiary will focus on facilitating projects in areas such as Rooftop Solar, PM-KUSUM, Electric Vehicles, and other Business-to-Consumer (B2C) segments, contingent upon the approval from the Government of India. About INDIAN RENEWABLE ENERGY DEVELOPMENT AGENCY LTD. (IREDA) The Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd. (IREDA) is a state-owned non-banking finance company that develops renewable energy and energy conservation projects. It provides financial support to projects for generating electricity through new and renewable resources. It provides loans, equity funding, and grants to renewable energy and energy efficiency projects in India. It also collaborates with other banks and financial institutions for co-lending and loan syndication. It functions under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). It was established in 1987 and awarded the status of “Mini Ratna” (Category-I) in 2015. Its motto is “Energy for Ever”. It finances all renewable energy technologies and value chain such as solar, wind, hydro, bio-energy, waste to energy, energy efficiency, e-mobility, battery storage, biofuel, and new and emerging technologies. Renewable Energy Projects in India Renewable energy is the energy that comes from natural sources such as sunlight, wind, water, and biomass. Renewable energy projects aim to harness these sources to generate electricity, heat, or fuel in a sustainable and environmentally friendly way. India is one of the leading countries in renewable energy, with a target of achieving 500 GW of renewable energy capacity by 2030. As of December 2023, India’s installed renewable energy capacity (including large hydro) was 179.57 GW, which is about 42% of the country’s total capacity. India stands 4th globally in Renewable Energy Installed Capacity, 4th in Wind Power capacity and 5th in Solar Power capacity as per International Renewable Energy Agency – Renewable capacity statistics 2023. Some of the major renewable energy projects in India are Puga Geothermal Energy Project in Ladakh Bhadla Solar Park in Rajasthan Muppandal Wind Farm in Tamil Nadu Koyna Hydroelectric Project in Maharashtra Source: Economic Times MODEL CODE OF CONDUCT (MCC) Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: An Indian delegation is set to leave for London in an effort to seal the free trade agreement with the UK, as dates for the general elections are expected to be announced in less than a month, which will trigger the Model Code of Conduct (MCC). Background: For the previous general elections in 2019, the MCC had come into force in the first half of March, and its presence may impede the Central Government’s ability to provide commitments in any FTAs till a new regime is sworn in post-elections. About MODEL CODE OF CONDUCT (MCC) The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India (ECI) for the conduct of political parties and candidates during elections. The MCC aims to ensure free and fair elections and to prevent any misuse of power or resources by the ruling party or government. As per the Election Commission of India, the model code of conduct was first observed during the 1960 polls (Kerala State Election) and since 1991 it has become an integral part of Indian election. The MCC comes into force from the date the election schedule is announced until the date that results are out. The MCC is not legally binding, but the ECI can take action against the violators under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and the Indian Penal Code, 1860. The ECI can also use its constitutional powers under Article 324 to issue orders and directions to ensure compliance with the MCC. Sources : CNBC Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.)With reference to the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) which of the following statements is not correct? The Model Code of Conduct is a set of guidelines issued by the Union Government of India. The MCC comes into force as soon as the election schedule is announced by the Election Commission of India and remains in effect till the end of the election process. The MCC is not enforceable by law. ECI can take action against the violators under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Q2.)Consider the following pairs: Renewable energy projects                                        States Puga Geothermal Energy Project              Himachal Pradesh Bhadla Solar Park                                         Rajasthan Muppandal Wind Farm                                  Kerala Koyna Hydroelectric Project                        Maharashtra How many of the above are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four Q3.) Consider the following devices: European Southern Observatory’s Very Large Telescope (ESO’s VLT) Kepler Space Telescope Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS) James Webb Space Telescope How many of the above are designed to find out Exoplanets? Only one Only two Only three All four Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  22nd February  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  21st February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 22nd February 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Cervical Cancer Syllabus Prelims -Science Context: Experts have raised the need to conduct more screening test to detect cervical cancer among women along with vaccine drive for girls. Background:- Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced during the presentation of the interim Budget that the government plans to encourage vaccination against cervical cancer for girls aged nine to 14. About Cervical Cancer :- Cancer is a disease in which cells in the body grow out of control. Cancer is always named for the part of the body where it starts, even if it spreads to other body parts later. Cervical cancer is a growth of cells that starts in the cervix. The cervix is the lower part of the uterus that connects to the vagina. Various strains of the human papillomavirus, also called HPV, play a role in causing most cervical cancers. HPV is a common infection that’s passed through sexual contact. When exposed to HPV, the body’s immune system typically prevents the virus from doing harm. In a small percentage of people, however, the virus survives for years. This contributes to the process that causes some cervical cells to become cancer cells. It is the second leading cause of cancer-related deaths among women in India (over 77,000 annually), and is estimated to be the second most frequent cancer among Indian women between 15 and 44 years. VIA (visual inspection with acetic acid) and VILI (visual inspection using Lugol’s iodine) are the Screening test recommended for cervical cancer Source: The Hindu Raising Dialogue Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: The ninth edition of the Raisina Dialogue will be held from today till Friday (February 23) in New Delhi. Background: The conference will be inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. Greece’s Prime Minister Kyriakos Mitsotakis will join the inauguration session as the chief guest. About Raisina Dialogue: The Raisina Dialogue is an annual conference on geopolitics and geoeconomics, which aims to address the most challenging issues faced by the world. The conference takes place in New Delhi and is attended by people from political, business, media, and civil society backgrounds. Delhi-based think tank Observer Research Foundation, in partnership with the Ministry of External Affairs, hosts the conference. The theme of the 2024 edition is “Chaturanga: Conflict, Contest, Cooperate, Create”. Source: The Indian Express Article 142 Syllabus Prelims and Mains – Polity Context: In overturning the results of the January 30 elections for the post of Mayor of the Chandigarh Municipal Corporation, the Supreme Court invoked the powers conferred on the court under Article 142 of the Constitution. Background: The powers under Article 142 are extraordinary in nature and the apex court has defined its scope and extent through its judgments over time. About Article 142 TArticle 142 provides discretionary power to the Supreme Court as it states that the Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it. Subsection 1 of Article 142 provides a unique power to the Supreme Court, to do complete justice between the parties. According to some eminent jurists, natural justice is above law, and the Supreme Court shall have full right to pass any order that it considers just. Therefore, the Supreme Court shall exercise these powers and will not be deterred from doing justice by the provision of any rule or law, executive practice or executive circular or regulation etc. The framers of the Constitution felt that this provision is of utmost significance to those people who have to suffer due to the delay in getting their necessary reliefs due to the disadvantaged position of the judicial system. Significance of Article 142:- Prevents Injustice: It provides a special and extraordinary power to the Supreme Court to do complete justice to the litigants who have suffered traversed illegality or injustice in the proceedings. Uphold citizen’s rights: Article 142 has been invoked for the purpose of protecting the rights of the different sections of the population. Check on Government: Works as a system of checks and balances with the Government or Legislature. Cases where the Supreme Court has invoked its plenary powers under Article 142:- Manohar Lal Sharma v. Principal Secretary(2014): The Supreme Court can deal with exceptional circumstances interfering with the larger interest of the public in order to fabricate trust in the rule of law. R. Antulay v. R.S. Nayak(1988): The Supreme Court held that any discretion which is given by the court should not be arbitrary or in any way be inconsistent with provisions of any statute laid down. Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India (1989): In Bhopal Gas Tragedy Case, the court ordered to award of compensation to the victims and placed itself in a position above the Parliamentary laws. Source: The Indian Express Review of Maritime Transport 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) has released the Review of Maritime Transport 2023, highlighting the Issue of Greenhouse Gas (GHG) Emissions from International Shipping and Challenges in Decarbonization. Background: IMO (International Maritime Organization) has set a target to achieve net-zero GHG emissions by around 2050. Key highlights of the Review: GHG emissions from international shipping were 20% higher in 2023 compared to a decade ago. The shipping industry contributes to over 80% of the world’s trade volume and nearly 3% of global GHG emissions. Containerized trade is expected to grow by 1.2% in 2023 and further by 3% between 2024-2028. Oil and gas trade volumes showed robust growth in 2022. Early in January 2023, commercial ships were on average 22.2 years old and more than half of the world’s fleet was over 15 years old. As the average age of the world fleet is increasing, it raises concern that alternative fuels are not yet available at scale and are more costly, and the ships that can use them are also more costly than traditional ships. 8% of the global fleet uses conventional fuels like heavy fuel oil, light fuel oil, and diesel/gas oil. Only 1.2% are using alternative fuels, mainly LNG, LPG, methanol, and to a lesser extent, battery/hybrid. However, progress is underway as 21 % of vessels currently on order are designed to run on alternative fuels, notably LNG, LPG, battery/hybrid, and methanol. Decarbonizing the world’s fleet by 2050 could require annual investments ranging from USD 8 billion to USD 90 billion. Full decarbonization could double yearly fuel costs, necessitating a just transition for the sector. Source: UNCTAD VAIBHAV SCHEME Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: 75 Indian Diaspora Scientists to return to India under Government’s Vaibhav Scheme. Background: The first group of 22 fellows has already been chosen to the scheme meant to attract Indian-origin scientists based abroad for short-term collaboration with Indian institutions.Twenty-two scientists, mostly based at North American and European institutes including the California Institute of Technology, the University of Oxford, the University of Michigan, the University of Geneva, the University of Waterloo, Canada, and the University of Oslo, will spend anywhere from a month or two annually, for a maximum of three years, at host Indian institutes. About VAIBHAV The Vaishwik Bhartiya Vaigyanik (VAIBHAV) Fellowship is a program implemented by the Department of Science & Technology, Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India. The program aims to foster collaboration between scientists of the Indian Diaspora and Indian Higher Educational Institutions (HEIs), Universities, and/or Public Funded Scientific Institutions. Key Features:  Knowledge Verticals: The program focuses on 18 identified knowledge verticals, including quantum technology, health, pharmaceuticals, electronics, agriculture, energy, computer sciences, and material sciences, among others. Eligibility: The fellowship is open to outstanding scientists and technologists of Indian origin (Non-resident Indians (NRI)/ Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) / Overseas Citizen of India (OCI)) who are actively engaged in research activities in their respective countries. Collaboration Duration: Selected fellows may spend up to two months per year, for a maximum of three years, at an Indian institution of their choice. Fellowship Grant: VAIBHAV fellows will receive a monthly fellowship grant of INR 4,00,000, which will support their research activities during the collaboration period. Travel, Accommodation, and Contingencies: The fellowship will cover international and domestic travel expenses, accommodation, and contingencies. Source: The Hindu GLOBAL PULSES CONFERENCE (GPC) Syllabus Prelims -Current Event Context: Global Pulses Conference (GPC) urges India to augment production of pulses to meet nutritional requirements. Background: The Global Pulse Conference 2024 was recently held in New Delhi. About Global Pulse Conference The Global Pulse Conference is an annual event that brings together the global pulse industry to enhance trade, networking, and market insights. The Global Pulse Conference 2024 was organized by the National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd. (NAFED) and the Global Pulse Confederation (GPC). The theme of Global Pulse Conference 2024 was ‘nourishing soils to nourish people’. The conference also discusses the role of pulses in environmental sustainability and nutrition, as well as the challenges and opportunities for pulses production in India and around the world. Pulses Production in India Pulses are an important source of plant-based protein and are a staple in the Indian diet. India is the largest producer, consumer, and importer of pulses in the world. Pulses account for around 20 per cent of the area under foodgrains and contribute around 7-10 per cent of the total foodgrains production in the country. The largest pulse producing state in India in 2024 is Rajasthan. Rajasthan accounts for over 19 percent of the total pulses production in India. The major pulse-producing states in India are Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, and Andhra Pradesh. The government has implemented various schemes and initiatives to support pulses production and enhance farmers’ income, such as the National Food Security Mission (NFSM) and the National Mission on Protein Supplements (NMPS). Sources : Hindu Businessline Previous Year Question Q) With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following statements: Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crop. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production. In the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased, the production of rabi pulses has decreased. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1, 2 and 3 NATIONAL TIGER CONSERVATION AUTHORITY (NTCA) Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: The government of Arunachal Pradesh recently signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA). Background: The MoU aims to raise, arm, and deploy a Special Tiger Protection Force (STPF) for all three tiger reserves in the state, namely Namdapha, Kamlang and Pakke. The MoU is a response to the alarming decline in the tiger population in Arunachal Pradesh, which dropped from 29 in 2018 to only nine in 2022 according to the national tiger census. About NTCA: The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. It was constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2006, for strengthening tiger conservation. The NTCA is tasked with the management of Project Tiger and the Tiger Reserves in India. The NTCA was established in December 2005 following the recommendation of the Tiger Task Force, which was constituted by the Prime Minister of India to review the status of tigers in the country. The chairman of the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is the Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Key Functions: Monitoring Tigers: The NTCA monitors tigers at the pan-India level using technological tools like camera traps within a robust statistical framework for understanding tiger population dynamics. Management Evaluation: The NTCA conducts the Management Effective Evaluation of Tiger Reserves of India. Technical & Financial Support: The NTCA provides technical and financial support to Tiger Reserves. Reintroducing Tigers: India has the unique distinction of reintroducing tigers from the wild in Sariska and Panna Tiger Reserves. The NTCA is the authority to permit the cheetah reintroduction plan in India. The NTCA has also identified suitable habitats for the cheetahs in India, such as Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh, where the first batch of eight cheetahs arrived in September 2022. International Co-operation: India is actively pursuing the tiger conservation agenda with other Tiger Range Countries (TRCs) at the international level through bilateral agreements, capacity building, and co-operation initiatives. Special Tiger Protection Force: For protecting tigers in landscapes vulnerable to poaching, the NTCA has constituted Special Tiger Protection Force (STPF) in selected tiger reserves. Source: Deccan Herald Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), consider the following statements: The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a constitutional body. The NTCA is tasked with the management of Project Tiger and the Tiger Reserves in India. Prime Minister of India is the chairman of the National Tiger Conservation Authority. How many statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q2.) With reference to Vaibhav Scheme, consider the following statements: The scheme is implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Ministry of Science and Technology. The scheme is open to outstanding scientists and technologists of Indian origin who are actively engaged in research activities in their respective countries. The selected fellows will have the opportunity to work in collaboration with Indian Higher Educational Institutions (HEIs). The fellows will receive a monthly fellowship grant along with travel and accommodation support. How many statements given above is/are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q3.) Consider the following statements: The Global Pulse Conference 2024 was recently held in New Delhi. India is the largest producer of pulses in the world. The major pulse-producing states in India are Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. How many statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  21st February  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  20th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 21st February 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   International Court of Justice(ICJ) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Palestine accuses Israel of apartheid at ICJ Background:- The International Court of Justice is holding hearings on the legal implications of occupation of territories by Israel. About International Court of Justice :- The ICJ is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It was established in June 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in April 1946. The court is the successor to the Permanent Court of International Justice (PCIJ), which was brought into being through, and by, the League of Nations, 1922. Like the PCIJ, the ICJ is based at the Peace Palace in The Hague. It is the only one of the six principal organs of the UN that is not located in New York City. (The other five organs are the General Assembly, the Security Council, the Economic and Social Council, the Trusteeship Council, and the Secretariat.) According to the ICJ’s own description, its role is “to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted to it by States and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies”. The court “as a whole must represent the main forms of civilization and the principal legal systems of the world”. English and French are the ICJ’s official languages. All members of the UN are automatically parties to the ICJ statute, but this does not automatically give the ICJ jurisdiction over disputes involving them. The ICJ gets jurisdiction only if both parties consent to it. The judgment of the ICJ is final and technically binding on the parties to a case. There is no provision of appeal; it can at the most, be subject to interpretation or, upon the discovery of a new fact, revision. However, the ICJ has no way to ensure compliance of its orders, and its authority is derived from the willingness of countries to abide by them. The ICJ has 15 judges who are elected to nine-year terms by the UN General Assembly and Security Council, which vote simultaneously but separately. To be elected, a candidate must receive a majority of the votes in both bodies. A third of the court is elected every three years. Four Indians have been members of the ICJ so far. Source: The Guardian Climate change increasing the probability of extreme weather events Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Environment Context: The year 2023 has been confirmed as the hottest year in global temperature records going back to 1850 triggering debates about extreme weather events in the near future. Background: The average global temperature on Earth has increased by at least 1.1 degree Celsius since 1850, primarily due to human activities that have released unprecedented levels of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.The spike in the temperatures has resulted in more frequent and more intense extreme weather events across the world. These events include heat waves, droughts, floods, hurricanes, and wildfires. About the interconnection between climate change and extreme weather events: Extreme heat creates conditions more prone to wildfire and a longer wildfire season by evaporating more moisture from land. According to a 2023 report by Weather Attribution (WWA), climate change more than doubled the likelihood of extreme “fire weather” conditions in Eastern Canada. Warmer air can suck moisture out of the soil, amplifying droughts. Higher temperatures cause evaporation of water not only from land but also oceans and other water bodies, meaning a warmer atmosphere holds more moisture. For every 1 degree Celsius rise in average temperature, the atmosphere can hold about 7% more moisture. This makes storms more dangerous as it leads to an increase in precipitation intensity, duration and/or frequency, which ultimately can cause severe flooding. Oceans have absorbed 90% of the additional heat generated by the greenhouse gas emissions in recent years. Due to this, global mean sea surface temperature has gone up by close to 0.9 degree Celsius since 1850. Higher sea surface temperatures cause marine heat waves, an extreme weather event, which, in turn, makes storms like hurricanes and tropical cyclones more intense. When storms travel across hot oceans, they gather more water vapour and heat. This results in stronger winds, heavier rainfall, and more flooding when storms reach the land. Source: The Indian Express Chenab bridge Syllabus Prelims -Current Event Context: Prime Minister Modi will inaugurate the  Chenab Bridge, the worlds highest single arch railway Bridge. Background: Approved in 2003 and contracted in 2008, after much worries over its safety and stability, the single-arch bridge over River Chenab in J&K passed all its mandatory tests and is set to mark India on the railroad history after two decades of waiting. About Chenab bridge The Bridge spans the Chenab River and has a total length of 1315 m The arch bridge runs between Bakkal and Kauri in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir, and forms a crucial link from Katra to Banihal. It stands at the height of 1,178 feet above the riverbed, making it 35 metres taller than Paris’ tourist icon, the Eiffel Tower. The bridge is part of the Rs 35000 crore Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Railway Link (USBRL) project which aims to boost connectivity in Jammu and Kashmir by providing connectivity in complex topography and weather conditions. The bridge is expected to have a shelf life of around 120 years. It will also be able to withstand winds with speeds up to 260 km/per hour. Source: The Indian Express BUXA TIGER RESERVE Syllabus Prelims- Environment Context: An adult male tiger was recently recorded on a camera trap in Buxa Tiger Reserve in north Bengal after 23 years. Background: There was no direct evidence confirming tiger presence in the reserve since 1998. Ecosystem restoration activities in the Buxa Tiger Reserve, including grassland management, helped bring the tiger back to the protected area, experts say. About Buxa Tiger Reserve: Tiger reserves are protected areas in India that are dedicated to the conservation of tigers and their habitats. They are governed by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) under the Project Tiger scheme, which was launched in 1973. Buxa Tiger Reserve is a tiger reserve and national park in northern West Bengal, India. It is home to a rich diversity of flora and fauna, including tigers, elephants, leopards, gaurs, and many bird species. Buxa Tiger Reserve was created in 1983 as the 15th tiger reserve in India. It is named after the historic Buxa Fort, which was used as a prison and detention camp by the British during the Indian freedom movement. Buxa Tiger Reserve is part of the Terai eco-system, which is a fragile and biodiverse region along the foothills of the Himalayas. It also serves as an international corridor for elephant migration between India and Bhutan. Source: Mongabay CENTRAL ASIAN FLYWAY (CAF) Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: The Fourteenth Meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS COP 14) adopted the Initiative for the Central Asian Flyway introduced by India on February 17, 2024. Background: The CMS holds a Conference of the Parties (COP) every three years, where the member states review the progress and adopt new measures for the conservation of migratory species. The 14th COP was held in Samarkand, Uzbekistan, in February 2024, and it was the first UN wildlife meeting in Central Asia. About Partial Nuclear Test Ban Treaty The Central Asian Flyway (CAF) initiative is a conservation project led by India under the umbrella of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS), which is an international treaty that aims to protect and conserve migratory animals and their habitats. The initiative aims to promote the conservation and sustainable use of migratory waterbirds and their habitats, as well as to enhance cooperation and coordination among the range states and other stakeholders. The Central Asian Flyway (CAF) is a flyway covering a large continental area of Eurasia between the Arctic Ocean and the Indian Ocean and the associated island chains. A flyway is a geographical region within which a single or group of migratory species completes its annual cycle of breeding, moulting, staging and non-breeding. The CAF comprises several important migration routes of waterbirds, most of which extend from the northernmost breeding grounds in Siberia to the southernmost non-breeding wintering grounds in West Asia, India, the Maldives and the British Indian Ocean Territory. The CAF covers 30 countries and at least 279 migratory waterbird populations of 182 species, including 29 globally threatened or near-threatened species. The Central Asian Flyway consists of the following countries: Afghanistan, Armenia, Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, Georgia, India, Iran, Iraq, Kazakhstan, Kuwait, Kyrgyzstan, the Maldives, Mongolia, Myanmar, Nepal, Oman, Pakistan, Qatar, Russian Federation, Saudi Arabia, Sri Lanka, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, United Arab Emirates, United Kingdom (British Indian Ocean Territory), Uzbekistan and Yemen. Source: Down to Earth Marine Heatwaves in the Arctic Ocean Syllabus Mains – GS 1 and 3 Context: A new study has been published in the journal Nature Communications titled- ‘Arctic marine heatwaves forced by greenhouse gases and triggered by abrupt sea-ice melt’, which shows that since 2007, unprecedented Marine Heatwave (MHW) events have occurred over the Arctic Ocean. Background: A A MHW is an extreme weather event. It occurs when the surface temperature of a particular region of the sea rises to 3 or 4 degrees Celsius above the average temperature for at least five days.According to the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), MHWs can last for weeks, months, or even years. Key findings/highlights of the study: There have been 11 Marine Heatwaves (MHWs) events in the Arctic from 2007 to 2021, characterized by prolongedhigh Sea Surface Temperatures (SST). These events coincide with record declines in Arctic Sea ice. In 2022, the Arctic saw severe and extreme marine heatwaves in the Laptev and Beaufort seas from spring to autumn, according to the State of the Global Climate 2022 Report. The perennial sea ice cover over the Arctic Ocean, known to reflect solar radiation, has seen a marked decrease in both summer and winter since the mid-1990s. Since 2007, there has been apronounced regime shift from a thicker and deformed ice cover to a thinner and more uniform one. The thin ice is less durable and melts more quickly, allowing incoming solar radiation to warm the water’s surface. Arctic MHWs primarily occur over marginal seas, including theKara, Laptev, East Siberian, and Chukchi seas. These regions are characterized by shallow mixed-layer depths and predominantly first-year ice cover, creating conditions conducive to MHW development. Without GHGs, marine heatwaves exceeding5°C couldn’t happen. GHGs are a sufficient cause for moderate marine heatwaves, with a 66-99% probability. There is a pronouncedlong-term warming trend in the Arctic, with SST increasing at a rate of 1.2°C per decade from 1996 to 2021. Over the last two decades, there has been an increase in the frequency of extreme SST events in the eastern Arctic marginal seas. Sources : Down To Earth Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements about international Court of Justice: The ICJ is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It is the only one of the six principal organs of the UN that is not located in New York City. Four Indians have been members of the ICJ so far. How many statements given above is/ are correct? 1 only 2 only All the above None of the above Q2.) With reference to Central Asian Flyway (CAF) initiative, consider the following statements: Central Asian Flyway (CAF) initiative is a conservation project led by India under the umbrella of G20 Summit. The CAF comprises several important migration routes of waterbirds extending from the northernmost breeding grounds in Siberia to the southernmost non-breeding wintering grounds in Australia. How many statements given above is/ are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) Consider the following tiger reserves in India: Ranthambore Sunderban Namdapha Buxa How many of the above are located in West Bengal? Only one Only two Only three All four Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  20th February  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  19th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 20th February 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM JANMAN) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: With the 2021 Census indefinitely delayed, the government’s attempt to estimate the total population of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG) across the country is hitting one wall after another. Background:- The information on population is crucial to the implementation of the government’s ₹24,000 crore PM-JANMAN package for PVTGs. About PM JANMAN:- In line with the vision of Antyodaya to empower the last person at the last mile, PM-JANMAN was launched for the socio-economic welfare of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) on 15th November 2023. PM-JANMAN focuses on 11 critical interventions through 9 Ministries aimed to improve socio-economic conditions of the PVTGs by saturating PVTG households and habitations with basic facilities such as safe housing, clean drinking water and sanitation, improved access to education, health and nutrition, electricity, road and telecom connectivity, and sustainable livelihood opportunities. About PVTG: Sub-classification of Scheduled Tribe, who are most vulnerable in certain parameter than other Scheduled Tribe community. In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). The Government of India follows the following criteria for identification of PVTGs: Pre-agricultural level of technology Low level of literacy Economic backwardness A declining or stagnant population. There are total of75 PVTGs in India. Source: The Hindu India sends assistance to cholera-hit Zambia Syllabus Prelims – Geography and Science Context: India on Saturday sent medical and material assistance to Zambia as the southern African country. Background: Zambia has been reeling under an outbreak of cholera over the past few weeks which had prompted a closure of schools in the country. Zambia has been asking for more medical help to deal with the situation that has been described as a “cholera emergency”. About Zambia: Zambia is alandlocked country at the crossroads of Central, Southern and East Africa. The landlocked country has experienced rapid economic growth over the last decade as Africa’s second largest copper producer after the DR Congo. The spectacular Victoria Falls are on Zambia’s border with Zimbabwe About Cholera Cholera is a bacterial disease usually spread through contaminated water. A bacterium called Vibrio cholerae causes cholera infection. The deadly effects of the disease are the result of a toxin the bacteria produces in the small intestine.The toxin causes the body to secrete enormous amounts of water, leading to diarrhea and a rapid loss of fluids and salts (electrolytes). Most people exposed to the cholera bacterium (Vibrio cholerae) don’t become ill and don’t know they’ve been infected. But because they shed cholera bacteria in their stool for seven to 14 days, they can still infect others through contaminated water. Source: The Hindu Rukhmabai Raut Syllabus Prelims : History Context: A new book on the life of Rukhmabai, a child bride who went on to become one of India’s pioneering women doctors was released recently Background: The book, written by academic and writer Sudhir Chandra, claims to shed new light on the “extraordinary but little-known life of the rebel-doctor” who dared to challenge the norms of her time and left behind a formidable legacy. About Rukhmabai: Born in 1864, Rukhmabai was denied formal education and wedded off at 11 years of age to the 19-year-old Dadaji Bhikaji. She, however, continued to stay at the house of her widowed mother, who later got married to Assistant Surgeon Sakharam Arjun Raut. She was supported by her step-father, when she refused to stay with Bhikaji and his family at his house. This led to the Dadaji Bhikaji vs Rukhmabai case, 1885. In 1885, the case of Bhikaji seeking “restitution of conjugal rights” titled “Bhikaji vs. Rukhmabai, 1885” came up for hearing and Judge declared that Rukhmabai had been wed in her “helpless infancy” and that he could not compel a young lady. Appeal was filed against the judgement.First order was overturned and court ordered Rukhmabai to “go live with her husband or face six months of imprisonment”. Rukhmabai responded that she would rather face imprisonment than obey the verdict. In July 1888, a settlement was reached with Bhikaji and he relinquished his claim on Rukhmabai for a payment of two thousand rupees. Ultimately, the publicity and debate generated by this case helped influence the enactment of the “Age of Consent Act” in 1891, which changed the age of consent from 10 to 12 years across British India Source: Scroll EUROPEAN FREE TRADE ASSOCIATION (EFTA) Syllabus Prelims -Current Event Context: Recently, India has rejected the demand of the four-nation European Free Trade Association (EFTA) for ‘data exclusivity’ provisions in the free trade agreement that both sides are negotiating. Background: Data exclusivity provisions will bar generic drug producers from using data of preclinical tests and clinical trials of former patent holders. India and EFTA have been negotiating the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement since January 2008. About European Free Trade Association (EFTA) The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is a regional trade organization and free trade area consisting of four European states: Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland. These countries are not part of the European Union (EU), but they participate in the European Single Market and the Schengen Area. EFTA was established in 1960 as an alternative trade bloc for those European states that were unable or unwilling to join the then European Economic Community (EEC), the main predecessor of the EU. EFTA has signed free trade agreements with many countries around the world, and also cooperates with the EU in various policy areas through the European Economic Area (EEA) Agreement. EFTA’s headquarters are in Geneva, Switzerland. Source: Hindu Businessline OUTER SPACE TREATY Syllabus Prelims and Mains – Science Context: Multiple reports coming in this week said that Russia is making advances in space-based nuclear weapons that are aimed at destroying other satellites, both civilian and military. Background: If Russia were to develop and deploy such a weapon, it would be in violation of the Outer Space Treaty. It will also be in contravention of the Partial Nuclear Test Ban Treaty of 1963 that prohibits nuclear explosions in space. Russia is party to both treaties. About Outer Space Treaty: The Outer Space Treaty is a multilateral treaty that forms the basis of international space law. It was signed in 1967 by the United States, the Soviet Union, and the United Kingdom, and it has 114 parties as of 2024. The treaty prohibits the placement of nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in outer space, and it limits the use of the Moon and other celestial bodies to peaceful purposes only. The treaty also establishes that outer space is the common heritage of all humankind, and that no country can claim sovereignty over any part of it. The treaty aims to promote the exploration and use of outer space for the benefit and interest of all countries, and to prevent any conflict or arms race in space. India became a party to the Outer Space Treaty on January 18, 1982. India signed the treaty on March 3, 1967, but it took about 15 years to complete the ratification process. India is also a party to the Moon Treaty, which further regulates the exploration and use of the Moon and other natural resources in space. Source: The Hindu PARTIAL NUCLEAR TEST BAN TREATY (PTBT) Syllabus Prelims – Science Context: Multiple reports coming in this week said that Russia is making advances in space-based nuclear weapons that are aimed at destroying other satellites, both civilian and military. Background: If Russia were to develop and deploy such a weapon, it would be in violation of Outer Space Treaty as well as the Partial Nuclear Test Ban Treaty of 1963 that prohibits nuclear explosions in space. Russia is party to both treaties. About Partial Nuclear Test Ban Treaty The Partial Nuclear Test Ban Treaty of 1963 (PTBT) was an international treaty that prohibited nuclear weapons tests in the atmosphere, in outer space, and under water. The treaty was signed in 1963 by the United States, the Soviet Union, and the United Kingdom, and it has 126 parties as of 2024. The treaty aimed to reduce the radioactive fallout from nuclear tests and to prevent the escalation of the nuclear arms race. However, the treaty did not ban underground nuclear tests, which continued to be conducted by the nuclear powers and other countries. Indias stand India is not a party to the PTBT, as it refused to sign the treaty on the grounds that it discriminated against non-nuclear weapon states and did not address the issue of nuclear disarmament India also refused to sign the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT), which is a successor to the PTBT that bans all nuclear explosions, including underground tests, for both civilian and military purposes. India argued that the CTBT was not universal, verifiable, or non-discriminatory, and that it did not address the security concerns of India in a nuclearized region. India also maintained that it had a sovereign right to conduct nuclear tests for its national security and that it would not join any treaty that constrained its nuclear options. Source: U N Previous Year Question Q) Consider the following countries: China France India Israel Pakistan Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)? 1 and 2 only 1, 3, 4 and 5 only 2, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Global Innovation Index 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: India retains 40th rank out of 132 economies in the Global Innovation Index 2023 rankings published by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO). Background: The Index is a leading reference for measuring an economy’s innovation ecosystem performance. It is published annually by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO). World Intellectual Property Organisation: It works with the vision of encouraging creative activity and promoting the protection of Intellectual Property throughout the world. It is a self-funding agency of the United Nations, with 193 member states. WIPO is one of the 15 specialised agencies of the United Nations. Key findings of the Global Innovation Index 2023: Switzerland is the most innovative economy in 2023 followed by Sweden, the United States, the United Kingdom, and Singapore. Singapore has entered the top five and has taken the leading position among South East Asia, East Asia, and Oceania (SEAO) region economies. The top science and technology innovation clusters in the world in 2023 are Tokyo–Yokohama, followed by Shenzhen–Hong Kong–Guangzhou, Seoul, Beijing, and Shanghai-Suzhou. China now has the largest number of clusters in the world, overtaking the United States. Key findings related to India: India secured the 40th position in the latest GII 2023, showcasing a remarkable climb from the 81st spot in 2015. It underscores India’s consistent and substantial growth in innovation over the past eight years. India secured the top position among the 37 lower-middle-income countries and led among the 10 economies in Central and South America. Key indicators affirmed India’s robust innovation landscape, including significant rankings in ICT services exports, venture capital received, graduates in science and engineering, and global corporate research and development investors. Compared to China’s 24 and the US’s 21, India has only 4 science and technology clusters among the world’s top 100. These are Chennai, Bengaluru, Mumbai and Delhi. India’s progress is attributed to its abundant knowledge capital and a thriving startup ecosystem, along with commendable efforts from public and private research organizations. Certain areas necessitate improvement, particularly infrastructure, business sophistication, and institutions. To bridge these gaps, NITI Aayog is actively working to promote policy-led innovation in crucial sectors such as electric vehicles, biotechnology, nanotechnology, space, and alternative energy sources. Sources : WIPO Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following countries: Iceland France Liechtenstein Norway Germany Switzerland How many of the above are the members of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA)? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q2.) With reference to Outer Space Treaty, consider the following statements: The Outer Space Treaty is a multilateral treaty that forms the basis of international space law. Treaty prohibits the placement of nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in outer space. India became a party to the Outer Space Treaty in 2023. How many statements given above is/are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.) Which among the following international treaties is India a member of? Outer Space Treaty Partial Nuclear Test Ban Treaty Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  19th February  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  17th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b